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UPPSC Prelims 1999 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 148 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

148
Questions
6
Subjects
2
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History3624%
  • Geography3222%
  • Science and Technology2920%
  • Polity and Governance2215%
  • Economy1913%
  • Art and Culture107%
1History
The epigraphical evidence reveals that under the instructions of a Nanda king, a canal was dug in:
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Answer: (C) Kalinga

Explanation

The Hathigumpha inscription, located in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar, provides the primary epigraphical evidence for this event. Issued by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty in the 1st or 2nd century BCE, the inscription records that a Nanda king, generally identified as Mahapadma Nanda, had excavated a canal in Kalinga three hundred years prior to Kharavela's reign. The text mentions that Kharavela later extended this canal, which had been brought into the city of Tanasuliya by the Nanda ruler, into his own capital. This inscription is a crucial historical source that confirms the Nanda dynasty's conquest of Kalinga and their early efforts in developing irrigation infrastructure within the region.

2History
Who among the following wanted to become the leader of the Sangha even during the life time of Buddha?
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Answer: (A) Davadatta

Explanation

Devadatta was a cousin and brother-in-law of Gautama Buddha who joined the Sangha but eventually became his primary rival due to intense personal ambition. According to the Vinaya Pitaka, as the Buddha reached old age, Devadatta approached him at the Veluvana monastery in Rajgir and requested that the leadership of the Sangha be handed over to him. The Buddha sternly refused the proposal, famously remarking that he would not hand over the leadership even to his chief disciples Sariputta or Moggallana, let alone to someone like Devadatta. This rejection led Devadatta to attempt to create a schism within the Buddhist order and reportedly prompted him to plot several unsuccessful assassination attempts against the Buddha with the help of King Ajatashatru of Magadha.

3History
King Asvapati of the Upanishadic period was the ruler of:
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Answer: (B) Kekaya

Explanation

King Asvapati was a renowned philosopher-king of the Later Vedic period who ruled over the kingdom of Kekaya, located in the north-western part of the Indian subcontinent between the Gandhara and Beas rivers. He is prominently featured in the Chandogya Upanishad and the Satapatha Brahmana as a master of spiritual wisdom. Asvapati is best known for providing instruction on the nature of the Vaishvanara Atman (the Universal Soul) to five learned Brahmins, including the famous sage Uddalaka Aruni, who sought him out for his superior metaphysical knowledge. His role signifies a period in ancient Indian history where Kshatriya rulers significantly contributed to the development of Upanishadic thought and often served as spiritual mentors to the priestly class.

4Art and Culture
Which one of the following Upanishad's contains the dialogue of Nachiketa and Yama on spiritual knowledge?
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Answer: (C) Katha upanishad

Explanation

The Katha Upanishad contains the famous philosophical dialogue between the young seeker Nachiketa and Yama, the God of Death. The narrative begins with Nachiketa being sent to the abode of Yama, where he waits for three days without food. To compensate for this neglect, Yama grants him three boons. For his third boon, Nachiketa asks for knowledge regarding the nature of the soul (Atman) and life after death. Yama's discourse to Nachiketa covers essential spiritual concepts, including the distinction between the path of worldly pleasure (Preya) and the path of spiritual good (Shreya), the immortality of the self, and the realization of Brahman. This text is one of the most widely studied Upanishads due to its clear explanation of the purpose of human life and the path to liberation.

5History
The Vedic river Kubha is to be located in:
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Answer: (A) Afghanistan

Explanation

The river Kubha, mentioned in the Rigveda, is identified with the modern-day Kabul river. It is one of the several rivers located in the territory of present-day Afghanistan that the early Vedic people were familiar with, along with others like the Krumu (Kurram), Gomati (Gomal), and Suvastu (Swat). The mention of these rivers in the Vedic hymns indicates that the geographical horizon of the Rigvedic Aryans extended to the regions of eastern Afghanistan and the North-West Frontier.

6Art and Culture
Anwar-i-Suhaili is a translation of:
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Answer: (A) Panchtantra

Explanation

Anwar-i-Suhaili, meaning The Lights of Canopus, is a 15th-century Persian adaptation of the Sanskrit animal fables known as the Panchatantra. It was authored by Husayn ibn Ali Wa'iz al-Kashifi, a scholar and poet from the Timurid era. The work is a simplified and more ornate version of the earlier Kalila wa-Dimna, which itself was the Arabic and Middle Persian translation of the original Indian text. During the Mughal period in India, the text gained significant importance; Emperor Akbar commissioned a simpler version of the Anwar-i-Suhaili called Iyar-i-Danish (The Criterion of Knowledge) to ensure the moral and political lessons of the Panchatantra were more easily understood by his administration. The text is celebrated for its didactic stories and was frequently the subject of elaborate Mughal miniature paintings.

7History
Who amongst the following Generals of Alauddin Khilji, ultimately became the first Sultan of Tughluq dynasty?
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Answer: (A) Ghazi Malik

Explanation

Ghazi Malik served as a prominent military commander and the Governor of Dipalpur during the reign of Alauddin Khilji. He was a seasoned frontier warrior who earned distinction for his successful defense of the Delhi Sultanate against numerous Mongol invasions, which helped him consolidate significant military power and influence. Following the period of political instability that followed Alauddin Khilji's death and the brief, controversial reign of Khusrau Khan, Ghazi Malik led a coalition of nobles to overthrow the usurper in 1320. Upon his victory, he was acclaimed as the sovereign and ascended the throne of Delhi as Ghiyasuddin Tughluq, thereby founding the Tughluq dynasty.

8History
Who was that General whom the Sultan of Bijapur sent in 1659 to suppress Shivaji?
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Answer: (B) Afzal Khan

Explanation

Afzal Khan was a distinguished general and commander of the Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur. In 1659, the Sultanate grew concerned over Shivaji Maharaj's increasing influence and capture of various forts in the Deccan region. Ali Adil Shah II and the Queen Mother, Bari Sahiba, commissioned Afzal Khan to lead a massive expedition to either capture or kill Shivaji. Afzal Khan set out from Bijapur with a powerful force of cavalry, infantry, and artillery. The campaign led to the famous meeting at the foot of Pratapgad Fort in November 1659. During a private parley, Afzal Khan attempted to kill Shivaji by strangulation while embracing him, but Shivaji was prepared with concealed armor and weapons. Shivaji killed Afzal Khan using a wagh nakh (tiger claws) and a bichwa (dagger), which subsequently led to the rout of the Bijapur army at the Battle of Pratapgad.

9History
Who among the following issued the Communal Award?
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Answer: (A) Ramsay Mac Donald

Explanation

The Communal Award was announced by British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald on August 16, 1932, following the deadlock in the Second Round Table Conference regarding minority representation. The award established separate electorates for various minority communities in India, including Muslims, Sikhs, Europeans, and Indian Christians. Crucially, it also recognized the Depressed Classes as a separate minority community entitled to separate electorates, which was a significant extension of the British policy of communal representation. This decision led to Mahatma Gandhi undertaking a fast unto death in protest, which eventually resulted in the signing of the Poona Pact between Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar to ensure reserved seats for the Depressed Classes within the general Hindu electorate instead of separate electorates.

10Geography
Which one of the following countries has the highest population growth rate:
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Answer: (C) Philippines

Explanation

During the late 1990s, the Philippines maintained one of the highest population growth rates in Southeast Asia, averaging approximately 2.3 percent per year. This high growth was sustained by a high total fertility rate, which remained well above the replacement level, and a strong cultural and religious opposition to modern family planning initiatives. Demographic data from the 1995-2000 period confirms that the natural increase in the Philippines significantly outpaced the growth rates of its regional neighbors and developed nations in the same category.

11Geography
Today the migrant population as percentage of total population is the highest in:
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Answer: (C) U.A.E.

Explanation

The United Arab Emirates experienced a massive influx of foreign labor following the oil boom, which necessitated a large workforce for infrastructure, construction, and service sectors that the small native population could not provide. By the late 1990s, the UAE had one of the highest proportions of international migrants in the world, with non-nationals making up approximately 70 percent to 80 percent of its total population. This demographic structure was driven by the demand for both high-skilled and low-skilled expatriate workers primarily from South Asia, Southeast Asia, and other Arab nations, making the migrant share of the population significantly higher than in any other country during that period.

12GeographyUttar Pradesh-specific
In August, 1998, Malpa village in Pithoragarh district of Uttar Pradesh was in news for the death of over 200 persons due to:
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Answer: (C) Landslide

Explanation

The Malpa village tragedy in August 1998 was one of the most devastating natural disasters in the Himalayan region, caused by a series of massive landslides in the Pithoragarh district. Triggered by extreme monsoon rainfall, the landslides buried the entire village under rock and debris, leading to the deaths of over 200 people. The victims included 60 pilgrims who were on the Kailash Mansarovar Yatra, as well as the renowned Odissi dancer Protima Bedi. The disaster occurred due to the fragile geological structure of the Kumaon Himalayas, where steep slopes are highly prone to debris flows and rockfalls during periods of heavy precipitation.

13Geography
The largest urban agglomeration of the world is:
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Answer: (D) Tokyo-Yokohama

Explanation

By the late 1990s, the Tokyo-Yokohama urban agglomeration, often referred to as the Greater Tokyo Area, was recognized by the United Nations and other demographic institutions as the most populous metropolitan area in the world. Its population during this period exceeded 30 million people, a figure significantly higher than that of any other global megacity. This massive urban expanse integrates the city of Tokyo with Yokohama and several surrounding prefectures like Chiba, Saitama, and Kanagawa into a single, contiguous socioeconomic unit. The region achieved this status through rapid post-war industrialization and highly efficient transportation networks, particularly its extensive rail system, which allowed for extreme levels of urban density and geographic expansion. This dominance in population size remained consistent throughout the final decades of the 20th century.

14Geography
The largest migrant population is found in:
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Answer: (C) Europe

Explanation

In the late 1990s, demographic data from the United Nations and other international organizations identified Europe as the region hosting the largest total number of international migrants. According to figures available around 1999, Europe was home to more than 50 million migrants, representing nearly one-third of the global migrant stock. This high concentration was the result of long-standing historical migration patterns, including post-colonial immigration, labor recruitment during the mid-20th century, and a significant surge in movement within the continent following the end of the Cold War. The collapse of the Soviet Union and regional conflicts in the Balkans triggered large-scale population shifts, while the economic integration of the European Union encouraged mobility across national borders, solidifying the continent's position as the primary destination for the world's migrant population during this period.

15Geography
According to the 1991 Census the state showing the lowest annual rate of population growth in India during 1981-90 was:
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Answer: (D) Kerala

Explanation

Kerala recorded the lowest decadal population growth rate in India during the period 1981-1991, as per the 1991 Census data. The state registered a growth rate of 14.32 percent, which was significantly lower than the national average of 23.87 percent. This demographic achievement was primarily attributed to Kerala's high levels of social development, particularly in female literacy, improved healthcare facilities, and the early success of family welfare programs. These factors facilitated a faster transition to low birth and death rates compared to other Indian states during that decade.

16Geography
The concept of ecosystem was propounded by:
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Answer: (A) A.G.Tansley

Explanation

The term ecosystem was first proposed by the British botanist Arthur George Tansley in 1935. In his landmark paper titled The Use and Abuse of Vegetational Concepts and Terms, Tansley defined the ecosystem as the whole system, including not only the organism-complex but also the whole complex of physical factors forming what we call the environment. He emphasized that these components function together as a unified whole, representing a fundamental unit of nature where living organisms interact with their abiotic surroundings. This concept provided a theoretical framework for studying the flow of energy and the cycling of nutrients between the biotic and abiotic parts of the environment.

17Geography
The father of ecology is:
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Answer: (A) Ernst Haeckel

Explanation

Ernst Haeckel, a German biologist and philosopher, is credited with coining the term ecology in 1866. He derived the word from the Greek roots oikos, meaning house or dwelling, and logos, meaning study. In his work Generelle Morphologie der Organismen, Haeckel defined ecology as the study of the relationship of the organism to the environment, including all the conditions of existence. By providing the first formal definition and establishing the nomenclature for the scientific study of interactions between living organisms and their physical and biological surroundings, he is traditionally recognized as the father of ecology.

18Geography
The level of pollution in the food chain, based on estimates of DDT concentration in aquatic environment increases in the following sequence:
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Answer: (B) Water plant, snail, fish, bird

Explanation

Biomagnification refers to the process where the concentration of a non-biodegradable, fat-soluble substance like DDT increases progressively at each successive trophic level in a food chain. In an aquatic environment, water plants serve as the primary producers and represent the base of the chain, containing the lowest levels of the chemical absorbed from the water. Snails, as primary consumers or herbivores, feed on these plants and accumulate the pesticide in their tissues. Small fish or fish that eat snails occupy a higher trophic level and therefore concentrate the toxin further. At the apex of this specific food chain are fish-eating birds, which act as top predators. These birds consume large quantities of fish throughout their lives, leading to the highest concentration of DDT in their bodies due to the cumulative nature of the pollutant moving up the pyramid of biomass.

19Geography
Assertion (A): China's growth of population has dramatically slowed down. Reason (R): Its fertility rate has declined due to one child per family policy.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

China introduced its one child per family policy in 1979 as a rigorous population control measure to manage its massive demographic expansion. By the late 1990s, this policy had successfully driven the total fertility rate down from approximately 5.8 children per woman in the early 1970s to below the replacement level of 2.1. This sharp reduction in fertility led to a significant deceleration in the crude birth rate and the overall natural growth rate of the population. Therefore, the implementation of the restrictive reproductive policy directly caused the dramatic slowdown in China's population growth observed during the final decades of the 20th century.

20Geography
Assertion (A): Two per cent of the worlds people live outside their country of birth. Reason (R): Oceania has the highest percentage of migrants.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Assertion (A) is false because demographic data from the late 1990s, provided by the United Nations Population Division, indicated that approximately 3% of the worlds total population lived outside their country of birth. With a global population of around 6 billion in 1999, the number of international migrants was estimated to be between 150 million and 175 million, making the 2% figure an underestimate. Reason (R) is true because Oceania consistently records the highest percentage of migrants relative to its total population. This is primarily driven by Australia and New Zealand, where the migrant stock as a percentage of the population was significantly higher than in any other major world region, often exceeding 17% during that period.

21Geography
Which of the following statements are true? Select the correct answer from the codes given below: I. West Bengal is the most densely populated state of India. II. Arunachal Pradesh is the least densely populated state of India III. During 1981-91 Uttar Pradesh recorded a decadal population growth rate of 25-36 percent.
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Answer: (D) I, II and III

Explanation

According to the 1991 Census data, which was the relevant demographic record until 2001, West Bengal was the most densely populated state in India with a density of 767 persons per square kilometer. Arunachal Pradesh was the least densely populated state during the same period, recording a density of only 10 persons per square kilometer. Furthermore, the decadal population growth rate for Uttar Pradesh between 1981 and 1991 was recorded at 25.48 percent, fitting the statistical data provided for that census decade.

22Geography
According to the 1991 Census, the least densely populated states of India in ascending order are:
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim and Naga-land

Explanation

Based on the 1991 Census of India, the population density is calculated as the number of persons per square kilometer of land area. Arunachal Pradesh had the lowest density in the country at 10 persons per square kilometer. Mizoram was the next least densely populated state with 33 persons per square kilometer. Sikkim followed with a density of 57 persons per square kilometer, and Nagaland recorded 73 persons per square kilometer. Arranging these figures from the lowest value to the highest yields the specific sequence of Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Sikkim, and Nagaland.

23Polity and Governance
According to the 1991 Census, the correct descending order of the states in terms of population is:
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Answer: (C) U.P., Bihar, Maharashtra and West Bengal

Explanation

According to the 1991 Census data, Uttar Pradesh was the most populous state in India with a population of approximately 139.1 million. Bihar followed as the second most populous state, recording a population of about 86.4 million. Maharashtra held the third rank with a population of nearly 78.9 million, while West Bengal stood at the fourth position among these major states with a population of approximately 68.1 million. These figures represent the state populations prior to the territorial changes that occurred in 2000, when Bihar and Uttar Pradesh were bifurcated to create Jharkhand and Uttarakhand respectively. The distribution of population across these regions reflects the historical demographic trends observed during the final decade of the twentieth century.

24Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Insulation is the most important source of energy for the biospheric ecosystem. Reason (R): Solar radiation is converted into food and chemical energy by green plants.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Insolation, or incoming solar radiation, is the fundamental energy input for the Earth biospheric ecosystem. It provides the necessary thermal and light energy required to sustain life and drive climatic processes. Green plants, acting as primary producers, utilize this solar radiation through the process of photosynthesis to synthesize organic compounds. During this process, light energy is converted into chemical energy and stored in the form of food. This energy then flows through various trophic levels of the food chain, supporting herbivores, carnivores, and decomposers. Because the conversion of solar radiation into chemical energy by plants is the specific mechanism that allows the biosphere to utilize sun energy, the reasoning directly explains why insolation is the most important energy source.

25Geography
Which one of the following statements is true for synecology?
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Answer: (B) It is a study of complex interrelationship of biotic communities.

Explanation

Synecology is the branch of ecology that investigates the structure, development, and distribution of ecological communities. It involves the study of groups of organisms of different species that live together as a unit in a specific geographic area, focusing on how these diverse populations interact with one another and with their common environment. This field examines complex processes such as energy flow, nutrient cycling, and community dynamics, treating the biotic community as an integrated whole. By analyzing the collective behavior and interactions of various populations within an ecosystem, synecology provides insights into the functional organization of nature at the community level.

26Economy
Since the advent of Planning era in India, the share of agriculture sector in GDP has:
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Answer: (A) continued to decline

Explanation

At the inception of the planning era in 1950-51, the agriculture sector was the backbone of the Indian economy, contributing approximately 53 percent to the Gross Domestic Product. As India progressed through successive Five-Year Plans, the economy underwent a structural transformation characterized by faster growth rates in the industrial and service sectors compared to the primary sector. While agricultural output increased in absolute terms due to initiatives like the Green Revolution, its relative contribution to the national income followed a consistent downward trajectory. By the late 1990s, the share of agriculture in the GDP had declined to roughly 25 percent, reflecting the typical developmental transition of an economy moving from an agrarian base toward industrialization and a service-oriented structure.

27Economy
The largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Govt. Budget is:
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Answer: (C) Interest payment

Explanation

Interest payments represent the largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government budget because they are a mandatory, committed obligation arising from the servicing of accumulated internal and external debt. During the late 1990s, persistent fiscal deficits led to substantial borrowing, causing interest payments to consume nearly one-third of the total revenue receipts and over 25 percent of the total revenue expenditure. This component consistently remained higher than any other expenditure category within the revenue budget, reflecting the high cost of historical debt accumulation on the government's current finances.

28Polity and Governance
National Water Development Agency was established in the year:
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Answer: (A) 1982

Explanation

The National Water Development Agency (NWDA) was established in July 1982 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Water Resources, Government of India. It was registered under the Societies Registration Act, 1860, following the recommendations of the National Perspective Plan for Water Resources Development. The agency's primary mandate is to carry out detailed studies, surveys, and investigations for the feasibility of inter-basin water transfer proposals. This involves evaluating the transfer of water from surplus basins to water-deficit basins through the interlinking of rivers in both the Peninsular and Himalayan components to optimize irrigation, drinking water supply, and power generation across the country.

29Economy
Which among the following does not have a 'free trade zone'?
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Answer: (D) Thiruvanantapuram

Explanation

Thiruvanantapuram did not have an established Free Trade Zone (FTZ) or Export Processing Zone (EPZ) as of 1999. In Kerala, the primary facility for export-oriented production was the Cochin Export Processing Zone (CEPZ), which was set up in 1984 to provide a duty-free environment for trade and manufacturing. Although Thiruvanantapuram saw the development of Technopark in the early 1990s, it was designated as a Software Technology Park (STP) focusing specifically on the electronics and information technology sectors, rather than being a general Free Trade Zone intended for a broad range of industrial and commercial export activities.

30Economy
Which among the following organisations are responsible for canalising export and import of India? I. Mineral and Metal Trading Corporation II. Exim Bank III. State Trading Corporation IV. Food Corporation of India
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Answer: (A) I, II, III, and IV

Explanation

Canalisation is a trade mechanism where the government restricts the import and export of specific commodities to designated state-owned agencies to ensure price stability, leverage bulk buying power, and maintain strategic reserves. The Mineral and Metal Trading Corporation (MMTC) and the State Trading Corporation (STC) are the primary agencies responsible for the canalised trade of various minerals, metals, and essential consumer goods like oils and fertilizers. The Food Corporation of India (FCI) serves as the specialized canalising agency for the international trade of food grains such as wheat and rice, which is critical for national food security and the management of the buffer stock. The Export-Import Bank of India (Exim Bank) complements this framework by canalising the necessary export credits and financial instruments required to facilitate these state-mandated trade flows, providing the institutional financial backing for large-scale external transactions.

31Polity and Governance
Which of the following articles of the Constitution of India have been declared by the Supreme court as the 'Inviolable basic structure' of the Constitution? Select the correct answer for the code given below: 1. Article 32 2. Article 226 3. Article 227 4. Article 245
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India has identified specific provisions that constitute the basic structure of the Constitution, which cannot be destroyed or abrogated by the Parliament through amendments. In the landmark judgment of L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India (1997), the Court explicitly declared that the power of judicial review and superintendence vested in the High Courts under Articles 226 and 227, and in the Supreme Court under Article 32, forms an integral and essential feature of the Constitution. Article 32 provides the right to constitutional remedies for the enforcement of fundamental rights. Article 226 empowers High Courts to issue writs for the enforcement of rights, while Article 227 grants them the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their jurisdiction. These provisions ensure the maintenance of the rule of law and the protection of civil liberties, placing them within the inviolable basic structure.

32Economy
Which one of the following is not part of the Indian capital market:
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Answer: (D) RBI

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central bank and the supreme monetary authority of the country. Its primary functions include regulating the banking system, issuing currency, and managing the money market, which deals with short-term funds and instruments with a maturity of up to one year. In the Indian financial structure, the capital market is the market for long-term debt and equity shares, and it is primarily regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). As the regulator of the money market and the overall monetary policy, the RBI stands outside the capital market framework, which consists of financial institutions, stock exchanges, and intermediaries that facilitate long-term industrial and commercial finance.

33Economy
Which one of the following is not true for the 'Euro' in 1999:
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Answer: (D) It is in circulation

Explanation

The Euro was officially launched on January 1, 1999, as an electronic currency used for accounting purposes and non-cash transactions among the initial eleven member states of the European Monetary Union. During this transitional phase, which lasted from 1999 to the end of 2001, the Euro existed only as scriptural money or book money, meaning it was used for banking, electronic transfers, and financial markets. Physical Euro banknotes and coins did not enter public circulation until January 1, 2002. Therefore, in 1999, the currency lacked a physical form and was not circulating as tangible cash for everyday consumer use.

34Economy
Since the economic reforms were launched in India, which one of the following statements is true for Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) of the commercial banks?
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Answer: (D) Both SLR and CRR have been reduced

Explanation

Following the initiation of economic reforms in 1991, the Reserve Bank of India implemented the recommendations of the Narasimham Committee on Financial System to improve the efficiency and profitability of the banking sector. A primary goal of these reforms was to move away from the high pre-emption of bank resources by the government. Prior to 1991, the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) and the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) were maintained at very high levels to finance fiscal deficits and control inflation. Under the reform process, the SLR was phased down from its peak of 38.5 percent to the then statutory minimum of 25 percent by 1997. Simultaneously, the CRR was also gradually reduced from its high of 15 percent to increase the availability of loanable funds for the productive sectors of the economy. This synchronized reduction in both ratios was designed to promote financial liberalization and allow banks greater autonomy in credit allocation.

35Polity and Governance
Assertion (A): India is not a federation. Reason (R): Union Parliament has power to alter the area, boundary and name of any state even without its consent.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Indian Constitution describes India as a Union of States under Article 1 rather than a federation. Constitutional experts like K.C. Wheare have categorized India as quasi-federal due to its strong centralizing tendencies and unitary features. A primary example of this is found in Article 3, which grants the Union Parliament the exclusive power to create new states or alter the name, area, and boundaries of existing states. Although the President must refer such a bill to the concerned state legislature for its opinion, the Parliament is not bound by that opinion and can proceed even without the state's consent. This demonstrates that the territorial integrity of states is not guaranteed, making India an indestructible union of destructible states, which contradicts the classic federal principle where the identity and territory of constituent units are typically protected from unilateral central action.

36Polity and Governance
Freedom of inter-state trade and commerce is regulated by the Indian Constitution under Article:
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Answer: (C) 301 to 307

Explanation

Part XIII of the Constitution of India, comprising Articles 301 to 307, contains the comprehensive provisions governing trade, commerce, and intercourse within the territory of India. While Article 301 declares the general principle that trade and commerce throughout the country shall be free, the subsequent articles provide the regulatory framework for this freedom. Articles 302 and 304 empower the Parliament and State Legislatures, respectively, to impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the public interest. Article 303 prohibits the Union and the States from giving preference to one State over another in trade and commerce matters, except in cases of scarcity. Additionally, Article 307 provides for the appointment of an authority to carry out the purposes of these articles. Consequently, the entire range of Articles 301 to 307 regulates the constitutional balance between the freedom of inter-state trade and the power of the government to regulate it.

37Polity and Governance
Which of the following enabled the Supreme Court of India to deduce a fundamental right to equal pay for equal work:
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Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c) all read together

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India, in the landmark judgment of Randhir Singh v. Union of India (1982), derived the principle of equal pay for equal work by applying a cumulative interpretation of several constitutional provisions. Although Article 39(d) places this principle under the Directive Principles of State Policy, the Court held that it carries the weight of a fundamental right when interpreted through the lens of the Preamble and the equality clauses. The term socialist in the Preamble implies a system that aims to eliminate inequality in status and income while ensuring socio-economic justice. This objective is given concrete shape by Article 14, which guarantees equality before the law and prohibits arbitrary state action, and Article 16, which ensures equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. By reading these provisions together, the Court concluded that the Constitution mandates equal treatment for those performing identical work under similar conditions, thereby making the principle enforceable as a fundamental right.

38Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Schedules of the Constitution): (A) 4th (B) 6th (C) 8th (D) 9th List-II (Subject-matter): 1. Land Reforms 2. Language 3. Council of States 4. Tribal areas
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Answer: (A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Explanation

4th Schedule = Rajya Sabha seat allocation (Council of States/3). 6th Schedule = Tribal areas administration (4). 8th Schedule = recognized languages (2). 9th Schedule = land reform laws (1). Correct: A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 = Option A. Original had no option matching this; corrected.

39Economy
The expected GDP growth rate for 1998-99 is:
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Answer: (D) 5.8%

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of India 1998-99, the advance estimates released by the Central Statistical Organisation (CSO) projected the real GDP growth rate for the financial year 1998-99 at 5.8 percent. This growth forecast represented a significant recovery from the 5.0 percent growth recorded in 1997-98. The improved performance was largely attributed to a strong rebound in the agricultural and allied sectors, which were estimated to grow by 5.3 percent during that period after having experienced negative growth in the previous year. Additionally, the services sector continued to show resilience, contributing to the overall 5.8 percent expectation.

40Economy
Since the start of Planning in India, the total number of years not covered by any five year Plans is:
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Answer: (A) 6

Explanation

The period since the beginning of planning in India in 1951 has seen three distinct intervals where Five Year Plans were not in operation. The first gap occurred from 1966 to 1969, known as the Plan Holiday, which consisted of three annual plans following the Third Five Year Plan due to economic instability caused by war and drought. The second gap was in 1979-1980 during a period of political transition; while the Fifth Plan was terminated in 1978 and a Rolling Plan was proposed for 1978-1983, the subsequent government officially designated 1980-1985 as the Sixth Plan, leaving 1979-1980 as a single interim year. The third gap occurred between 1990 and 1992, where two annual plans were implemented due to a severe balance of payments crisis and political shifts. Summing these intervals of three years, one year, and two years results in a total of 6 years without a Five Year Plan.

41History
In course of pilgrimage, Emperor Ashoka visited the following places. Which route did he follow. Select the correct answer from the code given below: 1. Gaya 2. Kapilavastu 3. Kusinagar 4. Lumbini 5. Sarnath 6. Sravasti
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Answer: (D) 4, 2, 1, 5, 6 and 3

Explanation

The pilgrimage route followed by Emperor Ashoka, as detailed in the Buddhist text Ashokavadana, was undertaken under the guidance of the monk Upagupta. This journey was designed to visit the major sites associated with the life of the Buddha in their chronological and biographical order:

Lumbini (4): The birthplace of Siddhartha Gautama. Kapilavastu (2): The Shakya capital where he spent his childhood and youth. Gaya (1): Specifically Bodh Gaya, the site where he attained Enlightenment under the Bodhi tree. Sarnath (5): The location of his first sermon, known as the Turning of the Wheel of Dharma. Sravasti (6): The city where the Buddha performed the Great Miracle and spent the majority of his monastic life (rainy seasons). Kusinagar (3): The site of his Mahaparinirvana (death).

This sequence (4, 2, 1, 5, 6, 3) traces the life of the Buddha from birth to death. While Ashoka's own inscriptions (such as Rock Edict VIII) mention a visit to Bodh Gaya in his 10th regnal year, the specific "pilgrimage" described in literary traditions follows this biographical narrative.

42History
Ellora caves were built by:
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Answer: (C) Rashtrakutas

Explanation

The Ellora Caves, located in the Aurangabad district of Maharashtra, were primarily constructed under the patronage of the Rashtrakuta dynasty between the 6th and 10th centuries CE. This site is renowned for its 34 monasteries and temples representing Buddhism, Hinduism, and Jainism, illustrating the religious harmony of the period. The most significant architectural feat at Ellora is the Kailasa temple in Cave 16, a massive monolithic structure carved from a single rock. This masterpiece was commissioned by the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the 8th century and remains one of the most remarkable examples of rock-cut architecture in the world.

43History
The most often described river in the initial Vedic literature is:
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Answer: (A) Sindhu

Explanation

The Sindhu, or Indus river, is the most frequently mentioned river in the Rigveda, which is the oldest and most significant text of the initial Vedic literature. It was the central geographical feature for the early Vedic Aryans, who inhabited the region of the Sapta-Sindhu (Land of the Seven Rivers). The river was celebrated for its size, power, and abundance, appearing in numerous hymns where its importance to the socio-economic life of the people is clearly emphasized. While other rivers were revered for their sanctity, the Sindhu holds the distinction of having the highest frequency of descriptive references throughout the text.

44History
The Brahama Samaj is based on the principle of:
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Answer: (C) Monotheism

Explanation

The Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828, was fundamentally based on the principle of monotheism. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a staunch advocate for the worship of one single, formless God and sought to reform Hindu society by returning to the monotheistic roots found in the Upanishads. As early as 1803, he published Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin (A Gift to Monotheists), which argued that belief in a single Supreme Being is the natural basis of all religions. The Brahmo Samaj rejected idol worship and the plurality of gods, emphasizing instead the adoration of the Eternal, Unsearchable, and Immutable Being who is the Author and Preserver of the Universe. This theological stance was reflected in the Samaj’s prayer services, which focused on the meditation and praise of the one true God without the use of images or icons.

45History
The ancient form of modern Devanagari script is:
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Answer: (B) Brahmi

Explanation

Brahmi is the ancestral script from which nearly all modern Indian writing systems, including Devanagari, are derived. It appeared in its most prominent early form in the 3rd century BCE inscriptions of Emperor Ashoka. Over centuries, Brahmi underwent stylistic and structural evolutions, transitioning through the Gupta script in the 4th and 5th centuries CE. By the 7th or 8th century CE, this evolved into the Nagari script, which is the direct predecessor of Devanagari. Devanagari inherited the phonetic organization and alphabetical structure of Brahmi while developing its own distinctive features, such as the characteristic horizontal bar known as the shirorekha. It eventually became the standardized script for writing Sanskrit, Hindi, and various other North Indian languages.

46Art and Culture
The followers of Ramanuja are known as:
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Answer: (B) Vaishnavitesi

Explanation

Ramanuja was a preeminent theologian and philosopher of the Sri Vaishnavism tradition, advocating for the school of Vishishtadvaita or qualified monism. His teachings centered on the path of Bhakti, specifically directed toward Lord Vishnu and his consort Lakshmi. Ramanuja maintained that the ultimate reality is a personal god with infinite auspicious attributes, and that the individual soul finds liberation through total surrender and devotion to Vishnu. As the chief organizer and rejuvenator of the Sri Vaishnava community, his religious lineage and its adherents are exclusively devoted to the worship of Vishnu, thus making them Vaishnavites. His influence was foundational to the medieval Bhakti movement, bridging the gap between intellectual Vedanta and popular devotional practice.

47Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the most ancient musical instrument?
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Answer: (D) Veena

Explanation

The Veena is one of the most ancient stringed instruments of India, with roots tracing back to the Vedic period. Mention of the Veena is found in the Rigveda and other ancient Sanskrit literature dating back to approximately 1500 BCE. It is traditionally associated with Saraswati, the Hindu goddess of learning and the arts, and is depicted in temple sculptures and ancient coins, such as those from the Gupta Empire. While other stringed and percussion instruments underwent significant evolution or were introduced during the medieval period through Persian influence, the Veena remains a primary instrument of the ancient Indian classical music tradition, representing the oldest lineage of chordophones in the subcontinent.

48History
Adi Shankar who later on became Shankaracharya was born in:
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Answer: (B) Kerala

Explanation

Adi Shankaracharya, the philosopher and theologian who consolidated the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta, was born in the 8th century CE at Kaladi. This village is situated on the banks of the Periyar River in present-day Kerala. Born into a Nambudiri Brahmin family, he is credited with reviving Hinduism and establishing four major monastic institutions, or mathas, across the Indian subcontinent to propagate the philosophy of non-dualism. His birth in the southern region of India remains a foundational fact in the history of Indian philosophy and spirituality.

49Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution puts absolute limitation on the legislative power?
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Answer: (A) Article 14

Explanation

Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. This Article acts as a foundational restriction on the legislative power of the State by prohibiting class legislation and ensuring that any classification made by a law must be reasonable, non-arbitrary, and based on an intelligible differentia having a rational nexus to the object sought to be achieved. By establishing the Rule of Law and the principle of non-arbitrariness, Article 14 ensures that the legislature cannot enact laws that discriminate between individuals similarly situated, thereby imposing a constitutional limitation on the exercise of legislative authority.

50Polity and Governance
A Constitution (Amendment) Act may be declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court of India if it:
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Answer: (B) removes Right of Equality before the law from Part III and places it elsewhere in the Constitution

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India established the Doctrine of Basic Structure in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973). This doctrine asserts that while Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy those features that form the essential foundation or basic structure of the Constitution. The Right to Equality, particularly Equality before the Law as provided in Article 14, is considered a fundamental component of the Rule of Law and an indispensable part of the basic structure. Moving such a right out of Part III would undermine the core constitutional identity and the protection of judicial review guaranteed under Article 32, rendering such an amendment unconstitutional.

51Geography
Which strait separates Europe from Africa:
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Answer: (B) Gibraltar

Explanation

The Strait of Gibraltar is the narrow waterway that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the Mediterranean Sea and serves as the primary geographical boundary between the continents of Europe and Africa. Located between the Iberian Peninsula in the north and the Maghreb region of North Africa in the south, the strait is approximately 14 kilometers wide at its narrowest point. On the European side, the coastline belongs to Spain and the British Overseas Territory of Gibraltar, while the African side is bordered by Morocco and the Spanish city of Ceuta. Historically and strategically, it has been one of the most important maritime passages in the world, controlling access to the Mediterranean basin.

52Geography
The beneficiary states of Sardar Sarovar Project are:
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Answer: (A) Gujarat, Maharashtra, MP and Rajasthan

Explanation

The Sardar Sarovar Project is a concrete gravity dam built on the Narmada River near Navagam, Gujarat. The project is a joint venture of four Indian states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan. The allocation of water and power among these states was determined by the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal (NWDT) in its final order of 1979. According to the award, the hydroelectric power generated from the project is shared between Madhya Pradesh (57 percent), Maharashtra (27 percent), and Gujarat (16 percent). Irrigation and drinking water benefits are primarily distributed to Gujarat and Rajasthan, with the Narmada Main Canal extending into the drought-prone regions of Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan. These four states work together through the Narmada Control Authority to manage and implement the multi-purpose project.

53Geography
The proposed East-West and North-South Express Highways cross at:
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Answer: (B) Jhansi

Explanation

The North-South and East-West Corridor (NS-EW Corridor) is a major highway project in India managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). The North-South Corridor is designed to connect Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir with Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu. The East-West Corridor is designed to connect Silchar in Assam with the port city of Porbandar in Gujarat. These two major arterial routes are planned to intersect at Jhansi, located in the state of Uttar Pradesh, making it a critical junction for the national highway network.

54Geography
'Horn of Africa' consists of:
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Answer: (C) Somalia, Ethiopia and Djibouti

Explanation

The Horn of Africa is a large peninsula in Northeast Africa that projects into the Guardafui Channel, Gulf of Aden, and the Indian Ocean. Named for its resemblance to a rhinoceros horn, it is the easternmost extension of the African continent. The core constituents of this region are Somalia, Ethiopia, Djibouti, and Eritrea. These countries are geologically and culturally linked, sharing the Somali Peninsula and the Ethiopian Highlands. Somalia occupies the longest coastline on the continent along this peninsula, while Ethiopia serves as the central landmass. Djibouti is situated at the southern entrance to the Red Sea, making the region a geopolitically strategic hub for global maritime trade between the Mediterranean Sea and the Indian Ocean.

55Polity and Governance
Which of the following projects is the joint venture of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka?
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Answer: (D) Telugu Ganga

Explanation

The Telugu Ganga project is an inter-state water supply and irrigation scheme that facilitates the transfer of Krishna River water to provide drinking water to Chennai and irrigation to the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh. It is considered a joint venture because it relies on a multi-state agreement where the Krishna riparian states of Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh each agreed to spare 5 TMC of water from their respective shares for the city of Chennai. Tamil Nadu funded the construction of the canal system in proportion to the water received. This collaboration makes it a significant joint effort involving Tamil Nadu as the beneficiary and financier, and Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka as the executive and contributing partners respectively.

56Geography
The coldest place on the earth is:
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Answer: (D) Verkhoyansk

Explanation

Verkhoyansk, located in the Sakha Republic of Russia, is historically recognized as one of the coldest inhabited places on Earth. Situated deep within the Siberian interior and north of the Arctic Circle, it experiences an extreme subarctic climate characterized by very short, warm summers and exceptionally long, severe winters. Along with Oymyakon, it is often referred to as the Northern Pole of Cold. In February 1892, Verkhoyansk recorded a temperature of -67.8°C (-90°F), which stood for decades as the lowest naturally recorded temperature in the Northern Hemisphere. This extreme cold is primarily caused by its high latitude and its position far from the moderating influence of any ocean, which allows for intense radiative cooling during the polar nights.

57Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Baikanour - Ukrain

Explanation

The Baikonur Cosmodrome is the world's first and largest operational space launch facility, located in the desert region of Kazakhstan near the Tyuratam railway station. Following the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991, the site remained within the sovereign borders of the newly independent Republic of Kazakhstan. While Baikonur served as the primary launch site for the Soviet space program, it is geographically situated in Kazakhstan rather than Ukraine. The facility continues to be operated by Russia under a long-term lease agreement established with the Kazakh government after the USSR's dissolution.

58Geography
Which of the following statements are correct? I. China is the leading coal producer of the world. II. Donetsk Basin is the major coal producing region in Ukraine III. Saar Region is the major coal producing area in Germany IV. The major coal mining areas of the USA lie in the Appalachian Region. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (D) All of above

Explanation

China has been the leading producer of coal globally since the late 1980s, supported by its extensive domestic reserves and massive industrial requirements. The Donetsk Basin, commonly known as the Donbas, is the primary coal-mining and industrial region of Ukraine, historically accounting for the vast majority of the country's coal output. In Germany, the Saar Region is a major center for coal production, serving as a vital energy source for the nation's heavy industry alongside the Ruhr area. The Appalachian Region in the United States, stretching through states like West Virginia and Pennsylvania, has traditionally been the most important coal-mining area in North America due to its high-quality bituminous coal deposits.

59Economy
Which one of the following countries is not a member of OPEC?
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Answer: (B) China

Explanation

China has never been a member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC). As a major global power with significant domestic oil production and even larger internal energy demands, China maintains an independent energy policy that prioritizes its own industrial requirements rather than the collective production quotas set by the cartel. In 1999, China was classified as a non-OPEC producer, operating its oil industry through state-owned enterprises outside the organization's regulatory framework. Its status as a net importer of petroleum further distinguishes its economic interests from those of the traditional oil-exporting nations that comprise the membership of OPEC.

60Geography
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Only two major rivers of Peninsular India Narmada and Tapti flow in the Arabian Sea. Reason (R): These rivers are faultguided. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Narmada and Tapti are the primary large rivers of the Peninsular plateau that flow westward into the Arabian Sea, whereas most other major peninsular rivers like the Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri flow eastward into the Bay of Bengal. This westward flow is dictated by the unique geological structure of the region. Instead of following the general southeasterly tilt of the Deccan Plateau, the Narmada and Tapti flow through well-defined rift valleys or grabens. These linear depressions were formed by tectonic faulting, and the rivers are effectively locked within these fault-guided troughs. Consequently, the structural orientation of these rift valleys provides the specific path that directs these rivers towards the west coast, making the existence of these faults the direct cause for their atypical flow direction.

61Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (City): (A) Coimbatore (B) Rourkela (C) Kapurthala (D) Barauni List-II (Industry): 1. Petroleum Refining 2. Rail Coach 3. Iron and Steel 4. Cotton Textiles
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Coimbatore is traditionally called the Manchester of South India because of its massive cotton textile industry. Rourkela is synonymous with the Rourkela Steel Plant, which was the first integrated steel plant in the public sector of India. Kapurthala serves as a major hub for the Rail Coach Factory, a production unit of the Indian Railways that manufactures a variety of coaches. Barauni is an essential center for petroleum refining, hosting one of the oldest refineries of the Indian Oil Corporation in Bihar. These associations align the cities with their respective industries in the sequence of 4, 3, 2, and 1.

62Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Town): (A) Berlin (B) Lahore (C) New York (D) Rome List-II (River): 1. Tiber 2. Hudson 3. Ravi 4. Spree
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Berlin is situated on the Spree River in northeastern Germany, where the river flows through the historical heart of the city. Lahore is located on the banks of the Ravi River, one of the five major rivers of the Punjab region. New York City is famously positioned at the mouth of the Hudson River, which separates the boroughs of Manhattan and the Bronx from New Jersey. Rome was founded on the banks of the Tiber River, which has been central to the city's trade and development since ancient times. These geographical associations result in the sequence 4-3-2-1.

63Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) Iron ore (B) Petroleum (C) Copper (D) Uranium List-II: 1. Port Radium 2. Bingham 3. Baku 4. Mesabi
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Iron ore is historically associated with the Mesabi Range in Minnesota, USA, which is one of the largest and most productive iron ore districts in the world. Petroleum is matched with Baku, the capital of Azerbaijan located on the Caspian Sea, which has been a global center for oil extraction and refining since the 19th century. Copper is produced at Bingham Canyon in Utah, USA, home to one of the largest open-pit copper mines ever developed. Uranium is linked to Port Radium in the Northwest Territories of Canada, which was originally a source of radium and later became a significant site for uranium mining during the mid-20th century.

64Geography
Assertion (A): The Regular soils of the Deccan Trap are black in Colour. Reason (R): They are rich in Humus. Select correct answer from the codes given below.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

Regur soils, commonly known as Black Cotton soils, are found predominantly in the Deccan Trap region of India. The assertion is correct because these soils are indeed black in color, a property primarily attributed to the presence of titaniferous magnetite and compounds of iron and aluminum derived from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks. However, the reason provided is incorrect because black soils in India are characteristically deficient in organic matter and humus. While they are rich in minerals such as lime, iron, magnesium, and alumina, they lack significant nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus content, which is a common feature of many tropical soils under high-temperature conditions.

65Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Nuclear): (A) Kota (B) Tarapur (C) Kakrapara (D) Narora List-II (States Power Station): 1. U.P. 2. Gujarat 3. Maharashtra 4. Rajasthan
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Kota is matched with Rajasthan because the Rajasthan Atomic Power Station is located at Rawatbhata near the city of Kota. Tarapur is matched with Maharashtra as it is the site of India's first commercial nuclear power plant, located in the Palghar district. Kakrapara is matched with Gujarat because this nuclear power station is situated near the city of Surat. Narora is matched with U.P. because the power station is located in the Bulandshahr district of Uttar Pradesh.

66Polity and Governance
The main objective of the Article 13 of the Indian Constitution is to secure the paramountcy of the Constitution in regard to:
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Answer: (B) Fundamental Rights

Explanation

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution serves as a protective shield for Fundamental Rights by establishing the principle of judicial review. It expressly declares that all laws in force in the territory of India immediately before the commencement of the Constitution, as well as any laws made by the State thereafter, shall be void to the extent that they are inconsistent with or in derogation of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in Part III. This provision ensures the paramountcy of the Constitution by preventing the legislature and executive from enacting or enforcing any measure that violates basic human liberties. By defining law broadly to include ordinances, orders, rules, regulations, and even customs having the force of law, Article 13 mandates that the judiciary must strike down any state action that contravenes these essential guarantees.

67Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: join us http://telegram.me/edulifebpscupscpcs ( edulife -GUIDANCE FOR BPSC.UPSC.PCS AND OTHER EXAM) Solved Paper-1 Exam-1999 121 List-I (Region): (A) California (B) West Australia (C) Bangladesh (D) Siberia List-II (Type of Climate): 1. Mediterranean 2. Tropical Monsoon 3. Cold Temperate 4. Hot Desert
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Answer: (B) 1, 4, 2

Explanation

California (A) is characterized by a Mediterranean climate (1), featuring hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters typical of mid-latitude western continental coasts. West Australia (B) is largely occupied by Hot Desert (4) regions, such as the Great Sandy Desert, due to the influence of the subtropical high-pressure belt. Bangladesh (C) experiences a Tropical Monsoon (2) climate, which is driven by the seasonal reversal of winds and brings heavy rainfall during the summer months. Siberia (D) falls under the Cold Temperate (3) or subarctic climate zone, known for its vast coniferous forests (taiga) and extreme temperature ranges with long, very cold winters.

68Geography
The Kullu Valley is situated between the mountain ranges of:
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Answer: (A) Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal

Explanation

The Kullu Valley is a broad, fertile valley in Himachal Pradesh formed by the Beas River between the town of Mandi and the Rohtang Pass. It is geographically situated between the Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal mountain ranges, which are part of the Lesser Himalayas. The Pir Panjal range lies to the north and east, acting as a barrier between the Kullu and Lahaul valleys, while the Dhauladhar range forms the southern flank. This positioning provides the valley with its distinctive alpine scenery and protects it from the harsher climatic conditions of the Trans-Himalayan regions.

69Science and Technology
What is the function of a pacemaker?
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Answer: (B) It regulates the heart beat

Explanation

A pacemaker is an electronic device or a biological structure, like the sinoatrial node, that maintains the rhythmic contraction of the heart. It functions by monitoring the heart's electrical activity and delivering low-energy electrical pulses when the heart's natural rhythm becomes irregular, too slow, or interrupted. By ensuring that the heart chambers contract in a synchronized and timely manner, the pacemaker ensures that the heart beats at a steady, functional rate to pump blood effectively throughout the body. This process of stabilization and maintenance of the cardiac cycle is essential for treating arrhythmias and ensuring the heart maintains a consistent frequency relative to the body's physiological needs.

70Geography
The Garland Canal System in India was proposed by:
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Answer: (B) Dineshaw J.Dastur

Explanation

The Garland Canal System was proposed by Captain Dinshaw J. Dastur in the 1970s as a grand scheme for interlinking the rivers of India to address the twin problems of floods and droughts. The project envisioned the construction of two massive canals: the Himalayan Garland Canal, which would run along the southern slopes of the Himalayas to collect glacial meltwater and monsoon runoff, and the Central and Southern Garland Canal, designed to connect the various rivers of peninsular India. Dastur’s proposal aimed to create a vast network of storage reservoirs and distribution channels to ensure year-round water availability for irrigation and to generate hydroelectric power. However, the scheme was eventually considered technically and economically unfeasible by governmental commissions due to the immense topographical challenges and the astronomical energy costs required to pump water across different elevations.

71Geography
Which one of the following towns is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
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Answer: (C) Jabalpur

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is the circle of latitude that is approximately 23° 30' N. Jabalpur is located at a latitude of approximately 23° 11' N, placing it about 19' south of the line. This difference is the smallest among the coordinates of the towns provided in the options, identifying it as the location with the closest proximity to the Tropic of Cancer based on standard geographical data. The distance is calculated by finding the absolute difference between the latitude of the town and the reference latitude of the Tropic of Cancer.

72Geography
Which one of the following pair is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Jharia

Explanation

Jharia is one of the largest coalfields in India and is located in the Dhanbad district of the state of Bihar (which became part of Jharkhand in November 2000). It is not situated in West Bengal. As of 1999, Jharia was the most important coal-producing region of Bihar, specifically known for its high-grade coking coal deposits in the Damodar River valley. Because Jharia lies within the Chota Nagpur plateau region of Bihar rather than West Bengal, it is the incorrectly matched pair in the list.

73Economy
Which one of the following coal fields has the largest coal reserves?
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Answer: (B) Bhubaneshwar-Mahanadi

Explanation

The Mahanadi River basin, located primarily in Odisha, contains some of India's most extensive coal deposits within its Gondwana sedimentary formations. This region houses major coalfields such as Talcher and Ib Valley. The Talcher coalfield is specifically noted for having one of the largest concentrations of coal reserves in India, providing high-quality thermal coal suitable for power generation. The geological structure of the Mahanadi valley allowed for the preservation of thick, continuous coal seams over a vast area. By 1999, data from the Geological Survey of India and the Ministry of Coal identified the Mahanadi basin as a premier region for coal availability, significantly contributing to the national reserve inventory and supporting the industrial infrastructure of eastern India.

74Economy
The first three largest sugar producing states in India are:
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Answer: (B) UP, Maharashtra, Karnataka

Explanation

During the late 1990s, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka were the leading sugar-producing states in India. Uttar Pradesh consistently ranked as a top producer due to its extensive sugarcane cultivation in the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains. Maharashtra held a prominent position owing to its highly efficient cooperative sugar factories and favorable tropical climate which results in higher sucrose recovery rates. Karnataka emerged as the third-largest producer, supported by significant irrigation development in its river basins and a robust network of sugar mills, solidifying the dominance of these three states in the national sugar economy of that era.

75Geography
Indira Gandhi Canal has its source at:
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Answer: (C) Harike Barrage

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Canal, originally known as the Rajasthan Canal, originates from the Harike Barrage in the state of Punjab. This barrage is specifically located at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers. Built in 1952, it serves as the primary diversion structure to channel water into the canal system, which extends for hundreds of kilometers to irrigate the arid regions of the Thar Desert in Rajasthan. The project was conceived to utilize India's share of the waters from the Ravi, Beas, and Sutlej rivers as per international agreements, providing essential irrigation and drinking water to districts like Ganganagar, Bikaner, and Jaisalmer.

76Science and Technology
The difference between nuclear reactor and atom bomb is that:
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Answer: (B) The chain reaction in nuclear reactor is controlled

Explanation

A nuclear reactor operates by maintaining a self-sustaining but strictly controlled chain reaction. This control is achieved through the use of control rods, typically made of neutron-absorbing materials such as cadmium or boron, which are inserted into or withdrawn from the reactor core to regulate the neutron flux. By absorbing excess neutrons, these rods ensure that each fission event leads to exactly one subsequent fission event on average, keeping the multiplication factor k equal to 1. This steady-state condition allows for the slow and continuous release of energy in the form of heat, which can then be harnessed to generate electricity. In contrast, an atom bomb is designed for an uncontrolled chain reaction where the multiplication factor is significantly greater than 1, leading to an instantaneous and massive release of energy.

77Science and Technology
The scientific name attributed to earth as a living organism is:
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Answer: (A) Gaia

Explanation

The Gaia hypothesis, proposed by scientist James Lovelock in the 1970s, suggests that the Earth and its biological systems behave as a single, self-regulating entity. This theory posits that living organisms and their inorganic surroundings evolve as a synergistic and complex system to maintain the conditions for life on the planet. By regulating variables such as surface temperature, atmospheric composition, and ocean salinity, this system ensures a state of homeostasis. The name is derived from the Greek goddess Gaia, who personifies the Earth, representing the concept of the planet as a vast, living organism rather than just a collection of independent physical and biological parts.

78Science and Technology
Which one of the following human organs is less susceptible to harmful radiations?
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Answer: (C) brain

Explanation

The susceptibility of human organs to ionizing radiation is governed by the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which states that the radiosensitivity of a biological tissue is directly proportional to the mitotic activity (rate of cell division) and inversely proportional to the degree of differentiation of its cells. The brain consists primarily of highly specialized, mature neurons that are post-mitotic, meaning they do not undergo regular cell division in adulthood. This high degree of cellular differentiation and lack of reproductive activity make the brain the most radioresistant and thus the least susceptible organ among the given choices. While other organs contain tissues with higher cellular turnover or more sensitive structures, the nervous system requires significantly higher doses of radiation to manifest damage.

79Science and Technology
The disease caused by nematodes is:
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Answer: (A) Filaria

Explanation

Filaria, specifically lymphatic filariasis, is a parasitic disease caused by infection with thread-like nematodes known as filarial worms. These worms belong to the phylum Nematoda (roundworms), and the most common species affecting humans are Wuchereria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, and Brugia timori. The disease is transmitted through the bites of infected mosquitoes, which carry the larval stage of the parasite. Once inside the human host, the larvae migrate to the lymphatic system and develop into adult worms, often leading to chronic inflammation and significant swelling of the limbs and extremities. Because these causative agents are biological roundworms, filaria is classified as a classic nematodal infection.

80Geography
Biosphere reserves are areas to preserve:
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Answer: (D) Genetic diversity

Explanation

Biosphere reserves are designated under UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme to protect the biological and cultural diversity of representative ecosystems. Their primary objective is the in-situ conservation of genetic diversity, species, and ecosystems. By maintaining large, undisturbed core areas, these reserves ensure the preservation of the genetic variability of wild and domesticated species, which is essential for evolution, adaptation, and long-term ecological stability. This focus on genetic pools distinguishes them as holistic conservation units that integrate human development with the protection of biodiversity across entire landscapes.

81Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The breaking apart of the nucleus of an atom is called fusion

Explanation

The process of splitting a heavy atomic nucleus into two or more smaller, lighter nuclei is known as nuclear fission. This reaction typically occurs when a heavy isotope, such as Uranium-235 or Plutonium-239, captures a neutron and becomes unstable, resulting in the release of a significant amount of energy and additional neutrons. In contrast, nuclear fusion is the process where two light atomic nuclei combine to form a single heavier nucleus, such as the fusion of hydrogen isotopes to form helium in the sun. Therefore, describing the breaking apart of a nucleus as fusion is scientifically inaccurate.

82Science and Technology
Match List-I and List-II and select your answer from the codes given below: List-I: (A) Hi-Tec R City (B) Science City (C) Rocket Launching Centre (D) Central Drug Research Institute List-II: 1. Lucknow 2. Thumba 3. Calcutta 4. Hyderabad
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Answer: (B) 4, 3, 2

Explanation

Hi-Tec City is a prominent technology and business district developed in Hyderabad to promote the software and engineering industries. Science City is a large science museum and convention centre established in Calcutta under the National Council of Science Museums. The Rocket Launching Centre, known as the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station, is located at Thumba due to its proximity to the Earth's magnetic equator. The Central Drug Research Institute is a multidisciplinary research laboratory of the CSIR situated in Lucknow.

83Science and Technology
Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Study them and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. Assertion (A): Lightning conductors prevent buildings from damages. Reason (R): It passes the charge to the earth.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

A lightning conductor is a metal rod, typically made of copper, installed on the highest point of a building to protect it from the destructive effects of lightning. Lightning is a massive electrical discharge that seeks the path of least resistance to reach the ground. The lightning conductor provides a low-resistance path for this atmospheric electricity. When a strike occurs, the conductor captures the electrical charge and safely diverts it through a thick conducting wire to a metal plate buried deep in the ground. This process of earthing ensures that the massive current bypasses the building's structural materials, such as wood, brick, or concrete, which would otherwise suffer from intense heat, fire, or structural failure. Because the device functions by passing the electrical charge directly to the earth, the reason directly explains how the building is preserved from damage.

84Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Seismometer-Curvature of surface

Explanation

A seismometer is a scientific instrument used to detect and record seismic waves, which are vibrations produced by earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or explosions. It measures the ground motion caused by these geological events to help scientists determine their magnitude, duration, and origin. In contrast, the curvature of a surface is typically measured using a spherometer, an instrument designed to calculate the radius of curvature of spherical surfaces such as lenses or mirrors.

85Geography
Spring Tide occurs:
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Answer: (A) When the sun and moon are in a straight line

Explanation

Spring tides are exceptionally high tides that occur when the gravitational pulls of the Sun and the Moon reinforce each other. This alignment, known as syzygy, happens twice during each lunar month: during the New Moon phase, when the Moon is positioned between the Earth and the Sun, and during the Full Moon phase, when the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon. In both configurations, the Sun, Moon, and Earth are in a straight line, causing their gravitational forces to act along the same axis. This combined pull creates a larger tidal bulge, resulting in the maximum tidal range characterized by higher high tides and lower low tides.

86Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not matched?
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Answer: (D) PARAM 10,000-Land to land missile

Explanation

PARAM 10,000 is a supercomputer developed by India's Center for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC). Unveiled in 1998, it was designed to achieve high-performance computing speeds in the gigaflop range and served as a successor to the earlier PARAM 8000 and 9000 models. It was built using an open cluster architecture and was used for complex scientific applications such as weather forecasting, molecular modeling, and remote sensing, rather than being a land-to-land missile.

87Science and Technology
The International space station launched in December, 1998 has an American made module Unity and there is one Russian made module also. Its name is:
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Answer: (A) ZARYA

Explanation

Zarya, also known as the Functional Cargo Block (FGB), was the inaugural component of the International Space Station. Built by Russia and funded by the United States, it was launched on November 20, 1998. Its primary roles were to provide initial propulsion, power, and orientation control for the station. In December 1998, the American-made Unity module (Node 1) was launched aboard the Space Shuttle Endeavour and successfully docked with Zarya, establishing the first two-module configuration of the orbital laboratory.

88Science and Technology
Geneco Technology is:
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Answer: (C) Technique for pre-information regarding genetic diseases

Explanation

Geneco technology refers to the application of advanced molecular biology and genetic engineering techniques aimed at the early detection and diagnosis of hereditary conditions. By analyzing an individual DNA sequence or chromosomal structure, this technology can identify specific mutations or abnormalities that indicate a predisposition to various genetic disorders. During the late 1990s, as the Human Genome Project progressed, such diagnostic methods became increasingly vital for providing pre-information about potential health issues such as sickle cell anemia, cystic fibrosis, and various metabolic syndromes. This early diagnostic data allows for genetic counseling, prenatal screening, and the implementation of preventive healthcare strategies before the physical onset of a disease.

89Science and Technology
The two planets having no satellites are:
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Answer: (B) Mercury and Venus

Explanation

Mercury and Venus are the only two planets in our solar system that do not possess any natural satellites. Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun and has a relatively small mass; the Sun's intense gravitational pull and tidal forces make it nearly impossible for Mercury to retain a moon in a stable orbit. Venus also lacks any moons, which scientists attribute to its extremely slow rotation or potential large-scale impacts in the early solar system that would have destabilized any satellites attempting to form or be captured.

90Science and Technology
Thiamin is:
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Answer: (D) Vitamin B1

Explanation

Thiamin, also known as vitamin B1, is a sulfur-containing water-soluble vitamin that is essential for energy metabolism. It functions as a vital coenzyme in the form of thiamin pyrophosphate (TPP), which is required for the oxidative decarboxylation of alpha-keto acids, such as the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA in the Krebs cycle. This process is fundamental for deriving energy from carbohydrates. Beyond its metabolic role, thiamin is crucial for the proper functioning of the nervous system and heart muscle. It was the first of the B-complex vitamins to be characterized, which led to its numerical designation as B1. Dietary sources include whole grains, beans, and meat, and its deficiency leads to conditions like beriberi.

91Science and Technology
2,4-D is:
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Answer: (D) a herbicide

Explanation

2,4-D, which stands for 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, is a widely used systemic herbicide. It functions as a synthetic auxin, a class of plant hormones. When applied, it mimics the natural growth hormone indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), causing the cells in the target plants to divide and grow uncontrollably. This rapid and disorganized growth leads to the destruction of the plant's vascular tissue, causing the plant to wither and die. It is primarily used for the selective control of broadleaf weeds (dicots) in crops such as wheat, maize, and rice, as well as on lawns and turf, because most grasses (monocots) are relatively resistant to its effects.

92Science and Technology
The computer hardware which is of silica can store plenty of data. It is called:
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Answer: (B) Chip

Explanation

Computer chips, specifically integrated circuits, are manufactured using silicon as the primary semiconductor material. Silicon is derived from silica, which is chemically known as silicon dioxide (SiO₂), a major component of sand. These microchips contain millions of microscopic transistors and electronic components etched onto a small silicon wafer, enabling the storage and processing of vast amounts of digital information in an extremely compact physical form. By the late 1990s, semiconductor technology had advanced to allow for high-density memory storage, making these silica-based components fundamental to computer hardware.

93Science and Technology
The controversial Terminator Technology backed by developed nations seeks to provide:
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Answer: (A) bio technologically improved variety of seeds which are ensured to yield sterile seed for next generation

Explanation

Terminator technology, technically known as Genetic Use Restriction Technology (GURT), refers to a specific genetic engineering method where plants are modified to produce sterile seeds at harvest. Developed in the late 1990s by the United States Department of Agriculture and private seed companies, this biotechnology employs a complex mechanism involving a promoter, a recombinase, and a lethal gene that is activated during the final stages of seed development. This process ensures that while the first generation of seeds (F₁) grows into a productive crop for the farmer, the resulting seeds (F₂) are biologically incapable of germination. The primary purpose of this technology is to provide a biological means of protecting intellectual property rights for biotech corporations, effectively preventing the traditional practice of seed saving and forcing farmers to purchase new seeds for every planting season. In the context of 1999, it was a subject of intense global debate regarding food security and the economic rights of farmers in developing nations.

94Science and Technology
1998 Leonid Meteor storm was: 1. a phenomenon occurring in the constellation of Libra 2. a phenomenon repeated after 33 years 3. a phenomenon involving comet Temple-Tutte 4. a phenomenon of 'Shooting Stars' Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 2,3 and 4

Explanation

The Leonid meteor shower occurs annually in November when Earth passes through the debris trail left by the comet 55P/Tempel-Tuttle. This comet has an orbital period of approximately 33 years, which often results in spectacular meteor storms once every three decades as Earth encounters dense concentrations of cometary material. These meteors are commonly referred to as shooting stars because they appear as bright streaks of light when small particles of dust and rock burn up upon entering Earth's atmosphere. The radiant point for this shower is located within the constellation Leo, which gives the phenomenon its name, rather than the constellation Libra.

95Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II an select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I: (A) World T.B. Day (B) World Aids Day (C) Anti Leprosy Day (D) International ozone Day List-II: 1. December 1 2. January 30 3. September 16 4. March 24
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Answer: (A) 4, 1, 2

Explanation

World T.B. Day matches with March 24 (4) as it commemorates the 1882 announcement by Dr. Robert Koch regarding the discovery of the tuberculosis bacillus. World AIDS Day matches with December 1 (1), a global health day designated since 1988 to increase awareness and support for people living with HIV. Anti Leprosy Day matches with January 30 (2) in India, marking the death anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi and his dedication to treating leprosy patients. International Ozone Day matches with September 16 (3), the date the Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 to protect the Earth's ozone layer.

96Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Delhi Govt is going to ban burning of leaves. This was announced when the Government declared certain areas as 'traffic free zones'. Reason (R): Burning of leaves contributes to more pollution than that caused by vehicular exhausts in Delhi. Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (C) (A) is true but (R) is false

Explanation

The Delhi government introduced a ban on the open burning of leaves and garden waste during the late 1990s as part of a series of measures to tackle deteriorating air quality. This decision coincided with the implementation of various experimental urban policies, such as the creation of traffic-free zones in heavily congested commercial areas like Chandni Chowk, aimed at reducing localized smog and improving public health.

However, the assertion that leaf burning causes more pollution than vehicles is scientifically inaccurate. During this period, environmental data from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) and other research bodies consistently highlighted that vehicular emissions were the primary source of air pollution in Delhi. Vehicular exhausts contributed a much higher volume of carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter compared to the seasonal or localized burning of biomass and dry leaves. Therefore, while leaf burning is a significant pollutant, it remains secondary to the massive scale of emissions generated by the city's transport sector.

97Science and Technology
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): LPG is a pollution free vehicular fuel. Reason (R): Flying of CNG fuelled buses is recommended for metropolitan cities of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

LPG consists primarily of propane and butane and is categorized as a clean-burning vehicular fuel. It produces significantly lower levels of carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, and particulate matter compared to conventional petrol or diesel, making it nearly pollution-free in relative terms. Separately, the recommendation to use CNG for public transport buses in Indian metropolitan cities was a major environmental policy initiative during the late 1990s, notably driven by judicial interventions to combat rising urban smog. While both statements are factually correct regarding the promotion of alternative fuels to reduce environmental impact, the specific recommendation for CNG usage in buses does not explain the chemical properties or the clean-burning nature of LPG. The two statements discuss different fuels and different applications without a direct causal link.

98Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests issued a notification in November, 1998 to tackle the problem of recycled plastic bags. Reason (R): The notification bars the manufacture of recycled plastic bags in the country.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Environment and Forests issued a draft notification on November 20, 1998, titled the Recycled Plastics Manufacture and Usage Rules. This regulatory step was taken to address the significant environmental pollution caused by plastic litter and the public health risks associated with using poor-quality recycled plastics for food storage. The notification tackled these problems by barring the manufacture and use of carry bags made from recycled plastics for packaging food items and prohibiting the manufacture of any carry bags with a thickness of less than 20 microns. Because this legal prohibition on specific manufacturing practices was the primary instrument used to mitigate the environmental and health issues mentioned, the reason correctly explains the assertion.

99Science and Technology
In the series IJK, NPO, SUT.... the bank space refers to:
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Answer: (C) XZY

Explanation

The series follows a specific pattern based on the alphabetical positions of the letters. By analyzing the transition between the second group (NPO) and the third group (SUT), it is evident that each letter in the group shifts forward by 5 positions in the alphabet:

N (14) + 5 = S (19) P (16) + 5 = U (21) O (15) + 5 = T (20)

The first letter of each group also follows this +5 increment: I (9) + 5 = N (14) and N (14) + 5 = S (19). Therefore, the next first letter must be 19 + 5 = 24, which is X.

Applying the constant +5 shift to the third group (SUT) to find the blank space:

First letter: S (19) + 5 = 24 → X Second letter: U (21) + 5 = 26 → Z Third letter: T (20) + 5 = 25 → Y

The resulting sequence is XZY. Additionally, starting from the second term, each group consists of a three-letter consecutive sequence where the second and third letters are swapped (N, O, P becomes NPO; S, T, U becomes SUT), which further confirms that the sequence X, Y, Z becomes XZY.

100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not consistent with the rest of the attributes?
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Answer: (C) Cunningness

Explanation

Cunningness is a character attribute defined by craftiness, deceit, and the use of manipulative or underhanded methods to achieve personal goals. It carries a negative ethical connotation, which distinguishes it from the other attributes that are categorized as positive moral virtues or noble qualities of character esteemed in social and ethical frameworks.

101Art and Culture
Which one of the following does not go with the rest of the group?
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Answer: (D) Harmonium

Explanation

Musical instruments are classified based on their sound-producing mechanism. The violin, sarod, and guitar are chordophones, which produce sound through the vibration of strings stretched between fixed points. The harmonium is an aerophone, specifically a free-reed keyboard instrument. It relies on a bellows to pump air across internal metal reeds to generate sound. Because the harmonium uses air and reeds rather than strings, it does not belong to the same category as the other instruments.

102Science and Technology
Which one among the following is most like these three; Hammer, Saw, and file?
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Answer: (B) a screw driver

Explanation

Hammer, saw, and file are all categories of manual hand tools used for physical labor, construction, and repair work. A screwdriver is also a fundamental hand tool used to provide grip and mechanical advantage in applying torque to screws. These items are grouped together because they share a common functional classification as hardware tools used for manual craftsmanship.

103Polity and Governance
The circle indicates powerful the square indicates 'Tall' and the triangle indicates 'army, officers'. Powerful army officers who are not Tall are shown by:
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Answer: (A) 4

Explanation

To identify the region representing Powerful army officers who are not Tall, we look for the area shared by the circle (Powerful) and the triangle (Army officers) that does not overlap with the square (Tall). In set theory terms, we are looking for the intersection of the circle and the triangle, excluding the elements of the square, represented as (Circle ∩ Triangle) \ Square. The number 4 is positioned within the overlap of the circle and the triangle but remains outside the boundary of the square, perfectly satisfying the condition of being both a powerful officer and an army officer while being excluded from the category of tall individuals.

104Science and Technology
What number will occur in the blank space at the end of the series? 12, 22, 33, 45, 58
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Answer: (B) 72

Explanation

The given series follows a pattern where the difference between consecutive terms increases by 1 at each step. By calculating the difference between successive terms:

22 - 12 = 10 33 - 22 = 11 45 - 33 = 12 58 - 45 = 13

The differences form an arithmetic progression: 10, 11, 12, 13. Following this sequence, the next difference must be 13 + 1 = 14. Adding this difference to the last term of the series gives 58 + 14 = 72.

105Polity and Governance
If A is the brother of B and K, D is the mother of B and E is the father of A, which of the following statements is definitely false?
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Answer: (B) A is the father of K

Explanation

According to the given relationships, A is the brother of B and K, which means A, B, and K are all siblings belonging to the same generation. Since D is the mother of B and E is the father of A, it follows that D and E are the parents of all three siblings. Because A is the brother of K, it is biologically and logically impossible for A to be the father of K. This statement contradicts the established sibling relationship and the parental roles of D and E.

106Science and Technology
There are four iron poles A, B, C and D. A is longer than C, B is smaller than D and C is longer than D. Which one is the smallest pole?
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Answer: (B) B

Explanation

To find the smallest pole, we arrange the given information into a single sequence of inequalities. The condition that A is longer than C is expressed as A > C. The condition that C is longer than D is expressed as C > D. By combining these two, we get the relationship A > C > D. The final condition states that B is smaller than D, which can be written as D > B. Combining all these relationships into one continuous chain gives A > C > D > B. In this sequence, B is at the end of the descending order of length, identifying it as the smallest of the four iron poles.

107Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is different from others?
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Answer: (D) exchanging

Explanation

The terms accepting, receiving, and obtaining all describe a unidirectional process where an entity or individual acquires something. These actions focus solely on the intake or acquisition of an object, idea, or service. In contrast, exchanging represents a bidirectional or reciprocal process that necessitates both giving and receiving simultaneously. This inherent requirement for a two-way transaction distinguishes it from the other three terms, which only imply a one-way movement toward the subject.

108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is opposite of humility?
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Answer: (B) pride

Explanation

Humility is defined as the quality of being modest and having a low or realistic view of one's own importance. It involves a lack of arrogance and a willingness to acknowledge personal limitations or faults. Pride, in this context, refers to an excessive belief in one's own superiority, merits, or achievements, often manifesting as conceit or vanity. Because humility emphasizes self-effacement and modesty while pride emphasizes self-exaltation and arrogance, the two terms serve as direct semantic opposites.

109Economy
According to the report of the World Tourist Organisation for the year 1997, the maximum number of tourist visited:
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Answer: (A) France

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The World Tourism Organization report for 1997 identifies France as the top global destination for international tourism. In that year, the country recorded approximately 67.3 million international visitor arrivals, which was the highest figure reported for any nation worldwide. France's leading position was supported by its diverse geographical appeal, world-renowned cultural heritage, and highly efficient transport networks that connected it to major international markets. This data established France as the world leader in attracting tourists during the late 1990s.

110Science and Technology
In relation to the total atomic energy production in the world, the production in India comes to only:
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Answer: (A) 0.1%

Explanation

PROPOSED: B

In 1999, India’s share of the world's total atomic energy production was approximately 1 percent. At that time, India had an installed nuclear capacity of 2,225 MW across 10 operational reactors, while the total global nuclear capacity was roughly 350,000 MW. India's nuclear electricity generation was approximately 12 billion kWh (12 TWh), whereas the global nuclear output was approximately 2,300 billion kWh. The ratio of India's production to the world's total resulted in a share of approximately 0.5%-0.6%, which was statistically categorized as 1 percent in major contemporary yearbooks and assessments.

111Economy
The biggest wind energy project in Asia with a capacity of 150 megawatts is located in:
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Answer: (C) Tamil Nadu

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Tamil Nadu established itself as the leader in wind energy development in India and Asia during the 1990s, primarily due to the state's unique geographical features. The Muppandal wind farm, located in the Kanyakumari district, became the site for Asia's largest wind power project. This location benefits from the high-velocity winds funnelled through the Aralvaimozhi pass in the Western Ghats. By 1999, the concentrated capacity of wind turbines in this region surpassed 150 megawatts, making it the largest project of its kind in the continent at the time. This growth was supported by the Tamil Nadu Energy Development Agency (TEDA) and favorable state policies that encouraged private sector participation in renewable energy.

112Economy
According to Human Development Report 1997, out of six crore Indian children with less than four years of age, adequate nutrition is not available to:
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Answer: (D) 53%

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The Human Development Report (HDR) 1997, released by the United Nations Development Programme, focused on human development as a means to eradicate poverty. The report highlighted the severity of child malnutrition in India, noting that during the period from 1990 to 1996, approximately 53% of Indian children under the age of five were underweight. This specific percentage is used to quantify the population lacking adequate nutrition. In the context of the roughly six crore children in the age group mentioned, this 53% figure represented a critical health challenge, indicating that more than half of the young child population did not have access to sufficient caloric and micronutrient intake required for healthy growth and development.

113Art and Culture
The Dhrupad singer selected for Rashtriya Tansen Samman for the year 1998 is:
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Answer: (A) Siaram Tiwari

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The Rashtriya Tansen Samman is a prestigious musical award instituted by the Government of Madhya Pradesh to honor excellence in Hindustani classical music. For the year 1998, the award was conferred upon Pandit Siaram Tiwari. He was a renowned exponent of the Dhrupad genre and belonged to the Gaya gharana of Bihar. His contribution to the preservation and promotion of the traditional Dhrupad style, characterized by its rigorous structure and rhythmic complexities, made him a distinguished figure in Indian classical music.

114History
Operation Desert Fox is the name of:
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Answer: (C) Air strikes launched by US/UK on Baghdad during December, 98.

Explanation

Operation Desert Fox was a major four-day bombing campaign conducted by the United States and the United Kingdom against Iraq from December 16 to December 19, 1998. The military operation was launched in response to Iraq's failure to comply with United Nations Special Commission (UNSCOM) inspectors and its breach of international obligations regarding the monitoring of weapons of mass destruction. The air strikes targeted military installations and industrial sites throughout Baghdad and other regions of Iraq, with the stated objective of degrading Saddam Hussein's capacity to manufacture and deploy chemical, biological, and nuclear weapons. It represented a significant escalation in the ongoing conflict between the Western powers and the Iraqi regime during the late 1990s.

115Polity and Governance
The twenty four hour free phone emergency service to help children in distress for special protection is called:
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Answer: (B) Child Line

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Childline is India's first 24-hour, free, emergency phone outreach service for children in need of care and protection. Launched in June 1996 as a field action project of the Tata Institute of Social Sciences (TISS), it is accessible via the easy-to-remember toll-free national number 1098. The service operates as a partnership between the government, academic institutions, and various non-governmental organizations to provide immediate assistance to children in distress. It handles emergency needs such as medical aid, shelter, and protection from abuse, while also facilitating long-term rehabilitation. By 1999, the initiative was being scaled across major Indian cities with the support of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to ensure a comprehensive safety net for marginalized and vulnerable children.

116Economy
ISO 14001 is:
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Answer: (C) an international certificate issued to industrial units for having established Pollution Control System

Explanation

ISO 14001 is an internationally recognized standard for environmental management systems (EMS) published by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO). Introduced in 1996, it provides a framework that organizations can follow to identify, manage, monitor, and control their environmental issues in a holistic manner. It is designed for any organization that wishes to improve resource efficiency, reduce waste, and manage environmental costs. Obtaining this certification demonstrates that an industrial unit or organization has established an effective system to mitigate its environmental impact and ensure compliance with environmental laws and regulations, effectively serving as a global benchmark for pollution control and environmental sustainability efforts.

117Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
The 'Gokul Gram Scheme' is associated with the state of:
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Answer: (C) Gujarat

Explanation

The Gokul Gram Scheme was a flagship rural development initiative launched by the Government of Gujarat in 1995-96. The primary objective of the program was to transform every village in the state into a Gokul Gram by providing essential basic amenities and infrastructure. Under this scheme, the state government focused on the integrated development of rural areas through the construction of internal paved roads, primary school buildings, drinking water facilities, community centers, and village ponds. It also emphasized improving sanitation and providing street lighting to enhance the quality of life for the rural population. The scheme was designed to be completed in a phased manner over five years, relying on both state funding and local community participation to create model villages with modern facilities.

118Science and Technology
The first successful by-pass heart operation by a robot was conducted in May, 1998 at:
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Answer: (B) Leipzig

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The first successful robotically-assisted coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) was performed in May 1998 at the Heart Center of the University of Leipzig in Germany. This landmark operation was conducted by a surgical team led by Dr. Friedrich-Wilhelm Mohr using the da Vinci surgical system. The procedure marked a major milestone in cardiothoracic surgery by demonstrating that a bypass could be successfully completed on a beating heart through minimally invasive ports, rather than through a traditional large chest incision or sternotomy. While other robotic heart procedures like mitral valve repairs were also pioneered in the same month in Paris, the specific achievement of the first robotic bypass surgery is attributed to the center in Leipzig.

119Polity and Governance
The XII Non-Aligned Movement Summit was held on September 2-3, 1998 at:
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Answer: (A) Durban

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The 12th Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) Summit was held in Durban, South Africa, from August 29 to September 3, 1998. The event was hosted by President Nelson Mandela, representing South Africa's first time hosting the summit since its formal admission to the movement in 1994. The conference focused on the role of NAM in the post-Cold War era, addressing themes of global peace, the socio-economic impact of globalization on developing nations, and the restructuring of the United Nations. During this summit, South Africa officially assumed the chairmanship of the movement, succeeding Colombia, and the participants issued the Durban Declaration which emphasized the importance of South-South cooperation and the peaceful resolution of international conflicts.

120Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List-I (Day) A. World Minority Day B. World AIDS Day C. World Animal Day D. World Food Day ; List-II (Date) 1. December 1 2. December 18 3. October 16 4. October 4
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Answer: (A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

Explanation

World Minority Day is observed on December 18 to commemorate the 1992 adoption of the UN Declaration on the Rights of Persons Belonging to National or Ethnic, Religious and Linguistic Minorities. World AIDS Day is held annually on December 1 to raise global awareness of the HIV/AIDS pandemic and support those living with the virus. World Animal Day is celebrated on October 4, a date chosen to coincide with the feast day of Saint Francis of Assisi, the patron saint of animals, to promote animal welfare standards. World Food Day is commemorated on October 16 to mark the founding anniversary of the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations in 1945.

121Science and Technology
Operation Shakti' 98 is the name:
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Answer: (A) given to the nuclear test carried out a Pokharan in 98

Explanation

Operation Shakti-98 was the official code name for the series of five nuclear bomb test explosions conducted by India at the Pokharan Test Range in the Thar Desert of Rajasthan in May 1998. These tests, commonly known as Pokharan-II, were carried out on May 11 and May 13 under the leadership of Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee. The operation involved the detonation of a thermonuclear device, a fission device, and three sub-kiloton nuclear devices. The success of Operation Shakti-98 led to India declaring itself a full-fledged nuclear-weapon state, establishing a policy of credible minimum deterrence. The project was a joint effort between the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), spearheaded by scientists Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam and Dr. R. Chidambaram.

122History
Which of the following countries bagged gold medals in two digits in Asiad 1998 at Bangkok? 1. Iran 2. Taiwan 3. South Korea 4. North Korea
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

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In the 13th Asian Games held in Bangkok in 1998, Iran achieved a total of 10 gold medals, marking its entry into the double-digit gold tally. Taiwan, competing under the name Chinese Taipei, secured 19 gold medals during the same event. Both countries thus met the criteria of bagging gold medals in two digits. While South Korea also finished with a two-digit tally of 65 gold medals, North Korea only managed to secure 7 gold medals, which is a single-digit figure. Among the given pairings, the combination of Iran and Taiwan correctly identifies two nations that reached the double-digit gold medal mark in the 1998 Asiad.

123Economy
Consider the following statements about Amartya Sen's advice regarding priorities for Indian Economy: 1. It should be commodity oriented 2. It should be people oriented 3. Economic security to the poorest of the poor. 4. Safeguards against integration of these with world economy
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

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Amartya Sen’s economic philosophy, particularly the Capability Approach, asserts that the true measure of development is the expansion of human freedoms and capabilities rather than the mere production of goods. This people-oriented approach prioritizes investments in health, education, and nutrition to enable individuals to lead productive lives. He advocates for robust economic security for the poorest of the poor, emphasizing the role of public action and social safety nets in mitigating the risks of extreme poverty and famine. Regarding global trade, Sen argues that for integration with the world economy to be successful and equitable, it must be accompanied by social safeguards and domestic reforms. These safeguards ensure that the vulnerable are not marginalized by market volatility and are equipped with the human capital necessary to participate in a globalized environment.

124History
The highest post communist civilian award of Russia declined by a Nobel laureate novelist in 98-99 is:
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Answer: (B) the Order of Saint Andrew

Explanation

The Order of Saint Andrew the Apostle the First-Called was originally established by Peter the Great in 1698 and was restored in June 1998 by President Boris Yeltsin as the highest state decoration of the Russian Federation. In December 1998, the Nobel laureate novelist Aleksandr Solzhenitsyn, famous for works like The Gulag Archipelago, declined to accept this award. Solzhenitsyn refused the honor on the grounds that he could not accept an award from a government that he believed had led Russia to its contemporary state of economic and social ruin. This act of protest made him the first person to publicly reject the restored nation's highest civilian honor.

125History
The highest number of gold medals in the fifth National Games held at Imphal was won by:
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Answer: (B) Nisha Millet

Explanation

The fifth National Games were held in Imphal, Manipur, in 1999. Swimmer Nisha Millet achieved a historic milestone at this event by winning 14 gold medals. Competing in various swimming disciplines, she secured the top position in every event she entered, setting a record for the highest number of gold medals earned by an individual athlete in a single edition of the National Games. This unprecedented achievement also led to her being honored with the Best Sportswoman award of the 1999 Imphal Games.

126History
Who won the first Gold medal for India in Thirteenth Asian Games?
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Answer: (C) Jyotiramayee Sikdar

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Jyotirmoyee Sikdar won the first gold medal for India at the 13th Asian Games held in Bangkok, Thailand, in 1998. She achieved this feat in the women's 1500-meter track event, finishing the race with a timing of 4:12.82 to secure the top spot on the podium. Her performance was a highlight of the games for the Indian contingent, as she went on to win a second gold medal in the 800-meter race and a silver medal as part of the 4x400-meter relay team. For her exceptional achievements at the 1998 Asian Games, she was later conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna award and the Padma Shri.

127Art and Culture
Who was given the 'most valuable performance' award in the 13th Asian Games?
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Answer: (B) Koji Ito

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The 13th Asian Games, held in Bangkok in 1998, marked the first time that a Most Valuable Player (MVP) award was officially presented. Koji Ito, a Japanese sprinter, was selected for this honor following his exceptional performance in track and field. He won three gold medals in the 100 meters, 200 meters, and the 4x100 meters relay. A defining moment of his performance was setting a new Asian record of 10.00 seconds in the 100-meter semi-finals, which stood as the continental benchmark for several years. His contribution to Japan's medal tally and his record-breaking speed solidified his status as the most outstanding athlete of the competition.

128History
Which one of the following teams won Bristol Rovers Cup 98?
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Answer: (D) Bengal-Mumbai Club

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Bengal-Mumbai Football Club (BMFC) secured the Bristol Rovers Cup in 1998 by defeating Churchill Brothers 1-0 in the final match. Founded in 1998, the club was one of Mumbai's first major professional football ventures, and winning this prestigious tournament in its inaugural year was a significant milestone. The victory highlighted the club's early dominance in the Mumbai football circuit and its intent to compete at the national level. The Bristol Rovers Cup was an important fixture in the Mumbai football calendar during the late 1990s, and this triumph established Bengal-Mumbai Club as a formidable force in Indian domestic football shortly after its inception.

129History
On what charge was Jatin Das arrested?
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Answer: (C) Lahore Conspiracy

Explanation

Jatin Das was arrested on June 14, 1929, in connection with the Lahore Conspiracy Case, which involved the activities of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) and the murder of J.P. Saunders. While incarcerated in Lahore Jail, he initiated a hunger strike alongside other political prisoners to demand equal rights and better living conditions for Indian prisoners compared to European ones. His protest lasted for 63 days, and his eventual death in prison on September 13, 1929, turned him into a national martyr, sparking immense public outrage and strengthening the Indian independence movement.

130History
Those who joined Mahatma Gandhi during the Champaran Satyagrah included:
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Answer: (C) Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narain Sinha

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first experiment with Satyagraha in India, aimed at addressing the grievances of indigo farmers suffering under the oppressive Tinkathia system. When Gandhi reached Champaran on the invitation of Raj Kumar Shukla, several prominent local leaders and lawyers joined him to assist in recording the statements of peasants and documenting their exploitation by European planters. Rajendra Prasad and Anugraha Narain Sinha were two of the key associates who volunteered their services, setting aside their legal practices to support the cause. Their involvement was crucial in organizing the masses and preparing the detailed reports that eventually led the British administration to form the Champaran Agrarian Committee and provide relief to the farmers. Other associates during this struggle included Mazhar-ul-Haq, Brajkishore Prasad, J.B. Kripalani, and Mahadev Desai.

131History
Who among the following gave up his legal practice during the Non-cooperation movement?
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Answer: (D) Chittaranjan Das

Explanation

Chittaranjan Das, popularly known as Deshbandhu, was a highly successful lawyer at the Calcutta High Court. During the Non-cooperation Movement launched in 1920, the Indian National Congress called for a boycott of British institutions, including government-affiliated law courts. Das was among the most prominent nationalist leaders to respond to this call by renouncing his lucrative legal practice to dedicate himself fully to the freedom struggle. His sacrifice was a significant event that inspired many other lawyers and students across India to join the movement and reject British administrative and judicial structures.

132History
Who presided over the Benares Session of the Indian National Congress in 1905?
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Answer: (C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Explanation

Gopal Krishna Gokhale presided over the twenty-first session of the Indian National Congress held at Benares in December 1905. This session took place during a period of intense political unrest following the Partition of Bengal. Under Gokhale leadership, the Congress formally expressed its indignation against the partition and the repressive measures adopted by the government. The Benares session is particularly noted for supporting the Swadeshi and Boycott movements in Bengal to protest against the partition. Gokhale was a leading figure of the Moderate faction and emphasized the need for administrative reforms and the employment of Indians in higher government services through constitutional means. His leadership during this session helped navigate the growing ideological differences within the Congress regarding the methods of agitation.

133History
Who was the first lady President of the Indian National Congress:
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Answer: (C) Annie Besant

Explanation

Annie Besant was elected as the President of the Indian National Congress during its thirty-second session held in Calcutta in 1917. A prominent theosophist and social reformer of British origin, she became a pivotal figure in the Indian independence movement, particularly through her leadership in the Home Rule League. Her presidency at the Calcutta session marked the first time a woman chaired the organization, occurring during a period of significant political transition in the Indian national struggle.

134History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below: List-I (Newspaper): (A) Hindu (B) Sudharak (C) Voice of India (D) Bengalee List-II (Editors): 1. Dadabhai Naoroji 2. G.K. Gokhale 3. G. Subramaniya Iyer 4. S.N. Banerjee
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Answer: (D) 3 2 1 4

Explanation

The Hindu was founded in 1878 by G. Subramaniya Iyer along with M. Veeraraghavachariar; Iyer served as its editor and used the journal to advocate for socio-political reforms in South India.

Sudharak was a bilingual newspaper started by Gopal Ganesh Agarkar after his split from the Kesari, and Gopal Krishna Gokhale served as the editor of its English section.

Voice of India was started by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1883 in London to provide a platform for Indian opinions and to influence British public sentiment regarding Indian affairs.

Bengalee was an English-language newspaper founded by Girish Chandra Ghosh, which was later taken over and edited by Surendranath Banerjee in 1879, becoming a prominent voice for nationalist aspirations.

135Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs of states have equal representation in the Council of States?
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Answer: (B) Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India specifies the allocation of seats in the Council of States to the various states and Union territories. Based on the population-based seat distribution effective in 1999, the state of Andhra Pradesh was allocated 18 seats in the Rajya Sabha. During the same period, the state of Tamil Nadu was also allocated exactly 18 seats. This equality in representation remained constant until the reorganization of Andhra Pradesh in 2014. Consequently, these two states shared an identical number of representatives in the Upper House of Parliament at the time of the examination.

136History
Which freedom fighter died in jail while on hunger strike?
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Answer: (C) Jatin Das

Explanation

Jatindra Nath Das, a revolutionary member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association, was arrested in connection with the Lahore Conspiracy Case in 1929. While lodged in Lahore Central Jail, he commenced a hunger strike alongside other political prisoners to demand equal rights and better living conditions for Indian inmates, who were treated poorly compared to British prisoners. Das specifically sought the status of political prisoners for his comrades, which included access to reading materials and better food. His condition worsened as the strike progressed, yet he remained steadfast in his protest. After sixty-three days of fasting, he died in prison on September 13, 1929. His sacrifice drew widespread national attention and significantly intensified the Indian independence movement.

137History
Assertion (A): Britain made India free in 1947. Reason (R): Britain had become weak during the second World War. In the context of the above two statements, which of the following is correct?
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

The end of the Second World War in 1945 left Great Britain economically exhausted and militarily overstretched. The massive debt incurred during the war and the urgent need for domestic reconstruction made the maintenance of a vast overseas empire financially and logistically unsustainable. Furthermore, the war catalyzed nationalist sentiments within India, while events such as the Indian National Army trials and the Royal Indian Navy mutiny of 1946 demonstrated that the British could no longer rely on the loyalty of the Indian armed forces to maintain control. The change in the British political landscape with the victory of the Labour Party, combined with international pressure from the United States and the Soviet Union to decolonize, forced the British leadership to conclude that they lacked the resources and the will to suppress the Indian freedom struggle any longer. Consequently, the systemic weakness resulting from the global conflict was the primary reason Britain decided to transfer power to India in 1947.

138History
The port city of Indus Valley Civilization was
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Answer: (C) Lothal

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Lothal, situated in the Bhal region of Gujarat, functioned as the premier port and maritime trading hub of the Indus Valley Civilization. It features a massive brick-lined structure identified as a tidal dockyard, which is recognized as the earliest known example of its kind in the world. This dockyard enabled the berthing of ships by utilizing the tidal currents of the Gulf of Khambhat via the ancient course of the Sabarmati River. The city served as a critical gateway for maritime trade with civilizations in the Persian Gulf and Mesopotamia, evidenced by the discovery of Persian Gulf seals and specialized workshops for bead-making and metallurgy.

139History
The Pagal panthi rebellion was indeed rebellion of:
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Answer: (A) Hajong and Garo tribes

Explanation

The Pagal Panthi movement was a peasant and tribal uprising in Mymensingh district of Bengal (early 19th century) led by Karam Shah and his son Tipu among Hajong and Garo tribal communities. It is distinct from the Santhal Rebellion, Munda Ulgulan, and Kol Uprising.

140History
Who among the following was the leader of the Farazi rebellion?
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Answer: (B) Dadu Miyan

Explanation

The Faraizi movement was founded in 1818 by Haji Shariatullah in East Bengal to advocate for Islamic purification and the rights of the peasantry. Following Shariatullah's death in 1840, his son Muhsinuddin Ahmad, popularly known as Dadu Miyan, took leadership and gave the movement a revolutionary character. Dadu Miyan organized the rural masses against the exploitation of local zamindars and British indigo planters. He famously declared that land belongs to God and therefore no taxes should be paid to landlords. Under his guidance, the movement evolved into a socio-economic rebellion, establishing a parallel administrative system to protect the interests of the cultivators.

141History
Which among the following places was the centre of the Gadkari rebellion?
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Answer: (B) Kolhapur

Explanation

The Gadkari rebellion of 1844 was a significant uprising centered in the Kolhapur region of Maharashtra against the British East India Company. The Gadkaris were a hereditary military class who traditionally served as garrison soldiers in the Maratha forts and held land grants in exchange for their service. When the British introduced administrative reforms and attempted to reorganize the revenue system in the Kolhapur State, many Gadkaris were threatened with the loss of their hereditary lands and livelihoods. This triggered a revolt where the Gadkaris seized control of the Samangarh and Bhudargarh forts. The rebellion necessitated a large-scale British military operation to suppress the insurgents and restore order in the Kolhapur territory.

142History
Who among the following granted financial aid for the restoration of a demolished mosque in Khambhat?
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Answer: (B) Jayasimha Siddharaja

Explanation

Jayasimha Siddharaja, the Chaulukya (Solanki) ruler of Gujarat, is celebrated in historical chronicles for his sense of justice and religious neutrality. As recorded by the 13th-century Persian historian Muhammad Aufi in his work Jawami ul-Hikayat, a mosque in the port city of Khambhat was demolished during a communal riot between the local Parsis and Muslims. When the Muslim community appealed to the king, Jayasimha Siddharaja personally travelled to Khambhat in disguise to verify the claims. Finding the complaint to be legitimate, he punished the perpetrators and provided one hundred thousand Balotras from his private purse to fund the restoration of the mosque. This act highlighted his commitment to upholding the law and protecting the religious institutions of all his subjects.

143Art and Culture
The Chitragupta Swami Temple considered to be the only temple of Chitragupta is situated in:
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Answer: (A) Kanchi

Explanation

The Chitragupta Swami Temple located in Kanchipuram, Tamil Nadu, is an ancient Hindu temple dedicated to Chitragupta, the deity responsible for recording the good and evil deeds of humans for Yama, the god of death. Built during the Chola dynasty, specifically during the reign of Kulothunga Chola I in the 11th century, it is historically recognized as one of the very few traditional temples dedicated exclusively to this deity. The temple features an image of Chitragupta holding a style or stylus in his right hand and a palm leaf in his left, representing his role as an accountant of karma. In Vedic astrology, Chitragupta is revered as the presiding deity of the shadow planet Ketu, and this temple serves as a significant site for devotees seeking to mitigate the astrological afflictions associated with it.

144Art and Culture
Which one of the following temple complexes has a massive image of nandi, considered to be the biggest in India:
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Answer: (A) Brihadishwar Temple

Explanation

The Brihadishwar Temple in Thanjavur, constructed by the Chola emperor Raja Raja I in the early 11th century, features a monumental Nandi statue carved from a single block of granite. This monolithic sculpture measures approximately 12 feet in height, 19.5 feet in length, and 8.25 feet in width, weighing about 20 tonnes. It is housed in a separate pavilion known as the Nandi Mandapam, which was added during the later Nayaka period. Due to its massive proportions and historical prominence as part of the Great Living Chola Temples, it has long been regarded as one of the largest and most significant monolithic bull statues in Indian temple architecture.

145History
Who among the following is credited with initiating a new Samvat?
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Answer: (D) Lakshman sena

Explanation

Lakshman Sena, the ruler of the Sena dynasty of Bengal who reigned during the late 12th century, is credited with the foundation of a new era known as the Lakshmana Samvat. Historical inscriptions and literary traditions indicate that this era, often abbreviated as La-Sam, was initiated to commemorate either his birth or his accession to the throne. Although the precise starting date of the era has been subject to scholarly debate—with 1119 CE and 1178-79 CE being the most prominent theories—the initiation of the Samvat is traditionally associated with his reign. This calendar system was widely used for several centuries in the regions of Bengal and Mithila.

146History
Jayadeva, the lyricist of the Gita Govinda, adorned the court of:
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Answer: (D) Lakshman sena

Explanation

Jayadeva was a celebrated 12th-century Sanskrit poet and the author of the Gita Govinda, a foundational text of the Bhakti movement that depicts the relationship between Krishna and Radha. He served as one of the five gems or Pancha Ratnas in the court of King Lakshman Sena of the Sena dynasty, who ruled over Bengal from approximately 1178 to 1206 CE. Alongside other prominent literary figures such as Dhoyi, Sharana, Govardhana, and Umapatidhara, Jayadeva contributed to a period of significant cultural and literary flourishing under Lakshman Sena's patronage. His work had a profound impact on Indian classical music and dance, particularly the Odissi and Manipuri traditions.

147History
Who among the following had built the Sompura Mahavihar?
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Answer: (C) Dharmpala

Explanation

Dharmapala, the second ruler of the Pala dynasty who reigned from approximately 770 to 810 CE, founded the Sompura Mahavihar at Paharpur in present-day Bangladesh. As a prominent patron of Buddhism, he established this massive monastery which became one of the most important intellectual centers in the Indian subcontinent. Archaeological evidence, specifically clay seals discovered during excavations at the site, bears inscriptions identifying the establishment as the community of monks of the great vihara of King Dharmapala. The site is celebrated for its distinctive cruciform architectural design and its significant influence on Buddhist temple architecture across Southeast Asia.

148History
Which of the following sources mention the occurrence of the Third Buddhist Council during the reign of Asoka? 1. Inscriptions of Asoka 2. Dipavamsa 3. Mahavamsa 4. Divyavadana Select the correct answer from the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2,3

Explanation

The Third Buddhist Council is historically recorded in the Sri Lankan Pali chronicles known as the Dipavamsa and the Mahavamsa. These texts provide a detailed account of the council being held at Pataliputra during the 17th year of Emperor Ashoka's reign. According to these chronicles, the council was presided over by the elder monk Moggaliputta Tissa and was convened to resolve disputes within the Sangha and purge it of heretical members. They describe the compilation of the Kathavatthu during this session and the subsequent dispatch of Buddhist missionaries to various parts of the Indian subcontinent and beyond, including Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia, to spread the Dhamma.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7A
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10C
  11. 11C
  12. 12C
  13. 13D
  14. 14C
  15. 15D
  16. 16A
  17. 17A
  18. 18B
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21D
  22. 22C
  23. 23C
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31A
  32. 32D
  33. 33D
  34. 34D
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37D
  38. 38A
  39. 39D
  40. 40A
  41. 41D
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46B
  47. 47D
  48. 48B
  49. 49A
  50. 50B
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53B
  54. 54C
  55. 55D
  56. 56D
  57. 57B
  58. 58D
  59. 59B
  60. 60A
  61. 61A
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65B
  66. 66B
  67. 67B
  68. 68A
  69. 69B
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72A
  73. 73B
  74. 74B
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77A
  78. 78C
  79. 79A
  80. 80D
  81. 81B
  82. 82B
  83. 83A
  84. 84D
  85. 85A
  86. 86D
  87. 87A
  88. 88C
  89. 89B
  90. 90D
  91. 91D
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98A
  99. 99C
  100. 100C
  101. 101D
  102. 102B
  103. 103A
  104. 104B
  105. 105B
  106. 106B
  107. 107D
  108. 108B
  109. 109A
  110. 110A
  111. 111C
  112. 112D
  113. 113A
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117C
  118. 118B
  119. 119A
  120. 120A
  121. 121A
  122. 122A
  123. 123B
  124. 124B
  125. 125B
  126. 126C
  127. 127B
  128. 128D
  129. 129C
  130. 130C
  131. 131D
  132. 132C
  133. 133C
  134. 134D
  135. 135B
  136. 136C
  137. 137A
  138. 138C
  139. 139A
  140. 140B
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143A
  144. 144A
  145. 145D
  146. 146D
  147. 147C
  148. 148B

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