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UPPSC Prelims 1992 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 120 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

120
Questions
6
Subjects
4
Uttar Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History4437%
  • Geography1916%
  • Science and Technology1815%
  • Polity and Governance1714%
  • Art and Culture1311%
  • Economy98%
1History
Which of the following sentences is incorrect about Indus Civilization?
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Answer: (D) People are known to Iron

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization was a Bronze Age civilization that flourished between approximately 3300 BCE and 1300 BCE. Its inhabitants were highly proficient in the metallurgy of copper and bronze, using these metals along with gold and silver to create tools, weapons, and ornaments. However, archaeological evidence across all major sites confirms that the Harappan people were not acquainted with iron. The use of iron in the Indian subcontinent began much later, during the early 1st millennium BCE, marking the transition to the Iron Age which is traditionally associated with the later Vedic period. Iron smelting requires significantly higher temperatures and more advanced furnace technology than the techniques utilized during the Harappan era.

2History
Great Bath of Indus civilization were found in which of the following town from which places?
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Answer: (A) Mohenjodaro

Explanation

The Great Bath is the most significant archaeological structure found at Mohenjo-daro, situated within the high-walled Citadel area. This large rectangular tank, measuring approximately 11.88 meters by 7.01 meters with a depth of 2.43 meters, serves as a prime example of advanced Harappan hydraulic engineering. The basin was constructed with finely fitted bricks and mortar, then sealed with a thick layer of natural bitumen to ensure it remained watertight. It featured two wide staircases for access and was surrounded by a brick colonnade and various rooms, one of which contained a large well to supply the tank with water. Its central location and elaborate design suggest it was used for ritual bathing or religious ceremonies.

3History
Idol worshipping is believed to be started in?
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Answer: (A) Pre-Aryan

Explanation

Archaeological findings from the Indus Valley Civilization, which represents the Pre-Aryan period in India, provide the earliest evidence of idol worship in the subcontinent. Excavations at sites like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro have revealed numerous terracotta figurines of a Mother Goddess and the famous Pashupati seal depicting a seated deity surrounded by animals. Additionally, the discovery of stone lingas and yoni-like objects suggests that symbolic and iconic representations were used for religious purposes long before the composition of the Vedic hymns. This period predates the early Vedic traditions, which were primarily focused on nature worship and fire sacrifices rather than the use of physical idols.

4History
Which of the following was not the part of early Republic?
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Answer: (C) Yodhey

Explanation

The Yaudheyas were an ancient tribal confederacy known for their martial traditions, primarily located in the regions of present-day Haryana and Punjab. Unlike the Shakyas and Lichchhavis, who were prominent Gana-Sanghas during the lifetime of Gautama Buddha in the 6th century BCE, the Yaudheyas rose to political significance much later. Their historical prominence is most clearly documented through numismatic and epigraphic evidence from the post-Mauryan period, specifically between the 2nd century BCE and the 4th century CE. They are famously mentioned in the Junagadh rock inscription of Rudradaman I and played a role in the resistance against the Kushan Empire, placing them in the late ancient period rather than the early Mahajanapada era of the first urbanization.

5History
Which is here is all over, Which is not here is nowhere, is the statement given in the text?
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Answer: (B) Mahabharata

Explanation

The statement is a translation of the famous Sanskrit verse from the Mahabharata: yadihasti tadanyatra yannehasti na tat kvacit. Found in the Adi Parva and the Svargarohana Parva, this declaration asserts the encyclopedic and exhaustive nature of the epic. It claims that whatever is written in the Mahabharata regarding the four human goals of Dharma (righteousness), Artha (wealth), Kama (desire), and Moksha (liberation) can be found elsewhere, but what is not contained within its verses does not exist anywhere else in the world. This highlights the status of the text as a comprehensive repository of human experience, social law, and spiritual wisdom.

6History
According to Hindu law, what was the estimated tax?
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Answer: (B) One-sixth of the total production

Explanation

In ancient Hindu law, the state's share of agricultural produce was known as Bhaga. Authoritative legal texts, most notably the Manusmriti and the Dharmashastras, prescribed that the king was entitled to a portion of the harvest in exchange for providing protection to his subjects. The standard and most frequently cited rate for this tax was one-sixth of the total production, a concept known as Shadbhaga. This traditional levy was so central to the ancient Indian fiscal system that the king was often referred to by the title Shadbhagin, which literally translates to the receiver of the sixth part. While rates could occasionally fluctuate between one-eighth and one-twelfth based on soil fertility and irrigation, the one-sixth share remained the established norm in classical Hindu jurisprudence.

7History
The first preaching by Buddha in Mrigdav (Sarnath) is known as?
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Answer: (B) Dharmachakra parivartana

Explanation

The first sermon delivered by Gautama Buddha at the Deer Park (Mrigdav) in Sarnath is traditionally known as the Dharmachakra Pravartana, which translates to Setting the Wheel of Dharma in motion. After attaining enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, Buddha traveled to Sarnath to share his spiritual insights with his five former companions. During this pivotal event, he preached the middle path, the Four Noble Truths (Arya Satyas), and the Noble Eightfold Path (Ashtangika Marga). This discourse established the foundation of Buddhist philosophy and marked the formal beginning of the Buddhist Sangha and the propagation of his teachings.

8Art and Culture
World is unstable and transient is associated with?
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Answer: (A) Buddhism

Explanation

Buddhism is fundamentally based on the doctrine of Anicca or Anitya, which translates to impermanence. This core tenet asserts that all conditioned things are in a constant state of flux and that nothing in the phenomenal world is permanent or stable. According to Buddhist philosophy, the universe and everything within it are characterized by rising and passing away, meaning that existence is inherently transient. This realization of the unstable nature of reality is central to the Four Noble Truths, as it highlights that attachment to such fleeting phenomena is the primary cause of human suffering. Understanding this transience is a prerequisite for achieving spiritual liberation and Nirvana.

9History
Which of the following about Gautama Buddha is correct? 1. He believed in Karma 2. He believed in the change of Soul into the body 3. He believed in Nirvana 4. He believed in the presence of god.
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2, 3 are correct

Explanation

Gautama Buddha emphasized the law of Karma, asserting that an individual's intentional actions lead to corresponding consequences in this life and future existences. Related to this is the concept of rebirth; although Buddha propounded the doctrine of Anatta (non-self) which denies a permanent, unchanging soul, he taught that the causal link of consciousness and karmic impressions continues from one body to another after death. Nirvana represents the core of Buddhist teaching as the ultimate spiritual goal, signifying the cessation of desire, suffering, and the cycle of rebirth. While Buddha did not explicitly deny the existence of various deities within the folk cosmology of his time, he maintained that a supreme creator god was irrelevant to the path of salvation and did not believe in the presence of a divine creator governing the universe.

10Art and Culture
You have the control over the Karma, but not on the result of Karma is said in which of the following text?
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Answer: (C) Gita

Explanation

The philosophy of performing ones duty without attachment to the outcome is a central tenet of the Bhagavad Gita, famously expressed in Chapter 2, Verse 47. The verse states Karmanye vadhikaraste ma phaleshu kadachana, which means that an individual has the right to perform their prescribed actions or karma, but is not entitled to the fruits or results of those actions. This concept, known as Nishkama Karma, emphasizes that while the effort and execution of a task are within an individuals control, the final result is influenced by various external factors and laws of nature. By focusing on the action itself rather than the reward, an individual achieves mental equanimity and liberation from the cycle of desire and disappointment.

11History
Match the following: List-I: (A) Panini (B) Vatsyayana (C) Chanakya (D) Kalhan List-II: 1. Kamasutra 2. Rajatarangini 3. Ashtadhyayi 4. Arthshastra
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Answer: (A) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

Explanation

Panini was a pre-eminent Sanskrit grammarian of ancient India who authored the Ashtadhyayi, a foundational text that systematically defined the rules of Sanskrit linguistics. Vatsyayana wrote the Kamasutra, a celebrated ancient Indian treatise on human desire, sexuality, and the art of living. Chanakya, also known as Kautilya, was the chief advisor to Chandragupta Maurya and the author of the Arthashastra, which is a comprehensive guide to statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy. Kalhan was a 12th-century historian from Kashmir who composed the Rajatarangini, a verse chronicle that provides a detailed historical account of the kings of Kashmir.

12History
When did Vikram Samvat started?
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Answer: (B) 58 BC

Explanation

The Vikram Samvat is a traditional Hindu calendar era that began in 58 BC. It is historically associated with King Vikramaditya of Ujjain, who is said to have initiated the era to mark his victory over the Shaka invaders. In the context of historical chronology, the era is calculated from 58 BC, meaning that the Vikram Samvat year is approximately 57 or 58 years ahead of the Gregorian calendar year. It follows a lunar system and is one of the most prominent calendars used across the Indian subcontinent for determining the dates of religious festivals and sociocultural events.

13Art and Culture
Standing statue of Lord Buddha was made in the period of?
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Answer: (B) Kushana period

Explanation

The Kushana period, particularly during the reign of Emperor Kanishka in the 1st and 2nd centuries CE, was a pivotal era for the development of Buddhist iconography. It was during this time that the transition from aniconic representation to the human depiction of the Buddha occurred. The Gandhara and Mathura schools of art flourished under Kushana patronage, producing the earliest standing statues of Lord Buddha. The Gandhara style incorporated Greco-Roman influences, depicting the standing Buddha with realistic, heavy drapery and wavy hair, while the Mathura school produced more robust, indigenous forms. These standing figures represented a significant shift in religious practice, allowing devotees to focus their worship on the physical image of the Buddha.

14History
Which of the following is Gupta period currency.
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Answer: (B) Dinaras

Explanation

The Gupta period is characterized by the issuance of a large number of gold coins, which were known as Dinaras. The term Dinara was derived from the Roman gold coin Denarius, reflecting the influence of international trade and previous Kushan numismatic traditions. These gold coins were minted with high artistic precision and featured various types such as the Archer type, Lyrist type, and Asvamedha type, highlighting the achievements and religious inclinations of the Gupta monarchs. While these were the primary high-value currency used for significant transactions and land grants, the Gupta Dinaras are noted for their initial high purity, though the gold content began to decline in the later years of the empire.

15History
Who was the writer of Mudrarakshasa?
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Answer: (B) Vishakhadatta

Explanation

Vishakhadatta was the celebrated Sanskrit poet and playwright who authored the historical play Mudrarakshasa. Written during the Gupta period, the play is a unique political thriller that details the ascent of Chandragupta Maurya to the throne of Magadha. It focuses on the astute diplomacy and clever strategies employed by Chanakya to win over Rakshasa, the loyal but defeated minister of the former Nanda dynasty, ensuring the stability of the Maurya Empire. The work is noted for its lack of a romantic subplot, focusing instead on statecraft, espionage, and political maneuvers.

16History
Emperor Harsha shifted his capital from Thaneshwar to?
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Answer: (C) Kannauj

Explanation

Emperor Harshavardhana, the ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty, originally governed from Thaneshwar. After the death of his brother Rajyavardhana and his brother-in-law Grahavarman, who was the Maukhari king of Kannauj, Harsha ascended the throne of Kannauj at the request of the state's ministers and to protect his sister Rajyashri. He united the two kingdoms and shifted his capital to Kannauj to consolidate his authority over the fertile Indo-Gangetic plain. Kannauj offered a more central and strategically advantageous location for administering his expanding empire, eventually becoming the premier political and cultural hub of Northern India during his reign.

17Art and Culture
Where is Angkor Wat Temple situated?
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Answer: (C) Cambodia

Explanation

Angkor Wat is a massive temple complex located in northwest Cambodia, near the modern-day city of Siem Reap. It was constructed in the early 12th century during the reign of King Suryavarman II of the Khmer Empire. Designed as a state temple and later a mausoleum, it was originally dedicated to the Hindu deity Vishnu before transitioning into a Buddhist site towards the end of the century. The temple is the largest religious monument in the world and represents the pinnacle of Khmer architecture, with its five central towers symbolizing the peaks of Mount Meru, the celestial abode of the gods in Hindu and Buddhist mythology.

18History
Traders were sent to china under the kingdom of
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Answer: (A) Kulotunga I

Explanation

Kulottunga I dispatched a major commercial and diplomatic mission to the Chinese Song court in 1077 CE. This mission is famously documented in Chinese historical records as having consisted of seventy-two merchants who carried a vast array of tribute and trade goods, including glass, camphor, and medicinal herbs. The embassy was a strategic effort to strengthen the maritime trade routes and secure better terms for Chola exports in the Chinese market. This initiative highlights the extensive maritime reach and the emphasis on international commerce during the reign of Kulottunga I, who also famously abolished internal tolls to further stimulate trade and economic prosperity within his empire.

19History
Market control trend was started by?
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Answer: (B) Allauddin Khilji

Explanation

Alauddin Khilji introduced a highly sophisticated system of market control and price regulation during the Delhi Sultanate to maintain a massive standing army at low costs. He fixed the prices of all essential commodities, including food grains, cloth, horses, and cattle, ensuring they remained stable regardless of harvest conditions. To enforce these regulations, he established the department of Diwan-i-Riyasat and appointed officials known as Shahna-i-Mandi to supervise the markets and prevent hoarding or fraudulent weights. By keeping the cost of living low, Alauddin Khilji was able to pay his soldiers lower cash salaries while ensuring they had sufficient purchasing power, which was critical for defending the empire against Mongol invasions.

20History
Muhammad bin Qasim was?
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Answer: (C) Arab

Explanation

Muhammad bin Qasim was an Umayyad general who hailed from the Thaqif tribe of Taif, located in the Hejaz region of the Arabian Peninsula. In 712 AD, acting under the instructions of Al-Hajjaj ibn Yusuf, the governor of the eastern provinces of the Umayyad Caliphate, he led a successful military expedition to conquer the Sindh and Multan regions from Raja Dahir. This campaign established the first Muslim foothold in the Indian subcontinent. Since he served the Umayyad Caliphate, which was an Arab-led empire based in Damascus, and belonged to a prominent Arabian tribe, he is historically identified as an Arab commander.

21History
When did Vasco-de-Gama come to India?
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Answer: (C) 1498

Explanation

Vasco da Gama, a Portuguese explorer, successfully completed the first direct sea voyage from Europe to India by sailing around the Cape of Good Hope. He arrived at the port of Calicut, located on the Malabar Coast, on May 20, 1498. Upon his arrival, he was received by the local ruler, the Zamorin. This landmark journey established a new maritime trade route between the West and the East, allowing Portugal to bypass the traditional land routes through the Middle East and gain direct access to the lucrative Indian spice market.

22HistoryUttar Pradesh-specific
Who built Babri Mosque in Ayodhya?
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Answer: (D) Mir Baqi

Explanation

Mir Baqi, also known as Baqi Tashqandi, was a military commander and the governor of Awadh during the reign of the first Mughal Emperor, Babur. Historical documentation and the Persian inscriptions previously found at the site identify him as the individual responsible for the construction of the structure in 1528-29 CE. While the mosque was named after the emperor, the epigraphic evidence clarifies that Mir Baqi commissioned and supervised the building process on the orders of the sovereign. His role as the official builder is a standard historical fact cited in accounts of early Mughal architecture based on these primary epigraphic sources.

23History
In which area Todar Mal earned fame?
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Answer: (B) Land revenue

Explanation

Raja Todar Mal served as the Finance Minister (Mushrif-i-Diwan) in the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar and is renowned for his extensive reforms in the land revenue system. He introduced the Dahshala system in 1580, which calculated revenue based on the average produce and market prices of the preceding ten years to ensure stability and fairness in taxation. He also implemented a standardized system of land measurement using a bamboo rod joined by iron rings, known as the Jarib, to improve survey accuracy. His administrative expertise created a structured and efficient fiscal framework that significantly increased the state's revenue while providing clarity to the peasantry, forming the basis of agrarian administration for centuries.

24Art and Culture
Which of the following sentences is correct about Mughal paintings?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Mughal painting was a secular art form that focused on documenting the life and interests of the emperors. During Akbar's reign, the focus was on historical manuscripts like the Akbarnama and Hamzanama, which extensively featured dynamic war scenes and military expeditions. Under Jahangir, the school emphasized naturalism, leading to the detailed portrayal of animals, birds, and flowers by master artists like Ustad Mansur. Additionally, court illustrations were a fundamental aspect of the genre, depicting official ceremonies, durbars, and imperial portraits to showcase the majesty and hierarchy of the Mughal state. This combination of historical, natural, and ceremonial subjects defined the comprehensive scope of the Mughal artistic tradition.

25History
In the Mughal period, who was the leader of Army?
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Answer: (B) Mir Bakshi

Explanation

The Mir Bakshi was the head of the military administration and the paymaster general during the Mughal Empire. This office reached its highest significance under Akbar, who organized the military through the mansabdari system. The Mir Bakshi was responsible for the recruitment of soldiers, the maintenance of the descriptive rolls of troops known as chihra, and the implementation of the branding system for horses called dagh. Although the Emperor acted as the supreme commander of all forces, the Mir Bakshi managed the organizational aspects of the army, including the inspection of the contingents of mansabdars and the certification of their pay bills. In the field of battle, he often coordinated the positioning of troops and served as a key advisor on military strategy and logistics.

26History
During Akbar's army arrangement was based on?
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Answer: (A) Mansabdari

Explanation

Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system as the fundamental framework for his military and civil administration. Under this system, every officer was assigned a rank called a Mansab, which determined their position in the state hierarchy and their salary. The rank was divided into two components: Zat, which indicated personal status and salary, and Sawar, which specified the number of cavalrymen the officer was required to maintain for the imperial army. This system allowed Akbar to centralize control over the military by making the officers directly responsible to the emperor, ensuring a steady supply of well-equipped troops for the empire's expansion and defense. Officers were compensated through either cash payments or the assignment of revenue-generating lands known as Jagirs.

27History
When did Aurangzeb won Bijapur?
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Answer: (B) 1686

Explanation

Aurangzeb annexed the Adil Shahi kingdom of Bijapur in 1686. The siege of the city began in 1685, but the Mughal forces faced stiff resistance and logistical challenges. Aurangzeb personally arrived at the site in July 1686 to provide leadership and momentum to the campaign. On September 12, 1686, the last Sultan of Bijapur, Sikandar Adil Shah, surrendered after the city's defenses were weakened by famine and persistent bombardment. The fall of Bijapur marked the end of the Adil Shahi dynasty and was a major milestone in Aurangzeb's Deccan policy, significantly expanding the southern boundaries of the Mughal Empire.

28History
Upanishad was translated into Farsi during the period of which Mughal emperor?
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Answer: (A) Shah Jahan

Explanation

The Upanishads were translated into Persian under the title Sirr-i-Akbar, which translates to The Great Secret. This monumental task was completed in 1657 by Dara Shikoh, the eldest son and designated heir of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan. Dara Shikoh was a profound scholar and a follower of the Qadiri Sufi order who believed that the Upanishads contained the same divine message of monotheism found in the Quran. By collaborating with various Sanskrit scholars and pundits from Benares, he translated fifty Upanishads to make Indian philosophical wisdom accessible to the Persian-speaking world during the reign of his father.

29History
Tomb of Sher Shah Suri is located in
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Answer: (B) Sehsaram

Explanation

The Tomb of Sher Shah Suri is situated in Sasaram, historically referred to as Sehsaram, in the Rohtas district of Bihar. This grand mausoleum was constructed between 1540 and 1545 to serve as the final resting place for the founder of the Suri Empire. Designed by the architect Mir Muhammad Aliwal Khan, the tomb is a masterpiece of Indo-Islamic architecture, notable for its octagonal plan and massive dome. It is uniquely located in the middle of a large artificial square lake and is built of red sandstone. The structure sits on a high square stone plinth with domed kiosks at the corners and is connected to the mainland by a stone bridge. The design represents a significant architectural transition, blending elements of the earlier Lodi style with features that would later influence Mughal construction.

30History
Where is the tomb of Akbar?
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Answer: (A) Sikandra

Explanation

The tomb of the Mughal Emperor Akbar is located at Sikandra, which is a suburb of Agra. Akbar himself commenced the construction of this mausoleum around 1605, choosing the site and planning the structure, but it was completed by his son Jahangir in 1613. The monument is architecturally significant for its departure from traditional Mughal tomb designs; it is a five-tiered pyramidal structure built primarily of red sandstone with a top story of white marble. Notably, the tomb lacks the characteristic central dome found in most Mughal funerary architecture and instead incorporates elements of Hindu and Buddhist architectural styles, reflecting Akbar's syncretic philosophy. The site is entered through a massive gateway known as the Buland Darwaza of Sikandra, which features exquisite calligraphic inscriptions and floral patterns.

31History
Which of the following is not a reason for the rise of the Marathas of flourishing?
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Answer: (C) Political awareness

Explanation

The rise of the Maratha power in the 17th century was primarily driven by the socio-religious awakening brought about by the Bhakti saints, the strategic geographical advantages of the Sahyadri mountain ranges which favored guerrilla warfare, and the extraordinary leadership and organizational skills of Shivaji Maharaj. Political awareness among the general population was not a pre-existing reason for their flourishing. Prior to the establishment of the Maratha state, the Marathas served as fragmented military entities and local landlords under various Deccan Sultanates like Bijapur and Ahmednagar. A unified political consciousness was a result of the state-building process and the vision of Hindavi Swarajya rather than an initial factor that caused the Marathas to rise. Therefore, while religious unity and geographical security provided the necessary environment and leadership provided the direction, a broad political awareness was not a primary cause for their emergence.

32History
Ryotwari system was started by?
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Answer: (A) Thomas Munro

Explanation

The Ryotwari system was a land revenue settlement introduced in British India, primarily associated with Sir Thomas Munro and Captain Alexander Read. Captain Read first initiated the system on a trial basis in the Baramahal region of the Madras Presidency in 1792. Later, Sir Thomas Munro, serving as the Governor of Madras from 1820 to 1827, developed and implemented the system across the majority of southern India. Under this arrangement, the government recognized the individual cultivators, or ryots, as the owners of the land. The revenue was collected directly from the ryots without the involvement of intermediaries like Zamindars. The land was surveyed and assessed, and the cultivators held the right to sublet, sell, or mortgage the land as long as they paid the fixed revenue to the state.

33History
Which of the following is correctly matched
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Answer: (C) B.G. Tilak - Kesari

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak founded the newspaper Kesari in 1881 to serve as a voice for the Indian national movement. Published in Marathi, Kesari was used to spread the message of nationalism, criticize the injustices of British rule, and advocate for Swaraj or self-rule. Tilak's fiery editorials in this journal made it one of the most influential newspapers of the time, playing a pivotal role in political awakening and mass mobilization across the country.

34History
Which of the following two leaders visited across the India for the social upliftment?
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Answer: (A) Gandhi, Tilak

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi and Bal Gangadhar Tilak were instrumental in bridging the gap between the political leadership and the Indian masses through extensive nationwide travels. Gandhi, acting on the advice of Gopal Krishna Gokhale, spent his initial year in India traveling by rail in third-class compartments to observe the social realities of the country. His 1933-34 Harijan Tour was a landmark effort where he covered over 20,000 kilometers specifically to campaign against untouchability and promote the social upliftment of the marginalized sections of society. Bal Gangadhar Tilak similarly transitioned the nationalist movement from an elite circle to a mass movement by touring extensively. He utilized public platforms and festivals to foster social solidarity and educate the rural population about self-reliance and collective rights, thereby integrating social reform with the demand for political freedom.

35History
Raja Ram Mohan Roy did not protest for the?
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Answer: (C) Western education

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Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a strong proponent of Western education and modern science. He believed that the introduction of English-medium education and the study of Western philosophy, mathematics, and natural sciences were essential for the modernization and intellectual progress of Indian society. In 1823, he addressed a famous letter to Lord Amherst, the Governor-General, protesting against the government plan to establish a traditional Sanskrit school and instead advocating for a liberal system of instruction that included subjects like chemistry and anatomy. He actively collaborated with David Hare to establish the Hindu College in 1817 and founded the Vedanta College in 1825, both of which offered courses in Western scientific and social subjects. Since he championed and encouraged the adoption of Western education, he did not protest against it.

36History
Which of the following is advocated for English as a medium of Education?
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Answer: (A) Lord Macaulay

Explanation

Lord Macaulay, in his famous Minute on Indian Education presented in 1835, strongly advocated for the introduction of Western education with English as the medium of instruction. He dismissed the value of traditional Indian and Oriental learning, famously stating that a single shelf of a good European library was worth the whole native literature of India and Arabia. His primary objective was to create a class of individuals who would be Indian in blood and color but English in tastes, opinions, morals, and intellect, serving as intermediaries between the British government and the Indian masses. This policy, known as the Downward Filtration Theory, led to the English Education Act of 1835, which shifted the focus of official education policy toward the promotion of European sciences and literature through the English language.

37History
Arrange the following in a correct sequence A. Regulating act B. Surat division C. Partition of Bengal D. Establishment of Muslim League
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Answer: (B) A,C,D,B

Explanation

The Regulating Act was enacted in 1773 as the first significant step by the British Parliament to oversee and regulate the affairs of the East India Company. The Partition of Bengal was implemented on October 16, 1905, under the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, leading to the Swadeshi movement. The All-India Muslim League was subsequently established on December 30, 1906, in Dacca to represent the interests of Indian Muslims. The Surat division, or the Surat Split, occurred during the 1907 session of the Indian National Congress, where the organization fractured into Moderate and Extremist wings. Chronologically, these events follow the timeline of 1773, 1905, 1906, and 1907.

38History
Match the following: List-I: (A) Bardoli (B) Champaran (C) Kuka (D) Red Shirt Movement List-II: 1. Gandhi Satyagraha 2. Ram Singh Satyagrah 3. Gaffar Khan Andolan 4. Sardar Patel
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Answer: (A) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 was a major episode of civil disobedience and revolt in the Indian Independence Movement led by Vallabhbhai Patel, where his success earned him the title Sardar. The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was the first Satyagraha movement led by Mahatma Gandhi in India, focusing on the grievances of indigo cultivators in Bihar. The Kuka Movement was a socio-religious movement in Punjab led by Baba Ram Singh, who advocated for non-cooperation and the boycott of British goods and services. The Red Shirt Movement, officially known as the Khudai Khidmatgar, was a non-violent struggle against British Raj led by Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan in the North-West Frontier Province.

39History
Point out the correct sequence of the following? (i) Simon commission (ii) Civil disobedience movement (iii) Excavation (iv) Division of Surat
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Answer: (D) (i) Division of Surat (ii) Simon commission (iii) Civil disobedience movement (iv) Excavation

Explanation

The Division of Surat, commonly known as the Surat Split, took place in 1907 during the annual session of the Indian National Congress, where the organization divided into the Moderates and the Extremists. The Simon Commission was appointed by the British government in 1927 and reached India in 1928 to evaluate the progress of constitutional reforms and the functioning of the Government of India Act 1919. The Civil Disobedience Movement was formally launched in 1930 by Mahatma Gandhi following the Salt Satyagraha, marking a significant phase of the Indian independence struggle. Systematic archaeological excavations of the Indus Valley Civilization sites, such as Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, were carried out extensively through the 1920s and into the 1930s, with comprehensive reports and further site investigations continuing throughout that decade.

40History
Assertion (A): Dandi March performed by Gandhi Jee Reason (R): He wanted to right over the salt to poor people of India.
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Answer: (C) (A) is true, (R) is not.

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Dandi March on March 12, 1930, as a direct action campaign of tax resistance and non-violent protest against the British salt monopoly. While the salt tax was indeed an iniquitous burden that disproportionately affected the poor, the primary historical objective of the march was to launch the Civil Disobedience Movement and unify the Indian masses in the struggle for Purna Swaraj or complete independence. Salt was chosen as a symbolic rallying point because it was a basic necessity for every Indian regardless of class or religion. The claim that Gandhi's reason was specifically to provide a right over salt to poor people is an incomplete and imprecise characterization of the broader political and nationalist goals of the Satyagraha.

41History
Statement (S): In the Second World War Indian National Congress cooperated with Britishers. Reason (R): Because they hoped for complete independence.
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Answer: (D) (R) is true but not (S).

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The Indian National Congress (INC) did not cooperate with the British during the Second World War because the Viceroy, Lord Linlithgow, declared India a belligerent in the conflict without consulting Indian political leaders or the provincial ministries. The Congress leadership maintained that India could not fight for the freedom of others while its own freedom was denied. They demanded an immediate declaration of complete independence and the establishment of a representative government at the center as conditions for their support. When the British government rejected these demands, the Congress ministries in the provinces resigned in October and November 1939. This refusal to cooperate led to the Individual Satyagraha in 1940 and culminated in the Quit India Movement of 1942. Throughout this period, the primary goal of the Congress remained the attainment of Purna Swaraj, or complete independence, a resolution they had officially adopted at the Lahore Session in 1929.

42History
Match the following: List-I (Book): (A) India Wins Freedom (B) Runs and Ruins (C) Young India (D) New India List-II (Author): 1. Sunil Gavaskar 2. Abul Kalam Azad 3. Mahatma Gandhi 4. Annie Besant
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

Explanation

A-2: India Wins Freedom is an autobiographical account by Maulana Abul Kalam Azad that provides a detailed perspective on the events leading to India's independence and partition.

B-1: Runs and Ruins is a book written by the legendary Indian cricketer Sunil Gavaskar, reflecting on his experiences and various matches during his professional career.

C-3: Young India was a weekly journal published in English by Mahatma Gandhi from 1919 to 1931 to propagate his ideas of non-violence and satyagraha.

D-4: New India was a daily newspaper edited by Annie Besant to advocate for Indian self-government and to support the activities of the Home Rule League.

43History
Which of the following year represents the unanimity period between Indian National Congress and Muslim League.
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Answer: (B) 1916 | 1922

Explanation

The Lucknow Pact of 1916 marked the beginning of a significant phase of cooperation between the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League, where both organizations agreed on a common scheme of constitutional reforms and the demand for self-government. This political unity was further cemented during the Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movements from 1919 to 1922, as the leadership of both groups worked in close coordination against British rule. This period of rapprochement and joint action for national and religious causes persisted until 1922, when the suspension of the Non-Cooperation Movement and the changing political climate led to a divergence in their respective agendas.

44History
The first Indian, elected for the British Parliament was?
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Answer: (C) Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji, widely regarded as the Grand Old Man of India, was the first Indian to be elected to the British House of Commons in 1892. Contesting on a Liberal Party ticket from the Finsbury Central constituency, he secured a narrow victory to represent the seat until 1895. During his tenure, he worked tirelessly to bring Indian issues to the forefront of British political discourse, particularly focusing on the economic exploitation of India. He was instrumental in establishing the Welby Commission on Indian expenditure and used his parliamentary platform to argue for Indian representation and the reduction of the financial burden on the Indian people. His election marked a historic milestone in the Indian freedom struggle and the global movement for political representation.

45Polity and Governance
Vidhan Sabha elections held in the year 1937, In which of the following province Indian National Congress did not get Majority
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Answer: (C) Punjab

Explanation

In the provincial elections of 1937 conducted under the Government of India Act of 1935, the Indian National Congress achieved clear majorities in five provinces: Madras, Bihar, Orissa, the Central Provinces, and the United Provinces. In Punjab, however, the political landscape was dominated by the Unionist Party, a secular organization representing the interests of landed gentry and agriculturists across different religious communities. Led by Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan, the Unionist Party won a decisive victory and formed the provincial government. The Indian National Congress was unable to secure a majority in Punjab, Bengal, or Sindh, as regional parties and the Muslim League held more significant influence in those areas during this period.

46History
'My ultimate aim is to wipe out the tears from the eyes of every person'. This is the statement given by
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru expressed this sentiment in his famous Tryst with Destiny speech delivered to the Constituent Assembly of India on the eve of Independence, August 14, 1947. In the address, Nehru stated that the ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye. While he was paying tribute to the vision of Mahatma Gandhi, he invoked this goal as the fundamental objective for the government and the people of independent India. He emphasized that as long as there are tears and suffering, the work of nation-building would remain incomplete, thereby adopting this humanitarian mission as the ultimate aim of the new state.

47History
'You give me blood, I will give you Freedom' who had said this statement.
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Answer: (A) Subhash Chandra Bose

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose delivered this iconic slogan during an emotional speech to the Indian National Army (INA) and Indian civilians in Burma on July 4, 1944. As the Supreme Commander of the Azad Hind Fauj, Bose used this powerful rhetoric to mobilize the Indian diaspora in Southeast Asia and inspire them to offer their lives for the cause of national liberation. The statement emphasized that independence from British rule required the ultimate sacrifice from the soldiers and citizens of India. This call to arms became one of the most defining slogans of the Indian independence movement, symbolizing the militant and revolutionary approach to achieving complete freedom from colonial rule.

48History
The place where the first session of Indian National congress held?
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Answer: (A) Bombay

Explanation

The first session of the Indian National Congress was held from December 28 to December 31, 1885, at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay. While the conference was originally planned to take place in Poona, a sudden outbreak of cholera in that city forced the organizers to shift the venue to Bombay. This inaugural session was presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee and attended by 72 delegates from across India. The meeting was organized with the help of retired British officer Allan Octavian Hume and served as the foundational assembly for the national political movement.

49Geography
What is the time difference between the farthest western village of Gujarat and farthest eastern village. Valang, of Arunachal Pradesh?
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Answer: (B) 2 hour

Explanation

The Earth rotates at a rate of 15° per hour, which means each 1° of longitude represents a time difference of 4 minutes (60 minutes/15°). India is geographically situated between approximately 68°7' E longitude in the west (Gujarat) and 97°25' E longitude in the east (Arunachal Pradesh). This results in a longitudinal span of roughly 29°18'. By applying the formula Time Difference = Longitudinal Difference × 4 minutes, the calculation ≈ 29.3° × 4 yields approximately 117 minutes. This duration is nearly 120 minutes, or 2 hours, which accounts for the time lag between the sunrise at the eastern extremity and the western extremity of the country.

50Geography
Match the following with the help of code given below. List-I (City): (A) Katak (B) Ludhiana (C) Nasik (D) Ujjain List-II (River): 1. Godavari 2. Shipra 3. Mahanadi 4. Sutluj
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Answer: (A) A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2

Explanation

Katak is located at the apex of the Mahanadi river delta in Odisha. Ludhiana is a major city in Punjab situated near the banks of the Sutluj river. Nasik is a prominent pilgrimage site in Maharashtra located along the Godavari river. Ujjain is an ancient holy city in Madhya Pradesh situated on the banks of the Shipra river.

51Geography
Which of the following river falls into the Arabian Sea?
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Answer: (B) Tapti

Explanation

The Tapti, also known as the Tapi, is one of the major west-flowing rivers of peninsular India. It originates in the Satpura Range near Multai in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. The river flows westward for approximately 724 kilometers through the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. Its course is situated in a rift valley between the Satpura and Ajanta hills, eventually emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat, an inlet of the Arabian Sea, near the city of Surat. Along with the Narmada and the Mahi, the Tapti is one of the few large rivers in India that drains into the Arabian Sea rather than the Bay of Bengal.

52Geography
The best quality of marble is found in the city of
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Answer: (A) Makrana

Explanation

Makrana is globally recognized for producing the finest quality of white marble, which is characterized by its high calcium carbonate content and superior durability. Located in the Nagaur district of Rajasthan, the Makrana quarries yield a type of marble that is highly resistant to water absorption and chemical erosion, ensuring it maintains its white luster over centuries. This premium stone was the primary material used in the construction of the Taj Mahal and the Victoria Memorial, cementing its reputation as the best quality marble available in India. Its interlocking crystalline structure provides significant strength, making it ideal for intricate carving and long-lasting architectural structures.

53Geography
Match the following with the help of code given below. List-I (Tree): (A) Sagon (B) Devdhar (C) Sundari (D) Sincona List-II (Region): 1. Valleys of Himalayas 2. Mid India 3. Sunderban 4. Higher areas of Himalaya
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Answer: (C) A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4

Explanation

Sagon (Teak) grows in mid India (2). Devdhar (Deodar cedar) is found in valleys of the Himalayas (1). Sundari trees are characteristic of the Sundarbans (3). Sincona (Cinchona) grows in higher areas of the Himalayas (4). Correct matching: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option C.

54Geography
Indira Canal (Rajasthan) originates from?
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Answer: (C) Sutluj

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Canal, one of the largest canal projects in India, starts from the Harike Barrage located in Punjab. This barrage is situated at the confluence of the Sutlej and Beas rivers. The canal system was designed to divert the waters of these eastern rivers of the Indus Basin to provide irrigation and drinking water to the arid regions of northwestern Rajasthan. The Sutlej river acts as the primary channel supplying the water at this diversion point into the Rajasthan Feeder canal.

55Geography
On which river Sardar Sarovar Dam is being build?
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Answer: (A) Narmada

Explanation

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a massive concrete gravity dam built across the Narmada River near Navagam in Gujarat. It serves as the cornerstone of the Narmada Valley Project, an ambitious interstate initiative aimed at harnessing the perennial flow of India's largest west-flowing river. The dam was designed to redirect water through an extensive canal network to provide irrigation and drinking water to drought-prone areas of Gujarat and Rajasthan. Additionally, the project includes powerhouses intended to generate significant hydroelectricity to be shared among the states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. The planning and execution of the dam were governed by the Narmada Water Disputes Tribunal's 1979 decision, making it one of the most significant hydraulic engineering projects in India during the late 20th century.

56Economy
Hydro power plan is located at one of the following queen place that place is
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Answer: (A) Koyna

Explanation

The Koyna Hydroelectric Project is one of the largest and most significant hydroelectric power plants in India, located in the Satara district of Maharashtra. Constructed on the Koyna River, a major tributary of the Krishna River, the project serves as a vital source of electricity for the region and is often referred to as the lifeline of Maharashtra. The facility is situated deep within the Sahyadri mountain range of the Western Ghats. The first stage of this multi-stage project was commissioned in 1962. Its location is geographically close to Mahabaleshwar, which is famously known as the Queen of Hill Stations in Maharashtra, providing the context for the term used in the description.

57Economy
Goods imported at Haldia port is
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Answer: (D) Petroleum products

Explanation

Haldia Port, established as a satellite port to alleviate the congestion of the Kolkata Port, was specifically designed to handle bulk cargo and deep-draft vessels. Its primary import commodity is petroleum and crude oil, largely driven by the operational requirements of the Haldia Refinery commissioned by the Indian Oil Corporation in the 1970s. The port is equipped with specialized oil jetties and sophisticated handling facilities for liquid bulk, making it a vital hub for energy imports to the eastern region of India. The strategic location near the mouth of the Hooghly River allows it to receive large tankers that transport crude oil and refined petroleum products required for industrial and transport sectors.

58Geography
Which of the following is Iron ore region?
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Answer: (C) Kudremukh

Explanation

Kudremukh is located in the Chikmagalur district of Karnataka and is one of the most significant iron ore regions in India. It is specifically known for its vast deposits of magnetite ore, which is found in the mountain ranges of the Western Ghats. The region became a focal point of industrial activity after the establishment of the Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Limited (KIOCL) in 1976, which was formed to mine and process the ore for export. By 1992, it was recognized as a major mining hub that utilized specialized slurry pipelines to transport processed ore to the Mangalore port, making it a critical part of India's mineral economy and international trade infrastructure.

59Science and Technology
Match the following: List-I: (A) Planet (B) Satellite (C) Asteroid (D) Artificial Satellite List-II (Example): 1. Moon 2. Uranus 3. Marinar 4. Heli
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

Explanation

Uranus is the seventh planet from the Sun and is a major celestial body in our solar system. The Moon is the natural satellite of the Earth, held in orbit by Earth's gravitational field. Heli, referring to Halley, is a minor solar system body that is categorized alongside asteroids in this classification of celestial objects. Mariner was a series of NASA robotic spacecraft launched as artificial satellites and probes to explore the planets Mercury, Venus, and Mars.

60Geography
Which of the is longest day date?
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Answer: (C) 22 June

Explanation

The longest day of the year in the Northern Hemisphere occurs during the Summer Solstice, which typically falls on June 21 or June 22. This phenomenon happens when the Earth's North Pole reaches its maximum tilt toward the Sun, causing the Sun to appear at its highest point in the sky at noon over the Tropic of Cancer at 23.5° N latitude. As a result, locations north of the equator experience the greatest number of daylight hours and the shortest night of the year. This astronomical event marks the beginning of summer in the Northern Hemisphere.

61Science and Technology
Which one of the following is true about planets?
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Answer: (B) They are lackluster still brights.

Explanation

Planets are celestial bodies that do not produce their own light through nuclear fusion, making them non-luminous or lackluster in terms of inherent light generation. Despite the absence of an internal light source, they appear bright to observers on Earth because they reflect the light of the Sun. This reflected light is sufficient to make planets some of the most prominent objects in the night sky. While stars emit light and often appear to twinkle due to atmospheric turbulence affecting their point-source light, planets typically provide a steady and significant brightness due to their relative proximity and the way they reflect solar radiation across their visible disks.

62Geography
Statement (S): At International date line, there is a difference of 12 hours from greenwich? Reason (R): International date set line is situated at 180 degree longitude.
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Answer: (A) (S) and (R) both are correct and (R) explains (S).

Explanation

The Earth rotates 360° in approximately 24 hours, which means it covers 15° of longitude every hour (360 / 24 = 15). The Prime Meridian, located at Greenwich, is defined as 0° longitude. The International Date Line is situated at the 180° meridian, exactly halfway around the world from Greenwich. By dividing the longitudinal distance by the rate of rotation, the time difference is calculated as 180° / 15° per hour = 12 hours. Therefore, the longitudinal position of the International Date Line at 180° is the specific geographical reason why the time there differs from Greenwich by exactly 12 hours.

63Geography
Which of the following is the most appropriate route to travel a ship from one location to another in the shortest possible time?
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Answer: (A) Marine stream

Explanation

Marine streams, or ocean currents, are the continuous and directed movements of seawater generated by forces such as wind, the Coriolis effect, and differences in water density. When a ship navigates along the path of a favorable marine stream, its speed over ground is increased by the velocity of the moving water. This physical boost allows the vessel to reach its destination in less time than it would by traveling through still water or against a current. By aligning maritime routes with these powerful natural flows, such as the Gulf Stream or the Kuroshio Current, mariners can significantly reduce travel duration and optimize fuel efficiency.

64Geography
Which is the smallest continent?
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Answer: (D) Australia

Explanation

Australia is the smallest of the world's seven continents by total land area, covering approximately 7.6 million square kilometers. It is often characterized as an island continent because it is entirely surrounded by the Indian and Pacific Oceans. In the standard geographic hierarchy, its total area is significantly less than that of any other continent, including Europe and Antarctica. This landmass includes the mainland of Australia as well as the island of Tasmania and various smaller offshore islands, all situated on the same tectonic plate and continental shelf.

65Economy
It is opposed to construction large Barrage.
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Answer: (B) It produces natural imbalance.

Explanation

Large-scale barrage construction is often opposed because it fundamentally disrupts the ecological equilibrium of a river basin. By obstructing the natural flow of water, these structures interfere with sediment transport and nutrient cycles, which are vital for downstream fertility and the stability of river deltas. The creation of large reservoirs leads to the submergence of vast tracts of forest land, causing a significant loss of biodiversity and altering the local microclimate. Furthermore, the massive weight of the impounded water can trigger reservoir-induced seismicity in geologically sensitive regions. These combined environmental impacts create a profound natural imbalance that compromises the long-term sustainability of the aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems surrounding the project site.

66Geography
In high pressure areas winds blow in the direction of Mediterranean Sea?
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Answer: (A) Westerlies

Explanation

The Mediterranean region lies on the poleward edge of the subtropical high-pressure belt. Westerlies originate from these subtropical highs and blow northeastward toward higher latitudes, passing directly through the Mediterranean basin. In winter, these westerlies bring moisture and rainfall to the Mediterranean, defining the Mediterranean climate. Trade winds, by contrast, blow from the same subtropical highs but travel equatorward, away from the Mediterranean. Therefore, the winds that blow from high-pressure areas in the direction of the Mediterranean Sea are the Westerlies.

67Geography
Suez Canal joins which of the two rivers?
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Answer: (B) Mediterranean Sea - Red Sea

Explanation

The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway located in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez. Construction began in 1859 and the canal was officially opened in 1869, creating a vital maritime shortcut between Europe and the lands surrounding the Indian and western Pacific Oceans. By linking these two bodies of water, the canal allows ships to travel directly between the North Atlantic and northern Indian oceans without having to circumnavigate the African continent via the Cape of Good Hope. It serves as the shortest maritime link between the East and the West and marks the geographical boundary between Africa and Asia.

68Geography
Volga river merged into?
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Answer: (B) Caspian sea

Explanation

The Volga River is the longest river in Europe, flowing entirely within Russia. It originates in the Valdai Hills northwest of Moscow and flows southwards for approximately 3,530 kilometers through the Russian Plain. It eventually empties into the Caspian Sea, the largest landlocked inland body of water in the world. At its mouth near the city of Astrakhan, the river forms the extensive Volga Delta, which is a major wetland ecosystem. The river serves as a critical waterway for industrial transport and irrigation, draining a basin that covers about one-third of the European part of Russia.

69Geography
Statement (S): After the construction of Suez canal, the distance of the western countries and India became short. Reason (R): Suez canal joins the Mediterranean Sea with Red sea.
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Answer: (A) (S) and (R) both are correct and (R) explains (S).

Explanation

The Suez Canal is a vital artificial waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the Isthmus of Suez. Before its completion in 1869, ships traveling from Europe to India and the Far East were forced to navigate around the entire continent of Africa via the Cape of Good Hope. By providing a direct water link between the North Atlantic and the northern Indian Ocean, the canal reduced the sea voyage distance between Western European ports and India by approximately 7,000 kilometers. The geographic location of the canal, specifically its role in joining the Mediterranean and Red seas, is the physical reason why this drastic reduction in distance was possible.

70Polity and Governance
The Guardian of Fundamental rights is?
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Answer: (A) Supreme court

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India is designated as the protector and guarantor of Fundamental Rights under the Constitution. Article 32 of the Constitution, which is itself a Fundamental Right, provides a dedicated mechanism for the enforcement of these rights by empowering the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or writs. This constitutional provision allows any citizen to move the Supreme Court directly if their Fundamental Rights are violated by the State. Because the Supreme Court has the final authority to interpret the Constitution and the power of judicial review to strike down any law or executive action that infringes upon the basic rights guaranteed in Part III, it acts as the ultimate sentinel of individual liberties.

71Polity and Governance
In the absence of president and vice-president, who holds the office of president?
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Answer: (A) Chief judge of Supreme court

Explanation

According to Article 70 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament has the power to make provisions for the discharge of the functions of the President in any contingency not provided for in the Constitution. In exercise of this power, the Parliament enacted the President (Discharge of Functions) Act, 1969. This Act stipulates that in the event of a vacancy in the offices of both the President and the Vice-President, the Chief Justice of India (referred to in the options as the Chief Judge of the Supreme Court) shall discharge the functions of the President. If the Chief Justice is also unavailable, the seniormost judge of the Supreme Court available shall perform those duties. This legal provision was historically utilized in 1969 when Chief Justice M. Hidayatullah was sworn in as the Acting President of India following the death of President Zakir Hussain and the subsequent resignation of Vice-President V.V. Giri.

72Polity and Governance
Governor is liable to?
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Answer: (B) President

Explanation

Under Article 155 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a State is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal. Article 156(1) further specifies that the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. This constitutional provision implies that the Governor is directly accountable to the President and can be removed from office at any time without a formal impeachment process or the necessity of providing specific grounds for removal. As the constitutional head of the State who also acts as a vital link between the Union and the State governments, the Governor remains liable to the President for the exercise of their functions and the maintenance of constitutional machinery within the State.

73Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not necessary for the presidential candidate?
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Answer: (B) Educated

Explanation

Educational qualification is not a requirement for the President of India under the Constitution. Article 58 specifies the eligibility criteria for the presidency, and it does not mandate any formal education, degree, or literacy level for a candidate. The framers of the Constitution intended to keep political offices open to all citizens without the barrier of academic schooling, ensuring that the office of the President is accessible based on the criteria explicitly stated in the constitutional text.

74Polity and Governance
President rule can be imposed for maximum time duration of
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Answer: (D) 3 years

Explanation

Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, President's Rule is imposed in a state when the constitutional machinery fails. A proclamation issued under this article must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months. Once approved, it remains in force for six months and can be extended every six months with parliamentary approval for a maximum period of three years. Beyond this three-year limit, President's Rule cannot be extended, and the constitutional machinery must be restored through fresh elections. Although the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced specific conditions for extending the proclamation beyond one year—such as the operation of a National Emergency or the Election Commission certifying that assembly elections cannot be held—the absolute maximum duration for the operation of President's Rule in a state remains three years.

75Polity and Governance
Cabinet includes?
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Answer: (B) Only cabinet ministers

Explanation

The Cabinet is a smaller, more powerful body within the Council of Ministers that consists exclusively of senior ministers who hold independent charge of the most important portfolios such as Home, Finance, and Defence. Under the Indian parliamentary system, the Cabinet acts as the supreme decision-making authority and meets regularly to formulate policy and coordinate the work of the government. This distinction is legally defined in Article 352 of the Constitution, as inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, which specifies the Cabinet as the council consisting of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of Cabinet rank. While the Council of Ministers is a larger body encompassing all tiers of the ministry, the Cabinet refers only to this inner circle of top-level ministers.

76Polity and Governance
Chairman of which Sabha is not a member of that Sabha?
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Answer: (A) Rajya Sabha

Explanation

According to Article 64 and Article 89(1) of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President of India serves as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha; instead, the holder of this office is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament. While presiding over the proceedings of the upper house, the Chairman performs functions similar to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha but remains a non-member. Consequently, the Chairman does not possess a vote in the first instance and can only exercise a casting vote in the event of a tie to resolve a deadlock.

77Polity and Governance
The term of office of a member of Rajya Sabha is
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Answer: (D) 6 years

Explanation

Under Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. While the Constitution does not explicitly state the term of its members, it empowers the Parliament to determine the duration of membership. In accordance with this authority, the Parliament enacted the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which fixed the term of office for a member of the Rajya Sabha at six years. To maintain the continuity of the house, the Constitution provides that one-third of the members must retire every second year, ensuring that the chamber is never entirely vacant.

78Polity and Governance
Who decides that a bill is money bill or no?
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Answer: (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Explanation

Under Article 110(3) of the Constitution of India, if any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is final. This constitutional provision grants the Speaker the absolute authority to certify the status of such legislation. Furthermore, Article 110(4) requires that when a Money Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha or presented to the President for assent, it must carry a certificate signed by the Speaker confirming its status. This ensures the primacy of the Lok Sabha in financial matters and prevents jurisdictional disputes between the two Houses of Parliament regarding the classification of the bill.

79Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not associated with Election commission?
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Answer: (A) Notification about the elections

Explanation

Under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the formal notification for a general election to the Lok Sabha is issued by the President of India as per Section 14, while the notification for elections to the State Legislative Assemblies is issued by the Governor of the respective state under Section 15. Although the Election Commission of India is responsible for deciding the schedule and recommending the specific dates for the polls, the statutory authority to issue the notification that calls upon the constituencies to elect their representatives rests with the executive head of the Union or the State. The Election Commission subsequently issues notifications concerning the dates for filing nominations, scrutiny, withdrawal, and the date of the poll itself, but the initial notification starting the election cycle is not its direct function.

80Polity and Governance
What is the term of Mayor?
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Answer: (D) 5 year

Explanation

The Seventy-fourth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IXA into the Constitution of India, which provides a standard framework for urban local bodies. According to Article 243U, the term of every Municipality is fixed for a duration of five years from the date appointed for its first meeting. As the Mayor serves as the head of the Municipal Corporation, the term of this office is generally aligned with the five-year tenure of the elected council. This provision was established to ensure regularity in local elections and to provide a stable duration for the leadership of municipal governance.

81Economy
'Operation flood 2' is related to which of the following one?
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Answer: (B) Milk supply

Explanation

Operation Flood was a massive dairy development program launched by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) in 1970 to create a nationwide milk grid. Phase II of the program, referred to as Operation Flood 2, was implemented between 1981 and 1985. It focused on expanding the dairy cooperative network to cover 136 milk sheds and linking them to over 290 urban markets. By establishing a modern system for the procurement, processing, and marketing of milk, the project aimed to increase milk production and ensure a steady milk supply to urban areas while boosting rural incomes. This program was the cornerstone of the White Revolution, transforming India from a milk-deficient nation into a self-sufficient producer.

82Economy
Which of the following tax is not levied by Central Government?
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Answer: (B) Entertainment tax

Explanation

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Entertainment Tax is placed under Entry 62 of the State List (List II). This constitutional provision empowers the state governments to levy and collect taxes on luxuries, including taxes on entertainments, amusements, betting, and gambling. While the Central Government exercises authority over subjects in the Union List, such as various forms of direct taxation, the fiscal power to regulate and tax the entertainment industry is reserved for the states. In many instances, state governments further delegate the collection of this tax to local bodies or municipal corporations.

83Economy
Which of the following function is truly associated with land development bank?
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Answer: (A) To provide long term loans to the farmers

Explanation

Land Development Banks are specialized institutions within the cooperative credit structure designed to provide long-term credit to farmers. Unlike the short-term credit structure that addresses seasonal crop requirements, these banks focus on developmental investments that require a longer repayment period, usually spanning five to twenty years. The primary objective is to facilitate capital formation and permanent improvements on land, such as the construction of tube wells, installation of irrigation systems, purchase of tractors or heavy agricultural machinery, and land leveling. These loans are typically secured through the mortgage of agricultural land, which is why these institutions were historically known as Land Mortgage Banks before being rebranded to emphasize their role in long-term agricultural development.

84Economy
Which of the following is not correct about the Reserve Bank of India?
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Answer: (A) It issues all types of currency notes.

Explanation

Under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the RBI has the sole right to issue bank notes in India for all denominations except for the one-rupee note. The one-rupee note and all coins are issued directly by the Ministry of Finance of the Government of India. Furthermore, while bank notes issued by the RBI bear the signature of the Governor of the Reserve Bank, the one-rupee note bears the signature of the Finance Secretary. The RBI only acts as an agent for the distribution of these government-issued notes and coins into the economy.

85Science and Technology
Which of the following is Independent of the changes in the mass of a body?
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Answer: (D) Density

Explanation

Density is defined as the mass per unit volume of a substance, represented by the formula ρ = m/V. It is an intensive property of matter, meaning it depends solely on the nature of the substance and its physical state, such as temperature and pressure, rather than the total amount of matter present. In a uniform substance, any change in mass is accompanied by a proportional change in volume. Because the ratio of mass to volume remains constant for a specific material under fixed conditions, the density is independent of the total mass of the body.

86Science and Technology
Sun appears to be red at Sun set.
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Answer: (B) Due to dispersion

Explanation

Dispersion refers to the phenomenon where white light is separated into its constituent spectral colors. At sunset, the Sun is located near the horizon, meaning sunlight must travel through a much greater thickness of the Earth's atmosphere to reach the observer than it does during the middle of the day. As light traverses this longer path, it interacts with atmospheric molecules and small particles. The intensity of this interaction depends on the wavelength of the light, following the relationship I ∝ 1/λ⁴. This indicates that shorter wavelengths, such as blue and violet, are scattered and dispersed away from the direct line of sight much more effectively than longer wavelengths. Because red light has the longest wavelength in the visible spectrum, it undergoes the least scattering and is able to penetrate the dense atmospheric layer. Therefore, the shorter wavelengths are filtered out, and the light reaching the eye is predominantly composed of the remaining red and orange wavelengths.

87Economy
Which of the following represents the increasing orders of electric consumption?
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Answer: (C) Fan, Television, electric press, electric Kettle

Explanation

Electric consumption is determined by the wattage rating of the appliance. In the early 1990s, a standard ceiling fan typically consumed between 60W and 90W. A color television set using cathode ray tube technology generally operated at around 100W to 150W. Appliances that generate heat using resistive elements have significantly higher power requirements to perform their functions. An electric press or iron usually ranges from 750W to 1200W to maintain the heat necessary for ironing clothes. An electric kettle, which must boil water rapidly, requires the highest energy input among these devices, often ranging from 1500W to 2500W. This establishes a clear progression from the low-power motor of the fan to the high-power heating element of the kettle.

88Science and Technology
Function of Dynamo is
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Answer: (C) To convert mechanical energy into electric energy

Explanation

A dynamo is an electrical generator that operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction, discovered by Michael Faraday. It consists of a stationary magnetic field and a rotating armature containing coils of wire. When the armature is spun by an external mechanical force, such as a turbine or an engine, the wire coils cut through the magnetic lines of force. According to Faraday's law, this change in magnetic flux induces an electromotive force (EMF) within the coils. By using a commutator to ensure the current flows in a single direction, the dynamo effectively transforms mechanical energy into electrical energy in the form of direct current.

89Science and Technology
A ball of iron and wood of same weight dropped from the same height?
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Answer: (C) Ball of wood falls later.

Explanation

In the presence of air, the downward acceleration a of an object is determined by the relationship ma = mg - F_d, where m is the mass and F_d is the force of air resistance. Since the iron and wooden balls have the same weight, their masses m are identical. However, because the density of wood is significantly lower than that of iron, the wooden ball must have a much larger volume and cross-sectional area to maintain the same weight. The air resistance F_d acting on an object is proportional to its cross-sectional area. Therefore, the larger wooden ball experiences a greater drag force than the compact iron ball. This higher resistance reduces the net acceleration of the wooden ball more significantly, causing it to fall at a slower rate and reach the ground later than the iron ball.

90Geography
When a ship enter a sea from the river?
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Answer: (B) Will rise up

Explanation

The phenomenon is explained by Archimedes principle and the difference in density between fresh water and salt water. Seawater contains a high concentration of dissolved salts, making its density ρₛₑₐ greater than the density of river water ρᵣᵢᵥₑᵣ. For a ship to float, it must displace a weight of water equal to its own weight. Since buoyancy is calculated as Fᵦ = ρVg, where V is the volume of displaced liquid, a higher density ρ requires a smaller volume V to produce the same upward force. When the ship enters the denser seawater, it displaces less volume than it did in the river, causing the ship to sit higher in the water and rise up.

91Science and Technology
By travelling through an Aeroplane, the ink from the pen leaks due to?
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Answer: (A) Due to decrease in air pressure

Explanation

Atmospheric pressure decreases as altitude increases. While airplane cabins are pressurized, the internal cabin pressure at cruising altitude is still significantly lower than the atmospheric pressure at sea level. A fountain pen contains a reservoir of ink with a small amount of trapped air. According to Boyle's Law, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to its pressure at a constant temperature (P₁V₁ = P₂V₂). As the external cabin pressure drops during the flight, the air trapped inside the pen's reservoir expands. This expansion creates internal pressure that forces the ink out through the nib or feed mechanism, resulting in a leak.

92Economy
Why diesel is used for heavy vehicles?
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Answer: (C) Higher capacity and money savings

Explanation

Diesel engines are used in heavy vehicles primarily due to their ability to generate high torque at low engine speeds, which provides the necessary capacity for hauling heavy loads and overcoming inertia. This is a result of the high compression ratio inherent in the diesel cycle. Furthermore, diesel engines exhibit greater thermal efficiency than petrol engines, leading to better fuel economy. In the context of the early 1990s, the operational cost was significantly lower because diesel fuel was priced lower than petrol and the engines provided more work per unit of fuel, ensuring substantial money savings for commercial transport.

93Science and Technology
What is the polymer of natural rubber?
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Answer: (B) Isoprine

Explanation

Natural rubber is a linear polymer of isoprene, which is chemically known as 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene. It is a naturally occurring elastomer obtained from the latex of the rubber tree, Hevea brasiliensis. The polymer consists of thousands of isoprene units linked together in a specific spatial arrangement called the cis-1,4-configuration. In this configuration, the polymer chains are held together by weak van der Waals forces and have a coiled structure, which allows the material to stretch and then return to its original shape. The chemical formula for the isoprene monomer is CH₂=C(CH₃)-CH=CH₂, and the polymerization process results in the macromolecule known as cis-1,4-polyisoprene.

94Science and Technology
An important component of photography is
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Answer: (B) Silver bromide

Explanation

Silver bromide (AgBr) is the primary light-sensitive chemical used in the production of photographic film and paper. In chemical photography, a thin layer of gelatin containing microscopic crystals of silver bromide is coated onto a substrate to create an emulsion. When light strikes the film during exposure, the silver bromide crystals undergo a photochemical reaction that produces a latent image. During the development process, these exposed crystals are chemically reduced to black metallic silver, which forms the visible image. The specific sensitivity of silver bromide to electromagnetic radiation, combined with its ability to be stabilized during the fixing stage, makes it the essential component for capturing and preserving photographs in traditional imaging.

95Science and Technology
Conversion of water into vapor is called?
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Answer: (B) Physical

Explanation

The conversion of water into vapor is a physical change because it involves a transition between states of matter without altering the molecular structure of the substance. Both liquid water and water vapor are composed of H₂O molecules. During this process, the application of heat provides enough kinetic energy for the molecules to overcome intermolecular attractive forces, allowing them to escape into the gaseous phase. Since no chemical bonds are broken or formed and the process can be reversed through condensation, it is classified as a physical change.

96Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used for food processing?
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Answer: (D) Benzoic acid

Explanation

Benzoic acid (C₆H₅COOH) is a widely used preservative in the food processing industry due to its antimicrobial properties. It functions by inhibiting the growth of yeast, molds, and certain bacteria that cause food spoilage. In the food industry, it is frequently used in the form of its salt, sodium benzoate, which is more soluble in water. It is particularly effective in acidic environments with a pH below 4.5, making it a standard choice for preserving fruit juices, carbonated beverages, pickles, jams, and sauces. By interfering with the metabolic processes of microorganisms, benzoic acid extends the shelf life and maintains the safety of processed food products.

97Science and Technology
After accumulation of which one of the following liquid muscle became tired?
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Answer: (A) Lactic acid

Explanation

During strenuous physical activity, the oxygen supply to muscle cells becomes insufficient to meet the metabolic demand, causing the muscles to switch from aerobic to anaerobic respiration. In this process, glucose is broken down into pyruvate, which is then converted into lactic acid (C₃H₆O₃). The accumulation of lactic acid in the muscle tissues results in an increase in hydrogen ion concentration and a subsequent drop in pH levels. This acidic environment interferes with the biochemical reactions required for muscle contraction and inhibits the function of enzymes, leading to the physiological sensation of muscle fatigue and soreness.

98Science and Technology
No of chromosome in a Normal Human being is
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Answer: (B) 46

Explanation

Normal human somatic cells are diploid (2n), meaning they contain two sets of chromosomes, one inherited from each parent. Each set consists of 23 chromosomes, resulting in a total of 46 chromosomes per cell. Among these, 44 are autosomes, which are organized into 22 homologous pairs, and 2 are sex chromosomes (XX in females and XY in males). This specific count is a fundamental characteristic of the human species. Germ cells, or gametes, contain the haploid number of 23 chromosomes, which ensures that the full complement of 46 is restored in the zygote during fertilization.

99Science and Technology
In cow milk yellowish color is found because of the substance?
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Answer: (C) Carotene

Explanation

The yellowish color of cow milk is primarily attributed to the presence of carotene, a fat-soluble pigment. Cows ingest carotene through green fodder and grasses in their diet. Unlike some other ruminants that efficiently convert all carotene into colorless Vitamin A within their systems, cows secrete a significant amount of unchanged beta-carotene into their milk fat. This pigment remains dissolved in the fat globules of the milk, reflecting light in the yellow spectrum and giving the milk its characteristic cream-to-yellow hue. Carotene serves as a vital precursor to Vitamin A, enhancing the nutritional value of the milk.

100Science and Technology
By which of the following method the age of earth is determined?
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Answer: (D) Uranium method

Explanation

The age of the Earth is determined using the Uranium dating method, specifically Uranium-Lead (U-Pb) dating. This radiometric dating technique relies on the natural radioactive decay of uranium isotopes into stable isotopes of lead. Because uranium isotopes such as ²³⁸U have extremely long half-lives, approximately 4.47 billion years, they act as stable geological clocks suitable for measuring the age of the Earth's oldest rocks and minerals. By measuring the ratio of parent uranium isotopes to daughter lead isotopes (²⁰⁶Pb and ²⁰⁷Pb) within a mineral sample like zircon, scientists can calculate the time elapsed since the mineral crystallized. This method is essential for dating materials that are billions of years old, providing the most accurate estimate for the formation of the Earth and the solar system.

101Science and Technology
What is Nuclear reactor?
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Answer: (D) Nuclear furnace

Explanation

A nuclear reactor is a device designed to initiate and control a self-sustained nuclear chain reaction. The core of the reactor functions as a heat source where the fission of heavy isotopes, such as uranium-235, releases vast amounts of thermal energy. This process is analogous to the combustion of fossil fuels in a conventional furnace, leading to the descriptive term nuclear furnace. In a reactor, this controlled release of energy is managed by moderators and control rods to maintain a steady temperature, and the resulting heat is transferred to a coolant to produce steam for electricity generation or for research purposes.

102Art and CultureUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following tribe is a tribe of Uttar Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Tharu

Explanation

The Tharu tribe is one of the most prominent indigenous groups residing in the Terai region of Uttar Pradesh, particularly across districts such as Lakhimpur Kheri, Bahraich, Gonda, Maharajganj, and Balrampur. They predominantly inhabit the damp, forested lowlands of the Shivalik range along the Indo-Nepal border. Historically recognized for their unique social structure and traditional agricultural practices, the Tharu people represent a major tribal population within the state's administrative boundaries. Their culture is distinct, characterized by specific religious beliefs and a social system that often grants significant status to women, making them a primary subject of ethnographic study regarding the tribal landscape of northern Uttar Pradesh.

103Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following is not true?
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Answer: (A) Ashok Singhal is in the cabinet of UP.

Explanation

Ashok Singhal was a prominent leader of the Vishva Hindu Parishad (VHP) and served as its General Secretary during the early 1990s. He was a central figure in the Ram Janmabhoomi movement and focused his efforts on organizational and ideological mobilization within the VHP. He did not hold any legislative position, nor did he serve as a minister in the Uttar Pradesh cabinet, which was led by Chief Minister Kalyan Singh during that period and consisted of elected political representatives.

104Polity and GovernanceUttar Pradesh-specific
Which of the following is true?
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Answer: (B) Harassment of farmers by police took places in Ramkola

Explanation

In September 1992, the town of Ramkola in the Deoria district (now in Kushinagar) of Uttar Pradesh became the site of a violent clash between the police and farmers. The farmers were protesting against the non-payment of sugarcane arrears by local sugar mills. During the agitation, the police opened fire on the protesters, leading to deaths and subsequent widespread harassment, detentions, and use of force against the farming community. This incident was a significant event in the regional politics of the time, highlighting the severe agrarian distress and the administrative response to rural protests.

105History
Match the following: List-I (Operation): (A) Operation check mate (B) Operation cactus (C) Operation blue star (D) Operation Siddhartha List-II (Area): 1. Maldives 2. Punjab 3. Bihar 4. Sri Lanka
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Answer: (A) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3

Explanation

Operation Checkmate (A-4) was a major military offensive launched by the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) in June 1988 to neutralize LTTE cadres in the Vadamaracchi region of northern Sri Lanka.

Operation Cactus (B-1) refers to India's successful 1988 military intervention to foil a coup attempt against President Maumoon Abdul Gayoom in the Maldives involving PLOTE mercenaries.

Operation Blue Star (C-2) was the Indian Army operation conducted in June 1984 to remove Sikh militants, led by Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale, from the Harmandir Sahib complex in Amritsar, Punjab.

Operation Siddhartha (D-3) was an anti-Naxal strategy implemented in the early 1990s in Central Bihar that integrated security operations with developmental programs to win over the local population from extremist influence.

106Science and Technology
Match the following: List-I (Discovery): (A) Radium (B) Penicillin (C) X-ray (D) Chicken pox List-II (Discoverer): 1. Alexander Fleming 2. Madam Curie 3. Edward Jenner 4. W.K. Roentgen
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3

Explanation

Marie Curie and her husband Pierre Curie discovered the chemical element Radium in 1898, a milestone that significantly advanced the study of radioactivity and nuclear physics. Alexander Fleming is credited with the discovery of Penicillin in 1928, which was the first true antibiotic and transformed the treatment of bacterial infections. Wilhelm Conrad Roentgen discovered X-rays in 1895 while working with vacuum tubes, an achievement that earned him the first Nobel Prize in Physics and revolutionized medical diagnostics. Edward Jenner is widely regarded as the father of immunology for his development of the smallpox vaccine in 1796, and his pioneering work in vaccination provided the scientific basis for preventing various viral diseases.

107Science and Technology
Match the following: List-I: (A) Earthquake (B) Height (C) Electric current (D) Resistance List-II (Measuring Instrument): 1. Aamiter 2. Seismo graph 3. Altimeter 4. Ohm
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4

Explanation

Earthquakes are detected and recorded by a seismograph, which measures the intensity and duration of seismic waves transmitted through the ground. Height or altitude is measured using an altimeter, an instrument frequently used in aviation to determine the distance of an object above a fixed level, such as sea level. Electric current is measured by an ammeter, which is an instrument connected in a circuit to determine the flow of electric charge in units of amperes. Resistance is the physical property of a conductor that opposes the flow of electric current, and it is measured in units called ohms, representing the ratio of voltage to current as established by Ohm's law.

108Art and Culture
Match the following: List-I (Artist): (A) Birju Maharaj (B) Hari Prasad Chaurasia (C) Ali Akbar (D) Zakir Hussain List-II (Art Form): 1. Flute 2. Tabla 3. Kathak 4. Sarod
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Answer: (B) A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2

Explanation

Birju Maharaj was the preeminent exponent of the Lucknow Kalka-Bindadin gharana of Kathak dance, recognized for his exceptional rhythmic footwork and expressive storytelling. Hari Prasad Chaurasia is a world-renowned maestro of the bansuri, or bamboo flute, who played a pivotal role in establishing the instrument in Hindustani classical music. Ali Akbar Khan was a legendary sarod player of the Maihar gharana, widely regarded as one of India's most accomplished instrumentalists. Zakir Hussain is a globally acclaimed tabla virtuoso and a master of percussion who has significantly contributed to the popularity of the instrument through his technical brilliance and collaborative performances.

109Polity and Governance
At which of the following place first open university's established?
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Answer: (B) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

The first open university in India was the Andhra Pradesh Open University, which was inaugurated on August 26, 1982, in Hyderabad. Established under the Andhra Pradesh Open University Act passed by the State Legislature, it pioneered the distance education system in the country. The university was later renamed Dr. B.R. Ambedkar Open University in 1991. Its establishment preceded the creation of the national-level Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) by three years, marking a significant shift toward the democratization of higher education in India by providing flexible learning opportunities to those unable to attend traditional formal colleges.

110Art and Culture
Match the following: List-I (Sportsperson): (A) Monica Seles (B) Jim Courier (C) Chetan Sharma (D) Geet Sethi List-II (Sport): 1. Billiards 2. Cricket 3. Tennis (men) 4. Football 5. Tennis (women)
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Answer: (A) A-5 B-3 C-2 D-1

Explanation

Monica Seles was a dominant Yugoslav-American tennis player who reached the world number one ranking in 1991 and won three consecutive French Open titles between 1990 and 1992. Jim Courier was a top-ranked American professional tennis player who held the world number one spot in 1992, the same year he won both the Australian Open and the French Open. Chetan Sharma was an Indian international cricketer famously known for taking the first-ever hat-trick in a Cricket World Cup during the 1987 tournament against New Zealand. Geet Sethi is a renowned Indian player in cue sports who achieved a major milestone in 1992 by winning the World Professional Billiards Championship, establishing his dominance in the sport.

111Art and Culture
Onam is a festival of which of the following state?
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

Onam is the premier harvest festival of Kerala and is celebrated to mark the homecoming of the mythical King Mahabali. Falling in the Malayalam month of Chingam (August–September), it is a ten-day celebration that showcases the state's rich cultural traditions. Key elements of the festivities include the Pookkalam (intricate floral carpets), the Vallam Kali (traditional snake boat races), and the grand vegetarian feast known as Onasadya. The festival serves as a symbol of prosperity and social unity for the people of Kerala.

112Geography
Match the following: List-I (Country): (A) Sri Lanka (B) Maldives (C) Burma (D) Zimbabwe (E) Mauritius List-II (Capital): 1. Male 2. Rangoon 3. Colombo 4. Harare 5. Port Louis
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Answer: (A) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4 E-5

Explanation

A-3 is correct as Colombo is the executive and judicial capital of Sri Lanka. B-1 accurately pairs Male as the capital and most populous city of the Maldives. C-2 links Burma with Rangoon, which served as its capital until the administrative move to Naypyidaw in 2005. D-4 matches Harare, which replaced Salisbury as the capital name of Zimbabwe in 1982. E-5 identifies Port Louis as the capital and largest city of the island nation of Mauritius. Each pairing correctly identifies the political center of the respective nations as recognized in 1992.

113Art and Culture
Match the following: List-I (Sport): (A) Cricket (B) Golf (C) Football (D) Billiards List-II: 1. Pot 2. Ranji 3. Mohan Bagan 4. Put
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1

Explanation

Cricket is associated with the Ranji Trophy, which is the premier domestic first-class cricket championship in India, named after the legendary cricketer K.S. Ranjitsinhji. Golf utilizes the term put (more commonly spelled putt), which refers to a specific low-speed stroke intended to roll the ball into the hole on the putting green. Football is linked to Mohan Bagan, one of the oldest and most prestigious football clubs in India and Asia, based in Kolkata. Billiards involves the action of a pot, which is the successful execution of hitting an object ball into one of the pockets on the table.

114Art and Culture
Match the following: List-I (Monument): (A) Sun temple (B) Lingaraj Temple (C) Hawa Mahal (D) Idol of Gommatseshwara List-II (Location): 1. Karnataka 2. Konark 3. Jaipur 4. Bhuvneshwar
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1

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The Sun Temple is located in Konark and was built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty in the shape of a massive chariot. The Lingaraj Temple is the largest temple in Bhubaneswar and represents the peak of Kalinga architectural style, dedicated to Harihara, a form of Shiva and Vishnu. Hawa Mahal, or the Palace of Breeze, was built in 1799 by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh in Jaipur using red and pink sandstone. The statue of Gommateshwara is a massive monolithic idol of the Jain figure Bahubali, commissioned by Chavundaraya in the 10th century and located at Shravanabelagola in Karnataka.

115Art and Culture
Match the following: List-I (Award): (A) Bhatnagar award (B) B.C. Roy award (C) Dada Saheb Phalke award (D) Gandharva award List-II (Field): 1. Film 2. Medicine 3. Science 4. Classical art 5. Literature
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Answer: (A) A-3 B-2 C-1 D-4

Explanation

Bhatnagar award is presented annually by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research to recognize outstanding Indian research and development in the field of science and technology. B.C. Roy award is the highest medical honor in India, established by the Medical Council of India to commemorate the eminent physician and statesman Dr. Bidhan Chandra Roy. Dada Saheb Phalke award is the most prestigious award in Indian cinema, presented for a lifetime contribution to the development and growth of films. Gandharva award refers to the Kumar Gandharva Samman, which was instituted by the Madhya Pradesh government to recognize and encourage young talent in the classical arts.

116Geography
Match the following: List-I (Date): (A) 5th June (B) 1st December (C) 5th September (D) 16th October List-II (Day): 1. Food day 2. Environment day 3. World Aids day 4. Education day
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Answer: (A) A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1

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5th June is celebrated globally as World Environment Day, a day established by the United Nations in 1972 to encourage worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment. 1st December is designated as World AIDS Day, which has been observed since 1988 to raise public awareness and mourn those who have died of the disease. 5th September is celebrated in India as Teachers' Day to honor the birth anniversary of Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, and it serves as a day dedicated to education and the role of educators. 16th October is World Food Day, marking the anniversary of the founding of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations in 1945 to focus on global food security.

117History
Chipko movement is associated with which of the following one?
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Answer: (B) To prevent cutting of trees

Explanation

The Chipko movement was a significant ecological protest that emerged in the early 1970s in the Garhwal Himalayas. The name of the movement is derived from the word embrace, as local villagers, notably women like Gaura Devi, physically hugged trees to prevent contractors from felling them. This grassroots movement was led by environmentalists including Chandi Prasad Bhatt and Sunderlal Bahuguna, who advocated for the protection of forests to maintain ecological stability and safeguard the livelihoods of hill communities. The movement effectively slowed down deforestation and prompted the Indian government to reconsider its forest policies, eventually leading to a ban on commercial green-felling in the Himalayan region for fifteen years starting in 1980.

118Polity and Governance
Which of the following preventive measures can be used for eradication of untouchability in India ? 1. By making law 2. By upliftment of education 3. By awareness among people 4. By access to the Job
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 are correct

Explanation

The eradication of untouchability in India requires a multi-dimensional approach involving legal, social, and educational interventions. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolished untouchability in any form, and the subsequent enactment of the Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, and the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989, provided the necessary legal framework to penalize discriminatory practices. Education serves as a fundamental tool for social mobility and empowerment, allowing marginalized communities to understand their rights while sensitizing the rest of society to the principles of equality and human dignity. Furthermore, generating awareness through social reform movements and public campaigns is critical to dismantling the deep-seated prejudices and traditional mindsets that sustain the practice of untouchability. Together, these three measures address the structural, intellectual, and social foundations of caste-based discrimination.

119Art and Culture
Mask dance is related to which of the following dance form?
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Answer: (A) Kathakali

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Kathakali is a traditional dance-drama from Kerala that is characterized by its elaborate costumes and intense, mask-like makeup. The performers use a combination of thick face paint, known as vesham, and large headgear to transform into stylized characters representing gods, heroes, and demons. While the facial expressions are highly sophisticated, the heavy application of paints like rice paste (chutti) creates a rigid, mask-like effect on the face. Additionally, certain characters in Kathakali, such as those portraying animals or supernatural entities, often use literal masks to distinguish their non-human traits.

120Polity and Governance
What is the basis of determination of tribes in India?
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Answer: (A) Cultural specialization and different habitats

Explanation

The determination of tribes in India is primarily guided by the criteria laid down by the Lokur Committee in 1965, which defined the essential characteristics for identifying a community as a tribe. These criteria include indications of primitive traits, a distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact with the community at large, and backwardness. Cultural specialization refers to the unique social organizations, customs, and religious practices that set tribal groups apart from the mainstream population. Different habitats emphasize the geographical isolation, as most tribal communities traditionally reside in specific ecological niches like forests, hills, and remote undulating plateaus. This isolation has historically played a crucial role in maintaining their distinct cultural identity and limiting their integration with broader social structures.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5B
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10C
  11. 11A
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17C
  18. 18A
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24D
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27B
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34A
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37B
  38. 38A
  39. 39D
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42A
  43. 43B
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48A
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51B
  52. 52A
  53. 53C
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65B
  66. 66A
  67. 67B
  68. 68B
  69. 69A
  70. 70A
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73B
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76A
  77. 77D
  78. 78C
  79. 79A
  80. 80D
  81. 81B
  82. 82B
  83. 83A
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90B
  91. 91A
  92. 92C
  93. 93B
  94. 94B
  95. 95B
  96. 96D
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101D
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108B
  109. 109B
  110. 110A
  111. 111C
  112. 112A
  113. 113A
  114. 114A
  115. 115A
  116. 116A
  117. 117B
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120A

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