Which one of the following is the difference of the sum of cubes of first ten natural numbers and the sum of squares of first ten natural numbers?
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Answer: (B) 2640
Explanation
The sum of the cubes of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula S₃ = [n(n+1)/2]². For the first ten natural numbers (n = 10), the calculation is S₃ = [10 × 11/2]² = 55² = 3025.
The sum of the squares of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula S₂ = n(n+1)(2n+1)/6. For the first ten natural numbers (n = 10), the calculation is S₂ = (10 × 11 × (2 × 10 + 1))/6 = (10 × 11 × 21)/6 = 2310/6 = 385.
To find the difference between the sum of cubes and the sum of squares, subtract the two values: 3025 - 385 = 2640.
2Quantitative Aptitude
A person buys an item from a shop for which the shopkeeper offers a discount of 10% on the marked price. The person pays using an e-wallet which gives 10% cash back. Which one of the following is the value of effective discount?
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Answer: (C) 19%
Explanation
Let the Marked Price (MP) of the item be 100. The shopkeeper offers a 10% discount on the marked price, so the price after the initial discount is 100 - (10% of 100) = 90. The person pays this amount using an e-wallet, which provides a 10% cashback on the transaction value. The cashback amount is 10% of 90, which is 9. Therefore, the net amount actually spent by the person is 90 - 9 = 81. The total effective discount is the difference between the original marked price and the final net price: 100 - 81 = 19.
Alternatively, the effective discount can be calculated using the formula for successive percentage changes: x + y - xy/100, where x is the first discount and y is the second discount (cashback). Substituting the values, we get 10 + 10 - (10 × 10)/100 = 20 - 1 = 19%.
3Quantitative Aptitude
A solid spherical ball made of iron is melted and two new balls are made whose diameters are in the ratio of 1:2. The ratio of the volume of the smaller new ball to the original ball is
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Answer: (D) 1:9
Explanation
The volume of a sphere is given by the formula V = (4/3)πr³, where r is the radius. Since the diameters of the two new balls are in the ratio 1:2, their radii are also in the ratio 1:2. Let the radius of the smaller ball be r and the radius of the larger ball be 2r.
The volume of the smaller new ball is V₁ = (4/3)πr³.
The volume of the larger new ball is V₂ = (4/3)π(2r)³ = (4/3)π(8r³).
When a solid is melted and recast, the total volume remains constant. Therefore, the volume of the original ball V_(orig) is the sum of the volumes of the two new balls:
V_(orig) = V₁ + V₂ = (4/3)πr³ + (4/3)π(8r³) = (4/3)π(9r³).
The ratio of the volume of the smaller new ball to the original ball is:
V₁/V_(orig) = ((4/3)πr³)/((4/3)π(9r³)) = 1/9
4Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose a bank gives an interest of 10% per annum compounded annually for a fixed deposit for a period of two years. What should be the simple interest rate per annum if the maturity amount after two years is to remain the same?
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Answer: (B) 10.5%
Explanation
To find the simple interest rate that yields the same maturity amount as compound interest, we compare the total interest earned over the two-year period.
The effective interest rate for compound interest over two years can be calculated using the successive percentage change formula x + y + (xy/100). Given a rate of 10% per annum:
Effective Rate = 10 + 10 + (10 × 10) / 100 = 21%
For simple interest, the total interest earned over t years at a rate of r per annum is simply r × t. Since the maturity amount (and thus the total interest) must remain the same:
r × 2 = 21%
r = 21 / 2 = 10.5%
Alternatively, using the amount formula where P is the principal, the maturity amount for compound interest is A = P(1 + 10/100)² = 1.21P. The maturity amount for simple interest is A = P(1 + (r × 2)/100). Equating the two gives 1.21 = 1 + 0.02r, which simplifies to 0.21 = 0.02r, resulting in r = 10.5%.
5Quantitative Aptitude
A runner's average speed reduces by 25% every hour. If he runs 16 km in the first hour and he runs for 3 hours, then what is his overall average speed?
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Answer: (B) 12.33 km/hr
Explanation
The overall average speed is calculated as the total distance divided by the total time. In the first hour, the runner's speed is 16 km/hr, covering a distance of D₁ = 16 km. In the second hour, the speed reduces by 25%, becoming 16 × (1 - 0.25) = 12 km/hr, covering D₂ = 12 km. In the third hour, the speed reduces by another 25% relative to the second hour, becoming 12 × (1 - 0.25) = 9 km/hr, covering D₃ = 9 km.
The total distance covered in 3 hours is D_(total) = 16 + 12 + 9 = 37 km. The total time taken is T_(total) = 3 hours. Applying the formula for average speed:
Average Speed = Total Distance/Total Time = 37/3 = 12.33 km/hr
6Geography
Trough and ridge are
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Answer: (A) elongated area of low pressure and of high pressure respectively
Explanation
In meteorology, a trough is an elongated region of relatively low atmospheric pressure, often associated with fronts and cyclonic activity where air converges and rises, typically leading to cloud formation and precipitation. A ridge is the opposite feature, representing an elongated area of relatively high atmospheric pressure. Ridges are characterized by diverging and sinking air, which usually results in stable atmospheric conditions and clear skies. These terms describe the spatial extension of low and high pressure systems, resembling the valleys (troughs) and peaks (ridges) of a topographic map when viewed on a constant pressure surface or a sea-level pressure map.
7Geography
The boundary layer of the forest at which the energy exchange occurs and some insolation is returned directly to space is
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Answer: (C) forest canopy
Explanation
The forest canopy is the uppermost layer of a forest, consisting of the crowns of the trees. It functions as the primary active surface for energy exchange between the atmosphere and the forest ecosystem. When incoming solar radiation (insolation) reaches the forest, the canopy intercepts the bulk of it. A portion of this energy is absorbed for photosynthesis and thermal heating, while another portion is reflected directly back into space, a process defined by the canopy's albedo. Because it is the interface where the most significant radiative and convective energy transfers occur, including the emission of long-wave radiation and evapotranspiration, it acts as the definitive boundary layer for energy return and exchange.
8Geography
The organisms that prefer high salt concentration habitats refer to as
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Answer: (C) halophiles
Explanation
Halophiles are specialized extremophilic organisms that thrive in environments with exceptionally high salt concentrations, typically exceeding 3% to 5% salinity, and some can even survive in saturated brine solutions reaching approximately 30%. The term is derived from the Greek words halos for salt and phile for loving. These organisms, which include various species of bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes, have evolved unique physiological mechanisms to maintain osmotic balance against their hypersaline surroundings. To prevent water loss through osmosis, they often accumulate high internal concentrations of compatible solutes or inorganic ions like potassium to match the external osmotic pressure. This adaptation allows them to inhabit extreme locations such as the Dead Sea, the Great Salt Lake, and solar salterns where most other forms of life would perish due to dehydration.
9Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an operating system?
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Answer: (D) MS-Excel
Explanation
MS-Excel is an application software rather than an operating system. It is a spreadsheet program developed by Microsoft as part of the Microsoft Office suite, specifically designed for data calculation, analysis, visualization, and storage in a tabular format. While an operating system is system software that manages computer hardware, resources, and provides a platform for other programs to run, application software like MS-Excel is a program that performs specific tasks for the end-user and requires an underlying operating system to function.
10Science and Technology
Which one of the following protocols is not an application layer of the TCP/IP model?
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Answer: (D) IP
Explanation
The Internet Protocol (IP) belongs to the Internet Layer of the TCP/IP model, rather than the Application Layer. Its primary function is to handle the routing of data packets across network boundaries by providing a logical addressing system. It ensures that data packets are delivered from the source host to the destination host based on IP addresses. In contrast, the Application Layer is the topmost layer that interacts directly with software applications to provide network services like file transfer, web browsing, and domain name resolution. Since IP operates at the network level to facilitate host-to-host communication, it does not reside in the application layer.
11Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a semiconductor device that is used to increase the power of the incoming signals by preserving the shape of the original signal?
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Answer: (B) Transistor
Explanation
A transistor functions as an amplifier by converting a low-power input signal into a high-power output signal. It utilizes a small control current or voltage at its input terminal to regulate a significantly larger current flow from an external power source through its output terminals. Because the output current remains proportional to the input signal, the device effectively boosts the signal strength through power gain while maintaining the original waveform and characteristics of the incoming signal. This capability makes transistors the fundamental building block for signal processing and amplification in modern electronic circuits.
12Science and Technology
Which of the following combinations correctly represents the genetic materials in prokaryotes and eukaryotes respectively?
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Answer: (A) Nucleoid and Chromatin
Explanation
Prokaryotic cells lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-enclosed organelles. Their genetic material consists of a single, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule that is concentrated in an irregularly shaped region of the cytoplasm called the nucleoid. This DNA is generally not associated with histone proteins. Eukaryotic cells, however, possess a distinct, membrane-bound nucleus that encloses their genetic material. Eukaryotic DNA is linear and organized into a complex structure called chromatin, which consists of DNA wound around histone proteins. This high level of organization allows for the efficient packaging of large amounts of genetic information within the nucleus.
13Science and Technology
Lysosomes are sacs of the cell filled with digestive enzymes. These digestive enzymes are synthesized by
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Answer: (C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
Explanation
Lysosomes are specialized membrane-bound vesicles containing a variety of hydrolytic enzymes responsible for intracellular digestion. Since these enzymes are proteins, their synthesis occurs on the ribosomes located on the surface of the rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER). The newly synthesized protein chains are translocated into the lumen of the RER, where they undergo initial processing and folding before being transported to the Golgi apparatus for sorting and final packaging into lysosomes. The RER is the primary site of production for all proteins destined for lysosomes, including these digestive enzymes.
14Science and Technology
Which of the following best represents the cells of a meristem of plant?
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Answer: (A) Dense cytoplasm, thin cell wall, large nuclei and absence of vacuoles
Explanation
Meristematic cells are the primary sites of active cell division in plants and possess specific structural adaptations to support high metabolic rates. They contain dense cytoplasm and large, prominent nuclei to facilitate the rapid synthesis of proteins and DNA replication required for frequent mitosis. The cell walls are characteristically thin and made of cellulose, allowing for the flexibility needed during cell expansion and the formation of new daughter cells. Unlike mature plant cells, meristematic cells typically lack large central vacuoles because their primary function is division rather than storage or the maintenance of turgor pressure for structural support. These features collectively ensure that the cells remain in a permanent state of growth and differentiation.
15Science and Technology
Which one of the following animals has a four-chambered heart?
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Answer: (D) Crocodile
Explanation
Crocodilians are unique among reptiles as they possess a complete four-chambered heart consisting of two distinct atria and two distinct ventricles. In most other reptiles, the ventricle is only partially divided, leading to some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. The fully partitioned heart in crocodiles allows for the complete separation of blood flows, which is a trait more commonly associated with endothermic animals like birds and mammals. This advanced circulatory anatomy, including the specialized Foramen of Panizza, provides crocodiles with highly efficient blood oxygenation and the ability to precisely control blood distribution while diving or resting.
16Science and Technology
One way of incorporating desired characters into crop varieties is hybridization. In this process, there is crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. Which one of the following crossings will not refer to hybridization?
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Answer: (D) Intragenic
Explanation
Hybridization is a method of crop improvement that involves crossing two genetically dissimilar plants to produce offspring with desired traits. This process is classified based on the taxonomic distance between the parents. Intervarietal hybridization involves crossing two different varieties of the same species. Interspecific hybridization involves crossing plants of two different species belonging to the same genus. Intergeneric hybridization involves crossing plants from two different genera. Intragenic refers to modifications or recombinations occurring within a single gene or the same genetic sequence. Since hybridization requires the combination of genomes from distinct entities to create genetic diversity, a process occurring within a single gene or among identical genetic individuals does not constitute hybridization.
17Science and Technology
Depending on the requirements, plant nutrients are classified as micronutrients and macronutrients. Which one of the following is an example of a macronutrient?
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Answer: (C) Magnesium
Explanation
Magnesium is classified as a macronutrient because it is required by plants in relatively large amounts, generally exceeding 10 mmole kg⁻¹ of dry matter. It plays a vital role in plant physiology as the central constituent of the chlorophyll molecule, which is indispensable for photosynthesis. Beyond its structural role in chlorophyll, magnesium serves as a critical cofactor and activator for numerous enzymes involved in respiration, photosynthesis, and the synthesis of DNA and RNA. It also contributes to the structural integrity of ribosomes, thereby facilitating protein synthesis within the plant.
18Science and Technology
Buds produced in the notches along the leaf margin of Bryophyllum fall on soil and develop into new plants. This is an example of which one of the following types of reproduction?
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Answer: (A) Vegetative propagation
Explanation
Bryophyllum utilizes vegetative propagation, a form of asexual reproduction where new plants are produced from vegetative parts such as leaves, stems, or roots rather than from reproductive organs. In this plant, specialized adventitious buds develop in the notches along the margins of the leaves. When these leaves fall onto moist soil or when the plantlets detach, the buds grow into independent plants. This method allows the plant to multiply rapidly and colonize areas effectively using its existing vegetative structures.
19Science and Technology
Phloem tissues are mostly responsible for transport of
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Answer: (D) food
Explanation
Phloem is the complex vascular tissue in plants primarily responsible for the translocation of organic nutrients, specifically the soluble food materials produced during photosynthesis. This process involves the movement of sugars, mainly sucrose, from the leaves, which act as the source, to non-photosynthetic parts of the plant such as the roots, stems, and storage organs, which act as the sinks. The transport mechanism in phloem occurs through specialized cells called sieve tube elements and is driven by osmotic pressure gradients, allowing for the multidirectional distribution of energy resources throughout the plant body to support growth and metabolic functions.
20Quantitative Aptitude
Two objects, x and y , have equal mass and are moving with speeds u and 3u respectively. Their kinetic energies kₓ and k_y are related as
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Answer: (C) 9kₓ = k_y
Explanation
The kinetic energy K of an object is given by the formula K = (1/2)mv², where m is the mass and v is the speed. Since both objects x and y have equal mass m, their kinetic energies are determined by their respective speeds u and 3u. For object x, the kinetic energy is kₓ = (1/2)mu². For object y, the kinetic energy is k_y = (1/2)m(3u)² = (1/2)m(9u²). By substituting the expression for kₓ into the equation for k_y, we find that k_y = 9 · ((1/2)mu²) = 9kₓ.
21Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not the unit of pressure?
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Answer: (C) J/m²
Explanation
Pressure is defined as the force acting per unit area, expressed by the formula P = F/A. The unit J/m² represents energy per unit area. Since one Joule (J) is defined as the work done by a force of one Newton acting through a distance of one meter (1 J = 1 N·m), the unit J/m² can be simplified to (N·m) / m², which reduces to N/m. This unit, Newton per meter, represents force per unit length, which is the physical dimension for surface tension or a spring constant. Consequently, J/m² is dimensionally incorrect for pressure, which must always resolve to force divided by area (N/m²).
22Science and Technology
Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a convex lens?
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Answer: (A) Aluminium
Explanation
To function as a lens, a material must be transparent to allow light to pass through it and undergo refraction. Refraction is the phenomenon where light bends as it moves from one medium to another of different optical density. Aluminium is an opaque metal that reflects or absorbs incident light rather than transmitting it. Since light cannot travel through the bulk of the metal, it is impossible for aluminium to refract light to a focal point. Therefore, it cannot be used to manufacture a convex lens, which specifically requires the convergence of light rays passing through the material.
23Science and Technology
The optical phenomenon responsible for the blue colour of sky is
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Answer: (D) scattering
Explanation
The blue colour of the sky is a result of Rayleigh scattering. When sunlight travels through the Earth's atmosphere, it interacts with gas molecules and other tiny particles. According to Rayleigh's law, the intensity of scattered light is inversely proportional to the fourth power of its wavelength, expressed as I ∝ 1/λ⁴. Since blue light has a significantly shorter wavelength than red light, it is scattered much more strongly by the atmosphere. As a result, this scattered blue light is redirected in every direction, which is why the sky appears blue to an observer on the ground.
24Science and Technology
The electrical device used for converting mechanical energy into electrical energy is called
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Answer: (D) generator
Explanation
An electric generator operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction, a phenomenon discovered by Michael Faraday. When a conductor or a coil is rotated within a magnetic field using external mechanical energy, the magnetic flux linked with the coil changes over time. According to Faraday law of induction, this change in flux induces an electromotive force (EMF) in the conductor. If the conductor is part of a closed circuit, an electric current is produced, effectively converting the input mechanical work into electrical energy for external use.
25Science and Technology
The magnitude of focal length of a concave lens is 2 m. What is the power of the lens?
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Answer: (B) -0.5 dioptre
Explanation
The power of a lens is defined as the reciprocal of its focal length measured in meters. The relationship is given by the formula P = 1/f, where P is the power in dioptres (D) and f is the focal length in meters. According to the Cartesian sign convention, the focal length of a concave lens is always taken as negative because it is a diverging lens. Given that the magnitude of the focal length is 2 m, we assign it a negative sign, so f = -2 m. Substituting this value into the formula yields P = 1 / (-2 m) = -0.5 D.
26Science and Technology
At the time of short circuit, the current in an electric circuit
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Answer: (C) increases sharply
Explanation
According to Ohm's Law, the current I in an electrical circuit is defined by the relationship I = V/R, where V is the voltage and R is the resistance. A short circuit occurs when a path of very low resistance is accidentally created between two points of different potential in a circuit, such as when a live wire and a neutral wire come into direct contact. Because the resistance R in this unintended path drops to a negligible level approaching zero, the current I flows at an extremely high magnitude. This sudden and massive surge means that the current increases sharply, often leading to excessive heat generation, sparks, or damage to the electrical system.
27Science and Technology
If the linear momentum of a moving object changes by two times, then its kinetic energy will change by a factor of
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Answer: (B) 4
Explanation
The relationship between the kinetic energy K and the linear momentum p of an object of mass m is defined by the formula:
K = p²/(2m)
According to this relation, the kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to the square of its linear momentum (K ∝ p²), assuming the mass remains constant. If the linear momentum changes by a factor of two, the new momentum p' can be represented as 2p. Substituting this into the kinetic energy formula:
K' = (2p)²/(2m) = 4p²/(2m) = 4K
By squaring the factor of change in momentum (2² = 4), the kinetic energy increases by a factor of 4.
28Science and Technology
Which one of the following oxides reacts with both acid and base?
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Answer: (A) Aluminium oxide
Explanation
Aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃) is an amphoteric oxide, meaning it exhibits both acidic and basic characteristics by reacting with both acids and bases to form salt and water. When it reacts with an acid like hydrochloric acid, it acts as a base: Al₂O₃ + 6HCl → 2AlCl₃ + 3H₂O. When it reacts with a strong base like sodium hydroxide, it acts as an acid to form sodium aluminate: Al₂O₃ + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO₂ + H₂O. This dual reactivity is a characteristic property of certain post-transition and metalloid oxides.
29Science and Technology
Which of the following makes bread soft and spongy when baking soda is added?
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Answer: (C) CO₂
Explanation
When baking soda (NaHCO₃) is heated during the baking process, it undergoes thermal decomposition or reacts with acidic components in the dough to release carbon dioxide gas (CO₂). The chemical reaction for thermal decomposition is 2NaHCO₃ → Na₂CO₃ + H₂O + CO₂. The carbon dioxide gas forms tiny bubbles that become trapped within the gluten network of the dough. As the temperature rises in the oven, these gas bubbles expand, causing the dough to rise and creating a porous, aerated structure. This cellular network remains after the bread sets, resulting in a soft and spongy texture.
30Quantitative Aptitude
The average age of father and elder son is 35 years, the average age of father and younger son is 32 years and the average age of the two sons is 17 years. What is the average age of the father and his two sons?
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Answer: (C) 28 years
Explanation
Let F, E, and Y represent the ages of the father, the elder son, and the younger son, respectively. Based on the given averages, we can determine the sum of their ages in pairs using the relation Sum = Average × Count:
F + E = 35 × 2 = 70
F + Y = 32 × 2 = 64
E + Y = 17 × 2 = 34
By adding these three equations together, we account for each person exactly twice:
2(F + E + Y) = 70 + 64 + 34 = 168
Dividing by 2, the total sum of the ages of the father and both sons is:
F + E + Y = 168/2 = 84
The average age of the father and his two sons is the total sum divided by 3:
Average = 84/3 = 28 years.
31Quantitative Aptitude
A number is 124 more than its one-third. What is that number?
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Answer: (D) 186
Explanation
Let the required number be x. According to the problem statement, the number is equal to its one-third plus 124. This can be expressed as a linear equation:
x = x/3 + 124
To find the value of x, rearrange the equation to group the terms involving x on one side:
x - x/3 = 124
(3x - x)/3 = 124
2x/3 = 124
By multiplying both sides by 3, we get:
2x = 372
Finally, dividing by 2 gives the value of the number:
x = 372/2 = 186
This can also be solved by recognizing that if the number is 124 more than its one-third, then 124 must represent two-thirds (2/3) of the number. If 2/3 of the number is 124, then 1/3 of the number is 124 ÷ 2 = 62. The full number (3/3) is then 62 × 3 = 186.
32Quantitative Aptitude
A car travels 3/4 th of the distance at a speed of 60 km/hr and the remaining 1/4 th of the distance at a speed of u km/hr . If the average speed for the full journey is 50 km/hr , then the value of u is
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Answer: (C) 100/3
Explanation
Average speed is defined as the total distance traveled divided by the total time taken. Let the total distance be D. The time taken for the first segment of the journey is t₁ = Distance₁/Speed₁ = (3/4)D/60 = D/80 hours. The time taken for the second segment is t₂ = Distance₂/Speed₂ = (1/4)D/u = D/(4u) hours.
Using the average speed formula:
V_(avg) = Total Distance/Total Time
50 = D/(D/80 + D/(4u))
By dividing the numerator and denominator by D, we get:
50 = 1/(1/80 + 1/(4u))
1/50 = 1/80 + 1/(4u)
1/(4u) = 1/50 - 1/80
To solve for u, we find a common denominator:
1/(4u) = (8 - 5)/400
1/(4u) = 3/400
4u = 400/3
u = 100/3
33Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose A and B can complete a work together in 10 days. If B alone can complete the work in 15 days, then in how many days can A alone finish the work?
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Answer: (D) 30 days
Explanation
Using the efficiency method, let the total work be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the time taken by A+B and B alone. The LCM of 10 and 15 is 30 units.
The combined efficiency of A and B is 30 / 10 = 3 units per day. The efficiency of B alone is 30 / 15 = 2 units per day. To find the efficiency of A, subtract B's efficiency from the combined efficiency:
Efficiency of A = (Efficiency of A + B) - (Efficiency of B) = 3 - 2 = 1 unit per day.
The number of days required by A alone to finish the work is calculated by dividing the total work by A's efficiency:
Time taken by A = 30 / 1 = 30 days.
Alternatively, using the work rate formula 1/A + 1/B = 1/T, where T is the time taken together:
1/A + 1/15 = 1/10
1/A = 1/10 - 1/15 = (3 - 2) / 30 = 1/30
This confirms A takes 30 days to complete the work alone.
34Quantitative Aptitude
If the average of the first four of five numbers in decreasing order is 25 and the average of the last four numbers is 20, then what is the difference between the first and the last number?
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Answer: (D) 20
Explanation
Let the five numbers in decreasing order be x₁, x₂, x₃, x₄, and x₅. According to the definition of an average, the sum of a set of numbers is equal to the average multiplied by the count of numbers. For the first four numbers, the sum is 4 × 25 = 100, which can be written as x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄ = 100. For the last four numbers, the sum is 4 × 20 = 80, which can be written as x₂ + x₃ + x₄ + x₅ = 80.
To find the difference between the first and the last number, we subtract the sum of the last four numbers from the sum of the first four numbers:
(x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + x₄) - (x₂ + x₃ + x₄ + x₅) = 100 - 80
The middle terms x₂, x₃, and x₄ are common to both sets and cancel out during subtraction, leaving:
x₁ - x₅ = 20
35Science and Technology
Borax is prepared from
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Answer: (D) sodium carbonate
Explanation
Borax, chemically known as sodium tetraborate decahydrate (Na₂B₄O₇·10H₂O), is industrially prepared from boron minerals such as Colemanite (Ca₂B₆O₁₁). When finely powdered Colemanite is boiled with a concentrated solution of sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃), a chemical reaction occurs that produces borax and sodium metaborate, while calcium carbonate precipitates out:
Ca₂B₆O₁₁ + 2Na₂CO₃ → Na₂B₄O₇ + 2NaBO₂ + 2CaCO₃↓
The resulting solution is filtered to remove the calcium carbonate, and the filtrate is cooled to allow borax crystals to separate. Sodium carbonate is also used to prepare borax from boric acid through a simple neutralization reaction:
4H₃BO₃ + Na₂CO₃ → Na₂B₄O₇ + 6H₂O + CO₂
36Science and Technology
Cinnabar is an ore of
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Answer: (A) mercury
Explanation
Cinnabar is the primary naturally occurring mineral and the most common ore used for the extraction of mercury. Chemically known as mercury(II) sulfide with the formula HgS, it typically appears as a bright red or brick-red mineral. To obtain metallic mercury, the ore is crushed and roasted in a furnace in the presence of air. During this process, the sulfur in the cinnabar reacts with oxygen to form sulfur dioxide, while the mercury vaporizes. The resulting mercury vapor is then collected and condensed into its liquid metallic state.
37Science and Technology
White gold is an alloy of
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Answer: (A) gold, nickel and palladium
Explanation
White gold is an alloy consisting of pure yellow gold mixed with at least one white metal to achieve a silvery-white appearance and increased durability. The most common metals used as bleaching agents to neutralize the natural yellow color of gold are nickel and palladium. Nickel-based white gold is favored for its hardness and strength, making it suitable for jewelry items like rings that experience significant wear. Palladium-based white gold is softer, more malleable, and hypoallergenic, often used for intricate gemstone settings. Additionally, other metals such as silver, zinc, or copper may be added to the alloy to improve its physical properties, and the finished piece is typically plated with rhodium to provide a lustrous, reflective white finish.
38Science and Technology
Hydrogenation of alkenes can be carried out in the presence of
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Answer: (D) nickel
Explanation
Hydrogenation is a chemical reaction between molecular hydrogen and an organic compound, typically an alkene, resulting in the saturation of the carbon-carbon double bond. This process requires a catalyst to lower the high activation energy of the reaction. Finely divided nickel serves as an effective heterogeneous catalyst because it provides a metallic surface where reactant molecules can adsorb. On the nickel surface, the H-H bond of the hydrogen molecule is weakened or broken, and the alkene molecule is held in a favorable orientation, allowing the hydrogen atoms to add across the double bond to form an alkane. This specific catalytic process is extensively used in the industrial vegetable oil industry for the hardening of fats.
39Science and Technology
Calcium oxide reacts with water to produce slaked lime. It is an example of
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Answer: (A) combination reaction
Explanation
The reaction between calcium oxide (quicklime) and water results in the formation of calcium hydroxide, which is commonly known as slaked lime. The chemical equation for this process is CaO(s) + H₂O(l) → Ca(OH)₂(s). This is a classic example of a combination reaction because two separate reactants, calcium oxide and water, react to form a single product, calcium hydroxide. In chemistry, any reaction where two or more substances combine to form a single new substance is classified as a combination reaction. Additionally, this specific process is highly exothermic, meaning it releases a significant amount of heat energy as the product is formed.
40Science and Technology
The atomic radius of hydrogen atom is
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Answer: (B) 37 picometer
Explanation
The atomic radius of a hydrogen atom is typically defined by its covalent radius, which is determined by measuring half the distance between the nuclei of two hydrogen atoms in a homonuclear diatomic H₂ molecule. Experimental measurements and quantum mechanical calculations establish this value as approximately 37 picometers (pm). In the metric system, 1 picometer is equal to 10⁻¹² meters. While the Bohr radius, which represents the most probable distance between the nucleus and the electron in the ground state, is approximately 52.9 pm, the empirical atomic radius used in most chemical contexts for hydrogen is 37 pm.
41Quantitative Aptitude
There is a group of 5 people among which there is one couple. In how many ways can these 5 people be seated in a row having 5 chairs if the couple is to be seated next to each other?
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Answer: (B) 48
Explanation
To seat 5 people in a row such that a couple sits together, we use the grouping method by treating the couple as a single unit. This leaves us with a total of 4 units to arrange: the 1 couple-unit and the 3 other individuals.
The number of ways to arrange these 4 distinct units in a row is given by the formula n!:
4! = 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 24
Within the couple-unit, the 2 individuals can be arranged in 2! ways (Person A to the left of Person B, or vice versa):
2! = 2 × 1 = 2
According to the fundamental counting principle, the total number of seating arrangements is the product of the number of ways to arrange the units and the number of internal arrangements within the couple:
24 × 2 = 48
42Quantitative Aptitude
Two friends 10 km apart start running towards each other at speeds of 10 km/hr and 14 km/hr respectively. After how much time will they meet each other?
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Answer: (B) 25 minutes
Explanation
When two objects move toward each other from a certain distance, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. In this case, the relative speed is:
S_(rel) = 10 km/hr + 14 km/hr = 24 km/hr
Using the formula for time:
Time = Distance/Relative Speed
Time = 10 km/24 km/hr = 5/12 hours
To convert the time from hours to minutes, multiply by 60:
Time in minutes = 5/12 × 60 = 5 × 5 = 25 minutes
43Quantitative Aptitude
A coin is tossed 3 times. The probability of getting exactly 2 heads is
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Answer: (B) 3/8
Explanation
The total number of possible outcomes when a coin is tossed n = 3 times is given by 2ⁿ = 2³ = 8. These outcomes are {HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT}. To find the probability of getting exactly 2 heads, we use the binomial probability formula P(X = k) = C(n,k) pᵏ q^(n-k), where n is the number of trials, k is the number of successes, p is the probability of success, and q is the probability of failure. Substituting the values n = 3, k = 2, and p = q = 1/2, we get C(3,2) (1/2)² (1/2)¹. Calculating this yields 3 × 1/4 × 1/2 = 3/8. Alternatively, identifying the favorable outcomes from the sample space gives {HHT, HTH, THH}, which are 3 outcomes out of the total 8.
44Quantitative Aptitude
A test consists of 25 MCQs. Each correct answer gives +4 marks and incorrect answer gives -1 mark. If a candidate scores 74 marks, then how many questions were left unattempted?
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Answer: (A) 4
Explanation
Let c be the number of correct answers, w be the number of wrong answers, and u be the number of unattempted questions. Based on the given information, we can establish two equations:
c + w + u = 25
4c - w = 74
By adding these two equations, we eliminate w:
(c + w + u) + (4c - w) = 25 + 74
5c + u = 99
To find the value of u, we consider that w must be a non-negative integer. From the scoring equation, w = 4c - 74. For w ≥ 0, 4c ≥ 74, which means c ≥ 18.5. Since c must be an integer and the total number of questions is 25, we check possible values for c starting from 19:
If c = 19:
5(19) + u = 99
95 + u = 99
u = 4
Checking for c = 20:
5(20) + u = 99
100 + u = 99
u = -1
Since the number of unattempted questions cannot be negative, c = 19 is the only valid solution. At c = 19, the number of wrong answers w is 4(19) - 74 = 76 - 74 = 2. The total questions attempted and unattempted is 19 + 2 + 4 = 25, which satisfies all conditions.
45Quantitative Aptitude
A person has a total of 100 coins consisting of ₹2 and ₹5 coins. If the total value of the coins is ₹320, then the number of ₹2 coins is
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Answer: (C) 60
Explanation
To find the number of coins, we can use a simple linear equation. Let the number of ₹2 coins be x and the number of ₹5 coins be y. Based on the problem, we have two equations:
x + y = 100
2x + 5y = 320
Using the first equation, we can express y as 100 - x. Substituting this into the second equation:
Alternatively, using the method of deviation, if all 100 coins were ₹5 coins, the total value would be 100 × 5 = 500. The difference between this assumed total and the actual total is 500 - 320 = 180. Since the difference in value between a ₹5 coin and a ₹2 coin is 5 - 2 = 3, the number of ₹2 coins is 180 / 3 = 60.
46Science and Technology
The technology known as 'Electromagnetic Air Lift System' is sometimes talked about in reference to
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Answer: (B) launching aircraft from warships
Explanation
The Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS) is a technology designed to launch carrier-based aircraft from warships using a linear induction motor instead of traditional steam catapults. It works by generating a moving magnetic field that pulls a carriage along a track to accelerate the aircraft to takeoff speed. This system offers significant advantages over steam-powered systems, including more precise acceleration control, which reduces stress on the aircraft airframe, and the capability to launch a wider range of aircraft, from heavy fighter jets to lightweight unmanned aerial vehicles. It is a key feature of modern aircraft carriers, such as the USS Gerald R. Ford class, providing higher launch rates and requiring less maintenance and manpower compared to older technology.
47Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Aluminium powder is used as a solid fuel for rocket engines.
2. Compared to liquid fuel propelled rocket engines, the thrust per amount of fuel burned is higher in solid fuel propelled rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Aluminium powder is a common component in composite solid rocket propellants. It serves as a high-energy fuel because its oxidation is highly exothermic, which significantly increases the combustion temperature and the resulting gas expansion, thereby increasing the thrust. In systems like the Solid Rocket Boosters of the Space Shuttle or ISRO's S200 boosters, aluminium powder is typically mixed with an oxidizer such as ammonium perchlorate and a polymer binder.
The performance efficiency of a rocket engine is measured by its specific impulse I_(sp), which represents the thrust generated per unit of propellant weight flow rate. Mathematically, it is expressed as I_(sp) = F/(ṁg₀), where F is thrust and ṁ is the mass flow rate. Liquid fuel engines, particularly cryogenic engines using liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen, have a much higher specific impulse (often exceeding 450 seconds) compared to solid fuel engines, which generally range between 230 and 290 seconds. Consequently, liquid fuels provide a higher thrust per amount of fuel burned than solid fuels.
48Science and Technology
Consider the following missiles:
1. Agni-I
2. BrahMos
3. Dhanush
Which of the above is/are cruise missile/missiles?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed through a joint venture between India's DRDO and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. It is designed to fly at speeds of Mach 2.8 to 3.0 and maintains a flight path within the atmosphere for its entire duration using a liquid ramjet engine. Agni-I is a medium-range ballistic missile (MRBM) that follows a high-arcing ballistic trajectory. Dhanush is a naval variant of the Prithvi-III and is classified as a short-range ballistic missile. While ballistic missiles are propelled by rockets and follow a projectile motion, cruise missiles like BrahMos function like jet-propelled aircraft that can be maneuvered during flight.
49Science and Technology
With reference to India's defence, consider the following helicopters:
1. Cheetah
2. Chetak
3. Rudra
Which of the above has/have turret gun, rocket system and air-to-air missile?
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Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
The HAL Rudra is the Weapon System Integrated (WSI) version of the Advanced Light Helicopter (ALH) Dhruv, developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited to function as a dedicated attack helicopter. It is specifically designed to carry a wide array of offensive weaponry. The helicopter features a 20 mm M621 turret-mounted cannon located in the nose, a 70 mm rocket system carried in pods for ground suppression, and Mistral air-to-air missiles for aerial combat and self-defense. To facilitate the use of these systems, the Rudra is equipped with an advanced target acquisition and designation system that includes a thermal imaging camera, a laser rangefinder, and a laser designator, providing the pilot with all-weather, day-and-night combat capabilities.
50Polity and Governance
Recently, India gave a coastal radar system to which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (B) Maldives
Explanation
In March 2022, India officially handed over a coastal radar system to the Maldives National Defence Force (MNDF) during a visit by External Affairs Minister S. Jaishankar. The project involves 10 coastal radar stations established across the Maldivian archipelago, constructed with an Indian grant of approximately $15.8 million. This system is designed to enhance the maritime surveillance capabilities of the Maldives, allowing it to better monitor its Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) against threats like illegal fishing, drug trafficking, and human smuggling. The handover is part of India's broader SAGAR (Security and Growth for All in the Region) initiative, which seeks to strengthen maritime security and domain awareness among friendly littoral nations in the Indian Ocean Region.
51Art and Culture
Which one of the following artworks was hailed by Sister Nivedita as the 'first masterpiece of Indian art'?
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Answer: (A) Bharatmata by Abanindranath Tagore
Explanation
Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata in 1905 during the peak of the Swadeshi movement to personify the Indian nation and evoke a sense of cultural nationalism. Sister Nivedita, a prominent disciple of Swami Vivekananda and an advocate for Indian art, hailed this work as the first masterpiece of Indian art. She lauded it for its departure from Western academic realism in favor of a distinctively indigenous aesthetic rooted in Indian tradition. The painting depicts a four-armed deity-like figure holding four objects representing national needs: a book for learning, beads for spiritual salvation, a sheaf of paddy for food, and a white cloth for clothing. Nivedita believed the artwork effectively visualized the soul of India and provided a powerful, non-aggressive symbol for the independence struggle.
52History
'Operation Sankalp' was initiated and implemented by the
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Answer: (C) Indian Navy
Explanation
Operation Sankalp was launched by the Indian Navy in June 2019 following incidents of attacks on merchant tankers in the Gulf of Oman. The initiative was undertaken to ensure the safe passage of Indian-flagged merchant vessels transiting through the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman. As part of the operation, the Indian Navy deploys frontline warships and conducts maritime surveillance to provide security and reassure the Indian shipping community. The operation underscores the Navy's commitment to maintaining the safety of sea lanes of communication and protecting national maritime trade interests in the sensitive North Arabian Sea region.
53Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to tribal welfare?
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Answer: (C) The Special Area Development Programme aims at distribution of forest area produces to the tribals equitably.
Explanation
The Special Area Development Programme (SADP) is a scheme focused on the integrated and sustainable development of specific geographically disadvantaged or ecologically sensitive regions, such as hilly areas and forest fringes. Its primary objectives involve ecological restoration, infrastructure enhancement, and the overall socio-economic upliftment of the inhabitants in these designated zones. It is not fundamentally designed for the equitable distribution of forest area produces to tribal communities. The rights regarding the collection, use, and disposal of minor forest produce are instead legally established under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, and supported by marketing interventions through agencies like the Tribal Co-operative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED).
54Economy
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The 'Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana' was launched after restructuring the 'Integrated Rural Development Programme' in 2001.
Explanation
The Sampoorna Grameen Rozgar Yojana (SGRY) was launched on September 25, 2001, with the objective of providing additional wage employment and food security in rural areas. However, this scheme was formed by merging two existing wage employment schemes: the Employment Assurance Scheme (EAS) and the Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana (JGSY). The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) mentioned in the statement was actually restructured much earlier, in April 1999, along with other allied programmes to form the Swarna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), which was a self-employment programme rather than a wage employment programme like SGRY.
55History
The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi is popularly known as the
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Answer: (A) Battle of Talikota
Explanation
The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi, fought on January 23, 1565, is popularly known as the Battle of Talikota. It was a watershed moment in South Indian history that pitted the Vijayanagara Empire, led by Rama Raya, against a coalition of the Deccan Sultanates including Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Golconda, and Bidar. Although the actual combat took place near the villages of Rakshasi and Tangadi, the engagement is named after the town of Talikota because it served as the staging ground and headquarters for the combined Sultanate armies. The battle resulted in a decisive victory for the Sultanates, leading to the execution of Rama Raya and the subsequent sacking and decline of the Vijayanagara capital, Hampi.
56History
Ashokan inscriptions in Afghanistan are written in which one of the following scripts?
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Answer: (D) Greek-Aramaic
Explanation
Ashoka's edicts in the northwestern regions of his empire, particularly in modern-day Afghanistan, were tailored to the linguistic and cultural demographics of the local population. Since these areas had significant Greek and Persian influences following the conquests of Alexander the Great and the subsequent Seleucid administration, the inscriptions were inscribed using Greek and Aramaic scripts. A prominent example is the Kandahar bilingual rock inscription, discovered at Shar-i-Kuna, which features text in both the Greek and Aramaic languages. This administrative strategy ensured that the message of Dhamma was accessible to the diverse subjects residing in the frontier provinces of the Maurya Empire.
57History
Which one of the following statements about coins struck during 200 BCE to 300 CE in the Indian subcontinent is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Absence of Negama coins suggests the declining power and authority of merchant guilds.
Explanation
Negama coins, which were issued by merchant guilds or town corporations, were a significant feature of the monetary system in the Indian subcontinent between 200 BCE and 300 CE. Extensive archaeological evidence, particularly from major commercial hubs like Taxila and Kausambi, has revealed a variety of these coins inscribed with the names of specific guilds. The production of such coinage actually signifies the increasing autonomy, economic prosperity, and political influence of merchant guilds during the post-Mauryan period. Rather than an absence suggesting decline, the widespread presence of Negama coins indicates that these guilds were powerful enough to be granted or to assume the right to strike their own currency to facilitate local trade and commerce.
58History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
| List-I (Vedic Name) | List-II (Modern Name) |
| ------------------- | --------------------- |
| A. Drishadvati | 2. Chautang |
| B. Askini | 1. Chenab |
| C. Vitasta | 4. Jhelum |
| D. Purushni | 3. Ravi |
Code :
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Answer: (B) A B C D 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Drishadvati is the Vedic name for the modern Chautang river, which flows through the state of Haryana and is historically associated with the Sarasvati river basin. Askini corresponds to the Chenab river, which is formed by the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers in the upper Himalayas. Vitasta is the Rigvedic identification for the Jhelum river, known to the Greeks as the Hydaspes and central to the geography of the Kashmir region. Purushni refers to the Ravi river, which played a crucial role in Vedic history as the site of the Dasharajna Yudha or the Battle of the Ten Kings.
59History
When was the Kothari Commission appointed by the Government of India to look into the education sector of India?
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Answer: (D) 1964
Explanation
The Kothari Commission, officially designated as the Education Commission (1964-66), was appointed by the Government of India on July 14, 1964. Under the chairmanship of Daulat Singh Kothari, who was then the Chairman of the University Grants Commission (UGC), the commission was tasked with formulating a coherent and comprehensive national policy on education. It was the first commission in India specifically mandated to look into the educational sector as a whole, rather than focusing on specific stages like primary or secondary education. The commission began its work in 1964 and eventually submitted its extensive report, titled Education and National Development, on June 29, 1966.
60Geography
Which one of the following is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The California Current is a warm ocean current.
Explanation
The California Current is a cold water current that flows southward along the western coast of North America, from British Columbia to the southern tip of Baja California. As an eastern boundary current of the North Pacific Gyre, it originates from the bifurcation of the North Pacific Current and carries cool subarctic water toward the equator. Eastern boundary currents are characteristically shallow, broad, and slow-moving, transporting cooler water from higher latitudes to lower latitudes. This current is responsible for the relatively cool coastal temperatures and the frequent coastal fog observed in regions like California and Oregon. Because it moves water from a cooler climatic zone toward a warmer one, it is classified as a cold current.
61Geography
Which of the following statements about maps are correct?
1. Maps that maintain the true shapes of areas are known as conformal maps.
2. Maps are used to show spatial relationships.
3. Maps cannot show route from one place to another.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Conformal maps, also known as orthomorphic projections, are specifically designed to preserve the true shapes of small areas by maintaining correct angular relationships around any point. This ensures that the scale at any point is the same in all directions, which is a fundamental requirement for navigation and detailed topographic mapping.
Additionally, maps serve as the primary visual tool for representing spatial relationships. They allow users to perceive the relative positions, distances, and distributions of geographical features or phenomena across a two-dimensional plane. By organizing complex geographical data into a structured format, maps facilitate the analysis of how different elements on the Earth's surface interact with one another spatially.
62Geography
Which one of the following statements about 'great circle' is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Great circles mark the longest travel routes between locations on the Earth's surface.
Explanation
Great circles represent the shortest distance between any two points on the surface of a sphere, a path known as a geodesic. A great circle is defined as the intersection of the Earth's surface with a plane that passes through the center of the Earth. Because the radius of a great circle is equal to the radius of the Earth itself, the arc of a great circle provides the most direct and efficient path for long-distance travel. In navigation, such as in aviation and maritime shipping, pilots and captains utilize great circle routes specifically to minimize travel distance, time, and fuel consumption. Any other circle drawn on the Earth's surface that does not pass through the center is a small circle, and the distance between two points along a small circle is always longer than the distance along a great circle.
63Geography
Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to normal lapse rate?
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Answer: (A) Temperature is highest at ground level and decreases with increasing altitude.
Explanation
The normal lapse rate describes the vertical temperature gradient within the troposphere, characterizing the decrease in atmospheric temperature as altitude increases. Under standard conditions, the temperature drops at an average rate of approximately 6.5°C per 1,000 meters of elevation gain. This occurs because the Earth's atmosphere is primarily heated from the ground up through terrestrial radiation. The surface absorbs short-wave solar energy and re-emits it as long-wave heat, which warms the air layers in direct contact with the surface. As altitude increases, the air becomes less dense and the concentration of greenhouse gases like water vapor decreases, reducing the atmosphere's ability to retain heat. Therefore, the air is warmest near the surface and progressively cools as one moves further away from the heat source into the upper layers of the troposphere.
64Geography
Which one of the following is a tributary of the Brahmaputra River?
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Answer: (D) Manas
Explanation
The Manas River is a major right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River, originating in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India. It is a transboundary river that flows through the state of Assam before joining the Brahmaputra at Jogighopa. The river system is well-known for being associated with the Manas National Park, a UNESCO World Heritage site and a biosphere reserve located in the foothills of the Bhutan Himalayas. It is the largest river system in Bhutan and drains a significant portion of the eastern Himalayas, characterized by its rapid flow and high sediment load, which eventually contributes to the vast discharge of the Brahmaputra in the plains of Assam.
65Polity and Governance
The landmark case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar in the Supreme Court is related to which one of the following powers of the Governor?
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Answer: (A) To repromulgate ordinances
Explanation
In the case of D. C. Wadhwa vs. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court examined the practice of the Bihar government in repromulgating ordinances under Article 213 of the Constitution without placing them before the State Legislature. The Court held that the power to promulgate an ordinance is an emergency power intended to meet extraordinary situations when the legislature is not in session and cannot be used as a substitute for the law-making function of the legislature. The Court ruled that repeated repromulgation of ordinances without attempting to get them passed as acts by the legislature constitutes a fraud on the Constitution and is a subversion of the democratic legislative process. This judgment established that the Governor’s power to issue ordinances is subject to judicial review and must strictly adhere to the constitutional requirement of being temporary in nature.
66Economy
'Operation Flood' is also popularly known as
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Answer: (B) the White Revolution
Explanation
Operation Flood was launched in 1970 by India's National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) under the leadership of Dr. Verghese Kurien. Known as the White Revolution, it was the world's largest dairy development program and aimed to create a nationwide milk grid. The project transformed India from a milk-deficient nation into the world's largest milk producer by implementing a cooperative model that empowered rural milk producers and eliminated middlemen. By streamlining procurement, processing, and marketing through the Amul model, Operation Flood significantly increased milk production and improved the livelihoods of millions of dairy farmers across the country.
67Economy
The 'Stand-Up India Scheme' is related to which one of the following issues?
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Answer: (C) Promoting entrepreneurship amongst women, SC and ST communities
Explanation
The Stand-Up India Scheme was launched by the Government of India in 2016 specifically to promote entrepreneurship at the grassroots level focusing on economic empowerment and job creation. The scheme facilitates bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to at least one Scheduled Caste (SC) or Scheduled Tribe (ST) borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch for setting up a greenfield enterprise. These enterprises can be in the manufacturing, services, or trading sectors. By targeting these specific groups, the scheme aims to leverage the institutional credit structure to reach out to underserved sectors of the population, providing them with the necessary financial support to start new business ventures and participate in the country's economic growth.
68Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
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Answer: (D) Indian federalism is based on the principle of Separation of Powers.
Explanation
Indian federalism is fundamentally based on the principle of Division of Powers rather than the Separation of Powers. Division of Powers refers to the vertical distribution of authority between different levels of government, such as the Union and the States, which is a core requirement of a federal system. On the other hand, the Separation of Powers is a horizontal concept involving the distribution of functions among the three organs of government: the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. Furthermore, India follows a parliamentary system of government, which is characterized by a fusion of powers between the executive and the legislature, as the executive is a part of and responsible to the legislature. This contradicts the strict principle of separation of powers found in presidential systems. While the Indian Constitution does provide for an independent judiciary and mandates the separation of the judiciary from the executive under Article 50, these are distinct from the federal structure itself.
69Art and Culture
Consider the following statements:
1. The early Malwa school of paintings was influenced by Shirazi school while the early Mughal paintings initially followed Bihzad school.
2. The major exponents of Bihzad school in India were Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Malwa school of painting, which flourished in Central India during the 15th and 16th centuries, was significantly influenced by the Persian Shirazi style, as evidenced in works like the Nimat Nama (Book of Delicacies) manuscript produced in Mandu. This influence blended with indigenous Indian traditions to create a distinct regional style. Early Mughal painting was deeply rooted in the Timurid or Herat school of Persia, which was dominated by the aesthetic legacy of the master painter Kamal-ud-din Bihzad.
Mir Sayyid Ali and Abdus Samad were the two preeminent Persian artists whom the Mughal Emperor Humayun invited to his court during his exile in Persia and subsequently brought to India. Both were distinguished masters trained in the tradition of the Bihzad school. They were responsible for establishing the imperial Mughal atelier and directing the earliest large-scale Mughal painting projects, such as the Hamzanama, effectively transplanting the Bihzad school's refined techniques and stylistic elements into the Indian subcontinent.
70Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' programme is/are correct?
1. It was announced in the year 2014.
2. Its aim is to create an environment which promotes learning between the States by sharing best practices and experiences.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat' initiative was announced by the Prime Minister on 31st October 2015, on the occasion of the 140th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. The programme is designed to foster structured engagement between people of different states and union territories to celebrate the idea of India as a nation. It aims to enhance interaction and promote mutual understanding through the concept of state pairing, where states carry out activities to promote each other's language, culture, traditions, and music. This structured engagement creates a platform to share best practices and learning experiences, thereby strengthening the fabric of national integration and the traditionally existing emotional bonds between the diverse citizens of the country.
71Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Mirage 2000 is a twin-engine fighter jet.
2. HAL Tejas is a delta-winged fighter jet.
3. Rafale is a hypersonic fighter jet.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The HAL Tejas is an Indian single-engine, multirole light fighter aircraft designed with a tailless compound delta-wing configuration. This design choice provides the aircraft with high maneuverability and structural efficiency, particularly at high angles of attack.
The Mirage 2000 is a single-engine multirole combat fighter manufactured by Dassault Aviation, powered by a single SNECMA M53-P2 turbofan engine. The Dassault Rafale is a supersonic 4.5-generation fighter jet capable of reaching speeds of approximately Mach 1.8. It is not a hypersonic jet, as hypersonic speeds are defined as those exceeding Mach 5. Consequently, among the given statements, only the description of the HAL Tejas as a delta-winged fighter jet is correct.
72Science and Technology
Which one of the following aerospace companies designed and manufactured Falcon 9', a reusable rocket?
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Answer: (D) SpaceX
Explanation
SpaceX, founded by Elon Musk in 2002, designed and manufactured the Falcon 9 as a two-stage rocket for the reliable and safe transport of satellites and the Dragon spacecraft into orbit. It is the first orbital-class reusable rocket in history. Reusability is achieved through the vertical landing and recovery of the first-stage booster, which can be refurbished and flown again. This technology significantly reduces the cost of space access. The Falcon 9 has been a primary launch vehicle for NASA missions, including the Commercial Resupply Services and the Commercial Crew Program, which ferries astronauts to the International Space Station. Since its first successful landing in 2015, the rocket has set numerous records for flight frequency and successful recoveries.
73Science and Technology
'The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal', a nuclear-capable hypersonic missile, belongs to which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Russia
Explanation
The Kh-47M2 Kinzhal, which translates to Dagger, is an advanced air-launched hypersonic ballistic missile developed and deployed by Russia. It was officially unveiled by President Vladimir Putin during his State of the Nation address in March 2018 as one of the six next-generation strategic weapons intended to overcome existing and future missile defense systems. The missile is typically carried by specially modified MiG-31K interceptors and Tu-22M3 bombers. It is capable of carrying both nuclear and conventional warheads, reaching speeds of up to Mach 10, and performing evasive maneuvers at every stage of its flight. With a reported range of over 2,000 kilometers, it represents a significant component of Russia's modernized precision-strike and strategic deterrence capabilities.
74Geography
Mariupol city, frequently mentioned in news in the context of Russia-Ukraine conflict, is situated on the coast of
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Answer: (D) Sea of Azov
Explanation
Mariupol is a strategic port city located in the Donetsk Oblast of southeastern Ukraine. It is situated on the northern coast of the Sea of Azov, at the mouth of the Kalmius River. As one of the largest and most important commercial ports in Ukraine, it serves as a critical gateway for the export of steel, coal, and grain from the Donbas industrial region. The Sea of Azov is a shallow body of water bounded by Ukraine to the north and west and by Russia to the east, connected to the larger Black Sea by the narrow Strait of Kerch. During the 2022 conflict, Mariupol's coastal location made it a key military objective for establishing a land corridor between the Russian mainland and the Crimean Peninsula.
75Economy
Recently, with which one of the following countries did India sign the 'Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement'?
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Answer: (D) United Arab Emirates
Explanation
India and the United Arab Emirates officially signed the Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) on February 18, 2022, during a virtual summit. This agreement became operational on May 1, 2022, marking India's first bilateral trade agreement with a country in the Middle East and North Africa (MENA) region. The CEPA provides for an institutional mechanism to encourage and improve bilateral trade and investment, aiming to increase the total value of bilateral trade in goods to over $100 billion and trade in services to over $15 billion within five years. Under the pact, the UAE eliminated duties on over 97 percent of its tariff lines, which account for 99 percent of Indian exports to the UAE in value terms, particularly benefiting labor-intensive sectors such as gems and jewelry, textiles, leather, and engineering goods.
76History
Which one of the following is the oldest Central Paramilitary Force in India?
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Answer: (C) The Assam Rifles
Explanation
The Assam Rifles is the oldest paramilitary force in India, tracing its origins back to 1835. It was initially established as a militia called the Cachar Levy with a primary mandate to protect British settlements, tea estates, and fertile plains from raids by tribal groups in the Northeast. Over the decades, the force underwent several name changes, including the Assam Frontier Police, the Assam Military Police, and the Eastern Bengal and Assam Military Police, before finally being designated as the Assam Rifles in 1917. Known as the Sentinels of the Northeast, it remains a unique force under the dual control of the Ministry of Home Affairs for administration and the Ministry of Defence for operational duties.
77History
Which of the following statements about 'Agency Houses' is/are correct?
1. They were important commercial formations in the late eighteenth and nineteenth century India.
2. The operation of managing agencies remained confined to Calcutta.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Agency Houses were significant commercial entities that emerged in the late eighteenth century, primarily established by former employees of the East India Company and private British merchants. These houses played a pivotal role in the Indian economy during the late eighteenth and nineteenth centuries by acting as financial intermediaries. They mobilized the savings of the Company's servants and invested them in lucrative trade commodities such as indigo, silk, cotton, and opium. They essentially filled the vacuum created as the East India Company's monopoly over trade began to decline, facilitating the transition toward a more private, merchant-led colonial economy. While Calcutta served as the primary center for these houses due to its role as the capital and a major port, the system of managing agencies and agency houses was also active in other presidency towns like Bombay and Madras, as well as in inland commercial hubs to manage various industrial and plantation interests.
78History
Which one of the following statements about Tolkappiyam is not correct?
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Answer: (D) It was composed by Panini.
Explanation
Tolkappiyam was authored by Tolkappiyar, who is traditionally identified as one of the twelve disciples of the sage Agastya. This work serves as the oldest surviving Tamil grammar and literary treatise, providing the linguistic foundation for the Sangam corpus. Panini was a separate historical figure and a Sanskrit grammarian who lived significantly earlier, likely around the 4th century BCE. He is celebrated for composing the Ashtadhyayi, which is the authoritative and foundational text on Sanskrit grammar, morphology, and phonology. Therefore, attributing the authorship of the Tamil Tolkappiyam to the Sanskrit scholar Panini is historically and linguistically incorrect.
79History
Which one of the following statements about 'Princely States' in India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The State of Travancore finally joined India through a plebiscite.
Explanation
The State of Travancore did not join the Indian Union through a plebiscite. While the Dewan of Travancore, Sir C. P. Ramaswami Iyer, initially announced the state's intention to remain independent after the lapse of British paramountcy, the situation changed rapidly due to internal political pressure and an assassination attempt on the Dewan. Following these events, the Maharaja of Travancore, Chithira Thirunal Balarama Varma, agreed to sign the Instrument of Accession in July 1947. Plebiscites were used as a mechanism for determining the fate of certain territories like Junagadh or the North-West Frontier Province, but the integration of Travancore was achieved through the standard legal process of signing the Instrument of Accession by the ruling monarch.
80History
Which one of the following books was authored by Harshavardhana?
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Answer: (C) Ratnavali
Explanation
Harshavardhana, the ruler of the Pushyabhuti dynasty who reigned from 606 to 647 CE, was a distinguished scholar and playwright in addition to being a powerful monarch. He is historically credited with the authorship of three significant Sanskrit dramas: Ratnavali, Priyadarshika, and Nagananda. Ratnavali is a four-act Natika that narrates the romantic tale of King Udayana of Vatsa and the princess Ratnavali of Ceylon. The play is characterized by its use of the Natika form, incorporating themes of courtly love, mistaken identities, and palace intrigues. His literary contributions reflect the high standard of classical Sanskrit literature during his reign and have established his reputation as an accomplished poet-king in ancient Indian history.
81Art and Culture
The King of Dance' is a description of
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Answer: (D) Bronze Nataraja of the Cholas
Explanation
The term Nataraja is a Sanskrit compound consisting of Nata, meaning dance or drama, and Raja, meaning king or lord. This iconic representation of the Hindu god Shiva as the cosmic dancer reached its zenith of artistic and symbolic expression under the Chola dynasty between the 9th and 13th centuries CE. These bronze masterpieces depict Shiva performing the Ananda Tandava, or the dance of bliss, within a flaming halo. The sculpture encapsulates the five essential cosmic activities: creation symbolized by the damaru (drum), protection or preservation shown through the abhaya mudra (gesture of fearlessness), destruction represented by the agni (fire), illusion or concealment depicted by the foot crushing the demon Apasmara, and liberation or grace indicated by the raised leg. Because this form represents Shiva as the source and master of all movement and rhythm in the universe, he is titled the King of Dance.
82Geography
Anasagar Lake is located in which one of the following States?
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan
Explanation
Anasagar Lake is a historic artificial lake situated in the city of Ajmer, Rajasthan. It was commissioned by Arnoraja (also known as Ana), the grandfather of the Rajput king Prithviraj Chauhan, in the mid-12th century (approximately 1135–1150 AD). The lake was created by damming the Luni River to serve as a vital water reservoir for the arid region. Its historical importance is further marked by the additions made by Mughal emperors; Jahangir established the Daulat Bagh gardens along its banks, and Shah Jahan later added five polished marble pavilions, known as Baradari, which remain prominent architectural features of the site today.
83Geography
The World Wetland Day is celebrated on which one of the following dates every year?
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Answer: (D) 2nd February
Explanation
World Wetland Day is celebrated annually on 2nd February to commemorate the date of the adoption of the Convention on Wetlands on February 2, 1971. This international treaty, established in the Iranian city of Ramsar, provides a framework for the conservation and sustainable use of wetland habitats worldwide. The day is intended to raise global awareness about the importance of wetlands in supporting biodiversity, mitigating climate change, and providing essential ecosystem services like water purification and flood control. The observance began in 1997 and is recognized by the United Nations to highlight the critical role these ecosystems play in maintaining the ecological balance of the Earth.
84Geography
Ganga water is being shared at Farakka with which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Bangladesh
Explanation
The Farakka Barrage is located in the Murshidabad district of West Bengal, India, approximately 18 kilometers upstream from the border with Bangladesh. It was constructed to divert water from the Ganga River into the Hooghly River to flush out sediment and maintain the navigability of the Kolkata Port. Because the Ganga flows from India into Bangladesh, the operation of this barrage directly affects the water availability for the downstream nation. To manage this resource, India and Bangladesh signed the landmark 30-year Ganga Water Sharing Treaty in 1996. This treaty provides a specific formula for sharing the flow at Farakka during the dry season, from January to May, to ensure both countries receive an equitable share of the river's water.
85Geography
Which one of the following is a part of Deccan Plateau?
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Answer: (B) Karbi Anglong Hills
Explanation
The Karbi Anglong Hills are geologically an extension of the Indian Peninsular Plateau towards the northeast. Although physically separated from the main block by the Malda Fault, also referred to as the Garo-Rajmahal Gap, these hills share the same structural and geological characteristics as the Deccan Plateau. They are composed of ancient crystalline rocks and represent the northeastern-most reach of the Peninsular block, which also encompasses the Meghalaya Plateau consisting of the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills.
86Geography
In which one of the following States, more than 50% area is under Jhum cultivation?
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Answer: (D) Mizoram
Explanation
Mizoram has the highest percentage of its geographical area under shifting cultivation, commonly known as Jhum cultivation, among the North-Eastern states of India. This is primarily due to the state's rugged, hilly terrain and the traditional socio-economic practices of its tribal communities. According to various reports, including the Wasteland Atlas of India and data from the North Eastern Council, the land area categorized as being under the Jhum cycle—which includes current shifting cultivation patches and the associated fallow lands—covers more than 50% of the state's total geographical area. The practice involves the traditional slash-and-burn method where forest patches are cleared and burned for short-term cropping before being left to regenerate, making it the dominant form of land use in the state's agricultural landscape.
87Polity and Governance
'Dhivehi' is a principal language of which one of the following Union Territories?
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Answer: (C) Lakshadweep
Explanation
Dhivehi, specifically the Mahl dialect, is a principal language spoken in Minicoy, the southernmost island of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. While Malayalam is the predominant language across most of the archipelago, the residents of Minicoy share close ethnic, linguistic, and cultural ties with the Republic of Maldives, where Dhivehi is the national language. This Indo-Aryan language is written in the Thaana script. Its usage in India is unique to the Minicoy community within Lakshadweep, reflecting the historical and geographical proximity of the island to the Maldivian archipelago.
88Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are source/sources of Law in India?
1. Constitution of India
2. Statutes
3. Customary Law
4. Case Law
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Indian legal system is built upon a combination of several primary sources that define the rules of the land. The Constitution of India is the supreme source of law, providing the foundational framework and the ultimate authority for all other legal instruments. Statutes refer to the formal written enactments passed by the Parliament and State Legislatures, forming the bulk of contemporary law. Customary law is recognized when specific traditions or practices have been followed continuously and uniformly for a long period, provided they are reasonable and not in conflict with statutory law. Case law, or judicial precedent, is another crucial source whereby the rulings of the higher judiciary establish legal principles that are binding on lower courts, a principle reinforced by Article 141 of the Constitution regarding the Supreme Court of India.
89Polity and Governance
Which among the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
1. To ensure interministerial coordination
2. Management of major crisis situations in the country
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister and is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961, and the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961. It ensures inter-ministerial coordination by facilitating the smooth transaction of business in ministries and departments, often through Standing or Ad-hoc Committees of Secretaries to resolve differences and ensure cohesive policy implementation. Furthermore, the Cabinet Secretariat is central to the management of major crisis situations in the country. It houses the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC), which is chaired by the Cabinet Secretary. The NCMC is the nodal body responsible for coordinating relief and response measures during significant disasters or emergencies, ensuring that all relevant wings of the government act in concert during a national crisis.
90Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Committee on Public Undertakings is/are correct?
1. There are more members from the Rajya Sabha than the Lok Sabha in the Committee.
2. The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Committee on Public Undertakings consists of 22 members, with 15 members being elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 members being nominated from the Rajya Sabha. This distribution ensures that the Lok Sabha has more than double the representation of the Rajya Sabha, contradicting the claim that Rajya Sabha members outnumber those from the Lok Sabha.
The Chairperson of the Committee is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha from amongst the members of the Committee who are drawn specifically from the Lok Sabha. Members from the Rajya Sabha are not eligible for appointment as the Chairperson of this committee. This procedure aligns with the Chairperson's appointment in other financial committees like the Estimates Committee and the Public Accounts Committee.
91Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) A censure motion cannot be moved against the entire Council of Ministers.
Explanation
A censure motion is a parliamentary tool used to express strong disapproval or criticism of the government's specific policies or actions. Under the rules of the Lok Sabha, such a motion can be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers. This flexibility allows the opposition to target specific administrative failures or general governance. While a no-confidence motion must always be moved against the whole Council of Ministers to test their collective mandate, a censure motion must state the specific reasons for its adoption and can be directed at any subset of the executive branch, including the collective body. Therefore, the statement claiming that it cannot be moved against the entire Council of Ministers is factually incorrect.
92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a thrust area of the 'Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT)'?
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Answer: (C) Motorized urban transport and capacity building
Explanation
The Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) focuses on providing basic services and improving infrastructure in cities to enhance the quality of life. The mission identifies specific thrust areas for urban renewal, including water supply, sewerage and septage management, storm water drainage, and the development of green spaces and parks. Regarding transportation, the mission specifically prioritizes non-motorized urban transport, such as constructing sidewalks, foot-over bridges, and cycling tracks, along with facilities for public transport. It does not include the development or promotion of motorized urban transport for private vehicles as a thrust area. While capacity building is a cross-cutting component of the mission intended to strengthen urban local bodies, the focus on motorized transport is inconsistent with the program's sustainability and mobility goals.
93Science and Technology
Nowadays, 'nonfungible tokens' are talked about in the context of
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Answer: (A) digital assets on a blockchain
Explanation
Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are unique cryptographic assets that exist on a blockchain and cannot be replicated. Each NFT contains distinct identification codes and metadata that distinguish it from any other token, making it one-of-a-kind. Unlike fungible assets such as traditional currency or standard cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin, which are identical to each other and can be exchanged at equivalency, NFTs are non-interchangeable. They serve as digital certificates of ownership and authenticity for various items, most commonly digital art, collectibles, music, and videos. Because they are recorded on a blockchain, the ownership and transaction history of an NFT are transparent, permanent, and easily verifiable without the need for a central authority.
94Science and Technology
The term 'Sagittarius A*', sometimes mentioned in news, refers to
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Answer: (A) a supermassive black hole in our Milky Way Galaxy
Explanation
Sagittarius A* is the supermassive black hole located at the Galactic Center of the Milky Way galaxy. It is approximately 26,000 light-years away from Earth and has a mass equivalent to about 4 million times that of our Sun. In May 2022, the Event Horizon Telescope collaboration produced the first direct image of the shadow of this black hole, providing visual evidence of its existence. The object was identified through its strong radio emissions and by observing the high-velocity orbits of nearby stars, such as S2, which indicated a massive, invisible object concentrating a vast amount of mass into a very small volume at the center of the galaxy.
95Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements with reference to the latest guidelines issued by the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In):
1. Data centres and service providers shall compulsorily report cyber security breaches within 24 hours.
2. Virtual Private Network providers shall retain user data for at least five years and share records with authorities when required.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) issued updated directives in April 2022 to strengthen the cyber security posture in the country. These guidelines require all service providers, intermediaries, data centres, and government organisations to report cyber security incidents within a mandatory window of 6 hours of noticing the incident. This rapid reporting timeline is intended to allow CERT-In to respond to and mitigate large-scale cyber threats effectively.
Additionally, the guidelines mandate that Virtual Private Network (VPN) service providers, along with data centres and cloud service providers, must register and maintain accurate information regarding their subscribers. This includes details such as names, ownership patterns, contact information, and the IP addresses allocated to users. This data must be retained for a minimum period of five years, even after a subscriber has cancelled their registration, and must be shared with the relevant authorities when required by law to assist in investigations.
96Polity and Governance
The principle of 'common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities', often talked about in media, refers to
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Answer: (C) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
Explanation
The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) is a foundational element of the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), established during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. It acknowledges that while all nations have a shared obligation to address environmental degradation and the reduction of greenhouse gas emissions, they possess different historical responsibilities for the accumulation of these gases and varying levels of economic and technical capacity to combat the issue. Under this principle, developed countries are expected to take the lead in climate mitigation efforts and provide financial and technological assistance to developing nations, ensuring that global climate action is pursued in an equitable manner that accounts for national circumstances and development needs.
97Economy
With reference to Indian economy, the term 'bad bank', frequently mentioned in news, refers to
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Answer: (A) an asset reconstruction company
Explanation
A bad bank is a specialized financial institution, technically known as an asset reconstruction company (ARC), that is established to buy non-performing assets (NPAs) or bad loans from commercial banks. In the Indian context, the National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited (NARCL) was created to function as a bad bank. By transferring stressed assets to an ARC, commercial banks are able to clean up their balance sheets, improve their capital adequacy, and focus on their core business of credit intermediation. The ARC typically acquires these loans at a discount and then utilizes its expertise to recover the dues or restructure the debt over a period of time, thereby isolating toxic assets from the healthy parts of the banking system.
98Art and Culture
Which one of the following was not a feature of the art of painting in India in the 19th century?
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Answer: (C) The technique of oil painting was developed.
Explanation
The technique of oil painting was introduced to the Indian subcontinent during the late 18th century by visiting European artists like Tilly Kettle, Johann Zoffany, and the Daniells. These artists brought the medium and the style of academic realism to various princely courts, such as that of the Nawab of Awadh, well before the 19th century. Consequently, while oil painting reached a peak of popularity and widespread adoption among Indian artists like Raja Ravi Varma during the late 1800s, the technical introduction and the initial development of oil painting in the Indian context were historical features of the 18th century rather than the 19th century.
99Polity and Governance
As part of the Look/Act East Policy, which one of the following capitals of North-East Indian States is proposed to be connected with Bangladesh via rail route?
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Answer: (A) Agartala
Explanation
The Agartala-Akhaura rail link project is a significant cross-border connectivity initiative designed to link Agartala, the capital of Tripura, with the Akhaura railway junction in Bangladesh. This project serves as a vital component of India's Act East Policy, aimed at boosting trade, transit, and people-to-people connectivity between Northeast India and Bangladesh. By connecting to the Bangladesh railway network, the link provides the Northeastern region with much shorter access to the Chittagong international sea port and significantly reduces the travel distance between Agartala and Kolkata by traversing through Bangladesh territory instead of the circuitous Siliguri Corridor. This international rail link facilitates the seamless movement of goods and passengers, strengthening socio-economic ties while integrating the landlocked Northeastern states with regional and global markets.
100Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the appointment of District Judges?
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Answer: (C) They are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Court of the concerned State.
Explanation
Article 233 of the Constitution of India mandates that the appointment, posting, and promotion of district judges in any State shall be made by the Governor of the State. This executive power is not absolute and must be exercised in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State. This constitutional provision ensures a checks-and-balances system where the State Executive and the Judiciary collaborate to maintain the integrity and independence of the subordinate judiciary. Furthermore, for a person not already in the service of the Union or of the State to be eligible for appointment as a district judge, they must have been an advocate or a pleader for at least seven years and must be recommended by the High Court for appointment.
101History
Consider the following historical events in India carefully:
1. The Indian press failed to protest against the Vernacular Press Act of 1878.
2. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was introduced by Viceroy Lytton against the counsel of his own Law Member.
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was a highly repressive measure enacted by Lord Lytton to stifle the growing nationalist sentiment expressed in native languages. While Lytton was determined to proceed with the legislation to silence criticism of his administration handling of the Great Famine and the Second Anglo-Afghan War, he faced significant internal opposition. His Law Member, Arthur Hobhouse, consistently voiced his disapproval of the act, arguing that it was unnecessary and violated the principle of legal equality by specifically targeting the vernacular press while exempting English-language newspapers. Despite this counsel from his own senior legal advisor, Lytton used his authority to pass the act in a single day through the Imperial Legislative Council.
102History
Which of the following pairs of years and historical events is correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) 1878: Second Anglo-Afghan War
Explanation
The Second Anglo-Afghan War began in 1878 and lasted until 1880. The conflict was part of the Great Game, a geopolitical struggle between the British and Russian Empires for influence in Central Asia. It was initiated by Lord Lytton, the Viceroy of India, after the Afghan Amir, Sher Ali, accepted a Russian diplomatic mission but refused to receive a British one. British troops invaded in November 1878, eventually leading to the Treaty of Gandamak in 1879, which gave Britain control over Afghanistan's foreign relations in exchange for a subsidy and protection against foreign aggression.
103Geography
Which of the following sets of Indian States are landlocked and do not have an international boundary?
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Answer: (B) Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh and Telangana
Explanation
Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, and Telangana are the five Indian states that satisfy the dual criteria of being landlocked and having no international boundaries. Haryana is located in North India, bordered by Himachal Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh. Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh are centrally located, surrounded entirely by other Indian states. Jharkhand is situated in the east, sharing borders with Bihar, West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Uttar Pradesh. Telangana is located in the south-central region, bounded by Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. These states are situated within the interior of the country, meaning they do not possess a coastline along the Arabian Sea or Bay of Bengal, nor do they share a frontier with any neighboring nation such as Pakistan, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar, or Bangladesh.
104Geography
Arrange the following passes from West to East direction :
1. Bara Lacha La
2. Shipki La
3. Jelep La
4. Bomdi La
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Answer: (A) 1-2-3-4
Explanation
The geographical arrangement of these Himalayan passes follows the longitudinal progression from West to East across the Indian states of Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Bara Lacha La is situated in the Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh at approximately 77.4°E longitude. Moving eastward, Shipki La is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh on the border with Tibet at approximately 78.7°E longitude. Further east, Jelep La is located in the state of Sikkim at approximately 88.8°E longitude, providing a mountain pass between East Sikkim District and the Tibet Autonomous Region. Finally, Bomdi La is located in the West Kameng district of Arunachal Pradesh at approximately 92.4°E longitude, making it the easternmost pass in this sequence. This order reflects the transition from the Western Himalayas through the Central Himalayas to the Eastern Himalayas.
105Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The jet streams are high altitude easterly winds.
2. El Nino is a warm ocean current.
3. El Nino appears along the Peru coast.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
El Niño is a significant climatic event characterized by the abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean. It is fundamentally a warm ocean current that appears along the coast of Peru and Ecuador, usually around the end of the year. This phenomenon occurs when the trade winds, which normally push warm water toward the western Pacific, weaken or reverse, allowing warm water to flow eastward toward South America. This replaces the cold, northward-flowing Humboldt Current and disrupts the typical upwelling of deep, cold water along the Peruvian shore.
106Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Type of plain) (Characteristic feature)
A. Bhabar 1. Marsh
B. Bhangar 2. Silt
C. Khadar 3. Gravels
D. Delta 4. Kankar
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Answer: (B) A B C D 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Bhabar is a narrow belt at the foot of the Shivalik hills consisting of pebbles and coarse gravels where the porosity is so high that streams often disappear underground.
Bhangar represents the older alluvium of the plains situated above the flood limits and is characterized by the presence of calcareous deposits or nodules known as Kankar.
Khadar refers to the newer, younger alluvium deposited by rivers during annual floods, consisting of fine-grained particles like silt and clay which make the soil highly fertile.
Delta is the landform created at the mouth of a river where it meets a standing body of water, often resulting in low-lying, swampy, or marshy areas as the river divides into multiple distributaries.
107Economy
A non-banking financial company cannot
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Answer: (D) seek demand deposits from public and cannot issue cheques
Explanation
Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) are financial institutions that provide banking-type services but do not hold a full banking license. Under the regulatory framework established by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), NBFCs are strictly prohibited from accepting demand deposits, which include funds in savings or current accounts that the depositor can withdraw at any time. Additionally, NBFCs are excluded from the national payment and settlement system, which prevents them from issuing cheques drawn on themselves. These constraints serve to differentiate NBFCs from commercial banks and manage systemic risk, as NBFCs do not have access to the same liquidity windows or the deposit insurance protections provided to traditional banks by the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC).
108Polity and Governance
The Swaran Singh Committee recommended the insertion of which one of the following provisions into the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Fundamental Duties
Explanation
The Swaran Singh Committee was constituted by the Government of India in 1976 to make recommendations about fundamental duties, the necessity of which was felt during the internal emergency. The committee recommended that a separate chapter on fundamental duties should be included in the Constitution to stress that citizens have certain obligations alongside their rights. Based on these recommendations, the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 inserted Part IV-A and Article 51A into the Constitution. Although the committee had suggested the inclusion of eight fundamental duties, the 42nd Amendment actually included ten duties. A eleventh fundamental duty was later added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002.
109Economy
The proceeds from disinvestment are included as
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Answer: (C) capital receipts
Explanation
Disinvestment involves the sale of government-held equity in public sector undertakings (PSUs). In the government's budget, capital receipts are those that either create a liability or result in a reduction of assets. Because the sale of shares in PSUs decreases the government's ownership and total financial assets, the proceeds generated from such transactions are categorized as capital receipts. Specifically, these are known as non-debt creating capital receipts as they do not impose any future repayment obligation on the government, unlike market borrowings or loans.
110Economy
GST is a/an
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Answer: (A) destination-based consumption tax
Explanation
GST is characterized as a destination-based consumption tax because the tax is levied at the point where goods or services are consumed rather than where they are manufactured or produced. Under this principle, the revenue from the tax accrues to the jurisdiction where the final consumption takes place. In the case of inter-state trade within India, the Integrated GST (IGST) mechanism ensures that the tax portion destined for the state reaches the consuming state's treasury. This system operates on a value-addition basis, where tax is applied at each stage of the supply chain, but the input tax credit allows for the offset of taxes paid on previous purchases, leaving the ultimate tax burden to be borne by the final consumer at the destination.
111Economy
In the first quarter of fiscal year 2020-21, GDP contracted by 23-9 percent and in the second quarter, by 7-5 percent. The Economic Survey, 2020-21 preferred to call it a recovery in
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Answer: (B) V-shape
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2020-21 described the trajectory of the Indian economy as a V-shaped recovery. This term refers to a pattern where a sharp economic decline is followed by a similarly rapid and strong rebound. Following the unprecedented contraction of 23.9 percent in the first quarter and 7.5 percent in the second quarter of FY 2020-21 due to the COVID-19 lockdown, high-frequency indicators such as power demand, rail freight, and GST collections showed a significant recovery. The survey argued that the timely policy responses, including the Atmanirbhar Bharat packages and the calibrated reopening of the economy, allowed for a quick bounce-back, reflecting the inherent resilience of the Indian economy.
112Polity and Governance
Based on the scoring on SDG (Sustainable Development Goals) India Index, the NITI Aayog has classified various States into certain categories. Which one of the following is not one of the categories?
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Answer: (C) Fast runners
Explanation
The NITI Aayog SDG India Index evaluates the progress of States and Union Territories on a scale of 0 to 100 and groups them into four specific categories. Fast runners is not a valid category under this index. The actual classifications used are Aspirant for scores below 50, Performer for scores between 50 and 64, Front Runner for scores between 65 and 99, and Achiever for a perfect score of 100. Because the index specifically uses the term Front Runner for high-performing states, the designation of Fast runners is absent from the official ranking system.
113Art and Culture
Who among the following is credited with the introduction and popularization of Dhrupad form of music?
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Answer: (A) Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior
Explanation
Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior is historically recognized for revolutionizing Hindustani classical music by adapting the ancient Dhrupad style for the royal court. During his reign from 1486 to 1516, he provided the patronage necessary to refine the genre's structure and transition it from its purely liturgical roots in temples to a sophisticated courtly performance art. He is particularly credited with commissioning the Man Kautuhal, a comprehensive musical treatise that standardized Dhrupad compositions and incorporated regional dialects like Braj Bhasha to enhance its popular appeal. His leadership in Gwalior established a major musical center that codified the technical grammar and stylistic framework of the genre, ensuring its dominance in North Indian classical music for centuries.
114History
Who among the following is the author of the famous partition narrative, The Other Side of Silence?
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Answer: (B) Urvashi Butalia
Explanation
Urvashi Butalia is the author of the seminal work The Other Side of Silence: Voices from the Partition of India, published in 1998. The book is a landmark in the study of the 1947 Partition, as it shifted the focus from high-level political negotiations to the lived experiences of ordinary individuals. Butalia utilized oral history and personal testimonies to document the trauma, displacement, and violence faced by marginalized groups, particularly women, children, and Dalits. Her work highlights how the Partition resulted in a deep-seated psychological and social silence that persisted for decades within families and the collective national consciousness.
115History
Which one of the following cities on the banks of Ganges declined in importance when the railway link to Bombay started operating?
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Answer: (C) Mirzapur
Explanation
Mirzapur was a flourishing commercial center in the early 19th century, serving as a vital entrepot for trade between the Deccan, Central India, and the Gangetic plains. It was particularly famous as a major mart for cotton and grain, which were transported via the Ganges to the port of Calcutta. The city's economic dominance was built on its strategic location as a transshipment point where goods from the interior were transferred to river boats. However, the introduction and expansion of the Indian railway network in the mid-to-late 19th century fundamentally altered these trade patterns. Once the railway link connected the cotton-producing regions of Central India directly to the port of Bombay, the traditional, slower route through Mirzapur and down the Ganges became redundant. This shift in logistics diverted the flow of commerce toward the western coast, leading to a rapid decline in Mirzapur's importance as a primary trading hub.
116History
When was the first All India Census attempted?
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Answer: (B) 1872
Explanation
The first All India Census was attempted in 1872 under the viceroyalty of Lord Mayo. This exercise was non-synchronous, meaning it was not conducted simultaneously across all regions of the country, and it lacked the comprehensive coverage of later counts. It served as the experimental precursor to the first synchronous decennial census of India, which was eventually carried out in 1881. The 1872 attempt established the foundation for modern demographic data collection and administrative planning in colonial India.
117Geography
Consider the following statements about the seaports in India:
1. There are 4 major and 25 minor seaports in India.
2. The major ports are under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.
3. The minor ports are under the jurisdiction of respective State Maritime Board/State Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
India has 13 major ports and over 200 non-major or minor ports, which makes the count in the first statement incorrect. Major ports are governed by the Central Government under the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are managed by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways. This ensures uniform administrative and regulatory control across the country's primary maritime gateways. Non-major ports fall under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule and are managed by the respective State Governments or State Maritime Boards under the Indian Ports Act, 1908. This dual system allows for central oversight of strategic ports while enabling state governments to develop and regulate smaller ports according to regional economic needs.
118Economy
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Regional block) (Headquarters)
A. ASEAN
1. Brussels
B. CIS
2. Vienna
C. EU
3. Minsk
D. OPEC
4. Jakarta
Code:
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Answer: (A) A B C D 4 3 1 2
Explanation
ASEAN (Association of Southeast Asian Nations) established its permanent secretariat in Jakarta, Indonesia, in 1976 to serve as the central administrative organ for regional cooperation. The Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS), formed following the dissolution of the Soviet Union, maintains its executive headquarters in Minsk, Belarus. The European Union (EU) hosts its primary institutional seats, including the European Commission and the Council of the European Union, in Brussels, Belgium. OPEC (Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) moved its headquarters from Geneva to Vienna, Austria, in 1965 to coordinate international petroleum policies and stabilize oil markets.
119Geography
Solifluction is a geomorphic process involving a special type of soil flow that is noticed in
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Answer: (C) permafrost regions
Explanation
Solifluction is a mass wasting process specifically associated with periglacial or permafrost environments. It occurs during the summer thaw when the surface layer of soil, known as the active layer, melts while the underlying ground remains permanently frozen and impermeable. Because the water cannot drain downward into the frozen substrate, the topsoil becomes heavily saturated. This high water content reduces the internal friction and shear strength of the soil, causing it to flow slowly downslope under the influence of gravity. This process can occur even on very gentle slopes and typically results in the formation of distinct geomorphic features such as solifluction lobes and terraces.
120Science and Technology
Which one of the following geologic time periods is associated with the first appearance of the marsupials?
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Answer: (A) Lower Cretaceous
Explanation
The first appearance of the marsupial lineage, scientifically categorized under Metatheria, is traced back to the Lower Cretaceous period, approximately 125 million years ago. This is confirmed by the fossil record, most notably the discovery of Sinodelphys szalayi in the Yixian Formation of Liaoning, China. During the Lower Cretaceous, metatherians diverged from eutherians, the ancestors of placental mammals, developing distinct morphological traits in their dentition and skeletal structure. These early fossils provide the primary evidence for the existence of the marsupial branch within the mammalian evolutionary tree during this specific geological timeframe.
121Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Border Roads Organization (BRO) is/are correct?
1. BRO is concerned with the construction and maintenance of roads in strategically sensitive areas.
2. BRO undertakes snow clearance in high altitude areas.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Border Roads Organization (BRO) was established in 1960 to expedite the development of infrastructure in India's remote and strategically sensitive northern and northeastern border areas. Its primary mandate involves the construction and maintenance of roads that are vital for national security and the movement of the armed forces. Beyond construction, the BRO performs the critical task of ensuring all-weather connectivity in high-altitude regions. This includes conducting extensive snow clearance operations on high mountain passes and arterial roads during winter to maintain logistics and civilian transport links in states and union territories like Ladakh, Himachal Pradesh, and Jammu and Kashmir. These dual responsibilities make it a key contributor to both border defense and the socio-economic development of isolated frontier regions.
122Polity and Governance
Which among the following countries is not a member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?
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Answer: (C) Belarus
Explanation
Belarus is not a member of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization. It maintains a close strategic and military partnership with Russia and is a founding member of the Collective Security Treaty Organization (CSTO), which is a separate intergovernmental military alliance composed of several post-Soviet states. Belarus's national security policy and military cooperation are primarily integrated with the Russian Federation through the Union State framework, positioning it outside the Western alliance structure. Historically, Belarus has served as a strategic ally to Russia and has consistently expressed formal opposition to the expansion of NATO toward its borders.
123Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The 15th ASEAN-India Summit was held virtually in March 2022.
2. European Union is India's largest regional trading partner.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The European Union (EU) is India's largest regional trading partner. In the fiscal year 2021-22, bilateral trade between India and the EU reached approximately $116.36 billion, marking a significant growth compared to previous years. When treated as a single economic bloc, the EU consistently accounts for a larger share of India's global trade than other regional groupings such as ASEAN, which recorded a trade volume of about $110 billion during the same period. This makes the EU the most significant regional entity for India's external trade in terms of both exports and imports.
124Polity and Governance
What is the term of office of the Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission?
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Answer: (B) 3 years or up to 70 years of age
Explanation
The Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act, 2019, modified the service conditions for the leadership of the National Human Rights Commission. Under the current provisions of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson and members of the commission serve a term of three years from the date of appointment or until they reach the age of seventy years, whichever occurs first. This amendment aimed to streamline the functioning of the commission and ensured that individuals are eligible for reappointment for a second term, provided they remain within the seventy-year age threshold.
125Polity and Governance
Which of the following sets of nations are members of the BIMSTEC Initiative?
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Answer: (B) Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Myanmar
Explanation
BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) is a regional multilateral organization established in 1997 through the Bangkok Declaration. It comprises seven member states that are situated in the littoral and adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal, acting as a bridge between South Asia and Southeast Asia. The membership includes five countries from South Asia—Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka—and two countries from Southeast Asia—Myanmar and Thailand. While the initiative originally started with Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand, it expanded to include Myanmar in late 1997 and both Nepal and Bhutan in 2004. The organization focuses on fostering economic growth and cooperation in sectors such as trade, technology, energy, and transport among its member nations.