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CAPF AC Paper I 2018 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 122 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

122
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8
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Answers + explanations

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  • Polity and Governance2722%
  • Science and Technology2218%
  • History2016%
  • Geography1916%
  • Quantitative Aptitude1613%
  • Economy108%
  • Art and Culture65%
  • Logical Reasoning22%
1Science and Technology
The optical phenomenon that is responsible for the propagation of light signal through an optical fibre is
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Answer: (C) total internal reflection

Explanation

Optical fiber communication relies on total internal reflection to transmit light signals over long distances. An optical fiber consists of an inner core and an outer cladding, where the refractive index of the core is higher than that of the cladding. When a light signal enters the core and strikes the interface between the core and the cladding at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, the light is reflected entirely back into the core instead of being refracted into the cladding. This process occurs repeatedly along the length of the fiber, allowing the light to be guided through the cable even around curves and bends with minimal loss of signal strength.

2Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about optical microscope is/are correct? 1. Both the eyepiece and objective of a microscope are convex lenses. 2. The magnification of a microscope increases with increase in focal length of the objective. 3. The magnification of a microscope depends upon the length of the microscope tube. 4. The eyepiece of a microscope is a concave lens. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3

Explanation

In a compound optical microscope, the total magnification M is the product of the magnification of the objective lens mₒ and the magnification of the eyepiece mₑ. The approximate formula for magnification when the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision D is M ≈ (L/fₒ) · (D/fₑ), where L is the tube length, fₒ is the focal length of the objective, and fₑ is the focal length of the eyepiece.

Statement 1 is correct because a standard compound microscope uses two sets of convex (converging) lenses. The objective lens, placed near the object, forms a real, inverted, and magnified image. The eyepiece, which is also a convex lens, acts as a simple magnifying glass to further enlarge this intermediate image into a final virtual image for the observer.

Statement 3 is correct because the magnification is directly proportional to the tube length L, which is defined as the distance between the second focal point of the objective and the first focal point of the eyepiece. Increasing the tube length increases the distance over which the light rays from the objective diverge before forming the intermediate image, thereby increasing the linear magnification of that image.

3Science and Technology
Which one of the following gemstones contains beryllium metal?
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Answer: (B) Emerald

Explanation

Emerald is a variety of the mineral beryl, which is a beryllium aluminium cyclosilicate. The chemical formula for beryl is Be₃Al₂Si₆O₁₈. This composition indicates that beryllium is a primary structural element of the gemstone. Emeralds specifically obtain their characteristic green color from trace amounts of chromium or sometimes vanadium that substitute for aluminum in the crystal lattice. Because the base mineral beryl is defined by its beryllium content, emerald is the gemstone among the choices that contains beryllium metal as a fundamental constituent.

4Science and Technology
Lowering the atmospheric pressure on a liquid
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Answer: (B) lowers the boiling point of the liquid

Explanation

The boiling point of a liquid is the specific temperature at which its vapor pressure becomes equal to the external atmospheric pressure. According to the Clausius-Clapeyron relation, there is a direct proportional relationship between the pressure exerted on a liquid and its boiling temperature. When the atmospheric pressure is lowered, the molecules in the liquid require less thermal energy to overcome the external pressure and escape into the vapor phase. Because the vapor pressure needs to reach a lower threshold to match the surrounding environment, the liquid reaches its boiling state at a lower temperature. This is why water boils at temperatures below 100 degrees Celsius at high altitudes where the atmospheric pressure is significantly reduced compared to sea level.

5Science and Technology
The number of angular and radial nodes for 4d orbital is respectively
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Answer: (A) 2 and 1

Explanation

The number of angular nodes in an atom's orbital is determined by the azimuthal quantum number l, while the number of radial nodes is calculated using the formula n - l - 1, where n is the principal quantum number. For a 4d orbital, the principal quantum number n = 4. For any d-orbital, the azimuthal quantum number l = 2. Substituting these values into the formulas, the number of angular nodes is l = 2 and the number of radial nodes is 4 - 2 - 1 = 1.

6Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about proteins in mammalian cells is correct?
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Answer: (C) Proteins in mammalian cells are synthesized in rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Explanation

The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is a primary site of protein synthesis in mammalian cells. It derives its rough appearance from the presence of numerous ribosomes attached to its cytoplasmic surface. These ribosomes are responsible for translating messenger RNA (mRNA) into polypeptide chains. As the proteins are being synthesized, they are typically translocated into the lumen of the RER for proper folding and initial post-translational modifications. This pathway is specifically utilized for proteins destined for secretion, incorporation into the plasma membrane, or for use within lysosomes.

7Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about transport mechanism in plants is correct?
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Answer: (B) Active transport of ions and small molecules across cell membrane against concentration gradient requires energy.

Explanation

Active transport is a fundamental physiological process in plants where ions and small molecules are moved across the cell membrane against their concentration gradient, shifting from a region of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration. Because this uphill movement opposes the natural direction of passive diffusion, it requires the expenditure of metabolic energy, which is usually provided by the hydrolysis of ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate). This transport is facilitated by specific carrier proteins located within the cell membrane, often referred to as pumps, which bind to the solute and use energy to change conformation and release the molecule on the opposite side. This mechanism is crucial for plants to accumulate essential minerals and nutrients from the soil even when their concentration in the soil is significantly lower than inside the plant cells.

8Science and Technology
If the amplitude of oscillation of a simple pendulum is very small, then its time period of oscillation 1. depends on the length of the pendulum, L 2. depends on the acceleration due to gravity, g 3. depends upon the mass of the bob of the pendulum, m 4. does not depend upon the amplitude of the pendulum, A Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The time period T of a simple pendulum performing small oscillations is determined by the formula T = 2π√(L/g). This mathematical relationship shows that the period is directly proportional to the square root of the length L of the pendulum and inversely proportional to the square root of the acceleration due to gravity g. Because the mass m of the bob does not appear in this equation, the time period is independent of the mass. Furthermore, the derivation of this formula employs the small-angle approximation, where sin θ ≈ θ. Under this condition, the motion is simple harmonic, which characteristically results in a time period that does not depend on the amplitude A of the oscillation. Therefore, the period is governed solely by the physical length and the gravitational field, while remaining unaffected by the mass or the extent of the displacement within the small-angle limit.

9Science and Technology
The term LASER stands for
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Answer: (A) Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

Explanation

LASER is an acronym for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It refers to a mechanism that emits light through a process of optical amplification based on the stimulated emission of electromagnetic radiation. In this process, an incident photon interacts with an atom or molecule in an excited state, triggering the emission of a second photon that is identical to the first in phase, frequency, polarization, and direction of travel. This results in a coherent and concentrated beam of light. The fundamental theoretical principles were proposed by Albert Einstein in 1917, while the first operational laser was demonstrated in 1960.

10Science and Technology
Which of the following statements about carboxylic acids is/are correct? 1. Short-chain carboxylic acids are soluble in water. 2. Higher carboxylic acids are practically insoluble in water. 3. The acidity of carboxylic acid depends on the number of carbon atoms present in the hydrocarbon chain. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Short-chain carboxylic acids, such as methanoic, ethanoic, propanoic, and butanoic acids, are miscible with water in all proportions because the polar carboxyl group forms strong hydrogen bonds with water molecules. However, as the length of the hydrocarbon chain increases, the non-polar hydrophobic portion of the molecule becomes more dominant, significantly decreasing its ability to interact with water. This makes higher carboxylic acids practically insoluble. The acidity of these acids is also influenced by the hydrocarbon chain through the inductive effect (+I effect). Alkyl groups are electron-donating, which increases the electron density on the oxygen atom of the carboxylate ion, thereby destabilizing it and making it more difficult for the acid to release a proton. Thus, the acidity depends on the number of carbon atoms and the structure of the hydrocarbon chain, generally decreasing as the chain length increases.

11Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Compound) - List-II (Type of polymer) A. Melamine - 1. Linear B. Polyvinyl chloride - 2. Condensation C. Terylene - 3. Natural D. Cellulose - 4. Cross-linked Code:
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Answer: (B) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Explanation

Melamine-formaldehyde is a thermosetting resin formed by the reaction of melamine and formaldehyde, creating a complex three-dimensional network of covalent bonds, which classifies it as a cross-linked polymer. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC) is formed by the addition polymerization of vinyl chloride monomers (CH₂=CHCl) into long, unbranched chains, making it a classic example of a linear polymer. Terylene, also known as Dacron, is a polyester produced through the condensation polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid, a process characterized by the repeated elimination of small water molecules. Cellulose is a structural polysaccharide found in the cell walls of plants and is one of the most abundant organic compounds on Earth, identifying it as a natural polymer.

12Geography
The Tropic of Cancer passes through which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (C) Mali

Explanation

Mali is a landlocked nation in West Africa that is bisected by the Tropic of Cancer in its northern territory. The line of latitude, positioned at approximately 23° 26' N, crosses the Taoudenni Basin and the northern reaches of the Sahara Desert within the Malian borders. This geographical placement puts the northern part of the country in the subtropics while the majority of the nation lies within the tropical zone. The passage of the Tropic of Cancer through Mali is a key feature of its physical geography, influencing its desert climate and solar radiation patterns.

13Geography
Gersoppa Falls is formed by which one of the following rivers?
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Answer: (C) Sharavati

Explanation

Gersoppa Falls, also widely known as Jog Falls or Mahatma Gandhi Falls, is created by the Sharavati River in the Sagara taluk of the Shimoga district in Karnataka. The river originates in the Western Ghats at Ambuthirtha and drops from a height of approximately 253 meters, making it one of the highest plunge waterfalls in India. The falls consist of four distinct cascades traditionally named Raja, Rani, Roarer, and Rocket. The Sharavati River flows entirely within the state of Karnataka before emptying into the Arabian Sea at Honnavar. Since the river falls vertically without splashing on rocks, it is classified as a plunge waterfall, and its flow is significantly influenced by the Linganamakki Dam located upstream.

14Science and Technology
Which one of the following processes is not a part of long-wave radiation?
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Answer: (B) Scattering

Explanation

Scattering is a process that specifically affects incoming short-wave solar radiation. It occurs when solar energy interacts with gas molecules, water droplets, and dust particles in the atmosphere, causing the light to be deflected in different directions. This interaction is primarily a function of the short wavelengths present in the solar spectrum, such as visible light. Conversely, long-wave radiation refers to the infrared energy emitted by the Earth's surface after it has been heated. Scattering is not a characteristic mechanism involved in the emission or transmission of this terrestrial long-wave energy, as it is a phenomenon belonging to the atmospheric interaction with solar insolation rather than the Earth's thermal radiation cycle.

15Geography
In mid-latitude regions, the diurnal variation in weather is due to
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Answer: (C) advection

Explanation

Advection is the horizontal transfer of atmospheric properties, such as heat and moisture, by the movement of air masses. In mid-latitude regions, the weather is characterized by the frequent passage of cyclones, anticyclones, and associated weather fronts. These systems facilitate the movement of distinct air masses—varying from cold polar air to warm tropical air—across the landscape. The resulting horizontal transport of temperature and humidity leads to significant diurnal and day-to-day fluctuations in local weather. This process of advection is the dominant driver of weather variability in these zones, often exerting a stronger influence on daily conditions than local vertical processes or radiative heating alone.

16Geography
Springs are common in which of the following areas? 1. Well jointed rocks 2. Arid areas with underlying rocks 3. Karst topography 4. Tilted strata Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Springs occur at locations where the water table intersects the earth surface, leading to the natural discharge of groundwater. In well-jointed rocks, such as granite or limestone, joints and fractures provide primary pathways for water to percolate and eventually flow out. Karst topography is characterized by the dissolution of soluble rocks like limestone, creating extensive underground drainage systems and large conduits that frequently emerge at the surface as prominent springs. Tilted strata, consisting of alternating permeable and impermeable layers, facilitate the movement of water along the dip of the permeable aquifer; when these layers are exposed at the surface or intersected by the topography, they create favorable conditions for water to exit the ground. These geological structures and patterns are fundamental in determining the presence and frequency of natural springs.

17Quantitative Aptitude
In an examination, 53% students passed in Mathematics, 61% passed in Physics, 60% passed in Chemistry, 24% passed in Mathematics and Physics, 35% in Physics and Chemistry, 27% in Mathematics and Chemistry and 5% in none. The ratio of percentage of passes in Mathematics and Chemistry but not in Physics in relation to the percentage of passes in Physics and Chemistry but not in Mathematics is
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Answer: (B) 5 : 7

Explanation

The percentage of students who passed at least one subject is given by 100% - 5% = 95%. Let M, P, and C represent the sets of students who passed in Mathematics, Physics, and Chemistry respectively. Using the principle of inclusion-exclusion for three sets:

n(M ∪ P ∪ C) = n(M) + n(P) + n(C) - (n(M ∩ P) + n(P ∩ C) + n(M ∩ C)) + n(M ∩ P ∩ C)

Substituting the given values: 95 = 53 + 61 + 60 - (24 + 35 + 27) + n(M ∩ P ∩ C) 95 = 174 - 86 + n(M ∩ P ∩ C) 95 = 88 + n(M ∩ P ∩ C) n(M ∩ P ∩ C) = 7%

The percentage of students who passed in Mathematics and Chemistry but not in Physics is n(M ∩ C) - n(M ∩ P ∩ C) = 27 - 7 = 20%. The percentage of students who passed in Physics and Chemistry but not in Mathematics is n(P ∩ C) - n(M ∩ P ∩ C) = 35 - 7 = 28%.

The required ratio is 20 : 28. Dividing both terms by 4, we obtain 5 : 7.

18Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is the area of a sector of a circle of radius 10 cm formed by an arc length of 15 cm?
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Answer: (C) 75 cm²

Explanation

The area A of a sector of a circle is given by the formula A = (1/2) r l, where r is the radius of the circle and l is the length of the arc. Given the radius r = 10 cm and the arc length l = 15 cm, we substitute these values into the formula:

A = (1/2) × 10 cm × 15 cm A = 5 × 15 = 75 cm²

This relationship exists because the area of a sector is a fraction of the total area of the circle (π r²) proportional to the ratio of the arc length (l) to the total circumference (2π r). Mathematically, Area = (l/2π r) × π r², which simplifies directly to (1/2) r l.

19Quantitative Aptitude
On simplification the product (x₁ + y₁)(x₂ + y₂)...(x₁₀ + y₁₀) how many such terms are there which will have only single x and rest y's?
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Answer: (B) 10

Explanation

The product (x₁ + y₁)(x₂ + y₂) … (x₁₀ + y₁₀) consists of n = 10 binomial factors. When this product is expanded, every term is formed by choosing exactly one variable from each of the 10 parentheses. To find the number of terms that contain exactly one x and the rest y's, we apply the principle of combinations. We must choose one factor out of the 10 available to contribute its x variable, while the remaining 10 - 1 = 9 factors must each contribute their respective y variable.

The number of ways to select 1 position for the x variable out of 10 possible positions is given by the formula for combinations: C(n,r) = n! / (r!(n-r)!)

Substituting n = 10 and r = 1: C(10,1) = 10! / (1! × 9!) = 10

Each choice results in a unique term, such as x₁ y₂ y₃ … y₁₀, y₁ x₂ y₃ … y₁₀, and so on, until y₁ y₂ … y₉ x₁₀. Since the variables are distinct due to their subscripts, none of these 10 terms are identical or can be simplified further by addition. Therefore, there are exactly 10 such terms in the simplified expansion.

20Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about blood elements is correct?
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Answer: (C) The number of red blood cells is the highest.

Explanation

Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, are the most abundant cellular components found in human blood. In a healthy adult, the concentration of red blood cells typically ranges from 4.5 million to 5.5 million per cubic millimeter (mm³). This population significantly exceeds the numbers of other blood elements; for comparison, platelets generally range from 150,000 to 450,000 per mm³, and white blood cells (leukocytes) are present in the lowest concentrations, typically between 4,500 and 11,000 per mm³. The vast quantity of red blood cells is necessary to provide the large surface area required for their primary function of transporting oxygen and carbon dioxide throughout the body. Thus, they constitute approximately 40% to 45% of the total blood volume.

21Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding muscle contraction and relaxation is correct?
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Answer: (C) It involves release of Ca²⁺ from sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) and pumping Ca²⁺ back in SR.

Explanation

Muscle contraction and relaxation are primarily regulated by the concentration of calcium ions (Ca²⁺) within the sarcoplasm. When a motor neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, the action potential travels along the sarcolemma and into the T-tubules, triggering the release of Ca²⁺ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum (SR) into the sarcoplasm. These calcium ions bind to troponin, which shifts tropomyosin to expose myosin-binding sites on the actin filaments, allowing contraction to occur. For the muscle to relax, the Ca²⁺ ions must be removed from the sarcoplasm. This is accomplished by the active transport of Ca²⁺ back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum by Ca²⁺-ATPase pumps. As the calcium concentration in the sarcoplasm drops, the troponin-tropomyosin complex returns to its inhibitory state, preventing further cross-bridge cycling and resulting in muscle relaxation.

22Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding digestion is correct?
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Answer: (C) Fat of food is digested by lipases.

Explanation

Lipases are the primary enzymes responsible for the chemical digestion of dietary fats or lipids. In the human digestive tract, the process begins significantly in the small intestine, where bile salts from the liver emulsify large fat globules into smaller droplets called micelles. This emulsification increases the surface area available for enzymatic attack. Pancreatic lipase then acts on these triglycerides, breaking them down into monoglycerides and free fatty acids. These smaller molecules are then absorbed by the intestinal villi into the lymphatic system and bloodstream for use by the body. While lingual and gastric lipases initiate minor fat digestion in the mouth and stomach, the bulk of lipid hydrolysis is completed by pancreatic lipases in the duodenum.

23Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) In photosynthesis by green plants, carbon dioxide is used for making carbohydrate.

Explanation

Photosynthesis is the biochemical process by which green plants, algae, and some bacteria convert light energy into chemical energy stored in glucose. The overall chemical equation for this process is 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂. In this reaction, carbon dioxide (CO₂) is taken from the atmosphere and undergoes a process called carbon fixation during the light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle). Within the stroma of the chloroplasts, the carbon atoms from CO₂ are used to build the carbon backbone of the carbohydrate molecule, glucose. This conversion of inorganic carbon into organic matter is fundamental to the energy supply of almost all living organisms.

24Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding insulin hormone is correct?
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Answer: (D) Insulin is a protein hormone which is produced in human body.

Explanation

Insulin is a peptide hormone, which is a specific class of protein hormone composed of 51 amino acids organized into two polypeptide chains. These chains, known as the A-chain and the B-chain, are linked together by disulfide bonds. In the human body, insulin is naturally synthesized and secreted by the beta cells of the Islets of Langerhans located in the pancreas. Its primary physiological role is the regulation of carbohydrate and fat metabolism by promoting the absorption of glucose from the blood into the liver, fat, and skeletal muscle cells, thereby lowering blood sugar levels.

25Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List-I (Limestone region) - List-II (Country) A. Pennines - 1. France B. Yucatan Peninsula - 2. Jamaica C. Cockpit Country - 3. Britain D. Causses - 4. Mexico Code:
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Answer: (A) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

Explanation

The Pennines are a range of hills in northern England, Britain, characterized by extensive Carboniferous limestone formations such as limestone pavements and scars. The Yucatan Peninsula is a massive limestone platform in Mexico, globally recognized for its unique karst topography and the presence of numerous cenotes or natural sinkholes. Cockpit Country in Jamaica is the type-locality for cockpit karst, a landscape defined by deep, star-shaped depressions surrounded by steep, conical hills. The Causses are a series of high limestone plateaus situated in the Massif Central region of France, famous for their deep canyons and complex subterranean river systems.

26Geography
Which of the following cities experience the warm temperate Mediterranean climate? 1. Cape Town 2. Los Angeles 3. Adelaide 4. Santiago Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The warm temperate Mediterranean climate is typically found on the western margins of continents between the latitudes of 30° and 45° in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. This climate is characterized by hot, dry summers and cool, wet winters. Cape Town in South Africa, Los Angeles in the United States, Adelaide in Australia, and Santiago in Chile are all prime examples of cities located in these Mediterranean transition zones. Cape Town sits at the southwestern tip of Africa, Los Angeles occupies the California coast, Adelaide is located on the southern coast of Australia, and Santiago is situated in the central valley of Chile. All four cities experience the seasonal shift of atmospheric pressure belts that brings dry offshore trade winds in the summer and moist onshore westerlies in the winter, satisfying the criteria for this specific climatic regime.

27Geography
Which one of the following is the correct descending order of Indian States in terms of their density of population (as per 2011 Census)?
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Answer: (C) Bihar—West Bengal—Kerala—Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

According to the official data of the 2011 Census, population density is defined as the number of persons per square kilometer of area. Among the states mentioned, Bihar has the highest population density with 1,106 persons per square kilometer. West Bengal follows with a density of 1,028 persons per square kilometer. Kerala ranks third in this group with a density of 860 persons per square kilometer, while Uttar Pradesh has a density of 829 persons per square kilometer. This sequence represents the accurate descending order of these four states based on their demographic concentration.

28Geography
Which one of the following major river basins of India is the shortest in length and smallest in terms of catchment area?
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Answer: (D) Sabarmati

Explanation

The Sabarmati river system is the smallest among the given options in terms of both linear extent and drainage area. Originating from the Aravalli Range in the Udaipur district of Rajasthan, the river flows for approximately 371 km before draining into the Gulf of Khambhat in the Arabian Sea. Its total catchment area spans about 21,674 sq. km, covering parts of Rajasthan and Gujarat. This basin is bounded by the Aravalli hills on the north and north-east and the Rann of Kutch on the west. According to the classification by the Ministry of Jal Shakti, while it is categorized as a major river basin because its catchment exceeds 20,000 sq. km, its dimensions are considerably less than those of the Cauvery, Mahi, or Penner systems.

29Geography
Arabian Sea records higher salinity than the Bay of Bengal because
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Answer: (A) Arabian Sea exhibits high rate of evaporation and low influx of fresh-water

Explanation

The salinity of ocean water is governed by the balance between evaporation and the influx of fresh water from precipitation and river runoff. The Arabian Sea is located in a relatively arid zone with high temperatures and low humidity, which results in high rates of evaporation that concentrate the salts in the water. Furthermore, the Arabian Sea lacks the massive discharge of fresh water characteristic of the eastern side of the subcontinent. While the Bay of Bengal receives enormous volumes of fresh water from perennial river systems like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Irrawaddy, as well as higher direct precipitation, the Arabian Sea has fewer major rivers draining into it, leading to a much lower dilution of its saline waters.

30Logical Reasoning
At what time between 2 o'clock and 3 o'clock will the hour and minute hands of a clock be 12 minutes division apart?
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Answer: (C) 24 minutes past 2 o'clock

Explanation

The relative speed between the minute hand and the hour hand is 5.5° per minute. At 2 o'clock, the hour hand is at 60° (calculated as 2 × 30°) from the 12 o'clock mark. To be 12 minute divisions apart, the required angle θ between the hands is 12 × 6° = 72°. Using the formula for the time M in minutes when the hands are at a certain angle:

M = (2/11) |30H ± θ|

Substituting H = 2 and θ = 72°:

M = (2/11) (30 × 2 + 72) = (2/11) (60 + 72) = (2/11) × 132 = 2 × 12 = 24

The other possibility, M = (2/11) (60 - 72), results in a negative value, which is not applicable. Therefore, the hands are 12 minute divisions apart at 24 minutes past 2 o'clock.

31Quantitative Aptitude
If the number 2² × 5⁴ × 10⁸ × 6¹⁰ × 15¹² × 8¹⁴ × 20¹⁶ × 10¹⁸ × 25²⁰ is divisible by 10ⁿ, then which one of the following is the maximum value of n?
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Answer: (D) 98

Explanation

To find the maximum value of n for which the given expression is divisible by 10ⁿ, we must determine the exponents of 2 and 5 in the prime factorization of the expression. The exponent of 10 in the product is given by min(total exponent of 2, total exponent of 5).

First, we calculate the total power of 2 in the expression: 2² contributes 2 10⁸ = (2 × 5)⁸ contributes 8 6^(10) = (2 × 3)^(10) contributes 10 8^(14) = (2³)^(14) = 2^(42) contributes 42 20^(16) = (2² × 5)^(16) = 2^(32) × 5^(16) contributes 32 10^(18) = (2 × 5)^(18) contributes 18 Summing these exponents: 2 + 8 + 10 + 42 + 32 + 18 = 112.

Next, we calculate the total power of 5 in the expression: 5⁴ contributes 4 10⁸ = (2 × 5)⁸ contributes 8 15^(12) = (3 × 5)^(12) contributes 12 20^(16) = (2² × 5)^(16) contributes 16 10^(18) = (2 × 5)^(18) contributes 18 25^(20) = (5²)^(20) = 5^(40) contributes 40 Summing these exponents: 4 + 8 + 12 + 16 + 18 + 40 = 98.

The maximum value of n is the lower of these two sums, which is min(112, 98) = 98.

32Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose a, b, c, d and e are five consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. Consider the following statements: 1. Their average is (a+4). 2. Their average is (b+2). 3. Their average is (e-4). Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The average of five consecutive odd numbers a, b, c, d, e is the middle term, c. In an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 2, the terms can be expressed relative to each other as a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8.

The average of these five numbers is (a + (a+2) + (a+4) + (a+6) + (a+8))/5 = (5a + 20)/5 = a+4. This confirms Statement 1.

Since b is the second term in the sequence, b = a+2, which means a = b-2. Substituting this value into the average expression a+4 results in (b-2) + 4 = b+2. This confirms Statement 2.

Since e is the fifth term in the sequence, e = a+8, which means a = e-8. Substituting this value into the average expression a+4 results in (e-8) + 4 = e-4. This confirms Statement 3.

Because all three expressions correctly represent the middle term c, which is the average of the five numbers, all three statements are mathematically sound.

33Quantitative Aptitude
A king ordered to make a crown from 8 kg of gold and 2 kg of silver. The goldsmith took away some amount of gold and replaced it by an equal amount of silver and the crown when made, weighed 10 kg. The king knows that under water gold loses 1/20 of its weight, while silver loses 1/10. When the crown was weighed under water, it was 9·25 kg. How much gold was stolen by the goldsmith?
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Answer: (C) 3 kg

Explanation

The total weight of the crown is 10 kg. When weighed underwater, it weighs 9.25 kg, which means the total weight loss is 10 - 9.25 = 0.75 kg. Let G be the mass of gold and S be the mass of silver in the finished crown. We have the following system of equations based on the total mass and the total weight loss:

G + S = 10 (1/20)G + (1/10)S = 0.75

To solve for S, multiply the second equation by 20: G + 2S = 15

Subtracting the first equation from this new equation: (G + 2S) - (G + S) = 15 - 10 S = 5

The crown contains 5 kg of silver. The king originally provided 2 kg of silver for the crown. Since the goldsmith replaced the stolen gold with an equal amount of silver, the amount of gold stolen is the difference between the final amount of silver and the initial amount provided: 5 - 2 = 3 kg.

34Quantitative Aptitude
If a cubical container of length, breadth and height each of 10 cm can contain exactly 1 litre of water, then a spherical container of radius 10·5 cm can contain
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Answer: (C) more than 4·5 litres but less than 5 litres of water

Explanation

The volume of a spherical container is calculated using the formula V = (4/3) π r³. Given the radius r = 10.5 cm, which can be written as 21/2 cm, the volume is:

V = (4/3) × (22/7) × (21/2)³

V = (4/3) × (22/7) × (21/2) × (21/2) × (21/2)

V = 11 × 21 × 21 = 4851 cubic cm.

The question establishes that a cubical container with a volume of 10 × 10 × 10 = 1000 cubic cm contains exactly 1 litre of water. Therefore, the conversion factor is 1000 cm³ = 1 litre.

The capacity of the spherical container in litres is:

Capacity = 4851/1000 = 4.851 litres.

The value 4.851 litres is greater than 4.5 litres and less than 5 litres.

35Geography
Which one of the following sites does not have coral reef formation?
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Answer: (A) Gulf of Cambay/Khambhat

Explanation

The Gulf of Cambay (Gulf of Khambhat) lacks coral reef formations primarily due to the high turbidity and heavy siltation resulting from the discharge of major rivers such as the Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati. Corals require clear, shallow, and warm marine waters with stable salinity to survive, as they depend on sunlight for the photosynthesis of their symbiotic algae, zooxanthellae. The massive influx of freshwater and terrestrial sediments in the Gulf of Cambay creates a murky environment that blocks sunlight and physically smothers coral polyps. Additionally, the region is characterized by exceptionally high tidal ranges and strong currents, which create physical instability and prevent the accumulation of the calcium carbonate skeletons necessary for reef building.

36Geography
Which of the following statements are appropriate to Mangrove Sites? 1. Mangrove plants require appropriate mix of saline water and freshwater. 2. Mangrove plants require mudflats to enable it to grow and develop. 3. Mangrove plants are found in the inter-tidal zones of sheltered coasts. 4. Mangrove vegetation has been reported in all the coastal States including Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Mangrove ecosystems are specialized halophytic regions that thrive where freshwater and seawater mix, providing the necessary brackish conditions for their optimal development. They are primarily situated in the inter-tidal zones of sheltered tropical and subtropical coasts, where they are protected from high-energy wave impacts. The accumulation of fine-grained sediment in the form of mudflats is essential, as it provides the nutrient-rich, anaerobic soil required for their specialized root structures, such as pneumatophores. Geographically, India mangrove vegetation is widespread and has been officially recorded in all nine coastal states—Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal—as well as in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, as documented in the India State of Forest Reports.

37Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) National Flying Training Institute : Belgaum

Explanation

The National Flying Training Institute (NFTI) is located at Birsi Airport in Gondia, Maharashtra, rather than Belgaum. It was established as a joint venture between the global aviation training provider CAE and the Airports Authority of India (AAI) to provide integrated commercial pilot training. While Belgaum (Belagavi) in Karnataka hosts various aviation-related activities and an Indian Air Force training station, it is not the site of the National Flying Training Institute.

38Geography
The lowest temperature is observed/recorded in which one of the following layers of the atmosphere?
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Answer: (B) Mesosphere

Explanation

The mesosphere is the third layer of the Earth's atmosphere, extending from approximately 50 km to 85 km above the surface. In this layer, temperature decreases as altitude increases because there are very few molecules to absorb solar radiation and no significant heating mechanisms like the ozone layer found in the stratosphere. The temperature reaches its absolute minimum at the mesopause, which is the boundary between the mesosphere and the thermosphere. At this level, temperatures can drop to as low as -90°C (183 K) or even -100°C in some regions, making the mesosphere the coldest layer of the atmosphere.

39Geography
Which one of the following ocean currents is not a warm current?
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Answer: (B) Falkland

Explanation

The Falkland Current, also known as the Malvinas Current, is a cold ocean current that flows northward along the Atlantic coast of South America, specifically along Patagonia. It originates as a branch of the Antarctic Circumpolar Current, also known as the West Wind Drift, which is a massive stream of cold water circulating around Antarctica. Because it transports sub-antarctic water from high latitudes toward the equator, it is characterized by low temperatures and low salinity. This movement of polar water into lower latitudes defines its status as a cold current, significantly influencing the regional climate and marine productivity of the southwest Atlantic.

40Quantitative Aptitude
What is the largest value for n (natural number) such that 6ⁿ divides the product of the first 100 natural numbers?
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Answer: (D) 48

Explanation

To find the largest natural number n such that 6ⁿ divides the product of the first 100 natural numbers (100!), we must determine the exponent of 6 in the prime factorization of 100!. Since 6 = 2 × 3, the exponent of 6 is given by min(E₂(100!), E₃(100!)), where Eₚ(N!) is the exponent of the prime p in N!. In any factorial, a larger prime factor will always have a smaller exponent than a smaller prime factor. Thus, the power of 3 will be the limiting factor.

The exponent of a prime p in N! is calculated using Legendre's Formula: Eₚ(N!) = ⌊N/p⌋ + ⌊N/p²⌋ + ⌊N/p³⌋ + …

For p = 3 and N = 100: E₃(100!) = ⌊100/3⌋ + ⌊100/9⌋ + ⌊100/27⌋ + ⌊100/81⌋ E₃(100!) = 33 + 11 + 3 + 1 = 48

To verify that the exponent of 2 is indeed larger: E₂(100!) = ⌊100/2⌋ + ⌊100/4⌋ + ⌊100/8⌋ + ⌊100/16⌋ + ⌊100/32⌋ + ⌊100/64⌋ E₂(100!) = 50 + 25 + 12 + 6 + 3 + 1 = 97

Since 100! contains 3^(48) and 2^(97), it can form exactly 48 pairs of (2 × 3), resulting in 6^(48). Therefore, the largest value for n is 48.

41Logical Reasoning
The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock at 10 minutes past 3 is
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Answer: (B) 35°

Explanation

The angle θ between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock can be calculated using the formula θ = |30h - (11/2)m|, where h represents the hour and m represents the minutes.

At 10 minutes past 3, we substitute h = 3 and m = 10 into the formula:

θ = |30(3) - (11/2)(10)| θ = |90 - 55| θ = 35°

Alternatively, the position of the hands can be calculated relative to the 12 o'clock mark. The minute hand moves 6° per minute, so at 10 minutes it is at 10 × 6° = 60°. The hour hand moves 30° per hour and 0.5° per minute. At 3:10, its position is (3 × 30°) + (10 × 0.5°) = 90° + 5° = 95°. The difference between the two positions is 95° - 60° = 35°.

42Quantitative Aptitude
An international conference is attended by 65 people. They all speak at least one of English, French and German language. Suppose 15 speak English and French, 13 speak English and German, 12 speak French and German and 5 speak all the three languages. A total of 30 people can speak German and 30 can speak French. What is the number of people who can speak only English?
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Answer: (A) 17

Explanation

Let E, F, and G represent the sets of people who speak English, French, and German respectively. According to the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion for three sets: |E ∪ F ∪ G| = |E| + |F| + |G| - (|E ∩ F| + |F ∩ G| + |G ∩ E|) + |E ∩ F ∩ G|

Given the following values: |E ∪ F ∪ G| = 65 (Total people) |F| = 30 (French speakers) |G| = 30 (German speakers) |E ∩ F| = 15 (English and French) |E ∩ G| = 13 (English and German) |F ∩ G| = 12 (French and German) |E ∩ F ∩ G| = 5 (All three languages)

Substitute these values into the formula to find the total number of English speakers |E|: 65 = |E| + 30 + 30 - (15 + 12 + 13) + 5 65 = |E| + 60 - 40 + 5 65 = |E| + 25 |E| = 40

To find the number of people who speak only English, we subtract those who speak English in combination with other languages. The set of people speaking English is composed of those speaking only English, those speaking English and French (but not German), those speaking English and German (but not French), and those speaking all three: Only E = |E| - (|E ∩ F| + |E ∩ G| - |E ∩ F ∩ G|) Only E = 40 - (15 + 13 - 5) Only E = 40 - 23 Only E = 17

43Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose 72 = m × n, where m and n are positive integers such that 1 < m < n. How many possible values of m are there?
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Answer: (A) 5

Explanation

To find the number of possible values of m, we first determine all divisor pairs (m, n) of 72 such that m × n = 72. The prime factorization of 72 is 2³ × 3². The total number of divisors is calculated using the formula (a+1)(b+1), where a and b are the exponents of the prime factors. For 72, this is (3+1)(2+1) = 4 × 3 = 12 divisors.

Since 72 is not a perfect square, these 12 divisors can be grouped into 12/2 = 6 distinct pairs (m, n) where m < n. These pairs are (1, 72), (2, 36), (3, 24), (4, 18), (6, 12), and (8, 9).

The problem specifies the condition 1 < m < n. This requires m to be greater than 1, which excludes the pair (1, 72) where m = 1. The remaining pairs that satisfy 1 < m < n are (2, 36), (3, 24), (4, 18), (6, 12), and (8, 9). Consequently, the possible values for m are 2, 3, 4, 6, and 8, making a total of 5 values.

44Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose x, y, z are three positive integers such that x ≤ y ≤ z and xyz = 72. Which one of the following values of S yields more than one solution to the equation x + y + z = S?
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Answer: (B) 14

Explanation

To identify which value of S yields more than one solution for the equation x + y + z = S under the constraints x ≤ y ≤ z and xyz = 72, we analyze the integer factor combinations of 72. The prime factorization of 72 is 2³ · 3².

For S = 14, we can find two distinct sets of positive integers (x, y, z) that satisfy the given conditions:

Triplet (2, 6, 6): Here, x=2, y=6, z=6. The condition x ≤ y ≤ z is satisfied as 2 ≤ 6 ≤ 6. The product is 2 · 6 · 6 = 72, and the sum is 2 + 6 + 6 = 14.

Triplet (3, 3, 8): Here, x=3, y=3, z=8. The condition x ≤ y ≤ z is satisfied as 3 ≤ 3 ≤ 8. The product is 3 · 3 · 8 = 72, and the sum is 3 + 3 + 8 = 14.

Because both (2, 6, 6) and (3, 3, 8) are valid solutions for the same sum S = 14, this value yields more than one solution to the equation.

45Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is the remainder when 10²⁰ is divided by 7?
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Answer: (B) 2

Explanation

To find the remainder of 10^(20) when divided by 7, we first simplify the base using modular arithmetic. Since 10 ≡ 3 (mod 7), it follows that 10^(20) ≡ 3^(20) (mod 7).

By Fermat's Little Theorem, if p is a prime number and a is not divisible by p, then a^(p-1) ≡ 1 (mod p). In this case, a = 3 and p = 7, giving: 3^(7-1) ≡ 3⁶ ≡ 1 (mod 7)

We can break down the exponent 20 in terms of this cycle of 6: 20 = (6 × 3) + 2

Substituting this into the congruence relation: 10^(20) ≡ 3^(20) (mod 7) 10^(20) ≡ (3⁶)³ × 3² (mod 7) 10^(20) ≡ 1³ × 3² (mod 7) 10^(20) ≡ 1 × 9 (mod 7) 10^(20) ≡ 2 (mod 7)

Alternatively, observing the powers of 10 modulo 7: 10¹ ≡ 3 (mod 7) 10² ≡ 9 ≡ 2 (mod 7) 10³ ≡ 2 × 3 ≡ 6 ≡ -1 (mod 7) 10⁶ ≡ (-1)² ≡ 1 (mod 7) 10^(20) = (10⁶)³ × 10² ≡ 1³ × 2 ≡ 2 (mod 7)

46Science and Technology
Which one of the following is anisotropic in nature?
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Answer: (D) Quartz

Explanation

Quartz is a crystalline solid characterized by a highly ordered, long-range arrangement of its constituent particles in a definite geometric pattern. Crystalline solids exhibit anisotropy, meaning their physical properties—such as refractive index, thermal conductivity, and electrical resistance—vary depending on the direction along which they are measured within the crystal. This occurs because the arrangement of particles is different along different axes or directions in the lattice. Since quartz possesses a distinct crystal structure, its physical interactions with light or heat are direction-dependent, making it anisotropic in nature.

47Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a condensation polymer?
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Answer: (C) Polythene

Explanation

Polythene is an addition polymer, not a condensation polymer. It is formed through the process of addition polymerization, where a large number of ethene (CH₂=CH₂) monomers link together to form long chains. This reaction involves the breaking of the double bond in the ethene molecule to form single bonds with adjacent monomers, resulting in the repeating unit -[CH₂-CH₂]ₙ-. Unlike condensation polymerization, this process does not involve the loss or elimination of small molecules such as water, ammonia, or hydrogen chloride. All the atoms present in the monomer molecules are retained in the final polymer structure.

48Geography
The tides whose height is 20 percent more than normal tide are called
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Answer: (A) spring tides

Explanation

Spring tides occur twice a month when the Sun, Moon, and Earth align in a straight line, a configuration known as syzygy, during the new moon and full moon phases. In this position, the gravitational forces of the Sun and the Moon work together to pull the Earth ocean water in the same direction. This combined gravitational pull results in a significantly higher tidal range, where the high tides are much higher and the low tides are much lower than average. Specifically, the tidal range during spring tides is approximately 20 percent greater than the height of normal or average tides.

49Geography
Which of the following statements about tropical cyclone are correct? 1. It originates and develops over warm oceanic surface. 2. Presence of Coriolis force is necessary for it. 3. It occurs in middle latitudinal region. 4. It develops 'eye' with calm and descending air condition. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Tropical cyclones are intense low-pressure systems that form over warm tropical oceans where sea surface temperatures are typically above 27°C, providing the latent heat of condensation that powers the storm. The Coriolis force is a fundamental requirement for their development because it deflects moving air to initiate and maintain the cyclonic rotation; hence, these storms cannot form at the equator where the Coriolis effect is zero. A distinguishing structural feature of a mature tropical cyclone is the eye, a central region of relative calm. In the eye, air from the tropopause descends toward the surface, which suppresses cloud formation and leads to clear skies and light winds, even as the surrounding eye wall experiences the storm's most violent weather.

50Geography
Which of the following statements about biodiversity hot spots is/are correct? 1. Biodiversity hot spots are identified by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN). 2. Biodiversity hot spots are defined according to their vegetation. 3. In India, Eastern Ghats and Western Himalaya are the biodiversity hot spots. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The identification of biodiversity hotspots is part of a global conservation strategy that utilizes data and assessments from the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) and other scientific bodies to pinpoint regions where unique species are under the greatest threat. These hotspots are designated based on their vegetation profile, specifically requiring that a region contains at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics. This high threshold of plant endemism ensures that the areas identified are irreplaceable. Additionally, the definition requires that the region has lost at least 70 percent of its original primary vegetation, making the degree of habitat destruction and the remaining plant life the primary indicators for this classification.

51Geography
Which one of the following is not an igneous rock?
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Answer: (B) Gneiss

Explanation

Gneiss is a high-grade metamorphic rock rather than an igneous rock. It forms through the process of metamorphism, where pre-existing rocks such as granite or certain sedimentary rocks are subjected to intense heat and pressure. This causes the minerals within the original rock to undergo recrystallization and segregation into characteristic parallel bands or layers, a feature known as gneissose banding. Unlike igneous rocks, which form from the cooling and solidification of molten magma or lava, gneiss is the product of the physical and chemical transformation of existing solid rock deep within the Earth's crust.

52Geography
Which one of the following rivers is west-flowing?
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Answer: (B) Periyar

Explanation

The Periyar river originates in the Sivagiri hills of the Western Ghats within the Periyar Tiger Reserve in Kerala. It is the longest river in the state and flows in a predominantly westward direction towards the coast. After passing through the Idukki and Ernakulam districts, it empties into the Arabian Sea via the Vembanad Lake and several distributaries near Kodungallur. Known as the Lifeline of Kerala, the river is crucial for the state's economy and ecology, providing water for major irrigation projects and hydroelectric power generation at the Idukki Dam. Its westward course is a characteristic feature of many smaller rivers originating in the Western Ghats that drain into the Arabian Sea.

53Quantitative Aptitude
The number of ways in which 3 boys and 2 girls can be arranged in a queue, given that the 2 girls have to be next to each other, is
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Answer: (C) 48

Explanation

To find the number of arrangements where the two girls must be next to each other, we use the grouping method. We treat the two girls as a single unit or block. This results in a total of four units to arrange: the three individual boys and the one block containing the two girls.

The number of ways to arrange these four units in a queue is 4!. Within the block, the two girls can be arranged among themselves in 2! ways. According to the multiplication principle of counting, the total number of possible arrangements is the product of these two values:

Total = 4! × 2! Total = (4 × 3 × 2 × 1) × (2 × 1) Total = 24 × 2 = 48

54Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of ages of a man and his son is 3 : 1. After 15 years, the age ratio will be 2 : 1. What is the age of the man?
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Answer: (A) 45 years

Explanation

Let the current ages of the man and his son be 3x and x respectively, based on the ratio 3 : 1. After 15 years, their ages will be 3x + 15 and x + 15. According to the problem, the ratio of these ages will be 2 : 1.

Setting up the equation based on this ratio: (3x + 15)/(x + 15) = 2/1

By cross-multiplying, we get: 3x + 15 = 2(x + 15) 3x + 15 = 2x + 30 3x - 2x = 30 - 15 x = 15

The current age of the man is represented by 3x. Substituting the value of x: 3 × 15 = 45 years.

55Quantitative Aptitude
Two pillars are placed vertically 8 feet apart. The height difference of the two pillars is 6 feet. The two ends of a rope of length 15 feet are tied to the tips of the two pillars. The portion of the length of the taller pillar that can be brought in contact with the rope without detaching the rope from the pillars is
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Answer: (B) more than 6 feet but less than 7 feet

Explanation

Let the tip of the shorter pillar be at the origin (0, 0) in a 2D plane. Since the pillars are 8 feet apart and have a height difference of 6 feet, the tip of the taller pillar is located at (8, 6). To find the portion of the taller pillar that can be brought in contact with the rope, let the rope be pulled down the side of the taller pillar to a point (8, y).

The total length of the rope L is the sum of the distance from the tip of the shorter pillar to the contact point (8, y) and the distance from that contact point back up to the tip of the taller pillar (8, 6). This is expressed by the equation: √(8² + y²) + |6 - y| = 15

Assuming the contact point is below the tip of the taller pillar (y < 6), the expression |6 - y| simplifies to 6 - y: √(64 + y²) + 6 - y = 15 √(64 + y²) = 9 + y

Squaring both sides to solve for y: 64 + y² = (9 + y)² 64 + y² = 81 + 18y + y² 18y = 64 - 81 18y = -17 y = -17/18 feet

The length of the taller pillar in contact with the rope is the vertical distance from its tip at y = 6 down to the point y = -17/18. Length = 6 - (-17/18) = 6 + 0.944 = 6.944 feet

This value is greater than 6 feet but less than 7 feet.

56Science and Technology
Statement I: Sound waves can travel through vacuum. Statement II: Light is an electromagnetic wave and can travel through vacuum.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation

Sound waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium such as a gas, liquid, or solid to propagate. They travel by causing a series of compressions and rarefactions in the particles of the medium. Since a vacuum is defined by the absence of matter, there are no particles to vibrate and transmit the energy, meaning sound cannot travel through it. In contrast, light is an electromagnetic wave consisting of oscillating electric and magnetic fields. According to Maxwell's equations, these fields propagate through space by inducing one another, which allows light to travel through a vacuum without needing any physical substance. This fundamental difference explains why we can see the light from distant stars across the vacuum of space but cannot hear sounds from outside our atmosphere.

57Science and Technology
Statement I: A compass needle placed near a current-carrying wire will get deflected. Statement II: A current-carrying wire creates magnetic field around it.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Hans Christian Ørsted discovered in 1820 that an electric current flowing through a conductor produces a magnetic field in the space surrounding it. A compass needle is a small permanent magnet that aligns itself with the direction of the local magnetic field. When the needle is placed near a wire carrying current, the magnetic field generated by the moving electric charges interacts with the magnetic field of the needle. This interaction exerts a torque on the compass needle, causing it to deflect from its original orientation. Since the deflection is a direct physical consequence of the magnetic field created by the current, Statement II provides the fundamental scientific explanation for the observation described in Statement I.

58History
Statement I: For early societies, historians retrieve information about elite families mostly from inscriptions. Statement II: Satavahana inscriptions generally end with the term Putra, a Prakrit word meaning 'son'.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is true because inscriptions are a primary and reliable source for reconstructing the history of early elite families. They provide contemporary records of genealogies, land grants, titles, and religious endowments which are often absent or less reliable in literary texts of the same period.

Statement II is true as Satavahana inscriptions are well-known for the use of metronymics, where kings identified themselves through their mothers' names. Names such as Gautamiputra Satakarni and Vashisthiputra Pulumayi illustrate this practice. In these Prakrit inscriptions, the term putra signifies son. While both statements are accurate, the specific naming convention of the Satavahana dynasty mentioned in Statement II does not provide the causal reason for the general historiographical methodology described in Statement I.

59History
Statement I: In 1856, Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was dethroned and exiled to Calcutta on the plea that the region was being misgoverned. Statement II: The Nawab was accused of being unable to control the rebellious chiefs and Talukdars.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie annexed the kingdom of Awadh in February 1856 under the Doctrine of Lapse, specifically citing persistent maladministration and misgovernment as the justification. Nawab Wajid Ali Shah was deposed and sent into exile at Garden Reach in Calcutta. The British administration argued that the Nawab had failed to fulfill his obligations under the Treaty of 1801, which required him to establish a system of administration conducive to the prosperity of his subjects.

The core of this charge of misgovernment was the Nawab's perceived loss of control over the internal state machinery. The British officials, particularly through reports by Residents like William Sleeman and James Outram, emphasized that the central authority had collapsed, allowing powerful local landed elites known as Talukdars and various rebellious chiefs to exert independent power. These local leaders had built forts, maintained private armies, and frequently defied the Nawab's officials in matters of revenue collection and judicial authority. The British used this specific administrative failure—the inability to discipline and control these rural intermediaries—as the definitive proof that the region was in a state of anarchy, thereby necessitating direct British intervention and annexation.

60History
Statement I: Mahatma Gandhi went on a fast unto death against the Communal Award announced by the British Government. Statement II: The Poona Pact resulted in a joint electorate with an enhanced number of seats reserved for Depressed Classes.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi commenced his fast unto death in Yerwada Jail on September 20, 1932, specifically to protest the British Government's Communal Award, which granted separate electorates to the Depressed Classes. Gandhi viewed this as a measure that would politically and socially segregate the Depressed Classes from the rest of the Hindu community. The fast created immense pressure for a compromise, which culminated in the Poona Pact of September 24, 1932. Statement II serves as the correct explanation because it details the specific constitutional arrangement—the replacement of separate electorates with joint electorates and the significant increase in reserved seats—that successfully addressed Gandhi's objections and led to the termination of his fast. The Pact effectively reconciled the demand for representation with the principle of communal unity that Gandhi sought to preserve.

61Polity and Governance
Statement I: In India, a majority of the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislatures. Statement II: Members of the Rajya Sabha elected by the State Legislative Assemblies need to have their domicile in the concerned State.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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According to Article 80 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha consists of not more than 250 members, of whom 12 are nominated by the President and the remainder are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. Out of the current strength of 245 members, 233 are elected through this indirect method, making them the clear majority of the house.

The domicile requirement for Rajya Sabha candidates was originally part of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which mandated that a candidate must be an elector in the state from which they are contesting. However, the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 2003, removed this requirement, allowing any citizen registered as a voter in any parliamentary constituency in India to contest for a Rajya Sabha seat from any state. This amendment was upheld by the Supreme Court in the landmark case of Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India in 2006, which affirmed that the domicile requirement is not a constitutional necessity.

62History
Statement I: The Permanent Settlement was rarely extended to any region beyond Bengal. Statement II: After 1810, the agricultural prices declined affecting adversely the income of the Bengal Zamindars.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

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Statement I is true because the British officials, following the experiences in Bengal, became reluctant to fix the land revenue permanently in other parts of India. They realized that under the Permanent Settlement, the state could not claim a share in the increasing agricultural income resulting from rising prices and expanded cultivation. Consequently, they adopted the Ryotwari system in South India and the Mahalwari system in North and North-West India, limiting the Permanent Settlement primarily to Bengal, Bihar, Odisha, and parts of Madras and Varanasi.

Statement II is false because the period after 1810 was characterized by a rise in agricultural prices and an expansion of cultivation. Since the revenue demand of the state was fixed permanently at the 1793 level, the rising prices and increased production significantly boosted the income of the Zamindars. While many Zamindars had faced ruin in the initial years after 1793 due to high revenue demands and the Sunset Law, those who survived the early phase prospered after 1810 as the real value of the fixed revenue obligation decreased relative to the market value of the produce.

63Art and Culture
Statement I: Towards the beginning of the 20th century, a new hybrid architectural style developed which combined the Indian with the European. Statement II: By integrating Indian and European styles in public architecture, the British wanted to prove that they were legitimate rulers of India.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

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The Indo-Saracenic architectural style emerged as a prominent hybrid form in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, blending indigenous Indian elements like bulbous domes, overhanging eaves (chhajjas), and pierced stone screens (jalis) with European structural techniques and Gothic frameworks. This stylistic fusion was not merely an aesthetic choice but a deliberate political strategy. By incorporating the architectural vocabulary of previous Indian dynasties, particularly the Mughals, the British Raj sought to project an image of cultural continuity. This visual association was intended to convince the Indian public and the international community that the British were the legitimate and natural successors to India's historical rulers, thereby justifying their imperial authority through a sense of shared heritage and permanence.

64History
Which of the following statements about town planning in British India in early 19th century is/are correct? 1. The funds for town improvement were also raised through public lotteries. 2. The threats of epidemics gave an impetus to town planning in the early decades of 19th century. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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In the early 19th century, town planning in British India, particularly in Calcutta, was significantly influenced by the need for funds and public health concerns. The Lottery Committee was established in 1817 specifically to raise money for town improvement through public lotteries because the East India Company was reluctant to utilize its own revenues for civic amenities. These funds were used to build roads, clear encroachments, and improve drainage. Furthermore, frequent outbreaks of epidemics such as cholera and malaria created an urgent impetus for urban restructuring. Under the prevailing miasmatic theory of disease, the British believed that foul air from congested and unsanitary native quarters caused illness. Consequently, town planning shifted toward creating open spaces, improving ventilation, and clearing slums to ensure a healthier environment for the European residents.

65History
Which of the following statements about India's Independence is/are correct? 1. The formal transfer of power on 15th August, 1947 heralding India's Independence was announced by Lord Mountbatten. 2. Mahatma Gandhi was not present at the festivities in the capital on 15th August, 1947. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Lord Mountbatten, as the last Viceroy of British India, was responsible for the formal transfer of power to the Indian leadership. Having advanced the date of independence to August 15, 1947, he presided over the constitutional ceremonies that marked the end of British rule. Mahatma Gandhi did not participate in the official celebrations in the capital, New Delhi. He was in Calcutta at the time, attempting to quell the communal violence that had broken out due to the partition. Instead of celebrating, Gandhi observed the day with fasting, prayer, and spinning, focusing his efforts on restoring peace and communal harmony in the riot-torn regions of Bengal.

66History
Who among the following in Congress represented the socialist view?
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Answer: (B) Narendra Dev

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Acharya Narendra Dev was a prominent leader of the socialist movement in India and a key founding member of the Congress Socialist Party (CSP). Established in 1934 as a radical wing within the Indian National Congress, the CSP aimed to provide the national movement with a socialist orientation and advocate for the rights of workers and peasants. Narendra Dev presided over the first conference of the CSP in Patna, where he emphasized the importance of class-based mobilization to achieve both political independence and social equality. He believed that the national struggle must be accompanied by economic reforms, such as the abolition of landlordism and the redistribution of wealth, to ensure that freedom benefited the masses. As a scholar and practitioner of socialist ideology, he represented the intellectual and organizational backbone of the socialist perspective within the Congress framework.

67Polity and Governance
Sikkim became an Associate State of the Indian Union through
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Answer: (C) the Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974

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The Constitution (35th Amendment) Act, 1974, was enacted to fulfill the desire of the Sikkim Council to be more closely associated with the Indian Union. This amendment introduced a unique category of statehood by designating Sikkim as an associate state. To facilitate this, the Act inserted Article 2A into the Constitution, which explicitly stated that Sikkim shall be associated with the Union on the terms and conditions set out in the newly added Tenth Schedule. This status allowed Sikkim to send representatives to both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, marking a significant legal shift from its previous status as an Indian protectorate before it was eventually granted full statehood a year later.

68Polity and Governance
Which one of the following judgements is associated with the primacy of the Chief Justice of India and the Collegium of Judges in the appointment and transfer of the higher judiciary?
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Answer: (B) S. P. Gupta vs. President of India

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S. P. Gupta vs. President of India (1981), popularly known as the First Judges Case, is the seminal judgment that initiated the legal discourse on the appointment and transfer of judges in the higher judiciary. The case centered on the interpretation of the word consultation in Articles 124 and 217 of the Constitution. While the court in this specific instance ruled that consultation did not imply concurrence—effectively granting the executive primacy at the time—it remains the landmark case that triggered the judicial evolution of the appointment process. It provided the legal foundation for the subsequent Second and Third Judges Cases, which ultimately reversed this position to establish the primacy of the Chief Justice of India and the Collegium of Judges.

69Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments has enormously strengthened the powers of the Speaker/Chairman of the Houses of the Parliament/State Legislature?
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Answer: (B) Anti-defection provisions of 52nd Amendment

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The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, commonly referred to as the Anti-Defection Law. This amendment significantly enhanced the authority of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, along with their counterparts in the State Legislatures. Under Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule, the presiding officer of the House is vested with the power to adjudicate on questions regarding the disqualification of members on the grounds of defection. The amendment originally stated that the decision of the Speaker or Chairman in such matters shall be final and shall not be questioned in any court of law. While the Supreme Court later ruled in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) that these decisions are subject to judicial review on certain grounds, the Speaker remains the primary authority to determine whether a member has violated the law by switching parties or defying party whips, thereby granting the office immense control over the membership and stability of the House.

70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Committees of the Parliament has no Members from the Rajya Sabha?
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Answer: (C) Estimates Committee

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The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members who are elected annually by the Lok Sabha from amongst its own members according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. It is unique among the major financial committees because the Rajya Sabha has no representation in it. The primary mandate of the committee is to examine the budget estimates and suggest economies in public expenditure, which is why it is often described as a continuous economy committee. A Minister is not eligible to be elected to the committee, and if a member is appointed as a Minister, they cease to be a member from the date of such appointment.

71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States does not find a mention in Article 371 of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh

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Article 371 and its associated sub-articles (371A to 371J) were incorporated into the Constitution of India to provide special provisions for certain states, catering to their unique historical, social, or developmental requirements. These provisions apply to Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Karnataka. Madhya Pradesh is not assigned any special status or specific administrative provisions under this cluster of articles, and therefore, it is the state that does not find a mention in this part of the Constitution.

72Economy
In May 2018, which one of the following banks was restricted from giving fresh credit and new recruitment of staff by the Reserve Bank of India?
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Answer: (B) Dena Bank

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In May 2018, the Reserve Bank of India placed Dena Bank under the Prompt Corrective Action framework due to its high net non-performing assets and negative return on assets. As part of these corrective measures, the central bank specifically restricted Dena Bank from extending fresh credit to any segment and prohibited the recruitment of new staff. These stringent actions were taken to prevent further deterioration of the bank's financial position and to ensure the overall stability of the banking sector by forcing the bank to focus on recovery and capital conservation.

73Economy
When was Startup India Hub operationalized to resolve queries and handhold startups?
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Answer: (B) 2016

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The Startup India Hub was operationalized on April 1, 2016, to function as a single point of contact for the entire startup ecosystem. Following the formal launch of the Startup India initiative in January 2016, the Hub was established under Invest India to provide handholding support and resolve queries for entrepreneurs. It serves as a central platform where startups can access resources, understand regulatory requirements, and connect with mentors, incubators, and investors to facilitate the ease of doing business and foster innovation across the country.

74Polity and Governance
Who among the following is not associated to the Governing Council of NITI Aayog?
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Answer: (B) The President

Explanation

The Governing Council of NITI Aayog is the key body responsible for spearheading the agenda of cooperative federalism in India. It consists of the Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson, the Chief Ministers of all the States and Union Territories with legislatures, and the Lieutenant Governors of other Union Territories. The President of India is the constitutional head of the Republic but does not hold a position within the organizational structure of NITI Aayog. The council is designed as a platform for direct coordination between the executive heads of the central and state governments, which excludes the President from its membership and proceedings.

75Polity and Governance
Which one of the following organizations is not merged into a new umbrella scheme 'Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK)'?
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Answer: (C) National Service Scheme (NSS)

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The Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK) is an umbrella Central Sector Scheme introduced by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports to consolidate and create synergy among various youth-centric programmes. Under the restructuring and rationalization of schemes in the 12th Five Year Plan (continued through 2017–2020), several existing components were merged into this umbrella, including the Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS), Youth Hostels (YH), National Youth Corps (NYC), and the National Young Leaders Programme (NYLP).

The National Service Scheme (NSS) is not part of the RYSK umbrella scheme. It remains a distinct Central Sector Scheme with its own separate administrative structure and budgetary allocation. While RYSK focuses on youth empowerment through diverse leadership and infrastructure components, the NSS is specifically focused on community service through educational institutions (schools and colleges) and maintains its independent identity to preserve its unique institutional framework.

76Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries has recently formally notified its intention to withdraw from the International Criminal Court?
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Answer: (C) Philippines

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The Philippines formally submitted its notification of withdrawal from the Rome Statute to the United Nations on March 17, 2018. This decision was triggered by the International Criminal Court's announcement of a preliminary examination into President Rodrigo Duterte's administration and its controversial crackdown on illegal drugs, which involved allegations of extrajudicial killings. Under Article 127 of the Rome Statute, a withdrawal becomes effective one year after the date of receipt of the notification by the Secretary-General of the United Nations. Consequently, the Philippines officially ceased to be a member state of the ICC in March 2019, following this formal notification process initiated in 2018.

77Polity and Governance
Who among the following has recently been elected as the Prime Minister of China for a second term?
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Answer: (A) Li Keqiang

Explanation

Li Keqiang was re-elected as the Premier of the State Council of the People's Republic of China in March 2018. During the first session of the 13th National People's Congress (NPC), he secured a second five-year term to lead the executive branch of the Chinese government. As Premier, he was responsible for overseeing the country's economic policies and the administration of various government ministries. Li Keqiang originally took office in March 2013, and his re-appointment in 2018 followed the standard leadership transition cycle in the Chinese political system, which typically grants top officials two consecutive five-year terms.

78Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. The 'Objectives Resolution' was moved by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. 2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee in his capacity as the Law Minister. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Objectives Resolution, which defined the aims and core values of the Indian Constitution, was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946. Although Dr. B. R. Ambedkar served as the first Law Minister of independent India and was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee, the two positions were distinct. He was appointed to the Drafting Committee by the Constituent Assembly on August 29, 1947, and was subsequently elected as its Chairman by the committee members. The chairmanship was not an ex-officio role held by virtue of being the Law Minister, but rather a specific mandate given by the assembly to oversee the preparation of the draft constitution.

79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Constitution of India is correct?
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Answer: (A) It was framed between December 1946 and December 1949.

Explanation

The Constitution of India was drafted by the Constituent Assembly, which held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. Over a period of approximately three years, the assembly members engaged in intense deliberations and debates to formulate the various provisions of the document. This framing process concluded when the final version was adopted on November 26, 1949. While the formal commencement of the Constitution occurred on January 26, 1950, the actual structural framing and the major work of the Constituent Assembly took place between December 1946 and December 1949.

80History
Who among the following has not written about partition in his works?
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Answer: (B) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Explanation

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (1838–1894) was a 19th-century Bengali novelist and poet whose literary career and life ended several decades before the Partition of India. He is primarily known for his historical romances and for composing the national song Vande Mataram in his novel Anandamath. Since he passed away in 1894, he did not witness the 1905 Partition of Bengal or the 1947 Partition of the subcontinent. Consequently, his body of work focuses on 19th-century social issues, historical themes, and early nationalist sentiment rather than the events or aftermath of the Partition.

81History
Which of the following statements about Harappan Civilisation is/are correct? 1. There is the extraordinary uniformity in artefacts as evident in pottery, seals, bricks and weights. 2. The late Harappa sites also maintained the same construction techniques as were used in mature Harappa sites. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Harappan Civilisation was characterized by a remarkable degree of standardization and uniformity in its material culture across a vast geographical area. This is most evident in the production of pottery, the specific artistic style of steatite seals, and a highly regulated system of weights and measures. A notable example of this uniformity is the production of bricks, which maintained a consistent ratio of 1:2:4 (thickness to width to length) across all Mature Harappan settlements, whether they were sun-dried or kiln-burnt.

In contrast, the Late Harappan phase represented a period of urban decline and the breakdown of this centralized uniformity. During this transition, the sophisticated construction techniques and rigorous urban planning of the Mature Harappan period disappeared. The specialized craftsmanship, use of standard weights, and large-scale public architecture were replaced by more localized traditions, smaller settlements, and inferior building methods that lacked the precision and consistency of the earlier urban phase.

82History
Which of the following statements about Jainism is/are correct? 1. The most important idea in Jainism is that the entire world is animated, even stones, rocks and water have life. 2. Asceticism and penance are required to free oneself from the cycle of Karma. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Jain philosophy is rooted in the belief that life is ubiquitous across the universe. A central tenet of the faith is that every entity, including those typically considered inanimate like stones, rocks, and water, possesses a soul or jiva. This belief in universal life forms the basis for the strict practice of Ahinsa, or non-violence, which Jains follow to avoid harming any living being. Additionally, Jainism teaches that the soul is trapped in a cycle of rebirth due to the accumulation of karmic matter. To achieve liberation or Moksha, an individual must exhaust their existing karma and prevent the influx of new karma. This is accomplished through the path of asceticism and physical penance, which are seen as necessary tools to burn away karmic attachments and purify the soul for spiritual transition.

83History
Which one of the following pairs of countries with new names and old names is correctly matched? New name - Old name
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Answer: (A) Kingdom of eSwatini : Swaziland

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In April 2018, King Mswati III officially changed the name of the nation from Swaziland to the Kingdom of eSwatini. This announcement was made during the dual celebrations of the country's 50th anniversary of independence from British rule and the King's 50th birthday. The name eSwatini translates to land of the Swazis in the local SiSwati language. The transition was intended to shed the colonial-era name and to resolve frequent international confusion between Swaziland and Switzerland.

84Geography
In India, Indus Dolphin, one of the world's rarest mammals, is mainly found in which one of the following rivers?
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Answer: (D) Beas

Explanation

The Indus River Dolphin is an endangered freshwater mammal that, within Indian territory, is found exclusively in the Beas River in Punjab. While the majority of the population of this species resides in the Indus River system in Pakistan, a tiny, landlocked population has survived in a short stretch of the Beas River between the Talwara Barrage and the Harike Barrage. This specific population is globally significant because it is the only group of Indus Dolphins residing in India, and it remains geographically isolated from the larger population in Pakistan due to various dams and barrages. Its presence in the Beas River led the Punjab government to take significant conservation steps to protect its remaining habitat, and it was eventually declared the state aquatic animal of Punjab.

85History
Who among the following cricketers has announced his retirement from international cricket in May 2018?
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Answer: (C) AB de Villiers

Explanation

AB de Villiers announced his retirement from all forms of international cricket on May 23, 2018. The legendary South African batsman released a video statement citing that he had run out of gas and wished to step down while still playing decent cricket. Known as Mr. 360 for his 360-degree batting skills, de Villiers ended his international career with over 20,000 runs across all formats, maintaining an average above 50 in both Test and One Day International cricket. His retirement came as a surprise to the cricketing world, as he was still ranked among the top batsmen globally at the time of the announcement.

86Economy
In a recent deal, a large stake of which one of the following e-commerce companies was acquired by Walmart, an American multinational retailer?
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Answer: (B) Flipkart

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In May 2018, Walmart Inc. completed a landmark deal to acquire a controlling stake of approximately 77 percent in Flipkart, India's leading e-commerce marketplace, for about $16 billion. This transaction was one of the largest acquisitions in the history of the e-commerce sector and marked Walmart's significant entry into the Indian retail market. The investment allowed Walmart to partner with a local leader that possessed a deep understanding of Indian consumers, a robust supply chain, and a strong digital payments platform in PhonePe. This strategic move was intended to position Walmart as a major competitor in the rapidly expanding digital economy of India.

87Art and Culture
Which one of the following films was awarded Best Feature Film in the National Film Awards, 2018?
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Answer: (A) Village Rockstars

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Village Rockstars, an Assamese language film written, directed, and edited by Rima Das, won the Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) for Best Feature Film at the 65th National Film Awards in 2018. The film follows the story of a young girl in a remote village in Assam who dreams of owning a guitar and forming a rock band with her friends. Notably, it was the first film from Assam to ever receive the National Award for Best Feature Film. In addition to the top prize, the film also won awards for Best Child Artist, Best Editing, and Best Location Sound Recordist at the same ceremony.

88History
Which one of the following groups belongs to the same school of thought?
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Answer: (D) Georgi Plekhanov, Vera Zasulich, Alexandra Kollontai, V. I. Lenin

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Georgi Plekhanov, Vera Zasulich, Alexandra Kollontai, and V. I. Lenin are all seminal figures within the Russian Marxist school of thought. Georgi Plekhanov is recognized as the father of Russian Marxism and, alongside Vera Zasulich, established the Emancipation of Labour group in 1883, which was the first organization to propagate Marxist ideology in Russia. Alexandra Kollontai and V. I. Lenin were prominent leaders and theorists of the Bolshevik faction. Although the Russian Social Democratic Labour Party eventually split into Menshevik and Bolshevik wings, all four individuals remained committed to the core tenets of historical materialism and the revolutionary objective of replacing the Tsarist autocracy with a socialist system. Their shared ideological heritage distinguishes them as a cohesive group of Russian revolutionary socialists.

89Polity and Governance
The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA)
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Answer: (A) extends greater say to local tribal community over common resources

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The Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 (PESA) was enacted to ensure self-governance through traditional Gram Sabhas for populations living in the Scheduled Areas. A primary objective of the Act is to empower the local tribal community by granting the Gram Sabha significant authority over common resources. This includes the ownership of minor forest produce, the power to manage village markets, and the mandatory requirement for the Gram Sabha to be consulted before land acquisition for development projects or the resettlement of displaced persons. By decentralizing power to the village level, the Act recognizes the traditional rights of tribal communities and ensures they have a decisive say in the management and protection of the natural resources within their territory.

90Polity and Governance
Over which of the following, the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha held joint sittings to resolve their differences? 1. The Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959 2. The Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978 3. The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002 4. The Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act, 2013 Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Article 108 of the Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to resolve a deadlock over the passage of a bill. This mechanism is triggered if one House rejects a bill passed by the other, if the Houses disagree on amendments, or if more than six months elapse without the bill being passed.

The Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959, led to the first joint sitting in May 1961 because the two Houses had different views on certain amendments, particularly regarding the definition of dowry and the nature of the offenses.

The Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, 1978, necessitated a joint sitting in May 1978 after the Rajya Sabha rejected the repeal bill passed by the Lok Sabha, which intended to dissolve the commission established by the previous government.

The Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002, was the third instance where a joint sitting was convened in March 2002. In this case, the Rajya Sabha rejected the bill after it had been passed by the Lok Sabha, leading the government to call a joint session to ensure its enactment into law as the Prevention of Terrorism Act (POTA).

91Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Commissions has not examined the issue of removal of the Governor of a State?
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Answer: (B) Thakkar Commission

Explanation

The Thakkar Commission was a one-man commission of inquiry headed by Justice Manharlal Pranlal Thakkar, appointed in November 1984. Its primary mandate was to investigate the assassination of Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, explore the security lapses that allowed the event to occur, and identify any potential conspiracies. Since its focus was entirely on a specific criminal and security investigation, it did not address constitutional matters such as Centre-State relations or the protocols surrounding the tenure and removal of State Governors.

92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the correct combination of languages included in the 8th Schedule of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (B) Santhali, Urdu, Konkani and Maithili

Explanation

The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India lists the official languages of the Republic of India. While the schedule originally included 14 languages, it currently consists of 22 languages following various amendments. Urdu was included in the original list of languages at the commencement of the Constitution. Konkani was added later by the 71st Constitutional Amendment Act in 1992. Both Santhali and Maithili were incorporated into the schedule through the 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003. Therefore, all four languages in this set are formally recognized under the Eighth Schedule.

93Polity and Governance
Recently, the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was completely removed from which one of the following States?
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs officially removed the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act from the entire state of Meghalaya on April 1, 2018. Prior to this complete withdrawal, the legislation had been operational in a 20-kilometer stretch bordering the state of Assam to curb insurgent activities. The removal was prompted by a substantial reduction in extremist violence and a stabilized security environment, allowing the central government to transition full law enforcement responsibilities back to the state's civilian police force. This marked the end of AFSPA's decades-long presence in Meghalaya.

94Art and Culture
15th Asia Media Summit was hosted in May 2018 in
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Answer: (B) New Delhi

Explanation

The 15th Asia Media Summit (AMS 2018) was hosted by the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India, in New Delhi from May 10 to 12, 2018. Organized in collaboration with the Asia-Pacific Institute for Broadcasting Development (AIBD), this prestigious annual event was held in India for the very first time. The theme for the 2018 edition was Telling Our Stories - Asia and More. The summit provided a platform for international media professionals, policy makers, and broadcasters to discuss the evolving media landscape. It featured participation from over 200 foreign delegates representing 39 countries and several international organizations, focusing on regional cooperation and the role of digital media in shaping narratives across Asia and beyond.

95Polity and Governance
In India, cars bearing black number plate with yellow lettering are
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Answer: (C) commercial vehicles available on rent for self-driving

Explanation

In India, black number plates with yellow lettering are specifically designated for commercial vehicles that are available for rent for self-driving purposes. These vehicles are typically owned by car rental companies and are leased to individuals who operate the vehicle themselves. Under the regulatory framework established by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, such as the Rent-a-Cab Scheme, these vehicles are categorized as transport vehicles. A significant regulatory distinction for this category is that the person driving the rented vehicle is not required to possess a commercial driving license; a valid permanent private driving license is sufficient to legally operate these cars. This classification allows rental agencies to provide vehicles for personal use while maintaining their status as commercial assets for taxation and registration purposes.

96History
In May 2018, who among the following was elected as the Prime Minister of Malaysia at the age of 92?
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Answer: (C) Mohathir Mohamad

Explanation

Mahathir Mohamad led the opposition Pakatan Harapan coalition to a landmark victory in the Malaysian General Election held on May 9, 2018. Sworn in on May 10, 2018, at the age of 92, he became the oldest elected head of government in the world. This victory ended the 61-year uninterrupted rule of the Barisan Nasional coalition. Mahathir had previously served as Malaysia's fourth Prime Minister for 22 years between 1981 and 2003, making his return to the office at such an advanced age a historic event in global politics.

97History
In May 2018, bus service between which two places of India and Nepal was launched?
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Answer: (D) Ayodhya and Janakpur

Explanation

In May 2018, Prime Minister Narendra Modi and his Nepalese counterpart K.P. Sharma Oli jointly flagged off a direct bus service between Janakpur in Nepal and Ayodhya in India. This initiative was launched as part of the Ramayan Circuit under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme, which aims to develop and promote various religious and cultural heritage sites. The service provides a direct link between the birthplace of Goddess Sita in Janakpur and the birthplace of Lord Rama in Ayodhya, thereby strengthening the historical, cultural, and religious ties between the two neighboring nations while boosting regional tourism.

98Polity and Governance
In May 2018, which one of the following countries has relocated its embassy in Israel from Tel Aviv to Jerusalem?
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Answer: (C) USA

Explanation

The United States officially relocated its embassy from Tel Aviv to Jerusalem on May 14, 2018. This action followed the formal recognition of Jerusalem as the capital of Israel by the U.S. administration in December 2017. The inauguration of the new embassy coincided with the 70th anniversary of the creation of the State of Israel. This move represented a significant shift in long-standing American foreign policy and international diplomatic protocol regarding the status of Jerusalem, fulfilling the requirements of the Jerusalem Embassy Act passed by the U.S. Congress in 1995.

99History
Who among the following was Buddha's foster mother?
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Answer: (D) Mahapajapati Gotami

Explanation

Mahapajapati Gotami was the maternal aunt and foster mother of Siddhartha Gautama, who later became the Buddha. Following the death of Queen Maya, the Buddha's biological mother, just seven days after his birth, her sister Mahapajapati Gotami took over the responsibility of raising the young prince as her own child. She played a crucial role in his early life and upbringing in the Shakya capital of Kapilavastu. Later in life, she also became the first woman to seek and receive ordination from the Buddha, thereby establishing the Bhikkhuni Sangha (the order of female monastics) in the Buddhist tradition.

100Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about Bodhisattvas is/are correct? 1. They were perceived as deeply compassionate beings who accumulated merit through their efforts. 2. They made attempt to attain Nibbana. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

In the Mahayana Buddhist tradition, Bodhisattvas are beings of immense compassion who dedicate themselves to the welfare of all sentient beings. They undergo rigorous spiritual practice to accumulate merit through the perfection of various virtues, known as paramitas, which they use to help others achieve enlightenment. The hallmark of a Bodhisattva is the altruistic vow to postpone their own final entry into Nibbana or personal liberation from the cycle of birth and death. While they possess the spiritual maturity to attain Nibbana, they consciously choose to remain in the phenomenal world to serve as guides and alleviators of suffering until all other beings have reached salvation.

101Art and Culture
Depiction of the descent of the river Ganga from heaven in the form of relief sculpture on rock is at
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Answer: (B) Mahabalipuram

Explanation

The depiction of the descent of the river Ganga is a monumental open-air rock relief located at Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu. Carved during the 7th century under the Pallava dynasty, this masterpiece is etched onto two massive pink granite boulders. The sculpture illustrates the Puranic legend of the sage Bhagiratha performing rigorous penance to bring the celestial river Ganges down to earth to purify the ashes of his ancestors. A natural cleft between the two rocks represents the river itself, which is shown being received by Lord Shiva in his matted hair to break its forceful fall. This relief is also frequently referred to as Arjunas Penance and is recognized as one of the largest and most intricate rock-cut sculptures in the world.

102Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements relating to the power of the President of India to grant pardon is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The power to grant pardon by the President is the power that the sovereign never exercises against its own judicial mandate.

Explanation

The power of pardon under Article 72 of the Constitution of India is an executive power that exists independently of the judiciary. In the landmark case of Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989), the Supreme Court held that the President can scrutinize the evidence on record and come to a different conclusion than that recorded by the court. This means the President is not bound by the judicial verdict and can exercise this power to correct any judicial errors or to provide relief from the harshness of a sentence. Consequently, the pardoning power is specifically designed to be exercised as a constitutional check on the judicial mandate, making the assertion that the sovereign never exercises this power against its own judicial mandate legally incorrect.

103History
Which one of the following is not a characteristic feature of the Indian Independence Act, 1947?
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Answer: (B) The Act sought to lay down a Constitution by the Legislative will of the British Parliament.

Explanation

The Indian Independence Act of 1947 did not authorize the British Parliament to draft or impose a constitution for the new dominions. Instead, the Act effectively terminated the legislative authority of the British Parliament over India and vested the power to frame and adopt a new constitution entirely within the Constituent Assemblies of India and Pakistan. Under Section 8 of the Act, each dominion's Constituent Assembly was recognized as a fully sovereign body with the authority to repeal any British legislation applicable to India, including the Independence Act itself. The Act provided that the Government of India Act, 1935, would serve as a temporary working constitution until the respective assemblies drafted their own sovereign documents, ensuring that the final constitutional structure was a product of local legislative will rather than British parliamentary decree.

104Economy
In National Income (NI) accounts, Personal Income (PI) is defined as
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Answer: (A) NI - undistributed profits - net interest payments made by households - corporate tax + transfer payments to the households from the government and firms

Explanation

Personal Income (PI) represents the total income actually received by households from all sources before the payment of personal income taxes. To derive Personal Income from National Income (NI), several adjustments are necessary because not all income earned by factors of production is distributed to individuals, and individuals receive some income that is not part of current production.

First, undistributed profits (corporate savings) and corporate taxes are subtracted from NI because these portions of value added are retained by firms or paid to the government and do not reach households. Second, net interest payments made by households are subtracted; this term represents the interest paid by households to firms minus the interest received by households from the government and firms. Finally, transfer payments to households from the government and firms (such as social security, pensions, and relief) are added because they constitute income received by individuals without any concurrent productive service. The relationship is expressed as:

PI = NI - Undistributed profits - Net interest payments made by households - Corporate tax + Transfer payments

105Economy
The Reserve Bank of India defines narrow money as
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Answer: (A) CU (currency notes + coins) + DD (net demand deposits held by commercial banks)

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India classifies money supply into four aggregates, where M₁ is specifically referred to as narrow money. It is the most liquid measure of money and consists of currency held by the public plus net demand deposits held by the commercial banking system. In formulaic terms, narrow money is expressed as M₁ = CU + DD, where CU represents currency notes and coins in circulation among the public, and DD represents net demand deposits (such as current account and savings account balances) that can be withdrawn on demand for transactions. This definition focuses on assets that act as a direct medium of exchange without needing to be converted or matured.

106Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose the price of mangoes increases from ₹ 50 per kg to ₹ 75 per kg. Due to this, the demand for mangoes declines from 100 kg to 50 kg. Which one of the following is the price elasticity of demand for mangoes?
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Answer: (D) 1

Explanation

Price elasticity of demand (E_d) measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to a change in its price. It is calculated using the formula:

E_d = (Percentage change in quantity demanded) / (Percentage change in price)

First, calculate the percentage change in the quantity demanded: Percentage change in quantity = (Q₂ - Q₁)/Q₁ × 100 = (50 - 100)/100 × 100 = -50%

Next, calculate the percentage change in the price: Percentage change in price = (P₂ - P₁)/P₁ × 100 = (75 - 50)/50 × 100 = 50%

Substitute these values into the elasticity formula: E_d = -50%/50% = -1

In economics, price elasticity of demand is usually reported as an absolute value because the law of demand implies a negative relationship between price and quantity. Therefore, the magnitude of the elasticity is |-1| = 1. This signifies unitary elasticity, meaning the proportionate change in quantity demanded is exactly equal to the proportionate change in price.

107Economy
Multipliers will be lower with which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Low marginal propensity to consume

Explanation

The investment multiplier (k) quantifies the ratio of the change in national income to the initial change in autonomous investment. It is defined by the formula k = 1/(1 - MPC), where MPC is the marginal propensity to consume. The multiplier effect relies on the principle that one person's spending becomes another person's income. When the marginal propensity to consume is low, individuals spend a smaller fraction of any incremental increase in their income and save a larger portion. This higher rate of saving acts as a leakage from the circular flow of income, reducing the amount of money recirculated in subsequent rounds of spending. As the denominator (1 - MPC) increases due to a lower MPC, the overall value of the multiplier decreases, resulting in a smaller total expansion of aggregate demand.

108Economy
Which of the following is/are considered as India's green initiative(s)? 1. National Green Highways Mission 2. R & D for Clean Coal Technologies 3. National Green Corridor Programme Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The National Green Highways Mission was launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways in 2015 with the objective of developing eco-friendly highway corridors through the plantation of trees and shrubs along national highways to reduce the impact of air pollution and dust. Research and Development for Clean Coal Technologies includes initiatives like the development of Advanced Ultra Super Critical (AUSC) technology and High Efficiency Low Emission (HELE) systems, which are designed to improve the efficiency of coal-based power plants and significantly lower their carbon dioxide emissions. The National Green Corridor Programme, often referred to as the Green Energy Corridor project, focuses on creating a robust transmission infrastructure to facilitate the evacuation and integration of large-scale renewable energy, such as solar and wind power, from resource-rich regions into the national grid. Together, these programs form a core part of India's strategy to promote sustainable growth and fulfill its international environmental commitments.

109History
Which one of the following commercial centres declined after mid-eighteenth century?
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Answer: (C) Dhaka

Explanation

Dhaka was a premier commercial and manufacturing center during the Mughal period, celebrated globally for its production of high-quality muslin and textiles. Its decline from the mid-eighteenth century onwards was primarily caused by the collapse of the Mughal central authority, which evaporated the internal demand from the nobility. The regional economic focus shifted as the British East India Company established new trading priorities that bypassed traditional inland centers. The imposition of restrictive trade policies and heavy duties on Indian textiles, alongside the later influx of cheap factory-made cloth from England, crippled the local weaving industry. This economic displacement led to significant depopulation and the transformation of a once-vibrant city into a provincial town.

110History
Which of the following statements about Binodini Dasi, a pioneering figure in Bengali theatre in the late 19th-early 20th century, is/are correct? 1. She was one of the prime movers behind the setting up of the Star Theatre (1883) in Calcutta. 2. She serialized her autobiography Amar Katha (My Story) between 1910 and 1913. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Binodini Dasi was a central figure in the development of professional Bengali theatre during the late 19th and early 20th centuries. In 1883, she played a decisive role in the establishment of the Star Theatre in Calcutta. She secured the necessary financial backing from a businessman, Gurmukh Rai, under the initial understanding that the playhouse would be named after her. Although the theatre was ultimately named the Star Theatre instead of Binodini Theatre, her contribution as a founder and leading actress remained foundational to its success and the evolution of the public stage in Bengal.

Her autobiography, Amar Katha (My Story), is a significant literary work that provides deep insights into the social and professional challenges faced by women in the performing arts during that era. The text was serialized in the periodical Roop-O-Rang between 1910 and 1913, and it was subsequently published in book form in 1913. These memoirs are notable for their candid reflection on her life, her career under the tutelage of Girish Chandra Ghosh, and the complex gender dynamics within the contemporary theatre world.

111Polity and Governance
The National Green Tribunal, set up to deal with the expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, was set up under the
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Answer: (B) 11th Five-Year Plan

Explanation

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010. The 11th Five-Year Plan of India was in operation from 2007 to 2012. Therefore, the creation of this specialized body for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, forest conservation, and the enforcement of legal rights related to the environment occurred during the 11th Plan period. The establishment of the NGT was a significant step toward fulfilling India’s constitutional obligations under Article 21 and Article 48A, as well as international commitments made during the Rio de Janeiro conference in 1992.

112Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to Panchayats is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The Central Government may by law authorize a Panchayat to levy taxes.

Explanation

Under Article 243H of the Constitution of India, the power to authorize Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees is specifically vested in the Legislature of a State. Since Local Government is a State subject under Entry 5 of the State List (List II) in the Seventh Schedule, only the respective State Legislature has the authority to enact laws governing the financial powers of these local bodies. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, established that the State Legislature may, by law, assign specific taxes to Panchayats or provide for making grants-in-aid to them from the Consolidated Fund of the State. The Central Government does not possess the legislative competence to directly authorize a Panchayat to levy taxes.

113Polity and Governance
Which one of the following concerns has found a place in both Fundamental Duties and Directive Principles of State Policy?
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Answer: (B) Protection and improvement of environment, forests and wildlife

Explanation

The protection and improvement of the environment, forests, and wildlife is enshrined in both the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) and the Fundamental Duties following the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. Under the DPSP, Article 48A mandates that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country. Similarly, Article 51A(g) lists it as a Fundamental Duty for every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures. This overlapping provision ensures that environmental conservation is a constitutional obligation for both the government and the individual.

114Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
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Answer: (D) Promotion of scientific temper, humanity and the spirit of inquiry and reform

Explanation

The promotion of scientific temper, humanism, and the spirit of inquiry and reform is classified as a Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(h) of the Constitution of India. These duties, contained in Part IV-A, were added by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976 based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. While Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV are constitutional instructions to the State for governance and law-making, Fundamental Duties are intended as moral obligations for citizens to foster a rational and progressive society.

115History
Who among the following was the author of Hind Swaraj?
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Answer: (C) Mahatma Gandhi

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in 1909 during his return voyage from London to South Africa aboard the ship SS Kildonan Castle. Originally written in his native language, Gujarati, the book serves as a foundational text for his political philosophy, articulating his critique of modern Western civilization and his concept of Swaraj, or self-rule. In this work, Gandhi argues that true independence for India involves not just the removal of British political control but also the rejection of the industrial and materialistic culture they introduced. He defines Swaraj as a state of being where individuals rule themselves through self-restraint and moral strength. He also introduces the concept of passive resistance, or Satyagraha, as the primary tool for political and social transformation. The book was initially banned by the British authorities in India as a seditious text, which led Gandhi to publish an English translation to demonstrate its non-violent message.

116Art and Culture
The Buddhist text Majjhima Nikaya is in
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Answer: (B) Pali

Explanation

The Majjhima Nikaya, or the Collection of Middle-length Discourses, is one of the five nikayas that constitute the Sutta Pitaka, which is the second part of the Pali Canon (Tripitaka). As the standard collection of scriptures in the Theravada Buddhist tradition, the entire Tripitaka was composed and preserved in the Pali language. Pali is a Middle Indo-Aryan liturgical language that was used to record the oral teachings attributed to the Buddha and his immediate disciples. The Majjhima Nikaya specifically contains 152 discourses that provide a comprehensive overview of Buddhist philosophy, ethics, and meditation practices, all of which were codified in Pali to maintain the consistency of the early Buddhist doctrinal tradition.

117Polity and Governance
The federal systems of India and the USA are different in all the following respects, except
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Answer: (D) dual Government

Explanation

A federal system is essentially characterized by a dual polity, which means the existence of two sets of government—one at the national level and the other at the regional level. Both the United States and India follow this model where the Constitution divides powers between the central authority and the constituent states. In the USA, the federal government and state governments operate within their respective jurisdictions. Likewise, the Indian Constitution establishes a dual government consisting of the Union at the center and the states at the periphery, each endowed with sovereign powers to be exercised in the fields assigned to them. This shared structural framework of dual government is a basic feature of federalism in both nations.

118Polity and Governance
The power of the President of India to refer a matter back to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration was inserted in the Constitution by
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Answer: (A) 44th Amendment

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, amended Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution by inserting a proviso that allows the President to require the Council of Ministers to reconsider their advice. This change was introduced to ensure a system of checks and balances, granting the President the authority to send a matter back for review once if they feel it requires further deliberation. According to this proviso, while the President can ask for reconsideration, they are constitutionally obligated to act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration has taken place. This provision modified the previous position where the President was more strictly bound to the first instance of advice received from the executive.

119Polity and Governance
Ashok Mehta Committee was constituted to make recommendations on which one of the following issues?
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Answer: (B) Panchayati Raj System

Explanation

The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed by the Janata Government in December 1977 to examine the working of the Panchayati Raj institutions and suggest measures to strengthen them. The committee's primary objective was to revive the decentralized governance system in India, which had been in a state of decline since its initial implementation. In its report submitted in 1978, the committee proposed a two-tier system consisting of Zilla Parishads at the district level and Mandal Panchayats for a group of villages, replacing the three-tier system recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee. It also advocated for the official participation of political parties in Panchayati Raj elections and the transfer of developmental functions to the Zilla Parishad to ensure effective local self-governance.

120Economy
In India, approximately what percentage of households still use firewood for cooking as per 2011 Census?
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Answer: (C) 50%

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census data on Houses, Household Amenities, and Assets, firewood was the most widely used fuel for cooking across India. The census recorded that out of approximately 24.67 crore total households, about 12.14 crore households relied on firewood as their primary source of cooking energy. This represents roughly 49.2 percent of the total households in the country. While the usage was much higher in rural regions at approximately 62.5 percent, the national aggregate percentage settles at nearly 50 percent, highlighting the significant dependence on traditional biomass for domestic energy needs at the time of the survey.

121Economy
Consider the following countries: 1. China 2. Spain 3. India 4. Russia Which one of the following is the correct ascending order of the above countries in terms of their share of services sector to Gross Value Added (GVA) during the period 2001-2015?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation

The share of the services sector in Gross Value Added (GVA) varies according to the developmental trajectory and structural focus of a nation. During the 2001-2015 period, China maintained the lowest share among these countries as it functioned as the global hub for manufacturing, with its services GVA share rising from approximately 41 percent in 2001 to 50 percent by 2015. India followed, driven by a service-led growth model that saw its share increase from roughly 45 percent to 53 percent during the same timeframe. Russia, despite its focus on the hydrocarbon sector, possessed a more established services base with a share consistently fluctuating between 55 percent and 60 percent. Spain, a developed economy, recorded the highest share throughout this period, with the services sector typically contributing between 68 percent and 75 percent of its GVA.

122Economy
If farm loans are waived in India, how will it affect the aggregate demand in the economy? 1. Private consumption impact via increase in private sector net wealth. 2. Public sector impact via changes in government expenditure/taxes. 3. Crowding-out impact via higher borrowings by State Governments. 4. Crowding-in impact via higher credit availability as bank NPAs fall. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Farm loan waivers impact aggregate demand through several macroeconomic channels. When the government waives loans, it essentially transfers wealth to the private sector, specifically farming households. This increase in net wealth and disposable income leads to higher private consumption demand. Simultaneously, the public sector is affected as the government must accommodate the fiscal cost of the waiver, which often involves cutting capital expenditure or increasing taxes, thereby altering the government's contribution to aggregate demand. Additionally, to fund these waivers, State Governments frequently resort to increased market borrowings. This surge in the demand for credit can drive up interest rates, leading to a crowding-out effect where private investment is displaced due to higher financing costs. Together, these factors explain how the fiscal burden of loan waivers shifts consumption and investment dynamics within the economy.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2A
  3. 3B
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6C
  7. 7B
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15C
  16. 16B
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20C
  21. 21C
  22. 22C
  23. 23A
  24. 24D
  25. 25A
  26. 26D
  27. 27C
  28. 28D
  29. 29A
  30. 30C
  31. 31D
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38B
  39. 39B
  40. 40D
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43A
  44. 44B
  45. 45B
  46. 46D
  47. 47C
  48. 48A
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51B
  52. 52B
  53. 53C
  54. 54A
  55. 55B
  56. 56D
  57. 57A
  58. 58B
  59. 59A
  60. 60A
  61. 61C
  62. 62C
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66B
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71B
  72. 72B
  73. 73B
  74. 74B
  75. 75C
  76. 76C
  77. 77A
  78. 78D
  79. 79A
  80. 80B
  81. 81A
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84D
  85. 85C
  86. 86B
  87. 87A
  88. 88D
  89. 89A
  90. 90C
  91. 91B
  92. 92B
  93. 93C
  94. 94B
  95. 95C
  96. 96C
  97. 97D
  98. 98C
  99. 99D
  100. 100A
  101. 101B
  102. 102D
  103. 103B
  104. 104A
  105. 105A
  106. 106D
  107. 107B
  108. 108D
  109. 109C
  110. 110C
  111. 111B
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114D
  115. 115C
  116. 116B
  117. 117D
  118. 118A
  119. 119B
  120. 120C
  121. 121B
  122. 122A

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