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CAPF AC Paper I 2017 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 122 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

122
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8
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2420%
  • History2117%
  • Science and Technology2016%
  • Polity and Governance1916%
  • Quantitative Aptitude1613%
  • Economy1210%
  • Art and Culture87%
  • Logical Reasoning22%
1Geography
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: Plantation farming has mostly been practiced in humid tropics Statement II : The soil of humid tropics is highly fertile
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

Plantation agriculture is a large-scale commercial farming system that was primarily established by European colonial powers in the humid tropics. This region provides the necessary climatic conditions, such as high temperatures and abundant rainfall, required for specialized crops like rubber, tea, coffee, cocoa, and sugarcane.

However, the soils in the humid tropics are generally not highly fertile. Due to the high temperatures and heavy, consistent rainfall, these regions experience intense leaching, a process where nutrients and silica are washed away from the topsoil. This results in the formation of Latosols or Oxisols, which are acidic and nutrient-deficient. The lush vegetation in these areas is sustained by the rapid cycling of nutrients from decaying organic matter rather than the inherent fertility of the soil itself.

2Science and Technology
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I : Chameleon changes its skin colour to match with the colour of the surroundings Statement II : The skin of chameleon emits light of the colour of the surrounding through fluorescence
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

Chameleons possess the biological ability to change their skin color for purposes such as camouflage, social signaling, and thermoregulation. This allows them to blend into their environment to evade predators or remain undetected by prey, making Statement I correct. However, Statement II is false because this color change is not achieved through fluorescence. The process actually involves specialized cells known as chromatophores and iridophores. Chromatophores contain various pigments, while iridophores contain tiny guanine nanocrystals arranged in a lattice. By contracting or relaxing their skin, chameleons alter the spacing between these nanocrystals, which changes the specific wavelengths of light that are reflected. This mechanism relies on selective light reflection and pigment dispersion rather than the emission of light through fluorescence.

3Science and Technology
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I : Occasionally we see two rainbows together, the primary rainbow with another less intense secondary rainbow about 10 degrees away Statement II : The secondary rainbow appears due to refraction after a reflection of sunlight from the water droplets
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

Statement I is true because the primary rainbow is formed at an angular radius of approximately 42° from the antisolar point, while the secondary rainbow is formed at an angular radius of about 51° to 53°. This results in the secondary bow appearing approximately 9° to 10° outside the primary bow. The secondary rainbow is less intense than the primary one because light loses intensity with each internal reflection, and the secondary bow involves one more reflection than the primary. Statement II is false because a secondary rainbow is specifically the result of two internal reflections within the water droplets. A single internal reflection followed by refraction describes the formation of a primary rainbow, whereas the secondary rainbow requires light to be reflected twice before exiting the droplet.

4History
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I : Nationalism in India, which was assigned a privileged position by its western educated political leadership, was a 'different', but a 'derivative discourse' from the west Statement II : Indian nationalism as a response to western imperialism was 'like all such responses, shaped by what it was responding to'
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Both statements are based on the post-colonial critique of Indian nationalism, most notably articulated by scholar Partha Chatterjee in his work Nationalist Thought and the Colonial World: A Derivative Discourse?. Statement I identifies that while Indian nationalism sought to establish a unique and sovereign identity different from the West, it remained a derivative discourse because it operated within the same conceptual framework and intellectual categories provided by Western Enlightenment and modernity.

Statement II serves as the logical explanation for this phenomenon. It asserts that Indian nationalism was a reaction to Western imperialism, and like all such reactive movements, it was fundamentally conditioned and shaped by the very structures of power and knowledge it was resisting. Because the nationalist leadership was educated in Western traditions and was fighting against a Western colonial state, they adopted the European model of the nation-state and its associated political vocabulary. Consequently, the discourse of Indian nationalism became a derivative of the Western model, which confirms why Statement II provides the underlying reason for the observation made in Statement I.

5History
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I : The British legal scholars relied on Indian Pandits and Maulavis for understanding of canons of authoritative texts Statement II : British codified the Hindu Laws in 1783 and the Muslim Laws in 1785
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

In the initial phase of colonial rule, the British followed a policy of non-interference in the personal laws of Indians and sought to govern them according to their own traditions. Since British judges and legal scholars were unfamiliar with Sanskrit, Arabic, and Persian, they depended heavily on Indian legal experts—Pandits for Hindu law and Maulavis for Muslim law—to interpret authoritative religious texts and provide legal opinions known as vyavasthas. This reliance was a cornerstone of the judicial system established under Warren Hastings.

Statement II is incorrect because the timelines for codification are inaccurate. The first major attempt to codify Hindu law resulted in the publication of A Code of Gentoo Laws in 1776, prepared by a panel of Pandits and translated by Nathaniel Halhed. Regarding Muslim law, the most significant codification effort was the translation of the Hedaya by Charles Hamilton, which was published in 1791. The dates 1783 and 1785 mentioned in the statement do not align with these historical landmarks of legal codification.

6History
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I : Dadabhai Naoroji argued that what was being drained out was 'potential surplus' that could generate more economic development in India if invested in India Statement II : Imperialists believed that India was brought into the large capitalist world market and that was in itself a progress towards modernization
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Dadabhai Naoroji developed the Drain of Wealth theory to demonstrate how a significant portion of India's national product was being transferred to Britain without any equivalent economic return. He argued that this drain constituted a loss of potential surplus or capital that could have been used for internal investment, industrialization, and economic expansion within India. His critique focused on how the colonial mechanism prevented the formation of domestic capital.

Simultaneously, imperialist ideologues and colonial supporters maintained that the British Raj was an instrument of progress. They argued that by incorporating India into the global capitalist system and modernizing its infrastructure through railways and commercial networks, Britain was facilitating India's transition into a modern economy. Although both statements are historically accurate representations of the nationalist and colonialist viewpoints, they represent two conflicting interpretations of the same economic reality. The imperialist belief in modernization through global market integration does not serve as a reason or explanation for Naoroji's specific economic argument regarding the drain of potential surplus.

7History
The following items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The Man Booker International Prize is now unlikely to be won by an English author Statement II: The Booker Prize Foundation announced that the Man Booker International Prize was to evolve from 2016 onwards into a prize for fiction in translation
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

In 2016, the Booker Prize Foundation fundamentally restructured the Man Booker International Prize. It evolved from a biennial award recognizing an author's entire body of work into an annual prize given to a single work of fiction translated into English and published in the United Kingdom or Ireland. Because the revised rules specifically mandate that the prize is for fiction in translation, the original work must have been written in a language other than English. Consequently, authors who write their works originally in English are no longer eligible for this specific award, making it essentially impossible for a conventional English author to win. Statement II provides the specific regulatory change that serves as the direct cause and explanation for the situation described in Statement I.

8Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) The scheme was launched in the year 2015

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on May 1, 2016, in Ballia, Uttar Pradesh, rather than in 2015. The scheme was introduced by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas as a flagship social welfare initiative to provide clean cooking fuel to women from Below Poverty Line (BPL) households. By the time of its implementation in mid-2016, the Union Government had set an initial target to provide 5 crore LPG connections with a financial support of ₹1,600 per connection to ensure the health of women and children is protected from the hazardous effects of smoke produced by traditional biomass fuels.

9Science and Technology
Which one of the following portals was launched on the 250th anniversary of Survey of India ?
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Answer: (D) Nakshe

Explanation

The Nakshe portal was launched by the Union Minister for Science and Technology and Earth Sciences on April 10, 2017, to mark the 250th anniversary of the Survey of India. Established in 1767, the Survey of India is the oldest scientific department in the country. The portal was developed to provide free access to open series maps (OSM) in PDF format to Indian citizens. It utilizes Aadhaar-based authentication to allow users to download topographical maps, thereby supporting various developmental projects, planning, and academic research through easily accessible geospatial data.

10Polity and Governance
Which one of the following countries has been ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016 released by Transparency International ?
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Answer: (A) Denmark

Explanation

Denmark was ranked as the least corrupt country in the Corruption Perception Index 2016, scoring 90 out of a possible 100 points. The index, published annually by Transparency International, evaluates countries and territories based on expert assessments and surveys regarding perceived public sector corruption. Denmark's top ranking reflects its high level of government transparency, strict ethical standards for public officials, and effective judicial systems that ensure accountability and maintain public trust. The scoring system uses a scale where 0 is highly corrupt and 100 is very clean, and Denmark shared the first position globally in this specific report.

11Polity and Governance
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up on the recommendation of
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Answer: (D) Santhanam Committee

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) was established in February 1964 by the Government of India. Its formation was based on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, popularly known as the Santhanam Committee, which submitted its report in 1964. The committee was appointed to suggest measures for checking corruption in the administration and to advise on the creation of an independent body to oversee vigilance matters. Initially created as an executive body, the CVC was later granted statutory status by the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, following directions from the Supreme Court in the Vineet Narain case. It serves as the apex integrity institution, vested with the authority to monitor all vigilance activity under the Central Government and to advise various authorities in planning and executing their vigilance work.

12Polity and Governance
The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution of India by the
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Answer: (B) First Amendment

Explanation

The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951, introduced the Ninth Schedule to protect land reform and other laws from being challenged in courts on the grounds of violating fundamental rights. It was inserted along with Article 31B to provide a protective umbrella to specific legislations, primarily aimed at abolishing the zamindari system and implementing social engineering measures. Laws placed in this schedule were initially shielded from judicial review to ensure that the government's efforts toward land redistribution and economic equality were not hindered by litigation related to the right to property.

13Polity and Governance
Which one of the following cases in the Supreme Court of India dealt with the issue of 'creamy layer' among the backward classes ?
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Answer: (B) Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India

Explanation

In the landmark judgment of Indra Sawhney vs. Union of India (1992), popularly known as the Mandal Commission case, a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court examined the scope and extent of Article 16(4) regarding reservations for backward classes. While upholding the 27% reservation for Other Backward Classes (OBCs), the court introduced the concept of the creamy layer. It directed the government to specify the criteria for identifying the socially and economically advanced persons among the backward classes who must be excluded from the benefits of reservation. This mechanism was designed to ensure that the actual benefits of affirmative action reach the most deserving and truly backward members of these classes. The court further clarified that the classification of backwardness should involve a combined assessment of social, educational, and economic factors.

14History
Which one of the following statements about Cripps Mission is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) Jawaharlal Nehru and Sardar Patel represented Congress to negotiate with the mission

Explanation

The Indian National Congress appointed Jawaharlal Nehru and Maulana Abul Kalam Azad as its official negotiators to hold talks with the Cripps Mission in March 1942. Although Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was a key member of the Congress Working Committee, he was not part of the two-member team designated to represent the party in these specific negotiations. Maulana Azad, in his capacity as the Congress President, and Nehru were the primary representatives who interacted with Sir Stafford Cripps to discuss the proposals regarding India's future constitutional framework and participation in the war effort.

15History
Which one of the following statements about the Treaty of Allahabad is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) Banaras and the Surrounding tracts were detached from Awadh and handed over to Shah Alam II

Explanation

The Treaty of Allahabad, signed in 1765 following the Battle of Buxar, stipulated that the districts of Kara and Allahabad were to be detached from the Nawab of Awadh and handed over to the Mughal Emperor, Shah Alam II, for his maintenance. Banaras was not handed over to the Emperor; instead, the British ensured that Raja Balwant Singh was confirmed in his possessions of Banaras and its surrounding tracts, although he remained a feudatory of the Nawab of Awadh. Therefore, the statement claiming Banaras was given to Shah Alam II is historically inaccurate.

16History
Which among the following was NOT the provision of the Gandhi-Irwin pact ?
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Answer: (D) Reservation of 18 per cent seats for Depressed classes

Explanation

The reservation of 18 per cent of seats for the Depressed Classes in the Central Legislature was a provision of the Poona Pact, signed on September 24, 1932. This agreement was reached between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to resolve the political crisis triggered by the British government's Communal Award. The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, focused on the withdrawal of the Civil Disobedience Movement, the release of political prisoners not convicted of violence, and the participation of the Indian National Congress in the Second Round Table Conference. It did not address the specific reservation of legislative seats for the Depressed Classes.

17Art and Culture
Which one of the following novels won the Pulitzer Prize for the year 2017 in the Fiction category ?
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Answer: (D) The Underground Railroad

Explanation

The Underground Railroad, a novel by Colson Whitehead, was awarded the 2017 Pulitzer Prize for Fiction. The book offers a gripping and imaginative narrative that follows Cora, a slave on a Georgia plantation, as she makes a desperate bid for freedom. Whitehead uniquely reimagines the historical Underground Railroad as an actual physical railway system consisting of tracks, tunnels, and engineers, rather than just a metaphorical network of clandestine routes and safe houses. The Pulitzer committee recognized the work for its profound exploration of the brutal history of slavery in the United States and its poignant reflection on the human struggle for liberty and resilience against systemic oppression.

18Geography
Which one of the following does NOT pass through the Kaziranga National Park ?
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Answer: (D) Railway track of Indian Railway

Explanation

Kaziranga National Park is devoid of any railway tracks within its geographical boundaries. While the park is bordered and intersected by major geographic and transport features such as the Brahmaputra river, the Diplhu river, and National Highway 37 (now NH 715), the Indian Railway network does not penetrate the protected area. The nearest railway stations, such as Jakhalabandha and Furkating, are located several kilometers away from the park's perimeter, ensuring that the core habitat remains undisturbed by train traffic and track infrastructure.

19Economy
The US President in 2017 has signed an executive order for US withdrawal from a trade organization of the Pacific region. Identify the organization from among the following :
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Answer: (B) Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP)

Explanation

On January 23, 2017, President Donald Trump signed a presidential memorandum formally withdrawing the United States from the Trans-Pacific Partnership (TPP). The TPP was a significant trade agreement negotiated under the Obama administration among 12 Pacific Rim nations, designed to lower trade barriers and establish new commercial rules for the region. During his 2016 campaign, Trump frequently criticized the deal, arguing it would lead to job losses and undermine American manufacturing. By signing this executive action shortly after his inauguration, he fulfilled a key campaign promise to exit the pact, which had been signed by the U.S. in 2016 but not yet ratified by Congress. This withdrawal prompted the remaining 11 signatory countries to eventually reorganize and move forward with the agreement as the Comprehensive and Progressive Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership (CPTPP).

20Polity and Governance
Which one of the following judgments declared that the Parliament has NO power to amend any of the provisions of Part III of the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (B) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab

Explanation

In the case of I.C. Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab (1967), an eleven-judge bench of the Supreme Court ruled that Fundamental Rights are granted a transcendental and immutable position by the Constitution. The Court held that the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368 was not unlimited and that any amendment qualifies as a law under Article 13. Therefore, if a constitutional amendment violates a fundamental right, it would be void. This judgment effectively stripped Parliament of the power to amend or abridge any of the provisions contained in Part III of the Constitution, asserting that these rights were beyond the reach of the amending process.

21Polity and Governance
Who among the following leaders is associated with the concept of party less democracy ?
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Answer: (B) Jayprakash Narayan

Explanation

Jayprakash Narayan, often referred to as JP, was the foremost proponent of the concept of partyless democracy in India. Drawing inspiration from the Sarvodaya movement and Mahatma Gandhi's vision of village self-governance, he argued that the western model of parliamentary democracy based on political parties was unsuitable for India because it led to centralization of power and social division. He envisioned a system where political parties would be replaced by a tiered structure of assemblies starting from the Gram Sabha (village assembly), where decisions are reached through consensus. This grassroots approach aimed at empowering the common people directly and eliminating the corruption and power struggles inherent in party politics, forming a key pillar of his philosophy of Total Revolution.

22Polity and Governance
Who among the following is empowered to establish Inter State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (C) President of India

Explanation

Article 263 of the Constitution of India contains the provision for the establishment of an Inter-State Council to effect coordination between the states and between the Union and states. This article specifically empowers the President of India to establish such a council if at any time it appears to him that the public interest would be served by its creation. Furthermore, the President is authorized to define the nature of the duties to be performed by the council, along with its organization and procedure. The council was formally established by a Presidential Order in 1990, following the recommendations made by the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State relations.

23History
Which among the following was NOT the recommendation of the Nehru Report ?
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Answer: (B) Separate Electorate

Explanation

The Nehru Report of 1928, chaired by Motilal Nehru, specifically rejected the system of separate electorates that had been introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909. The report argued that separate electorates fostered communal divisions and were detrimental to the growth of a unified national sentiment. Instead, it recommended the adoption of joint electorates for all elections, with the reservation of seats for Muslims at the Centre and in provinces where they were in a minority, proportional to their population. This move toward joint electorates was a fundamental shift in the constitutional proposals of the time and was one of the primary reasons for the subsequent opposition by Muhammad Ali Jinnah and the Muslim League.

24History
Which one of the following statements about the Indigo Revolt of 1859 is correct ?
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Answer: (C) It was supported by the intelligentsia of Bengal

Explanation

The Indigo Revolt of 1859-60 in Bengal was distinguished by the significant support it received from the educated middle class and the intelligentsia. Prominent figures like Harish Chandra Mukherjee used his publication, the Hindu Patriot, to document the atrocities committed by European planters and to champion the cause of the peasants. Similarly, Dinabandhu Mitra wrote the influential play Neel Darpan, which vividly portrayed the exploitation and misery of the indigo farmers, effectively mobilizing public opinion across India and in England. This intellectual backing was instrumental in pressuring the British government to form the Indigo Commission in 1860, which eventually concluded that the indigo cultivation system was inherently coercive and oppressive, leading to the relief of the ryots from forced cultivation.

25History
Which of the following active step(s) was/were taken by the Congress in 1823 to eradicate untouchability from India ? 1. Effort to educate and mobilize opinion among caste Hindus 2. Efforts to educate the 'avarnas' about the evils of untouchability 3. Forcibly open the doors of temples for 'avarnas' 4. Petition the Government to pass laws that would declare untouchability unlawful Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Indian National Congress, particularly after the 1923 Kakinada session, made the removal of untouchability a central part of its constructive program. The strategy adopted by the Congress was rooted in social reform and moral persuasion. Firstly, it focused on educating and mobilizing opinion among caste Hindus to convince them that untouchability was a grave sin and a blot on Hinduism, which was essential for achieving national unity and Swaraj. Secondly, the Congress aimed to work among the avarnas (depressed classes) to promote education and raise awareness about the social injustice of untouchability, while encouraging self-improvement and empowerment. This dual approach sought to reform Hindu society from within through peaceful social mobilization rather than through external legal compulsion or confrontational tactics.

26Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT a river covered under the Indus Water Treaty 1960 ?
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Answer: (C) Teesta

Explanation

Teesta is a transboundary river that originates in the Pahunri glacier in the eastern Himalayas and flows through the Indian states of Sikkim and West Bengal before joining the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh. The Indus Water Treaty of 1960 is a water-distribution treaty between India and Pakistan, brokered by the World Bank, which specifically governs the six rivers of the Indus system located in the western part of the Indian subcontinent. These six rivers are divided into the Eastern Rivers (Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi) and the Western Rivers (Indus, Jhelum, and Chenab). Teesta is geographically located in the Brahmaputra basin and is not part of the Indus drainage system, thus it is not governed by the provisions of this treaty.

27Science and Technology
Who among the following are awarded with the Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics for the year 2017 ?
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Answer: (B) Ronald Drever, Kip S Thorne and Rainer Weiss

Explanation

The Special Breakthrough Prize in Fundamental Physics was awarded to Ronald Drever, Kip S. Thorne, and Rainer Weiss for their leadership and pioneering work in the development of the Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO). This prestigious award recognized the first direct observation of gravitational waves, which was achieved by detecting the signals from the merger of two black holes. This discovery confirmed a major prediction of Albert Einstein's general theory of relativity and provided a new way to observe the universe. The $3 million prize was shared among the three founders and the 1,012 members of the LIGO collaboration who contributed to the milestone scientific achievement.

28Science and Technology
Who among the following Mathematician is the recipient of the Abel Prize for the year 2017 ?
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Answer: (B) Yves Meyer

Explanation

The Abel Prize for the year 2017 was awarded to the French mathematician Yves Meyer for his pivotal role in the development of the mathematical theory of wavelets. His work provided the fundamental framework for decomposing signals and images into smaller, simpler components, which allows for efficient data compression and noise reduction. This mathematical breakthrough has had a profound impact on various technological fields, including digital image processing (such as the JPEG 2000 standard), medical imaging, and even the analysis of gravitational waves. The Norwegian Academy of Science and Letters recognized Meyer for his contributions that connect pure mathematics, harmonic analysis, and practical engineering applications.

29Polity and Governance
Who among the following scholars has conceptualized the Constitution of India as a 'seamless web' ?
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Answer: (C) Granville Austin

Explanation

Granville Austin, a renowned scholar of the Indian Constitution, conceptualized the document as a seamless web in his influential work, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation (1966). He used this metaphor to describe the intricate interdependence of three main strands that the constituent assembly sought to weave together: protecting and enhancing national unity and integrity, establishing the institutions of democracy, and fostering a social revolution to improve the lives of the Indian people. Austin argued that these three goals are inextricably linked, meaning that none can be achieved in isolation and the strength of the entire constitutional fabric depends on the success of each individual strand. This perspective highlights the Constitution not merely as a legal document, but as a holistic social and political instrument designed for national transformation.

30Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Article 15 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners 2. Article 16 of the Constitution of India is available to the citizens of India only 3. Article 21 of the Constitution of India is available to both citizens of India and the foreigners alike within the territory of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Article 16 provides for equality of opportunity in public employment and is explicitly restricted to citizens of India to ensure that the nation's administrative and civil services are managed by its own people. Article 21 guarantees the protection of life and personal liberty to all persons, including foreigners, as the Constitution uses the broad term person to ensure basic human rights within Indian territory. Fundamental Rights such as those under Articles 15, 16, 19, 29, and 30 are reserved solely for citizens, meaning Article 15 does not extend to foreigners. Consequently, only the second and third statements accurately reflect the applicability of these constitutional provisions.

31Polity and Governance
Who among the following are entitled to get the benefits of equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws as enshrined under Article 14 of the Constitution of India ? 1. All Indian citizens living in India 2. All Indian citizens living abroad 3. Foreigners living within the territory of India 4. All citizens born in India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Article 14 of the Constitution of India states that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India. The use of the term person signifies that this fundamental right is not limited to citizens alone but extends to all individuals, including foreigners and legal entities like corporations or registered societies. However, the protection is specifically qualified by the phrase within the territory of India, which establishes a territorial limit for its application. Consequently, all Indian citizens currently residing in the country and all foreigners present within India's borders are entitled to these benefits. Indian citizens living abroad fall outside the immediate territorial jurisdiction where this specific constitutional mandate applies against the Indian State.

32History
Which one of the following statements about the English Education Act of 1835 is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) To the existing Oriental Institutions fresh awards of stipends to students and the publication of classical texts were to continue

Explanation

The English Education Act of 1835, based on Lord Macaulay's Minute, explicitly stated that no portion of the funds appropriated for education should be employed in the printing of Oriental works. Furthermore, the Act directed that while the existing Oriental institutions like the Sanskrit College and the Madrasa were not to be abolished, no fresh stipends were to be granted to any students who might thereafter enter these institutions. The primary objective was to redirect all government educational funding toward the promotion of European literature and science through the medium of the English language, effectively ending the state support for the publication of classical texts and the subsidization of students in traditional Orientalist learning centers.

33History
Which one of the following dynasties ruled under the suzerainty of Kingdom of Vijayanagar ?
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Answer: (A) Sangamas, Saluvas, Tuluvas and Aravidus

Explanation

The Vijayanagara Empire was governed by four distinct dynasties in a chronological sequence spanning over three centuries. The first was the Sangama dynasty (1336–1485), founded by Harihara I and Bukka Raya I. Following a period of internal instability, Saluva Narasimha established the Saluva dynasty (1485–1505) to restore central authority. The subsequent Tuluva dynasty (1505–1570) saw the empire reach its greatest territorial and cultural heights, particularly during the reign of Krishnadevaraya. The fourth and final line was the Aravidu dynasty (1570–1646), which ruled from capitals like Penukonda and Chandragiri after the empire was weakened following the Battle of Talikota. These four dynasties constitute the successive ruling lineages that exercised sovereignty over the Vijayanagara state.

34Economy
Which one of the following statements about the Colonial economy is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) Laissez-faire actively promoted indigenous capitalism

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The policy of Laissez-faire adopted by the British colonial government was essentially a system of one-way free trade designed to serve the interests of British industrial capital. Rather than promoting indigenous capitalism, it facilitated the influx of inexpensive, machine-made British goods into the Indian market while Indian exports faced restrictive duties in Britain. This exposure to unequal competition led to the de-industrialization of traditional Indian handicrafts and prevented the growth of local manufacturing. The colonial administration provided no protective tariffs or state support for Indian entrepreneurs, and indigenous capital was further sidelined by the dominance of British managing agencies, which controlled vital sectors like banking, shipping, and insurance. Thus, the economic environment under Laissez-faire was predatory toward local industrial development rather than promotional.

35Art and Culture
Which of the following statement(s) about Easterine Kire is/are correct ? 1. Born in Nagaland, she is a poet, novelist and children's book writer 2. She is the recipient of the Hindu Prize for the year 2015 for her poetic novel 'When the River Sleeps' 3. 'When the River Sleeps' was an exploration of the Naga spirit universe Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Easterine Kire is a distinguished writer from Nagaland who has contributed significantly to Naga literature in English as a poet, novelist, and children's book author. In 2015, her novel When the River Sleeps was awarded the Hindu Literary Prize, marking a significant milestone for literature from Northeast India. The narrative of the book is deeply rooted in Naga folklore and oral traditions, specifically exploring the spiritual world and the supernatural beliefs of the Naga people through the journey of its protagonist, Vilie. These elements confirm that she is a prolific writer from Nagaland whose award-winning work serves as a window into the complex spirit universe of her heritage.

36Economy
Which of the following statements about the Paris Agreement on Climate Change is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) The Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (INDC) pledged during the 2015 Climate Change Conference has been withdrawn in the Paris Agreement

Explanation

The Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) were not withdrawn; instead, they serve as the fundamental building blocks of the Paris Agreement. Prior to the 2015 COP21 conference, countries submitted INDCs outlining their post-2020 climate actions. According to the provisions of the Paris Agreement, when a country formally ratifies, accepts, approves, or accedes to the agreement, its INDC is converted into its first Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), unless the country specifies otherwise. These contributions represent the specific commitments made by each party to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change, forming the basis of the global effort to limit temperature rise.

37Art and Culture
Akshay Kumar was chosen for the best actor award for the 64th National Film Awards (2017) for his role in the Hindi film
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Answer: (C) Rustom

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Akshay Kumar was honored with the National Film Award for Best Actor at the 64th National Film Awards, announced in 2017, for his performance in the movie Rustom. In this crime thriller directed by Tinu Suresh Desai, he portrayed the character of Commander Rustom Pavri, a Naval Officer caught in a high-profile legal battle following a crime of passion. The story was inspired by the landmark 1959 K. M. Nanavati case. This win marked Akshay Kumar's first National Film Award in the Best Actor category, with the jury, headed by filmmaker Priyadarshan, recognizing his restrained and effective portrayal of an officer defending his integrity and marriage.

38Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the provisions of the Constitution of India is correct ?
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Answer: (A) Minorities can establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

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Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India provides that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. This fundamental right is designed to ensure that minority communities can preserve their distinct culture, script, or language and provide a meaningful education to their members. The right to administer encompasses the management of the institution, including the appointment of staff, the admission of students, and the management of assets, subject to reasonable regulations by the state regarding academic standards, health, and hygiene. The phrase of their choice indicates that these institutions are not limited to teaching the minority language or religion and may impart general secular education while maintaining their minority character. This provision acts as a safeguard to ensure that the majority does not impose its educational or cultural preferences on minority groups.

39Polity and Governance
Which of the following pair(s) is/are correctly matched ? 1. Rule of lapse : Part of grant that can be carried over to next year 2. Supplementary : An advance grant to grant meet expenditures 3. Vote on : Additional funds account granted in the course of financial year Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) None of the above

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The rule of lapse is a budgetary principle in India which dictates that any unspent balance of a grant authorized by the Parliament expires at the end of the financial year and must be returned to the Consolidated Fund of India; it cannot be carried over to the following year. A supplementary grant is sought when the amount already sanctioned by the Parliament for a specific service through the Appropriation Act is found to be insufficient for the requirements of that year. A vote on account is an advance grant made by the Lok Sabha to the executive to cover expenditure for a part of the financial year, usually two months, ensuring that the government can continue to function until the full budget and the Appropriation Bill are passed. Because each description in the question incorrectly defines the term it is paired with, none of the pairs are correctly matched.

40Art and Culture
Who among the following has won the Dadasaheb Phalke award for the year 2016 ?
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Answer: (A) K Viswanath

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Kasinadhuni Viswanath was conferred with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award for the year 2016 in recognition of his outstanding contribution to the growth and development of Indian cinema. A prolific director and actor primarily in the Telugu film industry, he is celebrated for creating films that integrate classical music, dance, and traditional arts into mainstream storytelling. His critically acclaimed works include Sankarabharanam, Sagara Sangamam, and Swathi Muthyam. The award was presented to him during the 64th National Film Awards ceremony in May 2017, making him the 48th recipient of this honor, which is India's highest award in the field of cinema.

41History
Which one of the following had created the office of the Secretary of State for India ?
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Answer: (B) The Government of India Act 1858

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The Government of India Act 1858 was enacted in the aftermath of the Indian Rebellion of 1857 to transfer the governance of India from the East India Company directly to the British Crown. This act created the office of the Secretary of State for India, who was a member of the British Cabinet and was held responsible to the British Parliament. The Secretary of State was vested with the powers and duties formerly exercised by the Court of Directors and the Board of Control, effectively ending the system of Double Government. To assist the Secretary of State in his duties, the act also established a 15-member body known as the Council of India, which served as an advisory committee on Indian affairs.

42History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (Author) | List II (Book) | |-----------------|-----------------| | A. Herman Kulke | 3. The State in India : 1000-1700 | | B. Brajadulal Chattopadhyaya | 4. The Making of Early Medieval India | | C. Peter Jackson | 1. The Delhi Sultanate : A Political and Military History | | D. Sunil Kumar | 2. The Emergence of Delhi Sultanate : AD 1192-1296 | Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Herman Kulke edited The State in India: 1000-1700, which is a collection of essential essays discussing various historiographical perspectives on the nature of the state in medieval India.

Brajadulal Chattopadhyaya is the author of The Making of Early Medieval India, a seminal work that critiques the Indian Feudalism model and offers an alternative theory based on the processes of integration and regional state formation.

Peter Jackson wrote The Delhi Sultanate: A Political and Military History, a comprehensive academic text focusing on the internal political struggles and the external Mongol threats faced by the Sultanate during the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries.

Sunil Kumar authored The Emergence of Delhi Sultanate: AD 1192-1296, which provides a detailed analysis of the construction of authority and the social history of the early Delhi Sultanate.

43History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I List II (Official) (Office held) A. Samahartri 1. Chief of the Palace Guards B. Samnidhatri 2. Chief collector of revenue C. Sansthadhyaksha 3. Treasurer D. Antaravamshika 4. Superintendent of markets Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1

Explanation

Samahartri was the Collector-General of Revenue responsible for the assessment and collection of income from the various provinces of the Mauryan Empire. Samnidhatri functioned as the Chief Treasurer who maintained the state treasury and supervised the construction of storehouses for agricultural produce and other materials. Sansthadhyaksha served as the Superintendent of Markets and was tasked with regulating trade and overseeing commercial transactions to prevent fraud. Antaravamshika was the official designated as the Chief of the Palace Guards, primarily responsible for the security of the king and the royal household within the inner quarters.

44Economy
Which of the following most suitably captures the meaning and essence of 'globalization'? 1. It is about conducting external relations between two or more States of the world 2. It is a process of coming together of world-wide social relations bypassing territories 3. It refers to thinking transterritorially about global risks affecting people 4. It has a wishful vision of suprastate governance Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

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Statement 2 identifies the sociological essence of globalization as the intensification of social relations on a worldwide scale, where social, cultural, and economic interactions increasingly transcend or bypass traditional territorial boundaries. This process is often described as deterritorialization, where the relevance of physical distance and national borders diminishes in the face of global networks. Statement 3 reflects the conceptual shift toward global consciousness, emphasizing that modern risks—such as environmental degradation, pandemics, and financial instability—are transterritorial in nature. This requires thinking beyond the nation-state because these challenges affect people globally, regardless of their location or citizenship. These two statements together capture the structural and cognitive dimensions that define globalization as a shift toward a more interconnected and integrated world.

45Science and Technology
Who among the following is one of the six winners of the Goldman Environmental Prize, for the year 2017 ?
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Answer: (C) Prafulla Samantra

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Prafulla Samantra received the Goldman Environmental Prize in 2017 for his leadership in a long-standing legal battle that halted a massive bauxite mining project in the Niyamgiri Hills of Odisha. Representing the interests of the indigenous Dongria Kondh community, he challenged the expansion plans of the UK-based company Vedanta Resources. His efforts culminated in a historic 2013 Supreme Court of India decision that required the consent of local village councils for projects on tribal land. The unanimous rejection of the mine by these councils preserved the biodiversity of the region and protected the sacred sites of the local people. As one of six global recipients that year, he was recognized for his commitment to grassroots activism and environmental justice.

46Art and Culture
Padma Shri Sudarsan Pattnaik is well known as a
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Answer: (D) sand artist

Explanation

Sudarsan Pattnaik is a world-renowned sand artist hailing from the state of Odisha. He is globally recognized for his mastery in creating intricate sand sculptures on the Puri beach, which often convey powerful social and environmental messages. In 2014, the Government of India conferred upon him the Padma Shri, the fourth-highest civilian award, for his significant contributions to the field of art. He has won numerous international awards and has represented India in sand art festivals across the world, even setting multiple Guinness World Records for his massive sand creations.

47Economy
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of different stages a budget has to go through in the Parliament? 1. Presentation of the Budget 2. Scrutiny by Departmental Committees 3. Passing of Finance Bill 4. Passing of Appropriation Bill Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 - 2 - 4 - 3

Explanation

The enactment of the budget in the Indian Parliament follows a specific procedural order. It begins with the Presentation of the Budget by the Finance Minister, followed by a general discussion. After this, the houses are adjourned for a few weeks to allow for the Scrutiny by Departmental Related Standing Committees, which examine the demands for grants in detail. Once the committees submit their reports, the Lok Sabha votes on the Demands for Grants. This is followed by the Passing of the Appropriation Bill, which provides the legal authority for the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India for the sanctioned expenditure. The final stage is the Passing of the Finance Bill, which contains the taxation and revenue proposals of the government, completing the budgetary process.

48Polity and Governance
Government of which one of the following States has appointed the Rajamannar Committee to study the Centre-State relations ?
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Answer: (D) Government of Tamil Nadu

Explanation

The Government of Tamil Nadu appointed the three-member Rajamannar Committee in September 1969 to examine the entire spectrum of Centre-State relations. Led by Dr. P.V. Rajamannar, a former Chief Justice of the Madras High Court, the committee was mandated to suggest constitutional amendments that would ensure maximum autonomy for the states. This initiative was taken during the DMK administration to address perceived imbalances in federal power. The committee submitted its report in 1971, advocating for the abolition of Articles 356, 357, and 365 (relating to President's Rule), the creation of an Inter-State Council, and the transfer of several subjects from the Union and Concurrent Lists to the State List to strengthen the federal structure of the Indian polity.

49Polity and Governance
Which one of the following was the mandate of the Dhar Commission (1948)?
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Answer: (B) To recommend whether the States can be re-organized on linguistic basis

Explanation

The Dhar Commission, formally known as the Linguistic Provinces Commission, was appointed by the President of the Constituent Assembly, Rajendra Prasad, in June 1948. Under the chairmanship of S.K. Dhar, the commission was specifically mandated to examine the feasibility and desirability of reorganizing Indian states on a linguistic basis. This was necessitated by the intense regional demands for the creation of states like Andhra based on language. The commission submitted its report in December 1948, concluding that the reorganization of states should be determined by administrative convenience, financial self-sufficiency, and geographical contiguity rather than linguistic considerations, which it believed could jeopardize national integration at that time.

50History
Which one of the following pairs of term and meaning is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Mauza : Rebellious territory

Explanation

In the Mughal administrative and revenue system, the term Mauza refers to a village or the smallest unit of revenue administration. It was essentially a revenue-paying village that constituted a part of a Pargana. On the other hand, the term used to describe rebellious or defiant territories that refused to pay land revenue and challenged central authority was Mawas or Zor-talab. Since Mauza specifically signifies a basic settled village unit and not a state of rebellion, the pair is incorrectly matched.

51Art and Culture
In which one of the following buildings the first extant true arch is found ?
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Answer: (C) Tomb of Sultan Balban

Explanation

The Tomb of Sultan Ghiyas-ud-din Balban, located in the Mehrauli Archaeological Park in Delhi and dating back to approximately 1287 AD, is historically significant for housing the first extant true arch in India. Prior to this period, early Indo-Islamic structures primarily utilized the corbelled technique, which belonged to the indigenous trabeate tradition where horizontal layers of stone were gradually projected inward until they met at the top. The true arch found in Balban's tomb was constructed using the voussoir method, involving wedge-shaped stones arranged in a curve that transmit force through mutual pressure to the supports. This transition from corbelling to the scientific true arch marked a major evolution in the structural engineering of the Delhi Sultanate, paving the way for the more refined architectural achievements of the Khalji and Tughlaq periods.

52History
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) Marco Polo has not mentioned about Pearl Fishery of Tuticorin in South India

Explanation

Marco Polo, the Venetian traveler who visited the Pandyan kingdom in South India toward the end of the 13th century (around 1292–1294 AD), provided detailed accounts of the region's commerce and natural resources. In his writings, he explicitly mentions the pearl fishery of the Gulf of Mannar, which includes the coast near Tuticorin. He described the process of pearl diving, the seasonal nature of the industry, and the immense wealth the Pandyan kings derived from the trade of these high-quality pearls. Because he extensively documented these fisheries, the statement claiming he did not mention them is historically incorrect.

53Art and Culture
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (Book) | List II (Author) | |---------------|------------------| | A. The World As I See It | 1. APJ Abdul Kalam | | B. How to Live Longer and Feel Better | 2. Stephen Hawking | | C. The Theory of Everything | 3. Albert Einstein | | D. Indomitable Spirit | 4. Linus Pauling | Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

A-3: The World As I See It is a collection of non-scientific essays and letters by Albert Einstein that detail his humanitarian and philosophical views.

B-4: How to Live Longer and Feel Better was written by the chemist Linus Pauling, who argued for the therapeutic benefits of high-dose vitamin consumption.

C-2: The Theory of Everything is a work by the theoretical physicist Stephen Hawking that summarizes the history of the universe and the quest for a unified physical theory.

D-1: Indomitable Spirit is a book written by APJ Abdul Kalam, which shares his vision for a developed India and the personal values necessary to realize it.

54Economy
Which one of the following countries has officially recognized Bitcoin as a legal payment method since 1st April 2017 ?
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Answer: (A) Japan

Explanation

On April 1, 2017, Japan enacted an amendment to its Payment Services Act that officially recognized Bitcoin and other cryptocurrencies as a legal method of payment. This legislative change classified digital currencies as a form of asset-like values that can be used for making payments and are transferable electronically. While the law did not grant Bitcoin the status of legal tender comparable to the Japanese Yen, it established a regulatory framework for cryptocurrency exchanges, requiring them to follow strict capital requirements and security standards. This move positioned Japan as one of the first major global economies to formally integrate digital currencies into its national financial regulations.

55Art and Culture
Consider the following passage and identify the person : Born in April 1932, she was a renowned Hindustani classical vocalist. She was recognized as an innovative exponent of the Jaipur Gharana. She was awarded Padma Bhushan and Padma Vibhushan. She was also a Fellow of Sangeet Natak Akademya. She died in April 2017.
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Answer: (C) Kishori Amionkar

Explanation

Kishori Amonkar was a preeminent Hindustani classical vocalist who belonged to the Jaipur-Atrauli gharana. Born on April 10, 1932, she was the daughter of the legendary vocalist Mogubai Kurdikar. Amonkar was widely regarded as an innovative performer who expanded the boundaries of her gharana by emphasizing the emotional expression of the raga over purely technical structures. Her illustrious career was marked by prestigious accolades, including the Padma Bhushan in 1987 and the Padma Vibhushan in 2002. She was also honored as a Fellow of the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2009, which is the highest honor conferred by the academy. Her death on April 3, 2017, marked the end of an era in Indian classical music.

56History
Which one of the following is the winner of the Vijay Hazare Trophy 2017 ?
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Answer: (D) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu clinched the 2016-17 Vijay Hazare Trophy by defeating Bengal in the final match held on March 20, 2017, at the Feroz Shah Kotla Ground in Delhi. In the championship match, Tamil Nadu batted first and scored 217 runs, anchored by a crucial century from Dinesh Karthik, who made 112 runs. Their bowling attack, led by Rahil Shah and Mohammed Mohammed, then restricted Bengal to 180 runs, securing a victory by 37 runs. This win marked the fifth time Tamil Nadu won the domestic 50-over title, confirming their status as a dominant force in Indian domestic cricket during that period.

57Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Committee) List II (Subject) A. Rangarajan Committee 1. Tax Reform B. Narsimhan Committee 2. Insurance Reform C. Kelkar Committee 3. Disinvestment of shares in PSEs D. Malhotra Committee 4. Banking Sector Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

The Rangarajan Committee matches with Disinvestment of shares in PSEs because it was constituted in 1993 to recommend a roadmap for liquidating government equity in public sector units to improve efficiency. The Narsimhan Committee matches with the Banking Sector as its reports in 1991 and 1998 provided the fundamental framework for financial sector reforms, including capital adequacy norms and deregulation. The Kelkar Committee matches with Tax Reform since it proposed comprehensive measures in 2002 to modernize and simplify India's direct and indirect tax systems to broaden the tax base. The Malhotra Committee matches with Insurance Reform because its 1994 report recommended the liberalization of the insurance market and the establishment of an independent regulatory authority, which led to the creation of the IRDA.

58Economy
To which of the following sectors of the economy, the activity of agriculture and services belong to ?
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Answer: (A) Primary and Tertiary respectively

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Agriculture is classified under the primary sector because it involves the direct exploitation and harvesting of natural resources, such as soil, water, and biological processes, to produce food and raw materials. This sector forms the foundational base for all other economic activities. Services are categorized under the tertiary sector, which provides intangible benefits rather than physical products. This sector acts as a support system for both the primary and secondary sectors by facilitating trade, transport, communication, and financial transactions, while also encompassing essential personal and public services like healthcare, tourism, and education.

59History
Which one of the following statements about Allahabad Prashasti is correct ?
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Answer: (C) Line 23 refers to Samudragupta violently exterminating a number of kings of Aryavarta

Explanation

The Allahabad Prashasti, also known as the Prayag Prashasti, is a detailed eulogy of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta, composed by his court poet Harisena in the 4th century CE. Inscribed on an Ashokan pillar, it classifies Samudragupta's conquests into different categories based on his treatment of the defeated rulers. Line 23 of the inscription specifically details the second Aryavarta war, during which Samudragupta adopted a policy of Prasabha-uddharana, which translates to the violent extermination or forcible uprooting of his enemies. In this line, the text lists several kings of North India (Aryavarta) who were decisively defeated and their kingdoms annexed, including Rudradeva, Matila, Nagadatta, Chandravarman, Ganapatinaga, Nagasena, Achyuta, Nandin, and Balavarman. This rigorous policy ensured the direct incorporation of the Gangetic valley into the core territory of the Gupta Empire.

60History
Which one of the following statements about the Gupta period is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) Saurashtra was not a part of the Gupta Empire

Explanation

Saurashtra was an integral part of the Gupta Empire, having been annexed during the reign of Chandragupta II. He defeated the last of the Western Kshatrapa rulers, Rudrasimha III, which extended the Gupta frontiers to the Arabian Sea and provided access to the prosperous western maritime trade. The strategic importance and continued administrative control of the region are confirmed by the Junagadh rock inscription of Skandagupta. This inscription details the appointment of Parnadatta as the provincial governor (Goptar) of Saurashtra and records the significant engineering feat of repairing the Sudarshana Lake dam under the supervision of his son, Chakrapalita. These historical records clearly demonstrate that the region was under firm Gupta sovereignty.

61Economy
Which one of the following statements about the Sukanya Samridhi Scheme is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) Interest earned thereon is exempted up to Rs. 1500 per annum

Explanation

The Sukanya Samridhi Yojana (SSY) operates under the EEE (Exempt-Exempt-Exempt) tax regime. This means that the investment made, the interest earned during the tenure, and the final maturity amount are all completely exempt from income tax. According to Section 10(11) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, there is no upper limit such as Rs. 1500 per annum on the interest exemption for this scheme. The entire interest accrued on the balance in a Sukanya Samridhi Account is tax-free, unlike certain other minor savings where interest clubbing exemptions are capped at smaller amounts.

62Economy
Which of the following are the reforms introduced in Budget 2017-2018 ? 1. Presentation of Budget advanced to 1st February to enable the Ministries to operationalise all activities from the commencement of the financial year 2. Merger of Railway Budget with General Budget to bring Railways to the centre stage of Government's Fiscal Policy 3. Removal of plan and non-plan classification of expenditure to facilitate a holistic view of allocations for Sectors and Ministries Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

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The Union Budget 2017-18 introduced three landmark structural reforms to the Indian budgetary process. The date of budget presentation was advanced to February 1st from the traditional last working day of February. This change ensured that the full appropriation process was completed before the beginning of the new financial year on April 1st, allowing ministries to utilize their allocated funds from the very start of the year.

Additionally, the separate Railway Budget was merged with the Union Budget, ending a 92-year-old practice that began in 1924 based on the Acworth Committee recommendations. This merger brought the Indian Railways into the mainstream of the government's fiscal policy and eliminated the need for a separate dividend payment to the general revenues. Finally, the classification of expenditure into plan and non-plan was abolished. Following the dissolution of the Planning Commission and the conclusion of the Twelfth Five-Year Plan, this reform shifted the focus to a more functional classification of revenue and capital expenditure, providing a comprehensive view of resource allocation across various sectors and ministries.

63Polity and Governance
'Nomadic Elephant' is a joint military exercise between India and
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Answer: (B) Mongolia

Explanation

Nomadic Elephant is a bilateral joint military exercise conducted annually between the Indian Army and the Mongolian Armed Forces. The exercise aims to train troops in counter-insurgency and counter-terrorism operations under the United Nations mandate. During these drills, soldiers from both nations share expertise in tactical operations, including room intervention, ambush techniques, and survival in different terrains. The 12th edition of this exercise took place in April 2017 at the Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School in Vairengte, Mizoram. This partnership strengthens the strategic relationship and military interoperability between India and Mongolia.

64Science and Technology
Which one of the following artificial sweeteners is modified sugar ?
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Answer: (C) Sucralose

Explanation

Sucralose is a trichloro derivative of sucrose, making it a chemically modified form of table sugar. It is synthesized by the selective substitution of three hydroxyl (-OH) groups in the sucrose molecule with chlorine atoms. This specific modification results in a sweetener that is significantly sweeter than sugar while remaining non-caloric as it is not broken down by the body for energy. Because its molecular structure is derived directly from the sucrose molecule, it maintains a taste profile very similar to sugar and exhibits high thermal stability, which allows it to be used in various cooking and baking applications where other sweeteners might decompose.

65Science and Technology
Which one of the following polymers is made of protein ?
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Answer: (C) Wool

Explanation

Wool is a natural animal fiber composed primarily of a structural protein called alpha-keratin. This protein consists of long chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. A defining feature of the protein structure in wool is the presence of sulfur-containing amino acids like cysteine, which form disulfide cross-links between the polypeptide chains. These cross-links, along with hydrogen bonding and salt bridges, provide wool with its distinctive properties of elasticity, strength, and the ability to retain its shape. Unlike plant-based fibers which are made of carbohydrates like cellulose, wool is a complex biological polymer made entirely of protein.

66Science and Technology
Which of the following diseases are caused by the consumption of water contaminated by mercury and nitrate ?
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Answer: (C) Minamata disease and Blue Baby Syndrome

Explanation

Minamata disease is a neurological syndrome caused by severe mercury poisoning. It was first identified in Minamata City, Japan, resulting from the consumption of fish and shellfish contaminated by methylmercury discharged in industrial wastewater. The condition primarily affects the central nervous system, leading to symptoms such as ataxia, numbness in hands and feet, muscle weakness, and damage to vision and hearing.

Blue Baby Syndrome, or methemoglobinemia, is caused by high levels of nitrates in drinking water, typically from agricultural runoff or sewage. In the body, particularly in infants, nitrates are converted into nitrites. These nitrites react with hemoglobin to form methemoglobin, which lacks the ability to release oxygen effectively to body tissues. This leads to oxygen deprivation and a characteristic bluish tint to the skin.

67Science and Technology
Leakage of which one of the following gases had caused Bhopal Gas Tragedy in the year 1984 ?
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Answer: (A) Methyl isocyanate

Explanation

The Bhopal Gas Tragedy, which occurred on the night of December 2-3, 1984, was caused by the accidental release of Methyl isocyanate (CH₃NCO), commonly known as MIC. This highly toxic and volatile gas leaked from the Union Carbide India Limited (UCIL) pesticide plant in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. The disaster was triggered when water entered a storage tank containing a large quantity of MIC, resulting in a runaway exothermic reaction. This reaction caused a rapid increase in temperature and pressure, which eventually forced the gas through the safety valves and into the atmosphere. MIC is an intermediate chemical used in the manufacture of carbamate pesticides. Its release led to immediate and catastrophic health effects on the surrounding population, including severe respiratory failure and blindness, making it one of the worst industrial disasters in history.

68Quantitative Aptitude
The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest for 2 years on a sum of money is Rs. 60. If the simple interest for 2 years is Rs. 1440, what is the rate of interest ?
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Answer: (D) 8 1/3%

Explanation

For a period of 2 years, the difference between Compound Interest (CI) and Simple Interest (SI) is equal to the interest earned on the first year's simple interest.

Given that the SI for 2 years is Rs. 1440, the SI for 1 year is: SI_(1 year) = 1440/2 = Rs. 720

The difference between CI and SI for 2 years is given as Rs. 60. Using the interest formula: Difference = (SI_(1 year) × R)/100

Substituting the known values: 60 = (720 × R)/100

Solving for the rate of interest R: R = (60 × 100)/720 R = 600/72 R = 100/12 R = 25/3 = 8 1/3%

69Logical Reasoning
A, B, C, D, E and F compared their marks in an examination and found that A obtained the highest marks, B obtained more marks than D, C obtained more than at least two others and E had not obtained the lowest marks. Consider the following statements : Statement 1 : At least two members obtained less marks than C Statement 2 : E and F obtained the same marks Which of the above statement(s) is/are sufficient to identify the one with the lowest marks ?
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Answer: (D) 2 only

Explanation

The objective is to identify the individual with the lowest marks among A, B, C, D, E, and F. Based on the initial conditions: A is the highest, so A is not the lowest. B obtained more marks than D (B > D), so B is not the lowest. C obtained more than at least two others, so C is not the lowest. E is not the lowest (given).

The only individuals who could potentially have the lowest marks are D or F.

Statement 1 provides that at least two members obtained fewer marks than C. This is identical to the information already provided in the premise ("C obtained more than at least two others") and does not help distinguish whether D or F is the lowest.

Statement 2 states that E and F obtained the same marks (E = F). Since the premise explicitly states that E did not obtain the lowest marks, and E and F have the same marks, F also cannot have the lowest marks.

By process of elimination: A, B, C, E, and F are all confirmed to not be the lowest. Therefore, D must be the person with the lowest marks.

Since Statement 2 alone allows us to identify D as the person with the lowest marks, it is sufficient.

70Quantitative Aptitude
Two men set out at the same time to walk towards each other from points A and B ; 72 km apart. The first man walks at the speed of 4 kmph while the second walks 2 km in the first hour, 2 1/2 km in the second hour, 3 km in the third hour, and so on. The two men will meet
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Answer: (D) midway between A and B

Explanation

Let the two men meet after n hours. The first man starts from point A and walks at a constant speed of 4 kmph. The distance covered by him in n hours is D₁ = 4n km.

The second man starts from point B and his hourly speeds form an arithmetic progression (AP) with the first term a = 2 and a common difference d = 0.5. The total distance covered by him in n hours is given by the sum of this AP: D₂ = n/2 × [2a + (n - 1)d] = n/2 × [2(2) + (n - 1)0.5] = n/2 × [4 + 0.5n - 0.5] = n/2 × [3.5 + 0.5n]

The total distance between A and B is 72 km. Therefore, the sum of distances covered by both men must equal 72 km: 4n + n/2 × [3.5 + 0.5n] = 72 8n + 3.5n + 0.5n² = 144 0.5n² + 11.5n - 144 = 0 n² + 23n - 288 = 0

Solving this quadratic equation using the factoring method: n² + 32n - 9n - 288 = 0 n(n + 32) - 9(n + 32) = 0 (n - 9)(n + 32) = 0

Since time cannot be negative, n = 9 hours. The distance from point A where they meet is D₁ = 4 × 9 = 36 km. Since the total distance is 72 km and they meet at 36 km from A, the meeting point is exactly midway between A and B.

71Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Hydro power project) A. Maithon project B. Salal project C. Rana Pratap Sagar project D. Tehri project List II 1. Chambal river 2. Bhagirathi river 3. Barakar river 4. Chenab river Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

The Maithon project is located on the Barakar river in Jharkhand and is a major dam under the Damodar Valley Corporation designed for flood control and hydroelectric power. The Salal project is a significant run-of-the-river hydroelectric scheme constructed on the Chenab river in the Reasi district of Jammu and Kashmir. The Rana Pratap Sagar project is a gravity masonry dam built on the Chambal river in Rajasthan as part of the Chambal Valley Development project. The Tehri project is a high rock and earth-fill embankment dam situated on the Bhagirathi river in Uttarakhand. These geographical and engineering associations pair Maithon with the Barakar (3), Salal with the Chenab (4), Rana Pratap Sagar with the Chambal (1), and Tehri with the Bhagirathi (2).

72Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Vegetation) A. Chaparral B. Maquis C. Fynbos D. Malle scrubs List II (Region) 1. North America 2. Southern Europe 3. South Africa 4. Australia Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 1 2 3 4

Explanation

Chaparral is a sclerophyllous shrubland plant community found primarily in the Mediterranean climate of California in North America. Maquis refers to the dense, evergreen scrub vegetation characteristic of the Mediterranean Basin, particularly throughout Southern Europe. Fynbos is a distinctive and exceptionally biodiverse shrubland biome endemic to the Western Cape region of South Africa. Mallee scrubs are open shrubland communities defined by multi-stemmed Eucalyptus plants found in the semi-arid regions of Australia.

73Geography
Which one of the following tiger reserves of India has 'Bhoorsingh the Barasingha' as its official mascot ?
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Answer: (D) Kanha tiger reserve

Explanation

Kanha Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh became the first tiger reserve in India to introduce an official mascot in March 2017. The mascot, named Bhoorsingh the Barasingha, was created to spread awareness and personify the hard-ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi), which is the state animal of Madhya Pradesh. Kanha is the only natural habitat in the world for this specific subspecies of swamp deer, which was saved from the verge of extinction through significant conservation programs. The character was designed by wildlife cartoonist Rohan Chakravarty to help connect the local community and tourists with the park's biodiversity and conservation efforts.

74Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements is present in the green pigment of leaves ?
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Answer: (A) Magnesium

Explanation

Chlorophyll is the primary green pigment found in the chloroplasts of plants, algae, and cyanobacteria. The molecular structure of chlorophyll consists of a chlorin ring, which is a heterocyclic compound derived from porphyrin, coordinated to a single central metal atom. In all forms of chlorophyll, this central metal ion is magnesium (Mg²⁺). Magnesium plays a vital role in the photosynthetic process by capturing light energy and initiating the flow of electrons. The specific electronic properties of the magnesium ion within the porphyrin-like ring allow the molecule to efficiently absorb blue and red wavelengths of light while reflecting green light, which gives leaves their characteristic color.

75Economy
Which one of the following is NOT correct about organic farming ?
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Answer: (C) It uses minimal crop rotation

Explanation

Organic farming relies heavily on crop rotation as a core management strategy to maintain soil fertility and control pests, weeds, and diseases. Instead of minimal rotation, organic systems emphasize diverse and complex rotational patterns to ensure that the soil is not depleted of specific nutrients and to break the reproductive cycles of host-specific pathogens. This practice replaces the need for synthetic fertilizers and chemical pesticides by naturally enhancing soil biology and ecological balance.

76Science and Technology
Which one of the following instruments is used for measuring moisture content of air ?
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Answer: (B) Hygrometer

Explanation

A hygrometer is a meteorological instrument specifically designed to measure the moisture content or humidity levels in the atmosphere or other gases. It functions by detecting changes in physical or electrical properties as a substance absorbs moisture. For instance, psychrometers use the cooling effect of evaporation on a wet-bulb thermometer compared to a dry-bulb thermometer to determine relative humidity. Other types include hair hygrometers, which rely on the expansion of organic fibers, and electronic versions that measure changes in electrical capacitance or resistance caused by water vapor. These measurements are crucial for weather forecasting, climate monitoring, and industrial processes where moisture levels must be precisely controlled.

77Science and Technology
Bronze is an alloy of copper and
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Answer: (C) tin

Explanation

Bronze is a metal alloy consisting primarily of copper, usually with tin as the main additive. The addition of tin increases the hardness, strength, and corrosion resistance of the copper, making it more suitable for tools, weapons, and sculptures than pure copper. Modern bronze typically consists of approximately 88 percent copper and 12 percent tin, though other elements may be added in smaller quantities for specific industrial properties. Historically, the development of bronze was significant enough to define the Bronze Age, as it provided a material that was easier to cast and more durable than the metals previously available to ancient civilizations.

78Quantitative Aptitude
The length of a rectangle is increased by 60%. By what per cent would the width have to be decreased to maintain the same area ?
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Answer: (A) 37.5%

Explanation

To maintain the same area when one dimension of a rectangle changes, the change in the other dimension follows the inverse proportionality rule. Let the initial length be L and the initial width be W. The area is A = L × W.

When the length is increased by 60%, the new length L' becomes 1.6L or (160/100)L = (8/5)L. To keep the area A constant, the new width W' must satisfy the equation L × W = L' × W'.

Substituting the value of L': L × W = (8/5)L × W' W' = (5/8)W

The decrease in width is W - W' = W - (5/8)W = (3/8)W.

To find the percentage decrease: Percentage decrease = (Decrease in width)/(Original width) × 100 Percentage decrease = (3/8 × W)/W × 100 = 3/8 × 100 = 37.5%

Alternatively, using the direct formula for percentage reduction to maintain a constant product when one factor increases by r%: Required decrease = r/(100 + r) × 100 Substituting r = 60: Required decrease = 60/(100 + 60) × 100 = 60/160 × 100 = 3/8 × 100 = 37.5%

79Quantitative Aptitude
Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 12 minutes and 16 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened together, then after how much time, B should be closed so that the tank is full in 9 minutes ?
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Answer: (B) 4 min

Explanation

Let the total capacity of the tank be represented by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 12 and 16, which is 48 units. The efficiency of pipe A is 48/12 = 4 units per minute, while the efficiency of pipe B is 48/16 = 3 units per minute. According to the problem, the tank is full in 9 minutes. Since pipe B is the only one that is closed, pipe A must have been open for the entire 9-minute duration. The volume filled by pipe A in 9 minutes is 4 units/min × 9 min = 36 units. The remaining volume of the tank to be filled by pipe B is 48 - 36 = 12 units. The time required for pipe B to fill this remaining volume is calculated by dividing the volume by its efficiency: 12/3 = 4 minutes. Thus, pipe B should be closed after 4 minutes.

80Quantitative Aptitude
One year ago, a father was four times as old as his son. After six years his age exceeds twice his son's age by 9 years. The ratio of their present age is
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Answer: (B) 11:3

Explanation

Let the present age of the father be F and the present age of the son be S.

According to the first condition, one year ago, the father was four times as old as his son. This can be expressed as: F - 1 = 4(S - 1) F - 1 = 4S - 4 F = 4S - 3 (Equation 1)

According to the second condition, after six years, the father's age exceeds twice his son's age by 9 years. This is represented by: F + 6 = 2(S + 6) + 9 F + 6 = 2S + 12 + 9 F + 6 = 2S + 21 F = 2S + 15 (Equation 2)

By equating the two expressions for F from Equation 1 and Equation 2, we can solve for S: 4S - 3 = 2S + 15 4S - 2S = 15 + 3 2S = 18 S = 9

Substituting the value of S = 9 back into Equation 1 to find the father's present age: F = 4(9) - 3 F = 36 - 3 F = 33

The present ages of the father and son are 33 and 9 years, respectively. The ratio of their present ages is 33 : 9. By dividing both terms by their common factor of 3, the simplified ratio is 11 : 3.

81Geography
Which one of the following pairs of Island and Sea/Ocean is NOT correctly matched ?
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Answer: (C) Chagos : North Pacific Ocean

Explanation

The Chagos Archipelago is located in the central Indian Ocean, positioned approximately 500 kilometres south of the Maldives. It is a group of seven atolls consisting of more than 60 individual tropical islands, including the well-known island of Diego Garcia. Administratively, it is part of the British Indian Ocean Territory. Its location in the Indian Ocean makes its pairing with the North Pacific Ocean geographically incorrect.

82Economy
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Mineral) A. Zinc B. Gold C. Chromite D. Pyrite List II (Mine) 1. Amjhore 2. Sukinda 3. Zawar 4. Hutti Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1

Explanation

The Zawar mines in Rajasthan are among the oldest and most significant sources of zinc and lead in India. The Hutti Gold Mines, located in the Raichur district of Karnataka, are a primary site for gold production in the country. The Sukinda Valley in Odisha is world-renowned for its massive chromite deposits, accounting for nearly the entire chromite resource base of India. Amjhore, situated in the Rohtas district of Bihar, is the principal location for pyrite deposits, which have been traditionally used for the extraction of sulfur and the manufacture of sulfuric acid.

83Geography
As per Census 2011, which one of the following is the correct descending order of States in India in respect of sex ratio (female per thousand of males)?
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Answer: (C) Uttarakhand - West Bengal - Madhya Pradesh - Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census data, the sex ratio representing the number of females per 1,000 males for these states is as follows: Uttarakhand recorded a sex ratio of 963, West Bengal recorded 950, Madhya Pradesh recorded 931, and Jammu and Kashmir recorded 889. Arranging these values in descending order confirms that Uttarakhand has the highest sex ratio among the group, followed by West Bengal and Madhya Pradesh, with Jammu and Kashmir having the lowest.

84Science and Technology
Liquid water is denser than ice due to
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Answer: (B) hydrogen bonding

Explanation

Water molecules are polar, which allows them to form hydrogen bonds with neighboring molecules. In the solid state (ice), these hydrogen bonds organize the water molecules into a stable, open hexagonal crystalline lattice. This tetrahedral arrangement forces the molecules to maintain a specific distance from each other, creating significant empty space or voids within the crystal structure. As a result, ice occupies more volume than the same mass of liquid water. When ice melts, the thermal energy is sufficient to break many of these rigid hydrogen bonds, causing the open lattice to collapse. This allows the water molecules to move closer together and pack more densely in the liquid phase. Therefore, the presence and specific geometry of hydrogen bonding in the solid phase directly cause ice to be less dense than liquid water.

85Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the chemical name of heavy water?
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Answer: (C) Deuterium oxide

Explanation

Heavy water is a form of water that contains a larger than normal amount of the hydrogen isotope deuterium (²H, or D), rather than the common hydrogen-1 isotope (protium) that makes up most of the hydrogen in normal water. Chemically, it is represented by the formula D₂O. Since it consists of two atoms of deuterium bonded to one atom of oxygen, its systematic chemical name is deuterium oxide. Deuterium differs from protium by having one neutron in its nucleus in addition to the proton, making the deuterium atom approximately twice as heavy as a standard hydrogen atom. This increased atomic mass results in water that is significantly denser than ordinary water, hence the name heavy water. It is commonly utilized in nuclear reactors as a neutron moderator and coolant due to its ability to slow down neutrons without capturing them effectively.

86Science and Technology
Who among the following has coined the term 'Quark', the fundamental particles that make up protons and neutrons in an atomic nucleus?
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Answer: (B) Murray Gell-Mann

Explanation

Murray Gell-Mann introduced the concept of quarks in 1964 as the fundamental building blocks of hadronic matter, such as protons and neutrons. He derived the specific name from a line in James Joyce's book Finnegans Wake, which reads Three quarks for Muster Mark!. Gell-Mann initially had the sound in mind before finding the written word in the novel. His theoretical framework, known as the Eightfold Way, successfully organized the plethora of subatomic particles discovered in the mid-20th century, leading to his Nobel Prize in Physics in 1969.

87Science and Technology
The mass number of an element is NOT changed when it emits
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Answer: (C) Beta and Gamma radiations only

Explanation

Beta (β) decay involves the transformation of a neutron into a proton or a proton into a neutron within the atomic nucleus. While this process alters the atomic number, the total number of nucleons (protons and neutrons) remains constant, meaning the mass number (A) does not change. Gamma (γ) radiation is the emission of high-energy electromagnetic photons from a nucleus in an excited state. Since photons have no mass and do not consist of nucleons, gamma emission does not change the number of protons or neutrons in the nucleus, leaving the mass number of the element unaffected.

88Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it a perfect square?
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Answer: (C) 5

Explanation

To find the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided to make it a perfect square, we first determine its prime factorization: 2880 = 2 × 1440 2880 = 2² × 720 2880 = 2³ × 360 2880 = 2⁴ × 180 2880 = 2⁵ × 90 2880 = 2⁶ × 45 2880 = 2⁶ × 3² × 5¹

For a number to be a perfect square, the exponent of every prime factor in its prime factorization must be even. In the factorization 2⁶ × 3² × 5¹, the primes 2 and 3 already have even exponents (6 and 2 respectively). However, the prime factor 5 has an odd exponent of 1. Therefore, 2880 must be divided by 5 to eliminate the factor with the odd exponent. Dividing 2880 by 5 yields 576, which is the square of 24 (24² = 576).

89Quantitative Aptitude
A 3 digit number 4X3 is added to 984 to get a 4 digit number 13Y7. If 13Y7 is divisible by 11, then what is the value of (X+Y)?
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Answer: (D) 10

Explanation

From the given addition 4X3 + 984 = 13Y7, we observe the column-wise addition. In the units column, 3 + 4 = 7. In the hundreds column, 4 + 9 = 13, which matches the first two digits of the sum. This indicates that there was no carry-over from the tens column to the hundreds column. Therefore, the sum in the tens column is X + 8 = Y, where Y < 10.

For the number 13Y7 to be divisible by 11, the difference between the sum of the digits at the odd positions and the sum of the digits at the even positions must be 0 or a multiple of 11. Sum of digits at odd positions is 7 + 3 = 10. Sum of digits at even positions is Y + 1. Setting the difference to zero, we get: 10 - (Y + 1) = 0 9 - Y = 0 ⇒ Y = 9

Using the relation X + 8 = Y and substituting Y = 9: X + 8 = 9 ⇒ X = 1

The value of (X + Y) is 1 + 9 = 10.

90Logical Reasoning
If all students are boys and all boys are dancers, then which one of the following statements is definitely true ?
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Answer: (D) All students are dancers

Explanation

The logical structure of the problem follows the transitive property of set inclusion. If we define the set of students as S, the set of boys as B, and the set of dancers as D, the first premise states that S ⊂ B (all students are boys). The second premise states that B ⊂ D (all boys are dancers). By the principle of hypothetical syllogism or transitivity in formal logic, if S is a subset of B and B is a subset of D, then S must be a subset of D. Therefore, it is a logical necessity that every student is a dancer.

91Polity and Governance
In March 2017, a High Court in India had accorded the status of living human entities to which two of the following rivers ?
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Answer: (B) Ganga and Yamuna

Explanation

In March 2017, the Uttarakhand High Court declared the Ganga and Yamuna rivers as living human entities, granting them the legal status of juristic persons. This landmark judgment meant that the rivers would have all the corresponding rights, duties, and liabilities of a living person. The court appointed the Director of the Namami Gange project, the Chief Secretary of Uttarakhand, and the Advocate General of the State as guardians (loco parentis) to protect, conserve, and preserve these rivers and their tributaries. The ruling aimed to provide a legal framework for the protection of the rivers against pollution and encroachment, drawing inspiration from a similar legal status granted to the Whanganui River in New Zealand around the same time.

92History
Which one of the following statements about land tenure system is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) Under the Mahalwari system, the agricultural lands belonged to the Government

Explanation

The Mahalwari system, introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822, treated the Mahal or village as the basic unit for revenue assessment. Under this system, the ownership rights of the agricultural land did not belong to the Government; instead, they remained with the village community or the individual peasants. The village community was held collectively responsible for the payment of land revenue, which was typically collected and paid to the state by the village headman or Lambardar. Because the proprietary rights were vested in the villagers rather than the state, the assertion that the lands belonged to the Government is incorrect.

93Geography
Which of the following are the necessary conditions for the growth of coral reefs ? 1. Photic conditions 2. Clean and sediment free water 3. Sea salinity of 6% 4. Tropical sea water with temperature of 20°C to 21°C Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

Reef-building corals thrive in shallow waters within the photic zone because they share a symbiotic relationship with zooxanthellae algae. These algae require sunlight to perform photosynthesis, which provides the coral polyps with the energy and nutrients necessary for survival. Clean and sediment-free water is essential to maintain high water transparency for light penetration and to prevent the clogging of the coral polyps' feeding apparatus. Furthermore, these organisms are generally restricted to tropical and subtropical waters where the temperature remains warm enough to support the secretion of calcium carbonate. A minimum temperature of approximately 20°C to 21°C is required for the optimal growth and calcification of the reef structure. While corals require salt water, the ideal salinity range is typically between 2.7% and 4%; a salinity of 6% is too high and would inhibit reef development.

94Geography
Which one of the following diseases is caused by Cadmium pollution ?
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Answer: (B) Itai- itai

Explanation

Itai-itai disease is a chronic condition resulting from long-term exposure to cadmium, primarily through contaminated food and water. It was first documented in Japan in the early 20th century after cadmium from mining operations was discharged into the Jinzu River and accumulated in rice fields. Cadmium is a toxic heavy metal that interferes with calcium metabolism and accumulates in the kidneys and bones. This leads to severe osteomalacia, which causes the bones to become soft and brittle, resulting in multiple painful fractures. The name of the disease translates to it hurts-it hurts, reflecting the extreme pain experienced by those affected as their skeletal structure degrades and kidney function fails.

95Geography
Presence of ozone in the atmosphere is important because it absorbs
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Answer: (A) ultraviolet-A and ultraviolet-B radiations

Explanation

The ozone layer, primarily located in the stratosphere, serves as a vital protective shield for the biosphere by absorbing solar ultraviolet radiation. Ozone molecules (O₃) are particularly effective at absorbing ultraviolet-B (UV-B) radiation, which has wavelengths between 280 nm and 315 nm. This radiation is highly energetic and can cause significant biological damage, including DNA mutations, skin cancer, and damage to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems. Additionally, while the atmosphere is more transparent to ultraviolet-A (UV-A) radiation (315 nm to 400 nm), the ozone layer still absorbs a small fraction of it. By filtering out the vast majority of UV-B and a portion of UV-A, the ozone layer prevents these harmful rays from reaching the Earth's surface in intensities that would otherwise be detrimental to life.

96Geography
NPP (Net Primary Productivity) is highest for
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Answer: (A) tropical forests

Explanation

Tropical forests exhibit the highest Net Primary Productivity (NPP) due to the combination of high solar radiation, consistently warm temperatures, and abundant rainfall throughout the year. These optimal environmental conditions eliminate seasonal growth limitations, allowing for a continuous growing season and maximum photosynthetic activity. While some aquatic ecosystems like coral reefs have high rates per unit area, tropical forests contribute the most to global terrestrial productivity because of their large geographical extent and high biomass turnover. The dense, multi-layered canopy structure further optimizes light interception, leading to an average NPP of approximately 2200 grams of dry organic matter per square meter per year. This high productivity is supported by rapid nutrient cycling in equatorial soils, which facilitates the quick assimilation of nutrients back into the massive plant biomass.

97Geography
Study of a single species and the environmental factors in its habitat is called
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Answer: (C) Autecology

Explanation

Autecology is the branch of ecology that deals with the study of an individual organism or a single species in relation to its environment. It focuses on how various environmental factors in the habitat, such as temperature, light, moisture, and soil conditions, affect the life history, distribution, and adaptations of that specific species. By analyzing the physiological and behavioral responses of a single taxonomic group to its surroundings, autecology seeks to understand the specific ecological requirements and tolerances that allow the species to survive and reproduce within its niche.

98Quantitative Aptitude
In an examination, 25% of the candidates failed in Mathematics and 12% failed in English. If 10% of the candidates failed in both the subjects and 292 candidates passed in both the subjects, which one of the following is the number of total candidates appeared in the examination?
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Answer: (B) 400

Explanation

Using the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion for two sets, let M be the set of candidates who failed in Mathematics and E be the set of candidates who failed in English. The percentage of candidates who failed in at least one subject is given by:

n(M ∪ E) = n(M) + n(E) - n(M ∩ E)

Substituting the given values: n(M ∪ E) = 25% + 12% - 10% = 27%

The percentage of candidates who passed in both subjects is the remainder of the total population: Percentage passed in both = 100% - 27% = 73%

Given that 292 candidates passed in both subjects, we can set up the equation for the total number of candidates x: 73% of x = 292 (73/100) × x = 292 x = (292 × 100)/73 x = 4 × 100 = 400

99Quantitative Aptitude
5% of income of A is equal to 15% of income of B and 10% income of B is equal to 20% of income of C . If the income of C is Rs. 2,000, then what is the total income of A , B and C ?
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Answer: (B) Rs.18,000

Explanation

Given the relations between the incomes of A, B, and C, we can establish their values starting from the known income of C.

The problem states that 10% of income of B is equal to 20% of income of C. This can be written as: (10/100) × B = (20/100) × C B = 2C Substituting C = 2000: B = 2 × 2000 = 4000

The problem also states that 5% of income of A is equal to 15% of income of B. This can be written as: (5/100) × A = (15/100) × B 5A = 15B A = 3B Substituting B = 4000: A = 3 × 4000 = 12000

The total income of A, B, and C is the sum of their individual incomes: Total Income = A + B + C = 12000 + 4000 + 2000 = 18000

100Quantitative Aptitude
If the product of n positive numbers is unity, then their sum is
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Answer: (D) never less than n

Explanation

The relationship between the sum and the product of positive numbers is governed by the Arithmetic Mean-Geometric Mean (AM-GM) Inequality. This fundamental inequality states that for any set of n positive real numbers x₁, x₂, …, xₙ, their arithmetic mean is always greater than or equal to their geometric mean:

(x₁ + x₂ + … + xₙ)/n ≥ ⁿ√(x₁ x₂ … xₙ)

In this problem, it is given that the product of the n positive numbers is unity, meaning x₁ x₂ … xₙ = 1. Substituting this value into the inequality, we get:

(x₁ + x₂ + … + xₙ)/n ≥ ⁿ√1

(x₁ + x₂ + … + xₙ)/n ≥ 1

By multiplying both sides by n, we obtain:

x₁ + x₂ + … + xₙ ≥ n

This mathematical derivation proves that the sum of these n positive numbers is always greater than or equal to n. The equality holds only when all the numbers are equal to 1. In all other cases where the product is 1, the sum will strictly exceed n. Therefore, the sum is never less than n.

101Geography
Which of the following statements about the Equatorial region are correct? 1. It is a megathermal region 2. It is a sclerophyll region 3. It is a region of high development 4. It is a region of aerial streamlets Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4

Explanation

Equatorial regions are classified as megathermal because they experience high temperatures consistently throughout the year, with mean monthly temperatures staying above 18 degrees Celsius. This continuous thermal energy, combined with high moisture, defines the Koppen A climate group and supports the most productive biomass on Earth.

The concept of aerial streamlets refers to the unique hydrological dynamics found within the dense, multi-layered canopy of tropical rainforests. High humidity and intense convectional rainfall lead to significant moisture being intercepted and stored by epiphytes, lianas, and the thick leaf litter trapped in tree crotches. These elevated water reservoirs and the trickling of water through the vertical structure of the forest create specialized niches for aquatic and semi-aquatic organisms high above the ground, effectively forming a network of streamlets within the aerial layers of the vegetation.

102Geography
Which one of the following statements about the Himalayas is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) Himalayan frontal faults (HFF) separates Himalaya from Tibet

Explanation

The Himalayan Frontal Fault (HFF), also known as the Main Frontal Thrust (MFT), is the southernmost thrust in the Himalayan mountain system. It marks the boundary where the Siwalik hills (Outer Himalayas) meet the Indo-Gangetic Plain. It does not separate the Himalayas from Tibet. The actual boundary that separates the Himalayan ranges from the Tibetan Plateau to the north is the Indus-Tsangpo Suture Zone (ITSZ), which represents the zone of collision between the Indian and Eurasian plates. The HFF is a series of active faults that accommodate the ongoing northward convergence of the Indian Plate into the Himalayan wedge.

103Geography
Which one of the following is NOT a favourable condition for occurrence of a thunderstorm ?
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Answer: (C) Advection of cold dry air in the lower troposphere and warm moist air in the upper troposphere

Explanation

Thunderstorms require high atmospheric instability to facilitate the rapid vertical ascent of air. Instability is generated when the lapse rate is steep, meaning temperature decreases rapidly with height. This usually involves warm, moist air at the surface and cold, dry air aloft. The advection of cold dry air into the lower troposphere combined with warm moist air in the upper troposphere creates a stable stratification where dense air resides below lighter air. This stable configuration suppresses convection and prevents the development of deep convective clouds, making it an unfavourable condition for thunderstorm formation.

104Geography
The ecological niche of an organism relates to
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Answer: (D) its interaction with all other organisms

Explanation

An ecological niche refers to the functional role and position of a species within its ecosystem, often described as the organism's profession. It encompasses the sum total of all the biological and environmental factors that a species requires to survive and reproduce. A critical component of this concept is how the organism interacts with other living beings in its environment, including its relationships with predators, prey, competitors, and symbionts. These interactions define how the organism utilizes resources and contributes to the flow of energy and nutrients within the community, making the species' relationship with all other organisms a fundamental aspect of its niche.

105Geography
Free swimming macroscopic animals in an aquatic environment are referred to as
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Answer: (D) Nekton

Explanation

Nekton consists of actively swimming aquatic organisms that are capable of moving independently of water currents and tides. These organisms are typically macroscopic and inhabit the pelagic zone of both marine and freshwater environments. Their physical adaptations, such as streamlined bodies and specialized locomotor structures like fins, flippers, or powerful tails, allow them to navigate through the water column with speed and precision. This group includes a diverse range of animals such as fish, whales, dolphins, seals, squids, and sea turtles. The defining characteristic of nekton is their ability to overcome physical forces like turbulence and currents to migrate, hunt, and seek mates across vast distances within the aquatic ecosystem.

106Geography
The term Biomagnifications is referred to as
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Answer: (C) accumulation of increasing amount of non-degradable pollutant through food chain

Explanation

Biomagnification refers to the process where the concentration of persistent, non-degradable pollutants increases progressively at each successive level of a food chain. Substances such as heavy metals (like mercury and arsenic) and organic pollutants (like DDT) are not easily metabolized or excreted by organisms. When these chemicals enter the environment, they are first absorbed by producers or primary consumers. As predators at higher trophic levels consume multiple organisms from the level below them, they ingest all the accumulated toxins stored in the tissues of their prey. Because these pollutants are long-lived and fat-soluble, they concentrate in the bodies of apex predators at levels much higher than those found in the surrounding environment or in organisms at the base of the food web.

107Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about air pollution caused by diesel engines is correct ?
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Answer: (C) It produces large quantity of carbon monoxide at lower temperature and nitrogen oxides at high temperature

Explanation

Diesel engine emissions are primarily governed by the temperature and efficiency of the combustion process. At lower temperatures, such as during engine startup or idling, the fuel does not burn completely due to insufficient thermal energy and poor atomization. This incomplete combustion results in the significant production of carbon monoxide (CO). As the engine reaches high operating temperatures and high pressure, conditions become ideal for the thermal fixation of atmospheric nitrogen. According to the Zeldovich mechanism, diatomic nitrogen (N₂) and oxygen (O₂) from the intake air react at temperatures typically exceeding 1600°C to form various nitrogen oxides (NOₓ). Therefore, diesel engines are characterized by higher CO output during cooler phases and higher NOₓ output during high-temperature combustion phases.

108Quantitative Aptitude
In an election which was contested by two candidates, X and Y , 4000 votes were polled. Suppose that every vote was polled in favour of either of the two candidates. Candidate Y got 40% of vote polled and was defeated. What was the margin of defeat ?
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Answer: (B) 800 votes

Explanation

In an election with two candidates where all votes are valid, the sum of the vote percentages for both candidates equals 100%. Candidate Y received 40% of the total votes, which implies that Candidate X received the remaining 100% - 40% = 60% of the votes.

The margin of defeat is defined as the difference between the number of votes polled by the winner and the loser. This can be calculated directly by finding the difference in their percentage shares and applying it to the total number of votes.

Margin percentage = 60% - 40% = 20%

Applying this to the total votes polled (4000): Margin of defeat = 20% of 4000 Margin of defeat = (20/100) × 4000 = 800

Alternatively, calculating the individual votes: Votes for X = 0.60 × 4000 = 2400 Votes for Y = 0.40 × 4000 = 1600 Difference = 2400 - 1600 = 800

109Quantitative Aptitude
The average of 7 consecutive odd numbers is M. If the next 3 odd numbers are also included, the average
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Answer: (D) increases by 3

Explanation

In an arithmetic progression (AP), the average is always the middle term (or the mean of the two middle terms). For a sequence of n terms with a common difference d, if the next k terms of the same sequence are added, the average of the entire set increases by (k × d)/2.

Consecutive odd numbers form an arithmetic progression where the common difference d is 2. The problem specifies that 3 additional odd numbers are included, making k = 3. By substituting these values into the formula:

Increase in Average = (k × d)/2 = (3 × 2)/2 = 3

Alternatively, consider the 7 consecutive odd numbers as a, a+2, a+4, a+6, a+8, a+10, a+12. The initial average M is the middle term, a+6. When the next 3 odd numbers (a+14, a+16, a+18) are added, the total count becomes 10. The new average is the mean of the 5th and 6th terms:

New Average = ((a+8) + (a+10))/2 = (2a + 18)/2 = a+9

Comparing the new average to the original: (a+9) - (a+6) = 3.

110Quantitative Aptitude
Investment in various industries/sectors across five years (in Rupees Hundred Crore) | Type of Industry/Sector | 2005-06 | 2006-07 | 2007-08 | 2008-09 | 2009-10 | |------------------------|---------|---------|---------|---------|---------| | Manufacturing | 740 | 800 | 470 | 440 | 810 | | Electrical | 500 | 520 | 600 | 650 | 800 | | Services | 420 | 480 | 500 | 600 | 750 | | Mining | 440 | 500 | 550 | 600 | 660 | | Others | 800 | 900 | 980 | 1110 | 1080 | What is the percentage increase in investment in the Electrical sector from 2005-06 to 2009-10 ?
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Answer: (D) 60%

Explanation

To calculate the percentage increase in investment in the Electrical sector from 2005-06 to 2009-10, we use the formula:

Percentage Increase = (Final Value - Initial Value)/Initial Value × 100

From the given table, the investment in the Electrical sector for the year 2005-06 was 500 (in Rupees Hundred Crore) and for the year 2009-10 was 800 (in Rupees Hundred Crore).

Substituting these values into the formula:

Initial Value = 500 Final Value = 800 Increase = 800 - 500 = 300

Percentage Increase = (300/500) × 100

Percentage Increase = (3/5) × 100 = 60%

111Quantitative Aptitude
Investment in various industries/sectors across five years (in Rupees Hundred Crore) | Type of Industry/Sector | 2005-06 | 2006-07 | 2007-08 | 2008-09 | 2009-10 | |------------------------|---------|---------|---------|---------|---------| | Manufacturing | 740 | 800 | 470 | 440 | 810 | | Electrical | 500 | 520 | 600 | 650 | 800 | | Services | 420 | 480 | 500 | 600 | 750 | | Mining | 440 | 500 | 550 | 600 | 660 | | Others | 800 | 900 | 980 | 1110 | 1080 | During the given years, what is the average investment per year for the services sector (in Rupees Hundred Crore) ?
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Answer: (B) 550

Explanation

The average investment for a sector is calculated by dividing the sum of investments over the given years by the total number of years. For the Services sector, the data points for the five years from 2005-06 to 2009-10 are 420, 480, 500, 600, and 750 (in Rupees Hundred Crore).

Average Investment = Σ Investments / n

Average = (420 + 480 + 500 + 600 + 750)/5

First, calculate the sum of the investments: 420 + 480 = 900 900 + 500 = 1400 1400 + 600 = 2000 2000 + 750 = 2750

Now, divide the total by the number of years: Average = 2750/5 = 550

The average investment per year for the services sector during the specified period is 550 Rupees Hundred Crore.

112Quantitative Aptitude
Investment in various industries/sectors across five years (in Rupees Hundred Crore) | Type of Industry/Sector | 2005-06 | 2006-07 | 2007-08 | 2008-09 | 2009-10 | |------------------------|---------|---------|---------|---------|---------| | Manufacturing | 740 | 800 | 470 | 440 | 810 | | Electrical | 500 | 520 | 600 | 650 | 800 | | Services | 420 | 480 | 500 | 600 | 750 | | Mining | 440 | 500 | 550 | 600 | 660 | | Others | 800 | 900 | 980 | 1110 | 1080 | During which one of the following years, was the total investment maximum ?
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Answer: (D) 2009-10

Explanation

To find the year with the maximum total investment, we calculate the sum of investments across all five sectors for each year provided in the options.

For the year 2006-07, the total investment is 800 + 520 + 480 + 500 + 900 = 3200 (Rupees Hundred Crore). For the year 2007-08, the total investment is 470 + 600 + 500 + 550 + 980 = 3100 (Rupees Hundred Crore). For the year 2008-09, the total investment is 440 + 650 + 600 + 600 + 1110 = 3400 (Rupees Hundred Crore). For the year 2009-10, the total investment is 810 + 800 + 750 + 660 + 1080 = 4100 (Rupees Hundred Crore).

Comparing these aggregate values, the year 2009-10 recorded the highest total investment of 4100 (Rupees Hundred Crore).

113Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a major effect of long term consumption of drinking water containing little (less than 0.5 ppm) or no fluoride ?
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Answer: (A) Cavity of tooth

Explanation

Fluoride is an essential micronutrient for dental health as it helps in the remineralization of tooth enamel. When fluoride levels in drinking water are lower than 0.5 ppm, the teeth do not receive adequate protection against acid-producing bacteria in the mouth. Fluoride ions normally replace hydroxyl ions in the hydroxyapatite crystal structure of the enamel to form fluorapatite, Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆F₂, which is much harder and more resistant to acid dissolution. In the absence of sufficient fluoride, the enamel remains more soluble and susceptible to demineralization, leading to the development of dental caries or cavities over the long term.

114Science and Technology
Carborundum is used as an abrasive, because it
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Answer: (D) is extremely hard

Explanation

Carborundum is the chemical compound silicon carbide (SiC). It is widely utilized as an abrasive in industrial applications such as grinding wheels, sandpaper, and cutting tools primarily because it is extremely hard. On the Mohs scale of mineral hardness, silicon carbide ranks approximately between 9 and 9.5, which is nearly as hard as diamond. The fundamental requirement for an effective abrasive is that it must be harder than the material it is intended to cut or wear away. Because of its high degree of hardness and resistance to wear, carborundum can effectively grind and polish a wide variety of tough materials, including glass, stone, and high-tensile metals, maintaining its sharp edges even under high-pressure friction.

115Geography
Which one of the following is NOT decomposed by bacterial action ?
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Answer: (B) Plastic materials

Explanation

Plastic materials are synthetic polymers typically derived from petroleum-based hydrocarbons. Their chemical structure consists of long, stable chains of molecules held together by strong covalent bonds that do not occur naturally. Most environmental bacteria and fungi lack the specific enzymes required to break these complex synthetic bonds. Since microbes cannot metabolize the carbon in these polymers, the material remains intact and does not undergo biological decomposition. This lack of biochemical recognition by decomposers causes plastic to persist in the environment for hundreds of years, making it a primary example of non-biodegradable waste.

116Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following number : n = [(6374)^1793 × (625)^317 × (313)^49] Which one of the following is the digit at the unit place of n ?
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Answer: (A) 0

Explanation

To find the unit digit of the product n = (6374)^(1793) × (625)^(317) × (313)^(49), we determine the unit digit of each term individually. The unit digit of a number xʸ depends only on the unit digit of the base x and the value of the exponent y based on the cycle of powers.

For the first term (6374)^(1793), the unit digit of the base is 4. The powers of 4 follow a cyclicity of 2: 4¹ = 4 and 4² = 16. Thus, 4^(odd) ends in 4 and 4^(even) ends in 6. Since the exponent 1793 is odd, the unit digit of (6374)^(1793) is 4.

For the second term (625)^(317), the unit digit of the base is 5. Any positive integer power of a number ending in 5 always results in a unit digit of 5. Therefore, the unit digit of (625)^(317) is 5.

For the third term (313)^(49), the unit digit of the base is 3. The powers of 3 follow a cyclicity of 4: 3¹ = 3, 3² = 9, 3³ = 27, 3⁴ = 81. We divide the exponent 49 by 4 to find the remainder: 49 (mod 4) = 1. The unit digit is thus 3¹ = 3.

The unit digit of the total product is the unit digit of the product of these individual results: 4 × 5 × 3 = 60. Since the product of an even number (4) and 5 always ends in 0, the final unit digit of the entire expression n is 0.

117Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the | List I (Bird Sanctuary) | List II (State) | |------------------------|------------------| | A. Sultanpur | 2. Haryana | | B. Kulik | 1. West Bengal | | C. Nawabganj | 3. Uttar Pradesh | | D. Attiveri | 4. Karnataka |
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Answer: (A) 2 1 3 4

Explanation

Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is located in the Gurugram district of Haryana and is a well-known habitat for both resident and migratory birds, including the Siberian crane. Kulik Bird Sanctuary, also known as Raiganj Bird Sanctuary, is situated in the North Dinajpur district of West Bengal and is recognized as one of the largest heronries in Asia. Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary is found in the Unnao district of Uttar Pradesh and was renamed Chandra Shekhar Azad Bird Sanctuary in 2015 to honor the freedom fighter. Attiveri Bird Sanctuary is located in the Uttara Kannada district of Karnataka and is centered around the Attiveri reservoir, attracting a variety of water birds like the Indian shag and various species of egrets.

118Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. Areas where rainfall exceeds 250 cm 2. Annual temperature 25°C - 27°C 3. Average humidity exceeds 75% 4. Trees do not shed the leaves To which one of the following types of vegetation does the above represent ?
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Answer: (A) Tropical wet evergreen

Explanation

Tropical wet evergreen forests are found in regions with heavy rainfall, typically exceeding 250 cm annually, and a very short dry season. These areas maintain a high mean annual temperature ranging from 25°C to 27°C and high average humidity levels exceeding 75%. Due to the continuous availability of moisture and heat, the vegetation remains lush and green throughout the year, as the trees do not shed their leaves simultaneously in a single season. In India, these forests are primarily located on the windward side of the Western Ghats, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the North-Eastern states, where they form dense, multi-layered structures with high biodiversity.

119Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements related to tribes in India are correct ? 1. Tharu tribes are found in Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand 2. Irula, Chenchu and Sumali tribes are found in Kerala 3. Garasia tribes are found in Goa 4. Gaddi tribes are nomadic herders of Jammu & Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The Tharu tribes are an ethnic group indigenous to the Terai region of the Himalayas, with their population concentrated in the states of Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand. The Irula, Chenchu, and Sumali represent tribal groups of the Southern Indian peninsula that are found in Kerala and neighboring southern states, contributing to the state's diverse ethnographic profile. The Gaddi tribes are prominent semi-nomadic pastoralists residing in the mountain ranges of Himachal Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir. They are characterized by their practice of transhumance, where they migrate seasonally with their herds of sheep and goats between the low-lying valleys in winter and high-altitude alpine pastures in summer.

120Geography
Consider the following statements about 'Ring of Fire' : 1. It is also known as circum-Pacific belt of volcanoes 2. It is an active seismic zone 3. It is a zone of divergent plate margin Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Ring of Fire, also known as the circum-Pacific belt, is a string of volcanoes and sites of seismic activity, or earthquakes, around the edges of the Pacific Ocean. It is characterized by a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts. This region is the most seismically active zone on Earth, accounting for approximately 90 percent of the world's earthquakes and containing about 75 percent of the world's active volcanoes. This intense activity is primarily the result of plate tectonics, specifically the interaction of the Pacific Plate with several smaller tectonic plates. The Ring of Fire is predominantly a zone of convergent plate margins where subduction occurs, meaning one plate slides beneath another, which creates the conditions for both volcanic eruptions and powerful earthquakes. It is not a zone of divergent plate margins, as those are typically found at mid-ocean ridges where plates move away from each other.

121Geography
The Bum La Pass is located in
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Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Bum La Pass is a high-altitude mountain pass situated in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh at an elevation of approximately 15,200 feet. It serves as a significant border pass between India and Tibet (China) along the Line of Actual Control. Historically, it is notable as the route taken by the 14th Dalai Lama to enter India in 1959 and was a major site of conflict during the 1962 Sino-Indian War. Today, it is one of the designated Border Personnel Meeting points where the Indian Army and the People's Liberation Army of China conduct interactions to maintain regional stability.

122Geography
Which one of the following is located at the southernmost latitude ?
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Answer: (C) Chile

Explanation

Chile possesses the southernmost territory of any sovereign state listed, extending deep into the subantarctic latitudes of the Southern Hemisphere. The southernmost point of Chilean territory is the Diego Ramírez Islands, located at approximately 56 degrees 32 minutes South latitude. Furthermore, Cape Horn, which is widely considered the southernmost tip of the South American continent and its adjacent islands, is also part of Chile and is situated at roughly 55 degrees 58 minutes South. This geographic position is significantly closer to the Antarctic Circle than the southern extremities of South Africa, Australia, or any island group within Polynesia.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2C
  3. 3C
  4. 4A
  5. 5C
  6. 6B
  7. 7A
  8. 8B
  9. 9D
  10. 10A
  11. 11D
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16D
  17. 17D
  18. 18D
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21B
  22. 22C
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26C
  27. 27B
  28. 28B
  29. 29C
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37C
  38. 38A
  39. 39D
  40. 40A
  41. 41B
  42. 42B
  43. 43B
  44. 44B
  45. 45C
  46. 46D
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54A
  55. 55C
  56. 56D
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62C
  63. 63B
  64. 64C
  65. 65C
  66. 66C
  67. 67A
  68. 68D
  69. 69D
  70. 70D
  71. 71D
  72. 72A
  73. 73D
  74. 74A
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79B
  80. 80B
  81. 81C
  82. 82C
  83. 83C
  84. 84B
  85. 85C
  86. 86B
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89D
  90. 90D
  91. 91B
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94B
  95. 95A
  96. 96A
  97. 97C
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100D
  101. 101A
  102. 102C
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105D
  106. 106C
  107. 107C
  108. 108B
  109. 109D
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112D
  113. 113A
  114. 114D
  115. 115B
  116. 116A
  117. 117A
  118. 118A
  119. 119C
  120. 120B
  121. 121B
  122. 122C

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