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CAPF AC Paper I 2020 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 124 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

124
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8
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3226%
  • Polity and Governance2520%
  • History1815%
  • Geography1613%
  • Economy1411%
  • Quantitative Aptitude1210%
  • Art and Culture54%
  • Logical Reasoning22%
1Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements for an object falling freely under the influence of gravity is correct?
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Answer: (D) Acceleration is constant all throughout the free fall

Explanation

Free fall is defined as the motion of an object where the only force acting upon it is gravity. According to Newton's Second Law, the net force is F = ma. In the case of free fall near the Earth's surface, the force of gravity is F = mg. Equating these two expressions gives ma = mg, which simplifies to a = g. The value of g is the acceleration due to gravity, which is approximately 9.8 m/s². Since this value is determined by the mass and radius of the Earth, it remains constant for the duration of the object's motion, provided the object stays relatively close to the surface and air resistance is neglected. Consequently, the object undergoes uniform acceleration throughout its entire trajectory.

2Science and Technology
Two magnetic field lines produced by the same source
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Answer: (A) never intersect

Explanation

Magnetic field lines represent the direction of the magnetic field vector B at any given point in space. The direction of the field at a specific point is determined by the tangent to the field line at that point. If two magnetic field lines were to intersect, there would be two different tangents at the point of intersection, suggesting that the magnetic field has two different directions at the same location. Since a magnetic field is a vector quantity and must have a single, unique resultant direction at any given point, it is physically impossible for the lines to cross. Consequently, magnetic field lines always form distinct, non-intersecting continuous loops.

3Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding Fleming's Rule is correct?
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Answer: (A) Fleming's left hand rule gives direction of force on a currentcarrying conductor in a magnetic field

Explanation

Fleming's Left-Hand Rule is used to determine the direction of the mechanical force (motion) exerted on a conductor carrying an electric current when it is placed within an external magnetic field. According to the rule, if the thumb, forefinger, and middle finger of the left hand are held mutually perpendicular to each other, the forefinger represents the direction of the magnetic field (B), the middle finger represents the direction of the current (I), and the thumb points in the direction of the force (F) or motion. This physical principle is the basis for the operation of electric motors, where the interaction between the current and the magnetic field results in torque.

4Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding motion is correct?
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Answer: (B) All the simple harmonic motions are necessarily periodic motions

Explanation

Simple Harmonic Motion (SHM) is a specific type of oscillatory motion where the restoring force is directly proportional to the displacement of the object from its equilibrium position and acts in the opposite direction. This relationship is mathematically expressed as F = -kx. Because the governing physics of SHM ensures that the system returns to its original state after a fixed time interval T = 2π√(m/k), the motion inherently repeats itself at regular intervals. By definition, any motion that repeats itself at fixed intervals of time is classified as periodic motion. Therefore, the structured, repetitive nature of simple harmonic motion makes it a subset of periodic motion, ensuring that every simple harmonic oscillator is also a periodic system.

5Science and Technology
The radar used by police to check over-speeding vehicles works on the principle of
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Answer: (C) Doppler effect

Explanation

The Doppler effect is the principle that describes the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer who is moving relative to the wave source. Police radar guns utilize this by emitting a radio signal at a specific frequency towards a target vehicle. When the signal hits the moving vehicle, it reflects back to the radar device. Because the vehicle is in motion, the frequency of the reflected signal is shifted compared to the original emitted frequency. If the car is moving toward the radar, the frequency increases; if it is moving away, the frequency decreases. The radar device measures this frequency shift, known as the Doppler shift Δf, and calculates the vehicle's speed using the relationship Δf = (2 · v · f₀ / c) cos θ, where v is the velocity of the vehicle, f₀ is the original frequency, c is the speed of light, and θ is the angle of observation.

6Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements with regard to Newton's third law of motion is NOT correct?
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Answer: (C) There is a cause-effect relation implied in the third law

Explanation

Newton's third law states that forces always occur in pairs, commonly referred to as action and reaction. A fundamental property of these forces is that they act simultaneously on two different interacting objects. Because the action and reaction forces occur at the exact same instant, there is no time delay between them. In scientific terms, a cause-effect relationship implies a temporal sequence where the cause precedes the effect. Since these forces are perfectly concurrent, neither force can be considered the cause of the other. The terms action and reaction are used solely for identification within the interaction and do not imply that one force is the source or trigger for the other. Therefore, the assertion that there is a cause-effect relation is conceptually inaccurate.

7Science and Technology
Magnesium is used in
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Answer: (A) fireworks to make a bright white light

Explanation

Magnesium is a highly reactive alkaline earth metal that possesses the unique property of burning with an extremely intense, brilliant white light when ignited in the presence of oxygen. This combustion reaction (2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO) is highly exothermic and releases energy in the form of bright visible light across a wide spectrum. Due to this characteristic, magnesium powder or shavings are standard components in the pyrotechnics industry, specifically used in fireworks, photographic flashes, and emergency flares to produce vivid white sparks and illumination.

8Science and Technology
Which one of the following ingredients does NOT constitute paint?
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Answer: (C) Thiourea (accelerator)

Explanation

Thiourea is a sulfur-containing organic compound with the formula SC(NH₂)₂ that is primarily utilized in the rubber industry as a vulcanization accelerator. It is also used in the production of specialized resins, in photography as a toning agent, and in the synthesis of various pharmaceuticals and pesticides. Unlike pigments, binders, or solvents, thiourea does not serve a functional purpose in the formulation of decorative or industrial paints. Its chemical properties are suited for rubber processing and chemical manufacturing rather than the stabilization or application of surface coatings.

9Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about alkaline-earth metals is NOT true?
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Answer: (D) Red colour of gemstone Ruby is due to the element beryllium present in it

Explanation

The red color of the gemstone ruby is caused by the presence of trace amounts of the element chromium (Cr³⁺) within the crystal lattice of corundum (aluminum oxide, Al₂O₃). Chromium ions replace some of the aluminum ions in the structure, absorbing specific wavelengths of light and reflecting the characteristic deep red hue. Beryllium is not the source of color in rubies; rather, it is a primary constituent of the mineral beryl, which forms gemstones like emerald and aquamarine.

10Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases produces a red light when electricity flows through it?
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Answer: (D) Neon

Explanation

Neon is a noble gas that exhibits a characteristic reddish-orange glow when an electric current passes through it at low pressure. This occurs through a process called electroluminescence, where electrical energy excites the electrons in the neon atoms to higher energy levels. As these excited electrons return to their stable ground state, they emit energy in the form of photons. The specific electron transitions within neon atoms produce a dominant emission spectrum in the wavelength range of approximately 600 nm to 700 nm. This range corresponds to the red and orange portions of the visible light spectrum, making neon the standard choice for bright red advertising signs and indicator lamps.

11Science and Technology
Which one of the following methods can be used to remove permanent hardness of water?
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Answer: (B) Ion-exchange

Explanation

The ion-exchange method, also known as the zeolite or permutit process, effectively removes permanent hardness of water caused by the presence of calcium and magnesium chlorides and sulfates. In this process, hard water is passed through a bed of ion-exchange resins or natural/synthetic zeolites like hydrated sodium aluminum silicate (Na₂Al₂Si₂O₈·xH₂O). The Ca²⁺ and Mg²⁺ ions in the water are exchanged with Na⁺ ions from the zeolite frame. The chemical reaction is Na₂Z + M²⁺ → MZ₂ + 2Na⁺, where M represents calcium or magnesium and Z represents the zeolite. This process results in the removal of the divalent cations responsible for hardness, replacing them with sodium ions which do not form insoluble precipitates with soap. Synthetic ion-exchange resins are also widely used in this manner to produce soft water for both industrial and domestic applications.

12Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT a component of photochemical smog?
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Answer: (C) Polyaromatic hydrocarbons

Explanation

Polyaromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs) are a group of organic compounds produced primarily through the incomplete combustion of organic materials such as coal, oil, wood, and gasoline. While they are significant environmental pollutants often found in soot and particulate matter, they are not considered a constituent or a byproduct of the photochemical smog cycle. Photochemical smog is a specific type of air pollution formed when sunlight triggers chemical reactions between primary pollutants like nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs), leading to the formation of secondary pollutants such as ozone (O₃) and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). PAHs do not result from these sunlight-driven atmospheric reactions and are therefore categorized as distinct combustion-related pollutants rather than components of photochemical smog.

13Science and Technology
The eukaryotic chromatin is composed of
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Answer: (B) DNA and Protein

Explanation

Eukaryotic chromatin is a complex structure found within the nucleus, primarily consisting of DNA and specialized proteins. The primary function of these proteins is to package and organize the long, linear DNA molecules into a compact form that fits within the cellular envelope. The most significant proteins associated with DNA in chromatin are histones, which are basic proteins that facilitate the formation of nucleosomes. A nucleosome represents the fundamental unit of chromatin, where DNA wraps around an octamer of histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4). In addition to histones, chromatin also contains non-histone proteins that play critical roles in DNA replication, transcriptional regulation, and maintaining the structural integrity of the chromosome. This protein-DNA interaction is essential for controlling gene expression and ensuring the proper segregation of genetic material during cell division.

14Science and Technology
In which of the following phylum, would you place an animal with a bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic body without a true internal cavity (coelom)?
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Answer: (B) Platyhelminthes

Explanation

Platyhelminthes, commonly known as flatworms, are the first group in the animal kingdom to exhibit bilateral symmetry and a triploblastic body organization. Being triploblastic means they possess three embryonic germ layers: the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. However, they are classified as acoelomates because they do not possess a true internal body cavity or coelom. In these organisms, the space between the body wall and the digestive tract is filled with a specialized tissue called parenchyma, derived from the mesoderm, rather than a fluid-filled cavity. This combination of being bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic while remaining acoelomate is a defining characteristic of this phylum.

15Science and Technology
During respiration in human beings, the actual place of gaseous exchange is
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Answer: (C) Alveoli

Explanation

Alveoli are the primary functional units of the human respiratory system where the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide takes place. Located at the terminal ends of the respiratory tree, these tiny, balloon-like air sacs possess extremely thin walls made of a single layer of epithelial cells. This structure allows them to be in intimate contact with a dense network of pulmonary capillaries. The proximity between the air in the alveoli and the blood in the capillaries facilitates the diffusion of gases across the respiratory membrane; oxygen moves from the alveolar space into the blood, while carbon dioxide moves from the blood into the alveoli to be exhaled. The presence of millions of alveoli provides a massive surface area, which is essential for meeting the metabolic oxygen demands of the body efficiently.

16Science and Technology
In human body, the hormone which is secreted into blood and which controls the rate of heart beat is
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Answer: (A) Adrenaline

Explanation

Adrenaline, also known as epinephrine, is a hormone secreted by the adrenal medulla of the adrenal glands during situations of stress, danger, or excitement. It is a primary mediator of the fight or flight response. Once released into the bloodstream, adrenaline acts directly on the heart by binding to beta-adrenergic receptors. This binding triggers a physiological cascade that increases the firing rate of the sinoatrial node and enhances the contractility of the cardiac muscle. These actions result in a rapid increase in heart rate and cardiac output, ensuring that the brain and muscles receive a higher supply of oxygenated blood to respond to the perceived threat or stressor.

17Science and Technology
In human beings, certain chemicals which cross the synapse between nerve cells are released from
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Answer: (C) nerve endings of nerve cell

Explanation

In the human nervous system, communication between neurons occurs at a junction called a synapse. When an electrical impulse reaches the terminal portion of a neuron, known as the nerve endings or axon terminals, it stimulates the synaptic vesicles stored there. These vesicles release chemical messengers called neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These chemicals diffuse across the gap and bind to specific receptors on the dendrite of the next neuron, allowing the signal to be transmitted chemically from one cell to another.

18Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the major function of platelets?
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Answer: (A) Clotting of blood

Explanation

Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are small, disc-shaped cell fragments produced from megakaryocytes in the bone marrow. Their primary physiological role is to maintain hemostasis by initiating the process of blood clotting. When a blood vessel is damaged, platelets adhere to the exposed subendothelial collagen and become activated. Upon activation, they release various signaling molecules and aggregate to form a primary platelet plug at the site of injury. Furthermore, they provide a catalytic phospholipid surface for the assembly of coagulation factor complexes, which facilitates the conversion of fibrinogen into fibrin to reinforce the clot and prevent excessive blood loss.

19Science and Technology
An electron and a photon have same de Broglie wavelength. It implies that they have the same
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Answer: (A) linear momentum

Explanation

The de Broglie hypothesis relates the wavelength λ of a particle or wave to its linear momentum p through the relation λ = h/p, where h is Planck's constant. According to this formula, the linear momentum is given by p = h/λ. Because both the electron and the photon are specified to have the same de Broglie wavelength and h is a universal constant, their linear momenta must be equal.

20Science and Technology
Oil and water do NOT mix because of the property of
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Answer: (D) surface tension

Explanation

Surface tension is the physical property that describes the cohesive forces between molecules at a liquid's surface, causing it to behave like a stretched elastic membrane. In a mixture of oil and water, the molecules of water are highly polar and held together by strong hydrogen bonds, resulting in high surface tension. Oil consists of non-polar molecules that cannot participate in these hydrogen bonds. The energy required to create a new interface between these two distinct types of molecules is represented by interfacial tension. Because the interfacial tension between water and oil is very high, the system naturally seeks to minimize its total energy by reducing the contact area between the two liquids. This leads to the separation of the substances into distinct layers, preventing them from mixing into a single phase.

21Science and Technology
At triple point the substance co-exists in 1. Liquid phase 2. Solid phase 3. Vapour phase Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The triple point of a substance is the specific temperature and pressure at which the solid, liquid, and gaseous phases coexist in stable thermodynamic equilibrium. According to Gibbs Phase Rule, F = C - P + 2, where F represents the degrees of freedom, C is the number of components, and P is the number of phases. For a pure substance (C = 1) at its triple point where three phases coexist (P = 3), the degrees of freedom F equals zero. This confirms that the triple point is an invariant point occurring at a unique condition where the sublimation curve, fusion curve, and vaporization curve meet on a phase diagram. Consequently, all three phases are present and in equilibrium with each other at this point.

22Science and Technology
Latent heat corresponds to the change in heat at constant
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Answer: (A) temperature only

Explanation

Latent heat refers to the thermal energy absorbed or released by a substance during a change in its physical state, such as melting, freezing, or vaporization, while its temperature remains fixed. The term latent, meaning hidden, describes this phenomenon because the heat added to or removed from the system does not result in a measurable change in the average kinetic energy of the molecules, which is what temperature measures. Instead, the energy is used exclusively to change the phase of the matter by overcoming or establishing intermolecular forces. For example, during the boiling of water at standard atmospheric pressure, the temperature stays at 100°C even as heat is continuously added, as that energy is entirely dedicated to converting liquid water into steam.

23Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements on photoelectric effect is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) At a frequency ν >ν0 , the kinetic energy of ejected electrons does not change on increasing the frequency of incident light

Explanation

Einstein's photoelectric equation is defined as K_max = hν - Φ, where K_max is the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons, h is Planck's constant, ν is the frequency of the incident radiation, and Φ is the work function of the metal (also expressed as hν₀). This formula demonstrates that the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected electrons depends linearly on the frequency of the incident light once the threshold frequency ν₀ is exceeded. As the frequency ν of the incident photons increases, the energy provided to each electron (hν) also increases, leading to a corresponding increase in the kinetic energy of the ejected electrons. Therefore, the kinetic energy does indeed change and specifically increases as the frequency of the incident light increases, making the statement that it does not change incorrect.

24Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the average atomic mass of chlorine atom ?
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Answer: (B) 35-5 u

Explanation

Chlorine occurs in nature as a mixture of two stable isotopes, ³⁵Cl and ³⁷Cl, in a relative abundance ratio of approximately 3:1 (75% and 25% respectively). The average atomic mass is calculated as the weighted average of these isotopic masses:

Average Mass = (Mass of isotope 1 × Abundance₁) + (Mass of isotope 2 × Abundance₂)

Substituting the values: Average Mass = (35 u × 0.75) + (37 u × 0.25) Average Mass = 26.25 u + 9.25 u = 35.5 u

This value represents the mean mass of chlorine atoms found in a natural sample, which is why the atomic mass of chlorine is expressed as a decimal rather than a whole number.

25Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT a heterocyclic aromatic compound ?
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Answer: (A) Tropolone

Explanation

Tropolone (2-hydroxy-2,4,6-cycloheptatrien-1-one) is a non-benzenoid aromatic compound consisting of a seven-membered ring. A heterocyclic compound must contain at least one atom other than carbon (such as N, O, or S) within the ring skeleton itself. In tropolone, the ring is composed entirely of seven carbon atoms, making it a carbocyclic compound. The oxygen atoms present in the structure are part of the carbonyl (C=O) and hydroxyl (-OH) functional groups attached as substituents to the carbon ring, rather than being integral members of the cyclic framework. It maintains aromatic character because it possesses a planar structure with 6π electrons, satisfying Huckel's 4n+2 rule where n=1, but remains strictly carbocyclic in nature.

26Science and Technology
Which one of the following minerals is NOT a naturally occurring silicate ?
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Answer: (D) Bauxite

Explanation

Bauxite is the primary ore of aluminium and is categorized as a sedimentary rock or a mineral mixture consisting mainly of aluminium oxide and hydroxide minerals. Its principal constituents are gibbsite Al(OH)₃, boehmite γ-AlO(OH), and diaspore α-AlO(OH). Unlike silicate minerals, which are defined by a structure of silicon-oxygen tetrahedra SiO₄⁴⁻, bauxite is an oxide/hydroxide ore. While it may contain impurities such as iron oxides, titania, and small amounts of silica in the form of clay minerals, the defining mineral components of bauxite do not contain silicon as a primary structural element.

27Science and Technology
In which part of the cell, the glucose is converted into pyruvate ?
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Answer: (C) Cytoplasm

Explanation

The conversion of glucose into pyruvate occurs through a metabolic process known as glycolysis. This process takes place entirely within the cytoplasm, specifically the cytosol, of the cell. During glycolysis, a single six-carbon glucose molecule is enzymatically broken down into two three-carbon pyruvate molecules. This pathway involves a series of ten chemical reactions, all of which are mediated by enzymes located in the cytoplasm. Because these enzymes are dissolved in the cytosolic fluid and are not housed within specific organelles, the cytoplasm serves as the primary site for this initial stage of cellular respiration. This occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells and does not require oxygen to proceed.

28Science and Technology
After fertilization, the ovule and ovary subsequently develop to form
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Answer: (A) seed and fruit respectively

Explanation

In angiosperms, the process of double fertilization triggers significant developmental changes in the floral organs. The ovule, containing the fertilized egg or zygote, undergoes maturation where its integuments harden to form the seed coat, and the internal tissues develop into the embryo and endosperm, resulting in the formation of a seed. Simultaneously, the ovary wall responds to hormonal signals by thickening and ripening to become the fruit, which serves as a protective vessel for the seeds and aids in their dispersal. This transformation ensures that the seed is encased within a fruit, following the biological sequence where the ovule develops into the seed and the ovary develops into the fruit.

29Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (C) Glucose breaks down into CO2 H2O and energy in all aerobic tissues

Explanation

Aerobic respiration is the biological process in which organic compounds like glucose are completely oxidized in the presence of oxygen to release energy. In all aerobic tissues, the breakdown of glucose begins with glycolysis in the cytoplasm and continues through the Krebs cycle and the electron transport chain within the mitochondria. The overall chemical reaction is represented as C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy (ATP). Since these tissues utilize oxygen as the final electron acceptor, the carbon atoms from glucose are fully converted into carbon dioxide, and the hydrogen atoms combine with oxygen to form water, maximizing the yield of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) for cellular functions.

30Geography
Growing two or more crops in the same field but in different rows is called
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Answer: (B) Inter cropping

Explanation

Intercropping is a farming method where two or more crops are grown simultaneously on the same piece of land in a definite row pattern. For example, a few rows of one crop may alternate with one or more rows of a different crop. This technique is designed to utilize the available resources like soil nutrients, sunlight, and water more efficiently and to reduce the risk of total crop failure due to pests or diseases, as different crops often have different susceptibilities. It ensures higher productivity per unit area compared to growing a single crop.

31Art and Culture
Who among the following won the Fed Cup Heart Award, 2020?
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Answer: (A) Sania Mirza

Explanation

Sania Mirza became the first Indian tennis player to win the Fed Cup Heart Award in 2020. She won the award in the Asia/Oceania Zone category following an online public vote where she secured over 60 percent of the total votes. The award recognized her successful return to professional tennis after a maternity break and her pivotal role in leading India to the Fed Cup playoffs for the first time. Established by the International Tennis Federation in 2009, the award aims to recognize players who represent their country with distinction, show exceptional courage on court, and demonstrate outstanding commitment to the team. Mirza donated the prize money of 2,000 dollars associated with the award to the Telangana Chief Minister's Relief Fund to aid the fight against the COVID-19 pandemic.

32Science and Technology
National Technology Day is observed on
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Answer: (C) 11 May

Explanation

National Technology Day is celebrated across India on 11 May to commemorate the anniversary of the Pokhran-II nuclear tests performed in 1998. These successful tests, conducted under Operation Shakti at the Pokhran Test Range in Rajasthan, marked India's entry into the elite club of nuclear-armed nations. Additionally, on this same day, India achieved two other significant technological milestones: the first flight of the indigenous aircraft Hansa-3 and the successful test firing of the Trishul missile. Established by Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee in 1999, the day serves to recognize the achievements and innovations of the Indian scientific and engineering community.

33Science and Technology
Which one of the following ships was deployed in 'Mission Sagar', which was sent to different countries carrying Food and COVID related items on 10 May 2020?
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Answer: (A) INS Kesari

Explanation

INS Kesari was the naval ship deployed under Mission Sagar, which commenced on May 10, 2020. This initiative was part of India's outreach to assist five island nations in the Indian Ocean—Maldives, Mauritius, Seychelles, Madagascar, and Comoros—during the COVID-19 pandemic. The ship carried nearly 580 tonnes of food aid along with essential medical supplies, including Hydroxychloroquine tablets and Ayurvedic medicines. The mission was conducted in close coordination with the Ministry of External Affairs and other government agencies, reflecting India's Security and Growth for All in the Region (SAGAR) vision. This operation demonstrated India's commitment to supporting its maritime neighbors as a first responder in times of crisis.

34Economy
Which one of the following has the largest contribution to the Gross Tax Revenue of Government of India in 2019-20 (BE)?
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Answer: (B) Corporation Tax

Explanation

According to the Union Budget 2019-20 Budget Estimates (BE), Corporation Tax was projected to be the single largest contributor to the Gross Tax Revenue of the Government of India. The budget allocated an estimated collection of approximately 7.66 lakh crore rupees to Corporation Tax, which accounted for roughly 18 percent of the total revenue receipts (represented as 18 paise for every rupee earned). While the Goods and Services Tax (GST) also contributed significantly at an estimated 18 percent in the rupee profile, its absolute projected value of 6.63 lakh crore rupees in the 2019-20 BE was lower than that of Corporation Tax, making the latter the leading source of tax revenue for that specific fiscal year.

35Economy
What is meant by MSME?
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Answer: (D) Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

Explanation

MSME stands for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. These enterprises are governed by the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, which provides the legal framework for their recognition and development in India. The classification of these enterprises was significantly revised in 2020 to include a composite criterion of investment and annual turnover. Under the updated 2020 definitions, a Micro enterprise is defined as having an investment in plant and machinery or equipment not exceeding 1 crore rupees and turnover not exceeding 5 crore rupees. A Small enterprise is defined as having investment up to 10 crore rupees and turnover up to 50 crore rupees. A Medium enterprise is defined as having investment up to 50 crore rupees and turnover up to 250 crore rupees. MSMEs are vital to the Indian economy, contributing approximately 30 percent of the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) and accounting for nearly half of the country total exports.

36Economy
Which one of the following is the top ranking country in the World Economic Forum's 74th Global Energy Transition Index?
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Answer: (C) Sweden

Explanation

The Global Energy Transition Index (ETI) 2020 was published by the World Economic Forum (WEF) as part of its Fostering Effective Energy Transition report. Sweden secured the top rank in this index for the third consecutive year, leading a total of 115 economies. The index measures countries on their current energy system performance and their readiness for transition to a secure, sustainable, affordable, and inclusive energy system. Sweden's top position was attributed to its strong commitment to environmental sustainability, high levels of renewable energy integration, and effective policy frameworks that support a transition toward a low-carbon economy.

37Polity and Governance
Operation Sadbhavna is an initiative of
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Answer: (A) Indian Army

Explanation

Operation Sadbhavna, also known as Operation Goodwill, is a socio-economic developmental initiative launched by the Indian Army in the regions of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh. Initiated in the late 1990s, the program aims to win the hearts and minds of the local population by addressing their basic needs and aspirations. The Indian Army executes various projects under this operation, focusing on sectors such as education through Army Goodwill Schools, healthcare via medical and veterinary camps, vocational training for skill development, and infrastructure projects like the construction of small bridges and water supply systems. By fostering a positive relationship between the military and the local community, the initiative serves as a critical component of the army's strategy to counter insurgency and promote peace and national integration in sensitive border areas.

38Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is the equivalent rank of 'Wing Commander' of Indian Air Force in Indian Army?
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Answer: (C) Lieutenant Colonel

Explanation

In the unified rank structure of the Indian Armed Forces, the rank of Wing Commander in the Indian Air Force is equivalent to the rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Indian Army and Commander in the Indian Navy. These positions represent the fourth level of commissioned officers, categorized as senior field-grade officers. Officers usually attain these ranks after approximately 13 years of commissioned service, and they share the same pay level and protocols across the three services to ensure administrative and operational parity.

39Economy
What is the minimum reduction in projected demand of conventional energy at the end of five years as per the 'development of solar cities' programme?
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Answer: (C) 10 per cent

Explanation

The Development of Solar Cities program, initiated by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE), aims to guide Urban Local Bodies in implementing sustainable energy practices at the municipal level. A core requirement for a city to be categorized as a Solar City under this scheme is the formulation and implementation of a master plan that targets a minimum 10% reduction in its projected demand for conventional energy over a five-year timeframe. This reduction is achieved through a combination of demand-side management, intensive energy efficiency measures, and the installation of renewable energy projects such as solar water heating systems, rooftop solar photovoltaics, and waste-to-energy plants to supplement the urban energy supply.

40Geography
Which one of the following countries has suggested the name 'Amphan' to the cyclone that devastated parts of West Bengal and Bangladesh in May 2020?
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Answer: (B) Thailand

Explanation

The name Amphan was suggested by Thailand for the super cyclonic storm that affected the Bay of Bengal region in May 2020. In the Thai language, Amphan (pronounced as Um-Pun) translates to sky. This name was the last one on the original list of cyclone names prepared in 2004 by the eight member countries of the World Meteorological Organization/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (WMO/ESCAP) Panel on Tropical Cyclones. The practice of naming cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region began in 2004 to help the scientific community, disaster managers, and the general public identify and discuss specific storms more effectively.

41Economy
Natural Population Change is calculated by
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Answer: (A) subtracting the death rate from the birth rate

Explanation

Natural population change is defined as the difference between the number of live births and the number of deaths in a population over a specific period of time. It represents the demographic growth or decline resulting purely from biological factors, excluding the effects of migration such as immigration and emigration. The formula used to determine this change is:

Natural Change = Birth Rate - Death Rate

When the birth rate is higher than the death rate, the population experiences a natural increase. If the death rate exceeds the birth rate, the population undergoes a natural decrease. This metric is a key indicator in demography used to understand the internal growth dynamics of a country or region before accounting for external population movements.

42Geography
A long narrow stretch of sand and/or shingle with one end attached to the mainland is called
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Answer: (A) Sand spit

Explanation

A sand spit is a depositional coastal landform created by the movement of sediment through longshore drift. It typically develops where the coastline changes orientation, such as at a headland or the mouth of a river. As waves strike the shore at an angle, they transport sand and shingle along the coast. When the shoreline bends inwards, the sediment continues to be deposited in a straight line, extending into the open water. This results in a long, narrow ridge that remains connected to the mainland at one end while the other end protrudes into the sea or across an estuary. Over time, wave refraction may cause the seaward end of the spit to curve, forming a hook shape.

43Geography
Which one of the following does NOT illustrate the importance of the Coral Reef?
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Answer: (D) They protect communities from earthquakes

Explanation

Coral reefs are underwater ecosystems characterized by reef-building corals that provide numerous ecological and economic services. They act as natural breakwaters by absorbing the energy of waves and storm surges, thereby protecting coastal areas from erosion and flooding. Economically, they support millions of jobs through tourism, recreation, and commercial fisheries. In various regions, coral limestone has also been harvested for use as building material. However, coral reefs do not provide protection against earthquakes. Earthquakes are seismic phenomena resulting from the sudden release of energy in the Earth's lithosphere, creating seismic waves that travel through the crust. These geological events are driven by tectonic forces deep underground, and the presence of biological structures like coral reefs on the seabed has no physical capacity to mitigate the vibrations or structural impacts caused by seismic activity.

44Geography
Which one of the following statements about the Acacia tree is/are correct? 1. It has a long shallow root system which enables it to find moisture 2. It has thorny leaves to prevent water loss 3. It has wide crown so the foliage can absorb the maximum Sunlight Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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Acacia trees in arid and semi-arid environments have evolved a specialized root system to maximize water acquisition. They possess an extensive network of long, shallow lateral roots that spread horizontally just beneath the soil surface, often extending far beyond the tree's canopy. This adaptation allows the tree to rapidly absorb moisture from light rainfall, morning dew, and surface runoff before it can evaporate in the high-heat environment. By spreading over a large area, these roots ensure the tree can exploit even minimal amounts of surface moisture in regions where deep groundwater may be difficult to access.

45Art and Culture
Dardic group of language belongs to which language family?
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Answer: (A) Indo European

Explanation

The Dardic languages are a sub-group of the Indo-Aryan branch belonging to the Indo-Iranian division of the Indo-European language family. These languages are primarily spoken in the northern regions of Pakistan, eastern Afghanistan, and the Kashmir valley in India. Prominent languages within this group include Kashmiri, Shina, and Khowar. While historically some linguists considered them a distinct branch between the Iranian and Indo-Aryan groups, modern linguistic classification firmly places Dardic languages within the broader Indo-European framework due to shared phonological and grammatical roots with other Indo-Aryan languages. Kashmiri is the only Dardic language that possesses a significant literary tradition and is officially recognized in the Constitution of India.

46Economy
2011 Census has divided the working population of India into four major categories. Which one of the following is NOT one of them?
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Answer: (B) Domestic workers

Explanation

The Census of India 2011 classifies the total working population, comprising both main and marginal workers, into four distinct industrial categories for the purpose of occupational data collection. These four categories are Cultivators, Agricultural Labourers, Household Industrial Workers, and Other Workers. Domestic workers do not constitute a separate primary category in this framework. Instead, they are classified under the broad category of Other Workers, which serves as a residual group including all those engaged in economic activities not covered by the first three categories, such as those working in the service sector, trade, commerce, construction, and government offices.

47Economy
Which of the following statements about employment situation in India according to periodic Labour Force Survey 2017-18 is/are correct? 1. Construction sector gave employment to nearly one-tenth of urban male workforce in India 2. Nearly one-fourth of urban female workers in India were working in manufacturing sector 3. One-fourth of rural female workers in India were engaged in the agriculture sector Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 2 only

Explanation

According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2017-18 report, the manufacturing sector employed approximately 25.2 percent of the urban female workforce in India. This figure aligns with the description of nearly one-fourth of workers in that demographic. In contrast, the data for other sectors shows significant deviations from the statements provided. The agricultural sector actually employed about 73.2 percent of the rural female workforce, which is nearly three-fourths rather than one-fourth. Similarly, the construction sector accounted for 11.7 percent of the urban male workforce, a figure that is statistically closer to one-eighth than the one-tenth threshold. Therefore, only the statement regarding urban female workers in the manufacturing sector is supported by the survey data.

48Economy
Kumar used to eat 30 samosas in a month when the price of each samosa was ₹12. When the price of samosa increased to ₹15 per piece, he eats only 20 samosas a month. What is the price elasticity of demand for samosa by Kumar?
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Answer: (A) 1.33

Explanation

Price elasticity of demand (Eₚ) measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to a change in its price. It is calculated using the formula: Eₚ = (Percentage change in quantity demanded) / (Percentage change in price)

Given the following values: Initial Quantity (Q₁) = 30, New Quantity (Q₂) = 20 Initial Price (P₁) = 12, New Price (P₂) = 15

First, calculate the change in quantity (ΔQ) and the change in price (ΔP): ΔQ = 20 - 30 = -10 ΔP = 15 - 12 = 3

The percentage change in quantity demanded is: (ΔQ / Q₁) × 100 = (-10 / 30) × 100 = -33.33%

The percentage change in price is: (ΔP / P₁) × 100 = (3 / 12) × 100 = 25%

Substituting these values into the elasticity formula and taking the absolute value (as price elasticity of demand is usually reported as a positive number): Eₚ = |-33.33% / 25%| = 1.33

Alternatively, using the point elasticity formula Eₚ = (ΔQ / ΔP) × (P₁ / Q₁): Eₚ = (10/3) × (12/30) = 120/90 = 1.33

49Economy
Which of the following goods are included to estimate food inflation in India? 1. Wheat 2. Paddy 3. Tobacco 4. Sugar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Food inflation in India is primarily measured through the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and the Wholesale Price Index (WPI). In the CPI (Combined) basket, the "Food and Beverages" group accounts for nearly 45.86 percent of the total weight. This group includes essential items such as Wheat and Paddy (the source of Rice) under the Cereals and Products sub-group, and Sugar under the Sugar and Confectionery sub-group. Similarly, in the WPI, Wheat and Paddy are classified as primary food articles, while Sugar is treated as a manufactured food product. Tobacco is excluded from food inflation calculations because it is categorized separately under the "Pan, tobacco and intoxicants" group in the CPI and as a non-food manufactured item in the WPI.

50History
In which of the following states high yielding varieties of food grains were introduced as part of the first phase of Green Revolution (1966–72)? 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Tamil Nadu 3. Punjab 4. Haryana Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 3 and 4 only

Explanation

The first phase of the Green Revolution, spanning from the mid-1960s to the mid-1970s, was characterized by a specific regional concentration and a narrow crop focus, primarily wheat. This phase relied heavily on the introduction of high yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds that required assured irrigation, high doses of fertilizers, and pesticides. Consequently, the technology was restricted to regions that already possessed developed irrigation infrastructure and suitable agro-climatic conditions for wheat cultivation.

Punjab and Haryana were the primary states where these conditions were met. The pre-existing canal networks and the presence of enterprising farmers in these states allowed for the rapid adoption of the Mexican semi-dwarf wheat varieties. During this period, the benefits of the Green Revolution remained largely confined to the northwestern wheat belt, which also included western Uttar Pradesh. The expansion of high yielding varieties to rice-growing states and a broader geographic area occurred during the second phase of the Green Revolution starting in the mid-1970s.

51History
Which of the following is/are the most distinctive artefacts of the Harappan Civilization? 1. Steatite seal 2. Bricks of a standardised ratio 3. Gold bangles 4. Silver spittoon Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Steatite seals are the most unique and defining archaeological finds of the Harappan Civilization. These seals, usually square or rectangular, often depict animal motifs such as the unicorn, humped bull, and rhinoceros, alongside inscriptions in the undeciphered Indus script. They played a vital role in long-distance trade by serving as stamps to authenticate the origin and integrity of goods.

The use of bricks with a standardized ratio is another hallmark of Harappan engineering and administrative uniformity. Across all major urban centers and smaller settlements, the bricks followed a consistent ratio of 4:2:1 in terms of length, breadth, and thickness respectively. This level of standardization in construction material, maintained across vast geographical distances regardless of the size or location of the settlement, is a testament to the civilizations advanced sense of urban planning and centralized regulation.

52History
Which one of the following is NOT listed as one of the sixteen mahajanapadas in the pre-Mauryan period?
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Answer: (D) Kalinga

Explanation

The list of the sixteen mahajanapadas, known as the Sodasa Mahajanapadas, is primarily documented in ancient Buddhist texts like the Anguttara Nikaya and Jain texts like the Bhagavati Sutra. These states represented the major political entities in northern and central India during the 6th century BCE. The standard list consists of Anga, Magadha, Kasi, Kosala, Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja. Kalinga, located in the eastern coastal region corresponding to modern-day Odisha, was an important ancient kingdom but does not appear in the canonical list of the sixteen mahajanapadas. It became historically prominent in the later pre-Mauryan and Mauryan periods, most notably for its resistance against the Mauryan emperor Ashoka.

53History
Which of the following are prescribed as the duties of Vaishyas according to the Dharmashastras? 1. Studying the Vedas 2. Engaging in trade Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

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The Dharmashastras and other ancient legal texts like the Manusmriti categorized society into four varnas, with the first three groups—Brahmins, Kshatriyas, and Vaishyas—being designated as Dvija or twice-born. As members of the Dvija category, Vaishyas were entitled to undergo the Upanayana (sacred thread) ceremony, which granted them the religious right and duty to study the Vedas and perform Vedic sacrifices.

In addition to these spiritual duties, the Dharmashastras specifically prescribed the economic functions of the Vaishya varna. Their primary worldly responsibilities included trade and commerce, agriculture, cattle rearing, and money lending. Therefore, both the pursuit of Vedic knowledge and the engagement in mercantile activities were established duties for this social group in the ancient Indian social hierarchy.

54History
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Satavahanas ruled over parts of western India and the Deccan 2. The Satavahanas repaired and rebuilt Sudarshana Lake Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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The Satavahana dynasty emerged as a major power in the Deccan following the decline of the Mauryan Empire. Their rule spanned approximately from the late second century BCE to the early third century CE, covering a vast territory that included the modern-day states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and parts of Karnataka and Gujarat. They established their capital at Pratishthana (modern Paithan) and played a crucial role in the political and cultural landscape of Western India.

The Sudarshana Lake was an artificial reservoir located in the Girnar region of Saurashtra, Gujarat. Historical records, such as the Junagadh rock inscription, confirm that it was originally constructed by Pushyagupta, a provincial governor under Chandragupta Maurya. The lake was later repaired and improved by the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I in the second century CE and the Gupta ruler Skandagupta in the fifth century CE. There is no historical or epigraphical evidence attributing the repair or rebuilding of Sudarshana Lake to the Satavahana rulers.

55Polity and Governance
In relation to the fundamental duties enshrined in the Constitution of India, which one of the following is NOT correct?
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Answer: (D) They may not be used for determining constitutionality of laws

Explanation

The Supreme Court has ruled that Fundamental Duties can be used by the judiciary to determine the constitutionality of a law. In various judgments, the court has held that if a law is challenged for its validity and it is found that the law seeks to give effect to a Fundamental Duty, the court may consider such a law to be reasonable in relation to Article 14 or Article 19. This means Fundamental Duties serve as a valuable guide for the courts in interpreting statutes and assessing whether a legislative restriction is constitutionally permissible. Therefore, they play a significant role in judicial review and constitutional interpretation, contrary to the claim that they cannot be used for such purposes.

56Polity and Governance
The Governor of a state may exercise discretionary powers when 1. he or she is not convinced by the advice of the Council of Ministers 2. the Constitution requires him/her to act in his/her discretion in certain matters 3. he or she is appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

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Article 163 of the Constitution provides that the Governor shall exercise his functions with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, except in cases where the Constitution expressly requires him to act in his discretion. These constitutional discretionary powers include specific duties such as reserving a bill for the President's consideration or recommending the imposition of President's Rule under Article 356. Additionally, under Article 239(2), when the Governor of a state is concurrently appointed as the administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, he must exercise his functions as such administrator independently of his state Council of Ministers. In this specific role, the Governor acts in his own discretion to ensure the effective administration of the Union Territory.

57Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT true of socialism?
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Answer: (C) Socialists believe that class divisions in society are a fact and therefore irremediable

Explanation

Socialism is fundamentally based on the premise that class divisions are a product of specific historical and economic structures, particularly the private ownership of the means of production, and are therefore remediable. A core objective of socialist ideology is the pursuit of social equality and the eventual elimination of class-based hierarchies through the collective or public control of resources. Rather than accepting class conflict as an unchangeable reality, socialists believe that through systematic social and economic reform or revolution, society can be restructured to bridge these divides and ensure that all individuals have equal access to power and wealth.

58Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Concept) List II (Explanation/Aim) A. Pluralist democracy 1. Power is always exercised by a privileged few B. People's democracy 2. Highest and harmonious capacities C. Developmental democracy 3. Social equality through common ownership of wealth D. Elitist democracy 4. Capacity of groups to ensure Governmental responsiveness Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Pluralist democracy is characterized by the capacity of various autonomous groups to compete and ensure that the government remains responsive to diverse societal interests. People's democracy is a model derived from Marxist theory that seeks to establish social equality through the common ownership of wealth and the means of production. Developmental democracy focuses on the intrinsic value of democratic participation in developing the highest and most harmonious intellectual and moral capacities of individuals. Elitist democracy argues that regardless of democratic structures, political power is fundamentally concentrated and always exercised by a privileged few.

59Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Central Public Sector Undertakings (CPSUs) is recognized as Miniratnas ?
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Answer: (A) Airport Authority of India

Explanation

The Airports Authority of India (AAI) is classified as a Miniratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. This designation is granted to CPSEs that have maintained continuous profitability for the last three financial years, have a positive net worth, and have earned a combined pre-tax profit of at least 30 crore INR in one of those three years. AAI is responsible for the development, management, and operation of civil aviation infrastructure in India, providing air traffic management services and overseeing a vast network of domestic and international airports.

60Economy
Which one of the following educational development indicators is currently used by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to construct Human Development Index ?
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Answer: (C) Mean Years of Schooling

Explanation

The education dimension of the Human Development Index (HDI), as defined by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) since 2010, is measured by two primary indicators: Mean Years of Schooling and Expected Years of Schooling. Mean Years of Schooling specifically tracks the average number of years of education completed by residents of a country aged 25 years and older. It is calculated based on the educational attainment levels of the adult population, providing an assessment of the current stock of human capital. This indicator, along with Expected Years of Schooling for children, replaced older metrics like adult literacy and gross enrollment ratios to provide a more nuanced and contemporary reflection of educational achievement and progress across different nations.

61Economy
Which one of the following was recognized as 'invisible hand' by Adam Smith ?
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Answer: (B) Market/Price Mechanism

Explanation

Adam Smith introduced the concept of the invisible hand in his 1776 work, An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations. The term describes the unintended social benefits resulting from individual actions motivated by self-interest. In a free-market economy, individuals seeking their own profit interact through the market or price mechanism. These interactions determine the equilibrium price and quantity of goods, acting as a signal that guides producers on what to make and consumers on what to buy. By responding to these price signals, resources are allocated efficiently across the economy to meet society's needs and desires, effectively regulating the economy without the need for central coordination or external interference.

62Economy
Fixation of price levels for wheat and rice by the Commission for Agriculture Costs and Prices (CACP) is an example of ?
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Answer: (D) Support Price

Explanation

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) is responsible for recommending the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for various agricultural commodities, including wheat and rice. This price is considered a support price because it functions as a government-guaranteed floor price to protect farmers against significant drops in market prices. By fixing these levels, the government ensures that farmers receive a minimum remunerative price for their produce, thereby incentivizing production and providing food security. The CACP analyzes several factors such as the cost of production, changes in input prices, trends in market prices, and demand-supply situations before submitting its recommendations to the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), which then takes the final decision on the price levels for each cropping season.

63Economy
Mobile phone operators market in India is an example of
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Answer: (C) Oligopoly

Explanation

The mobile phone operators market in India is characterized as an oligopoly because it is dominated by a small number of large firms, primarily Reliance Jio, Bharti Airtel, and Vodafone Idea, along with the state-run BSNL/MTNL. In an oligopoly, the actions of one firm significantly influence the others, leading to high interdependence in pricing and service strategies. This market structure features high barriers to entry due to the massive capital requirements for infrastructure development and the acquisition of expensive spectrum licenses. As of 2020, these few players accounted for the vast majority of the market share, competing through both price adjustments and non-price factors like network coverage and bundled digital services.

64Economy
Which of the following sectors contribute in recent years to the deterioration of asset quality of commercial banks by way of Non-Performing Assets? 1. Agriculture and allied sector 2. Industrial sector 3. Infrastructure sector 4. Information technology sector Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The deterioration of asset quality in Indian commercial banks is a multi-sectoral phenomenon driven by specific economic and structural factors. In the agricultural sector, non-performing assets have increased due to the moral hazard created by frequent farm loan waivers and income instability caused by erratic monsoon patterns. The industrial sector, particularly segments like textiles and mining, contributes heavily due to high leverage and stalled projects resulting from global commodity price fluctuations. The infrastructure sector, including power and roads, remains a major source of stressed assets because of long gestation periods, land acquisition delays, and regulatory bottlenecks that impede cash flows. While the information technology sector typically maintains lower delinquency rates, it still contributes to the total pool of bad loans through defaults by smaller IT service firms and startups facing challenges from automation and shifting global demand. Together, these sectors account for the vast majority of the credit stress recorded by banks in recent years.

65Geography
The distance between two successive crests or troughs of sea waves is called as
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Answer: (A) Wavelength

Explanation

Wavelength is defined as the horizontal distance between two successive crests or two successive troughs of a wave. In fluid dynamics and oceanography, it represents the spatial period of the wave, indicating the physical length of one complete wave cycle. This measurement is fundamental in determining wave behavior, including its speed and how it interacts with the seafloor as it moves into shallower water. The relationship between wavelength λ, wave period T, and wave speed c is expressed by the formula c = λ / T.

66Geography
Which one of the following is NOT a Mediterranean country?
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Answer: (C) North Sudan

Explanation

North Sudan (officially the Republic of Sudan) is located in Northeast Africa and possesses a coastline along the Red Sea to its east. However, it does not border the Mediterranean Sea. Geographically, it is situated south of Egypt, which acts as a land barrier between Sudan and the Mediterranean coast. While other North African nations have northern borders defined by the Mediterranean basin, Sudan’s maritime access is restricted to the Red Sea via its eastern ports like Port Sudan.

67Polity and Governance
PAHAL, an initiative to transfer the subsidy to direct bank account of the beneficiaries, is related to
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Answer: (A) LPG consumers

Explanation

The PAHAL (Pratyaksh Hanstantrit Labh) scheme, launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, is the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) mechanism specifically designed for LPG subsidy. Under this initiative, consumers purchase LPG cylinders from distributors at the prevailing market price, and the subsidy amount is subsequently credited directly into their Aadhaar-linked bank accounts. The primary objective of the scheme is to curb leakages, eliminate ghost or duplicate connections, and prevent the diversion of subsidized domestic fuel for commercial use. By ensuring that the financial benefit reaches the intended beneficiaries directly, PAHAL has been recognized as one of the largest cash transfer programs globally.

68Geography
Which one of the following karst landforms is the largest in size?
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Answer: (A) Polje

Explanation

Poljes are the largest of all closed depressions in karst topography. These extensive, flat-bottomed basins can reach several kilometers in length and width, sometimes covering hundreds of square kilometers. Their formation is typically driven by a combination of tectonic activity, such as down-faulting, and intensive chemical solution of limestone over long geological periods. A polje is characterized by steep surrounding hills and a floor often covered with fertile alluvial soil or terra rossa. Drainage within a polje is primarily underground through natural openings called ponors. Due to their scale and relatively level floors, poljes often form the most significant agricultural and settlement areas within rugged limestone regions.

69Geography
Singapore is known as Port of Call because
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Answer: (C) it is on main sea route where ships use to anchor for refueling, watering and taking food items

Explanation

A port of call is a functional classification for ports situated along major international maritime trade routes where vessels stop briefly for reasons other than the primary loading or unloading of cargo destined for that specific location. Singapore occupies a highly strategic geographical position at the crossroads of the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean, specifically at the southern tip of the Malay Peninsula overlooking the Strait of Malacca. Because it lies on the primary sea route connecting Europe and the Middle East with East Asia, it serves as an essential transit hub. Ships traversing these long distances utilize Singapore to replenish their fuel supplies, a process known as bunkering, and to take on fresh water and food provisions. This logistical support for passing vessels makes it one of the most prominent examples of a port of call globally.

70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to Censure Motion is NOT correct?
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Answer: (A) A leave of the House is required to move it

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A Censure Motion does not require the "leave of the House" to be moved or admitted in the Lok Sabha. In Indian parliamentary procedure, the "leave of the House" is a specific requirement reserved for a No-Confidence Motion under Rule 198, which necessitates the support of at least 50 members (who must rise in their places) before the motion can be taken up for discussion. In contrast, a Censure Motion is admitted by the Speaker like any other substantive motion, provided it clearly states the specific reasons or grounds for censuring the government or an individual minister. It does not require a preliminary show of support by a minimum number of members for its introduction.

71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT a correct feature of a Money Bill?
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Answer: (D) It can be referred to a joint committee of the two Houses

Explanation

According to the constitutional procedure laid down in Article 109 and Article 110, a Money Bill is subject to the exclusive jurisdiction of the Lok Sabha. While Article 108 provides for a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock between the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha, this provision specifically excludes Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills. Since the Rajya Sabha possesses very limited powers regarding Money Bills—it can only suggest recommendations within 14 days and cannot reject or amend the bill—there is no possibility of a deadlock that would necessitate a joint sitting or a referral to a joint committee of the two Houses. The decision of the Lok Sabha to accept or reject any recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha is final, ensuring that the legislative process for a Money Bill remains within the primary control of the lower house.

72Polity and Governance
The idea of social justice requires that 1. equal treatment be supplemented with principle of proportionality 2. due and equal consideration is given to all individuals 3. equality of treatment be transcended to recognise special needs Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1,2 and 3

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Social justice is a multifaceted concept built upon three core principles that ensure fairness in society. The first principle is equal treatment for equals, which dictates that all individuals should be given due and equal consideration as human beings, possessing the same rights regardless of their background. However, treating everyone identically is not always sufficient for justice. Therefore, it is supplemented by the principle of proportionality, which recognizes that rewards and responsibilities should be distributed in proportion to the effort, skill, or quality of work provided by an individual.

The third dimension involves the recognition of special needs. This acknowledges that some individuals face physical disabilities or historical disadvantages that prevent them from competing on an equal footing. To achieve substantive justice, society must transcend formal equality of treatment to provide special provisions for those with specific requirements. By integrating these three aspects—equal treatment, proportionality according to merit, and affirmative action for special needs—the framework of social justice addresses both individual merit and collective welfare.

73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct?
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Answer: (B) He/she enjoys right of audience only in the Supreme Court and High Courts in India

Explanation

According to Article 76(3) of the Constitution of India, the Attorney-General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India while performing official duties. This right is not restricted to the Supreme Court and High Courts but extends to all subordinate courts and tribunals across the country. As the highest law officer in the country, the Attorney-General is authorized to appear on behalf of the Government of India in any judicial proceeding where the interests of the Union are involved.

74Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are correct in relation to the Panchayats? 1. Only the Parliament may endow Panchayats with powers and authority 2. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in preparation of plans for economic development and social justice 3. A state may devolve powers to Panchayats in implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3

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Article 243G of the Constitution of India empowers the State Legislatures to enact laws that endow Panchayats with the necessary powers and authority to function as institutions of self-government. This constitutional provision specifically stipulates that the State may devolve responsibilities to Panchayats for the preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Furthermore, it allows for the devolution of powers regarding the implementation of schemes for economic development and social justice, including those related to the twenty-nine subjects listed in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution. This decentralization ensures that local bodies have the mandate to both plan and execute developmental programs tailored to their specific regional needs under the authority granted by the state.

75History
Which one of the following statements about the Bhakti Movement in South India is NOT correct?
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Answer: (C) Karaikkal Ammaiyar was a devotee of Vishnu

Explanation

Karaikkal Ammaiyar was one of the three prominent female saints among the 63 Nayanars, who were the poet-saints devoted to Lord Shiva in South India during the 6th to 9th centuries. She chose the path of extreme asceticism to demonstrate her devotion to Shiva and is credited with composing hymns such as the Arputha Thiruvanthathi and Thiruvalangadu Mootha Thirupathigam. These works are included in the eleventh volume of the Tirumurai, which is the foundational canon of Tamil Shaiva Siddhanta. Her association was strictly with the Shaivite tradition, distinguishing her from the Alvars who were the devotees of Vishnu.

76Art and Culture
Who among the following is the author of the Kiratarjuniya?
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Answer: (B) Bharavi

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Bharavi was a renowned 6th-century Sanskrit poet best known for his mahakavya (great epic) titled Kiratarjuniya. This work is one of the most celebrated poems in classical Sanskrit literature and is based on a specific episode from the Vana Parva of the Mahabharata. It describes the struggle and eventual duel between the Pandava prince Arjuna and Lord Shiva, who appears disguised as a Kirata or mountain hunter. Through this combat, Arjuna proves his merit and receives the divine Pashupata weapon. Bharavi is particularly distinguished for his style characterized by Arthagauravam, which refers to the immense depth of meaning conveyed through concise and powerful expression.

77Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the correct description of Kandaria Mahadeo?
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Answer: (D) A temple at Khajuraho

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The Kandariya Mahadeva Temple is the largest and most ornate Hindu temple within the Western Group of temples at Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh. Built by the Chandela ruler Vidhyadhara around 1025–1050 CE, it represents the zenith of the Nagara style of temple architecture. The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is characterized by its towering shikhara, which consists of eighty-four secondary spires resembling a mountain range. Its name is derived from Kandariya, meaning cave, and Mahadeva, a title for Shiva, signifying the God of the Cave. The structure is celebrated for its sophisticated architectural plan and intricate sculptures, which include celestial beings, musicians, and complex friezes reflecting the high artistic standards of the Chandela period.

78History
Consider the following statements about the Lingayats: 1. They bury their dead 2. They are great believers in the caste system, especially in the theory of purity and pollution 3. They are against child marriage and favour widow remarriage Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3

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The Lingayats, followers of the 12th-century social reformer Basavanna, reject the authority of the Vedas and the Brahmanical social order. They believe that upon death, the devotee is united with Shiva and will not return to this world; hence, they bury their dead in a sitting posture instead of cremating them. The movement was founded on the principles of social equality and specifically challenged the caste-based hierarchy and the theory of ritual purity and pollution. Consequently, the Lingayats advocated for progressive social reforms, including the disapproval of child marriage and the active encouragement of widow remarriage, as reflected in the Vachana literature.

79Art and Culture
At which one of the following places is the Vitthala temple located?
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Answer: (C) Hampi

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The Vitthala Temple, also known as the Vijaya Vitthala Temple, is an architectural masterpiece located in Hampi, Karnataka. Built during the 15th century under the reign of King Devaraya II and significantly enhanced by Krishna Deva Raya of the Vijayanagara Empire, the temple is dedicated to Lord Vitthala, an incarnation of Lord Vishnu. It represents the pinnacle of Vijayanagara style of architecture and is famous for its iconic Stone Chariot and the musical pillars within the Maha Mandapa. These fifty-six monolithic pillars are known to emit musical notes when tapped. The temple is a central feature of the Hampi group of monuments, which is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site.

80Polity and Governance
In relation to the powers of the Union Government of India, which one of the following statements is NOT correct?
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Answer: (B) The Union Government may not entrust a State Government with functions over matters where executive power of the Union extends

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Article 258 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the power of the Union to confer powers and functions on States in certain cases. According to Article 258(1), the President may, with the consent of the Government of a State, entrust either conditionally or unconditionally to that Government or to its officers functions in relation to any matter to which the executive power of the Union extends. Additionally, Article 258(2) allows a law made by Parliament to confer powers and impose duties upon a State or its officers and authorities, even if the subject matter is one over which the State Legislature has no power to make laws. These provisions are designed to ensure administrative cooperation between the Union and the States, allowing the Union to utilize the State administrative machinery for the implementation of federal laws and policies.

81Polity and Governance
As per provisions of the Constitution of India, which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (B) Both Parliament and State Legislatures have the power to legislate over a subject under the Concurrent List

Explanation

Article 246 of the Constitution of India provides for the distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States through the Seventh Schedule. Specifically, Article 246(2) confers the power to legislate on matters listed in the Concurrent List (List III) upon both the Parliament and the Legislatures of the States. This shared jurisdiction allows both levels of government to address issues of common concern, such as education, forests, trade unions, and marriage laws. While both entities have the authority to enact laws on these subjects, Article 254 establishes the principle of federal supremacy, ensuring that in the event of a conflict between a central law and a state law on a concurrent subject, the law made by Parliament usually prevails to maintain uniform legal standards across the country.

82Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) regarding passing a law under the State List is/are correct? 1. Even in the sphere (State List) exclusively reserved for the States, Parliament can legislate under certain circumstances. 2. Parliament cannot legislate a subject under the State List under any circumstances. 3. A resolution supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting is required to be passed by Rajya Sabha to pass a law under the State List. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

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The Constitution of India provides specific mechanisms through which the Parliament can legislate on subjects mentioned in the State List. Under Article 249, if the Rajya Sabha declares by a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest, Parliament gains the power to make laws for the whole or any part of India on that specific state subject. Furthermore, the Parliament can exercise legislative authority over the State List under other circumstances such as during a proclamation of National Emergency under Article 250, when two or more states pass resolutions requesting Parliament to do so under Article 252, for implementing international agreements under Article 253, or when President's Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356. These provisions ensure that the federal structure remains flexible enough to address national priorities and emergencies.

83Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) regarding promulgation of ordinance is/are correct? 1. President can promulgate ordinances which are of temporary duration. 2. An ordinance promulgated by the President has to be ratified by Parliament within six weeks of its re-assembly. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Article 123 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament when immediate action is required. These ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament but are inherently temporary in nature. Every ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament upon their re-assembly. It ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the date of re-assembly unless a resolution disapproving it is passed by both Houses or it is replaced by a formal Act of Parliament. If the Houses are summoned to reassemble on different dates, the six-week period is calculated from the later of those dates. This mechanism ensures that the executive's law-making power is subject to legislative oversight and is strictly limited in duration.

84Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Name of Shifting Cultivation) List II (Country) A. Milpa 1. Zaire B. Ladang 2. Brazil C. Rocca 3. Malaysia D. Masole 4. Mexico Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

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Milpa is the traditional shifting cultivation system practiced in Mexico and parts of Central America, where farmers clear land for crops like maize and beans. Ladang is the indigenous term for slash-and-burn agriculture in Malaysia and Indonesia. Rocca (or Roca) refers to the shifting cultivation methods utilized in Brazil, particularly in the tropical rainforest regions. Masole is the local name for shifting cultivation in Zaire (the Democratic Republic of the Congo) and other parts of the Congo Basin in Central Africa.

85Polity and Governance
SAUBHAGYA, a Central Government scheme, is related to
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Answer: (D) achieving universal household electrification in the country

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, commonly known as the SAUBHAGYA scheme, was launched by the Government of India in September 2017 with the specific goal of achieving universal household electrification. The scheme focuses on providing last-mile connectivity and electricity connections to all remaining un-electrified households in both rural and urban areas. Under this initiative, the government identifies beneficiaries using Socio Economic and Caste Census data to provide free electricity connections to economically disadvantaged families, while other households can access the facility at a nominal cost. The Rural Electrification Corporation Limited acts as the nodal agency for the implementation of the project across the country. By ensuring that every home has access to power, the scheme aims to improve health, education, and economic opportunities for citizens.

86Science and Technology
The Cartagena Protocol, to which India is a party, is related to
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Answer: (B) biosafety, negotiated under the aegis of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Explanation

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety is an international treaty that governs the movements of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology from one country to another. It was adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) and entered into force in 2003. The protocol seeks to protect biological diversity from the potential risks posed by LMOs by establishing procedures for the safe transfer, handling, and use of such organisms. It specifically features the Advance Informed Agreement (AIA) procedure, which ensures that countries are provided with the information necessary to make informed decisions before agreeing to the import of LMOs into their territory. India is a party to this protocol, having ratified it in 2003.

87Geography
Transition zone of varied natural vegetation occupying the boundary between two adjacent and differing plant communities is known as
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Answer: (B) ecotone

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An ecotone is a transitional area of vegetation between two different plant communities, such as a forest and a grassland. It serves as a junction zone where two diverse ecosystems meet and integrate, often exhibiting a gradual shift from one set of environmental conditions and species to another. This zone frequently possesses high biodiversity and a greater population density of certain species compared to the neighboring communities, a phenomenon known as the edge effect. Common examples of ecotones include mangroves, which exist between terrestrial and marine ecosystems, and marshlands, which represent the transition between dry land and water bodies.

88History
Consider the following statements about sulh-i kul : 1. It means 'absolute peace' 2. It provided for freedom of expression to all religions and schools of thought 3. The ideal of sulh-i kul was implemented through state policies Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

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Sulh-i kul is a Persian term that translates to absolute peace or universal peace, representing a cornerstone of the Mughal ideology of governance under Akbar. This policy ensured that within the empire, all religions and schools of thought had the freedom of expression, provided they did not undermine the authority of the state or engage in mutual conflict. Akbar implemented this ideal through concrete state policies, such as the abolition of the pilgrimage tax in 1563 and the jizya tax in 1564, which were both based on religious discrimination. The nobility was also structured as a composite body comprising Turanis, Iranis, Afghans, Rajputs, and Indian Muslims, ensuring that positions of power were granted on the basis of service and loyalty to the king rather than religious identity. Akbar and his successors, Jahangir and Shah Jahan, further promoted these principles by issuing instructions to administrative officers to uphold the spirit of tolerance and universal harmony in their jurisdictions.

89History
Which one of the following statements about the religious policies of the Mughal kings is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (C) Not all Mughal emperors gave grants for the building and maintenance of places of worship

Explanation

According to historical records and standard academic texts such as the NCERT, all Mughal emperors provided grants for the building and maintenance of various places of worship, including temples, gurdwaras, and churches. These grants were issued to ensure political stability, earn the loyalty of different social groups, and maintain social harmony across the empire. The practice of extending patronage to religious institutions was a common administrative feature of the Mughal state, regardless of the personal religious leanings of the individual monarch. Since even the most orthodox rulers continued this tradition of state patronage, the statement that not all emperors gave such grants is historically inaccurate.

90History
Tulsidas was the author of 1. Ramcharitmanas 2. Padavali 3. Kavitavali Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

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Tulsidas was a pre-eminent poet-saint of the Bhakti movement who wrote primarily in Awadhi and Braj Bhasha during the 16th century. Ramcharitmanas is his most celebrated work, an epic poem composed in Awadhi that narrates the life of Lord Rama and is considered a masterpiece of vernacular literature. Kavitavali is another major literary contribution by Tulsidas, written in Braj Bhasha, which utilizes poetic meters like Kavitta and Savaiya to describe various episodes of the Ramayana, including the burning of Lanka and the social conditions of his time. His other significant works include Vinaya Patrika, Dohavali, and Gitavali, all of which reflect his deep devotion to Rama and his mastery over different linguistic styles of Northern India.

91History
On which one of the following conditions, did the Marathas agree to serve the Mughal king with a cavalry contingent of 15,000 in the early 18th century?
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Answer: (C) The right to levy chauth and sardeshmukhi in the Deccan and South India

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The agreement was formalized in 1719 through a treaty between the Maratha Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath and the Sayyid Brothers, who were acting on behalf of the Mughal Emperor. Under the terms of this arrangement, the Maratha ruler Shahu was granted the right to collect Chauth (one-fourth of the land revenue) and Sardeshmukhi (an additional ten percent) from the six Mughal subahs of the Deccan and parts of South India. In exchange for these lucrative revenue rights and the formal recognition of Maratha sovereignty over their homeland, the Marathas agreed to maintain a contingent of 15,000 cavalry for the service of the Mughal Emperor, pay an annual tribute, and ensure peace and stability in the Deccan region.

92Polity and Governance
According to the Delimitation Commission of India and subject to Article 333 of the Constitution of India, what is the maximum number of members that a State Legislative Assembly may have?
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Answer: (B) 500

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Article 170 of the Constitution of India provides for the composition of the Legislative Assemblies of the states. According to Article 170(1), the Legislative Assembly of each state shall consist of not more than 500 and not less than 60 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the state. This limit is subject to the provisions of Article 333, which, until the 104th Amendment Act of 2019, allowed the Governor of a state to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the Assembly if they were not adequately represented. Despite the provision for nomination, the constitutional cap for elected members is fixed at 500. The Delimitation Commission determines the number and boundaries of constituencies such that the total number of seats in the Legislative Assembly of each state does not exceed this specified limit.

93History
Who among the following was the first non-official member to be elected as Speaker of the Central Legislative Assembly on 24-8-1925 ?
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Answer: (A) Vithalbhai J Patel

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Vithalbhai J. Patel, a prominent leader of the Swaraj Party and the elder brother of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, became the first Indian to be elected as the President (Speaker) of the Central Legislative Assembly on August 24, 1925. Under the Government of India Act 1919, the initial Speaker, Sir Frederick Whyte, was an official appointee of the British government. When the position became open for election, the Swarajists nominated Vithalbhai Patel, who defeated the government-supported candidate, T. Rangachariar, by a narrow margin of two votes. His election represented a major victory for the nationalist movement, as he worked to establish parliamentary independence and set precedents for the role of the Speaker by maintaining a neutral and dignified stance separate from the British executive.

94Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to Speaker/Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha ? 1. On dissolution of the Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker cease to be members of the House. 2. Both Speaker and Deputy Speaker vacate their office on dissolution of the Lok Sabha 3. Only Deputy Speaker vacates his office and Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the Lok Sabha after dissolution Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

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When the Lok Sabha is dissolved, every member of the House, including the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, ceases to be a member of the House. This is because the House itself is no longer in existence. However, the office of the Speaker is treated differently to ensure administrative and ceremonial continuity. According to the second proviso to Article 94 of the Constitution of India, whenever the House of the People is dissolved, the Speaker shall not vacate his office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. This constitutional protection does not extend to the Deputy Speaker. Consequently, the Deputy Speaker vacates his office immediately upon dissolution, as he ceases to be a member of the House, while the Speaker continues to hold office until the new Lok Sabha meets for the first time.

95Polity and Governance
With regard to Panel of Chairperson, Lok Sabha, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Panel of Chairperson is drawn from the ruling party only 2. Panel of Chairperson is nominated by different political parties and appointed by Speaker, Lok Sabha 3. Panel of Chairperson consists of 10 members and one of them presides over the House when both Speaker and Deputy Speaker are not there Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 3 only

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Under Rule 9 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates from amongst the members a panel of not more than ten Chairpersons. Any one of these members may preside over the House when both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are absent from a sitting. While presiding, a member of the panel has the same powers as the Speaker. The panel remains in office until a new panel is nominated by the Speaker. It is important to distinguish between absence and vacancy; if the office of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker is vacant, a member of the panel cannot preside. In the event of a vacancy, the duties of the Speaker are performed by a member of the House appointed by the President for that specific purpose. Traditionally, the Speaker nominates members from various political parties to this panel to ensure the House is presided over in a representative and impartial manner.

96Geography
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) Chaparral vegetation is found in Taiga climate

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Chaparral vegetation consists of dense, evergreen, sclerophyllous (hard-leaved) shrubs and small trees that are specifically adapted to the Mediterranean climate. This climate is characterized by mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. Chaparral is most famously found in California, as well as similar Mediterranean-style biomes in central Chile, the Mediterranean basin, South Africa, and parts of Australia. In contrast, the Taiga climate, also known as the Boreal forest or Subarctic climate, is found in high northern latitudes and experiences long, very cold winters and short, cool summers. The dominant vegetation in the Taiga consists of coniferous, needle-leaved trees like spruce, pine, and fir, which are biologically and climatically distinct from the drought-resistant shrubs of the Chaparral.

97Geography
Consider the following statements : 1. River Kaveri has well developed valley 2. Valley of River Alakananda is still growing 3. River Krishna is largest east flowing peninsular river Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2

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The Kaveri is a mature peninsular river that flows through a stable geological terrain. Over millions of years, it has developed a broad, shallow, and well-developed valley with a graded profile, which is typical of the mature stage of a river system. The Alakananda, as a primary headstream of the Ganga in the Himalayas, flows through a geologically young and rising mountain range. These Himalayan rivers are in a youthful stage, characterized by high velocity and significant vertical erosion that creates deep gorges and V-shaped valleys which are still actively deepening and growing. Regarding the dimensions of peninsular rivers, the Godavari is the largest east-flowing river, whereas the Krishna is the second-largest, making the third statement factually incorrect. Therefore, only the first and second statements are correct.

98Geography
According to Koppen's climatic classifications of India, Great Northern Plains are represented by
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Answer: (A) Cwg Climate

Explanation

Under Koppen's climatic classification of India, the Great Northern Plains are categorized as Cwg, which stands for a humid subtropical climate with a dry winter. In this notation, C represents a warm temperate climate where the mean temperature of the coldest month is between 18°C and -3°C. The lowercase w indicates a dry winter season, meaning the majority of precipitation occurs during the summer months due to the southwest monsoon. The lowercase g refers to the Ganges type of temperature distribution, where the hottest month occurs before the summer solstice and the onset of the rainy season. This climatic type covers most of the Indo-Gangetic plains, including parts of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal.

99Geography
Which one among the following stations receives maximum rainfall ?
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Answer: (D) Raipur

Explanation

Raipur receives an average annual rainfall of approximately 1,200 mm to 1,300 mm. This high level of precipitation is primarily due to its geographical location in Central India, which lies directly in the path of the moisture-laden winds and monsoon depressions originating from the Bay of Bengal branch of the Southwest Monsoon. The city benefits from its proximity to the tracks of these low-pressure systems as they move inland, leading to more frequent and intense rainfall compared to stations located further north or in the rain-shadow regions of the Deccan Plateau.

100Geography
Which one among the following countries does NOT have common boundary with South Africa?
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Answer: (A) Zambia

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Zambia is a landlocked nation in Southern Africa that does not share a direct territorial boundary with South Africa. Geographically, it is situated further north and is separated from the South African border by other sovereign states that lie between the two countries. While it has boundaries with several nations in the region, its territory does not extend to the South African frontier, resulting in a total lack of common borders.

101History
Consider the following statements about the Treaty of Amritsar (1809): 1. The Treaty fixed the Sutlej as the boundary between the Punjab and British India 2. It was after this treaty that Maharaja Ranjit Singh was able to annex Jammu, Multan and Kashmir to his domains Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Treaty of Amritsar, signed on April 25, 1809, between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and Charles Metcalfe representing the British East India Company, established the Sutlej River as the permanent boundary between their respective territories. Under this agreement, Ranjit Singh accepted the Sutlej as the southern limit of his kingdom, effectively giving up his ambitions to control the Cis-Sutlej states.

This diplomatic settlement was a strategic turning point for the Sikh Empire because it secured the Maharaja’s eastern frontier against British interference. With the threat from the British neutralized, Ranjit Singh was able to redirect his military focus toward the west and north. This led to a period of significant territorial expansion where he successfully annexed Multan in 1818 and Kashmir in 1819. While Jammu had been brought under Sikh influence shortly before the treaty, the stability provided by the 1809 agreement allowed for the firm consolidation of his rule over Jammu and the surrounding hill states, eventually leading to the creation of a vast and unified Sikh Empire.

102History
Which one of the following statements about the Harappan script is NOT correct?
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Answer: (D) It refers to the people of Meluhha

Explanation

The Harappan script remains undeciphered, meaning that the linguistic content and the specific names or terms used by the Harappans themselves are unknown. The name Meluhha does not appear in Harappan inscriptions; instead, it is found in Mesopotamian cuneiform texts. Mesopotamian records from the third millennium BCE refer to trade relations with a region they called Meluhha, which modern historians and archaeologists have identified as the Indus Valley civilization. Because the Harappan script cannot yet be read, it is impossible to claim that the script refers to the people of Meluhha or any other specific group by that name.

103History
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Parmahansa Mandali was founded in Bengal by Swami Vivekananda 2. Prarthana Samaj was started in Maharashtra with the aim of reforming Hindu religious thought and practice Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 in Bombay, Maharashtra, by Atmaram Pandurang, following the visit of Keshab Chandra Sen. Its primary objective was to reform Hindu religious thought and practice, focusing on monotheism and the abolition of social evils like the caste system, child marriage, and the prohibition of widow remarriage. Prominent leaders such as Mahadev Govind Ranade and R.G. Bhandarkar later joined and strengthened its social reform agenda.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Paramahansa Mandali was founded in 1849 in Bombay, not Bengal, by Dadoba Pandurang and Mehtaji Durgaram. It was a secret society that worked towards the abolition of caste distinctions and the promotion of monotheistic worship. Swami Vivekananda was the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897, which was a distinct organization based in Bengal focused on humanitarian relief and social service.

104History
Which one of the following is NOT correct about Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi Yatra or Salt March?
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Answer: (D) The march began after the failure of the First Round Table Conference in London

Explanation

The Dandi March, which initiated the Civil Disobedience Movement, took place from March 12 to April 6, 1930. In contrast, the First Round Table Conference was convened in London much later, from November 12, 1930, to January 19, 1931. The Indian National Congress boycotted this first conference because it was actively engaged in the Salt Satyagraha and widespread protests across India. It was only after the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact in March 1931 that the Civil Disobedience Movement was suspended, leading to Mahatma Gandhi's participation in the Second Round Table Conference. Consequently, the march occurred several months before the First Round Table Conference even began, making the claim that it started after the conference's failure chronologically incorrect.

105History
The British Committee of the Indian National Congress was founded in
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Answer: (A) 1889

Explanation

The British Committee of the Indian National Congress was established in July 1889 in London. Its primary purpose was to influence public opinion in Great Britain and sensitize the British Parliament regarding Indian grievances and political aspirations. Sir William Wedderburn served as the committee's chairman, and William Digby was its secretary. To facilitate its propaganda work, the committee started publishing a journal titled India in 1890, which provided a platform to present the Indian perspective to the British public. This committee represented the early nationalist strategy of the Congress, which focused on constitutional agitation and seeking reforms by engaging directly with the British political establishment.

106History
Tamilakam was the name of the ancient Tamil country that included
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Answer: (B) land between present day Tirupati hills and the southernmost tip of peninsula

Explanation

Tamilakam, also known as Tamizhagam, refers to the geographical and cultural region inhabited by ancient Tamil-speaking people during the Sangam period. Historical and literary sources, specifically the prefatory verse of the Tolkappiyam, define its boundaries as extending from the Vengadam hills (modern-day Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh) in the north to Kanyakumari, the southernmost tip of the Indian peninsula, in the south. This region was bounded by the Bay of Bengal to the east and the Arabian Sea to the west. It traditionally encompassed the territories of the three crown kings—the Cheras, Cholas, and Pandyas—and covers the present-day states of Tamil Nadu and Kerala, along with parts of southern Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.

107Polity and Governance
A member giving notice of a resolution for removal of Speaker, Lok Sabha should be addressed to the
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Answer: (B) Secretary General, Lok Sabha

Explanation

According to Rule 200 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, a member wishing to give notice of a resolution for the removal of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker, under clause (c) of Article 94 of the Constitution, must do so in writing to the Secretary-General. The Secretary-General is the administrative head of the Lok Sabha Secretariat and handles all formal communications and notices related to the proceedings of the House. Under the constitutional requirement, at least fourteen days' notice must be given before such a resolution can be moved in the Lok Sabha.

108Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding Public Accounts Committee is correct?
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Answer: (A) It consists of fifteen members from Lok Sabha and seven members from Rajya Sabha

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is the oldest financial standing committee of the Parliament of India, originally established in 1921 under the Government of India Act, 1919. It performs the critical function of examining the annual audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to ensure that the executive spends public money as per the authorization of the Parliament. The committee consists of exactly 22 members, with 15 members elected from the Lok Sabha and 7 members elected from the Rajya Sabha. These members are chosen annually through the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, which ensures that different political parties in the Parliament receive adequate representation in the committee's oversight activities.

109Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with regard to the Speaker, Lok Sabha is/are correct? 1. The election of the Speaker of Lok Sabha is conducted by the Election Commission of India 2. The Speaker on assuming his office is not required to make and subscribe oath or affirmation 3. The Speaker does not exercise a casting vote in case of equality of votes Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 2 only

Explanation

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is not required to take a separate oath or affirmation upon assuming office because they have already subscribed to the oath as a Member of Parliament before the Pro-tem Speaker. The election of the Speaker is conducted by the Lok Sabha itself, with the date of the election being fixed by the President of India, rather than the Election Commission. Furthermore, under Article 100 of the Constitution, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance but possesses and must exercise a casting vote in the event of an equality of votes (a tie) to resolve a deadlock and maintain the neutrality of the chair.

110Polity and Governance
Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?
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Answer: (B) Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly of India on December 11, 1946. After the Assembly first met on December 9, 1946, with Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha serving as the temporary chairman, the members unanimously chose Dr. Prasad to lead the body. In this capacity, he presided over the sessions and moderated the historic debates that shaped the drafting of the Indian Constitution until its final adoption. He later transitioned from this role to become the first President of the Republic of India when the Constitution came into effect in 1950.

111Quantitative Aptitude
In an exam, a candidate attempts 20 questions and scores 72 marks. If 5 marks are awarded for each correct answer and 2 marks are deducted for each wrong answer, then how many questions were answered correctly by him?
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Answer: (C) 16

Explanation

To find the number of correct answers, we use the formula for total marks S = (x · c) - ((N - x) · w), where S is the total score, N is the total questions attempted, x is the number of correct answers, c is the marks per correct answer, and w is the penalty per wrong answer. Solving for x gives the formula:

x = (S + (N × w)) / (c + w)

Substituting the values S = 72, N = 20, c = 5, and w = 2:

x = (72 + (20 × 2)) / (5 + 2) x = (72 + 40) / 7 x = 112 / 7 = 16

With 16 correct answers, the candidate earns 16 × 5 = 80 marks. Since 20 questions were attempted in total, the number of wrong answers is 20 - 16 = 4. These 4 wrong answers result in a deduction of 4 × 2 = 8 marks, resulting in a final score of 80 - 8 = 72.

112Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is the greatest number by which the product of three consecutive even numbers would be exactly divisible?
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Answer: (C) 48

Explanation

Any three consecutive even numbers can be represented as 2n, 2n+2, and 2n+4, where n is a positive integer. The product P of these numbers is P = (2n)(2n+2)(2n+4) = 8n(n+1)(n+2). The term n(n+1)(n+2) is the product of three consecutive integers. According to the property of consecutive integers, the product of k consecutive integers is always divisible by k!. Thus, n(n+1)(n+2) is divisible by 3!, which is 3 × 2 × 1 = 6. Since the total product P is 8 multiplied by a term divisible by 6, the product P is always divisible by 8 × 6 = 48. Taking the smallest possible set of consecutive even numbers, 2, 4, and 6, their product is 2 × 4 × 6 = 48, which confirms that 48 is the greatest number that will exactly divide the product in all cases.

113Quantitative Aptitude
If 15% of A is double of 30% of B then what is the ratio of A to B ?
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Answer: (D) 4:1

Explanation

The relationship stated in the problem can be expressed through the equation 15% × A = 2 × (30% × B). By converting the percentages into their decimal equivalents, the equation becomes 0.15 × A = 2 × (0.30 × B). Simplifying the right side of the expression gives 0.15A = 0.60B. To find the ratio of A to B, we rearrange the equation to isolate the fraction A/B by dividing both sides by 0.15 and by B. This results in A/B = 0.60 / 0.15. Multiplying both the numerator and the denominator by 100 to eliminate the decimals gives A/B = 60 / 15. Dividing both numbers by their greatest common divisor, which is 15, simplifies the fraction to A/B = 4/1, which represents the ratio 4:1.

114Quantitative Aptitude
The cost of gold varies directly as the cube of its weight. A gold piece weighing 20 decigram costs ₹1,000. If it is broken into two pieces whose weights are in the ratio 2:3 , then what is the profit or loss incurred?
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Answer: (D) ₹720 loss

Explanation

Let the cost of gold be C and its weight be w. The problem states that C = kw³, where k is a proportionality constant. For the original piece, 1000 = k(20³), which gives 1000 = 8000k, or k = 1/8.

The gold piece is broken into two parts with weights in the ratio 2:3. The weight of the first piece is w₁ = (2/(2+3)) × 20 = 8 decigram, and the weight of the second piece is w₂ = (3/(2+3)) × 20 = 12 decigram.

The total cost of the broken pieces is calculated by summing the costs of the individual parts: C_new = k(w₁³ + w₂³) C_new = (1/8)(8³ + 12³) C_new = (1/8)(512 + 1728) = 2240/8 = 280

The change in value is the difference between the initial cost and the new cost: 1000 - 280 = 720. Because the combined value of the pieces is less than the value of the original solid piece, a loss of ₹720 is incurred.

115Quantitative Aptitude
The average age of the boys in a class is 12 years. The average age of the girls in the class is 11 years. There are 50% more girls than boys in the class. Which one of the following is the average age of the class (in years)?
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Answer: (B) 11.4 years

Explanation

Let the number of boys in the class be B. Given that there are 50% more girls than boys, the number of girls G is B + 0.5B = 1.5B. This gives a ratio of boys to girls of B : G = 1 : 1.5, or 2 : 3 when expressed in simplest integer form.

The average age of the entire class is calculated using the weighted average formula: Average = ((n₁ × x₁) + (n₂ × x₂)) / (n₁ + n₂)

Substituting the ratio values (n₁ = 2 for boys, n₂ = 3 for girls) and their respective average ages (x₁ = 12, x₂ = 11): Average = ((2 × 12) + (3 × 11)) / (2 + 3) Average = (24 + 33) / 5 Average = 57 / 5 = 11.4

Therefore, the average age of the class is 11.4 years.

116Quantitative Aptitude
A sum triples in ten years under compound interest at a certain rate of interest, the interest is being compounded annually. In how many years, it would become nine times?
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Answer: (A) 20 years

Explanation

In compound interest, a sum grows geometrically. If a sum becomes k times in t years, it becomes kⁿ times in n × t years. In this case, the sum triples (k = 3) in 10 years. To find when it becomes nine times, we recognize that 9 = 3², so n = 2. Thus, the time required is 2 × 10 = 20 years. This relation is derived from the standard formula A = P(1 + r)^t. Given 3 = (1 + r)^(10), we want to solve for t in the equation 9 = (1 + r)^t. Substituting 3² for 9, we have 3² = ((1 + r)^(10))² = (1 + r)^(20). By comparing the exponents of the base (1+r), we find t = 20.

117Quantitative Aptitude
The number of ways by which 6 distinct balls can be put in 5 distinct boxes are
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Answer: (B) 15625

Explanation

The problem involves distributing n distinct objects into r distinct bins, where each object has r choices for its placement. In this specific case, there are n = 6 distinct balls and r = 5 distinct boxes.

According to the fundamental principle of counting, for each of the 6 balls, there are exactly 5 choices of boxes available. Since the balls are distinct, the choices for one ball do not restrict the choices for the others. Therefore, the total number of ways to distribute the balls is given by the formula rⁿ.

Substituting the given values into the formula: Total ways = 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 × 5 = 5⁶

Calculating the value: 5² = 25 5³ = 125 5⁴ = 625 5⁵ = 3125 5⁶ = 15625

118Quantitative Aptitude
A wire of length 6 m is stretched such that its radius is reduced by 20% . Which one of the following is the value of increase in its length?
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Answer: (B) 56.25%

Explanation

When a wire is stretched, its volume V = πr²L remains constant, where r is the radius and L is the length. Let the initial radius be r₁ and the initial length be L₁. Since the radius is reduced by 20%, the new radius r₂ is 0.8r₁. Equating the initial and final volumes, we have πr₁²L₁ = πr₂²L₂, which simplifies to r₁²L₁ = (0.8r₁)²L₂.

Solving for the new length, r₁²L₁ = 0.64r₁²L₂ leads to L₂ = L₁/0.64, or L₂ = 1.5625L₁. The percentage increase in length is determined by the formula (L₂ - L₁)/L₁ × 100. Substituting the values gives (1.5625 - 1) × 100, which results in a 56.25% increase in length.

119Quantitative Aptitude
The alphabets from A to J are numbered from 0 to 9 respectively. Which one of the following is the value of AGJ - CEG + EDB ?
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Answer: (A) CFE

Explanation

The alphabets A to J correspond to the digits 0 to 9 in sequence: A=0, B=1, C=2, D=3, E=4, F=5, G=6, H=7, I=8, and J=9. To find the value of the expression AGJ - CEG + EDB, each letter string is converted into its numerical equivalent based on its position.

The numerical values for the terms are AGJ = 069 (or 69), CEG = 246, and EDB = 431. Substituting these values into the expression yields: 69 - 246 + 431 = 254

Translating the digits of the result back into the assigned alphabets, 2 maps to C, 5 maps to F, and 4 maps to E. This results in the string CFE.

120Quantitative Aptitude
A is the smallest positive integer which when divided by 9 and 12 leaves remainder 8. B is the smallest positive integer which when divided by 9 and 12 leaves remainder 5. Which one of the following is the value of A - B ?
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Answer: (A) 3

Explanation

The smallest positive integer that leaves a remainder r when divided by x and y is given by the formula n = LCM(x, y) · k + r, where k is a non-negative integer.

To find A, we have x = 9, y = 12, and r = 8. LCM(9, 12) = 36. The general form is A = 36k + 8. To find the smallest positive integer, we set k = 0, which gives A = 8.

To find B, we have x = 9, y = 12, and r = 5. The general form is B = 36m + 5. To find the smallest positive integer, we set m = 0, which gives B = 5.

The difference A - B is calculated as: A - B = 8 - 5 = 3

121Logical Reasoning
If South-east is called East, North-west is called West, South-west is called South and so-on, what will North be called ?
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Answer: (C) North-west

Explanation

The problem describes a consistent rotation of the compass directions. To find the relationship, we can map the standard directions to their degree values: North (0° or 360°), North-east (45°), East (90°), South-east (135°), South (180°), South-west (225°), West (270°), and North-west (315°).

The question provides several transformations: South-east (135°) is called East (90°). North-west (315°) is called West (270°). South-west (225°) is called South (180°).

From these examples, we can derive a general rule for the new naming system: New Name(θ) = Standard Name(θ - 45°)

This formula shows that the label for any physical direction is the name of the standard direction located 45° anti-clockwise from it. To find what North will be called, we apply this formula to the North direction (360°): New Name(360°) = Standard Name(360° - 45°) = Standard Name(315°)

Since the standard direction at 315° is North-west, the physical direction of North is now called North-west.

122Logical Reasoning
If the day before yesterday was Tuesday, when will Saturday be ?
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Answer: (C) Day after tomorrow

Explanation

To determine the day, we calculate forward from the given reference. If the day before yesterday was Tuesday, then yesterday was Wednesday, which makes today Thursday. Counting from today (Thursday), tomorrow will be Friday, and the day after tomorrow will be Saturday.

123Quantitative Aptitude
In a group of 100 children, 64 children like to play cricket, 53 children like to play football and 20 children like to play both cricket and football. How many children do NOT like to play cricket or football ?
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Answer: (A) 3

Explanation

The number of children who like to play at least one of the two games is determined using the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion formula: n(C ∪ F) = n(C) + n(F) - n(C ∩ F). Substituting the given values, where n(C) = 64 represents children who like cricket, n(F) = 53 represents children who like football, and n(C ∩ F) = 20 represents children who like both, we get n(C ∪ F) = 64 + 53 - 20 = 97.

To find the number of children who do not like to play cricket or football, we subtract the number of children who play at least one game from the total number of children in the group. This is calculated as 100 - 97 = 3.

124Quantitative Aptitude
Two years ago, the age of A was three times the age of B. If B is currently 9 years old, then after how many years, the age of A will be double of the age of B ?
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Answer: (D) 5 years

Explanation

Given B is currently 9 years old, B's age two years ago was 9 - 2 = 7 years. At that time, A's age was three times B's age, so A was 3 × 7 = 21 years old. This means A's current age is 21 + 2 = 23 years.

To find after how many years (x) A's age will be double B's age, we set up the following equation: 23 + x = 2(9 + x) 23 + x = 18 + 2x 23 - 18 = 2x - x x = 5

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4B
  5. 5C
  6. 6C
  7. 7A
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17C
  18. 18A
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25A
  26. 26D
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29C
  30. 30B
  31. 31A
  32. 32C
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42A
  43. 43D
  44. 44A
  45. 45A
  46. 46B
  47. 47A
  48. 48A
  49. 49D
  50. 50D
  51. 51B
  52. 52D
  53. 53C
  54. 54A
  55. 55D
  56. 56C
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62D
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65A
  66. 66C
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70A
  71. 71D
  72. 72A
  73. 73B
  74. 74C
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78D
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87B
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90D
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95C
  96. 96B
  97. 97B
  98. 98A
  99. 99D
  100. 100A
  101. 101C
  102. 102D
  103. 103B
  104. 104D
  105. 105A
  106. 106B
  107. 107B
  108. 108A
  109. 109A
  110. 110B
  111. 111C
  112. 112C
  113. 113D
  114. 114D
  115. 115B
  116. 116A
  117. 117B
  118. 118B
  119. 119A
  120. 120A
  121. 121C
  122. 122C
  123. 123A
  124. 124D

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