Consider the following statements with respect to Pulitzer Prizes :
1. The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is awarded each year to the American newspaper that wins the Public Service category.
2. The Pulitzer Prize Gold Medal is never awarded to an individual.
3. Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize in the year 2000 for her first book; a short story collection called The Interpreter of Maladies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Pulitzer Prize for Public Service is the most prestigious category in the awards program and is the only one that confers a gold medal. This medal is awarded to an American newspaper or news organization as a whole rather than to an individual journalist. While individual reporters or editors may be mentioned in the citation for their contributions, the physical gold medal is never bestowed upon a person. In all other Pulitzer categories, winners receive a certificate and a cash prize. Furthermore, Indian-American author Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for her debut work, Interpreter of Maladies. This book is a collection of nine short stories that examine the lives of Indians and Indian Americans, making her the first person of Indian origin to win the award in the fiction category.
2Economy
Which one of the following is correct with respect to Pawan Hans ?
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Answer: (B) It is India's one of the leading helicopter service provider
Explanation
Pawan Hans Helicopters Limited is a premier Public Sector Undertaking under the Ministry of Civil Aviation, established in 1985 to provide helicopter support services to the petroleum sector, particularly the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). It functions as one of India's leading helicopter service providers, maintaining a significant fleet to support offshore exploration and production. Additionally, it provides essential aerial connectivity to remote and inaccessible areas including the North-Eastern states, Jammu and Kashmir, and the island territories of Lakshadweep and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. The organization also facilitates tourism and pilgrimage travel, such as shuttle services to Kedarnath and Vaishno Devi, making it a critical component of India's civil aviation infrastructure.
3Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) :
1. The NSG guidelines are implemented by each participating government in accordance with its national laws.
2. The NSG guidelines facilitate the development of nuclear trade.
3. South Africa is the only country from Africa in the NSG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) is a group of nuclear supplier countries that seeks to contribute to the non-proliferation of nuclear weapons through the implementation of guidelines for nuclear and nuclear-related exports. These guidelines are not legally binding treaties but are political commitments. Statement 1 is correct because each participating government implements these guidelines in accordance with its own national laws and practices. Statement 2 is correct because the NSG guidelines provide a transparent and predictable regulatory framework. By establishing common rules for nuclear exports, the group facilitates the development of legitimate peaceful nuclear trade while ensuring such trade does not contribute to the proliferation of nuclear weapons. Statement 3 is correct because South Africa is the sole member from the African continent in the NSG, having joined in 1995 after dismantling its nuclear weapons program and acceding to the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT).
4History
Which of the following statements is/are not correct about the historic Stilwell road ?
1. It connects India and Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh.
2. It was built by the Japanese during the World War II.
3. The road lies in the lands of three different countries—China, Myanmar and India.
Select the answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Stilwell Road, historically known as the Ledo Road, was constructed by the Allied forces under the leadership of American General Joseph Stilwell during World War II, not by the Japanese. It was built between 1942 and 1945 to serve as a vital land supply route to China after the Japanese forces blocked the Burma Road. While the road passes through the Pangsau Pass in Arunachal Pradesh and continues through Myanmar, it is historically defined as a link between Ledo in Assam, India, and Kunming in Yunnan Province, China. Describing it solely as a connection between India and Myanmar through Arunachal Pradesh is inaccurate because its origin is in Assam and its primary strategic destination was China.
5Art and Culture
Consider the following paragraph :
With origins shrouded in mystery, the dancers of this classical form of dance of India communicate inner emotions and themes through cadences of body flexions, movements and kinetic suggestions. Three styles of this form of dance exist, originating from the three different regions of Seraikela (Jharkhand), Purulia (West Bengal), and Mayurbhanj (Orissa). Martial movements, strong rhythmic statements and dynamic use of space are characteristic of this. dance form. The dance is an excellent culmination of enormous vitality and virility. As it is difficult to dance for long with a mask, the dance does not last more than 7—10 minutes.
The above paragraph may be attributed to which one of the following dance form ?
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Answer: (B) Chhau
Explanation
Chhau is a major classical-folk dance tradition of Eastern India that originated in the tri-junction of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha. It is performed in three distinct regional styles: Seraikela Chhau in Jharkhand, Purulia Chhau in West Bengal, and Mayurbhanj Chhau in Odisha. The dance is deeply rooted in martial arts, incorporating stylized movements derived from traditional combat techniques known as parikhanda. It is characterized by high energy, athletic leaps, and strong rhythmic patterns that require significant physical stamina. In the Seraikela and Purulia traditions, dancers wear elaborate masks to portray characters from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata. Because these masks are heavy and restrict the performer's vision and breathing, individual dance sequences are typically kept short, lasting between 7 and 10 minutes to prevent exhaustion.
6Economy
Which one of the following is not a function of Reserve Bank of India ?
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Answer: (C) Issuing of one rupee coin and note
Explanation
Under the provisions of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, and the Coinage Act, the responsibility for issuing one-rupee notes and all denominations of coins rests with the Government of India, specifically the Ministry of Finance. While the Reserve Bank of India acts as an agent for the distribution and management of these denominations, it does not possess the legal authority to issue them. This is evidenced by the fact that the one-rupee note is the only Indian currency note that bears the signature of the Finance Secretary of India, whereas all other currency notes of higher denominations are issued and signed by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.
7Reading Comprehension
Consider the following paragraph about a famous autobiographical narrative : It was first published in 1995 when the author was elected the first African-American President of the Harvard Law Review, the law journal. It tells the story of the life of the author up to his entry in the Harvard Law Review. The author's parents separated when he was two years old. In that book he formed an image of his absent father from the stories told by his mother and her parents.
Who is the author of the memoir ?
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Answer: (D) Barak Hussain Obama
Explanation
The memoir described is Dreams from My Father: A Story of Race and Inheritance, written by Barack Hussain Obama and published in 1995. The book traces his life from his birth in Honolulu to his enrollment at Harvard Law School. Obama achieved national prominence in 1990 when he became the first African-American president of the Harvard Law Review, a milestone that led to the publishing contract for this autobiography. The narrative delves into his personal history, focusing on the search for his identity and the legacy of his Kenyan father, whom he barely knew because his parents separated in 1963 when he was only two years old. Obama constructed his understanding of his father through the recollections of his mother, Stanley Ann Dunham, and his maternal grandparents.
8Art and Culture
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of holding of the Grand Slam tennis tournaments every year ?
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Answer: (B) Australian Open-French Open-Wimbledon-US Open
Explanation
The four Grand Slam tennis tournaments follow a consistent annual schedule based on the seasonal calendar and court surface traditions. The season begins in mid-January with the Australian Open in Melbourne. This is followed by the French Open, also known as Roland-Garros, which usually takes place in late May and early June in Paris. Shortly after, the Wimbledon Championships are held in London during late June and early July. The Grand Slam calendar concludes with the US Open in New York City, starting in late August and ending in early September. This chronological sequence has been the standard professional tennis circuit structure for decades.
9History
Which one of the following statements about Dr. Manmohan Singh is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) Dr. Manmohan Singh is the first Indian Prime Minister to return to power after completing a full five- year term.
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India to return to power after completing a full five-year term. Following the first general elections in 1951-52, Nehru completed his term and led the Indian National Congress to victory again in the 1957 and 1962 elections. While Dr. Manmohan Singh was the first Prime Minister since Jawaharlal Nehru to be re-elected to office after completing a full five-year term following the 2009 general elections, he does not hold the distinction of being the first in the history of independent India to achieve this.
10Economy
Match List-I (Chairperson of the Working Group constituted by the Planning Commission in the context of formulation of the Eleventh Five Year Plan) with List-II (Working Group on) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I List-II
(Chairperson) (Working Group on)
A. Prof. D.L. Seth
1. Empowerment of Scheduled Castes
B. Prof. S.K. Thorat
2. Empowerment of Minorities
C. Shri S. Sankaran
3. Empowerment of the other backward classes
4. Empowerment of Scheduled Tribes
Code :
A B C
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4
Explanation
Prof. D.L. Seth was a renowned sociologist and political scientist who chaired the Working Group on the Empowerment of the Other Backward Classes (OBCs). His group focused on evaluating existing reservation policies and recommending measures for the educational and economic development of OBC communities during the Eleventh Five Year Plan.
Prof. S.K. Thorat, a distinguished economist and former Chairman of the University Grants Commission, headed the Working Group on the Empowerment of Scheduled Castes. He was instrumental in drafting strategies to combat social exclusion and untouchability while promoting the socio-economic advancement of the SC population.
Shri S. Sankaran was a retired civil servant widely respected for his lifelong dedication to the causes of the marginalized and tribal populations. He chaired the Working Group on the Empowerment of Scheduled Tribes, where he emphasized the effective implementation of the Forest Rights Act and the protection of tribal lands and livelihoods.
11Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Employees' State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948 :
1. The Act is applicable to non-seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons.
2. The ESI Scheme has already been implemented in different areas in all the States/Union Territories of India.
3. ESI Scheme being contributory in nature, all the employees in the factories or establishments to which the Act applies shall be insured.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Employees State Insurance (ESI) Act, 1948, was designed to provide social security to workers in the organized sector. Under Section 2(12) of the Act, the provisions were initially made applicable to non-seasonal factories using power and employing 20 or more persons. Although state governments have the power to extend these provisions to other classes of establishments, the 20-person threshold remains a core statutory benchmark for the Act's coverage.
The ESI Scheme is essentially a self-financing, contributory social security system. As per Section 38 of the Act, all employees in the factories or establishments to which the Act applies must be insured. The funding for the scheme is generated through mandatory contributions from both employers and employees, calculated as a percentage of the employees' wages. This ensures that covered workers are entitled to medical benefits and cash compensation in cases of sickness, maternity, disablement, or death due to employment injury. In 2009, the scheme was implemented in a phased manner across specific notified industrial centers and did not encompass all geographical areas or every State and Union Territory in India.
12Art and Culture
From the paragraph given below identify the temple referred to :
Situated on the serene surrounding on the bank of river Mahanadi, this temple is one of the wonders of the medieval period and draws attention of several devotees, tourists, and researchers from all around the world. The temple does not stand upright and is tilted towards one side. Another attraction of the temple is Kudo fish for which special offerings are made.
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Answer: (B) Huma temple
Explanation
The Huma temple, located in the Sambalpur district of Odisha, is famously known as the Leaning Temple of Huma. Built during the 17th century under the reign of Baliar Singh, the fifth Raja of Sambalpur, it is situated on the left bank of the Mahanadi river. The temple is dedicated to Lord Bimaleswar (Shiva). Its most striking feature is that the main temple structure and the surrounding smaller shrines are tilted at an angle, though the cause of this leaning remains a subject of geological and architectural study. The temple is also renowned for the Kudo fish found in the Machindra Ghata of the river flowing adjacent to it. These fish are considered sacred and are so tame that they eat out of the hands of devotees. Special grain offerings are made to them, and fishing is strictly prohibited in this specific stretch of the river.
13Economy
Consider the following statements with respect to recent developments in infrastructure sector in India :
1. India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited was set up as a banking company for providing long-term loans for financing infrastructure projects.
2. 100 per cent Foreign Direct Investment under automatic route is permitted for all infrastructure projects.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
India Infrastructure Finance Company Limited (IIFCL) was incorporated in 2006 as a wholly-owned Government of India company. It was registered as a Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) with the Reserve Bank of India, specifically categorized as an Infrastructure Finance Company, rather than being established as a banking company. While it provides long-term financial assistance to various infrastructure projects, it does not possess a banking license to conduct commercial banking operations.
Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy in India during 2009 was characterized by sector-specific caps and entry routes. While several infrastructure sectors like roads, highways, and ports allowed 100 percent FDI through the automatic route, this was not universal for all infrastructure projects. Certain sectors within the broader infrastructure category, such as telecommunications and civil aviation, were subject to specific equity caps or required prior approval from the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) for investments beyond certain thresholds. Therefore, the claim that 100 percent FDI under the automatic route was permitted for all infrastructure projects is factually inaccurate for that period.
14Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about 'Ujjawala', a comprehensive scheme for the prevention of trafficking, rescue and rehabilitation of women and child victims is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) The scheme has four components, viz., Prevention, Rescue, Rehabilitation and Repatriation
Explanation
The Ujjawala scheme, launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2007, is structured around five distinct components rather than four. These five components are Prevention, Rescue, Rehabilitation, Re-integration, and Repatriation. The statement is incorrect because it omits Re-integration, which is a critical and separate phase of the scheme focused on the social intake and restoration of victims into their families and communities. While Rehabilitation focuses on the immediate physical and psychological recovery within a protective home, Re-integration involves the long-term process of ensuring the survivor is safely and sustainably accepted back into society.
15Art and Culture
Consider the following paragraph on Indian painting :
Women are mainly engaged in the creation of these paintings. These paintings do not depict mythological characters or images of deities, but depict social life. Images of human beings and animals, along with scenes from daily life are created in a loose rhythmic pattern. Painted white on mud walls, they are pretty close to prehistoric cave paintings in execution and usually depict scenes of human figures engaged in activities like hunting, dancing, sowing and harvesting. Stylistically, they can be recognized by the fact that they are painted on an austere mud base using one color, white, with occasional dots in red and yellow. This colour is obtained from grounding rice into white powder.
The paragraph given above characterizes which one of the following folk and art form of India ?
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Answer: (C) Warli folk painting
Explanation
Warli folk painting is a traditional tribal art form originating from the North Sahyadri Range in Maharashtra, primarily created by the women of the Warli tribe. These paintings are characterized by their focus on social life and daily activities—such as hunting, dancing, sowing, and harvesting—rather than the depiction of deities or mythological figures. The technique involves applying a white pigment, made from ground rice paste, onto mud walls that have been prepared with a base of cow dung and red earth. Stylistically, the human and animal figures are represented through simple geometric shapes, such as two triangles joined at the tip, arranged in loose rhythmic patterns. This rudimentary yet expressive style closely parallels prehistoric cave art in its execution and reliance on a single-color palette.
16Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I (Defence Term)
A. Arsenal
B. Battery
C. Conscription
D. Dogfight
List-II (Explanation)
1. An aerial duel between two or more aircrafts at a close range
2. Compulsory recruitment of personnel for service in the armed force
3. A unit of number of artillery guns, mobile or fixed
4. Place where arms and ammunition are manufactured and stored
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Arsenal refers to a facility dedicated to the production and storage of weaponry and military equipment.
Battery is a tactical unit of artillery, typically composed of multiple guns or missile launchers grouped for coordinated fire.
Conscription involves the mandatory enlistment of individuals into the armed forces by the state, often used to bolster military strength.
Dogfight is an aerial engagement between combat aircraft at close range, usually involving high-speed maneuvers to gain a tactical advantage.
17Art and Culture
Ratan Thyiam, the famous personality from Manipur, is known for his work in the field of :
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Answer: (C) Theatre
Explanation
Ratan Thiyam is a globally acclaimed playwright and theatre director from Manipur who is widely recognized for his significant contributions to contemporary Indian theatre. He founded the Chorus Repertory Theatre in Imphal in 1976, which became a leading institution for experimental drama. His work is characterized by a sophisticated visual language and the seamless integration of traditional Manipuri performance arts, such as the martial art Thang-Ta and traditional music, into modern theatrical structures. His production Chakravyuha earned him international fame, showcasing his mastery in using classical Indian epics to comment on modern themes. For his artistic excellence, he has been honored with numerous prestigious awards, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award in 1987 and the Padma Shri in 1989.
18Art and Culture
Consider the following paragraph and identify with the help of the code given below the dance technique referred to in the paragraph :
Originally known as the "backslide" or "walking on your toes" is a dance technique that presents the illusion of the dancer being pulled backwards while attempting to walk forward. A break dancing move, it became popular around the world after Michael Jackson executed it during a performance in 1983. It subsequently became his signature move, and is now one of the best-known dance techniques in the world.
Code :
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Answer: (C) Moonwalk
Explanation
The Moonwalk is a dance move that creates the optical illusion of a dancer being pulled backwards while appearing to walk forward. Although the technique existed in various forms such as the backslide or walking on your toes in the early twentieth century among tap dancers and mimes, it gained worldwide recognition and its current name through Michael Jackson. He famously executed the move during his performance of Billie Jean at the Motown 25: Yesterday, Today, Forever television special in 1983. The technique involves keeping the weight on the toes of one foot while sliding the other foot backward flat on the ground, then switching weight to repeat the process. This specific sequence creates a smooth, gliding motion that became Jackson's definitive signature move and a staple of global pop culture.
19Economy
Which one of the following statements about BRIC is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) Brazil, Russia, India and Canada are the members of BRIC
Explanation
The acronym BRIC was coined by economist Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs in 2001 to describe the fast-growing emerging economies of Brazil, Russia, India, and China. These nations were grouped together based on their potential to become the world's dominant economies by the year 2050. Canada is an advanced economy and a member of the G7, but it is not part of the BRIC grouping. The inclusion of Canada in the list of member countries is factually incorrect as China is the fourth constituent member of the bloc. The group later expanded to include South Africa in 2010, becoming BRICS, but during the period of the first summit in 2009, the membership consisted solely of Brazil, Russia, India, and China.
20Polity and Governance
Which among the following was given the gold medal in the National Award for e-Governance, 2008-09 in the innovative usage of technology in e-Governance category ?
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Answer: (C) "Sujala Watershed Project", Government of Karnataka, Watershed Development Department, Bangaluru
Explanation
The Sujala Watershed Project, implemented by the Watershed Development Department of the Government of Karnataka, received the Gold Medal for the innovative usage of technology in e-Governance at the 12th National Awards for e-Governance in 2008-09. This initiative successfully integrated advanced spatial technologies, including Remote Sensing, Geographic Information Systems (GIS), and Global Positioning Systems (GPS), into the planning and monitoring of watershed development. By combining these scientific tools with a robust Management Information System (MIS), the project enabled precise tracking of soil and water conservation efforts and facilitated data-driven decision-making. The project significantly improved transparency and efficiency in managing natural resources and enhancing the livelihoods of rural populations through evidence-based land-use planning.
21Polity and Governance
There are 12 major ports in India and Port Trust Boards have been setup for the administration, control and management of 11 of these 12 ports. Which one of the following major ports has been incorporated as a company under the Indian Companies Act, 1956 and not administered by a Port Trust Board ?
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Answer: (C) Ennore
Explanation
Ennore Port, located in Tamil Nadu, was the first major port in India to be incorporated as a company under the Companies Act, 1956. While the other eleven major ports in India were governed by the Major Port Trusts Act, 1963, and administered by Port Trust Boards, Ennore Port was established as a corporate entity known as Ennore Port Limited. This administrative structure was chosen to provide the port with greater financial and operational autonomy, allowing it to function more like a commercial enterprise than a government-controlled trust. It serves as a landlord port, where the corporate entity maintains the core infrastructure while leasing out operations to private players. In 2014, the port was renamed Kamarajar Port Limited.
22Economy
Consider the following statements :
1. According to IFC/World Bank Doing Business Report, 2009 India is the most difficult country to enforce contracts in a court or otherwise.
2. According to the UNIDO Report, 2009 in the Competitive Industrial Performance Index India is ahead of China.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
In the IFC and World Bank Doing Business Report 2009, India was ranked 180th among 181 countries for the Enforcing Contracts indicator. This ranking was based on the extreme delays and procedural complexities in the Indian judicial system, where resolving a commercial dispute required an average of 46 procedures and took approximately 1,420 days. This performance placed India at the extreme bottom of the global rankings, making it practically the most difficult country for contract enforcement at that time. Regarding the UNIDO Industrial Development Report 2009, the Competitive Industrial Performance (CIP) Index placed China at the 26th rank, while India was ranked significantly lower at 54th, meaning India was not ahead of China in industrial competitiveness.
23Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about Sukhoi-30MKI fighter aircraft is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) Pune is the latest base for these most potent combat aircraft of the Indian Air Force
Explanation
Pune's Lohegaon Air Force Station served as the very first base for the Sukhoi-30MKI, hosting the No. 20 Squadron (Lightnings) since its induction into the Indian Air Force in 2002. By the year 2009, the aircraft had already been stationed at subsequent locations such as Bareilly (Trishul Air Base) and Jodhpur. Consequently, Pune represents the oldest or initial operational base for this aircraft type rather than the latest one.
24Geography
Consider the following paragraph and using the code given below identify the state referred to in the paragraph :
The state has huge potential in carbon trading, thanks to its vast forest reserve. Nearly 88 per cent area of the state is covered by forest, against the national average of 33 per cent. In the North-East India, this is the first state to take initiative in carbon trading.
Code :
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Answer: (C) Mizoram
Explanation
Mizoram has one of the highest forest covers in India, which was recorded at approximately 88 to 91 percent of its total geographical area during the late 2000s, significantly exceeding the national forest policy goal of 33 percent. Due to these vast forest reserves and extensive bamboo plantations, the state represents a major carbon sink with immense potential for carbon sequestration. In 2007, Mizoram became the first state in North-East India to formally take initiatives in carbon trading by exploring projects under the Clean Development Mechanism. This move was designed to monetize the state's environmental assets and provide sustainable livelihood opportunities for local communities through the international carbon credit market.
25Geography
Which among the following countries is ranked 1st in the Global Peace Index, 2009 ?
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Answer: (C) New Zealand
Explanation
The Global Peace Index (GPI) 2009, which ranks nations according to their level of peacefulness based on 23 qualitative and quantitative indicators, placed New Zealand in the first position. New Zealand earned the top rank due to its high degree of political stability, low levels of internal and external conflict, and a strong culture of respect for human rights and civil liberties. The nation showed consistently low scores in categories such as militarization, homicide rates, and organized internal conflict. As a stable democracy with a high level of transparency and effective governance, New Zealand was recognized as the world's most peaceful nation in that year's report issued by the Institute for Economics and Peace.
26Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Ustad Ali Akbar Khan, who died in June, 2009 :
1. He was a Sarod maestro.
2. He belonged to the Maihar Gharana of classical Hindustani music.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Ustad Ali Akbar Khan was a world-renowned virtuoso of the Sarod, an instrument he mastered under the rigorous training of his father, the legendary Acharya Allauddin Khan. His father was the founder of the Maihar Gharana, one of the most prominent schools of Hindustani classical music, making Ali Akbar Khan a key representative and proponent of this tradition. Beyond his technical brilliance on the Sarod, he played a pivotal role in introducing Indian classical music to Western audiences and established the Ali Akbar College of Music in both India and the United States to pass on the teachings of the Maihar Gharana to future generations. He received several prestigious awards, including the Padma Vibhushan, for his immense contribution to the arts.
27Geography
Which one of the following is the theme for International Day for Biodiversity in the year 2009 ?
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Answer: (D) Biodiversity and Invasive Alien Species
Explanation
The United Nations proclaimed May 22 as the International Day for Biological Diversity to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues. In 2009, the Secretariat of the Convention on Biological Diversity designated Invasive Alien Species as the annual theme. This specific focus was intended to highlight that invasive species are one of the most significant threats to global biodiversity, second only to habitat destruction. These non-native species, when introduced to new environments, can outcompete indigenous flora and fauna, lead to the extinction of native species, and cause severe ecological and economic damage. The 2009 theme served to encourage global cooperation in managing and preventing the spread of these harmful organisms to protect fragile ecosystems worldwide.
28Logical Reasoning
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists :
List-I List-II (Phone Brand) (Brand Slogan)
A. Nokia
1. Be inspired
B. Samsung
2. Next is what ?
C. Panasonic
3. Connecting people
D. Siemen's
4. Ideas for life
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
Nokia used the iconic slogan Connecting People to emphasize its role in bringing people together through mobile technology. Samsung utilized the Next is what ? campaign during the mid-to-late 2000s to position itself as a leader in future-oriented technological innovation. Panasonic adopted the global slogan Ideas for life to convey its dedication to developing products that provide value and enhance the quality of human life. Siemens used the brand tagline Be inspired to reflect its focus on providing innovative solutions and inspiring progress across its various engineering and technology sectors.
29Economy
Consider the following paragraph and identify with the code given below the town with which the paragraph is associated :
It is basically a traditional centre for cotton. The town accounts for the bulk of India's cotton knitwear exports to all over the world. The Noyyal river runs all across the town, virtually dividing it into two halves.
Code :
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Answer: (B) Tirupur (Tamil Nadu)
Explanation
Tirupur is globally recognized as the Knitwear Capital of India because it handles the vast majority of the country's cotton knitwear exports. The town's economy is almost entirely centered around the textile industry, ranging from spinning and knitting to dyeing and garment manufacturing. Geographically, the Noyyal River flows through the heart of the town, effectively bisecting it into two halves. This river was historically a crucial source of water for the numerous bleaching and dyeing units that define the region's industrial output. By 2009, Tirupur had become a significant foreign exchange earner for India, specializing in the production of cotton hosiery and T-shirts for international markets.
30Polity and Governance
Who is Richard Halbrooke ?
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Answer: (B) US special envoy on Afghanistan and Pakistan
Explanation
Richard Holbrooke was a veteran American diplomat who was appointed as the Special Representative for Afghanistan and Pakistan by the Obama administration in January 2009. This role, often referred to as the special envoy for the AfPak region, was created to integrate U.S. policy and diplomatic strategy towards the two neighboring countries. Holbrooke was tasked with managing the complex geopolitical challenges and security issues in the region, drawing on his extensive experience as a high-ranking official who had previously served as the U.S. Ambassador to the United Nations and as the primary negotiator of the 1995 Dayton Peace Accords.
31Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Nandan Nilekani is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Recently he is appointed as the Member of the Planning Commission of India
Explanation
In 2009, Nandan Nilekani was appointed as the first Chairman of the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI), which was the agency responsible for implementing the Aadhaar project. Although the UIDAI was initially established as an attached office under the aegis of the Planning Commission, Nilekani was not appointed as a Member of the Planning Commission. His role was specific to leading the UIDAI, and he was granted the rank and status of a Cabinet Minister to facilitate the inter-ministerial coordination required for the project. The Members of the Planning Commission held distinct administrative roles separate from the chairmanship of the UIDAI.
32History
Consider the following statements about former Australian cricketer Steve Waugh :
1. He is the author of the book "True Colours : My Life".
2. He is deeply influenced by the deeds of Mother Teresa.
3. He is working for the cause of the children afflicted by leprosy in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Steve Waugh has been significantly influenced by the life and work of Mother Teresa, whom he met in Kolkata during the late 1990s. This encounter deeply impacted his philanthropic outlook, leading him to dedicate substantial time and resources to humanitarian causes in India. He has been a long-time patron of Udayan, a rehabilitation home located at Barrackpore, near Kolkata, which provides medical care, education, and support to children afflicted by leprosy or born to leprosy-affected parents. Through his global profile and the Steve Waugh Foundation, he has worked extensively to raise funds and awareness to remove the social stigma associated with the disease and ensure a better future for these children.
33Geography
Which one of the following is not a World Heritage Site ?
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Answer: (C) Kangchendzonga National Park
Explanation
Khangchendzonga National Park, located in Sikkim, was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List in 2016. It is distinguished as India's first and only Mixed World Heritage Site, recognized for both its unique natural biodiversity and its deep cultural significance to local communities. In the year 2009, this park had not yet been granted World Heritage status by UNESCO, whereas the other sites mentioned had already been included on the list during the 1980s.
34Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the End Use Monitoring Agreement (EUMA) signed between USA and India in July, 2009 :
1. It clears the way for the sale of US military equipment to India
2. It allows the US to verify whether India is using the weapons purchased from USA for the stated purpose
3. It restricts India to pass on the US military technology to any country other than Afghanistan (till US forces are there)
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The End Use Monitoring Agreement (EUMA) signed in July 2009 was a significant step in the Indo-US defense relationship. It fulfilled a mandatory requirement under the US Arms Export Control Act, which stipulates that the US government must have an agreement in place to monitor the usage of any high-end defense technology it exports. By signing this agreement, India cleared the legal hurdles that previously restricted the sale of sophisticated US military equipment, such as maritime patrol aircraft and heavy-lift transport planes, to the Indian Armed Forces.
The agreement specifically provides a framework for the US to verify that the defense articles and services provided are being used by the Government of India for the stated purposes. This involves periodic inspections or end-use checks to ensure the equipment remains under Indian control and that there has been no unauthorized transfer, tampering, or reverse engineering of the sensitive technology involved. This verification process is a standard feature of US defense exports globally to prevent the proliferation of advanced military technology and ensure that exported weapons are used in accordance with US law and policy.
35Polity and Governance
In May 2008, the Supreme Court of India laid down six parameters to make the police effective, accountable and insulated from political interference and set up a monitoring committee to ensure that states implement police reforms. Which one of the following is not a directive of the apex court in this regard ?
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Answer: (C) Fixing a minimum tenure of five years for police officers on operational posts unless they face disciplinary proceedings or were convicted in a criminal offence
Explanation
In the landmark Prakash Singh vs. Union of India (2006) case, the Supreme Court issued several directives to reform the police forces in India. One of the key mandates was to ensure a minimum tenure of at least two years for the Director General of Police (DGP) and other key operational officers, including the Inspector General of Police, Deputy Inspector General, Superintendent of Police, and Station House Officers. This measure was designed to provide functional autonomy and protect police officials from arbitrary or politically motivated transfers. The provision for a five-year tenure mentioned in the option is incorrect, as the court-mandated period was specifically two years.
36Science and Technology
Contamination of mustard oil has led to several outbreaks of Epidemic Dropsy in India. Which one of the following contaminant is responsible for it ?
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Answer: (C) Argemone oil
Explanation
Epidemic Dropsy is a clinical condition resulting from the consumption of edible oils, most commonly mustard oil, that has been adulterated with the oil of Argemone mexicana seeds. These seeds closely resemble mustard seeds, making them a frequent choice for fraudulent mixing. The primary toxic agent in Argemone oil is a benzophenanthridine alkaloid called sanguinarine. Sanguinarine inhibits the oxidation of pyruvic acid, leading to its accumulation in the blood and triggering the leakage of fluid from capillaries into the tissues. This results in severe edema (swelling), particularly in the lower limbs, and can lead to cardiac failure or glaucoma.
37Economy
A farmer sows beans in his fields after harvesting a crop of wheat. Which one of the following agricultural practice is he following ?
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Answer: (B) Crop rotation
Explanation
Crop rotation is the practice of growing different crops in a planned succession on the same piece of land to maintain soil fertility and improve soil health. Wheat is a nutrient-intensive cereal crop that significantly depletes nitrogen from the soil. By following a wheat harvest with beans, which are leguminous plants, the farmer utilizes the symbiotic relationship between the beans and nitrogen-fixing bacteria like Rhizobium found in their root nodules. These bacteria convert atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use, thereby naturally replenishing the soil's nitrogen levels that were exhausted by the previous wheat crop. This practice helps in sustainable nutrient management and prevents the build-up of specific pests and diseases associated with a single crop type.
38Geography
Aquatic animals breathe much faster than terrestrial animals because of :
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Answer: (A) low amount of dissolved oxygen in water
Explanation
The concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is significantly lower than the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere. While air contains approximately 21 percent oxygen by volume, the amount of oxygen dissolved in water is quite small, typically measured in only a few parts per million. Because the availability of oxygen in the aquatic medium is much lower, aquatic animals must pump a larger volume of water over their respiratory surfaces, such as gills, per unit of time to meet their metabolic requirements. This necessity results in a significantly faster breathing rate compared to terrestrial animals, who have access to an oxygen-rich environment.
39Geography
Which of the following is not true about Giant Panda ?
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Answer: (C) Giant Pandas are worst invasive species of the world
Explanation
Giant Pandas are a vulnerable, endemic species native to the high-altitude mountain ranges of central China. They are characterized by a highly specialized diet and low reproductive rates, which is the exact opposite of the characteristics defining an invasive species. An invasive species is defined as a non-native organism that propagates rapidly, outcompetes local flora or fauna, and causes environmental or economic harm to the ecosystems it enters. Because Giant Pandas are native to their habitat and have historically faced the threat of extinction due to habitat fragmentation and slow population growth, they do not meet any criteria for being an invasive species.
40Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct about "Flavr Savr" tomatoes ?
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Answer: (C) The fruit cannot be left on the plant for a long period
Explanation
The Flavr Savr tomato was the first genetically engineered food crop to be commercialized, designed specifically to address the issue of rapid softening during ripening. By using antisense RNA technology to suppress the enzyme polygalacturonase, which dissolves pectin in the cell walls, the tomato's softening process was significantly delayed. This genetic modification allowed the fruit to stay on the vine much longer than traditional varieties, enabling it to reach full maturity and develop a superior flavor profile before being harvested. Because it remained firm even when ripe, it could withstand transportation better than standard tomatoes, which are typically picked while green and firm to prevent bruising. Therefore, the assertion that the fruit cannot be left on the plant for a long period is factually incorrect.
41Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct about Biosphere Reserves ?
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Answer: (D) They were first started by IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources)
Explanation
The Biosphere Reserve program was initiated by UNESCO (United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization) in 1971 under its Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme. The concept was developed to create a global network of sites representing the world's major terrestrial and coastal/marine ecosystems. While the IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature) provides expertise and classification systems for protected areas, it was not the organization that started the Biosphere Reserve framework. The MAB programme specifically focuses on reconciling the conservation of biological and cultural diversity with economic and social development through the three-zone approach.
42Science and Technology
Which one of the following chemicals is an artificial sweetener prescribed to diabetic persons ?
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Answer: (A) Aspartame
Explanation
Aspartame is a low-calorie artificial sweetener that is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose. Chemically, it is the methyl ester of the dipeptide consisting of the natural amino acids L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine. Because of its intense sweetness, it is used in very small quantities, which results in a negligible caloric intake. For individuals with diabetes, aspartame serves as an effective sugar substitute because it does not trigger a significant glycemic response, meaning it does not cause a sharp rise in blood glucose or insulin levels. This makes it a standard recommendation for managing sugar intake while maintaining the palatability of foods and beverages in a diabetic diet.
43Science and Technology
Villagers in some parts of India use the water extract of the ash obtained by burning banana plant as a substitute of soda. Which one of the following is the major active component in the extract ?
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Answer: (B) Potassium Carbonate
Explanation
Banana plants are exceptionally rich in potassium, which they accumulate from the soil during their growth. When the plant parts, such as the peels or the trunk, are dried and burned, the process of combustion converts the organic potassium salts into potassium carbonate (K₂CO₃), commonly known as potash. This compound is highly soluble in water and creates a strongly alkaline solution when extracted. Due to its basic nature, this extract functions as an effective substitute for commercial sodium carbonate or sodium bicarbonate in traditional cooking and cleaning processes, notably in the preparation of Khar in Assamese cuisine.
44Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I (Process) List-II (Contaminant)
A. Aeration followed by filtration 1. Removal of colour
B. Reverse Osmosis 2. Removal of microorganism
C. Filtration through activated carbon 3. Removal of iron
D. Treatment with UV light 4. Removal of excess salts
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Aeration followed by filtration is a standard technique for the removal of iron where dissolved ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) is oxidized by air into insoluble ferric iron (Fe³⁺) precipitates which are then filtered out.
Reverse Osmosis involves the use of a semi-permeable membrane under pressure to separate dissolved inorganic ions and excess salts from water.
Filtration through activated carbon is highly effective for the removal of colour and odors because the carbon possesses a high surface area that adsorbs organic contaminants and pigments.
Treatment with UV light acts as a disinfectant for the removal of microorganisms by emitting radiation that penetrates the cells and damages the nucleic acids, thereby neutralizing pathogens.
45Science and Technology
In some parts of India, consumption of underground water causes mottled teeth and bone damage. Which one of the following is responsible for this malady ?
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Answer: (A) Fluoride ion
Explanation
The presence of excess fluoride ions in groundwater is the primary cause of fluorosis, a condition that manifests as dental and skeletal damage. In its dental form, fluoride interferes with the mineralization of tooth enamel during development, leading to permanent discoloration, staining, or mottling. Prolonged ingestion of water with fluoride concentrations exceeding 1.5 mg/L leads to skeletal fluorosis. In this condition, fluoride ions replace the hydroxyl groups in bone hydroxyapatite Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆(OH)₂ to form fluorapatite Ca₁₀(PO₄)₆F₂. This chemical alteration increases bone density but significantly reduces structural integrity, making bones brittle and leading to severe joint pain, stiffness, and skeletal deformities. This environmental health issue is widespread in various geological regions of India where fluoride-bearing minerals naturally leach into the aquifer.
46Science and Technology
Sometimes, the consumption of local made alcoholic beverages may cause blindness or even death. This may be because of contamination of the beverages with :
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Answer: (C) Methyl alcohol
Explanation
Methyl alcohol, also known as methanol or wood alcohol, is a highly toxic substance often found in illicitly distilled or adulterated alcoholic beverages. When ingested, the body metabolizes methanol through the enzyme alcohol dehydrogenase into formaldehyde, which is then rapidly converted into formic acid. Formic acid is the primary toxin responsible for the severe clinical effects; it interferes with mitochondrial function and specifically attacks the optic nerve, leading to permanent blindness. Furthermore, the accumulation of formic acid causes profound metabolic acidosis, which can lead to organ failure, coma, and death. Even small quantities of methanol, such as 10 to 30 milliliters, can be fatal or cause irreversible damage to the nervous system.
47Science and Technology
Which one of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading very small letters printed on a label ?
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Answer: (C) Convex lens of small focal length
Explanation
To read small letters printed on a label, a lens must act as a magnifying glass. A convex lens produces a virtual, erect, and magnified image of an object when that object is placed within its focal length. The magnifying power M of a simple microscope is given by the formula M = 1 + D/f, where D is the least distance of distinct vision (typically 25 cm) and f is the focal length of the lens. Since the magnifying power is inversely proportional to the focal length, a convex lens with a small focal length provides greater magnification than one with a large focal length, making it the preferred choice for viewing fine print.
48Science and Technology
The explanation of, why we get thrown back with a jerk when the stationary bus we are sitting in starts moving forward is given by :
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Answer: (B) Newton's first law
Explanation
Newton's first law of motion, often referred to as the law of inertia, states that an object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an external force. When a stationary bus suddenly starts moving forward, the lower part of a passenger's body, which is in contact with the bus, moves forward along with the vehicle. However, the upper part of the body tends to maintain its state of rest due to inertia. Because the lower body moves forward while the upper body resists this change in motion, the passenger experiences a backward jerk relative to the bus's acceleration.
49History
Which among the following is not true about the Swadeshi movement ?
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Answer: (B) It enlisted the support of the Muslim masses
Explanation
The Swadeshi movement largely failed to garner the support of the Muslim masses, as the British colonial administration successfully employed a policy of Divide and Rule. Many Muslim leaders were convinced that the partition of Bengal would create a Muslim-majority province in the East, which would be to their advantage. Nawab Salimullah of Dacca and other prominent leaders supported the partition and were instrumental in the formation of the All India Muslim League in 1906, which remained aloof from the Swadeshi agitation. Furthermore, the movement's frequent use of Hindu religious symbols, rituals, and rhetoric alienated much of the Muslim population, leading to limited participation from the community and, in some areas, communal tension.
50History
Which Reformer does the following passage relate to ? "He insisted on the cooperation of the Muslims with the British Government and looked at all political movements with distrust. Thus, when the Indian National Congress was formed, he opposed it. He regarded education and education alone as the means of national progress."
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Answer: (C) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan
Explanation
Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was a pivotal Muslim reformer who believed that the socio-economic advancement of the Muslim community was contingent upon modern education and a cordial relationship with the British Raj. Following the 1857 Revolt, he sought to reconcile the Muslim community with the British government, viewing political agitation as detrimental to their interests. He firmly believed that the community needed to focus on academic and intellectual development rather than active politics. This ideology led him to oppose the Indian National Congress upon its inception in 1885, as he feared its representative demands would lead to the domination of the majority community over Muslims and invite British hostility. His life's work culminated in the Aligarh Movement and the establishment of the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College, emphasizing his conviction that education was the only viable path to progress.
51History
Consider the following statements about the press and literature in Colonial India :
1. The print media enabled the nationalists living in different parts of the country to exchange views with one another.
2. The British rulers were prepared to tolerate the nationalist criticism of their rule.
3. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) evoked a nationwide protest against the encroachment on freedom of expression.
Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3
Explanation
The emergence of the print media in the 19th century was instrumental in the growth of Indian nationalism. It allowed political activists and intellectuals from different provinces to share ideas, debate colonial policies, and build a unified national identity. Newspapers served as the primary tool for political education, enabling the dissemination of modern ideas of self-rule and civil liberties to the public.
The Vernacular Press Act of 1878, also known as the Gagging Act, was enacted by Lord Lytton to suppress the growing criticism of British policies in local language newspapers. Since the Act targeted only the vernacular press and exempted English-language publications, it was seen as highly discriminatory and an assault on the freedom of expression. The nationwide agitation against this Act became a significant milestone in the Indian national movement, as it helped mobilize various political associations and taught Indians the power of organized protest against repressive colonial legislation.
52History
Consider the following statements :
1. The Indian cities like Dacca, Murshidabad and Surat were known all over the world as centers of trade and industry in the pre-colonial period.
2. Such centers of trade and industry went down in the face of foreign competition in the colonial period.
3. Indian artisans, manufacturers and weavers were provided alternative employment by the British Indian government after the decline of these centers of trade.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
The British colonial policy of de-industrialization led to the systematic ruin of traditional Indian handicrafts and urban centers like Dacca and Murshidabad. Far from providing alternative employment, the British Indian government implemented policies that favored British machine-made imports, which outcompeted local products. Displaced artisans, weavers, and manufacturers were forced to abandon their ancestral professions and migrate to rural areas in search of a livelihood. This process resulted in the over-crowding of the agricultural sector, increasing the pressure on land and leading to the ruralization of the Indian economy rather than industrial or governmental employment for the affected workers.
53History
Consider the following statements relating to the Bhakti Movement :
1. The Bhakti and Sufi Saints gradually brought about a better understanding of the fundamental tenets of Hinduism and Islam, underlining the fact that they had a great deal of similarity.
2. The Bhakti and Sufi Saints also brought about important changes in the approach to religion, laying greater emphasis on formal observances and rituals.
3. They also contributed to the growth of regional languages and literature.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct ?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Bhakti and Sufi movements were primarily mystical and reformist trends that emphasized personal devotion and the internal experience of the divine over external manifestations of faith. A defining characteristic of these movements was their rejection of rigid orthodoxies, elaborate ceremonies, and the mechanical performance of rituals. Leaders like Kabir, Guru Nanak, and various Sufi pirs explicitly critiqued the priestly classes and the emphasis on formal observances, arguing that such rituals were superficial and often served as barriers to genuine spiritual realization. Instead, they promoted a religion of the heart, focusing on moral purity, social equality, and the direct relationship between the devotee and God. Consequently, statement 2 is incorrect because it falsely attributes a greater emphasis on rituals to these saints, when their actual impact was to diminish the importance of such formalities in favor of simple, heartfelt devotion.
54History
Consider the following observations relating to the reign of the Mughal Emperor Akbar :
1. Akbar strengthened his control on the nobility and the army by introducing the mansabdari system.
2. Under the mansabdari system, every officer was assigned a rank (mansab).
3. The ranks were divided into three : zat, sawar and chehra.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
The mansabdari system was a foundational administrative framework introduced by Akbar to organize the nobility and the military into a unified imperial service. By assigning every officer a specific rank or mansab, the Emperor established a clear hierarchy that dictated an individual's status, salary, and military responsibilities. This system allowed Akbar to strengthen his control over the nobility by making their positions dependent on imperial favor and performance rather than hereditary claims. The mansab itself was characterized by a dual numerical representation: the zat, which fixed the personal status and pay of the holder, and the sawar, which specified the number of cavalrymen the officer was obligated to maintain for the state. While administrative practices like chehra (descriptive rolls of soldiers) and dagh (branding of horses) were implemented to prevent fraud and ensure the quality of the troops, the actual components of the rank were limited to zat and sawar.
55History
Which among the following was not a demand of Mahatma Gandhi to the Government as a condition of settlement before he launched the Non-cooperation movement ?
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Answer: (D) The Government should put a better scheme of reforms than that of the Act of 1919
Explanation
The Non-cooperation Movement was initiated by Mahatma Gandhi to address three specific grievances: the Khilafat issue concerning the preservation of the authority of the Sultan of Turkey, the Punjab wrongs relating to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the subsequent indemnity act, and the ultimate goal of Swaraj. Gandhi’s demands were centered on seeking justice and moral accountability for these events, including the withdrawal of the repressive Rowlatt Act and an official expression of regret for the atrocities committed in Punjab. He did not propose the drafting of a superior constitutional reform package to replace the Government of India Act 1919 as a prerequisite for calling off the movement. On the contrary, Gandhi had originally supported the idea of cooperating with the 1919 reforms at the Amritsar Session in 1919, but his position changed to total non-cooperation only after the government failed to provide satisfaction regarding the Khilafat and Punjab issues. The movement represented a break from negotiating for minor legislative improvements and a shift toward a mass struggle for self-rule.
56History
The 'Motorana' and the 'hathiana' referred to :
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Answer: (B) taxes levied by zamindars on their peasants
Explanation
Motorana and Hathiana were types of abwabs, which were arbitrary cesses or illegal taxes levied by zamindars on their tenants in addition to the standard land revenue. These cesses were typically collected to fund the personal luxuries or social requirements of the landlord. Hathiana was a tax imposed on peasants to cover the cost of purchasing or maintaining an elephant for the zamindar, while Motorana was a similar levy introduced for the purchase or maintenance of a motorcar. These exploitative practices were widespread in various parts of colonial India, particularly in regions like Bihar and Bengal, and became central issues of grievance during peasant uprisings and the Kisan Sabha movements in the early 20th century.
57History
Which of the following ideas was/were shared by Raja Rammohan Roy and Rabindranath Tagore ?
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
Raja Rammohan Roy and Rabindranath Tagore both championed internationalism, believing that India should engage with the world to foster mutual progress and universal humanism. As prominent figures associated with the Brahmo movement, they shared a commitment to monotheism and the rejection of idol worship, advocating for the contemplation of the formless Brahman. Both thinkers also placed significant importance on a rational and scientific approach to understanding the world; Roy pioneered the demand for modern scientific education in India, while Tagore emphasized the necessity of scientific temperament alongside spiritual growth. These common ideals established them as fundamental architects of modern Indian thought.
58History
The Hindustan Republican Association was founded to :
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Answer: (B) Organize armed rebellion in India
Explanation
The Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) was established in October 1924 in Kanpur by revolutionary leaders including Sachindra Nath Sanyal, Ram Prasad Bismil, and Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee. The primary objective of the organization was to overthrow the British colonial government through an organized and armed revolution. As detailed in its constitution and the 1925 manifesto titled The Revolutionary, the HRA sought to establish a Federal Republic of the United States of India based on the principle of universal suffrage. To facilitate this armed struggle, the group focused on recruiting dedicated youth, manufacturing and procuring weapons, and conducting daring actions such as the Kakori train robbery to secure the necessary funds for their revolutionary activities.
59History
Consider the following statements about Indian trade and commerce in the medieval period :
1. India exported cotton piece goods to the wider world in the medieval period.
2. India received gold and silver from the wider world in lieu of her cotton goods.
3. India also supplied raw materials to the European industries in the medieval period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2
Explanation
India was the worlds leading manufacturer and exporter of cotton textiles during the medieval period. Its hand-loomed cotton piece goods, varying from fine muslins to durable calicoes, were in high demand across Southeast Asia, the Middle East, East Africa, and later Europe. This established India as a major industrial hub long before the advent of mechanized factories in the West.
Because India produced almost everything it needed, there was very little demand for foreign manufactured goods. This resulted in a persistent trade surplus in Indias favor. To bridge this trade gap, international merchants, including Arabs and later European companies like the Portuguese, Dutch, and English, were required to pay for Indian textiles and spices using precious metals. Consequently, India acted as a global sink for gold and silver, receiving vast quantities of bullion from across the world in exchange for its finished goods. The pattern of supplying raw materials to European industries only emerged later during the colonial period following the Industrial Revolution in Britain.
60History
Which of the following statements about Bhadrabahu is/are correct ?
1. He was a Jain Saint.
2. He was spiritual teacher of Chandragupta Maurya.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Bhadrabahu was a prominent Jain monk and the last Shruta Kevali of the Jain tradition, known for composing the Kalpa Sutra. According to Jain tradition and historical accounts like the Parishishtaparvan, he served as the spiritual preceptor to Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Maurya Empire. During a predicted twelve-year famine in Magadha, Bhadrabahu led a migration of monks to Shravanabelagola in modern-day Karnataka. Chandragupta Maurya abdicated his throne to follow Bhadrabahu as a disciple and spent his final days practicing asceticism. The Emperor eventually performed Sallekhana, the Jain ritual of fasting unto death, at the site now known as Chandragiri Hill, following the spiritual path laid out by his teacher.
61Art and Culture
In Buddhist principle, the performance of Sila and the achievement of Samadhi and Prajna lead to Nirvana. What does this Sila stand for ?
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Answer: (B) Physical control
Explanation
In the Buddhist path to liberation, the Threefold Training or Trishiksha categorizes the Noble Eightfold Path into Sila, Samadhi, and Prajna. Sila refers to ethical conduct or moral virtue and represents the external discipline of a practitioner. It functions as physical control by regulating bodily actions and speech to ensure they are non-harmful and conducive to spiritual progress. By practicing Right Speech, Right Action, and Right Livelihood, an individual restrains physical impulses that lead to misconduct, thereby purifying their conduct. This ethical foundation of physical and verbal restraint is considered essential because it eliminates the external and internal turmoil caused by immoral behavior, providing the steady base required for the subsequent stages of mental concentration and the realization of ultimate wisdom.
62History
Agnimitra, the hero of Kalidasa's Malavikagnimitra belonged to :
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Answer: (A) Sunga dynasty
Explanation
Agnimitra was the second king of the Sunga dynasty, succeeding his father Pushyamitra Sunga around 149 BCE. Pushyamitra Sunga founded the dynasty after overthrowing the last Mauryan emperor, Brihadratha. Kalidasa's celebrated Sanskrit play Malavikagnimitra is a historical fiction that features Agnimitra as its protagonist. The plot centers on the king's love for Malavika, a handmaid who is eventually revealed to be of royal birth. Beyond the romantic narrative, the play provides valuable historical context regarding the Sunga period, including references to the administration of the empire and the military conflicts with the Yavanas during Pushyamitra's reign.
63Polity and Governance
Ministry of Women and Child Development adopted the Mission statement of 'Budgeting for Gender Equality' in 2004-05. In this context which of the following statement/statements is/are correct ?
1. It calls for incorporating a gender perspective at all levels and stages of the budgetary process.
2. It stands for providing safe shelter to displaced women.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Gender Budgeting is a strategic tool used by the government to ensure that the benefits of development reach women as much as men. The mission statement Budgeting for Gender Equality, adopted by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in 2004-05, focuses on institutionalizing this approach. It requires the integration of a gender perspective into the planning, formulation, implementation, and evaluation of all government policies and programs. Rather than creating a separate budget for women, it involves analyzing the entire budgetary process to identify how public resources are allocated and spent, ensuring that the specific needs and challenges of women are addressed across all sectors of the economy.
64Polity and Governance
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987. In this context which of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) Hon'ble Chief Justice of Supreme Court is the Executive Chairman of the Authority
Explanation
Under the provisions of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) is constituted with the Chief Justice of India serving as the Patron-in-Chief. The position of Executive Chairman of the Authority is held by a serving or retired Judge of the Supreme Court of India, who is nominated by the President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India. Thus, the Chief Justice of India does not function as the Executive Chairman but rather provides overall guidance in the capacity of Patron-in-Chief.
65Polity and Governance
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below :
List-I (Commission) List-II (Issue)
A. Dar Commission 1. Assassination of Indira Gandhi
B. Kalelkar Commission 2. Ragging in educational institutions
C. Thakkar Commission 3. Demand for Linguistic States
4. Backward Classes
Code :
A B C
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1
Explanation
The Dar Commission (A) was appointed in 1948 to report on the demand for linguistic states and recommended that administrative convenience should be the primary basis for state reorganization. The Kalelkar Commission (B) was the first Backward Classes Commission, established in 1953 to identify and recommend measures for socially and educationally backward classes. The Thakkar Commission (C) was set up in 1984 under Justice M.P. Thakkar to investigate the conspiracy and security failures related to the assassination of Indira Gandhi.
66Polity and Governance
Which of the following provisions is/are not directly covered in the definition of Domestic violence under the 'Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005'?
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Answer: (C) Non-sharing of house-hold work, non-caring attitude for children, unhealthy habits of living, late coming etc. (of the male partner)
Explanation
Section 3 of the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, provides a comprehensive definition of domestic violence, categorizing it into physical abuse, sexual abuse, verbal and emotional abuse, and economic abuse. While the Act covers a wide range of conduct including harassment for dowry and deprivation of financial resources, it does not classify behavioral issues such as the non-sharing of household work, a non-caring attitude, late coming, or unhealthy living habits as domestic violence. These behaviors are generally categorized as marital or domestic friction rather than the specific types of harmful conduct or harassment legally required to constitute an offense under the Act. The legal definition focuses on actions that cause actual harm, injury, or endangerment to the health, safety, life, limb, or well-being of the aggrieved person.
67Polity and Governance
Which of the following movements address both sociological and ecological issues ?
1. The Trade Union movements in postcolonial India
2. Narmada Bachao Andolan
3. Jai Prakash Narain's movement for total revolution
4. Chilka Bachao Andolan
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Narmada Bachao Andolan (NBA) is a significant social movement that emerged to protest against the construction of large dams across the Narmada River. It addresses ecological issues such as the destruction of forest lands and river ecosystems, while simultaneously tackling sociological concerns regarding the displacement of indigenous tribal populations and the preservation of their traditional ways of life and land rights. Similarly, the Chilka Bachao Andolan (CBA) in Odisha was formed to resist the entry of large-scale commercial prawn farming into Chilka Lake. This movement addresses the ecological degradation of the lake's biodiversity and water quality, alongside the sociological struggle of local fishing communities to maintain their traditional livelihoods and access to common property resources against corporate interests.
68Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a correct description of the 'zero hour'?
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Answer: (C) Questions to be asked during zero hour are circulated one day in advance only
Explanation
Zero Hour is an informal parliamentary device that does not require any prior notice or the circulation of questions in advance. It is an Indian innovation in parliamentary procedure that has been in existence since 1962. Unlike the Question Hour, where questions are submitted and processed days or weeks beforehand, Zero Hour allows members to raise urgent matters of public importance spontaneously. While members typically submit a notice to the Speaker or Chairman between 8:30 AM and 10:00 AM on the day of the sitting to indicate their intent to raise a matter, the requirement for questions to be circulated one day in advance does not apply to this session. This lack of formal procedure is what distinguishes it from other regulated segments of the parliamentary day.
69Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha can amend a money bill
Explanation
Under Article 109 of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha is granted limited powers regarding Money Bills. Once a Money Bill is passed by the Lok Sabha and transmitted to the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House must return the bill within a period of fourteen days with its recommendations. While the Rajya Sabha can suggest changes, it lacks the legal authority to actually amend the bill. The Lok Sabha possesses the sole discretion to either accept or reject any or all of the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha. If the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha, without any of the amendments suggested by the Rajya Sabha. This procedural framework ensures that the Rajya Sabha cannot block or modify financial legislation against the will of the Lok Sabha.
70Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct ? The attorney general of India
1. must have the qualifications as that required by a judge of the supreme court.
2. enjoys the same privileges and immunities as the members of Parliament.
3. has the right of audience in all courts of India.
4. his salaries and expenses are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Under Article 76(1) of the Constitution of India, the President appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of the Supreme Court to be the Attorney General for India. In the performance of official duties, Article 76(3) grants the Attorney General the right of audience in all courts within the territory of India. Additionally, Article 105(4) stipulates that the privileges and immunities available to members of Parliament also apply to the Attorney General, as they possess the right to speak in and participate in the proceedings of either House or any parliamentary committee. While the Attorney General receives remuneration, it is determined by the President under Article 76(6) and is not classified as expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3), unlike the salaries of Supreme Court judges or the Comptroller and Auditor-General.
71Polity and Governance
Who among the following Prime Ministers of India never had to seek trust vote (vote of confidence) from the Lok Sabha ?
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Answer: (A) Indira Gandhi
Explanation
Indira Gandhi never sought a Vote of Confidence because she commanded a clear and absolute majority in the Lok Sabha during her various tenures as Prime Minister. The practice of a Prime Minister proactively seeking a trust vote is a parliamentary convention that gained prominence during the era of coalition politics and minority governments, starting specifically with the appointment of Charan Singh in 1979. In such cases, the President typically directs the Prime Minister to prove their majority on the floor of the House. Since Indira Gandhi's governments were formed on the basis of decisive electoral mandates in the 1967, 1971, and 1980 general elections, she was never required to move a government-initiated motion of confidence, although she successfully defeated several No-Confidence Motions brought by the opposition.
72Polity and Governance
The Parliament is entitled to enact a law of preventive detention for reasons connected with :
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Answer: (D) all the above
Explanation
The legislative power to enact laws regarding preventive detention is distributed between the Union and the States under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. Entry 9 of the Union List (List I) empowers the Parliament to exclusively legislate on preventive detention for reasons connected with the defence of India, foreign affairs, or the security of India. While the Parliament also shares concurrent power with State Legislatures under Entry 3 of List III for grounds such as the security of a State or maintenance of public order, the specific areas of national defence, international relations, and the overall security of the country are within the Parliament's specific jurisdiction. Thus, the Parliament is entitled to enact preventive detention laws for all the mentioned reasons.
73Economy
Who among the following Prime Ministers of India has not presented the budget ?
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Answer: (B) Morarji Desai
Explanation
Morarji Desai did not present the Union Budget during his tenure as the Prime Minister of India from 1977 to 1979. While he holds the record for presenting the maximum number of budgets in Indian history (10 in total), all of these were presented during his earlier stints as Finance Minister under Prime Ministers Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi. In the history of Indian Parliament, only three Prime Ministers have presented the budget while holding the office of Prime Minister: Jawaharlal Nehru (1958-59), Indira Gandhi (1970-71), and Rajiv Gandhi (1987-88). During Desai's Prime Ministership, the budget presentations were handled by his Finance Ministers, H.M. Patel and Charan Singh.
74Economy
Consider the following statements :
1. When the inflation decreases, but still remains positive, it is deflation.
2. Deflation reduces the real value of money over time.
3. Historically not all episodes of deflation correspond with periods of poor economic growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
Deflation is defined as a sustained decrease in the general price level of goods and services, which occurs when the inflation rate falls below 0 percent. Statement 1 is incorrect because a decrease in the rate of inflation that remains positive is termed disinflation. Statement 2 is incorrect because deflation increases the real value of money over time; as prices fall, the purchasing power of a unit of currency rises, allowing it to buy more goods than before.
Statement 3 is correct because historical data shows that deflation is not always synonymous with economic contraction. Economists distinguish between demand-side deflation, which is associated with recessions, and supply-side deflation, which results from increased productivity and technological progress. For instance, during the late 19th century, particularly from 1870 to 1890, the United States and several European countries experienced a period known as the Great Deflation. During this time, prices fell consistently due to the efficiency gains of the Second Industrial Revolution, yet the era was characterized by significant real economic growth and rising living standards.
75Polity and Governance
Which one of the following are advance grants made by the House of People in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of the ensuing financial year, pending the regular passage of the budget ?
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Answer: (D) Vote on account
Explanation
Under Article 116 of the Constitution of India, the Vote on Account is a device that allows the House of the People to make any grant in advance in respect of the estimated expenditure for a part of the ensuing financial year. Since the process of discussing and passing the annual budget usually extends beyond the beginning of the new financial year on April 1st, the government requires funds to carry out its administrative functions and meet essential expenditures during this interim period. The Vote on Account is typically passed for a period of two months for an amount equivalent to one-sixth of the total estimated expenditure presented in the budget. This mechanism ensures that the government can withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to maintain continuity in governance while the regular budgetary process and the passage of the Appropriation Bill are still pending.
76Economy
Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA) set up by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India in 2006 to undertake a complete health checkup of the country's financial sector ?
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Answer: (C) Dr. Rakesh Mohan
Explanation
The Committee on Financial Sector Assessment (CFSA) was constituted in September 2006 by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India to conduct a comprehensive self-assessment of the Indian financial sector's stability and development. Dr. Rakesh Mohan, who was the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India at the time, chaired the committee. The assessment focused on three main pillars: financial stability assessment and stress testing, evaluation of financial sector standards and codes, and an analysis of developmental issues. The committee aimed to identify potential vulnerabilities and benchmark the Indian financial system against international best practices. The CFSA released its exhaustive six-volume report in March 2009, providing a detailed health checkup that concluded the Indian financial system was generally robust and resilient.
77Geography
Which one of the following causes rainfall in the north-western parts of India during Winter Season ?
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Answer: (C) Western disturbances
Explanation
Western disturbances are extratropical cyclones that originate in the Mediterranean region and travel eastwards towards India, driven by the subtropical westerly jet streams. These low-pressure systems pick up moisture as they travel over the Mediterranean Sea, Black Sea, and Caspian Sea before entering the Indian subcontinent through the northwest. They are responsible for the essential winter rainfall in the plains of North-West India, including Punjab, Haryana, and Rajasthan, and contribute to significant snowfall in the Himalayan regions. This winter precipitation is highly beneficial for the cultivation of Rabi crops, particularly wheat, which is a major agricultural staple in these parts of the country during the winter months.
78Geography
Tidal range denotes the :
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Answer: (D) difference between high and low tide
Explanation
The tidal range is the vertical difference in height between consecutive high and low tides at a particular location. It represents the total variation in sea level during a single tidal cycle and is calculated using the formula:
Tidal Range = Height_High Tide - Height_Low Tide
The magnitude of this range is influenced by the gravitational pull exerted by the Moon and the Sun, the phase of the moon, and local geographic factors such as the shape of the coastline and the depth of the seafloor. Areas with funnel-shaped estuaries or narrow bays often experience a significantly higher tidal range compared to the open ocean.
79Geography
Consider the following statements :
1. The Damuda series of rock system contain all the metallurgical coal in India.
2. Tamil Nadu is the chief producer of lignite coal in India.
3. Tertiary coal is mainly confined to the peninsular India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Damuda series is the most significant coal-bearing formation within the Gondwana rock system of India. It includes the Barakar and Raniganj measures, which contain nearly all of the country's high-grade bituminous and metallurgical coal reserves, primarily located in the Damodar Valley across Jharkhand and West Bengal.
Tamil Nadu is the preeminent producer of lignite, also known as brown coal, in India. The state accounts for an overwhelming majority of the nation's lignite reserves and production. These deposits are centrally located in the Neyveli region of the Cuddalore district, where the coal is extensively mined for use in large-scale thermal power generation.
80Geography
Which one of the following states of India is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides ?
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Answer: (C) Tripura
Explanation
Tripura is a landlocked state in Northeast India that shares an extensive international boundary with Bangladesh. The state is surrounded by Bangladesh on three sides—specifically the north, south, and west. Its international border with Bangladesh stretches approximately 856 kilometers, which accounts for more than 84 percent of the state's total perimeter. On its eastern side, Tripura shares domestic borders with the Indian states of Assam and Mizoram, which serve as its only land connection to the rest of the country. This unique geographical alignment makes Tripura essentially a protrusion of Indian territory into Bangladesh.
81Geography
Through which one of the following continents, do the equator, the tropic of cancer and the tropic of capricorn pass through ?
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Answer: (A) Africa
Explanation
Africa is the only continent in the world through which all three major imaginary lines of latitude pass: the Equator, the Tropic of Cancer, and the Tropic of Capricorn. Due to its massive latitudinal extent, the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) crosses through the northern part of the continent, the Equator (0°) passes through the central part, and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S) traverses the southern part. This unique geographic positioning places large portions of the continent within the tropical zone, stretching from the Mediterranean Sea in the north to the temperate regions in the south.
82Science and Technology
The laboratory from where carbon dioxide measurements have been taken since 1958 A.D., which form the basis of present global warming data base is :
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Answer: (B) Mauna Loa observatory
Explanation
The Mauna Loa Observatory (MLO) in Hawaii is the site of the world's longest continuous record of atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO₂) concentrations. Initiated by Charles David Keeling in March 1958, these measurements led to the creation of the Keeling Curve, which illustrates a steady and significant rise in CO₂ levels over the decades. The observatory is situated at an elevation of approximately 3,400 meters on the flank of the Mauna Loa volcano, where its remote location in the North Pacific allows for the sampling of well-mixed air far from local sources of industrial pollution or dense vegetation. This consistent, long-term dataset provides the primary empirical evidence for the accumulation of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere and serves as the fundamental basis for the global warming database and contemporary climate science.
83Geography
What happens to the soil, where soil water freezes and it tends to form ice layers parallel with the ground surface ?
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Answer: (A) It heaves the soil upward in an uneven manner
Explanation
Frost heave occurs when freezing temperatures penetrate the soil, causing moisture to freeze and form ice lenses parallel to the ground surface. As water transitions from a liquid to a solid state, its volume increases by approximately 9 percent. This expansion exerts significant pressure on the surrounding soil. Since the ground surface represents the path of least resistance compared to the compacted soil below, the soil is pushed upward. This process is typically uneven because variations in soil porosity, moisture content, and thermal conductivity lead to different rates of ice accumulation and expansion across a given area, resulting in an irregular displacement of the surface.
84Geography
What happens to the water depth as the Tsunami waves approach the coast ?
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Answer: (A) Decreases
Explanation
As tsunami waves travel from the deep open ocean towards the coastline, they move across the continental slope and onto the continental shelf. By definition, the bathymetry of the ocean floor rises as it nears land, which means the vertical distance between the sea surface and the seabed becomes smaller. This reduction in water depth triggers the process of shoaling, where the wave speed decreases and the wave amplitude increases because the energy flux of the tsunami must remain constant while the volume of water through which it moves is constricted by the shallowing seafloor.
85Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. The Earth receives the Sun's energy at the infrared end of the spectrum.
2. The Earth re-radiates the Sun's heat as ultraviolet energy.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
According to Wien's Displacement Law, the wavelength at which a body emits its maximum energy is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature, expressed as λ_max = b/T. The Sun, possessing a high surface temperature of approximately 5800 K, emits the bulk of its electromagnetic radiation in the form of short-wave radiation. This peak emission occurs primarily within the visible light spectrum (0.4 to 0.7 micrometers), with the remainder distributed between ultraviolet and near-infrared wavelengths. Consequently, the Earth does not receive the majority of the Sun's energy specifically at the infrared end.
In contrast, the Earth has a much lower average surface temperature of about 288 K. Following the same physical law, the Earth re-radiates the energy it absorbs at much longer wavelengths. This terrestrial radiation, often referred to as long-wave radiation, falls almost entirely within the thermal infrared portion of the spectrum. Ultraviolet radiation consists of high-energy, short-wavelength waves that are characteristic of much hotter bodies than the Earth; therefore, the Earth does not re-radiate heat as ultraviolet energy.
86Geography
Which one of the following is a planetary wind ?
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Answer: (B) Trade
Explanation
Planetary winds, also known as permanent or prevailing winds, are large-scale wind systems that blow across the globe throughout the year in a relatively constant direction. They are driven by the pressure gradient created by the differential heating of the Earth's surface and the Coriolis effect. Trade winds are a classic example of planetary winds, originating from the subtropical high-pressure belts (around 30° N and S) and blowing toward the equatorial low-pressure belt. In the Northern Hemisphere, these are known as the Northeast Trade winds, while in the Southern Hemisphere, they are the Southeast Trade winds. They form an integral part of the global atmospheric circulation, specifically the Hadley Cell.
87Geography
Which one of the following does not control climate ?
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Answer: (C) Longitude
Explanation
Longitude indicates the angular distance of a place east or west of the Prime Meridian. While it is essential for determining time zones and geographic positioning, it does not exert a physical influence on the climatic conditions of a region. Climatic variables like temperature and precipitation are influenced by the intensity of solar radiation, atmospheric pressure, and moisture levels, which vary with latitude, elevation, and surface characteristics. Moving along a constant line of longitude can transition through every possible climate zone from the poles to the equator, demonstrating that the longitudinal coordinate itself has no regulatory effect on weather patterns or long-term climate.
88Geography
Which one of the following types of forests cover the largest area in India ?
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Answer: (A) Tropical dry deciduous
Explanation
Tropical dry deciduous forests are the most widespread forest type in India, covering the largest percentage of the country's total forest area. These forests are typically found in regions receiving annual rainfall between 70 cm and 100 cm. They occupy vast tracts across the North Indian plains and the inner parts of the Peninsular plateau, spanning states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and the drier parts of the Deccan plateau. According to the classification by Champion and Seth and assessments by the Forest Survey of India, the dry deciduous category exceeds the moist deciduous category in terms of total geographical coverage, making it the dominant forest ecosystem in the Indian subcontinent. These forests are characterized by trees that shed their leaves completely during the dry season to conserve moisture.
89Quantitative Aptitude
'A' completes a work in 10 days, while 'B' and 'C' complete it in 12 and 15 days respectively. In how many days can 'A', 'B' and 'C' together complete the work ?
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Answer: (B) 4
Explanation
To calculate the time taken by A, B, and C working together, we determine their combined rate of work. Given A takes 10 days, B takes 12 days, and C takes 15 days, their individual work rates per day are 1/10, 1/12, and 1/15.
The combined daily work rate is:
Rate = 1/10 + 1/12 + 1/15
Using the least common multiple of 60 as the common denominator:
Rate = (6 + 5 + 4)/60 = 15/60 = 1/4
The total number of days required to complete the work is the reciprocal of the combined rate:
Time = 1/(1/4) = 4 days
Alternatively, considering a total work of 60 units (the LCM of 10, 12, and 15), the daily outputs of A, B, and C are 6, 5, and 4 units respectively. Their combined output is 15 units per day. The time taken is calculated by dividing the total work of 60 units by the combined daily output of 15 units, which results in 4 days.
90Quantitative Aptitude
Kamla got married 6 years ago. Today her age is 1 1/4 times her age at the time of marriage. Her son's age is 1/10 times her present age. What is her son's age ?
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Answer: (B) 3 years
Explanation
Let Kamla's age at the time of her marriage be M. Since she married 6 years ago, her present age is M + 6. The problem states her present age is 1¼ times her age at marriage, which is (5/4)M.
Equating the two expressions for her present age:
M + 6 = (5/4)M
4(M + 6) = 5M
4M + 24 = 5M
M = 24
Kamla's age at marriage was 24 years. Her present age is 24 + 6 = 30 years. The son's age is given as 1/10 of her present age.
Son's age = (1/10) × 30 = 3 years.
Alternatively, using the ratio method, the ratio of her present age to her age at marriage is 5:4. The difference in parts is 5 - 4 = 1 part, which corresponds to the 6 years that have passed since marriage. Since 1 part equals 6 years, her present age of 5 parts equals 5 × 6 = 30 years. Taking 1/10 of 30 years gives the son's age as 3 years.
91Logical Reasoning
The number of times the hands of a watch are at right angle between 4 p.m. to 10 p.m. is :
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Answer: (D) 11
Explanation
In a 12-hour period, the hands of a clock are at right angles exactly 22 times. While they typically form a right angle twice every hour, a reduction occurs during the 2-4 and 8-10 intervals. Specifically, at 3:00 and 9:00, the hands form a right angle exactly on the hour, which results in only 3 right angles occurring in those 2-hour spans instead of the expected 4.
The duration from 4 p.m. to 10 p.m. is 6 hours. This interval includes the 8-10 period (where the 9:00 position is included), but does not include the 2-4 period.
The number of right angles can be calculated as:
Number of right angles = (6 hours × 2 times/hour) - 1 (reduction at 9:00)
Number of right angles = 12 - 1 = 11
Breaking it down by hour:
4 p.m. to 8 p.m. (4 hours): 4 × 2 = 8 times.
8 p.m. to 10 p.m. (2 hours): 3 times (occurring at approximately 8:27, 9:00, and 9:32).
Total = 8 + 3 = 11 times.
92Logical Reasoning
If Saturday falls four days after today which is 6th January, on which day did the first of December of the previous year fall ?
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Answer: (C) Sunday
Explanation
Today is 6th January. The phrase Saturday falls four days after today implies that there is a gap of four days (7th, 8th, 9th, and 10th) between today and Saturday. Therefore, Saturday is the 11th of January.
To find the day on 1st December of the previous year, we calculate the total number of days between 1st December and 11th January:
Days in December = 31
Days in January = 11
The total number of days from 1st December to 11th January is calculated by the difference:
Total days = (Days in December - 1) + 11 = 30 + 11 = 41 days.
Now, determine the number of odd days by dividing the total days by 7:
41 ÷ 7 = 5 weeks and 6 odd days.
Since we are moving backward in time from Saturday, 11th January, we subtract 6 days:
Saturday - 6 days = Sunday.
Alternatively, moving back 6 days is equivalent to moving forward 1 day. Saturday + 1 day (in a reverse cycle) would not work, but Sunday + 6 days is Saturday. Thus, 1st December was a Sunday.
93Quantitative Aptitude
'R' walks 1 km. to east and then he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he turns to east and walks 2 km. After this he turns to north and walks 9 km. How far is he from his starting point ?
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Answer: (C) 5 km.
Explanation
The net displacement of 'R' can be calculated by determining the total horizontal and vertical changes from the starting point (0,0).
The total horizontal distance covered in the East direction is 1 km + 2 km = 3 km.
The total vertical distance is the difference between the northward and southward movements, which is 9 km (North) - 5 km (South) = 4 km.
To find the shortest distance from the starting point, we use the Pythagorean theorem:
Distance = √((Horizontal Distance)² + (Vertical Distance)²)
Distance = √(3² + 4²)
Distance = √(9 + 16)
Distance = √25 = 5 km
The coordinates (3, 4) relative to the start form a classic 3-4-5 right-angled triangle, resulting in a distance of 5 km.
94Logical Reasoning
If WOMAN is coded as 12345 and SERVANT is coded as 6789450, then VOTERS will be coded as :
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Answer: (A) 920786
Explanation
This is a direct substitution coding problem where each letter in the given words is represented by a specific digit. By comparing the words WOMAN (12345) and SERVANT (6789450), we can identify the unique digit mapped to each letter: W=1, O=2, M=3, A=4, N=5, S=6, E=7, R=8, V=9, and T=0.
To find the code for VOTERS, we extract the digits corresponding to its letters: V is represented by 9, O is represented by 2, T is represented by 0, E is represented by 7, R is represented by 8, and S is represented by 6. Arranging these digits in order gives the code 920786.
95Logical Reasoning
Which will be the next term in the following ?
KPA, LQB, MRC, NSD, .........
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Answer: (B) OTE
Explanation
The sequence follows a pattern where each letter in the three-letter string is incremented by one position in the English alphabet (+1 shift) to form the next term. For the first position, the letters progress as K, L, M, N, so the next letter is O. For the second position, the letters progress as P, Q, R, S, making the next letter T. For the third position, the letters progress as A, B, C, D, resulting in the next letter E. Combining these individual shifts yields the term OTE.
96Quantitative Aptitude
The missing number in the following table is :
1 7 9
2 14 ?
3 105 117
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Answer: (A) 12
Explanation
The values in the table follow a column-wise pattern where the element in the third row (R₃) is the product of the element in the first row (R₁) and the successor of the element in the second row (R₂). This relationship is defined by the formula:
A person moves along a circular path by a distance equal to half the circumference in a given time. The ratio of his average speed to his average velocity is
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Answer: (B) 0·5π
Explanation
Average speed is defined as the total distance traveled per unit time, while average velocity is defined as the net displacement per unit time. Let r be the radius of the circular path and t be the time taken.
When a person moves half the circumference of a circle, the distance traveled is s = (1/2) × 2πr = πr. The displacement, which is the shortest straight-line distance between the starting and ending points of the semi-circle, is equal to the diameter, d = 2r.
The average speed is:
v_speed = πr/t
The average velocity is:
v_velocity = 2r/t
The ratio of average speed to average velocity is:
Ratio = v_speed/v_velocity = (πr/t)/(2r/t) = π/2 = 0.5π
98Logical Reasoning
Consider the following :
1. Every square is a rectangle.
2. Every rectangle is a parallelogram.
3. Every parallelogram is not necessarily a square.
Which one of the following conclusions can be drawn on the basis of the above statements ?
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Answer: (B) A non-parallelogram figures cannot be either a square or a rectangle.
Explanation
The relationship between the geometric figures is defined by a series of subset inclusions based on the given statements. Statement 1 establishes that squares are a subset of rectangles (S ⊂ R), and Statement 2 establishes that rectangles are a subset of parallelograms (R ⊂ P). By the transitive property of subsets, it follows that all squares are also parallelograms (S ⊂ P).
In logic, the contrapositive of a statement is always equivalent to the original statement. Since every rectangle is a parallelogram (R ⇒ P), the contrapositive dictates that if a figure is not a parallelogram, it cannot be a rectangle (¬ P ⇒ ¬ R). Likewise, since every square is a parallelogram (S ⇒ P), if a figure is not a parallelogram, it cannot be a square (¬ P ⇒ ¬ S). Consequently, any figure that falls outside the category of parallelograms is logically excluded from being either a square or a rectangle.
99Quantitative Aptitude
Distribution of work hours in a factory is shown in the below given table :
Number of workers Number of hours worked
20 45-50
15 40-44
25 35-39
16 30-34
04 00-29
What is the percentage of workers worked for 40 or more hours ?
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Answer: (D) 43.75
Explanation
To determine the percentage of workers who worked 40 or more hours, we first calculate the total number of workers in the factory by summing all entries in the frequency column:
Total workers N = 20 + 15 + 25 + 16 + 4 = 80
The category 40 or more hours includes the groups 40-44 hours and 45-50 hours. Summing the number of workers in these specific categories gives:
Workers with ≥ 40 hours n = 15 + 20 = 35
The required percentage is calculated as:
Percentage = (n/N) × 100
Percentage = (35/80) × 100
By dividing 350 by 8, we arrive at the final value of 43.75 percent.
100Quantitative Aptitude
8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, 5 apples as much as 3 mangoes, 4 mangoes as much as 8 pineapples. If 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, then an orange's cost is :
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Answer: (A) Rs. 9
Explanation
The cost of one orange can be calculated by working backward from the known price of pineapples. Given that 3 pineapples cost Rs. 36, the price of one pineapple is 36/3 = 12 Rs. According to the problem, 4 mangoes cost as much as 8 pineapples, so the cost of 4 mangoes is 8 × 12 = 96 Rs. This means the cost of one mango is 96/4 = 24 Rs. Since 5 apples cost as much as 3 mangoes, the cost of 5 apples is 3 × 24 = 72 Rs. Finally, because 8 oranges cost as much as 5 apples, the cost of 8 oranges is 72 Rs. To find the price of a single orange, we divide the total cost by the number of oranges: 72/8 = 9 Rs. Alternatively, using the chain rule, the cost of one orange is calculated as (5/8) × (3/5) × (8/4) × (36/3) = 9 Rs.
101Quantitative Aptitude
If a Φ b is defined as aᵇ + bᵃ, then consider :
I 2 ⊕ x = 100
II 4 ⊕ x = 145
III 3 ⊕ x = 145
IV 6 ⊕ x = 100
For which of the above, is x smallest ?
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Answer: (D) IV
Explanation
The operation is defined as aᵇ + bᵃ. To determine where x is smallest, we solve for x in each statement using the given operation:
In statement I, 2^x + x² = 100. By inspection, if x = 6, then 2⁶ + 6² = 64 + 36 = 100, so x = 6.
In statement II, 4^x + x⁴ = 145. If x = 3, then 4³ + 3⁴ = 64 + 81 = 145, so x = 3.
In statement III, 3^x + x³ = 145. If x = 4, then 3⁴ + 4³ = 81 + 64 = 145, so x = 4.
In statement IV, 6^x + x⁶ = 100. If x = 2, then 6² + 2⁶ = 36 + 64 = 100, so x = 2.
Comparing the values of x obtained (6, 3, 4, and 2), the smallest value is x = 2, which corresponds to statement IV.
102Quantitative Aptitude
In a test a candidate attempted only 15 questions and secured full marks in all of them. If he obtained 60% marks in the test and all the questions in the test carried equal marks, the number of questions in the test is :
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Answer: (B) 25
Explanation
The total number of questions in the test can be determined using the percentage formula. Let N be the total number of questions and x be the marks assigned to each question. The marks secured by the candidate are 15 × x, as he secured full marks in 15 questions. According to the problem, these marks represent 60% of the total marks in the test (N × x).
The relationship is expressed as:
15x = (60/100) × (Nx)
By canceling x from both sides:
15 = 0.60 × N
N = 15/0.60
N = 1500/60 = 25
Since the marks per question are equal and the candidate secured full marks in all attempted questions, the number of questions attempted (15) is directly proportional to the percentage of total marks obtained (60%). Therefore, the total number of questions representing 100% is 25.
103Quantitative Aptitude
The grandfather's age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. The father's age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. The age of the grandfather is :
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Answer: (C) 67 years
Explanation
To find the age of the grandfather, we first determine the age of the grandson using the relationship provided for the father. Let the age of the grandson be S. According to the problem, the father's age of 40 years is 2 years less than six times the age of his son. This gives the equation:
40 = 6S - 2
42 = 6S
S = 7
The grandson is 7 years old. The problem states that the grandfather's age is 4 years more than nine times the age of the grandson. Let the grandfather's age be G:
G = 9S + 4
G = 9(7) + 4
G = 63 + 4
G = 67
The grandfather's age is 67 years.
104Quantitative Aptitude
If 4 = 10^(2m) and 9 = 10^(2n), then 0.15 equals to :
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Answer: (D) 10^(n - m - 1)
Explanation
From the given equations, we can simplify the expressions for 4 and 9 by taking the square root of both sides:
4 = 10^(2m) ⇒ (2²) = (10ᵐ)² ⇒ 2 = 10ᵐ
9 = 10^(2n) ⇒ (3²) = (10ⁿ)² ⇒ 3 = 10ⁿ
The value we need to find is 0.15. We can express 0.15 as a fraction and then substitute the values derived above:
0.15 = 15/100 = (3 × 5)/100 = 3/20
0.15 = 3/(2 × 10)
Substituting 3 = 10ⁿ and 2 = 10ᵐ into the expression:
0.15 = 10ⁿ / (10ᵐ × 10¹)
Applying the laws of exponents, where aˣ / (aʸ · aᶻ) = a^(x - y - z):
0.15 = 10^(n - m - 1)
105Quantitative Aptitude
The mean age of combined group of men and women is 25 years. If the mean age of group of men is 26 and that of group of women is 21, then percentage of men and women in the group respectively is :
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Answer: (B) 80, 20
Explanation
Using the rule of alligation, the ratio of the number of men to the number of women is the inverse ratio of the differences between their individual means and the combined mean. Let Mₘ be the mean age of men, M_w be the mean age of women, and M_c be the combined mean age. The ratio of men (nₘ) to women (n_w) is determined by:
This ratio implies that for every 4 men, there is 1 woman in the group, making a total of 5 parts. To find the percentage of each group:
Percentage of men = (4/(4 + 1)) × 100 = (4/5) × 100 = 80%
Percentage of women = (1/(4 + 1)) × 100 = (1/5) × 100 = 20%
The weighted average calculation verifies the result: (0.80 × 26) + (0.20 × 21) = 20.8 + 4.2 = 25 years.
106Quantitative Aptitude
The width of a rectangle is 4x which is only 25% of its length. What are the area and the perimeter of the rectangle respectively ?
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Answer: (D) 64x² squint and 40x unit
Explanation
The width W of the rectangle is given as 4x. The problem states that this width is 25% of the length L, which can be expressed mathematically as W = 0.25L or W = (1/4)L. Substituting the value of W into the equation gives 4x = (1/4)L, which results in L = 16x.
The area A of a rectangle is calculated using the formula A = length × width. Substituting the derived values:
A = 16x × 4x = 64x²
The perimeter P of a rectangle is calculated using the formula P = 2(length + width). Substituting the derived values:
P = 2(16x + 4x) = 2(20x) = 40x
Based on these calculations, the area is 64x² square units and the perimeter is 40x units.
107Polity and Governance
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A) : Import of Chinese toys was recently banned by the Government of India.
Reason (R) : The plastic material used to make the toys are not biodegradable.
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation
In early 2009, the Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry imposed a ban on the import of toys from China. This assertion is true as it reflects a major trade policy decision of that period. The reason provided is also factually true because the vast majority of plastic toys are manufactured using synthetic polymers like PVC and polystyrene, which are inherently non-biodegradable and pose environmental challenges. However, the specific reason the Indian government implemented the ban was not related to environmental biodegradability. Instead, the ban was prompted by serious health and safety concerns, specifically the presence of hazardous levels of toxic heavy metals such as lead and cadmium, as well as dangerous phthalates found in the toys, which posed a direct risk to the health of children. Since both statements are independently true but the reason does not provide the underlying cause for the assertion, they do not share a causal link.
108Science and Technology
Assertion (A): A person suffering from myopia uses a concave lens.
Reason (R): A concave lens diverges a beam of light incident on it.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
In myopia, also known as near-sightedness, the eye's refractive power is too high or the eyeball is too long, causing light rays from distant objects to converge and form an image in front of the retina rather than directly on it. To correct this, a concave lens is used because of its fundamental optical property as a diverging lens. When light rays pass through a concave lens, they are spread outward. By placing a concave lens of appropriate focal length in front of the myopic eye, the incoming parallel rays are diverged before they enter the eye's lens system. This divergence ensures that the eye's internal lens can then converge the rays at a point further back, accurately focusing the image onto the retina. Therefore, the ability of a concave lens to diverge light is the specific physical mechanism that allows it to correct the vision of a person suffering from myopia.
109Economy
Assertion (A): The "Green Belt" represents a planning concept for controlling the physical expansion of large cities.
Reason (R): "Green Belt" is an integral component of a city.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
The Green Belt is a strategic land-use planning tool designed to prevent urban sprawl by keeping land permanently open. Its primary objectives include checking the unrestricted sprawl of large built-up areas, preventing neighboring towns from merging, and safeguarding the countryside from encroachment. This confirms that Assertion (A) is true, as the concept is specifically used to control the physical expansion of cities.
However, a Green Belt is not an integral component of a city itself. It is a ring of land maintained as open space, situated around the periphery or outside the urban area to act as a buffer. While internal green spaces like parks and gardens are integral components of a city's fabric, the Green Belt is a restrictive boundary intended to separate the urban area from the rural environment. Thus, Reason (R) is false.
110Geography
Assertion (A): In areas of intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandry plays an insignificant role.
Reason (R): Throughout the region, the farmers are handicapped in raising cattle due to lack of scientific methods of breeding.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
In intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandry plays a significant, rather than insignificant, role. Livestock such as bullocks and buffaloes are indispensable for various farm operations including plowing, tilling, and lifting water for irrigation. They also serve as a vital source of organic manure, which is essential for maintaining soil fertility in these densely cropped areas. Therefore, the assertion that their role is insignificant is incorrect. However, the reason provided is true because farmers in these regions are often limited by traditional practices and a lack of access to modern scientific methods of breeding, quality feed, and advanced veterinary care. These constraints hinder the development of high-yield cattle varieties, keeping the livestock component less productive than its potential despite its critical functional importance to the farm.
111Science and Technology
Assertion (A): Nitrogen gas is used to provide inert atmosphere in chemical reaction.
Reason (R): Nitrogen gas has a very little chemical reactivity at ordinary temperature.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Nitrogen gas (N₂) consists of two nitrogen atoms joined by a very strong triple covalent bond (N≡N). The bond dissociation enthalpy of this triple bond is extremely high, approximately 941.4 kJ/mol, which makes the molecule exceptionally stable and chemically inert at ordinary temperatures. Because it does not readily react with most substances under standard conditions, it is widely used in chemical industries and laboratories to provide an inert atmosphere, preventing oxidation or other undesirable side reactions that might occur if the reactants were exposed to air or moisture. Thus, the low chemical reactivity of nitrogen at room temperature is the fundamental reason it serves as an effective blanketing gas.