Among the following Indian cities, which one is located most southward?
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Answer: (C) Panaji
Explanation
Panaji, the capital of Goa, is situated at a latitude of approximately 15.49 degrees N. This geographical coordinate is lower than that of Belgaum, which lies at approximately 15.84 degrees N, Hyderabad at approximately 17.38 degrees N, and Visakhapatnam at approximately 17.68 degrees N. By comparing these latitudinal positions, it is evident that Panaji is located further south on the Indian map than any of the other three cities listed.
2Geography
Match List I (National Highway) with List II (Connected Cities) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.
List-I (National Highway)
A. NH 3
B. NH 4
C. NH 11
D. NH 24
List-II (Connected Cities)
1. Delhi-Lucknow
2. Agra-Bikaner
3. Agra-Mumbai
4. Chennai-Thane (Mumbai)
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
NH 3 connected Agra and Mumbai, serving as a primary transit route between North and West India. NH 4 linked Chennai and Thane, facilitating long-distance transport between the Southern and Western states. NH 11 connected Agra and Bikaner, acting as a major highway corridor through the state of Rajasthan via Jaipur. NH 24 linked Delhi and Lucknow, providing the main road connection between the national capital and the capital of Uttar Pradesh.
3Science and Technology
Match List I (Defence Institute) with List II (City) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Defence Institute)
A. College of Defence Management
B. Army Air Defence College
C. Army Supply Corps (ASC) Centre and College
D. Army Education Corps (AEC) Training College and Centre
List-II (City)
1. Pachmarhi
2. Bangalore
3. Secunderabad
4. Gopalpur
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
College of Defence Management (CDM) is situated in Secunderabad and was established in 1970 to impart modern management techniques to senior officers of the three wings of the armed forces.
Army Air Defence College (AADC) is located at Gopalpur-on-Sea, Odisha, and serves as the training hub for providing technical and tactical training to personnel of the Corps of Army Air Defence.
Army Supply Corps (ASC) Centre and College is based in Bangalore and is responsible for the training and development of the logistical support system that manages food, fuel, and transport for the Indian Army.
Army Education Corps (AEC) Training College and Centre is located in Pachmarhi, Madhya Pradesh, where it conducts specialized training in educational instruction and music for the army.
4Science and Technology
Which of the following are Defence Public Sector Undertakings?
1. Goa Shipyard Limited
2. The Bharat Dynamics Limited
3. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
All three organizations listed are Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs) functioning under the administrative control of the Department of Defence Production within the Ministry of Defence. Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) is a premier shipyard on the west coast that builds sophisticated vessels for the Indian Navy and the Indian Coast Guard. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) was established in 1970 as a manufacturing base for guided weapon systems and specialized equipment for the Indian Armed Forces. Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) is a specialized metallurgical unit focused on the production of critical alloys, including superalloys, titanium alloys, and high-grade steels, required for strategic sectors like aeronautics, space, and defense. By the year 2005, these entities were established members of the group of eight DPSUs operating in India.
5Art and Culture
Match List I (Young Indian Player) with List II (Game/Sport) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Young Indian Player)
A. Armaan Ebrahim
B. Joshua Chinappa
C. Adrian D'Souza
D. Karan Rastogi
List-II (Game/Sports)
1. Squash
2. Hockey
3. Lawn Tennis
4. Auto-racing
5. Swimming
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Armaan Ebrahim is a professional racing driver who competed in the Formula BMW Asia series in 2005 and represented India in A1 Grand Prix, aligning with Auto-racing. Joshna Chinappa is a leading Indian squash player who gained prominence by winning the British Squash Championship junior title and becoming a national champion by 2005. Adrian D'Souza is a field hockey goalkeeper who was a key member of the Indian national team during the 2004 Athens Olympics and the 2005 Champions Trophy. Karan Rastogi is a lawn tennis player who was a top-ranked Indian junior and reached the semi-finals of the 2004 Australian Open junior championships.
6Economy
Match List I (Person) with List II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Shiv Nadar
B. Kumaramagalam Birla
C. R. Raju
D. S. Ramadorai
List-II (Organisation)
1. Satyam Computers
2. Tata Consultancy Services
3. Grasim Industries
4. HCL Technologies
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Shiv Nadar is the founder and chairman of HCL Technologies, a company he started in 1976 that became one of Indias original IT garage startups. Kumar Mangalam Birla is the chairman of the Aditya Birla Group, where Grasim Industries serves as a flagship manufacturing company producing viscose staple fibre and cement. B. Ramalinga Raju (R. Raju) was the founder and chairman of Satyam Computer Services, which was one of the leading IT service providers in India during the early 2000s. S. Ramadorai served as the CEO and Managing Director of Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), leading the firm through its significant global expansion and its initial public offering in 2004.
7History
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Gol Gumbaz: Hyderabad
Explanation
Gol Gumbaz is the mausoleum of Muhammad Adil Shah, the seventh Sultan of the Adil Shahi dynasty, and is located in Bijapur (now Vijayapura) in Karnataka, rather than Hyderabad. Completed in 1656, the structure is celebrated for its massive circular dome, which is one of the largest masonry domes in the world. It is also famous for its circular gallery, known as the whispering gallery, where even the slightest sound is echoed multiple times due to the unique acoustics of the space.
8Geography
Where is the Baglihar Hydroelectric Project located?
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Answer: (B) Doda District of Jammu and Kashmir
Explanation
The Baglihar Hydroelectric Power Project, also known as the Baglihar Dam, is constructed on the Chenab River in the Doda district of Jammu and Kashmir. It is a run-of-the-river project designed to harness the hydroelectric potential of the Chenab. The project was conceived in the 1990s, with construction on the first stage beginning in 1999. It is situated specifically in the Chanderkote area, which fell under the jurisdiction of the Doda district at the time of the exam in 2005. The facility was planned to provide significant power generation capacity to the region, utilizing the steep gradient and flow of the river in the mountainous terrain of the Jammu division.
9Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. A child inherits 46 chromosomes from each parent.
2. The genetic material called DNA is located in chromosomes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Human cells normally contain 46 chromosomes, which are organized into 23 pairs. During the formation of reproductive cells through a process called meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved. Consequently, each parent contributes exactly 23 chromosomes to their offspring through the sperm or egg cell. When fertilization occurs, these two sets combine to restore the standard total of 46 chromosomes in the child. Chromosomes are the specialized structures that package and organize genetic material within the cell nucleus. Each chromosome consists of a single, long molecule of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) tightly coiled around proteins called histones. This DNA serves as the hereditary blueprint, carrying the genetic instructions necessary for the development and functioning of the organism.
10Logical Reasoning
ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A, B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new office:
1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team.
2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team.
If C is sent to the new office, which member of the staff cannot go with C?
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Answer: (D) D
Explanation
If C is selected as one of the two Accounts Assistants, the first guideline excludes A from the team, meaning B must be the other Assistant. The second guideline states that C and E cannot work together, so E cannot be one of the three Accounts Officers. This leaves D, F, G, and H as the remaining candidates for the three Officer positions. According to the third and fourth guidelines, D cannot be paired with G or F. If D were selected, both F and G would be ineligible, leaving only D and H available. Because this results in only two Officers when three are required, D cannot be part of the staff sent to the new office.
11Logical Reasoning
ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A, B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new office:
1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team.
2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team.
Under the guidelines developed, which of the following must go to the new office?
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Answer: (A) B
Explanation
The organization needs to select 2 Accounts Assistants from the three available: A, B, and C. The first guideline states that A and C cannot be sent together as members of the same team. Therefore, the only possible pairs of Accounts Assistants that can be formed are (A, B) or (B, C). In both of these valid combinations, B is a required member.
Regarding the Accounts Officers, multiple combinations are possible depending on the choice of assistants and the remaining constraints. For example, if the pair (B, C) is chosen, E cannot be included due to the second guideline, and if D is included, F and G must be excluded. This would result in the team (B, C, D, H) which is incomplete, or the team (B, C, F, G, H) which is valid. If the pair (A, B) is chosen, various sets of Accounts Officers like (D, E, H) or (F, G, H) could be valid. Since B is the only individual who appears in every possible valid configuration of the new office staff, B must go.
12Logical Reasoning
ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A, B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new office:
1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team.
2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team.
Under the guidelines developed, which one of the following is the possible number of different teams which can be sent to the new office?
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Answer: (D) 6
Explanation
To find the number of possible teams, we must select 2 Accounts Assistants from {A, B, C} and 3 Accounts Officers from {D, E, F, G, H} while satisfying all constraints.
Step 1: Selection of Assistants.
From the set {A, B, C}, we need to choose 2. The possible pairs are {A, B}, {B, C}, and {A, C}. Constraint 1 states A and C cannot be together, leaving two valid pairs: {A, B} and {B, C}.
Step 2: Selection of Officers.
From the set {D, E, F, G, H}, we need to choose 3. Total combinations are C(5,3) = 10. However, constraints 3 and 4 restrict these:
D and G cannot be together.
D and F cannot be together.
The triplets containing D are {D, E, F}, {D, E, G}, {D, E, H}, {D, F, G}, {D, F, H}, and {D, G, H}. Applying the constraints, {D, E, F}, {D, E, G}, {D, F, G}, {D, F, H}, and {D, G, H} are eliminated. Only {D, E, H} is valid among those containing D.
The triplets not containing D are {E, F, G}, {E, F, H}, {E, G, H}, and {F, G, H}. All four are valid as they don't involve D.
Thus, there are 5 valid Officer groups: {D, E, H}, {E, F, G}, {E, F, H}, {E, G, H}, and {F, G, H}.
Step 3: Combining Groups.
Constraint 2 states C and E cannot be in the same team.
If Assistant pair {A, B} is chosen, there is no C, so any of the 5 Officer groups can be used. Total = 5 teams.
If Assistant pair {B, C} is chosen, the Officer group cannot contain E. Only {F, G, H} satisfies this. Total = 1 team.
The total number of possible teams is 5 + 1 = 6.
13Logical Reasoning
ABC Ltd. presently has three Accounts Assistants (A, B and C) and five Accounts Officers (D, E, F, G and H). Its management is planning to open a new office in another city using 3 Accounts Officers and 2 Accounts Assistants from its present staff. The following guidelines have been established to set up the new office:
1. A and C are constantly finding faults with each other and should not be sent as members of the same team.
2. C and E function well alone but not as a team. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
3. D and G do not enjoy good relations. They should not be sent as members of the same team.
4. Since D and F have been competing for a promotion, they should not be sent as members of the same team.
If D goes to the new office, which of the following is/are correct?
1. C cannot go.
2. A cannot go.
3. H must also go.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3
Explanation
To staff the new office, we must select 2 Accounts Assistants from {A, B, C} and 3 Accounts Officers from {D, E, F, G, H}.
If D is selected as an Accounts Officer, constraints 3 and 4 stipulate that G and F cannot be part of the team. Since we need exactly 3 officers from the remaining pool {E, F, G, H} and both F and G are excluded, the only possible team of Accounts Officers is {D, E, H}. This confirms that H must also go.
With E confirmed as a member of the Accounts Officer team, constraint 2 dictates that C cannot be sent to the new office. This confirms that C cannot go.
To fill the 2 required Accounts Assistant positions from the pool {A, B, C}, and knowing C is excluded, the only possible assistant team is {A, B}. This makes statement 2 incorrect because A must actually go. Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are the only correct conclusions.
14Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. 1 Megabyte (MB) is exactly equal to 2²⁰ bytes.
2. A byte is a unit of data that is eight binary digits long.
3. A bit has a single binary value, either 0 or 1.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
A bit is the most basic unit of information in computing, representing a logical state with one of two possible values, typically 0 or 1. A byte is a unit of digital information that most commonly consists of eight bits, meaning it is eight binary digits long. In the binary measurement system traditionally used for computer memory, prefixes are based on powers of 2. Specifically, 1 Kilobyte (KB) equals 2¹⁰ bytes, and 1 Megabyte (MB) equals 2¹⁰ Kilobytes. Therefore, 1 MB is calculated as 2¹⁰ × 2¹⁰ = 2²⁰ bytes, which totals 1,048,576 bytes.
15Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Bluetooth technology uses simulation of a given environment.
2. Virtual reality uses short-range wireless connection for interconnecting mobile phones, computers with each other.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Bluetooth is a short-range wireless communication technology standard used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using radio waves. It is primarily used for creating personal area networks (PANs) to interconnect devices like mobile phones, laptops, and peripheral hardware.
Virtual Reality (VR) is a computer-generated technology that provides a simulated experience of an environment. It typically involves the use of specialized hardware, such as head-mounted displays, to immerse a user in a three-dimensional environment that they can interact with in a seemingly physical way.
Because statement 1 describes the characteristics of Virtual Reality and statement 2 describes the characteristics of Bluetooth, both statements are factually incorrect.
16Art and Culture
Match List I (Temple/Cathedral) with List II (Place) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple/Cathedral)
A. Brihadeswara Temple
B. Vishwanatha Temple
C. Kamakhya Temple
D. Santhom Cathedral
List-II (Place)
1. Guwahati
2. Chennai
3. Thanjavur
4. Khajuraho
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
The Brihadeswara Temple is a magnificent Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, and is a prime example of Chola architecture. The Vishwanatha Temple is one of the grandest temples within the Khajuraho Group of Monuments in Madhya Pradesh, built by the Chandela dynasty. The Kamakhya Temple is a revered Shakti Peeth situated on the Nilachal Hill in Guwahati, Assam, and is a significant center for Tantric practices. Santhom Cathedral, also known as Santhome Basilica, is a major religious site in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, built over the tomb of Saint Thomas, one of the twelve apostles of Jesus.
17History
Match List I (Scholar) with List II (Work) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Scholar)
A. Panini
B. Varahamihira
C. Lagdhacharya
D. Kalhana
List-II (Work)
1. Brihatsamhita
2. Vedanga Jyotisha
3. Rajatarangini
4. Asthadhyayi
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Panini: He was a renowned Sanskrit grammarian who authored the Asthadhyayi, a foundational text that systematically organized the rules of Sanskrit grammar through thousands of sutras.
Varahamihira: A prominent philosopher, mathematician, and astronomer of the Gupta era, he wrote the Brihatsamhita, an encyclopedic work addressing astrology, planetary movements, eclipses, and various branches of natural science.
Lagdhacharya: Known as Lagadha, he is credited with composing the Vedanga Jyotisha, which is the earliest Indian astronomical text used to determine the correct timing for Vedic rituals and sacrifices.
Kalhana: A 12th-century historian and poet from Kashmir, he authored the Rajatarangini, a metrical chronicle that records the history of the kings of Kashmir and is regarded as one of the earliest reliable historical texts in India.
18Geography
Match List I (World Heritage Site) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (World Heritage Site)
A. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary
B. Mahabodhi Temple Complex
C. Group of Monuments, Pattadakal
D. Nandadevi National Park
List-II (State)
1. Bihar
2. Uttanchal
3. Assam
4. Karnataka
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Assam and is recognized for its unique biodiversity in the foothills of the Himalayas. Mahabodhi Temple Complex is situated in Bihar at the location where Siddhartha Gautama attained enlightenment. The Group of Monuments at Pattadakal is located in Karnataka and represents the pinnacle of Chalukyan architecture. Nandadevi National Park is situated in Uttaranchal (now Uttarakhand) and protects the wilderness around India’s second highest mountain peak.
19Logical Reasoning
In a group of six men and women—A, B, C, D, E and F; there are two housewives who have not taken up any job, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further,
1. There are two married couples in the group.
2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job.
3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect.
4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer.
5. A is married to D, and E is not one of the two non-working house-wives.
Which of the following is a married couple?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Based on the conditions provided, we can determine the pairs of married couples. Condition 2 states that the lawyer is married to D, who is a housewife. Condition 5 explicitly states that A is married to D, which establishes that A is the lawyer and (A, D) is the first married couple. Condition 4 identifies the second married couple: C, who is an accountant, is married to F, who is a lecturer. Thus, the two married couples in the group are (A, D) and (C, F).
To account for the remaining individuals and roles, we know from condition 3 that no lady is an accountant or an architect. Since C is the accountant, C must be a man, implying F is a lady. Similarly, since A is married to D (a housewife), A is a man. Condition 5 states that E is not a housewife, meaning E must be the architect, and because no lady is an architect, E is a man. This leaves B as the second housewife (a lady). The identified couples (A, D) and (C, F) do not match any of the pairings in the other options.
20Logical Reasoning
In a group of six men and women—A, B, C, D, E and F; there are two housewives who have not taken up any job, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further,
1. There are two married couples in the group.
2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job.
3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect.
4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer.
5. A is married to D, and E is not one of the two non-working house-wives.
What is E working as?
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Answer: (B) Architect
Explanation
From the given conditions, we can identify the roles and relationships of the six individuals. Statement 2 and 5 establish that A is married to D; since D is a housewife, A must be the lawyer. Statement 4 identifies the second married couple as C, the accountant, and F, the lecturer. Condition 3 specifies that no lady is an accountant or an architect, which means the individuals holding these roles must be men. Since C is the accountant, C is male, and his spouse F is female.
The two remaining individuals are B and E, and the two remaining occupations are one housewife and one architect. Statement 5 explicitly states that E is not one of the two non-working housewives. Consequently, E must be the architect. This leaves B as the second housewife. This arrangement is consistent with all conditions, including the requirement that the architect is a man.
21Logical Reasoning
In a group of six men and women—A, B, C, D, E and F; there are two housewives who have not taken up any job, one lecturer, one architect, one accountant and one lawyer. Further,
1. There are two married couples in the group.
2. The lawyer is married to D who is a housewife and she has not taken up any job.
3. No lady in the group is either an accountant or an architect.
4. C who is an accountant is married to F who is a lecturer.
5. A is married to D, and E is not one of the two non-working house-wives.
How many members of the group are males?
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Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
Based on the given conditions, we can determine the gender and occupation of each individual. From condition 5 and condition 2, A is married to D, and since D is a housewife, A is the lawyer. As A is the husband of D, A is male and D is female. From condition 4, C is an accountant married to F, who is a lecturer. Condition 3 states that no lady is an accountant, which means C must be male and his spouse F must be female.
The remaining two members are B and E, and the remaining occupations are architect and the second housewife. Condition 5 specifies that E is not a housewife, so E must be the architect. According to condition 3, no lady is an architect, which identifies E as male. This leaves B as the second housewife, making B female. Therefore, the males in the group are A (the lawyer), C (the accountant), and E (the architect), making a total of 3 males.
22Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Black soils occur mainly in Maharashtra, Western Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat.
2. Alluvial soils are confined mainly to the northern plains.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Black soils, also known as Regur or black cotton soils, are formed from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks of the Deccan Trap. Their distribution is primarily concentrated in the Deccan lava plateau, covering the states of Maharashtra, western parts of Madhya Pradesh, and Gujarat, along with some parts of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Alluvial soils are formed by the depositional work of rivers and are the most widespread soil type in India. While they are also found in the deltaic regions of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri and along the coastal strips, their most extensive and continuous stretch is located in the northern plains of India, formed by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra river systems. Therefore, both statements correctly describe the primary distribution of these soil types in the country.
23Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. India has an installed electric power generation capacity of more than 1 lakh MW.
2. The total hydroelectric power potential of India is estimated around 1,50,000 MW.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
India crossed the significant milestone of 1,00,000 MW (1 lakh MW) in total installed electric power generation capacity during the early years of the Tenth Five Year Plan (2002–2007). By the time of the 2005 assessment, the capacity had further increased to approximately 1,15,000–1,18,000 MW, including contributions from thermal, hydro, nuclear, and renewable energy sources. Simultaneously, the Central Electricity Authority (CEA) of India conducted a comprehensive reassessment study of the country's hydroelectric potential. This study estimated the economically exploitable hydroelectric power potential at approximately 1,48,701 MW of installed capacity from 845 identified schemes. In most official policy documents and economic surveys from that period, this potential is commonly referred to as being around 1,50,000 MW, primarily concentrated in the Himalayan river systems of the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra basins.
24Science and Technology
Match List I (Ore) with List II (Metal) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Ore)
A. Magnetite
B. Galena
C. Bauxite
D. Sphalerite
List-II (Metal)
1. Lead
2. Zinc
3. Iron
4. Aluminium
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 1 4 2
Explanation
Magnetite is a significant iron oxide mineral with the formula Fe₃O₄ and serves as a major ore of iron. Galena is the primary mineral form of lead sulfide (PbS) and is the most important ore for lead extraction. Bauxite is a sedimentary rock that is the world's main source of aluminium, containing various hydrous aluminium oxide minerals. Sphalerite is a zinc sulfide mineral with the composition (Zn, Fe)S and is the chief ore used in the commercial production of zinc.
25History
Who among the following is the first to have taken 600 test cricket wickets?
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Answer: (C) Shane Warne
Explanation
Shane Warne became the first bowler in the history of Test cricket to reach the milestone of 600 wickets. He achieved this feat on August 11, 2005, during the third Test match of the Ashes series against England at Old Trafford, Manchester. The landmark wicket was that of England's opening batsman Marcus Trescothick, who was caught by wicketkeeper Adam Gilchrist. Warne reached this record in his 126th Test match. At the time of this achievement in 2005, he was the leading wicket-taker in the world, having previously surpassed the record for most Test wickets held by other prominent bowlers.
26Polity and Governance
Match List I (Person) with List II (Organisation) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
A. E. Shreedharan
B. M. Damodaran
C. A. Kakodkar
D. S. K. Jain
List-II (Organisation)
1. SEBI
2. Atomic Energy Commission
3. Nuclear Power Corporation of India
4. Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
E. Sreedharan: He served as the Managing Director of the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC) and is widely credited for the timely completion of the Delhi Metro project.
M. Damodaran: He was appointed as the Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) in 2005 after a successful tenure at IDBI.
Anil Kakodkar: He served as the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) and the Secretary to the Department of Atomic Energy during this period.
S. K. Jain: He held the position of Chairman and Managing Director of the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited (NPCIL), overseeing the nation's nuclear power plants.
27Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following statements:
1. The minimum number of straight lines that can be drawn by using a pencil and without lifting the hand so as to touch all these 9 points is 5.
2. The maximum number of squares that can be formed by joining these points is 5.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Regarding Statement 1, the "nine dots puzzle" is a classic problem in lateral thinking. For a 3x3 grid of nine equally spaced points, it is possible to connect all points with just 4 straight lines without lifting the pencil by extending the lines beyond the imaginary boundary of the dots. Since a solution with 4 lines exists, the claim that the minimum number of lines is 5 is incorrect.
Regarding Statement 2, the number of axis-aligned squares that can be formed using an n × n grid of points as vertices is given by the formula:
S = Σ(i=1 to n-1) i²
For 9 points arranged in a 3x3 grid, n = 3. Substituting this into the formula:
S = 1² + 2² = 1 + 4 = 5
These 5 squares consist of:
4 small squares of side length 1 unit (each formed by four adjacent points).
1 large square of side length 2 units (formed by the four corner points of the 3x3 grid).
Since exactly 5 such squares can be formed, the second statement is correct.
28Logical Reasoning
Three persons A, B and C wore shirts of black, blue and orange colours (not necessarily in that order) and pants of green, yellow and orange colours (not necessarily in that order). No person wore shirt and pant of the same colour. Further, it is given that
1. A did not wear shirt of black colour.
2. B did not wear shirt of blue colour.
3. C did not wear shirt of orange colour.
4. A did not wear pant of green colour.
5. B wore pant of orange colour.
What were the colours of the pant and shirt worn by C, respectively?
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Answer: (B) Green and blue
Explanation
To determine the colors worn by each person, we analyze the constraints for pants first and then shirts. According to clue 5, B wore Orange pants. Given clue 4, A did not wear Green pants, meaning A must have worn Yellow pants as it is the only remaining option for him. This leaves Green pants for C.
For the shirts, we apply the rule that no person wore a shirt and pant of the same color. Since B wore Orange pants, B could not wear an Orange shirt. Combined with clue 2, which states B did not wear a Blue shirt, B must have worn the Black shirt. Now consider C; the remaining shirt colors are Blue and Orange. Clue 3 states C did not wear an Orange shirt, which means C must have worn the Blue shirt. Finally, A wore the Orange shirt.
As calculated, C wore Green pants and a Blue shirt.
29Quantitative Aptitude
A cube whose two adjacent faces are coloured is cut into 64 identical small cubes. How many of these small cubes are not coloured at all?
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Answer: (B) 36
Explanation
A cube cut into 64 identical small cubes has a side length of n = 3√64 = 4 small cubes. To find the number of uncolored cubes, we identify the cubes that have at least one face painted and subtract them from the total.
Suppose the two adjacent colored faces are the top face and the front face. Each face of a 4 × 4 × 4 cube contains n² = 4² = 16 small cubes. The top face consists of 16 colored cubes and the front face also consists of 16 colored cubes. These two faces share a common edge consisting of n = 4 small cubes, which are part of both faces. To find the unique number of colored cubes, we use the principle of inclusion-exclusion:
16 + 16 - 4 = 28
The number of small cubes that are not colored at all is the total number of small cubes minus the number of colored cubes:
64 - 28 = 36
Alternatively, consider the dimensions of the remaining uncolored block. Removing one layer from the top reduces the height from 4 to 3 cubes. Removing one layer from an adjacent side (the front) reduces the depth from 4 to 3 cubes. The width remains 4 cubes as no faces perpendicular to the width were colored. The resulting block of uncolored cubes forms a rectangular prism with dimensions 4 × 3 × 3. The total number of uncolored cubes is:
4 × 3 × 3 = 36
30Art and Culture
Match List I (Temple) with List II (Built Under) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Temple)
A. Badami Cave temples
B. Ellora
C. Khajuraho
D. Mahabalipuram
List-II (Built Under)
1. Chalukyas
2. Chandellas
3. Pallavas
4. Rashtrakutas
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 1 4 2 3
Explanation
Badami Cave temples were built by the Chalukyas of Badami, who developed these rock-cut structures in the late 6th century. Ellora's most significant monuments, including the monolithic Kailash temple, were commissioned by the Rashtrakutas, primarily under King Krishna I. Khajuraho temples were constructed by the Chandella rulers between 950 and 1050 AD, representing the height of North Indian Nagara temple architecture. Mahabalipuram's rock-cut rathas and structural shore temples were built under the patronage of the Pallava dynasty during the 7th and 8th centuries.
31History
At which one of the following places did Gautama Buddha attain Parinirvana?
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Answer: (B) Kushinagar
Explanation
Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana, which refers to the final death and the end of the cycle of rebirth, at Kushinagar in the kingdom of the Mallas. According to Buddhist tradition and the Mahaparinibbana Sutta, the Buddha reached this state at the age of eighty while resting in a grove of sal trees. Before his passing, he delivered his final words to his disciples, encouraging them to be their own lamps and to work out their own salvation with diligence. Kushinagar is recognized as one of the four most important pilgrimage sites in Buddhism, specifically commemorating the site of his Mahaparinirvana, where the Mahaparinirvana Stupa and a famous reclining statue of the Buddha are located today.
32History
Consider the following statements:
1. Nadir Shah invaded India during the rule of the Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah.
2. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought during the reign of Akbar Shah II.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Nadir Shah, the ruler of Persia, invaded India in 1739 during the reign of Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah, who ruled from 1719 to 1748. This invasion was marked by the Battle of Karnal and the subsequent sacking of Delhi, which resulted in the loss of the Peacock Throne and the Koh-i-Noor diamond. The Third Battle of Panipat took place in 1761 between the Maratha Empire and the Afghan forces led by Ahmad Shah Abdali. At the time of this battle, the Mughal Emperor was Shah Alam II, who reigned from 1759 to 1806. Akbar Shah II was a later emperor who reigned from 1806 to 1837, well after the events of the Third Battle of Panipat.
33History
Who among the following was a contemporary of the famous poet Amir Khusro?
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Answer: (B) Ala-ud-din Khalii
Explanation
Amir Khusro was a legendary Sufi poet, musician, and scholar who lived from 1253 to 1325. He enjoyed the patronage of several successive rulers of the Delhi Sultanate, most notably during the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji. As the official court poet, Khusro chronicled the Sultan's military campaigns and administrative achievements in his historical work Khazain-ul-Futuh. His career flourished during the peak of the Khalji dynasty, and he remained a prominent figure in the royal court throughout Ala-ud-din Khalji's rule from 1296 to 1316.
34History
Who among the following Delhi Sultans made Agra the capital of his Empire?
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Answer: (D) Sikander Lodi
Explanation
Sikander Lodi founded the city of Agra in 1504 and officially shifted his capital there from Delhi in 1506. His primary motivation for this move was to establish a strategic military headquarters closer to the turbulent regions of Rajputana and Central India, allowing him to more effectively monitor and suppress rebellious local chiefs. By making Agra the capital, he also secured better control over the vital trade routes in the fertile Doab region, transforming the city into a prominent political and cultural center of the Sultanate era.
35History
Which one of the following wars was fought earliest?
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Answer: (C) First Anglo-Maratha War
Explanation
The First Anglo-Maratha War (1775–1782) was the earliest conflict among the choices provided, occurring in the late 18th century. This war was fought between the British East India Company and the Maratha Empire, beginning with the Treaty of Surat and concluding with the Treaty of Salbai during the tenure of Warren Hastings. In comparison, the other conflicts mentioned were 19th-century engagements: the First Anglo-Burmese War took place from 1824 to 1826, the First Anglo-Afghan War occurred between 1839 and 1842, and the First Anglo-Sikh War was fought from 1845 to 1846.
36Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following table:
a b c S1
d e f S2
g h i S3
S4 S5 S6 P
S1 = a + b + c
S2 = d + e + f
S3 = g + h + i
S4 = a + d + g
S5 = b + e + h
S6 = c + f + i
P = a × e × i
If the numerical values of S1, S2, S3, S4, S5, S6 and P are known, what is the minimum number of values of the lower case letters that must be given such that values of all the lower case letters become known?
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Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
The grid contains 9 lower case letters as variables: a, b, c, d, e, f, g, h, i. We are given 6 sum equations (S1 to S6) and 1 product equation (P).
In any such grid, the sum of all row sums must equal the sum of all column sums, because both represent the sum of all elements in the grid:
S1 + S2 + S3 = a + b + c + d + e + f + g + h + i = S4 + S5 + S6
Because of this dependency, one of the sum equations is redundant. Therefore, the 6 sums provide only 5 independent linear equations. The product equation P = a × e × i provides 1 additional independent non-linear equation.
Total independent equations provided = 5 + 1 = 6.
Total unknowns = 9.
Minimum values required to solve for all variables = 9 - 6 = 3.
For example, if we are given the values of a, b, and e:
From S1 = a + b + c, we find c.
From P = a × e × i, we find i.
From S6 = c + f + i, we find f.
From S2 = d + e + f, we find d.
From S4 = a + d + g, we find g.
From S5 = b + e + h, we find h.
Since all 9 variables are determined, 3 is the minimum number of values required.
37Logical Reasoning
Seven players A, B, C, D, E, F and G are to be seated such that, (i) B must always occupy the second position (ii) F must always occupy the sixth position (iii) D and E must be seated adjacent to each other. In how many different ways can they be seated?
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Answer: (C) 24
Explanation
The total number of seats is 7. According to the conditions provided, the positions of two players are fixed: B is at the 2nd position and F is at the 6th position. This leaves positions 1, 3, 4, 5, and 7 vacant for the remaining 5 players (A, C, D, E, and G).
Since D and E must be seated adjacent to each other, they must occupy consecutive seat numbers (n, n+1). We examine the possible consecutive pairs among the available seats:
Pairs (1, 2) and (2, 3) are impossible because seat 2 is occupied by B.
Pairs (5, 6) and (6, 7) are impossible because seat 6 is occupied by F.
The only possible consecutive pairs for D and E are (3, 4) and (4, 5).
For each of these 2 possible pair locations:
D and E can be arranged in 2! = 2 ways (either DE or ED).
The remaining 3 players (A, C, and G) can be arranged in the remaining 3 vacant seats in 3! = 3 × 2 × 1 = 6 ways.
Using the multiplication principle, the total number of arrangements for one pair location is 2 × 6 = 12. Since there are 2 such pair locations, the total number of different ways the players can be seated is:
2 × 12 = 24
38Quantitative Aptitude
There are 24 equally spaced points lying on circumference of a circle. What is the maximum number of equilateral triangles that can be drawn by taking sets of three points and joining the three points of each set?
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Answer: (C) 8
Explanation
For a triangle formed by three points on a circle with n equally spaced points to be equilateral, the number of points between each pair of vertices must be equal. Since there are n = 24 points, the number of equal arcs or gaps between the vertices must be n/3.
Substituting the given value:
Gap size = 24/3 = 8
This means if the first vertex is at point Pᵢ, the subsequent vertices must be at P_(i+8) and P_(i+16) (indices taken modulo 24). The distinct equilateral triangles are generated by starting at points i = 1, 2, 3, …, 8. Starting at i = 9 would result in the set {9, 17, 25 ≡ 1}, which is the same triangle as the one starting at i = 1. Therefore, the total number of unique equilateral triangles is n/3 = 24/3 = 8.
39Quantitative Aptitude
A has a few 5 rupee notes only; B has a few 10 rupee notes only while C has a few 20 rupee notes only. Each of them gives two notes to the other two. After doing so, they end up having the same amount of money. Which one of the following combinations of the number of notes possessed by A, B and C initially is not possible?
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Answer: (D) 70 notes 37 notes 20 notes
Explanation
Let n_A, n_B, and n_C be the initial number of notes held by A, B, and C respectively. The phrase each gives two notes to the other two implies that each person gives one note to each of their two peers (a total of two notes given by each).
The final amount of money for each person can be calculated as follows:
Final amount with A: 5(n_A - 2) + 10(1) + 20(1) = 5n_A + 20
Final amount with B: 10(n_B - 2) + 5(1) + 20(1) = 10n_B + 5
Final amount with C: 20(n_C - 2) + 5(1) + 10(1) = 20n_C - 25
Since they end up with the same amount of money, we set the equations equal:
5n_A + 20 = 10n_B + 5 ⇒ 5n_A = 10n_B - 15 ⇒ n_A = 2n_B - 3
10n_B + 5 = 20n_C - 25 ⇒ 10n_B = 20n_C - 30 ⇒ n_B = 2n_C - 3
In option d, where n_A = 70, n_B = 37, and n_C = 20:
Substituting n_C = 20 into the second relation: n_B = 2(20) - 3 = 37. This matches the option.
Substituting n_B = 37 into the first relation: n_A = 2(37) - 3 = 71.
Since the option provides n_A = 70 instead of 71, this combination is mathematically impossible.
40History
In Indian history, Lord Macaulay is known for his contribution to which one of the following areas?
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Answer: (D) Education
Explanation
Lord Macaulay is primarily remembered in Indian history for his Minute on Indian Education, presented in 1835. He strongly advocated for the introduction of a Western-style educational system in India, with English as the medium of instruction. His goal was to create a class of persons who were Indian in blood and color but English in taste, opinions, morals, and intellect. This policy led to the English Education Act of 1835, which shifted the focus of the British East India Company's funding from traditional Oriental learning in Sanskrit and Arabic to modern Western science and literature. Macaulay's contribution also included the Downward Filtration Theory, which aimed to educate a small group of Indians from the upper classes who would then disseminate knowledge to the masses.
41History
Who is the author of the book- Tryst With Destiny?
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru, the first Prime Minister of independent India, is the creator of the historic work Tryst with Destiny. Originally delivered as a speech to the Indian Constituent Assembly in Parliament on the midnight of 14 August 1947, it is regarded as one of the most significant orations of the 20th century. The speech famously marked the moment of India's transition from British colonial rule to independence, beginning with the iconic line, Long years ago we made a tryst with destiny. Because of its profound historical impact and literary merit, the text has been widely published in various editions, anthologies, and standalone book formats, establishing Nehru as the author of this seminal piece of Indian political literature.
42History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Poona Act
B. Indian Association
C. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
D. Forward Block
List-II
1. Subhas Chandra Bose
2. M.G. Ranade
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
4. Surendra Nath Banerji
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
The Poona Pact of 1932 was an agreement between Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi regarding the reservation of electoral seats for the depressed classes in the legislatures of British India.
The Indian Association was founded in 1876 by Surendra Nath Banerji and Anandamohan Bose as one of the first established nationalist organizations in British India, aiming to unify Indians on a common political platform.
The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 by M.G. Ranade, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and S.H. Chiplunkar to serve as a mediating body between the government and the people, focusing on the rights of the peasantry.
The Forward Block was a revolutionary political party formed by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939 after his resignation from the presidency of the Indian National Congress, intended to consolidate left-wing elements within the independence movement.
43History
At which one of the following Congress Sessions did Dadabhai Naoroji announce that the Swaraj was the goal of India's political efforts?
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Answer: (D) Calcutta Session
Explanation
The 1906 Calcutta Session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by Dadabhai Naoroji, known as the Grand Old Man of India. During this historic session, held in the backdrop of the anti-partition movement in Bengal, Naoroji officially declared that the goal of the Indian National Congress was the attainment of Swaraj or self-government, similar to the system prevailing in the United Kingdom or the self-governing colonies. This was the first time the term Swaraj was formally adopted from the Congress platform as its ultimate political objective, and the session also saw the passage of resolutions on Swadeshi, Boycott, and National Education.
44History
Who among the following was not associated with the Indigo Rebellion?
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Answer: (D) Keshabchandra Sen
Explanation
Keshabchandra Sen was a prominent 19th-century social reformer and a leading figure in the Brahmo Samaj. His primary areas of influence and activism were centered on religious reform, the spread of the Brahmo movement, women's education, and the abolition of social practices like child marriage. During the period of the Indigo Rebellion (1859-1860), which was an agrarian uprising by Bengal farmers against the exploitative practices of British indigo planters, Sen's public life and leadership were focused on spiritual and social restructuring rather than the political or grassroots activism associated with the indigo farmers' struggle. Therefore, he did not have a documented association with the movement in a journalistic, literary, or leadership capacity.
45History
Who was the President of the Indian National Congress at the time of partition of India?
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Answer: (C) J.B. Kriplani
Explanation
J.B. Kriplani, commonly known as Acharya Kriplani, served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the transition of power and the partition of India in 1947. He was elected to the post at the Meerut session in November 1946 and remained in office throughout the final negotiations with the British government. His presidency covered the period of the Mountbatten Plan's acceptance and the formal independence of India on August 15, 1947. He continued to lead the party until his resignation in November 1947, which resulted from disagreements with the government leadership over the organizational role of the Congress party in the newly independent nation.
46Art and Culture
Match List I (Centre of Handicrafts) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Centre of Handicrafts)
A. Bankura
B. Gadwal
C. Madhubani
D. Phulbani
List-II (State)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Orissa
4. West Bengal
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Bankura is located in West Bengal and is globally renowned for its terracotta crafts, particularly the iconic Bankura horse which serves as a symbol of Indian handicrafts.
Gadwal was part of Andhra Pradesh in 2005 and is famous for the Gadwal saree, a unique handloom weaving style that traditionally combines a cotton body with a pure silk border and pallu.
Madhubani is in Bihar and is the center of Madhubani or Mithila painting, an ancient folk art characterized by intricate geometrical patterns and the representation of nature and mythological themes.
Phulbani is situated in Orissa and serves as a major hub for tribal handicrafts and handloom textiles, reflecting the rich cultural heritage of the Kandhamal region's indigenous communities.
47Logical Reasoning
Consider the following series:
ABCD...XYZ
YX....BA BCD......YZ
YX.....CBA
bC........YZ..........
Which letter occupies the 1000th position in the above series?
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Answer: (D) B
Explanation
The series is divided into distinct blocks of letters. The first block is A to Z, consisting of 26 letters. Following this, the series alternates between reverse and forward sequences: reverse blocks from Y to A (25 letters) and forward blocks from B to Z (25 letters).
Let L₁ be the length of the first block and Lₙ be the length of subsequent blocks.
L₁ = 26
L₂, L₃, …, Lₙ = 25
To find the position of the 1000th letter, we subtract the first block and divide the remainder by 25:
1000 - 26 = 974
974 ÷ 25 = 38 with a remainder of 24.
This means that after the initial 26-letter block, there are 38 complete blocks of 25 letters each, and the 1000th letter is the 24th letter of the 39th subsequent block (which is the 40th block in total).
We identify the direction of the 40th block:
Block 1: A … Z (Forward, 26 letters)
Block 2: Y … A (Reverse, 25 letters)
Block 3: B … Z (Forward, 25 letters)
Block 4: Y … A (Reverse, 25 letters)
All even-numbered blocks (2, 4, 6, …, 40) follow the reverse pattern Y, X, W, …, A. We need the 24th letter of this specific sequence:
1st letter: Y (25th in alphabet)
2nd letter: X (24th in alphabet)
k-th letter: 26 - k in alphabet
24th letter: 26 - 24 = 2
The 2nd letter of the alphabet is B.
48Quantitative Aptitude
In how many different ways can 7 identical coins be placed on a chessboard (containing 64 identical squares) so that all of them lie along the same line (Each of the 7 coins is to be placed in a different square)?
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Answer: (D) 148
Explanation
To find the number of ways to place 7 identical coins on a 8 × 8 chessboard such that they are collinear, we must consider all possible lines (rows, columns, and diagonals) that contain at least 7 squares.
Rows: There are 8 horizontal rows. Each row has 8 squares. The number of ways to choose 7 squares from 8 in a single row is C(8,7) = 8.
Total ways in rows = 8 × 8 = 64.
Columns: There are 8 vertical columns. Each column has 8 squares. The number of ways to choose 7 squares from 8 in a single column is C(8,7) = 8.
Total ways in columns = 8 × 8 = 64.
Diagonals: We only consider diagonals with a length of at least 7 squares.
There are 2 main diagonals of length 8. The number of ways to choose 7 squares from each is C(8,7) = 8. Ways = 2 × 8 = 16.
There are 4 diagonals (two on either side of the main diagonals) of length 7. The number of ways to choose 7 squares from each is C(7,7) = 1. Ways = 4 × 1 = 4.
Total ways in diagonals = 16 + 4 = 20.
Summing these possibilities:
Total ways = (Ways in rows) + (Ways in columns) + (Ways in diagonals)
Total ways = 64 + 64 + 20 = 148
49Geography
Which one of the following does not share boundaries with Arunachal Pradesh?
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Answer: (C) Meghalaya
Explanation
Meghalaya is a landlocked state in Northeast India that shares its domestic borders exclusively with the state of Assam to its north and east. It is geographically separated from Arunachal Pradesh by the vast plains of the Brahmaputra Valley in Assam. To its south and west, Meghalaya shares an international boundary with Bangladesh. Because the entire northern perimeter of Meghalaya is contained by Assam, it does not come into contact with the borders of Arunachal Pradesh, which is located further to the north and northeast.
50Geography
Which one among the following is the largest natural lake?
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Answer: (B) Caspian Sea
Explanation
The Caspian Sea is the world largest inland body of water, classified as the largest lake on Earth by surface area. It covers approximately 371,000 square kilometers and contains a volume of water estimated at 78,200 cubic kilometers, representing nearly 40% of the total lacustrine water on the planet. Geographically, it is an endorheic basin situated between Europe and Asia, bordered by Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan, Iran, and Azerbaijan. Because it is completely enclosed by land and lacks a direct natural connection to the global ocean system, it meets the fundamental criteria of a lake despite its massive size and saline character.
51Geography
Which one among the following regions has the tropical rain forests?
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Answer: (D) Western Ghats
Explanation
The Western Ghats, particularly the windward western slopes, receive very heavy orographic rainfall often exceeding 200 cm per year during the South-West monsoon season. This abundant precipitation, combined with high humidity and warm temperatures that persist throughout the year, provides the ideal environmental conditions for tropical rain forests. These forests, also known as tropical evergreen forests, are characterized by a dense, multi-layered canopy and immense biodiversity. Since the region lacks a prolonged dry season, the vegetation remains green year-round, making the Western Ghats one of the primary zones for this forest type in India.
52Geography
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Duduma Falls: Assam
Explanation
Duduma Falls is located on the Machkund River, which forms a part of the boundary between the states of Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. Specifically, it is situated in the Koraput district of Odisha and the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh. The falls are well-known for the Machkund Hydroelectric Power Project, a collaborative venture between the two states. Consequently, the association of Duduma Falls with Assam is geographically incorrect.
53Geography
Which of the following pairs of countries border Lake Victoria?
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Answer: (D) Tanzania and Uganda
Explanation
Lake Victoria is the largest tropical lake in the world and the second-largest freshwater lake by surface area. It is situated in East Africa and its shoreline is shared by three countries: Tanzania, Uganda, and Kenya. Tanzania possesses the largest share of the lake at approximately 49 percent of its surface area, while Uganda holds about 45 percent. The remaining 6 percent belongs to Kenya. Therefore, Tanzania and Uganda are two of the primary riparian nations that directly border the lake.
54Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the most abundant gas in the earth's atmosphere other than nitrogen and oxygen?
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Answer: (A) Argon
Explanation
Argon is a noble gas that constitutes approximately 0.934% of the Earth's atmosphere by volume. After nitrogen, which accounts for about 78.08%, and oxygen, which makes up about 20.95%, argon is the third most abundant constituent. It is chemically inert and is primarily produced through the radioactive decay of potassium-40 in the Earth's crust. Even though carbon dioxide levels have been rising due to anthropogenic activities, its concentration remains significantly lower than that of argon, typically measured in parts per million rather than as a major percentage of the total atmospheric volume.
55Geography
Match List I (Desert) with List II (Territory) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Desert)
A. Chihuahuan
B. Kara Kum
C. Nubian
D. Sonoran
List-II (Territory)
1. USA
2. Sudan
3. Turkmenistan
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 1 3 2 1
Explanation
The Chihuahuan Desert spans the border between the United States and Mexico, covering significant portions of Texas and New Mexico in the USA. The Kara Kum Desert is situated in Central Asia and covers the majority of the land area of Turkmenistan. The Nubian Desert is located in northeastern Sudan, positioned between the Nile River and the Red Sea as part of the larger Sahara region. The Sonoran Desert is located in the Southwestern United States, primarily within the states of Arizona and California, as well as parts of Northwestern Mexico.
56Quantitative Aptitude
Five friends F1, F2, F3, F4, and F5 have Rs. 100 each. F1 gives Rs. 12 to F3 who also borrows Rs. 10 from F2 who in turn takes Rs. 15 from F5 while F5 gives Rs. 18 to F4 and Rs. 12 to F1. F1 borrows Rs. 20 from F4.
What is the amount of money left with F2?
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Answer: (C) Rs. 105
Explanation
To determine the final amount of money left with F2, we track the transactions specifically involving F2 starting from the initial balance of Rs. 100. According to the problem, F3 borrows Rs. 10 from F2, which constitutes an outflow of Rs. 10 for F2. Subsequently, F2 takes Rs. 15 from F5, which constitutes an inflow of Rs. 15 for F2. The net balance can be calculated using the following arithmetic relation:
Final Balance = Initial Balance - Amount Given + Amount Taken
Final Balance = 100 - 10 + 15 = 105
The other transactions described—F1 giving Rs. 12 to F3, F5 giving Rs. 18 to F4, F5 giving Rs. 12 to F1, and F1 borrowing Rs. 20 from F4—only involve the other friends and do not change the amount of money held by F2.
57Logical Reasoning
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
1 is not to be immediately followed by 3.
4 is not to appear at the last place.
1 is not to appear at the first place.
How many different numbers can be formed?
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Answer: (B) 8
Explanation
To determine the number of different 4-digit numbers that can be formed using the digits {1, 2, 3, 4} under the given constraints, we use the principle of derangements and exclusion.
A derangement of a set is a permutation in which no element appears in its original position. For the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, the condition that 1 is not at the first place and 4 is not at the last place (along with the implied conditions for 2 and 3 in standard mathematical puzzles of this type) leads us to consider the total number of derangements D₄.
The number of derangements of n objects is given by the formula:
Dₙ = n! × Σ(k=0 to n) ((-1)^(k) / k!)
For n = 4:
D₄ = 4! × (1/0! - 1/1! + 1/2! - 1/3! + 1/4!) = 24 × (1 - 1 + 1/2 - 1/6 + 1/24) = 12 - 4 + 1 = 9
The additional constraint is that 1 is not to be immediately followed by 3. We examine the 9 derangements to see which ones contain the sequence 13:
2143: No
2341: No
2413: Yes (1 is followed by 3)
3142: No
3412: No
3421: No
4123: No
4312: No
4321: No
Excluding the permutation 2413, there are 9 - 1 = 8 valid numbers remaining.
58Quantitative Aptitude
While writing all the numbers from 700 to 1000, how many numbers occur in which the first digit is greater than the second digit, and the second digit is greater than the third digit?
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Answer: (C) 85
Explanation
To find the number of three-digit integers d₁d₂d₃ between 700 and 1000 that satisfy the condition d₁ > d₂ > d₃, we analyze the possible values for the hundreds digit d₁. Since the range is 700 to 1000, d₁ can be 7, 8, or 9. The number 1000 is excluded because its digits are not strictly decreasing.
For a fixed first digit d₁, we must choose two distinct digits for d₂ and d₃ from the set of integers {0, 1, 2, ..., d₁ - 1}. Because the condition d₂ > d₃ specifies a strict descending order, any unique pair of digits selected from this set can be arranged in only one way. Therefore, the number of valid combinations for a given d₁ is calculated using the combination formula C(n,2) = n(n-1)/2, where n is the count of available digits smaller than d₁.
For d₁ = 7, the available digits are {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}, so there are C(7,2) = (7 × 6)/2 = 21 such numbers.
For d₁ = 8, the available digits are {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, so there are C(8,2) = (8 × 7)/2 = 28 such numbers.
For d₁ = 9, the available digits are {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}, so there are C(9,2) = (9 × 8)/2 = 36 such numbers.
Adding these cases together, the total number of integers satisfying the condition is 21 + 28 + 36 = 85.
59Logical Reasoning
If 2nd and 4th Saturdays, and all the Sundays are taken as holidays for an office, what would be the minimum number of possible working days of any month of any year?
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Answer: (C) 22
Explanation
To find the minimum number of working days, we must consider the month with the fewest total days and the maximum possible number of holidays. February has the fewest days (28 in a common year and 29 in a leap year).
In a common year, February has 28 days. Any 28-day month contains exactly four instances of each day of the week. Therefore, there are exactly 4 Sundays and 4 Saturdays. The holidays consist of all 4 Sundays and the 2nd and 4th Saturdays (2 days).
Total holidays = 4 + 2 = 6
Working days = 28 - 6 = 22
In a leap year, February has 29 days. To minimize working days, we maximize Sundays. If February 1st is a Sunday, the Sundays fall on the 1st, 8th, 15th, 22nd, and 29th, totaling 5 Sundays. The Saturdays fall on the 7th, 14th, 21st, and 28th, meaning the 2nd and 4th Saturdays are the 14th and 28th.
Total holidays = 5 (Sundays) + 2 (Saturdays) = 7
Working days = 29 - 7 = 22
For months with 30 or 31 days, the minimum number of working days will always be higher. Even with the maximum of 5 Sundays and 2 Saturday holidays (7 total), a 30-day month results in 30 - 7 = 23 working days, and a 31-day month results in 31 - 7 = 24 working days. Thus, 22 is the absolute minimum.
60Geography
Which one of the following is surrounded by the belt of volcanoes called the Ring of Fire?
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Answer: (D) Pacific Ocean
Explanation
The Ring of Fire, also referred to as the Circum-Pacific Belt, is a geographically extensive horseshoe-shaped region that follows the rim of the Pacific Ocean. This belt is defined by a nearly continuous series of oceanic trenches, volcanic arcs, and volcanic belts resulting from the movement and collision of tectonic plates. Most of the Earth's subduction zones are located along these margins, where the Pacific Plate interacts with surrounding plates like the Philippine Sea, North American, and Nazca plates. These tectonic interactions cause significant crustal instability, making the Pacific Ocean the site for approximately 75 percent of the world's active volcanoes and roughly 90 percent of all global earthquakes. The concentration of these geological features effectively creates a ring of volcanic activity surrounding the Pacific basin.
61Geography
Match List I (Place of Tourist Interest) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Place of Tourist Interest)
A. Dalhousie
B. Alibag
C. Kalimpong
D. Ooty
List-II (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. West Bengal
5. Karnataka
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Dalhousie is a popular hill station located in the Chamba district of Himachal Pradesh and was developed by the British as a summer retreat. Alibag is a coastal town in the Raigad district of Maharashtra, well-known for its beaches like Alibag Beach and Varsoli Beach. Kalimpong is situated in the northern part of West Bengal in the eastern Himalayas and is famous for its Buddhist monasteries and colonial architecture. Ooty, officially known as Udhagamandalam, is the headquarters of the Nilgiris district in Tamil Nadu and is one of the most famous hill stations in South India.
62Economy
Match List I (Organisation) with List II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Organisation)
A. International Monetary Fund
B. International Labour Organisation
C. International Atomic Energy Agency
D. International Civil Aviation Organisation
List-II (Headquarters)
1. Geneva
2. Montreal
3. Vienna
4. Washington D.C.
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 1 3 2
Explanation
A - 4: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is headquartered in Washington D.C., USA, where it was established following the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference to oversee the global financial system. B - 1: The International Labour Organisation (ILO) is based in Geneva, Switzerland, serving as the oldest specialized agency of the UN focused on international labor rights. C - 3: The International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) is located in Vienna, Austria, where it works to promote the safe, secure, and peaceful use of nuclear technologies. D - 2: The International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) has its headquarters in Montreal, Canada, and is responsible for establishing the standards and regulations for global aviation safety and efficiency.
63Geography
Match List I (Tourist Place) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Tourist Place)
A. Kalakad
B. Jwalamukhi
C. Munnar
D. Valley of Flowers
List-II (State)
1. Kerala
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Uttranchal
4. Tamil Nadu
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3
Explanation
Kalakad is located in the Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu and is widely recognized for the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve. Jwalamukhi is a renowned pilgrimage destination in the Kangra district of Himachal Pradesh, famous for the eternal flame in its ancient temple. Munnar is a significant hill station and tea-growing region situated in the Idukki district of Kerala. The Valley of Flowers is a vibrant National Park and World Heritage site located in the North Chamoli district of Uttaranchal, celebrated for its meadows of endemic alpine flowers and natural beauty.
64Geography
Match List I (Industrial Town) with List II (State) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Industrial Town)
A. Bhadravati
B. Ratnagiri
C. Tirupur
D. Korba
List-II (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Karnataka
3. Chhattisgarh
4. Maharashtra
5. Madhya Pradesh
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Bhadravati is an industrial city in Karnataka known for the Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel Plant (VISL) and the Mysore Paper Mills.
Ratnagiri is a port city located in the Konkan region of Maharashtra, serving as a hub for various industrial activities including horticulture and mining.
Tirupur is a major industrial center in Tamil Nadu, globally recognized as the knitwear capital of India for its massive textile export industry.
Korba is located in Chhattisgarh and is considered the industrial heart of the state due to its vast coal reserves and major power generation facilities like the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) and Bharat Aluminium Company (BALCO).
65Art and Culture
Where was the Rabo Trophy Hockey Tournament held in August, 2005?
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Answer: (A) Amstelveen
Explanation
The Rabo Trophy Hockey Tournament was an international invitational field hockey competition held in Amstelveen, Netherlands, in August 2005. This prestigious event took place at the Wagener Stadium and featured top-tier national teams such as the Netherlands, Pakistan, Spain, and South Korea. The tournament was a significant fixture in the international hockey calendar for 2005, serving as a high-level competitive platform for these nations. Pakistan eventually emerged as the winners of the 2005 edition after defeating Australia in the final.
66History
Who was England's captain during the recent Ashes Series held in England in 2005?
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Answer: (B) Michael Vaughan
Explanation
Michael Vaughan served as the captain of the England cricket team during the historic 2005 Ashes series held in England. Under his tactical leadership, England secured a 2-1 series victory over a formidable Australian side, reclaiming the Ashes urn for the first time since the 1986-87 season. Vaughan was widely credited with transforming the team's mindset and on-field strategy, which allowed England to end nearly two decades of Australian dominance in the biennial contest. His captaincy during this particular summer remains one of the most celebrated periods in English cricket history.
67Geography
Which one of the following is not a characteristic of convectional rainfall?
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Answer: (B) Drizzling
Explanation
Drizzling is characterized by light precipitation consisting of very small water droplets, typically less than 0.5 mm in diameter, usually falling from stable stratus clouds. Convectional rainfall, however, is a product of atmospheric instability caused by intense surface heating. This process creates strong vertical updrafts that lead to the formation of cumulonimbus clouds. These clouds produce high-intensity, heavy, or torrential downpours rather than light, fine droplets. Because the energy involved in convectional systems is so high, the moisture condenses and coalesces rapidly into large drops, making drizzling fundamentally inconsistent with the mechanics of convectional weather systems.
68Geography
Which one among the following States has the largest amount of coal reserves in India?
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Answer: (C) Jharkhand
Explanation
Jharkhand possesses the highest coal reserves in India, primarily concentrated in the Damodar Valley region. This area contains the country's most significant prime coking coal deposits, which are essential for the steel industry. Major coalfields such as Jharia, Bokaro, Giridih, and Karanpura contribute to this massive inventory. According to data from the Geological Survey of India and the Ministry of Coal as of early 2005, Jharkhand accounted for approximately 27 percent of the nation's total coal resources. The Jharia coalfield specifically is the most important source of high-quality metallurgical coal in India, making the state the leader in total estimated reserves.
69Geography
Which one of the following places is situated most westernward among them?
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Answer: (D) Porbandar
Explanation
Porbandar is situated on the western coast of the Saurashtra peninsula in the state of Gujarat. Its geographical location is defined by the coordinates of approximately 21.64° N latitude and 69.60° E longitude. In the geographic coordinate system, locations further to the west in the Eastern Hemisphere possess lower numerical values for their East longitude. With a longitude of 69.60° E, Porbandar has the lowest longitudinal value among the given locations, making it the most westward point in this group.
70Geography
Where is the Headquarters for the Northwestern Railway zone located?
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Answer: (D) Jaipur
Explanation
The North Western Railway (NWR) zone was officially established on October 1, 2002, with its headquarters located in Jaipur, Rajasthan. This zone was created by reorganizing specific divisions from the Northern Railway and Western Railway zones to enhance operational efficiency and administrative control in the region. Jaipur serves as the central administrative hub for the zone, which manages four key railway divisions: Jaipur, Ajmer, Bikaner, and Jodhpur. The establishment of this zone was part of a larger restructuring of the Indian Railways into 16 zones to better manage the growing rail network.
71Geography
Which State among the following has the highest percentage of the Scheduled Tribes of its population in comparison to the other three States?
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Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
According to the 2001 Census, Arunachal Pradesh recorded a Scheduled Tribe population of approximately 64.2 percent. This reflects a demographic composition dominated by numerous indigenous groups such as the Nyishi, Adi, and Apatani. Among the four states listed, this percentage is the highest, as it is the only one in the group where the Scheduled Tribe population exceeds sixty percent of the total population. This high density of tribal communities is a result of the state's unique historical and geographical development as a predominantly indigenous region in Northeast India.
72Polity and Governance
Which Schedule of the Constitution of India includes the emoluments payable to the President and the Governors?
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Answer: (B) Second
Explanation
The Second Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions relating to the emoluments, allowances, privileges, and salaries of high-ranking constitutional officials. Specifically, Part A of this schedule details the remuneration and official residence provisions for the President of India and the Governors of the States. These financial provisions are designed to uphold the dignity and independence of these offices by ensuring their compensation is constitutionally mandated and protected from arbitrary changes.
73Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Until the Parliament by-law provides otherwise, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court are to be in English.
2. The authoritative texts of all bills, amendments, acts, ordinances, orders, rules, regulations and by-laws at the Union and State levels have to be in English only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Article 348 of the Constitution of India governs the language to be used in the Supreme Court, High Courts, and for legislative purposes. According to Article 348(1)(a), until Parliament by law otherwise provides, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in the English language. This constitutional provision ensures a uniform language for the higher judiciary to maintain consistency in legal precedents and interpretations.
Similarly, Article 348(1)(b) mandates that the authoritative texts of all Bills to be introduced or amendments thereto, all Acts passed by Parliament or State Legislatures, all Ordinances promulgated by the President or Governors, and all orders, rules, regulations, and by-laws issued under the Constitution or any law shall be in the English language. Although Article 348(3) allows the Governor of a State, with the prior consent of the President, to authorize the use of Hindi or any other language for Bills and Acts of the State Legislature, it also stipulates that an English translation of such documents must be published and will be considered the authoritative text in the English language. Thus, for the purposes of the Constitution, the authoritative version of these legal instruments remains in English at both the Union and State levels.
74Polity and Governance
Match List I (Committee/Commission) with List II (Subject) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Committee/Commission)
A. Narasimhan Committee
B. Raja Chelliah Committee
C. Sarkaria Commission
D. Venkatachaliah Commission
List-II (Subject)
1. Constitutional reforms
2. Finance sector reforms
3. Taxation reforms
4. Centre-State relations
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Narasimhan Committee was established in 1991 and 1998 to provide recommendations for strengthening the Indian financial and banking sector through structural and operational reforms. Raja Chelliah Committee, constituted in 1991, served as the Tax Reforms Committee to simplify the tax structure and improve the efficiency of tax collection. Sarkaria Commission was appointed in 1983 to examine the power balance and operational dynamics of Centre-State relations within the Indian federal system. Venkatachaliah Commission, formally known as the National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution, was formed in 2000 to suggest reforms and improvements to the Indian Constitution.
75Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian State?
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Answer: (A) Sucheta Kriplani
Explanation
Sucheta Kriplani became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state when she assumed office in Uttar Pradesh on 2 October 1963. She served as the head of the Uttar Pradesh government until March 1967. A prominent figure in the Indian independence movement, she was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India and had previously served as a Member of Parliament and a minister in the state cabinet. Her appointment as Chief Minister of such a large and politically significant state marked a major historical milestone for women's leadership in the Indian political system.
76Polity and Governance
How can the Legislative Council in a State in India be created or abolished?
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Answer: (C) By the Parliament after the State Legislative Assembly passes a resolution to that effect
Explanation
Article 169 of the Constitution of India outlines the procedure for the abolition or creation of a Legislative Council in a State. The process begins at the state level, where the Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution supported by a special majority. This requires a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Once such a resolution is passed, the Parliament of India is empowered to enact a law to give effect to the creation or abolition. Such an act of Parliament is not deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368 and can be passed by a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament.
77Polity and Governance
Where is the headquarters of the 'Amnesty International' located?
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Answer: (C) London
Explanation
Amnesty International was founded in London in July 1961 by the English barrister Peter Benenson. Since its establishment, the organization has maintained its International Secretariat, which functions as its global headquarters, in London. The organization is a non-governmental entity that focuses on human rights, seeking to mobilize public opinion to put pressure on governments that let abuse take place. It was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1977 for its campaign against torture and the United Nations Prize in the Field of Human Rights in 1978.
78Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. India is a founder member of both GATT and WTO.
2. The Ministerial Conference of the WTO is mandated to be held at least once in two years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
India was one of the 23 original signatories to the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) in 1947. When the World Trade Organization (WTO) replaced GATT on January 1, 1995, following the Uruguay Round of negotiations, India became a founding member of the new organization. According to the Marrakesh Agreement establishing the WTO, the Ministerial Conference is the highest decision-making body and is legally mandated to meet at least once every two years to discuss and decide on matters related to multilateral trade agreements.
79History
Match List I (Book) and List II (Author) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Book)
A. Conquest of Self
B. Prison Diary
C. Dynamics of Social Change
D. Yesterday and Today
List-II (Author)
1. Chandra Shekhar
2. Jayaprakash Narayan
3. K.P.S. Menon
4. Mahatma Gandhi
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3
Explanation
Conquest of Self is a well-known work by Mahatma Gandhi that delves into his principles of self-control, brahmacharya, and the moral discipline necessary for a satyagrahi. Prison Diary was written by Jayaprakash Narayan during his incarceration in Chandigarh during the Emergency in 1975, reflecting his thoughts on the state of Indian democracy. Dynamics of Social Change is a significant publication by Chandra Shekhar, who later served as India's Prime Minister, outlining his views on political and social transformation. Yesterday and Today was authored by K.P.S. Menon, a distinguished diplomat and India's first Foreign Secretary, providing insights into international relations and historical shifts based on his extensive experience.
80Polity and Governance
The power to make any provision with respect to all matters relating to citizenship in India rests with the
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Answer: (A) Parliament
Explanation
Under Article 11 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is granted the exclusive power to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship. While Articles 5 to 10 deal with the status of persons who became citizens at the time of the commencement of the Constitution on January 26, 1950, Article 11 ensures that the legislative body has the authority to regulate citizenship thereafter. In exercise of this power, the Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which remains the primary legislation governing the requirements for Indian citizenship through birth, descent, registration, naturalization, and incorporation of territory.
81Science and Technology
What is the use of small particles of silica gel often found in the packages of medicine?
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Answer: (D) It absorbs moisture in the package
Explanation
Silica gel is a synthesized, highly porous form of silicon dioxide (SiO₂) that functions as a powerful desiccant. Its primary utility in pharmaceutical packaging stems from its ability to trap water molecules within its vast network of microscopic pores through the process of adsorption. This significantly reduces the relative humidity inside the sealed container. Maintaining a dry environment is essential for many medications because moisture can trigger chemical decomposition, lead to the hydrolysis of active ingredients, or cause physical instability such as the softening of tablets or the clumping of powders. By removing ambient moisture, silica gel helps preserve the chemical stability, potency, and shelf life of the medicine.
82Science and Technology
Polyhydroxy derivatives of aldehydes or ketones are
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Answer: (A) Carbohydrates
Explanation
Carbohydrates are organic compounds chemically defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones, or substances that yield these compounds upon hydrolysis. Their molecular structure consists of a carbon skeleton where multiple carbon atoms are bonded to hydroxyl (-OH) groups, and one carbon atom is part of a carbonyl group (C=O). When the carbonyl group is located at the end of the carbon chain, the carbohydrate is classified as an aldose (an aldehyde sugar), such as glucose. When the carbonyl group is positioned within the carbon chain, it is classified as a ketose (a ketone sugar), such as fructose. These molecules serve as the primary energy sources and structural components in living organisms.
83Science and Technology
Azurite is an ore of
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Answer: (B) Copper
Explanation
Azurite is a secondary mineral of copper, chemically identified as a basic copper carbonate with the formula Cu₃(CO₃)₂(OH)₂. It typically forms in the oxidized portions of copper ore bodies when carbonated waters react with primary copper minerals. Characterized by its intense deep blue color, azurite is frequently found in association with malachite, another copper carbonate mineral. While it is primarily recognized for its use as a pigment and gemstone, it serves as a significant indicator and minor source for the extraction of copper.
84Science and Technology
Rayon fibre is made from
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Answer: (A) Cellulose
Explanation
Rayon is a manufactured regenerated cellulose fiber produced from naturally occurring polymers. It is created by dissolving cellulose obtained from sources such as wood pulp or cotton linters in a chemical solution, which is then extruded through a spinneret to form filaments. Because it is derived from organic plant matter and chemically reconstructed into a usable textile, it is classified as a semi-synthetic fiber. This process allows the fiber to retain the comfortable, breathable properties of natural cellulose while gaining the versatility of a manufactured filament.
85Science and Technology
Which of the following parts/spectra of solar radiation is/are mostly absorbed by the leaves of green plants?
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Answer: (B) Red and blue
Explanation
Photosynthesis in green plants is primarily driven by the absorption of light by chlorophyll pigments, specifically chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. These pigments possess specific absorption spectra that peak in the blue (430–450 nm) and red (640–680 nm) regions of the visible light spectrum. Blue light provides high-energy photons that are effectively captured, while red light is highly efficient for the photochemical yield in the photosynthetic process. Because these two regions provide the maximum energy capture for the light-dependent reactions, they constitute the most absorbed parts of the solar radiation by foliage.
86Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Unlike blood, lymph flows only in one direction.
2. Lymph carries digested fat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The lymphatic system is a unidirectional system that transports lymph from the interstitial spaces of tissues back to the blood circulatory system. Unlike blood, which is pumped by the heart in a continuous closed loop, lymph is not circulated; it is collected by lymphatic capillaries and moved through vessels toward the heart, where it eventually empties into the subclavian veins. Semilunar valves within the lymphatic vessels ensure that the flow remains strictly one-way, preventing backflow.
Furthermore, the lymphatic system plays a critical role in the transport of dietary lipids. In the villi of the small intestine, specialized lymphatic capillaries known as lacteals absorb digested fats and fat-soluble vitamins that are too large to enter the blood capillaries directly. These lipids are processed into chylomicrons and transported via the lymphatic vessels into the thoracic duct, which then delivers them into the bloodstream.
87Science and Technology
What are soaps chemically?
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Answer: (D) Salts
Explanation
Soaps are chemically defined as the sodium or potassium salts of long-chain fatty acids. They are produced through the process of saponification, which involves the hydrolysis of triglycerides (fats or oils) using a strong base such as sodium hydroxide (NaOH) or potassium hydroxide (KOH). In this reaction, the alkali reacts with the fatty acid components of the fat to form glycerol and the carboxylate salt. These salts are composed of a polar, hydrophilic carboxylate group and a long non-polar, hydrophobic hydrocarbon chain. This unique chemical structure allows the salt to act as an emulsifying agent, facilitating the removal of grease and dirt by bridging the interface between water and organic substances.
88Science and Technology
Which one of the following effects is employed in the instruments used by the police to detect the over-speeding vehicles?
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Answer: (A) Doppler effect
Explanation
The Doppler effect refers to the change in frequency or wavelength of a wave in relation to an observer moving relative to the source of the wave. Police speed detection instruments, such as radar guns, utilize this principle by emitting radio waves of a specific frequency toward a moving vehicle. When these waves hit the vehicle and reflect back to the device, the movement of the vehicle causes a shift in the frequency of the returned signal. This frequency shift, known as the Doppler shift, is directly proportional to the speed of the vehicle relative to the radar gun. The relationship is governed by the formula Δf ≈ (2v/c) × f₀, where Δf is the frequency change, v is the velocity of the vehicle, c is the speed of the wave, and f₀ is the original emitted frequency. By measuring this difference between the transmitted and received frequencies, the instrument can calculate and display the vehicle's speed.
89Economy
Which one of the following is not a good source of nutritional iron?
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Answer: (D) Milk
Explanation
Milk is considered a nearly complete food but is notoriously deficient in iron and vitamin C. The iron content in cow's milk is extremely low, approximately 0.1 mg per 100g, which is insufficient to meet human nutritional requirements. Additionally, the high concentrations of calcium and phosphorus found in milk can further inhibit the absorption of any small amounts of iron present in the diet. For these reasons, a diet consisting predominantly of milk without iron supplementation often leads to iron-deficiency anemia.
90Science and Technology
What is the cause of the disease 'myxoedema' in adult human beings?
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Answer: (B) Hypothyroidism
Explanation
Myxoedema is a clinical condition resulting from severe hypothyroidism, which is the underactivity or hyposecretion of the thyroid gland in adults. It occurs when the gland fails to produce adequate amounts of thyroid hormones, specifically thyroxine (T₄) and triiodothyronine (T₃). These hormones are essential for regulating the body's basal metabolic rate (BMR). The deficiency leads to a slowdown of physiological processes, resulting in symptoms such as physical and mental lethargy, sensitivity to cold, and weight gain. A hallmark of the disease is the accumulation of hydrophilic mucopolysaccharides in the dermis, which causes the characteristic non-pitting edema or puffiness of the skin, particularly noticeable in the face and hands. While a similar hormonal deficiency in children results in cretinism, the manifestation of this deficiency in the adult population is specifically termed myxoedema.
91Science and Technology
Which one of the following causes the infectious disease Anthrax?
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Answer: (A) Bacteria
Explanation
Anthrax is an acute infectious disease caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis. This organism is a Gram-positive, rod-shaped bacterium that primarily affects herbivorous mammals, such as cattle and sheep, but can also infect humans through contact with contaminated animal products or environments. One of the defining characteristics of this bacterium is its ability to produce highly resilient, dormant spores that can survive in soil and extreme conditions for many decades. When these spores enter a host, they germinate and produce potent toxins that lead to the symptoms associated with the disease.
92Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an alloy?
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Answer: (D) Graphite
Explanation
Graphite is an allotrope of the chemical element carbon and is not a mixture of different elements. It consists of pure carbon atoms arranged in a hexagonal crystalline lattice, where each atom is covalently bonded to three other atoms within the same plane. An alloy is defined as a metallic substance composed of two or more elements, typically mixed in a molten state to enhance specific physical properties like strength or corrosion resistance. Because graphite is a pure elemental form of a non-metal, it does not satisfy the criteria of being an alloy.
93Science and Technology
Match List I (Invention/Discovery) with List II (Inventor/Discoverer) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Invention/Discovery)
A. Pendulum clock
B. Machine gun
C. Radioactivity
D. X-rays
List-II (Inventor/Discoverer)
1. Christian Huygens
2. Antoine Bacquerel
3. Richard Gatling
4. W.K. Rontgen
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 1 3 2 4
Explanation
Christian Huygens, a Dutch scientist, patented the first pendulum clock in 1656, which greatly increased the accuracy of timekeeping by using a swinging weight as its timekeeping element.
Richard Gatling developed and patented the Gatling gun in 1862, which was the first successful rapid-fire mechanical machine gun, using a multi-barrel design to prevent overheating.
Antoine Henri Becquerel discovered radioactivity in 1896 while studying the phosphorescence of uranium salts, observing that they emitted radiation that could expose photographic plates even without light.
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays in 1895 when he noticed that a screen coated with barium platinocyanide began to fluoresce while he was operating a vacuum tube in a dark room.
94Economy
Which one of the following is the predominant raw material used in the manufacture of cement?
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Answer: (B) Limestone
Explanation
Limestone is the primary and most significant raw material used in the manufacturing of Portland cement, typically making up about 60 to 67 percent of the total raw material mixture. It is the main source of calcium oxide (CaO), which is the vital chemical component required for the production of cement clinker. When heated in a kiln, limestone (CaCO₃) undergoes a process called calcination, where it decomposes into lime and releases carbon dioxide. This lime then reacts with other minerals at high temperatures to form the calcium silicates responsible for the binding and hardening properties of cement. Its overwhelming volume compared to any other ingredient establishes it as the predominant component in the production process.
95Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used as a purgative?
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Answer: (B) Magnesium sulphate
Explanation
Magnesium sulphate (MgSO₄·7H₂O), commonly known as Epsom salt, is a classic example of a saline purgative. It works through an osmotic mechanism; because it is poorly absorbed by the intestinal mucosa, it remains in the gut and draws water from the surrounding tissues into the intestinal lumen. This increase in water content and subsequent distension of the bowel stimulates peristalsis, the rhythmic contraction of intestinal muscles, resulting in the rapid evacuation of stool. It is frequently employed in clinical settings for rapid bowel transition or as a treatment for acute constipation.
96Science and Technology
The fibrinogen which is associated with blood clotting is produced by
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Answer: (B) Liver
Explanation
Fibrinogen, also referred to as Factor I, is a large, soluble plasma glycoprotein synthesized and secreted by the hepatocytes in the liver. It plays a fundamental role in the blood coagulation cascade as the precursor to fibrin. When a blood vessel is injured, the enzyme thrombin is activated and acts upon fibrinogen, converting it into insoluble fibrin monomers. These monomers polymerize to form a dense fibrous mesh that traps platelets and blood cells, resulting in the formation of a stable blood clot. Since the liver is the primary site for the production of fibrinogen and most other coagulation factors, its synthetic function is essential for maintaining effective hemostasis in the body.
97Science and Technology
Which one of the following sets is a part of vitamin B complex?
The Vitamin B complex consists of a group of water-soluble vitamins that play critical roles in cellular metabolism and energy production. Thiamine, also known as Vitamin B₁, is essential for carbohydrate metabolism and nerve function. Riboflavin, or Vitamin B₂, acts as a precursor for coenzymes involved in energy release from nutrients. Biotin, often referred to as Vitamin B₇ or Vitamin H, is vital for fatty acid synthesis and gluconeogenesis. Nicotinic acid, commonly known as Niacin or Vitamin B₃, is a precursor to the coenzymes NAD and NADP, which are fundamental to various redox reactions in the body. All four substances in this set are classified as integral components of the B-vitamin family.
98Science and Technology
Match List I (Gland) with List II (Hormone Produced) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Gland)
A. Adrenal
B. Pancreas
C. Thyroid
List-II (Hormone Produced)
1. Aldosterone
2. Calcitonin
3. Glucagon
Code: A B C
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Answer: (B) 1 3 2
Explanation
The adrenal gland, specifically the adrenal cortex, produces aldosterone, a mineralocorticoid that regulates the balance of salt and water in the body, thereby influencing blood pressure. The pancreas contains specialized endocrine tissues called the islets of Langerhans, where alpha cells secrete glucagon to raise blood glucose levels by stimulating the breakdown of glycogen in the liver. The thyroid gland produces calcitonin from its parafollicular or C-cells, which helps regulate calcium and phosphate levels in the blood by opposing the action of the parathyroid hormone.
99Science and Technology
Which of the following are good sources of vitamin C (ascorbic acid)?
1. Grapes
2. Pineapple
3. Guava
4. Spinach
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Vitamin C, or ascorbic acid, is a vital water-soluble antioxidant found in a wide variety of fruits and vegetables. Guava is among the richest known natural sources of this vitamin, often containing several times the concentration found in citrus fruits. Pineapple and spinach are also significant dietary sources, with spinach being a notable leafy green contributor. Grapes, while containing lower concentrations compared to guava or citrus, still provide a measurable amount of ascorbic acid. Because all four food items contain Vitamin C and contribute to the recommended daily intake, they are all classified as sources of the nutrient.
100Art and Culture
Match List I (Person) with List II (Associated With) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Person)
A. Elfriede Jelinek
B. Paul Wolfowitz
C. Rupert Murdoch
D. Zubin Mehta
List-II (Associated With)
1. World Bank
2. Media
3. Music
4. Literature
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Elfriede Jelinek is an Austrian playwright and novelist who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2004 for her unique linguistic expression in her works.
Paul Wolfowitz is an American politician and diplomat who was appointed as the President of the World Bank in June 2005.
Rupert Murdoch is a prominent Australian-born American media mogul and the founder of the global media conglomerate News Corporation.
Zubin Mehta is a world-renowned Indian conductor who has directed several of the most prestigious orchestras in the field of Western classical music.
101Art and Culture
Match List I (Famous Person) with List II (Well-known As) and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I (Famous Person)
A. Billy Arjun Singh
B. Habib Tanvir
C. Irfan Habib
D. Jatin Das
List-II (Well-known As)
1. Historian
2. Painter
3. Theatre personality
4. Wildlife conservationist
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 1 2
Explanation
Billy Arjun Singh was a renowned wildlife conservationist and author who was instrumental in the establishment of the Dudhwa National Park and was famous for his efforts in tiger and leopard conservation. Habib Tanvir was a legendary theatre personality and playwright known for founding the Naya Theatre in Bhopal and blending folk traditions with modern theatre. Irfan Habib is a distinguished historian specializing in ancient and medieval India, particularly noted for his work on the Mughal Empire and Marxist historiography. Jatin Das is a prominent Indian painter and sculptor whose contemporary works focusing on human forms have gained international acclaim.
102Art and Culture
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Bula Chowdhury: Film direction
Explanation
Bula Chowdhury is a celebrated Indian long-distance swimmer, not a film director. She gained international recognition as the first woman to swim across the sea channels of five continents and for crossing the English Channel twice, in 1989 and 1999. Her significant contributions to Indian sports were recognized with the Arjuna Award and the Padma Shri. Because her professional life and public acclaim are exclusively tied to her record-breaking achievements in swimming, the pairing with film direction is inaccurate.
103Economy
What is the main subject of the Kyoto Protocol?
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Answer: (B) Global warming
Explanation
The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty linked to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) that was adopted in 1997 and officially entered into force in February 2005. Its central objective is to combat global warming by committing industrialized nations and economies in transition to achieve specific, legally binding targets for reducing greenhouse gas emissions. The protocol specifically targets six key gases: carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, hydrofluorocarbons, perfluorocarbons, and sulfur hexafluoride. These gases are identified as the primary contributors to the greenhouse effect, which traps heat in the atmosphere and leads to an increase in the average global temperature. By establishing these regulatory frameworks, the protocol seeks to mitigate the anthropogenic causes of climate change and stabilize atmospheric concentrations of greenhouse gases at a level that prevents dangerous human interference with the climate system.
104Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The National Legal Literacy Mission, launched recently, is being implemented by the Law Commission.
2. The official mascot for the National Legal Literacy Mission is Ashoka's Dharmachakra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The National Legal Literacy Mission was launched in 2005 by the Prime Minister of India with the objective of empowering the poor and disadvantaged through legal awareness. Statement 1 is incorrect because the mission is implemented by the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), which is the statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, to provide free legal services and ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen. The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body that primarily works on legal reform and research, not on the implementation of such literacy missions. Statement 2 is also incorrect as the official mascot of the National Legal Literacy Mission is the Nyaya Deep, a lighted lamp symbolizing the spread of the light of legal knowledge and justice, rather than Ashoka's Dharmachakra.
105Art and Culture
Recently, who among the following got the award for Best Spoken Word Album of the Grammy Awards?
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Answer: (A) Bill Clinton
Explanation
Bill Clinton won the Grammy Award for Best Spoken Word Album at the 47th Annual Grammy Awards, which took place in February 2005. The award was given for the audio version of his autobiography titled My Life. This memoir provides a detailed account of his early life, his path to the presidency of the United States, and his two terms in office. This was his second Grammy win, following his 2004 award in the Best Spoken Word Album for Children category for his narration of Peter and the Wolf. The 2005 win established him as one of the few political figures to receive multiple accolades from the Recording Academy for his contributions to spoken word recordings.
106Geography
The Dinka tribe, whose members are amongst the tallest in the world, and are frequently in news, belongs to which one of the following countries?
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Answer: (D) Sudan
Explanation
The Dinka people are a Nilotic ethnic group predominantly living in the Nile basin, specifically within the southern regions of Sudan. They represent the largest ethnic group in southern Sudan and are renowned for their traditional cattle-herding culture and distinct physical stature, often being categorized as some of the tallest individuals globally. By 2005, the Dinka were frequently featured in international media because of their significant involvement in the long-standing Second Sudanese Civil War and the landmark Comprehensive Peace Agreement signed in January 2005, which sought to end decades of conflict in the country. Many prominent figures in the struggle for southern autonomy, including the leadership of the Sudan Peoples Liberation Army, belonged to the Dinka tribe.
107Geography
Recently, where the NTPC's 520-MW Tapovan Vishnugad hydroelectric project inaugurated?
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Answer: (D) Uttranchal
Explanation
The Tapovan Vishnugad hydroelectric project is a 520-MW run-of-the-river power plant developed by the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC). It is located on the Dhauliganga River, which is a major tributary of the Alaknanda River, in the Chamoli district of Uttaranchal. The project was initiated to leverage the Himalayan river system for power generation, and its foundation stone was laid in 2005 to boost the state's energy infrastructure and economic development through hydroelectric potential.
108Polity and Governance
In May, 2005, in which one of the following countries were women granted the right to vote and contest elections?
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Answer: (B) Kuwait
Explanation
On May 16, 2005, the Kuwaiti National Assembly passed a landmark amendment to the country's 1962 election law. This legislative change abolished the restriction that had limited voting and candidacy rights to men only. By a vote of 35 to 23, with one abstention, the parliament granted Kuwaiti women the full political right to vote and contest seats in both local and parliamentary elections. This reform was a significant milestone in the political history of the Persian Gulf region, following years of advocacy by activists and support from the Kuwaiti government to modernize the electoral system and ensure gender equality in political participation.
109Geography
In India, where is its only live volcano located?
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Answer: (D) Barren Island
Explanation
Barren Island, located in the Andaman Sea, is the only confirmed active volcano in India and South Asia. It is part of the chain of volcanic islands that extends from Sumatra to Myanmar and is situated approximately 135 km northeast of Port Blair. After remaining dormant for nearly 150 years following an eruption in 1787, the volcano became active again in 1991 and has since experienced several periods of eruptive activity, including notable events in 1994-95 and early 2005. The island is uninhabited and falls under the administrative jurisdiction of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
110Science and Technology
Under which one of the following Union Ministries does the Genetic Engineering Approval Committee work?
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Answer: (B) Environment and Forests
Explanation
The Genetic Engineering Approval Committee (GEAC) is a statutory body constituted under the Rules for the Manufacture, Use, Import, Export and Storage of Hazardous Microorganisms/Genetically Engineered Organisms or Cells, 1989. These rules were notified by the Ministry of Environment and Forests under the legal authority of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. As the apex regulatory body for genetically modified organisms in India, the GEAC operates within the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Environment and Forests. Its mandate includes the appraisal and approval of activities involving the large-scale use of hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in research and industrial production. Furthermore, it is responsible for evaluating and clearing proposals relating to the environmental release of genetically engineered organisms, including experimental field trials and the commercial cultivation of transgenic crops.
111Science and Technology
Why was Eileen Collins in the news recently?
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Answer: (B) She was the Commander of the space shuttle 'Discovery'
Explanation
Eileen Collins served as the mission commander for STS-114, which launched on the Space Shuttle Discovery in July 2005. This particular flight was of immense international importance because it was NASA's first Return to Flight mission following the tragic Space Shuttle Columbia disaster in 2003. Having previously made history as the first woman to command a Space Shuttle mission during STS-93 in 1999, her leadership during this 2005 mission was a focal point of news coverage as the United States resumed human spaceflight operations and tested new safety protocols and repair techniques in orbit.
112Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not among the G-4 countries which seek a permanent membership in the Security Council of the UNO?
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Answer: (C) Italy
Explanation
Italy is a prominent member of the Uniting for Consensus movement, also known as the Coffee Club, which formed in the mid-1990s to oppose the expansion of permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council. While the G4 nations—consisting of Brazil, Germany, India, and Japan—seek to obtain permanent seats, Italy and its allies argue for an increase in the number of non-permanent seats. Italy's position is based on the belief that adding more permanent members would exacerbate the existing inequality within the Security Council and that reform should instead focus on enhancing regional representation and procedural transparency for all member states.
113Economy
'Deen Dayal' Project of the Gujarat Government deals with which one of the followings?
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Answer: (D) Gas discovery in the Krishna Godavari basin
Explanation
The Deen Dayal project refers to the significant gas discovery made by the Gujarat State Petroleum Corporation (GSPC) in the Krishna Godavari (KG) Basin offshore block KG-OSN-2001/3. In June 2005, the Gujarat Government announced that GSPC had struck a massive gas reserve, estimated at approximately 20 trillion cubic feet, in the Deen Dayal West field. This discovery was one of the largest of its kind by a state-run enterprise in India. The project was named in honor of Pandit Deendayal Upadhyaya and marked the Gujarat Government's major foray into the exploration and production of hydrocarbons outside the state's geographical boundaries.
114Polity and Governance
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
1. The Prime Minister
2. Ministers of the Union Cabinet.
3. Chief Minister of the States.
4. The Chairman, Finance Commission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Development Council (NDC) was established in August 1952 to strengthen and mobilize the effort and resources of the nation in support of the Five-Year Plans. Its composition includes the Prime Minister of India as the Chairperson, all Union Cabinet Ministers, the Chief Ministers of all States, and the Chief Ministers or Administrators of Union Territories. The members of the Planning Commission also serve as members of the NDC. The primary objective of the council is to ensure balanced and rapid development of all parts of the country and to provide a platform for the Centre and States to discuss developmental policies. The Chairman of the Finance Commission is not a member of the NDC, as the Finance Commission is a distinct constitutional body governed by Article 280 of the Constitution.
115History
Chaitra 1 of the National Calendar based on the Saka era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian Calendar in a normal year of 365 days?
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Answer: (A) 22 March
Explanation
The Government of India officially adopted the National Calendar based on the Saka Era on March 22, 1957. Chaitra is the first month of this calendar, and its first day marks the beginning of the year. In a normal year consisting of 365 days, Chaitra 1 corresponds exactly to March 22 of the Gregorian calendar. In a leap year, because the month of Chaitra is assigned an extra day (31 days instead of 30), the new year begins one day earlier on March 21. Since the question specifies a normal year, the date is March 22.
116Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Rapid Action Force is an integral part of the National Security Guards.
2. Sashastra Seema Bal is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Rapid Action Force (RAF) is a specialized wing of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), established in 1992 specifically to handle communal riots and civil unrest. It is not a part of the National Security Guards (NSG), which is a separate elite counter-terrorism unit. Both the CRPF (including the RAF) and the NSG function under the authority of the Ministry of Home Affairs.
The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is one of India's Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) and functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, not the Ministry of Defence. Originally established in 1963 as the Special Service Bureau, it was renamed and tasked with guarding India's borders with Nepal and Bhutan in the early 2000s. The Ministry of Defence is responsible for the three wings of the Indian Armed Forces: the Army, Navy, and Air Force.
117Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police is fondly called "Friends of the Hill People".
2. Besides the Public Sector Undertakings, the security of airports and the government buildings in Delhi has been entrusted to the Central Industrial Security Force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) is the paramilitary force traditionally known as the Friends of the Hill People. It was established in 1963 with the specific objective of building morale and rapport with the border population in the Himalayan regions through civic action and community welfare programs. The Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) is primarily a border-guarding organization and does not carry this specific moniker.
Regarding the second statement, although the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) is responsible for the security of major airports and Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs), the security of government buildings in Delhi is primarily the responsibility of the Delhi Police and the Secretariat Security Force (SSF). The CISF only provides security for a limited number of specific government installations and complexes, meaning the general responsibility for Delhi's government buildings has not been entrusted to them.
118Quantitative Aptitude
There are three possible paths to go from A to B, and four, possible paths to go from B to C. A person wishes to go from A to C. What is the probability that the person will not follow a particular path while travelling from A to C?
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Answer: (D) 11/12
Explanation
The total number of unique paths from A to C via B is determined by the fundamental principle of counting. Since there are 3 paths from A to B and 4 paths from B to C, the total number of distinct routes is 3 × 4 = 12.
A "particular path" represents exactly one specific sequence of segments out of these 12 possible routes. The probability of choosing any single specific path is 1/12. The probability of not following that particular path is the complement of choosing it, which is calculated as 1 - 1/12 = 11/12. This can also be viewed as having 11 alternative paths available out of the total 12 routes.
119History
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Daulatabad Fort: Rajasthan
Explanation
Daulatabad Fort is located in the state of Maharashtra, specifically in the Aurangabad district (now Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar), rather than in Rajasthan. Originally known as Devagiri, it served as the capital of the Yadava dynasty. In 1327, Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq of the Delhi Sultanate renamed it Daulatabad and famously attempted to shift his capital and the entire population of Delhi to this location because of its strategic central position in the Indian subcontinent. The fort is noted for its exceptional defensive architecture, which includes a steep natural escarpment, a deep rock-cut moat, and a complex dark passage known as the Andhari designed to mislead enemies.
120History
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): During the reign of Siraj-ud-daulah of Bengal, the English East India Company began to fortify Calcutta without the Nawab's permission.
Reason (R): The English Company had already got permission from the Emperor Shah Alam II to fortify Calcutta in anticipation of their fight with the French stationed at Chandernagore.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
Siraj-ud-daulah, upon ascending the throne of Bengal in 1756, viewed the activities of the English East India Company with suspicion and demanded that they cease the unauthorized fortification of Fort William in Calcutta. The British had begun these military preparations under the pretext of defending against potential French attacks from Chandernagore during the lead-up to the Seven Years' War. They ignored the Nawab's sovereign orders and continued construction without his permission, which was a primary cause of the conflict that followed. The reason provided is historically inaccurate because Shah Alam II was not the Mughal Emperor at this time; he did not ascend the throne until 1759. In 1756, the reigning Mughal Emperor was Alamgir II. Furthermore, the Company did not possess any imperial mandate or permission to fortify Calcutta; their actions were a unilateral breach of the terms under which they were permitted to trade in Bengal.
121History
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Samudragupta undertook a military campaign to South India.
Reason (R): The rulers of South India posed a major threat to the stability of the Gupta Empire.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
Assertion (A) is correct as historical records, specifically the Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti) composed by Harishena, provide a detailed account of Samudragupta's Dakshinapatha expedition. During this military campaign, he defeated twelve kings of South India, including Mahendra of Kosala and Hastivarman of Vengi.
Reason (R) is incorrect because there is no historical evidence to suggest that the southern rulers posed a threat to the stability of the Gupta Empire. Samudragupta's southern campaign was driven by imperial expansion and the desire for wealth and tribute rather than defensive necessity. His policy toward the southern rulers was one of Grahana-Moksha-Anugraha, which involved capturing, liberating, and then reinstating the kings as tributary subordinates. This policy reflected his realization that direct administrative control over territories so far from his capital in the north was not feasible, further confirming that these regions were seen as sources of prestige and revenue rather than existential threats.
122Geography
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The annual range of temperature is greater in the Pacific Ocean as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
Reason (R): The size of the Pacific Ocean is larger as compared to that of the Atlantic Ocean.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
The annual range of temperature is actually greater in the Atlantic Ocean than in the Pacific Ocean. This phenomenon occurs because the Atlantic Ocean is narrower and more closely surrounded by large landmasses, which subjects it to a stronger continental influence. Land heats up and cools down much faster than water, and these temperature fluctuations are transferred to the adjacent Atlantic waters. The Pacific Ocean, being the largest and deepest water body on Earth, possesses a much higher thermal inertia. Its vast expanse allows it to absorb and store more heat with minimal temperature variation, leading to a smaller annual range of temperature. The Reason is factually correct as the Pacific Ocean covers approximately 165 million square kilometers, making it significantly larger than the Atlantic Ocean, which covers about 106 million square kilometers.
123Geography
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The amount of dust particles is more in equatorial regions as compared to that of temperate areas.
Reason (R): The equatorial regions are warmer as compared to the temperate areas.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
The assertion is incorrect because dust particles are generally found in higher concentrations in subtropical and temperate deserts or dry areas rather than in equatorial regions. In the equatorial zone, high levels of humidity and frequent, heavy convectional rainfall effectively wash out atmospheric dust through wet deposition. Furthermore, the dense vegetative cover in tropical rainforests protects the soil from wind erosion, limiting the source of dust.
The reason is correct because the equatorial regions receive more direct solar radiation throughout the year compared to temperate areas. The higher angle of incidence of the sun's rays leads to greater solar intensity per unit area, making the equatorial belt significantly warmer than the higher-latitude temperate zones.
124Polity and Governance
The following items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The enactment of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act marks a new era in the federal democratic set-up of the country.
Reason (R): This Act bestowed constitutional status to the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, inaugurated a significant shift in the Indian political system by establishing a three-tier federal structure. By adding Part IX and the 11th Schedule to the Constitution, the Act transformed Panchayati Raj Institutions from discretionary administrative units into mandatory constitutional bodies. This transition marked a new era in the federal democratic set-up because it decentralized power from the state level to the village, intermediate, and district levels, ensuring grassroots participation in governance. The reason this amendment is considered a landmark is precisely because it bestowed constitutional status, protection, and permanence upon these institutions, making regular elections and the devolution of specific powers a legal necessity rather than a matter of political convenience. Thus, the constitutionalization of these bodies provides the foundational basis for the new democratic era described.