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CAPF AC Paper I 2016 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 117 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

117
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10
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Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance2622%
  • Science and Technology2521%
  • History2421%
  • Geography1311%
  • Economy87%
  • Quantitative Aptitude87%
  • Art and Culture65%
  • Logical Reasoning54%
  • Decision Making11%
  • Reading Comprehension11%
1Logical Reasoning
Consider the following Statements and Conclusions: Statements: Mohan is a good sportsman. All sportsmen are healthy. Conclusions: I. All healthy persons are sportsmen. II. Mohan is healthy. Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (B) Only Conclusion II follows

Explanation

The logical structure of the statements follows a simple transitive relationship. The first statement establishes that Mohan belongs to the category of sportsmen. The second statement provides a universal rule that every member of the category of sportsmen is also a member of the category of healthy persons. By applying this universal rule to the specific case of Mohan, it follows with certainty that Mohan is healthy. This makes Conclusion II logically valid. Conclusion I is not valid because the premise that all sportsmen are healthy does not imply that every healthy person is necessarily a sportsman; there can be healthy individuals who do not participate in sports. Therefore, only Conclusion II follows from the given premises.

2Geography
Which one of the following layers of atmosphere has high concentration of ions?
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Answer: (C) Thermosphere

Explanation

The Thermosphere contains the ionosphere, a region characterized by a high concentration of ions and free electrons. This layer extends from approximately 80 km to 600 km above the Earth's surface. Ionization occurs when high-energy ultraviolet and X-ray radiation from the Sun strike gas molecules, primarily oxygen and nitrogen, stripping them of electrons and creating positively charged ions. This high density of charged particles is critical for global radio communication, as it reflects certain radio wave frequencies back toward the Earth's surface. The temperature in this layer also rises significantly with altitude due to the absorption of this intense solar radiation.

3Geography
Which one of the following cities has greater annual range of temperature?
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Answer: (D) Ulaanbaatar

Explanation

The annual range of temperature is primarily determined by latitude and continentality. Ulaanbaatar, the capital of Mongolia, is located at a high latitude of approximately 47° N and is situated deep within the interior of the Eurasian landmass, thousands of kilometers away from the moderating influence of any ocean. This extreme continentality results in intense seasonal temperature variations, with very hot summers and exceptionally cold winters where temperatures often drop below -30°C. Consequently, Ulaanbaatar experiences one of the highest annual temperature ranges in the world, often exceeding 45°C to 50°C between its average monthly maximums and minimums.

4Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Climatic type / Koppen code) - List II (Major area) A. Aw - 1. Central California B. Af - 2. Indian Sub-Continent C. Cs - 3. North and South of Amazon Forests D. Am - 4. Western Equatorial Africa Code:
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Answer: (C) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2

Explanation

Aw represents the Tropical Savanna climate, characterized by a distinct dry season and found in transitional zones bordering tropical rainforests, such as the regions North and South of the Amazon Forests.

Af signifies the Tropical Wet or Rainforest climate, where high temperatures and heavy precipitation occur throughout the year, typically found in equatorial regions like Western Equatorial Africa in the Congo Basin.

Cs denotes the Mediterranean climate, which is unique for its dry, warm-to-hot summers and mild, wet winters, commonly found on the western coasts of continents between 30 and 45 degrees latitude, including Central California.

Am stands for the Tropical Monsoon climate, which features a short dry season followed by heavy cyclonic or orographic rainfall during the rest of the year, a pattern most notably observed across the Indian Sub-Continent.

5Geography
Ramsar Convention, to which India is a signatory, is related to conservation and wise use of:
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Answer: (A) wetlands

Explanation

The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance is an international treaty established in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar. It provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. The convention defines wetlands broadly to include lakes, rivers, underground aquifers, swamps, marshes, wet grasslands, peatlands, oases, estuaries, deltas, tidal flats, mangroves, and other coastal areas, as well as human-made sites such as fish ponds, rice paddies, reservoirs, and salt pans. India became a contracting party to the convention in 1982, committing to the management and protection of designated Ramsar sites to maintain their ecological character through the principle of wise use, which refers to the sustainable utilization of wetland benefits in a way compatible with the maintenance of the natural properties of the ecosystem.

6Geography
Which one of the following rivers flows between Satpura and Vindhya ranges?
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Answer: (C) Narmada

Explanation

The Narmada River flows through a prominent rift valley created by the downward faulting of the land between two parallel mountain ranges. It is bordered by the Vindhya Range to the north and the Satpura Range to the south. Originating from the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh, the river travels westward for approximately 1,312 kilometers before draining into the Arabian Sea through the Gulf of Khambhat. This specific geographic positioning makes it one of the few major rivers in India that flows in a rift valley between these two significant mountain systems.

7Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the correct taxonomic hierarchy?
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Answer: (D) Kingdom - phylum - class - order - family - genus - species

Explanation

The taxonomic hierarchy represents the standard sequence of categories used in biological classification, arranged from the highest (most inclusive) level to the lowest (most specific) level. This system, established by Carl Linnaeus, follows the order of Kingdom, Phylum (or Division for plants), Class, Order, Family, Genus, and Species. As one moves down this hierarchy from Kingdom to Species, the organisms within each group share a greater number of common characteristics and show increasing similarity. Each level serves as a taxon, representing a specific rank in the classification of living organisms based on their evolutionary relationships and morphological traits.

8Science and Technology
The subunits of DNA are known as:
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Answer: (A) Nucleotide

Explanation

DNA is a long-chain polymer composed of repeating monomeric units called nucleotides. Each nucleotide subunit is constructed from three distinct chemical components: a five-carbon deoxyribose sugar, a phosphate group, and one of four nitrogenous bases, which are adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine. These nucleotides link together via phosphodiester bonds between the sugar of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of the next, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA double helix. The specific sequence of these nucleotide subunits encodes the genetic information necessary for the growth, development, and reproduction of all known living organisms.

9Science and Technology
The process of using microbes to treat areas of land or sea that have been contaminated by pesticides, oil or solvents is known as:
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Answer: (D) Bioremediation

Explanation

Bioremediation is a waste management technique that involves the use of organisms, particularly microorganisms like bacteria and fungi, to remove or neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site. In this process, microbes break down hazardous substances such as oil, pesticides, and organic solvents into less toxic or non-toxic products like water and carbon dioxide. This method can be applied in situ (at the site of contamination) or ex situ (away from the site) and is considered a sustainable and cost-effective approach to environmental cleanup compared to traditional physical or chemical methods. Through metabolic processes, the microbes digest the contaminants, effectively cleaning land and aquatic environments.

10Geography
How is the rate of transpiration affected by decreasing humidity and by decreasing light intensity? Decreasing humidity / Decreasing light intensity
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Answer: (B) Increases / Decreases

Explanation

Transpiration is the process of water vapor loss from plants, primarily through the stomata. The rate of this process is heavily influenced by the vapor pressure gradient between the internal leaf spaces and the surrounding atmosphere. When humidity decreases, the air becomes drier, which increases the water potential difference between the moist interior of the leaf and the external environment. This steeper concentration gradient accelerates the diffusion of water vapor out of the leaf, leading to an increase in the rate of transpiration.

Light intensity influences transpiration by regulating the opening and closing of stomata. Most plants open their stomata in response to light to facilitate the entry of carbon dioxide for photosynthesis. As light intensity decreases, the guard cells lose turgidity, causing the stomatal pores to narrow or close. This reduction in stomatal aperture increases the physical resistance to the escape of water vapor, consequently decreasing the rate of transpiration.

11Science and Technology
Vaccination involves:
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Answer: (A) injecting the body with materials that stimulate the body to produce antibodies

Explanation

Vaccination is a biological preparation that provides active acquired immunity to a particular infectious disease. It works by introducing an antigen—typically a weakened, killed, or inactivated form of a pathogen or its components—into the body. This introduction mimics an infection, which triggers the immune system to recognize the foreign substance and stimulate B-lymphocytes to produce specific antibodies. Additionally, the process leads to the creation of memory cells, which remain in the body to ensure a rapid and robust immune response if the person is ever exposed to the actual pathogen in the future. By stimulating the body's own natural defense mechanisms to produce these antibodies and memory cells, vaccination provides long-term protection against specific diseases without the individual having to suffer through the illness itself.

12Science and Technology
Which of the following are examples of carnivorous plants?
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Answer: (A) Sundew, Venus fly trap, Pitcher plant

Explanation

Carnivorous plants are specialized organisms that derive some or most of their nutrients from trapping and consuming animals or protozoans, typically insects. The Sundew (Drosera) captures prey using sticky, glandular tentacles on its leaves. The Venus fly trap (Dionaea muscipula) employs a rapid snap-trap mechanism triggered by sensitive hairs when an insect lands on its specialized leaf blades. The Pitcher plant (Nepenthes or Sarracenia) uses a pitfall trap consisting of a deep cavity filled with digestive liquid to lure and drown insects. These adaptations allow these plants to survive in nutrient-poor environments, such as nitrogen-deficient bogs or acidic soils, where they supplement their photosynthetic energy with nitrogen and phosphorus obtained from animal proteins.

13Quantitative Aptitude
A vehicle with mileage 15 km per litre contains 2 L of fuel. The vehicle gets some defect as a result of which 3 L of fuel gets wasted per hour when the engine is on. With what minimum speed the vehicle has to move to travel 20 km with the existing amount of fuel, if it travels with a uniform speed?
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Answer: (A) 100 km per hour

Explanation

To find the minimum speed required, we must ensure that the total fuel consumed during the journey does not exceed the fuel available. The total fuel consumption is the sum of the fuel used for propulsion and the fuel wasted due to the defect.

The fuel required for propulsion is calculated using the mileage: F_(propulsion) = Distance/Mileage = 20 km / (15 km/L) = 4/3 L

Let v be the uniform speed in km/h. The time taken to travel 20 km is t = 20/v hours. The fuel wasted during this time is: F_(wastage) = Wastage rate × t = 3 L/h × 20/v h = 60/v L

The total fuel used must be less than or equal to the 2 L available: 4/3 + 60/v ≤ 2

Subtracting 4/3 from both sides: 60/v ≤ 2 - 4/3 60/v ≤ 2/3

Rearranging to solve for v: v ≥ (60 × 3)/2 v ≥ 90 km/h

The mathematical minimum speed required is 90 km/h. Among the given options, 100 km/h is the smallest speed that satisfies the condition v ≥ 90.

14Geography
Consider the following statements relating to Sea Salinity: 1. The ocean salinity depends on evaporation and precipitation 2. Any change in the temperature or density influences the salinity 3. Major source of sea salinity is terrestrial discharge by rivers Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ocean salinity is primarily determined by the balance between evaporation and precipitation. Evaporation removes pure water, leaving salts behind and increasing salinity, whereas precipitation adds fresh water, which dilutes the salt concentration. This relationship explains why subtropical regions with high evaporation are saltier than equatorial regions with high rainfall.

The physical properties of seawater—temperature, salinity, and density—are intrinsically linked. Temperature changes influence evaporation rates and the solubility of salts, while processes that change the density of water, such as the formation of sea ice (which rejects salt into the surrounding water) or the melting of ice caps (which adds fresh water), directly modify salinity levels.

The salts in the ocean originate from the chemical weathering of rocks on the Earth's surface. Rainwater reacts with minerals in rocks and soil to create dissolved ions, which are then transported by rivers and streams to the ocean. Over millions of years, this terrestrial discharge has accumulated in the sea, making it the dominant source of the ocean's salt content alongside secondary sources like hydrothermal vents and volcanic activity.

15Economy
Consider the following statements relating to order of salt production in India: 1. India is the second largest producer of iodised salt in the world next only to China 2. Salt mining is carried out in Himachal Pradesh 3. Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India 4. Ground water is the important source of salt in Rajasthan Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

India possesses rock salt deposits in the Mandi district of Himachal Pradesh, specifically at Gumma and Drang, which are the only sites in the country where salt is produced through mining operations. Gujarat stands as the premier salt-producing state in India, contributing approximately 75 to 80 percent of the total national output owing to its extensive coastline and favorable climatic conditions. In the landlocked state of Rajasthan, salt production relies heavily on inland sources. Ground water or sub-soil brine is the critical source for the salt industry in major production areas such as Sambhar, Didwana, and Pachpadra, where the brine is drawn to the surface and subjected to solar evaporation in pans.

16Geography
Which of the following statements relating to Dharwar geological system are correct? 1. They belong to Archaean geological period 2. They are metamorphosed sedimentary rocks 3. They are of great economic importance for its mineral resources 4. They are found predominantly in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Odisha and Jharkhand Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Dharwar geological system represents the oldest metamorphosed sedimentary rock system in India, dating back to the late Archaean Eon approximately 2.5 to 3.4 billion years ago. These rocks originated from the weathered debris of the even older Archaean Gneisses and were subsequently subjected to intense tectonic deformation and metamorphism, transforming them into crystalline schists, phyllites, and quartzites. Economically, this system is of paramount importance as it contains the most productive metallic mineral belts in the country, hosting vast reserves of iron ore, manganese, copper, gold, and lead-zinc. Geographically, these rocks are found in prominent outcrops across the Indian peninsula, specifically in the Dharwar-Shimoga-Bellary region of Karnataka, the Nilgiris in Tamil Nadu, and the rich mineral belts of the Chotanagpur plateau spanning across Odisha and Jharkhand.

17Geography
Which one of the following is the correct order of formation of geological systems in India in terms of their age? (Starting with the oldest)
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Answer: (B) Aravallis - Dharwars - Cuddapahs - Vindhyans

Explanation

The geological systems of India are categorized based on their chronological formation, starting from the ancient Archean foundations to the later Proterozoic sedimentary basins. The Aravalli system represents one of the oldest orogenic belts in the world, with its roots in the Archean era, making it the oldest among the given options. The Dharwar system, formed between 2500 and 1800 million years ago, consists of the first metamorphosed sedimentary rocks in India, primarily located in the Karnataka region.

Following these Archean-Early Proterozoic formations, the Purana group of rocks emerged, beginning with the Cuddapah system. Formed approximately 1700 to 600 million years ago, the Cuddapah system consists of thick sequences of unfossiliferous sedimentary rocks like shales, limestones, and quartzites. The Vindhyan system is the youngest of the four, dating to the late Proterozoic era (approximately 1300 to 600 million years ago). It consists of vast sedimentary deposits that often overlie the Cuddapah rocks, marking the final major geological system in this ancient sequence before the onset of the Paleozoic era.

18Science and Technology
A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called:
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Answer: (B) Sublimation

Explanation

Sublimation is the thermodynamic process in which a substance transitions directly from the solid phase to the gas phase without passing through the intermediate liquid state. This occurs when the temperature and pressure conditions are below the substance's triple point on its phase diagram. At the molecular level, the particles in the solid gain sufficient kinetic energy from heat to completely overcome the intermolecular forces holding them in a rigid lattice, allowing them to escape directly into the surrounding environment as vapor. Common examples of substances that undergo sublimation at standard atmospheric pressure include dry ice (solid carbon dioxide), naphthalene, camphor, and iodine.

19Science and Technology
Water at 273 K is less effective in cooling than ice at the same temperature. It is because:
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Answer: (C) water at 273 K has more energy than ice at the same temperature

Explanation

Water at 273 K possesses more energy than ice at the same temperature due to the latent heat of fusion. When ice at 273 K melts to form water, it absorbs a significant amount of heat energy, approximately 3.34 × 10⁵ J/kg, without any increase in temperature. This energy is used to overcome the intermolecular forces holding the water molecules in the solid crystalline lattice of ice. This extra energy is stored in the water molecules as internal potential energy. Because ice must absorb this additional latent heat from its surroundings to undergo the phase transition, it removes more heat from an object than water at the same temperature, which would immediately begin to rise in temperature upon absorbing any heat.

20Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The rate of evaporation does not depend on surface area exposed to atmosphere but on volume of the liquid

Explanation

Evaporation is a surface phenomenon, meaning the transition from the liquid phase to the vapor phase occurs exclusively at the interface between the liquid and the atmosphere. Since only the molecules located at the surface possess the opportunity to escape the intermolecular forces of the bulk liquid, the rate of evaporation is directly proportional to the magnitude of the surface area exposed. A larger surface area provides more exit points for molecules, thereby increasing the rate. The total volume of the liquid does not dictate the rate of evaporation; provided the exposed surface area and environmental conditions remain constant, a shallow tray of water and a deep bucket of water will lose moisture to the atmosphere at the same initial rate. Therefore, the assertion that the rate depends on volume rather than surface area is scientifically incorrect.

21Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a colloid?
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Answer: (D) Boric acid

Explanation

Boric acid (H₃BO₃) is a pure inorganic chemical compound and not a colloidal system. In its solid state, it exists as a crystalline substance, and when dissolved in water, it forms a true solution. A true solution is a homogeneous mixture where the solute particles are at the molecular or ionic scale, typically less than 1 nm in diameter. Colloids, by contrast, are heterogeneous mixtures consisting of a dispersed phase and a continuous dispersion medium with particle sizes ranging between 1 nm and 1000 nm. Since boric acid dissolves to form a uniform molecular dispersion, it does not exhibit the Tyndall effect or other characteristic properties of colloidal systems.

22Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Isotope) - List II (Application) A. Carbon - 1. Treatment of goitre B. Cobalt - 2. Calculation of age of the earth C. Iodine - 3. Treatment of cancer D. Uranium - 4. Fuel in nuclear reactors Code:
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Answer: (A) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

Explanation

Carbon isotopes, specifically ¹⁴C, are utilized in radioactive dating techniques to determine the chronological age of organic materials, and by extension, specific isotope systems are fundamental for the calculation of the age of the earth. Cobalt-60 is a radioactive isotope employed in medical radiotherapy for the treatment of cancer, as it emits high-energy gamma rays that can penetrate tissues and destroy malignant cells. Iodine-131 is a radioisotope that is absorbed by the thyroid gland, making it the standard treatment for goitre and other thyroid-related disorders. Uranium-235 is a fissile isotope that serves as the primary fuel in nuclear reactors, where it undergoes controlled nuclear fission to produce large amounts of energy for electricity generation.

23Quantitative Aptitude
A device can write 100 digits in 1 minute. It starts writing natural numbers. The device is stopped after running it for half an hour. It is found that the last number it was writing is not complete. The incomplete number is:
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Answer: (D) 1027

Explanation

The device writes at a rate of 100 digits per minute. In 30 minutes, the total number of digits written is 100 × 30 = 3000 digits.

Natural numbers are written in sequence: For 1-digit numbers (1 to 9), digits used = 9 × 1 = 9 digits. For 2-digit numbers (10 to 99), digits used = 90 × 2 = 180 digits. For 3-digit numbers (100 to 999), digits used = 900 × 3 = 2700 digits.

The cumulative number of digits written up to the number 999 is 9 + 180 + 2700 = 2889 digits. The remaining digits to reach the 3000th digit are 3000 - 2889 = 111 digits.

From 1000 onwards, each number has 4 digits. To find how many 4-digit numbers are written, we divide the remaining digits by 4: 111 = (27 × 4) + 3

This indicates that 27 full 4-digit numbers are written after 999, and 3 digits of the 28th 4-digit number are written before the device stops. The 27th 4-digit number is 999 + 27 = 1026. The 28th 4-digit number is 1026 + 1 = 1027.

Since only 3 out of 4 digits of the number 1027 were written, the incomplete number is 1027.

24Quantitative Aptitude
A circular coin of radius 1 cm is allowed to roll freely on the periphery over a circular disc of radius 10 cm. If the disc has no movement and the coin completes one revolution rolling on the periphery over the disc and without slipping, then what is the number of times the coin rotated about its centre?
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Answer: (C) 11

Explanation

When a circle of radius r rolls along the outer edge of a fixed circle of radius R, the path traced by the center of the rolling circle is a circle with radius R + r. The total distance traveled by the center of the coin in one complete revolution around the disc is the circumference of this larger path, which is 2π(R + r).

In a rolling motion without slipping, the number of rotations n the coin makes about its own center is the ratio of the distance traveled by its center to its own circumference 2πr. This relationship is expressed by the formula:

n = 2π(R + r)/(2πr) = (R + r)/r = R/r + 1

Given that the radius of the stationary disc R = 10 cm and the radius of the rolling coin r = 1 cm, the calculation is:

n = (10 + 1)/1 = 11

The extra rotation (the + 1 in the formula) accounts for the fact that the coin is moving along a curved path. As the coin orbits the disc, it completes one full rotation due to its circular trajectory in addition to the rotations caused by the linear distance covered along the disc's perimeter.

25Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following is different from the remaining three?
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Answer: (D) Ellipse

Explanation

An ellipse is a conic section defined by two distinct focal points (foci), such that the sum of the distances from any point on the curve to these two foci remains constant. This geometric property differentiates it from other standard figures that are typically characterized by a single center. In the fields of design and fundamental geometry, the triangle, square, and circle are categorized as the three primary shapes, while the ellipse is considered a secondary or derived form. Mathematically, an ellipse requires two independent parameters—the semi-major axis and the semi-minor axis—to define its specific proportions and eccentricity, whereas the other figures in their regular or most basic states are defined by a single dimension.

26Quantitative Aptitude
Which one of the following inequalities is always true for positive real numbers x, y?
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Answer: (D) 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)²

Explanation

For any positive real numbers x and y, let k = 1 + x + y. Since x > 0 and y > 0, it follows that k > 1. For any real number k, the inequality k < k² holds true whenever k > 1 or k < 0. By substituting the expression back into this property, since 1 + x + y is guaranteed to be greater than 1, the inequality 1 + x + y < (1 + x + y)² is always true. This is a direct consequence of the fact that squaring any number greater than 1 results in a larger value.

27Geography
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Kolkata port is the only riverine major port of India 2. The port of Cochin is located on the Willington Island. 3. Maharashtra has three major ports 4. Madras port is India's major port in private sector Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Kolkata Port is the only major riverine port in India, situated on the left bank of the Hugli River. Unlike coastal ports, it is located inland and requires regular dredging to maintain the depth of the shipping channel for vessels arriving from the Bay of Bengal. The Port of Cochin is located on Willingdon Island in the state of Kerala. Willingdon Island is a significant artificial island created in the 1930s by reclaiming land using soil dredged during the deepening of the Vembanad Lake to develop a modern deep-sea harbor. These geographical features define the operational nature of these two major ports.

28Quantitative Aptitude
Perth located on 118° East Longitude will be celebrating New Year event on 1st of January 2017 at 6:00 AM. At that time, what would be the time at Los Angeles located on 110° West Longitude?
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Answer: (B) 2:48 PM of 31st December 2016

Explanation

The time difference between two locations is determined by the difference in their longitudes. Since Perth is at 118° East and Los Angeles is at 110° West, the total longitudinal distance between them is the sum of their longitudes relative to the Prime Meridian: 118° + 110° = 228°.

The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, meaning 1° of longitude equals 4 minutes of time. Therefore, the time difference is calculated as: 228° × 4 minutes/degree = 912 minutes

To convert this into hours and minutes: 912/60 = 15 hours and 12 minutes

Because Los Angeles is located to the west of Perth, its time is behind Perth's time. To find the time in Los Angeles, we subtract 15 hours and 12 minutes from the time in Perth (January 1, 2017, at 6:00 AM): 6:00 AM (Jan 1) minus 6 hours = 12:00 AM (Midnight, Jan 1). 12:00 AM (Jan 1) minus the remaining 9 hours 12 minutes: 12:00 AM minus 9 hours = 3:00 PM (Dec 31). 3:00 PM minus 12 minutes = 2:48 PM on 31st December 2016.

29Economy
Which one of the following states has the maximum number of registered E-Waste recyclers / dismantlers?
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Answer: (A) Maharashtra

Explanation

As per the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) records available up to 2016, Maharashtra had the highest number of registered e-waste recyclers and dismantlers in the country. The state serves as a primary industrial and information technology hub, with major urban centers like Mumbai and Pune generating the largest volumes of electronic waste in India. To manage this output, Maharashtra established the most extensive infrastructure of authorized processing facilities under the E-Waste (Management) Rules. These registered units are specialized in the systematic dismantling and recycling of electronic components to recover valuable materials while ensuring that hazardous substances are handled in an environmentally sound manner.

30Science and Technology
Arrange the following substances in their order of increasing hardness: 1. Gypsum 2. Topaz 3. Fluorite 4. Feldspar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1-3-4-2

Explanation

The relative hardness of minerals is determined using the Mohs scale, which ranks minerals from 1 to 10 based on their ability to scratch one another. In this scale, Gypsum is a very soft mineral with a hardness value of 2. Fluorite is harder than gypsum and carries a value of 4. Feldspar, typically represented by orthoclase in the standard scale, has a hardness value of 6. Topaz is one of the hardest naturally occurring minerals with a value of 8. Arranging these minerals in ascending order of their scratch resistance results in the sequence Gypsum (1), Fluorite (3), Feldspar (4), and Topaz (2).

31Economy
During 2014-2015, in which one of the following industrial sectors, the FDI equity inflow was maximum?
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Answer: (B) Services (Financial, Banking and Insurance, Non-Financial / Business, R & D etc.)

Explanation

According to the data released by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) for the financial year 2014-15, the Services sector received the highest Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) equity inflow in India. This broad category includes financial, banking, insurance, non-financial/business, outsourcing, research and development, and courier services. During this period, the sector attracted approximately $4.44 billion (₹27,369 crore) in FDI equity, accounting for nearly 17 percent of the total inflows. The continued dominance of the services sector was largely driven by reforms in the insurance and banking industries, along with a high global demand for Indian business processing and technical consulting services.

32Economy
Which one of the following is not an industrial corridor as per the policy industries?
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Answer: (C) Kolkata - Guwahati

Explanation

The Kolkata-Guwahati route is not an officially recognized national industrial corridor under the framework established by the Government of India. The national policy for industrial corridors, managed by the National Industrial Corridor Development and Implementation Trust, identifies and develops specific economic zones designed to leverage high-speed transport networks and infrastructure. These corridors are strategically planned to connect major manufacturing and urban centers through dedicated freight routes and smart city developments. Since the Kolkata-Guwahati segment has not been formally approved or included in this developmental blueprint, it does not receive the targeted investment or institutional support associated with sanctioned industrial corridor projects.

33Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) Bleaching powder acts as a reducing agent in many chemical industries

Explanation

Bleaching powder, chemically represented as CaOCl₂ (calcium oxychloride), is a powerful oxidizing agent rather than a reducing agent. Its oxidizing properties are derived from the fact that it releases nascent oxygen when it reacts with water, moisture, or dilute acids. This liberated oxygen is responsible for the bleaching action on fabrics and the disinfection of water by oxidizing the cellular components of microorganisms. In various chemical industries, bleaching powder is employed specifically for its capacity to facilitate oxidation reactions in the processing of textiles, paper pulp, and other materials.

34Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Graphite has a tetrahedral structure

Explanation

Graphite consists of carbon atoms arranged in flat, two-dimensional layers of hexagonal rings. In this structure, each carbon atom is sp² hybridized and forms covalent bonds with three neighboring carbon atoms within the same plane. This results in a planar, hexagonal lattice rather than a three-dimensional tetrahedral arrangement. A tetrahedral structure is the characteristic geometry of diamond, where each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and bonded to four other carbon atoms at the corners of a regular tetrahedron. The layers in graphite are stacked and held together by weak van der Waals forces, which allows them to slide over one another.

35Science and Technology
Consider the following physical quantities: Energy, power, pressure, impulse, temperature, gravitational potential. Which of the above is / are the Vector quantity/quantities?
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Answer: (A) Impulse only

Explanation

Impulse is a vector quantity because it is defined as the change in linear momentum, which is the product of force and the time interval over which it acts, J = F Δt. Because force is a vector, impulse possesses both magnitude and a specific direction aligned with the applied force. In contrast, the other listed quantities are scalars. Energy and gravitational potential represent work or the capacity to do work and lack direction. Power is the scalar rate of energy transfer. Temperature is a measure of the average kinetic energy of particles and has no directional component. Pressure is defined as the magnitude of the normal force per unit area and acts in all directions within a fluid at a given point, making it a scalar quantity in the context of classical physics. Therefore, among the provided list, only impulse possesses the properties of a vector.

36Science and Technology
A piece of stone tied to a string is made to revolve in a circular orbit of radius r with other end of the string as the centre. If the string breaks, the stone will:
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Answer: (C) move along a tangent.

Explanation

When an object performs uniform circular motion, its instantaneous velocity at any point is directed along the tangent to the circular path at that position. The tension in the string provides the centripetal force required to constantly change the stone's direction of motion toward the center. According to Newton's First Law of Motion, an object will maintain its state of motion in a straight line unless acted upon by an external force. At the instant the string breaks, the centripetal force becomes zero. Without this force to pull it toward the center, the stone continues to move in a straight line in the direction of its velocity at that specific moment, which is along the tangent to the circle.

37Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not true?
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Answer: (C) The SI unit of weight is kg

Explanation

Weight is defined as the gravitational force exerted on an object by a celestial body, such as the Earth. Since weight is a force, its SI unit is the Newton (N), as per the formula W = m · g, where m is mass and g is the acceleration due to gravity. The kilogram (kg) is the SI base unit for mass, which is a measure of the amount of matter in an object and remains constant regardless of location. In physics, mass and weight are distinct quantities; mass is a scalar measured in kilograms, while weight is a vector force measured in Newtons. Therefore, stating that the SI unit of weight is the kilogram is scientifically incorrect.

38Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Acceleration due to gravity decreases with the increase of altitude

Explanation

The acceleration due to gravity g at an altitude h above the Earth's surface is determined by the formula gₕ = GM/(R+h)², where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the Earth's radius. As the altitude h increases, the denominator (R+h) increases, which leads to a decrease in the value of gₕ. This follows the inverse square law of gravitation, stating that the gravitational force and the resulting acceleration decrease as the distance from the center of the mass increases. For heights much smaller than the Earth's radius, this can be simplified using a binomial expansion to gₕ ≈ g(1 - 2h/R), which explicitly demonstrates that gravity reduces as one moves further from the Earth's surface.

39Science and Technology
A Barometer kept in an elevator reads 760 mm when the elevator is at rest. When the elevator moves in the upward direction with increasing speed, the reading of the Barometer will be:
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Answer: (B) < 760 mm

Explanation

The height h of the mercury column in a barometer is determined by the equilibrium between the atmospheric pressure P and the pressure exerted by the mercury column. The pressure exerted by a fluid column of height h is given by the formula:

P = ρ · g_(eff) · h

where ρ is the density of mercury and g_(eff) is the effective acceleration due to gravity in the frame of the barometer.

When the elevator is at rest, g_(eff) = g (the standard acceleration due to gravity), and the reading is h = P/(ρg) = 760 mm.

When the elevator moves in the upward direction with increasing speed, it is accelerating upward (a > 0). In this non-inertial frame, an object experiences a downward pseudo-force. The effective acceleration due to gravity increases and is given by:

g_(eff) = g + a

Since the external atmospheric pressure P remains constant at a given altitude, the height of the mercury column must adjust to maintain the pressure balance:

h_(new) = P/(ρ(g + a))

Because (g + a) > g, the denominator increases, which results in a smaller value for the height h. Consequently, the reading of the barometer will be less than 760 mm.

40Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (B) The magnetic field lines of force are widely separated near the poles of a magnet but these lines come closer to one another at other places

Explanation

The strength of a magnetic field is represented by the density of its field lines. Magnetic field lines are always closest together at the poles of a magnet because the magnetic field is most intense at these points. This high concentration of lines signifies a maximum magnetic flux density. As the distance from the poles increases, the magnetic field weakens, and the field lines become more widely separated. Therefore, the statement that lines are widely separated near the poles but closer at other places is physically incorrect.

41Science and Technology
Let a resistor having 4 ohm resistance be connected across the terminals of a 12 volt battery. Then the charge in coulomb passing through the resistor per second is:
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

According to Ohm's law, the electric current I flowing through a conductor is determined by the ratio of the potential difference V to the resistance R, formulated as I = V/R. Given a voltage of 12 volts and a resistance of 4 ohms, the current is I = 12/4 = 3 Amperes. By definition, electric current represents the rate of flow of charge over time, expressed as I = Q/t, where Q is the charge in coulombs and t is the time in seconds. Since one Ampere is equal to one Coulomb per second, a current of 3 Amperes signifies that 3 Coulombs of charge pass through the resistor every second.

42Economy
Arrange the following varieties of silk in India in their order of decreasing production: 1. Muga 2. Eri 3. Mulberry 4. Tasar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 3-2-4-1

Explanation

India is the only country in the world that produces all four major commercial varieties of silk. According to production statistics from the period leading up to 2016, Mulberry silk is the most dominant variety, contributing roughly 70 to 75 percent of India's total silk output. Eri silk, characterized by its thermal properties and produced mainly in the northeastern states, ranks second in production volume. Tasar silk, a wild silk variety primarily harvested in central and eastern India, is the third most produced variety. Muga silk, which is geographically restricted largely to the state of Assam and known for its natural golden hue, has the lowest production volume among the four types. This results in the decreasing order of Mulberry (3), Eri (2), Tasar (4), and Muga (1).

43Economy
Which of the following are the objectives of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission? 1. To provide employment in rural areas 2. To produce saleable articles 3. To create self reliance amongst people and building up a strong rural community spirit Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body established under the Khadi and Village Industries Commission Act of 1956 to plan, promote, facilitate, and organize the development of khadi and village industries in rural areas. It functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises with three distinct objectives that guide its operations. The social objective is to provide sustainable employment to the rural population, thereby preventing migration to urban centers. The economic objective focuses on the production of saleable articles through these industries to ensure financial viability for artisans. The wider objective centers on creating self-reliance among the rural populace and building a strong community spirit, reflecting the Gandhian philosophy of decentralized development and local empowerment. These goals are achieved through technical assistance, training, and marketing support provided by the commission.

44Geography
Which of the following statements concerning circum-pacific belt are correct? 1. It is an active volcanic region 2. It is an active seismic realm 3. It is a divergent plate boundary 4. It is prone to Tsunami Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The circum-pacific belt, often referred to as the Ring of Fire, is a massive horseshoe-shaped zone characterized by high tectonic activity. It is the world's most active volcanic region, hosting approximately 75 percent of Earth's volcanoes because of the continuous subduction of oceanic plates. This intense geological interaction also makes it the most active seismic realm on the planet, where nearly 90 percent of all earthquakes occur. Because many of these powerful seismic events and volcanic eruptions take place on the ocean floor or along coastal margins, the region is extremely prone to tsunamis. The belt is fundamentally defined by convergent plate boundaries, where plates collide and subduct, and transform boundaries, rather than divergent boundaries which are typically found at mid-ocean ridges.

45Science and Technology
Which of the following statements relating to solar system is / are correct? 1. Venus and Uranus rotate opposite to the direction of rotation of Earth 2. Venus is the nearest planet to Earth Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Most planets in our solar system, including Earth, rotate in a counter-clockwise direction (prograde). However, Venus and Uranus are exceptions as they exhibit retrograde rotation, meaning they rotate clockwise. While Uranus has a unique axial tilt of approximately 98° that makes it appear to roll on its side, its rotational direction is still considered opposite to that of Earth.

Venus is the nearest planetary neighbor to Earth. At its closest point of approach, known as inferior conjunction, Venus comes within about 41 million kilometers of Earth, which is closer than any other planet. While Mercury is often cited as the planet that stays closest to Earth on average over a long period due to its small orbital radius, Venus remains the planet that reaches the shortest physical distance from Earth.

46Logical Reasoning
If a place is affected by Tide at 6:00 AM Monday, normally at what time the same place will be affected by Ebb?
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Answer: (C) 12:13 PM Monday

Explanation

The timing of tides is determined by the lunar day, which is the time it takes for a specific point on the Earth to rotate back to its original position relative to the Moon. A lunar day lasts approximately 24 hours and 50 minutes. In most coastal locations, a semi-diurnal tidal cycle occurs, meaning there are two high tides and two low tides (ebbs) within one lunar day. The interval between two successive high tides is approximately 12 hours and 25 minutes. Since a low tide occurs exactly halfway between two high tides, the time interval between a high tide and the succeeding low tide is 12 hours and 25 minutes / 2, which equals 6 hours and 12.5 minutes. Adding this duration to the initial high tide at 6:00 AM Monday gives a time of 12:12:30 PM Monday, which is approximately 12:13 PM.

47Quantitative Aptitude
There are two concentric circles. The radii of the two circles are 100 m and 110 m respectively. A wheel of radius 30 cm rolls on the smaller circle and another wheel rolls on the larger circle. After they have completed one revolution, it is found that the two wheels rolled equal number of times on their respective axes. What is the radius of the other wheel?
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Answer: (C) 33 cm

Explanation

The number of rotations n a wheel of radius r makes to cover a distance D is given by the formula n = D/(2πr). In this problem, the distance covered by each wheel is the circumference of the circle it rolls upon. Let R₁ = 100 m and R₂ = 110 m be the radii of the concentric circles, and r₁ = 30 cm and r₂ be the radii of the respective wheels.

The number of rotations for the first wheel is n₁ = 2πR₁/(2πr₁) = R₁/r₁. Similarly, for the second wheel, n₂ = 2πR₂/(2πr₂) = R₂/r₂. Since the problem states that the two wheels rolled an equal number of times on their respective axes, we set n₁ = n₂:

R₁/r₁ = R₂/r₂

Substituting the known values into the equation:

100/30 = 110/r₂

Solving for r₂:

r₂ = (110 × 30)/100

r₂ = 3300/100 = 33 cm

48Quantitative Aptitude
A triangle is formed with vertices (0, 0), (0, 100) and (100, 100). What is the number of points inside the triangle with integer coordinates?
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Answer: (C) 4851

Explanation

The vertices of the triangle are (0, 0), (0, 100), and (100, 100). A point (x, y) is inside the triangle if it satisfies the following inequalities: x > 0, y < 100, and y > x (since the hypotenuse is the line y = x and the interior lies above it).

To find the number of integer coordinates (x, y) satisfying these conditions, we can iterate through possible integer values of x: For x = 1, 1 < y < 100. The possible values for y are {2, 3, …, 99}, giving 99 - 2 + 1 = 98 points. For x = 2, 2 < y < 100. The possible values for y are {3, 4, …, 99}, giving 99 - 3 + 1 = 97 points. Continuing this pattern, for x = 98, 98 < y < 100. The only possible value for y is 99, giving 1 point. For x = 99, there are no integer values of y such that 99 < y < 100.

The total number of interior points is the sum of these values: S = 98 + 97 + 96 + … + 1

Using the arithmetic series formula S = n(n+1)/2 where n = 98: S = 98 × (98 + 1)/2 S = 98 × 99/2 S = 49 × 99 S = 4851

49Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following is the wrong number in the series 6, 14, 30, 64, 126?
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Answer: (B) 64

Explanation

The series follows the mathematical pattern x_(n+1) = 2xₙ + 2. Applying this rule to each term starting from the first number: 6 × 2 + 2 = 14 14 × 2 + 2 = 30 30 × 2 + 2 = 62 62 × 2 + 2 = 126

In the given sequence 6, 14, 30, 64, 126, the fourth term is 64 instead of the calculated 62. Alternatively, the differences between consecutive terms are 14 - 6 = 8 (2³), 30 - 14 = 16 (2⁴), 62 - 30 = 32 (2⁵), and 126 - 62 = 64 (2⁶). In the provided series, the difference 64 - 30 = 34 and 126 - 64 = 62 disrupts this geometric progression of differences. Thus, 64 is the incorrect term.

50Logical Reasoning
In a school there are three batches of players who play cricket, football and hockey. An incomplete chart of number of students playing an individual sport belonging to an individual batch is displayed in the following table: | | Batch I | Batch II | Batch III | Total | | ---------------- | ------- | -------- | --------- | ----- | | Cricket players | | | 8 | 14 | | Football players | | | 10 | 16 | | Hockey players | 6 | | 6 | 17 | | Total | | | | | Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (B) Batch I and Batch II do not have equal number of students

Explanation

Let C_n, F_n, and Hₙ represent the number of cricket, football, and hockey players in Batch n, respectively. According to the row totals provided in the table:

For Cricket players: C_1 + C_2 + 8 = 14 ⇒ C_1 + C_2 = 6 For Football players: F_1 + F_2 + 10 = 16 ⇒ F_1 + F_2 = 6 For Hockey players: 6 + H_2 + 6 = 17 ⇒ H_2 = 5

The total number of students in Batch I (T₁) and Batch II (T₂) are: T_1 = C_1 + F_1 + 6 T_2 = C_2 + F_2 + 5

The sum of students in both batches is: T_1 + T_2 = (C_1 + C_2) + (F_1 + F_2) + 6 + 5 T_1 + T_2 = 6 + 6 + 11 = 23

If Batch I and Batch II had an equal number of students (T_1 = T_2), then: 2T_1 = 23 ⇒ T_1 = 11.5

Since the number of students must be an integer, it is mathematically impossible for T₁ to equal T₂. Consequently, Batch I and Batch II do not have an equal number of students.

51Decision Making
There are two boxes. Box I contains one white card and two black cards and Box II contains one white card and a black card. Two persons P and Q play a game. P picks a card randomly from I. If P finds the white card, P wins and the game stops. If P finds the black card, Q draws a card randomly from Box II. If Q finds the white card Q wins. The game stops whether Q draws the white card or the black card. Which one of the following is correct?
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Answer: (D) Both P and Q may lose

Explanation

The game involves sequential draws from Box I and Box II. For P to lose, P must draw a black card from Box I, which has a probability of P(B_I) = 2/3. If this event occurs, the game continues and Q draws a card from Box II. For Q to lose, Q must draw a black card from Box II, which has a probability of P(B_(II)) = 1/2. The probability that both P and Q lose is the joint probability of these two events: P(Both lose) = P(B_I) × P(B_(II)) = 2/3 × 1/2 = 1/3. Since the probability of this specific outcome is non-zero, it is statistically possible for both players to lose the game.

52Logical Reasoning
Consider the following sequence: 0, 6, 24, 60, 120, 210 Which one of the following numbers will come next in the sequence?
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Answer: (C) 336

Explanation

The sequence follows the mathematical pattern aₙ = n³ - n, where n represents the position of the term in the sequence starting from n=1. Each term is calculated by subtracting the base number from its cube:

1³ - 1 = 1 - 1 = 0 2³ - 2 = 8 - 2 = 6 3³ - 3 = 27 - 3 = 24 4³ - 4 = 64 - 4 = 60 5³ - 5 = 125 - 5 = 120 6³ - 6 = 216 - 6 = 210

Following this logic, the seventh term (n=7) is: 7³ - 7 = 343 - 7 = 336

Alternatively, this sequence can be solved by identifying it as a product of three consecutive integers (n-1) × n × (n+1) for n = 1, 2, 3, … The terms are 0 × 1 × 2 = 0, 1 × 2 × 3 = 6, 2 × 3 × 4 = 24, 3 × 4 × 5 = 60, 4 × 5 × 6 = 120, and 5 × 6 × 7 = 210. The next term is 6 × 7 × 8 = 336.

53History
Recently French military announced to end 'Operation Sangaris', which was in operation since 2013, in which one of the following nations?
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Answer: (B) Central African Republic

Explanation

Operation Sangaris was a French military intervention in the Central African Republic (CAR) launched in December 2013. The mission was initiated following a United Nations Security Council mandate to assist the African Union-led peacekeeping force (MISCA) and later the UN mission (MINUSCA) in curbing the widespread sectarian violence between the Séléka and anti-balaka militias. In 2016, the French government officially announced the termination of the operation, declaring that the mission had fulfilled its objectives of restoring a measure of security and stability to the country, allowing for the successful holding of democratic elections and the handover of security responsibilities to international peacekeeping forces.

54Economy
Which one of the following cities hosted the Tenth Ministerial Conference of World Trade Organisation during December 2015?
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Answer: (D) Nairobi

Explanation

The Tenth Ministerial Conference (MC10) of the World Trade Organization was held in Nairobi, Kenya, from 15 to 19 December 2015. This historic session was the first WTO Ministerial Conference to be hosted by an African nation. The conference resulted in the adoption of the Nairobi Package, which contained a series of decisions aimed at benefiting the organization’s poorest members, specifically regarding agriculture, cotton, and issues related to least-developed countries. A centerpiece of the package was the ministerial decision to eliminate subsidies for agricultural exports, representing a significant step in global trade negotiations.

55Art and Culture
Which one of the following films was awarded the best children's film in Berlin International Film Festival, 2016?
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Answer: (C) Dhanak

Explanation

Dhanak, written and directed by Nagesh Kukunoor, won the Grand Prix of the Generation Kplus International Jury for the best feature film at the 66th Berlin International Film Festival in 2016. The film also received a Special Mention from the Children's Jury in the same category. The story follows a young girl named Pari and her visually impaired younger brother Chotu on a journey across the sands of Rajasthan to find superstar Shah Rukh Khan, whom Pari believes can help restore her brother's eyesight. The film was praised for its heartwarming narrative and exploration of the bond between siblings within the context of childhood innocence and hope.

56Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding Zika virus is not correct?
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Answer: (C) It does not cause mother to child infection

Explanation

Zika virus can be transmitted from a pregnant woman to her fetus during pregnancy or around the time of birth. This vertical transmission is well-documented and was a central focus of the 2015-2016 international public health response. The virus is capable of crossing the placental barrier, leading to intrauterine infection. Scientific evidence confirmed that the virus can be found in the amniotic fluid of pregnant women and the brain tissue of fetuses or newborns, where it interferes with normal neurological development and causes congenital Zika syndrome.

57Art and Culture
Which one of the following fiction was selected for Man Booker Prize, 2015?
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Answer: (C) A Brief History of Seven Killings

Explanation

The 2015 Man Booker Prize for Fiction was awarded to the Jamaican author Marlon James for his novel A Brief History of Seven Killings. Published in 2014, the book is a sprawling, multi-voiced epic that explores the attempted assassination of Bob Marley in 1976 and the subsequent rise of the drug trade in Jamaica and New York City. Marlon James became the first Jamaican author to win this prestigious literary award since its inception. The novel was praised by the judging panel for its ambition, technical mastery, and its ability to weave together disparate narratives involving gang violence, CIA involvement, and political instability into a cohesive and visceral literary work.

58Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a source of political legitimacy?
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Answer: (C) Political will of the ruler

Explanation

Political legitimacy refers to the widespread belief that a government or regime has the right to rule and that its authority is justified. In political theory, legitimacy transforms raw power into rightful authority. The political will of the ruler represents the personal intent, drive, or decision-making power of an individual leader to implement policies or maintain control. While such will is necessary for effective governance, it does not constitute a source of legitimacy. Legitimacy is derived from external norms, collective agreement, or legal frameworks rather than the internal desires or arbitrary dictates of the person in power. If a ruler's authority rested solely on their own will without reference to consent, law, or reason, it would be characterized as coercive or dictatorial rather than legitimate. Therefore, the subjective will of a ruler is an exercise of power, not a basis for the moral or legal right to exercise that power.

59Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is a characteristic of Presidential form of Government?
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Answer: (A) President is not a part of legislative body

Explanation

In a Presidential form of government, the principle of separation of powers is strictly followed, ensuring that the executive, legislative, and judicial branches remain independent of one another. The President is elected independently of the legislature and does not hold membership in the legislative body. This is a fundamental departure from the Parliamentary system, where the executive is drawn from and remains part of the legislature. Because the President is not a member of the legislative assembly, they do not participate in its daily proceedings or voting, thereby maintaining the distinct roles of the branch that executes laws and the branch that creates them.

60Polity and Governance
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition and creation of Legislative Councils?
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Answer: (B) Article 169

Explanation

Article 169 of the Constitution of India provides the specific mechanism for the abolition or creation of Legislative Councils in States. Under this provision, the Parliament of India has the authority to abolish an existing Legislative Council or create one in a State that does not have it, provided the Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution to that effect. This resolution must be passed by a special majority, defined as a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting. Following such a resolution, the Parliament may pass an act to give effect to the change. Significantly, such a law passed by Parliament is not treated as an amendment to the Constitution under Article 368 and can be enacted through a simple majority in both Houses of Parliament.

61Polity and Governance
The provision under Article 51A of the Constitution of India relates to the:
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Answer: (D) fundamental duties.

Explanation

Article 51A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976, following the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. This article constitutes Part IV-A of the Constitution and specifies the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens. These duties serve as a reminder to citizens that while they enjoy certain fundamental rights, they also have specific moral and civic obligations toward the country. Originally, the article listed ten duties, such as abiding by the Constitution, protecting the sovereignty and integrity of India, and promoting harmony. An eleventh duty, relating to the provision of education opportunities for children between the ages of six and fourteen, was added by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act in 2002. Fundamental duties are non-justiciable, meaning they are not enforceable by law through the courts, though they are taken into account during the interpretation of various statutes.

62Polity and Governance
Parochial political culture is generally found in:
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Answer: (A) Developing societies.

Explanation

In the framework of political culture developed by Gabriel Almond and Sidney Verba, a parochial political culture is characterized by a lack of specialized political roles and a low level of awareness among citizens regarding the national government. In such societies, individuals do not expect anything from the political system and do not participate in political processes, as their identities and interests are confined to local, tribal, or religious affiliations. This culture is generally found in traditional and developing societies where central political institutions are weakly developed or have not yet integrated the broader population into a national political life. In these settings, the distinction between political, social, and religious spheres remains blurred, leading to minimal interaction between the citizenry and the state.

63Polity and Governance
Who among the following sociologists is the first to propound the concept of civil society?
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Answer: (A) Adam Ferguson

Explanation

Adam Ferguson is credited with the first modern systematic formulation of the concept in his 1767 work, An Essay on the History of Civil Society. Writing during the Scottish Enlightenment, Ferguson utilized the term to describe a specific stage of human social evolution characterized by the rule of law, refined manners, and complex commercial relations. He viewed civil society as a middle ground between the state of nature and the political state, focusing on the social bonds and institutions that emerge as societies transition from a rude or nomadic state to a polished, commercial one. His analysis laid the groundwork for the sociological study of how private interests and public virtues interact within an organized community.

64Polity and Governance
The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir came into force on:
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Answer: (D) 26 January 1957

Explanation

The Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir was adopted by the state's own Constituent Assembly on 17 November 1956. It officially came into force on 26 January 1957, a date chosen to coincide with the anniversary of the commencement of the Constitution of India. This document established the legal and administrative framework for the state and explicitly declared Jammu and Kashmir to be an integral part of the Union of India.

65History
Who among the following British ethnographers launched the Survey of India project in the 1860s?
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Answer: (A) Hunter

Explanation

Sir William Wilson Hunter was a Scottish historian, statistician, and member of the Indian Civil Service who played a pivotal role in the systematic documentation of India. In 1869, he was appointed by the Viceroy Lord Mayo to organize and lead the Statistical Survey of India. This project was launched to provide the colonial administration with a comprehensive, scientific, and standardized account of the people, resources, and geography of various Indian districts. Hunter's extensive work in collecting and classifying data on local customs, demographics, and economic conditions eventually led to the publication of the multi-volume Imperial Gazetteer of India. His earlier ethnographic and historical contributions, such as The Annals of Rural Bengal, further established his reputation as a key figure in the colonial effort to map the social landscape of the subcontinent.

66History
Which of the following statements about 'Ramaparichay', a mid 19th century Bengali text is / are correct? 1. It was written by Raja Rammohan Roy 2. It was the most widely used Bengali primer of the time Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The mid-19th century text renowned as the most widely used Bengali primer is Varnaparichay, which was written by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar and published in 1855. This work provided a standardized method for learning the Bengali script and became the definitive pedagogical tool for generations of learners. Raja Rammohan Roy, who died in 1833, contributed significantly to Bengali prose and published Gaudiya Vyakarana (1833), but this was a book on Bengali grammar rather than a primary primer for children. The text mentioned, Ramaparichay, does not correspond to any major work by Raja Rammohan Roy nor does it hold the status of the most widely used primer of that era.

67History
Which of the following statements about the Champaran Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. The Champaran region had a long tradition of anti-planter discontent and agitation 2. Mahatma Gandhi gave all India publicity to the grievances of Champaran cultivators 3. The cultivators of Champaran had protested against excessive taxation on sugar Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

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The Champaran region had a history of agrarian unrest directed at European indigo planters well before Gandhis arrival. Notable agitations occurred in 1867-68 and 1907-08, particularly in the Bettiah and Sathi areas, where peasants resisted the coercive indigo cultivation system. When Mahatma Gandhi visited Champaran in 1917, his presence and subsequent legal confrontation with the British authorities drew the attention of the entire nation. Through his correspondence with national leaders and the wide coverage of the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry in the Indian press, he successfully turned a local grievance into a matter of all-India concern, making it the first major manifestation of Satyagraha on Indian soil.

68History
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the debate between "Anglicists" and "Orientalists" in the 1830s? 1. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money being spent on printing Sanskrit and Arabic texts 2. The Anglicists wanted to cut the money spent on printing Sanskrit texts, but wished to continue to print in Persian 3. The Orientalists wanted stipend for the students of Arabic and Sanskrit 4. The Orientalists started a new Sanskrit College in Delhi Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

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The debate between the Anglicists and the Orientalists in the 1830s centered on the direction of educational policy in British India. The Anglicists, represented by figures like T.B. Macaulay, argued that government funds should be used exclusively for the promotion of Western education through the medium of English. They specifically advocated for the cessation of subsidies for printing Sanskrit and Arabic texts, viewing them as outdated and having little practical value for modern governance. On the other hand, the Orientalists, led by H.T. Prinsep, believed in the preservation of indigenous learning. They maintained that the government should continue to support traditional institutions, including providing stipends to students of Arabic and Sanskrit to ensure the survival of classical scholarship and traditional law. This conflict was largely settled by Macaulay’s Minute of 1835 and the subsequent resolution by Lord William Bentinck, which shifted the state's financial priority toward English-medium instruction and Western curricula.

69History
Which of the following statements about Exercise IBSAMAR is/are correct? 1. It is a joint exercise of Navy of India, Brazil and Sri Lanka 2. The fifth edition of IBSAMAR was held in Goa 3. All previous editions of IBSAMAR were held outside India Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

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Exercise IBSAMAR is a trilateral maritime exercise involving the navies of India, Brazil, and South Africa. The name is an acronym for the India-Brazil-South Africa (IBSA) Dialogue Forum. Consequently, statement 1 is incorrect as it includes Sri Lanka instead of South Africa.

The fifth edition of the exercise, known as IBSAMAR V, was held off the coast of Goa in February 2016. This marked the first time that the exercise was hosted by India, making statement 2 correct.

Since the 2016 edition in Goa was the first to be held in India, all previous editions of the exercise were held outside of the country. Specifically, the first four editions—conducted in 2008, 2010, 2012, and 2014—were all held off the coast of South Africa. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.

70Economy
Which of the following statements about 'Nairobi Package' adopted in the Tenth Ministerial Conference of WTO is / are correct? 1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members 2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries 3. Public stockholding for food security purposes Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

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The Nairobi Package, adopted at the WTO Tenth Ministerial Conference in 2015, included a suite of six ministerial decisions on agriculture, cotton, and issues related to Least Developed Countries (LDCs). One significant outcome was the decision on preferential rules of origin for LDCs, which aimed to facilitate their integration into global trade by making it easier for their products to qualify for preferential market access. The conference also adopted a ministerial decision on Public Stockholding (PSH) for food security purposes. This decision reaffirmed the commitment to find a permanent solution to the issue of developing countries holding food stocks for food security, ensuring that they would not be challenged under WTO subsidy rules until a permanent solution is reached.

Furthermore, the Nairobi Package included a decision on the Special Safeguard Mechanism (SSM) for Developing Country Members. This decision explicitly recognized that developing countries have the right to have recourse to an SSM, which allows them to temporarily increase tariffs in the face of import surges or price falls to protect their domestic farmers. Therefore, the framework did provide for a safeguard mechanism rather than excluding it.

71Polity and Governance
The 'Paris Agreement' adopted in Conference of the Parties (COP 21) in December 2015 will be effective provided the document is signed by:
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Answer: (C) 55 UNFCCC parties accounting for at least 55% of global greenhouse gas emission

Explanation

According to Article 21 of the Paris Agreement, the treaty would enter into force thirty days after at least 55 Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) had deposited their instruments of ratification, acceptance, approval, or accession. Additionally, these 55 or more Parties were required to represent at least 55 percent of the total global greenhouse gas emissions. This double trigger mechanism ensured that the agreement only became effective once a sufficient number of countries and a significant portion of global emitters were legally committed to its goals. The conditions were officially met in October 2016, leading to the agreement's entry into force on November 4, 2016.

72History
Which one of the following cities hosted the Twelfth South Asian Games, 2016?
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Answer: (C) Guwahati

Explanation

The 12th South Asian Games were held from February 5 to February 16, 2016, and were co-hosted by the Indian cities of Guwahati and Shillong. Guwahati served as the primary venue, hosting the majority of the sporting events and the opening ceremony at the Indira Gandhi Athletic Stadium. This multi-sport event saw the participation of athletes from eight South Asian nations competing across 23 different sports. India finished at the top of the medal table, followed by Sri Lanka and Pakistan.

73History
The latest trophy introduced in Indian domestic cricket competition is:
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Answer: (C) Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy

Explanation

The Syed Mushtaq Ali Trophy was introduced by the Board of Control for Cricket in India (BCCI) in the 2006–07 season. It is a domestic Twenty20 cricket championship played among the teams that participate in the Ranji Trophy. The tournament was established to promote the T20 format in India and is named after the legendary cricketer Syed Mushtaq Ali, who was the first Indian player to score a Test century on foreign soil. As of 2016, this trophy represents the most recent addition to the major domestic competitions in India compared to the other long-standing tournaments in the list.

74Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the Constituent Assembly are correct? 1. It was not based on adult franchise 2. It resulted from direct election 3. It was a multi-party body 4. It worked through several committees Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

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The Constituent Assembly of India was formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. Its members were not elected through universal adult franchise; instead, they were elected indirectly by the members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies. These provincial assemblies had themselves been elected under the Government of India Act of 1935, which granted voting rights to only about 10 percent of the population based on criteria like tax, property, and education.

The Assembly was a multi-party body that represented a wide spectrum of Indian society and political thought. Although the Indian National Congress held a significant majority, the body also included representatives from the Muslim League (until the partition), the Scheduled Castes Federation, the Communist Party, and several independent members. To manage the complex task of drafting the Constitution, the Assembly operated through various specialized committees. These included the Drafting Committee headed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities.

75Polity and Governance
Who among the following may be the Chairman of the Zila Parishad?
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Answer: (D) Elected from its own members

Explanation

According to Article 243-C of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, the Chairperson of a Panchayat at the intermediate level and at the district level (Zila Parishad) shall be elected by, and from among, the elected members thereof. This provision ensures that the Zila Parishad, as the highest tier of the Panchayati Raj system, is led by a representative who enjoys the confidence of the elected members of the council. While the state legislature has the power to determine the specific mode of election and matters related to the reservation of the post, the fundamental constitutional requirement remains that the Chairman must be a member of the Zila Parishad itself.

76Polity and Governance
What is meant by Social Equality?
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Answer: (C) No person should be made to suffer a position of relative inferiority in relation to other men due to caste, race or religion

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Social equality is a fundamental state of affairs in which all individuals within a specific society have equal rights, liberties, and status. It necessitates the absence of any legally or socially sanctioned discrimination based on arbitrary factors such as caste, race, religion, gender, or place of birth. The core principle of social equality is that no citizen should be subjected to a position of relative inferiority or social disability. In the context of democratic governance and the Indian Constitution, this is reflected in provisions that mandate equal treatment before the law and prohibit social hierarchies, ensuring that every individual can live with dignity and enjoy equal access to public facilities and opportunities without being marginalized due to their identity.

77Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
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Answer: (C) States are subordinate to the Central Government

Explanation

Indian federalism is based on a dual polity system where both the Union and the State governments derive their authority directly from the Constitution. According to the Seventh Schedule, the Constitution demarcates specific legislative and executive jurisdictions through the Union, State, and Concurrent lists. In the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994) case, the Supreme Court affirmed that federalism is a part of the basic structure of the Constitution and that States have an independent constitutional existence. They are not mere appendages or administrative agents of the Union. While the Indian Constitution contains certain unitary features that provide the Center with overriding powers in specific circumstances, such as during emergencies, the States are coordinate and not subordinate to the Central Government within their own assigned spheres of operation.

78Science and Technology
The Joint Training Exercise, Garuda Shakti, is conducted as part of military diplomacy between Indian Army and:
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Answer: (D) Indonesian Army.

Explanation

Garuda Shakti is a bilateral joint military exercise conducted between the special forces of the Indian Army and the Indonesian Army. Initiated in 2012, this exercise is designed to enhance defense cooperation and interoperability between the two nations. The training focuses on special operations, counter-insurgency, and counter-terrorism tactics in diverse environments, including jungle and urban settings. Through this exercise, both armies share best practices, improve tactical skills, and strengthen the strategic partnership and military diplomacy between India and Indonesia.

79Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding Human Rights is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights was adopted by the United Nations in the year 1948

Explanation

The International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly on 16 December 1966, not in 1948. While the year 1948 is landmark for the adoption of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR), the ICCPR is a separate, legally binding treaty that required a lengthy drafting process following the UDHR. The ICCPR, along with the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR), was opened for signature in 1966 and eventually entered into force in 1976 after receiving the necessary number of ratifications. Together, the UDHR and these two Covenants constitute the International Bill of Human Rights.

80History
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of the Permanent Settlement?
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Answer: (B) The Permanent Settlement continued to pay attention to the customary occupancy rights of peasants

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement of 1793, introduced by Lord Cornwallis in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, fundamentally altered the agrarian structure by recognizing Zamindars as the absolute proprietors of the land. While the regulation nominally suggested that Zamindars should issue pottahs or written agreements to the ryots to specify the rent to be paid, it failed to provide any effective mechanism to enforce these occupancy rights or protect the peasants from exploitation. In practice, the customary rights that the cultivators had enjoyed for centuries were sacrificed to ensure a fixed and stable revenue for the British Treasury. The peasants were stripped of their traditional hereditary claims to the land and were reduced to the status of mere tenants-at-will, leaving them entirely at the mercy of the Zamindars who could evict them or increase rents without legal recourse.

81History
Which of the following is/are characteristic(s) of the Ryotwari system? 1. It was the brainchild of Thomas Munro 2. It was meant to reduce intermediaries 3. Cultivating peasants were gradually impoverished by the system 4. It was introduced in parts of Madras and Bengal Presidency Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Ryotwari system was developed by Thomas Munro and Captain Alexander Reed, starting in the Baramahal region and later extending to the Madras and Bombay Presidencies. Its primary objective was to eliminate intermediaries like Zamindars by establishing a direct settlement between the British government and the individual cultivators or ryots. Under this system, the ryot was recognized as the owner of the land as long as they paid the land revenue. However, the system ultimately led to the impoverishment of the peasantry because the revenue rates were fixed at excessively high levels, often exceeding fifty percent of the produce. The lack of flexibility in revenue collection, especially during times of crop failure, forced many peasants to borrow from moneylenders, leading to deep indebtedness and loss of land. The system was specifically utilized in southern and western India, distinguishing it from the Permanent Settlement used in the Bengal Presidency.

82History
Who among the following founded the Atmiya Sabha in 1815?
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Answer: (C) Ram Mohan Roy

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Atmiya Sabha, or the Society of Friends, in Calcutta in 1815. This organization was one of the earliest platforms for socio-religious reform in India and served as a precursor to the Brahmo Samaj. Roy established the Sabha to promote monotheistic ideals and to hold philosophical discussions centered on the teachings of the Vedas and Upanishads. The group focused on criticizing orthodox practices such as idol worship, caste rigidities, and superstitious rituals, advocating instead for a rational and ethical approach to religion based on the concept of one universal God. Through the Atmiya Sabha, Roy successfully gathered a circle of like-minded individuals to debate and propagate modern, liberal ideas that initiated the Indian Renaissance.

83History
Consider the following statements about the Santhal Hool of 1855-56: 1. The Santhals were in a desperate situation as tribal lands were leased out 2. The Santhal rebels were treated very leniently by British officials 3. Santhal inhabited areas were eventually constituted into separate administrative units called Santhal parganas 4. The Santhal rebellion was the only major rebellion in mid 19th century India Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Santhal Hool of 1855-56 was primarily caused by the systematic alienation of tribal lands in the Damin-i-Koh region. Following the introduction of the Permanent Settlement, the Santhals found themselves in a desperate situation as their ancestral lands were increasingly leased out to zamindars, moneylenders, and merchants who exploited them through exorbitant interest rates and land grabbing.

To pacify the region after the rebellion was suppressed, the British administration underwent significant restructuring. The government passed the Santhal Parganas Tenancy Act and constituted the Santhal-inhabited areas into a distinct administrative unit called the Santhal Parganas. This was designed to protect the tribal social structure and restrict the transfer of tribal land to outsiders, ensuring that the region was governed by special regulations rather than the general laws applicable in other parts of the presidency.

84History
Which of the following statements about Subedar Major Fateh Singh is/are correct? 1. He was a big bore rifle shooter who won two gold medals during first Commonwealth championship 2. He retired from Bihar regiment before joining Defence Service Corps 3. He was killed during the terror attack at Pathankot Air Force Base Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Subedar Major Fateh Singh was a renowned marksman who brought international laurels to India in shooting. He secured a gold medal in the big bore rifle event during the first Commonwealth Shooting Championship held in New Delhi in 1995. His proficiency as a shooter was a hallmark of his distinguished career in the Indian Army, where he served with the Dogra Regiment before joining the Defence Service Corps. In January 2016, while serving at the Pathankot Air Force Base, he was martyred during a terrorist attack. He was among the security personnel who laid down their lives while successfully preventing the attackers from reaching high-value assets at the airbase, displaying exemplary courage and devotion to duty.

85History
Which one among the following is the oldest Regiment of Indian Army?
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Answer: (D) Madras Regiment

Explanation

The Madras Regiment is the oldest infantry regiment of the Indian Army, tracing its origins back to 1758. It was raised by the British East India Company under the supervision of Major Stringer Lawrence, who is often referred to as the Father of the Indian Army. The regiment was formed by organizing several independent companies of local levies into formal battalions at Fort St. George in Madras. These units were created to protect the company's commercial interests and territories during the mid-18th century, particularly during the Carnatic Wars. Because of this early establishment and its continuous history of service since that period, the Madras Regiment holds the distinction of being the senior-most infantry regiment in the Indian Army.

86Geography
Which one of the following cities has been identified as the best habitable city in the 18th Mercer Quality of Life Study, 2016?
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Answer: (B) Vienna

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Vienna secured the top position in the 18th annual Mercer Quality of Living Survey released in 2016, marking the seventh consecutive year the Austrian capital was ranked as the world's most liveable city. The study assessed over 440 cities globally based on 39 criteria across 10 categories, including political stability, healthcare, education, crime rates, recreation, and transport. Vienna's consistent ranking was attributed to its robust infrastructure, safe environment, high-quality public services, and rich cultural offerings, which collectively provided the highest standard of living for expatriates and residents alike during that period.

87Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States won the 61st National School Athletics Championship in the year 2016?
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Answer: (B) Kerala

Explanation

Kerala secured the overall championship title at the 61st National School Athletics Championship held in early 2016 at the Olympian Rahman Stadium in Kozhikode. By winning this edition, Kerala maintained its long-standing dominance in Indian school sports by clinching the title for the 19th consecutive year. The host state finished at the top of the points table with a total of 306 points, which included 39 gold, 29 silver, and 17 bronze medals. Their superior performance across various track and field disciplines, especially in the junior and senior categories, allowed them to maintain a significant lead throughout the meet.

88Polity and Governance
In February 2016, which one of the following countries has rejected the plea of the incumbent President through a referendum to contest the Presidential election for the third term?
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Answer: (C) Bolivia

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Bolivia held a nationwide constitutional referendum on February 21, 2016, to determine whether President Evo Morales should be allowed to run for a third consecutive term. The proposed amendment sought to modify Article 168 of the 2009 Constitution, which restricted the President and Vice President to two five-year terms. Despite the incumbent government's efforts, the Bolivian electorate narrowly rejected the proposal, with approximately 51.3% of voters casting a No vote. This outcome was a significant political event in the region as it marked the first major electoral defeat for Morales during his decade-long presidency and signaled a public preference for maintaining constitutional term limits to ensure democratic rotation of power.

89Polity and Governance
The theory of Separation of Powers is a division of powers between:
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Answer: (B) different branches of Government.

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The theory of Separation of Powers, most famously articulated by the French philosopher Montesquieu, advocates for the horizontal division of governmental authority into three distinct branches: the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. The primary objective of this doctrine is to prevent the concentration of absolute power in the hands of a single individual or institution, which is a prerequisite for protecting individual liberty and preventing tyranny. Under this system, each branch is assigned specific functions—making laws, enforcing laws, and interpreting laws—and is equipped with constitutional means to check and balance the actions of the other branches. This structural arrangement ensures that the government remains accountable and operates within the bounds of the law.

90Polity and Governance
The Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India relates to:
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Answer: (D) the anti-defection law.

Explanation

The Tenth Schedule was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. It provides for the disqualification of members of either House of Parliament or a State Legislature on the grounds of defection from one political party to another. This legal framework was established to bring greater stability to the Indian parliamentary system by deterring elected representatives from changing their party affiliation for personal gain or political convenience, a practice often referred to as floor-crossing. Under this schedule, the power to decide on questions of disqualification is vested in the Chairman or the Speaker of the respective House. The provisions were further strengthened by the 91st Amendment Act, 2003, which omitted the provision that previously protected a split in a party if one-third of its members defected.

91Polity and Governance
The amending power of the Parliament is set forth in which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (A) Article 368

Explanation

Article 368, situated in Part XX of the Constitution of India, specifically grants the Parliament the constituent power to amend the Constitution. It outlines the formal procedure for making such changes, stating that the Parliament may, in exercise of its power, amend by way of addition, variation, or repeal any provision of the Constitution. The article specifies the requirements for various types of amendments, such as a special majority in both Houses of Parliament and, in certain cases involving the federal structure, ratification by at least half of the state legislatures.

92Polity and Governance
With regard to a Constitution Amendment Bill, which one of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (A) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can call a joint sitting of both the Houses to pass the Bill

Explanation

The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution is laid down in Article 368. It stipulates that a Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed in each House of Parliament by a special majority, which consists of a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for summoning a joint sitting of both Houses for the purpose of deliberation and voting on the Bill. While Article 108 provides for a joint sitting to resolve deadlocks on ordinary bills, this mechanism is specifically excluded for Constitution Amendment Bills, meaning each House must pass the Bill independently in the same form.

93Polity and Governance
'Cut Motion' can be introduced after the presentation of:
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Answer: (B) the Railway and General Budgets.

Explanation

Cut motions are specific parliamentary instruments used by members of the Lok Sabha to oppose or suggest reductions in the demands for grants presented by the government. These motions are introduced after the presentation of the Budget and during the subsequent stage of discussion and voting on Demands for Grants. In the Indian parliamentary system as it existed in 2016, this process applied to both the Railway Budget and the General Budget, which were presented separately. Members utilize three types of cut motions—Policy Cut, Economy Cut, and Token Cut—to scrutinize government expenditure and express disapproval of specific policies or perceived financial inefficiencies. Because the demands for grants are the specific financial requests within the budget, the introduction of cut motions is inherently tied to the budgetary process, allowing the legislature to exercise its power of the purse and ensure executive accountability in financial matters.

94Polity and Governance
Who among the following divided governments into 'Republican', 'Monarchical' and 'Despotic'?
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Answer: (C) Montesquieu

Explanation

Montesquieu, in his influential political treatise The Spirit of the Laws (1748), established a tripartite classification of political systems based on their nature and their motivating principles. He categorized governments into three distinct types: Republican, which includes both democratic and aristocratic forms where the body or a part of the people holds sovereign power; Monarchical, where a single person rules according to fixed and established laws; and Despotic, where a single individual governs according to his own will and caprice without the restraint of law. Montesquieu argued that each form is sustained by a specific psychological principle: virtue in a republic, honor in a monarchy, and fear in a despotism. This classification shifted political thought away from classical Aristotelian models toward a sociological analysis of how legal structures and social values interact.

95Polity and Governance
Who among the following coined the terms 'Demand Polity' and 'Command Polity'?
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Answer: (A) Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph

Explanation

Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne Hoeber Rudolph introduced the conceptual framework of Demand Polity and Command Polity in their influential 1987 work, In Pursuit of Lakshmi: The Political Economy of the Indian State. These terms analyze the shifting relationship between the state and society in India. A Demand Polity refers to a state-society relationship where competitive democratic pressures and electoral mobilization force the state to respond to the immediate, distributive demands of organized social groups. In contrast, a Command Polity describes a state that asserts autonomy from societal pressures to pursue long-term developmental objectives, centralized planning, and strategic resource allocation. The Rudolphs argued that Indian politics oscillates between these two poles, representing the tension between the logic of democratic mobilization and the logic of state-led developmentalism.

96Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about the Bengali literary epic, Meghnad Badh Kabya (1861), is/are correct? 1. It was written by Michael Madhusudan Dutta 2. It draws upon existing Hindu and Jain traditions of Ramayana 3. It was translated into Assamese and Hindi Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3

Explanation

Meghnad Badh Kabya, published in 1861, is the magnum opus of the Bengali poet Michael Madhusudan Dutta. This epic poem, divided into nine cantos, revolutionized Bengali literature by introducing blank verse, known as Amitrakshar Chhanda. It reinterprets the Ramayana by portraying Meghnad, the son of Ravana, as a tragic and patriotic hero, drawing stylistic inspiration from Western epics such as Miltons Paradise Lost and Homers Iliad. Due to its literary excellence and cultural impact, the work was translated into several major Indian languages. It was translated into Hindi by the celebrated poet Maithili Sharan Gupt and into Assamese, among other languages, which helped disseminate Duttas innovative poetic style and narrative perspective throughout the Indian literary landscape.

97History
Which one of the following is the famous novel written in 1869 by Nazir Ahmad?
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Answer: (B) Mirat-ul-urus

Explanation

Mirat-ul-urus, which translates to The Bride's Mirror, was written by Maulvi Nazir Ahmad Dehlvi and published in 1869. It is widely recognized by literary historians as the first novel in the Urdu language. Nazir Ahmad originally wrote the story for the education and moral guidance of his own daughters, focusing on the themes of female literacy, domestic management, and character building. The narrative centers on the contrasting lives of two sisters, Akbari and Asghari, to demonstrate how education and wisdom lead to a successful and harmonious household. The work was so influential that it marked the beginning of a new era in Urdu prose and led to several sequels and similar didactic works by the author.

98History
Which of the following statements about the founding of the Indian National Congress (INC) is/are correct? 1. The INC was formed in Bombay in 1885 2. The first president of the INC was W.C. Bonnerjee Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Indian National Congress was established in December 1885, with its first session held at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay. Although the meeting was originally scheduled to take place in Poona, a cholera outbreak in that city necessitated a change in venue to Bombay. The session was attended by 72 delegates representing different regions of India. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, a prominent barrister from Calcutta, presided over this inaugural session, making him the first president of the organization. The formation was facilitated by Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant, who served as the first General Secretary.

99History
The earliest literary references to iron in the Indian Sub-Continent are found in the:
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Answer: (C) Yajurveda

Explanation

The Yajurveda, composed during the Later Vedic Period (c. 1000–600 BCE), contains the earliest definitive literary references to iron in the Indian Sub-continent. It specifically uses the term shyama ayas (literally black metal) or krishna ayas to distinguish iron from lohita ayas or loha ayas (red metal), which referred to copper. These descriptions indicate a clear technological advancement and the widespread use of iron for agricultural tools and weaponry during this era, marking the transition of the Vedic society into the Iron Age. In contrast to the generic term ayas used in earlier texts for bronze or copper, the specific nomenclature in the Yajurveda provides the first concrete evidence of iron metallurgy in ancient Indian literature.

100History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Author) - List II (Book) A. Dadabhai Naoroji - 1. Essays on Indian Economics B. Prafulla Chandra Ray - 2. Poverty and Un-British Rule in India C. Mahadev Govind Ranade - 3. Economic History of India D. R.C. Dutt - 4. The Poverty Problem in India Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3

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Dadabhai Naoroji is the author of Poverty and Un-British Rule in India, which detailed the drain of wealth theory and its role in impoverishing India. Prafulla Chandra Ray wrote The Poverty Problem in India, contributing to the late nineteenth-century nationalist discourse on the causes of Indian economic distress. Mahadev Govind Ranade published Essays on Indian Economics, a collection of works advocating for industrialization and challenging classical British economic theories. R.C. Dutt authored the Economic History of India, a foundational text that provided a systematic historical analysis of the economic decay under British rule.

101History
Consider the following statements about the Morley-Minto reforms of 1909: 1. They were named after the British Parliamentarians, Minto and Morley 2. They provided for limited self-government by increasing the number of elected Indians in the Legislative Councils 3. They contained provisions that ensured that British officials retained their majority in the Imperial Legislative Council Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

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The Indian Councils Act 1909 is widely known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, named after Lord Morley, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, the Viceroy of India. Both were prominent figures in the British parliamentary and executive system who sought to address the increasing political unrest in India through administrative adjustments.

One of the primary features of these reforms was the expansion of the Legislative Councils at both the central and provincial levels. In the Imperial Legislative Council, the number of members was increased from 16 to 60. However, the British government specifically designed the structure to ensure that an official majority, consisting of British officials, was maintained in the Imperial Legislative Council to keep the supreme power of legislation in British hands. While the reforms allowed for non-official majorities in the provincial councils, they did not aim to provide self-government. Lord Morley explicitly stated in the British Parliament that he did not intend for these reforms to lead to the establishment of a parliamentary system or self-rule in India, as the primary objective was to associate a limited number of Indians with the administration rather than to devolve power.

102Reading Comprehension
Identify from the following the novel written by Charles Dickens that critiqued the adverse impact of industrialization on the poor.
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Answer: (B) Hard Times

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Hard Times, published in 1854, is Charles Dickens's primary literary critique of the social and economic consequences of the Industrial Revolution in Victorian England. The novel is set in the fictional Coketown, a grime-covered industrial center modeled after Northern English mill towns like Preston. Dickens uses the narrative to attack the prevailing philosophy of Utilitarianism, which emphasized cold logic and statistical facts at the expense of human imagination and compassion. By depicting the struggles of the "Hands"—the industrial workers—the story highlights the dehumanizing effects of factory labor and the stark inequality between the wealthy mill owners and the impoverished working class who were subjected to mechanical, monotonous existences.

103History
What is the meaning of the term 'Humanist' used during the Renaissance in 15th century Europe? 1. It refers to the masters who taught grammar and rhetoric 2. It refers to the masters who taught poetry, history and moral philosophy 3. It refers to the masters who taught subjects that were connected with religion 4. It refers to masters who emphasized skills that were developed through discussion and debate Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4

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During the 15th-century Renaissance, the term Humanist was used to describe teachers and scholars of the liberal arts, specifically those teaching the studia humanitatis. This curriculum focused on grammar, rhetoric, poetry, history, and moral philosophy, which were based on the study of classical Greek and Latin texts. These subjects were intended to cultivate a well-rounded individual capable of participating effectively in civic life. Unlike the medieval scholastic tradition that prioritized logic and professional theology, Humanism emphasized human culture and secular values. The pedagogical approach of these masters focused on developing practical skills in communication and critical reasoning, which were primarily refined through active discussion, debate, and the study of classical oratory.

104History
Which of the following was/were the features of the Quit India Movement? 1. From the very beginning, it was a rural revolt 2. It was essentially a moderate movement 3. It was marked by the unprecedented use of violence 4. It was marked by acute state repression Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only

Explanation

The Quit India Movement of 1942 was distinguished from earlier Gandhian movements by its shift toward more radical methods. Due to the preemptive arrest of the top Congress leadership, the movement became a leaderless, spontaneous uprising. This lack of centralized control led to the unprecedented use of violence by the masses, who targeted the symbols of British authority. Public anger was directed at railway stations, post offices, and telegraph lines to disrupt colonial administration and communications.

In response, the British government employed acute state repression to regain control. The authorities utilized the full force of the police and the military, resulting in mass arrests, public floggings, and large-scale firing on protesters. In some regions, such as Bihar and parts of the United Provinces, the repression was so severe that the government resorted to using aircraft to machine-gun crowds from the air. While the movement eventually spread to the countryside and involved the peasantry, it began in urban centers with strikes and clashes, and its intense, militant nature stood in direct contrast to the moderate or constitutional methods of earlier periods.

105Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about the new style of architecture of Rome in the 15th century is/are correct? 1. It was marked by a complete break from the past 2. It was actually a revival of the imperial Roman style 3. The Architects familiar with classical style were employed by wealthy merchants and aristocrats Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation

The architectural transformation in Rome during the 15th century was defined by a conscious revival of the imperial Roman style. This period, known as the Renaissance, saw architects move away from the complex decorative traditions of the Gothic era to rediscover and apply the mathematical proportions and structural forms of classical antiquity. Designs emphasized symmetry and utilized specific elements of ancient Roman engineering, such as the semi-circular arch, the hemispherical dome, and the classical orders of columns. This movement was made possible by the rise of a powerful class of patrons. Wealthy merchants and aristocrats, who had accumulated significant capital through trade and banking, sought to legitimize their social standing and express humanist values. They employed architects who were scholars of the classical style to design prestigious palazzos and public buildings, ensuring that the architectural language of ancient Rome was restored to the city’s landscape.

106History
Which of the following statements about the ideology of Utilitarianism in the context of British India is/are correct? 1. Utilitarianism believed that the rule of law was necessary for societal betterment 2. James Mill expounded the principles of Utilitarianism in his famous book, 'Utilitarians and the Raj' 3. Utilitarianism differed from the liberals in significant ways 4. Utilitarianism had distinct authoritarian tendencies Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Utilitarians, led by thinkers like Jeremy Bentham and James Mill, believed that societal betterment could be achieved through the scientific application of law and administrative efficiency. They emphasized the rule of law and the codification of Indian statutes to replace what they perceived as the arbitrary nature of traditional Indian governance and the chaotic state of early Company rule.

Utilitarianism diverged from classical liberalism in the colonial context because it prioritized the utility of governance over the principles of individual liberty and political representation. While liberals often looked toward the eventual moral and political elevation of Indians through education and freedom, Utilitarians focused on the tangible outcomes of legislation and taxation, specifically aiming for the greatest happiness of the greatest number through state-driven reform.

This focus on efficiency led to distinct authoritarian tendencies within the ideology. James Mill argued that India was not prepared for self-government or liberty due to its level of civilization. Consequently, Utilitarians advocated for an enlightened and paternalistic despotism where a strong, centralized administration would impose rational laws and fiscal systems upon the population to ensure progress, regardless of popular consent.

107History
Which of the following statements about the Swadeshi movement in Bengal in 1905 are correct? 1. It was marked by the mass mobilization through the organization of 'Samitis' 2. It was marked by the mass mobilization through labour strikes 3. It advocated a constructive programme of self help or 'atmashakti' 4. In the sphere of education, national schools were established Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Swadeshi movement of 1905 was characterized by the proliferation of Samitis, such as the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti founded by Ashwini Kumar Dutt, which were instrumental in mass mobilization, social service, and arbitration of local disputes. Labor strikes became a prominent tool for political expression, with significant industrial actions occurring in the printing presses, jute mills, and the East Indian Railway under the leadership of figures like Prabhat Kumar Roychowdhury and Premtosh Bose. The movement emphasized the ideology of Atmashakti, or self-reliance, which advocated for the promotion of indigenous industries and the development of rural welfare programs to break the cycle of colonial dependence. In the field of education, the rejection of government-controlled institutions led to the establishment of the National Council of Education in 1906 and the founding of the Bengal National College, providing a curriculum rooted in national values and traditional learning.

108Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the winner of the 8th Human Rights Award by Amnesty International, Germany?
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Answer: (D) Henri Tiphagne

Explanation

Henri Tiphagne, an Indian human rights activist and lawyer, was honored with the 8th Human Rights Award by Amnesty International Germany in 2016. As the founder of the organization People’s Watch, Tiphagne has spent decades fighting against human rights abuses in India, focusing on police brutality, custodial torture, and the rights of marginalized communities, particularly Dalits. The biennial award recognized his persistent efforts to uphold justice and provide legal support to victims of state violations. Tiphagne’s work includes establishing monitoring networks and human rights education programs across various Indian states, making him a prominent voice for civil liberties and social justice. He was the first Indian to receive this prestigious recognition.

109Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of Scheme and Target Group, as initiated in the Railway Budget 2016, is/are correctly matched? Scheme - Target Group 1. Antyodaya Express - For the Reserved Passengers 2. Deen Dayalu Coaches - For the Unreserved Passengers 3. Humsafar - For the Reserved Passengers 4. Tejas - For the Unreserved Passengers Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Deen Dayalu Coaches were introduced in the 2016 Railway Budget as unreserved coaches to provide enhanced comfort for the general public, featuring amenities like potable water, bio-toilets, and mobile charging points. Humsafar Express was launched as a fully air-conditioned 3-tier AC train service specifically for reserved passengers, incorporating modern safety features and GPS-based information systems. Antyodaya Express was designed as a long-distance, fully unreserved train service for common people on busy routes, and Tejas was established as a high-speed, premium service for reserved travel with advanced onboard facilities.

110Polity and Governance
Who among the following is the first person outside Indian Navy to become the Director General of Indian Coast Guard?
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Answer: (B) Rajendra Singh

Explanation

Rajendra Singh became the first officer from the Indian Coast Guard (ICG) cadre to be appointed as the Director General of the organization in February 2016. Since the establishment of the ICG in 1978, the post of Director General had traditionally been held by three-star officers (Vice Admirals) on deputation from the Indian Navy. Singh joined the service in 1980 and his elevation to the top post ended the decades-long practice of naval leadership, representing the maturing of the Coast Guard as an independent cadre-based force. He had previously served as the Additional Director General and was a recipient of the Tatrakshak Medal and the President Tatrakshak Medal for his distinguished service.

111Art and Culture
Who among the following is the winner of the Jnanpith Award for the year 2015?
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Answer: (B) Raghuveer Chaudhary

Explanation

Raghuveer Chaudhary, a distinguished Gujarati novelist, poet, and critic, was conferred the 51st Jnanpith Award for the year 2015. He is renowned for his extensive contribution to Gujarati literature, notably through his monumental trilogy Uparvas, Sahwas, and Antarvas, which earned him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1977. Chaudhary became the fourth Gujarati author to be honored with the Jnanpith Award, following in the footsteps of Umashankar Joshi, Pannalal Patel, and Rajendra Shah. His literary works are celebrated for their exploration of existential themes and the social transformations within rural and urban Indian landscapes. Over his career, he has authored more than 80 books across various genres, including fiction, poetry, and plays, establishing himself as a central figure in modern Indian literature.

112History
Lance Naik Hanumanthappa Koppad, who was buried alive under snow by deadly avalanche at Siachen Glacier, who later died in a hospital after he was miraculously rescued by army, was a soldier of:
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Answer: (B) Madras Regiment

Explanation

Lance Naik Hanumanthappa Koppad served in the 19th Battalion of the Madras Regiment, which is one of the oldest infantry regiments of the Indian Army. In February 2016, he became a symbol of national resilience after surviving for six days while buried under 35 feet of ice following a massive avalanche at the Sonam post on the Siachen Glacier. The incident occurred at an altitude of approximately 19,600 feet where temperatures plummeted to minus 45 degrees Celsius. Although he was miraculously rescued by Indian Army teams using specialized equipment and thermal imaging, he eventually succumbed to multiple organ failure and complications at the Army Research and Referral Hospital in New Delhi.

113Art and Culture
Which one of the following was the Theme State in the 30th Surajkund International Craft Mela?
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Answer: (C) Telangana

Explanation

The 30th Surajkund International Crafts Mela, held in February 2016 in Faridabad, Haryana, designated Telangana as its Theme State. This allowed the newly formed state to showcase its unique cultural identity, traditional arts, and famous crafts such as Pochampally silks, Nirmal paintings, and Bidriware to a global audience. The event is organized annually by the Surajkund Mela Authority and Haryana Tourism in collaboration with the Union Ministries of Tourism, Textiles, Culture, and External Affairs. For this landmark 30th edition, Japan served as the official Partner Country.

114Polity and Governance
Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, Government of India, has recently decided to set up India's first defence industrial park at:
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Answer: (B) Ottappalam

Explanation

The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) approved the establishment of India's first defence industrial park at Ottappalam in the Palakkad district of Kerala. This initiative was undertaken by the Kerala Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (KINFRA) under the Modified Industrial Infrastructure Upgradation Scheme (MIIUS). The park was envisioned as a specialized hub to support the manufacturing of defence-related components, sub-assemblies, and equipment, specifically targeting small and medium enterprises (SMEs) to boost indigenous production under the Make in India program. The central government provided financial assistance for the project, which was strategically located to utilize the existing industrial infrastructure and logistics availability in the region for the benefit of the aerospace and defence sectors.

115Science and Technology
Who among the following scientists of Indian origin is/has been the President of Royal Society?
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Answer: (D) Venkatraman Ramakrishnan

Explanation

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan, a Nobel laureate in Chemistry, was elected as the President of the Royal Society in 2015. He was the first scientist of Indian origin to be appointed to this prestigious post in the history of the Society, which dates back to 1660. His term as the 62nd President began on December 1, 2015. Ramakrishnan is internationally renowned for his research on the atomic structure and function of the ribosome, the cellular machinery that translates genetic information into proteins, a feat for which he was awarded the Nobel Prize in 2009. The Royal Society serves as the national academy of sciences in the United Kingdom and is one of the oldest and most influential scientific institutions in the world.

116Geography
The largest greenhouse gas leakage in the US history took place in February 2016. The gas was:
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Answer: (B) Methane

Explanation

The event referred to is the Aliso Canyon gas leak, which occurred at an underground natural gas storage facility in Los Angeles County, California. The leak was discovered in October 2015 and was officially declared sealed in February 2016. Natural gas consists primarily of methane (CH₄), which is a potent greenhouse gas with a global warming potential significantly higher than that of carbon dioxide. Researchers estimated that approximately 97,100 metric tons of methane were released into the atmosphere during the months-long incident. This was identified as the largest accidental release of methane in United States history, causing a massive environmental impact and the temporary relocation of thousands of nearby residents due to health concerns.

117Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Gravitational Waves were predicted by Albert Einstein in 1916 on the basis of his theory of General Relativity 2. Gravitational waves do also exist in the Newtonian theory of Gravitation 3. Gravitational Waves are to be detected by very sensitive detectors known as Interferometers Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Albert Einstein predicted the existence of gravitational waves in 1916 as a fundamental consequence of his General Theory of Relativity. According to this theory, gravity is the curvature of spacetime, and accelerating massive objects produce ripples in this curvature that travel through the universe at the speed of light.

To detect these minuscule ripples, scientists utilize highly sensitive instruments known as interferometers. The Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) is the primary example of such technology. It works by splitting a laser beam into two paths at right angles; when a gravitational wave passes, it causes a tiny change in the relative length of these paths, which is then measured through the resulting interference pattern of the recombined light.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2C
  3. 3D
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8A
  9. 9D
  10. 10B
  11. 11A
  12. 12A
  13. 13A
  14. 14D
  15. 15D
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18B
  19. 19C
  20. 20B
  21. 21D
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24C
  25. 25D
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29A
  30. 30B
  31. 31B
  32. 32C
  33. 33B
  34. 34D
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37C
  38. 38A
  39. 39B
  40. 40B
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43A
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47C
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51D
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54D
  55. 55C
  56. 56C
  57. 57C
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61D
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65A
  66. 66D
  67. 67B
  68. 68C
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72C
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75D
  76. 76C
  77. 77C
  78. 78D
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89B
  90. 90D
  91. 91A
  92. 92A
  93. 93B
  94. 94C
  95. 95A
  96. 96D
  97. 97B
  98. 98C
  99. 99C
  100. 100A
  101. 101C
  102. 102B
  103. 103C
  104. 104C
  105. 105B
  106. 106D
  107. 107D
  108. 108D
  109. 109B
  110. 110B
  111. 111B
  112. 112B
  113. 113C
  114. 114B
  115. 115D
  116. 116B
  117. 117B

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