Consider the following statements :
1. The Planning Commission of India in its environment performance report, released on 26th July, 2012, ranked Himachal Pradesh as top State in the country on environmental performance index.
2. The World Bank approved an 1100 crore rupees loan for Himachal Pradesh to promote green initiatives and sustainable development in the State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Planning Commission of India released its Environmental Performance Index (EPI) report on July 26, 2012, to evaluate and rank Indian states based on their environmental management and conservation efforts. Himachal Pradesh was ranked as the top-performing state in the country with an index score of 0.7316. The ranking was determined using sixteen indicators grouped into five categories: air pollution, water quality, forest cover, waste management, and climate change. The state achieved this position due to its robust forest conservation measures and effective implementation of environmental policies.
2Economy
India signed an agreement to avoid double taxation and prevent fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income on 27th July, 2012 with
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Answer: (B) Indonesia
Explanation
India and Indonesia signed a comprehensive Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) and a Protocol for the avoidance of double taxation and the prevention of fiscal evasion with respect to taxes on income on July 27, 2012. This agreement was signed in New Delhi to update the previous treaty from 1987, bringing it in line with modern international standards. The treaty aims to provide tax stability to residents of both countries and facilitate the exchange of information between tax authorities to curb tax evasion. It covers various categories of income, including business profits, dividends, interest, royalties, and fees for technical services, while providing mechanisms for the elimination of double taxation through tax credits or exemptions.
3Polity and Governance
India's Kulandei Francis was awarded the year 2012 Ramon Magsaysay Award for his
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Answer: (A) visionary zeal and profound faith in community energies and his sustained programmes in pursuing the holistic economic empowerment of women and their families
Explanation
Kulandei Francis received the 2012 Ramon Magsaysay Award for his transformative work through the Integrated Village Development Project (IVDP) in Krishnagiri, Tamil Nadu. Since starting the organization in 1979, he focused on mobilizing the rural poor into self-help groups (SHGs) to tackle systemic poverty and exploitation by moneylenders. His model emphasizes the holistic economic empowerment of women by placing financial management and decision-making power in their hands. By organizing thousands of women into disciplined savings and credit groups, he enabled families to invest in housing, sanitation, health, and education. The award recognizes his visionary leadership and unwavering faith in the collective energy of rural communities to drive sustainable development and social change.
4Economy
Which among the following statements about the acquisition of wireless division of WPCS International by a Bengaluru-based Indian firm Kavveri Telecom in July 2012 is/are correct?
1. WPCS International has been into the business of wireless communication making solutions used by the police officers, firemen and other emergency services.
2. Kavveri Telecom makes cellphone tower antennas, radio frequency (RF) components, repeaters and other telecom products.
3. WPCS International is a London-based firm.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Kavveri Telecom Products Limited, headquartered in Bengaluru, is a specialized manufacturer of telecommunications hardware, focusing on the production of cellphone tower antennas, radio frequency (RF) components, repeaters, and in-building wireless coverage solutions. In July 2012, its subsidiary acquired the wireless division of WPCS International Inc. to expand its technical portfolio and international market presence. WPCS International is a global provider of wireless technology services, specifically known for designing and integrating mission-critical communication networks. These systems provide essential wireless solutions used by police officers, firemen, and other emergency service providers for public safety and disaster management. While Kavveri Telecom is an Indian firm, WPCS International is a US-based corporation headquartered in Pennsylvania.
5Quantitative Aptitude
Facing the east R walks straight 4km , turns left and walks 3km and again turns left and walks 4km . How far is R now from the starting point?
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Answer: (B) 3 km
Explanation
Let the starting point be at coordinates (0, 0). Walking 4 km East moves R to point (4, 0). Turning left from East means R is now facing North; walking 3 km North moves R to point (4, 3). Turning left from North means R is now facing West; walking 4 km West moves R to point (0, 3). The displacement from the starting point (0, 0) to the final point (0, 3) is calculated using the distance formula: d = √((0 - 0)² + (3 - 0)²) = √(3²) = 3 km. Geometrically, the path forms three sides of a rectangle with dimensions 4 km and 3 km, where the distance between the start and end points corresponds to the side parallel to the 3 km walk.
6Quantitative Aptitude
Which of the following is the odd one?
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Answer: (C) 51
Explanation
The number 51 is the odd one out because it is a composite number. It is divisible by 3 and 17, since 3 × 17 = 51. This distinguishes it from the other numbers in the set, which are all prime numbers and have no divisors other than 1 and themselves.
7Quantitative Aptitude
The missing number in the box
3 7 52
5 11 126
? 9 107
is
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Answer: (C) 26
Explanation
The pattern observed in each row is that the third number is obtained by adding the first number to the square of the second number. Let the columns be C₁, C₂, and C₃. The relationship can be expressed by the formula C₁ + (C₂)² = C₃.
In the first row, 3 + 7² = 3 + 49 = 52.
In the second row, 5 + 11² = 5 + 121 = 126.
In the third row, let the missing number be x. Following the same logic, x + 9² = 107.
Solving the equation x + 81 = 107 gives x = 107 - 81 = 26.
8Quantitative Aptitude
The average of x , y and z is 30, and the average of x and y is 20. What is the value of z ?
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Answer: (D) 50
Explanation
The sum of a set of numbers is given by the formula Sum = Average × Number of values.
For the three variables x, y, and z, the total sum is:
x + y + z = 30 × 3 = 90
For the two variables x and y, the sum is:
x + y = 20 × 2 = 40
By substituting the second equation into the first, the value of z is found:
z = (x + y + z) - (x + y)
z = 90 - 40 = 50
9Quantitative Aptitude
Three dice, whose all six faces are marked '1' to '6', are thrown. The number of ways of getting a sum of 16 is
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Answer: (C) 6
Explanation
To find the number of ways to obtain a sum of 16 from three dice, we identify the sets of three integers {x, y, z} between 1 and 6 such that x + y + z = 16. Given that the maximum value on any single die is 6, the maximum possible sum of three dice is 18 (from 6+6+6) and the next highest sum is 17 (from 6+6+5).
The only sets of three integers that satisfy the sum of 16 within the allowed range are {6, 6, 4} and {6, 5, 5}. For the first set {6, 6, 4}, the number of distinct arrangements (permutations) is calculated as 3!/2! = 3, corresponding to the outcomes (6, 6, 4), (6, 4, 6), and (4, 6, 6). For the second set {6, 5, 5}, the number of distinct arrangements is also 3!/2! = 3, corresponding to the outcomes (6, 5, 5), (5, 6, 5), and (5, 5, 6). No other combination of three integers in the range [1, 6] yields a sum of 16. Adding these permutations together results in 3 + 3 = 6 total ways.
Alternatively, the number of ways to get a sum S from n dice with m faces can be found using the coefficient of x^S in (x + x² + … + xᵐ)^n. For S=16, n=3, m=6, the number of ways is:
C(S-1,n-1) - C(n,1)·C(S-m-1,n-1) + C(n,2)·C(S-2m-1,n-1)
C(15,2) - 3·C(9,2) + 3·C(3,2) = 105 - 108 + 9 = 6
10Polity and Governance
The constitutional principle of the 'Basic Structure' was invented by the
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Answer: (B) Judiciary
Explanation
The doctrine of Basic Structure is a judicial innovation propounded by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala in 1973. This principle established that while the Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, it cannot alter or destroy its essential features or basic structure. The judiciary developed this doctrine to ensure that the core values and the identity of the Constitution, such as secularism, federalism, and the rule of law, remain beyond the reach of legislative majorities. Since this concept is not explicitly mentioned in the text of the Constitution but was created through judicial interpretation, it is considered a product of the judiciary.
11Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Parliamentary Committees:
1. They are a subset of Council of Ministers.
2. The scrutiny of Legislative and Constitutional Amendment Bills gets done in these Committees.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Parliamentary Committees are organized to handle the specialized and voluminous work of the legislature, consisting of members elected or appointed from the Parliament. They are distinct from the Council of Ministers, which represents the executive branch. In fact, many committees specifically bar Ministers from membership to ensure independent oversight of government functioning. These committees play a vital role in the legislative process by conducting detailed scrutiny of Bills. When a Bill, including ordinary Legislative Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills, is introduced, it is often referred to the relevant Departmentally Related Standing Committee or a Select Committee. This allows for in-depth technical examination, clause-by-clause discussion, and the gathering of expert or public testimony, which would be difficult to manage on the floor of the House.
12Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Indian elections :
1. The Constitution provides that elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States are to be held on the basis of universal adult suffrage.
2. The Constitution stipulates that there will be separate electoral rolls for Parliamentary and State Assembly elections.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Article 326 of the Constitution of India prescribes that elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assembly of every State shall be conducted on the basis of adult suffrage. This provision ensures that every citizen who is not less than eighteen years of age (reduced from twenty-one by the 61st Amendment Act, 1988) has the right to vote, provided they are not otherwise disqualified. Regarding electoral rolls, Article 325 mandates that there shall be one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency for election to either House of Parliament or to the House of the State Legislature. This constitutional provision explicitly prohibits the creation of separate electoral rolls based on religion, race, caste, or sex, ensuring a unified voter list is maintained for both levels of elections.
13Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Indian Constitution :
1. In addition to the structure of the Government, it has also concerned itself with some aspects of a desirable civil society and economy.
2. Through amendments in the year 1976, it has also outlined the fundamental duties of citizens along with their rights.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Indian Constitution is more than a legal framework for governance; it is a transformative social document. Statement 1 is correct because the Constitution explicitly outlines a vision for a desirable civil society and economy through the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) and Fundamental Rights (Part III). The Directive Principles mandate the State to promote a social order characterized by justice and minimize inequalities in income and status, while Fundamental Rights ensure civil liberties and social equality. Statement 2 is correct because the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, passed in 1976 during the Emergency, added Part IV-A and Article 51A to the Constitution. This article enumerates the Fundamental Duties of citizens, such as upholding the sovereignty of India and safeguarding public property, thereby balancing the rights of citizens with their responsibilities toward the nation and society.
14Science and Technology
Wi-Fi in a computer implies
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Answer: (B) wireless local area network
Explanation
Wi-Fi is a technology that allows electronic devices to connect to a Local Area Network (LAN) using radio waves instead of physical cables. It is based on the IEEE 802.11 standards and serves as the primary mechanism for establishing a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN) in homes, offices, and public spaces. In a computer, the presence of Wi-Fi indicates the capability to exchange data wirelessly over short distances, enabling internet access and local networking without the need for Ethernet cords.
15Science and Technology
A television remote uses
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Answer: (A) infrared waves
Explanation
Television remote controls utilize infrared (IR) radiation to transmit signals to the television set. An internal light-emitting diode (LED) in the remote control emits pulses of invisible infrared light that represent specific binary codes. These codes correspond to various commands such as power, volume, and channel selection. The television is equipped with a receiver or photodetector that senses these infrared pulses and converts them back into electrical signals to perform the desired function. Infrared is the standard choice for this technology because it is cost-effective, requires low power, and operates on a line-of-sight basis, which prevents the remote from accidentally controlling devices in different rooms.
16Science and Technology
A microwave oven uses wave with a
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Answer: (A) large wavelength in the invisible range
Explanation
Microwaves are electromagnetic waves with wavelengths ranging from approximately 1 millimeter to 1 meter. In the context of the electromagnetic spectrum, this range is significantly larger than the wavelengths of visible light, which span roughly 400 to 700 nanometers (10⁻⁷ meters). As wavelengths increase from gamma rays and X-rays through the visible region toward radio waves, microwaves occupy a position characterized by relatively large wavelengths. Because the human eye is only sensitive to the narrow band of the visible spectrum, microwaves fall within the invisible range of electromagnetic radiation. In a microwave oven, these waves typically operate at a frequency of 2.45 GHz, corresponding to a wavelength of about 12.2 centimeters, which easily penetrates food to cause dielectric heating.
17Science and Technology
A thin pin of iron can be made to float on water (drinking) in a bowl. This phenomenon is due to the
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Answer: (A) surface tension of water
Explanation
Surface tension is a property of the surface of a liquid that allows it to resist an external force due to the cohesive nature of its molecules. At the liquid-air interface, water molecules are pulled inward by neighboring molecules, creating an internal pressure that causes the surface to behave like a stretched elastic membrane. When a thin iron pin is placed gently on the water, its weight is distributed over its length, and the downward force of gravity is counteracted by the upward vertical component of the surface tension. Mathematically, the upward force Fₛ is given by 2 · γ · L · sin(θ), where γ is the surface tension of water, L is the length of the pin, and θ is the angle of contact. As long as this force balances the pin's weight, the pin remains supported on the surface without breaking through the molecular film.
18Science and Technology
To start your loaded trolley bag, you exert more force than when it is moving. This is an example of
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Answer: (D) Newton's first law of motion
Explanation
Newton's first law of motion, also known as the law of inertia, states that an object at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by an external unbalanced force. Inertia is the inherent property of an object to resist any change in its state of motion, and this resistance is directly proportional to the object's mass. A loaded trolley bag has significant mass and therefore possesses a high inertia of rest. To start the trolley from a stationary position, a larger force must be exerted to overcome this initial inertia and change its state of motion. Once the trolley is already moving, it possesses inertia of motion, and the force required to keep it moving is lower as it primarily needs to counteract friction rather than initiate a change from a completely static state.
19Science and Technology
You placed a car in an open parking area in a summer day. After a few hours, you noticed that the heat is trapped inside the car. This phenomenon is known as
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Answer: (B) greenhouse effect
Explanation
The greenhouse effect occurs when short-wave solar radiation passes through a transparent medium, such as the glass windows of a car, and is absorbed by internal surfaces like the seats and dashboard. These surfaces then re-emit the energy as long-wave thermal infrared radiation. Because glass is largely opaque to long-wave infrared radiation, the heat is unable to escape back through the windows. This trapped thermal energy causes the temperature inside the vehicle to rise significantly higher than the outside ambient temperature. This process is physically analogous to the way the Earth's atmosphere traps heat to maintain global temperatures.
20History
Which one among the following Princely States opted for a direct dealing with the Constituent Assembly in the year 1946 instead of through the Chamber of Princes?
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Answer: (A) Baroda
Explanation
Baroda was a progressive princely state that took a proactive stance during the transition to Indian independence. In 1946, while the Chamber of Princes was negotiating collectively with the British and the Indian leadership regarding the representation of princely states in the Constituent Assembly, the Maharaja of Baroda, Pratap Singh Gaekwad, decided to bypass this collective body. Guided by his Dewan, Sir B. L. Mitter, Baroda opted for direct negotiations and participation in the Constituent Assembly. This move was significant as it broke the unity of the princely rulers who were trying to bargain for greater autonomy or a separate status. Baroda's representatives were among the first from the princely states to take their seats in the Assembly in early 1947, setting a precedent for other states to join the democratic process of framing the Indian Constitution.
21History
Sayana, the famous commentator of the Vedas, flourished under the rule of
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Answer: (D) Vijayanagar kings
Explanation
Sayana was a renowned Sanskrit scholar and statesman who lived in the 14th century and served as a minister under the early rulers of the Vijayanagar Empire, specifically Harihara I and Bukka Raya I. He is most famous for his monumental work, the Vedartha Prakasha, which is a comprehensive commentary on all four Vedas. This scholarly endeavor was carried out under the patronage of the Vijayanagar monarchs, who were dedicated to the revival of Vedic culture and Sanskrit learning. Sayana worked closely with his brother Madhava (also known as Vidyaranya), a spiritual guide and prime minister to the founding kings, to promote the intellectual and religious traditions of the era.
22History
The Bandagan-i-Khas during the rule of Delhi Sultans referred to the
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Answer: (B) royal slaves
Explanation
The term Bandagan-i-Khas is derived from the Persian word banda, meaning slave, and was used during the Delhi Sultanate to refer to the elite royal slaves. These slaves were purchased and specially trained for important military and administrative positions within the Sultan's personal service. Because they lacked local tribal or kin ties and were entirely dependent on the Sultan for their status and livelihood, they were considered more loyal and trustworthy than the free nobility. This system reached its peak under Sultans like Iltutmish and later Firuz Shah Tughlaq, who even created a separate department called Diwan-i-Bandagan to manage their affairs. These royal slaves often rose to become powerful governors and military commanders, forming a crucial pillar of the Sultanate's administrative machinery.
23History
Who among the following was described as Jagadguru by his subjects for his patronage of the Hindus in his State?
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Answer: (A) Ibrahim Adil Shah II of Bijapur
Explanation
Ibrahim Adil Shah II of the Bijapur Sultanate was a remarkably liberal and secular ruler who actively patronized Hindu scholars, musicians, and artists within his kingdom. Due to his inclusive policies and deep respect for Indian culture and learning, his subjects bestowed upon him the title Jagadguru (World Teacher). He was also known as Abla Bali (Protector of the Poor) for his concern for the welfare of the common people regardless of their faith. His literary work, Kitab-i-Navras, further reflects his syncretic outlook, as it contains songs written in praise of Hindu deities such as Saraswati and Ganapati alongside Islamic themes. Under his reign, the Bijapur state became a major center for the Dakhni style of art and music, characterized by a unique blend of Persian and local Indian influences.
24History
Vidyapati Thakur, a contemporary of Chandidas (end of 14th century to early 15th century), was a native of
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Answer: (B) Mithila
Explanation
Vidyapati was a renowned Maithili poet and Sanskrit scholar born in the village of Bisapi in the Madhubani district of the Mithila region. Known as Maithil Kokil (the Cuckoo of Mithila), he served as a court poet and advisor to several rulers of the Oiniwar dynasty, including King Kirti Singh and King Siva Singh. His compositions, particularly the Padavali written in the Maithili language, revolutionized medieval literature and played a significant role in the development of the Brajabuli literary language used across the eastern parts of the Indian subcontinent. His identity is deeply rooted in the Mithila region where he spent his entire life under the patronage of the local royalty.
25Geography
Whenever a tropical cyclone moves to land, much of its severity is reduced. This is because
1. its source of moisture is cut off
2. the friction over land kills tropical cyclones
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Tropical cyclones are thermal engines that derive their energy from the latent heat of condensation. This energy is fueled by the continuous supply of moisture evaporated from warm ocean surfaces. When a cyclone moves over land, this primary moisture source is cut off, causing the storm to lose its energy supply and dissipate. Additionally, land surfaces present much higher friction than the relatively smooth ocean. This increased surface roughness exerts a frictional drag that reduces wind speeds and forces the surface air to spiral more sharply toward the low-pressure center. This inward flow fills the central low pressure more rapidly, weakening the pressure gradient and destroying the organized structure of the cyclone. Therefore, both the termination of moisture supply and the increase in surface friction contribute to the rapid weakening of the system upon landfall.
26Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Delta) (Example)
A.Arcuate delta 1. Nile Delta
B. Bird's-foot delta 2. Mississippi Delta
C.Cuspate delta 3. Tiber Delta
D. Estuarine delta 4. Seine Delta
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 1 2 3 4
Explanation
Arcuate deltas are fan-shaped with a curved seaward margin, and the Nile Delta is the classic type specimen for this category, formed where river deposition exceeds wave erosion.
Bird-foot deltas feature long, finger-like distributaries that extend into the sea, resembling the claws of a bird. The Mississippi Delta is the most prominent example of this type, occurring where the river carries a high volume of fine sediment into a relatively calm body of water.
Cuspate deltas have a pointed or tooth-like shape formed when a river enters a sea with strong wave action that redistributes sediment evenly along the coast from the river mouth, with the Tiber Delta in Italy being the standard example.
Estuarine deltas are formed when a river mouth is located in a submerged valley or estuary, resulting in sediment deposition within the linear confines of the valley before reaching the open sea, as seen in the case of the Seine Delta in France.
27Geography
Which one among the following is a dormant volcano?
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Answer: (A) Mount Kilimanjaro
Explanation
Mount Kilimanjaro is a large stratovolcano located in Tanzania, consisting of three volcanic cones named Kibo, Mawenzi, and Shira. Among these, Kibo is the highest and is classified as a dormant volcano because it has not erupted in recorded history but still shows signs of activity. Scientific evidence suggests its last major eruption occurred hundreds of thousands of years ago, yet the presence of steam and sulfur-emitting fumaroles within the crater indicates that the magma chamber beneath it is still potentially active. This lack of recent historical eruptions combined with the evidence of internal thermal activity fits the geographical definition of a dormant volcano.
28Geography
Asteroid belt is situated between
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Answer: (A) Mars and Jupiter
Explanation
The asteroid belt is a vast, torus-shaped region in the solar system located between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. It contains the majority of the solar system's asteroids, which are rocky, airless remnants left over from the early formation of the solar system approximately 4.6 billion years ago. The gravitational pull of Jupiter, the most massive planet in the system, prevented these planetesimals from accreting into a full-sized planet, resulting in a belt of millions of individual fragments. These objects range in size from the dwarf planet Ceres, which is about 950 kilometers in diameter, to small dust particles. The average distance between objects in this region is quite large, but their collective orbit remains stable between these two specific planets.
29History
Who among the following was chosen by the Government of Japan to confer the prestigious Fukuoka Prize for the year 2012?
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Answer: (A) Vandana Shiva
Explanation
Vandana Shiva, a prominent Indian environmental activist, physicist, and author, was selected for the Grand Prize of the Fukuoka Prize in 2012. This prestigious Japanese award recognizes individuals who have made outstanding contributions to the preservation and creation of Asian culture. Shiva was honored for her tireless efforts in promoting biodiversity, organic farming, and the rights of small farmers through her organization, Navdanya. Her advocacy against the patenting of life forms and her commitment to ecological sustainability have made her a global leader in the environmental movement, significantly influencing agricultural policies and ecological awareness across Asia.
30Economy
In a major policy decision, the Central Government has recently decided to allow Qualified Foreign Investors (QFIs) to directly invest in Indian equity market. India received her first investment through Qualified Framework Investor Route worth ₹ 5m following the deal struck by
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Answer: (B) Kotak Mahindra Bank
Explanation
In January 2012, the Government of India expanded the Qualified Foreign Investor (QFI) framework to allow foreign individuals and entities to invest directly in the Indian equity market. The first investment under this route was executed in February 2012 by a Mauritius-based investor who invested ₹ 5 million (₹ 50 lakh) across five listed companies. This transaction was facilitated by Kotak Mahindra Bank and Kotak Securities, which functioned as the Qualified Depository Participant (QDP) responsible for managing the registration and custody requirements for the foreign investor.
31History
Which one among the following statements about eminent freedom fighter and social activist Captain Lakshmi Sehgal, who passed away in Kanpur on 23rd July, 2012, is not correct?
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Answer: (C) She was a member of the Lok Sabha
Explanation
Captain Lakshmi Sehgal served as a member of the Rajya Sabha, the Upper House of the Indian Parliament, representing the Communist Party of India (Marxist) starting in 1971. She never held a seat in the Lok Sabha, the Lower House. While she was highly active in national politics and famously contested the 2002 Indian presidential election as the candidate for the Left Front against A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, her legislative experience was limited to the Rajya Sabha.
32History
Which of the following statements about London Olympics, 2012 is/are correct?
1. London got a distinction to host the modern Olympic Games three times. The city had previously hosted the Games in 1908 and in 1948.
2. Motto of the London Olympics is 'Inspire a Generation'.
3. Saina Nehwal was the official flag bearer of 83-member Indian contingent at the opening ceremony of the London Olympics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
London became the first city to host the modern Olympic Games three times, having previously served as the host city in 1908 and 1948. The official motto for the London 2012 Games was Inspire a Generation, which was chosen to reflect the goal of engaging and motivating young people around the world through the Olympic spirit. While India sent a record contingent of 83 athletes to the Games, the wrestler Sushil Kumar was the designated flag bearer for the Indian team during the opening ceremony, rather than Saina Nehwal.
33Logical Reasoning
An accurate clock shows 12 o'clock in the noon. Through how many degrees will the hour hand rotate when the clock shows 5 o'clock on the same evening?
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Answer: (A) 150°
Explanation
The hour hand of a clock completes one full circle, which is 360°, in 12 hours. To find the rate of rotation per hour, we divide the total degrees by the total hours in a cycle: 360°/12 = 30° per hour. The time interval from 12 o'clock noon to 5 o'clock in the evening is exactly 5 hours. Using the formula Total Rotation = Time in hours × Degrees per hour, we substitute the known values to get 5 × 30° = 150°. This displacement represents the clockwise movement of the hour hand from its starting vertical position at 12 to its position at the 5 o'clock mark.
34Polity and Governance
The World Conference on Human Rights that affirmed the universality of rights and launched an ambitious plan of action was held in
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Answer: (A) Vienna (1993)
Explanation
The World Conference on Human Rights was held in Vienna in June 1993. This landmark event was the first global conference on human rights since the end of the Cold War and brought together representatives from 171 nations. The conference culminated in the adoption of the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, which explicitly affirmed that all human rights are universal, indivisible, interdependent, and interrelated. It asserted that the international community has a legitimate concern for human rights worldwide, regardless of political, economic, or cultural systems. A major outcome of this conference was the recommendation to create the post of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights, which the UN General Assembly subsequently established later that year to strengthen global coordination and advocacy for human rights.
35Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements about the States Reorganization Act is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The State boundaries were drawn for administrative convenience
Explanation
The States Reorganization Act of 1956 primarily implemented the reorganization of state boundaries based on linguistic criteria rather than administrative convenience. While earlier bodies like the Dhar Commission (1948) and the JVP Committee (1949) had favored administrative efficiency and national unity as the primary factors for boundary delimitation, the intense public demand for linguistic states led to a shift in policy. Following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission (Fazal Ali Commission), the Act sought to align regional boundaries with major linguistic groups to ensure better democratic participation and cultural homogeneity within the states.
36History
Consider the following territories which became part of India after 15th August, 1947 :
1. Goa, Daman and Diu
2. Pondicherry
3. Sikkim
4. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
Which of the following is the correct chronological order (beginning with the earliest) of their becoming part of India?
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Answer: (C) 4-1-2-3
Explanation
The integration of these territories into the Indian Union followed specific legal and historical milestones. Dadra and Nagar Haveli was liberated from Portuguese rule in 1954 but was formally integrated as a Union Territory of India on August 11, 1961, following the 10th Constitutional Amendment Act. Goa, Daman and Diu were annexed from the Portuguese through Operation Vijay on December 19, 1961, and subsequently incorporated via the 12th Constitutional Amendment Act. While the French territories of Pondicherry saw a de facto transfer in 1954, the de jure (legal) transfer was only completed on August 16, 1962, making it a formal part of India through the 14th Constitutional Amendment Act. Sikkim, which was previously an Indian protectorate, became an associate state in 1974 and finally a full state of the Indian Union on May 16, 1975, under the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act. The chronological order of their formal integration is Dadra and Nagar Haveli (August 1961), Goa, Daman and Diu (December 1961), Pondicherry (August 1962), and Sikkim (May 1975).
37Polity and Governance
Overseas citizens of India (as per Overseas Citizenship of India Scheme as operational from December 2005) shall not be entitled to
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Answer: (D) voting rights in India
Explanation
The Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, established under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005, grants limited rights to persons of Indian origin who are citizens of other countries. As OCI is not a form of dual citizenship, holders remain foreign nationals. Consequently, Section 7B of the Citizenship Act, 1955, specifically excludes OCI cardholders from enjoying political rights. They do not possess the right to register as voters under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, nor are they eligible to be members of the Parliament or State Legislatures. These sovereign rights are reserved exclusively for citizens of India to ensure that only those with sole legal allegiance to the Indian state participate in its democratic processes.
38Science and Technology
In the recent past, a fundamental particle has been claimed to be experimentally observed, at a European Laboratory in Geneva, to travel at a speed greater than that of light in vacuum. The name of the particle is
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Answer: (D) neutrino
Explanation
In September 2011, the OPERA (Oscillation Project with Emulsion-tRacking Apparatus) experiment, which involved researchers from the CERN laboratory in Geneva and the Gran Sasso National Laboratory in Italy, announced the observation of neutrinos traveling at a speed slightly greater than the speed of light. The researchers measured the time taken for a beam of muon neutrinos to travel approximately 730 kilometers through the Earth and reported that the particles arrived approximately 60 nanoseconds sooner than a photon would have in a vacuum. This claim generated significant scientific debate because it challenged Albert Einstein's theory of special relativity, which posits that nothing can travel faster than light in a vacuum (c ≈ 299,792,458 m/s). Although the experimental result was later attributed to technical issues involving a faulty fiber-optic cable and a clock oscillator, the neutrino remained the subject of the widely publicized claim during that period.
39Science and Technology
When an iron nail is dipped in a solution of copper sulphate, the iron nail becomes brownish in colour and the blue colour of copper sulphate solution fades after some time. The reaction is an example of chemical
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Answer: (C) displacement
Explanation
The reaction between an iron nail and copper sulphate solution is represented by the chemical equation:
Fe(s) + CuSO₄(aq) → FeSO₄(aq) + Cu(s)
In this process, iron (Fe) is more reactive than copper (Cu) according to the reactivity series of metals. As a result, iron atoms displace copper ions from the copper sulphate solution. The displaced copper metal then deposits on the surface of the iron nail, which accounts for the observed brownish colour. Simultaneously, the characteristic blue colour of the CuSO₄ solution fades and turns towards a light green hue due to the formation of iron (II) sulphate (FeSO₄). Because a more reactive element replaces a less reactive element from its compound, this process is defined as a displacement reaction.
40Science and Technology
Bleaching powder is added in water used for drinking purpose. The role of bleaching powder in this case is
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Answer: (A) of disinfectant
Explanation
Bleaching powder, which is chemically calcium hypochlorite represented by the formula Ca(OCl)₂, acts as a powerful disinfectant when added to water. Upon dissolution, it reacts to produce hypochlorous acid (HOCl) and nascent oxygen, which possess strong oxidizing properties. These substances effectively attack and destroy the cellular structure of pathogenic microorganisms, including bacteria and viruses, thereby sterilizing the water and making it safe for human consumption. This germicidal action is the primary reason for its application in public water supply systems and wells.
41Science and Technology
If four balloons A, B, C and D are filled with hydrogen, oxygen, helium and nitrogen gases respectively and left in air, which balloon reaches to the highest distance from the Earth?
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Answer: (A) Balloon A
Explanation
The height to which a gas-filled balloon rises depends on the buoyancy force, which is determined by the difference between the density of the gas inside the balloon and the density of the surrounding air. Hydrogen (H₂) has the lowest molar mass of approximately 2 g/mol, making it the lightest and least dense of all known gases.
In contrast, the average molar mass of air is approximately 29 g/mol. Because Hydrogen is significantly lighter than air and other gases like Helium (4 g/mol), Nitrogen (28 g/mol), and Oxygen (32 g/mol), Balloon A experiences the greatest net upward force. According to Archimedes' principle, the balloon will continue to rise until its total weight equals the weight of the air it displaces. Since Hydrogen provides the maximum displacement-to-weight ratio, it can ascend to much higher altitudes where the atmospheric pressure and density are extremely low before reaching equilibrium.
42Geography
Which one among the following is not a greenhouse gas?
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Answer: (D) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is not classified as a greenhouse gas because it does not contribute to the warming of the Earth by trapping outgoing long-wave infrared radiation. Instead, sulphur dioxide is an atmospheric pollutant that reacts in the atmosphere to form sulfate aerosols. these aerosols have a high albedo and reflect incoming solar radiation back into space, which leads to a net cooling effect on the Earth's surface rather than a warming effect. Its primary environmental impact is related to the formation of acid rain and the degradation of air quality rather than the greenhouse effect.
43Science and Technology
Which one among the following salts causes hardness to the water?
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Answer: (A) Calcium bicarbonate
Explanation
Water hardness is caused by the presence of dissolved polyvalent metallic cations, specifically calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) ions. Calcium bicarbonate, Ca(HCO₃)₂, is a soluble salt that results in temporary hardness. It forms when water containing dissolved carbon dioxide reacts with calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) found in limestone or chalk. In the presence of soap, these dissolved calcium ions react with sodium salts of long-chain fatty acids, such as sodium stearate, to produce an insoluble precipitate known as scum. This reaction can be represented as 2C₁₇H₃₅COONa + Ca²⁺ → (C₁₇H₃₅COO)₂Ca + 2Na⁺. This process prevents the soap from creating a lather, which is the defining characteristic of hard water.
44History
Consider the following statements about Rig Veda :
1. It reflects a naturalistic polytheism—a belief in many Gods who personified natural phenomenon.
2. The Gods were conceived of as anthropomorphic, i.e., as having a physical form similar to that of humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Rig Veda reflects a system of naturalistic polytheism where various powerful forces of nature were personified and worshipped as distinct deities. Major gods like Indra, Agni, Surya, and Varuna represented natural phenomena such as thunder, fire, the sun, and the cosmic order, respectively. These deities were conceived anthropomorphically, meaning they were attributed with physical forms, human emotions, and social roles similar to humans. In the Vedic hymns, gods are described as having limbs, wearing garments, carrying weapons, and consuming offerings of food and Soma. This personification allowed the Vedic people to establish a reciprocal relationship with the divine through prayers and sacrifices.
45History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :
In India, tribal movements of 19th century resulted out of the process of land displacements and the introduction of forest laws.
Statement II :
The Indian freedom movement resolved the problems faced by the tribals.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
Statement I correctly identifies the primary catalysts for tribal uprisings in the 19th century. The British colonial administration implemented restrictive forest laws, notably the Forest Acts of 1865 and 1878, which transformed communal tribal forests into state property and curtailed traditional rights over forest produce. Simultaneously, the introduction of new land revenue systems and the influx of non-tribal moneylenders and traders led to widespread land alienation and debt bondage. These factors triggered significant resistance movements, such as the Santhal Hool and the Munda Ulgulan. Statement II is incorrect because, although the Indian freedom movement attempted to mobilize tribal groups and addressed some of their concerns, it did not resolve their fundamental problems. Issues of land displacement, economic exploitation, and loss of forest access continued to persist well beyond the independence era and remain central themes in tribal discourse.
46History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I :
The economy of India in the 19th century came to a state of ruin under the English East India Company.
Statement II :
The English East India Company's acquisition of Diwani right led to the miseries of the peasants and those associated with the traditional handicrafts industry of India.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The British East India Company's economic policies throughout the 19th century led to the systematic de-industrialization and impoverishment of India. The acquisition of Diwani rights in 1765 gave the Company the authority to collect land revenue, which was used to extract maximum surplus from the peasantry through oppressive settlements like the Permanent Settlement. This revenue was not reinvested in the local economy but was instead used to purchase Indian goods for export, a process known as the drain of wealth. Additionally, the Company leveraged its political power to impose discriminatory tariffs and trade restrictions that favored British machine-made textiles while crippling the traditional Indian handicraft industries. These specific exploitative mechanisms, stemming from the control over revenue and trade provided by the Diwani rights, were the primary drivers behind the overall ruin of the Indian economy mentioned in Statement I.
47History
The famous terra-cotta images of rivers Ganga and Yamuna from the Gupta period have been found at
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Answer: (A) Ahichchhatra
Explanation
Ahichchhatra, the ancient capital of Northern Panchala located in the Bareilly district of Uttar Pradesh, yielded two exceptionally famous life-sized terra-cotta images of the river goddesses Ganga and Yamuna. Dating to the late Gupta period around the 5th century CE, these figures were originally placed flanking the entrance of a massive terraced Shiva temple to serve as celestial door guardians. Ganga is depicted standing on her vahana, the makara (crocodile), while Yamuna stands on a kurma (tortoise). These sculptures represent the pinnacle of Gupta terra-cotta art, characterized by refined features, delicate drapery, and graceful proportions, and are currently preserved in the National Museum in New Delhi.
48History
Consider the following statement :
"India would be far more reliable as a base for operations. Moreover the prospect of a settlement will be greatly enhanced by the disappearance of Gandhi, who had for years torpedoed every attempt at a settlement."
The above statement was made by the British in the context of
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Answer: (C) Quit India Movement
Explanation
The statement reflects the British strategic and political mindset during the Quit India Movement (1942) in the midst of World War II. At this juncture, India served as a critical geographic and logistical base for Allied operations against Japanese expansion in Southeast Asia. The British authorities, particularly under the hardline administration of Viceroy Lord Linlithgow and Prime Minister Winston Churchill, viewed Mahatma Gandhi as the principal obstruction to both the war effort and a political arrangement favorable to British interests. Following the failure of the Cripps Mission, which Gandhi famously rejected, the British government adopted a policy of total suppression. They anticipated that Gandhi's removal from the political scene, especially during his 21-day fast in February 1943 at the Aga Khan Palace, would neutralize the Congress party's resistance and allow for a settlement with more compliant Indian factions, thereby ensuring India remained a stable military launching pad.
49History
The Moplah peasant struggles took place in
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Answer: (C) Malabar
Explanation
The Moplah (or Mappila) peasant struggles were a series of uprisings by the Muslim peasantry in the Malabar region of Kerala against the oppressive land revenue system imposed by the British and the local landlords, known as Jenmis. While several outbreaks occurred throughout the 19th century, the most prominent rebellion took place in 1921. This movement was deeply intertwined with the Khilafat Movement and the Non-Cooperation Movement, as local leaders like Ali Musliyar combined religious and nationalist fervor with long-standing agrarian grievances. The struggle focused on issues such as high rents, lack of security of tenure, and the renewal fees charged by landlords, making the Malabar district of the Madras Presidency the primary theater of the conflict.
50Geography
Hurricanes rarely form or move within 5 degrees of the equator, because
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Answer: (A) Coriolis effect is weakest here
Explanation
The formation of a tropical cyclone or hurricane requires the Coriolis force to initiate and maintain the rotation of the air around a low-pressure center. The magnitude of the Coriolis effect is determined by the formula F = 2ωv sin φ, where ω is the Earth's angular velocity, v is the velocity of the air, and φ is the latitude. At the equator, where φ = 0°, the value of sin φ is zero, meaning the Coriolis force is non-existent. Within 5° of the equator, this force is too weak to provide the necessary deflection to create a cyclonic circulation. Without sufficient Coriolis effect, the air flows directly into the center of the low-pressure area and fills it before the system can develop the organized rotational structure required for a hurricane.
51Geography
What do you call the total system of parallels and meridians that form a network of intersecting lines?
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Answer: (C) Geographic grid
Explanation
The geographic grid is the systematic framework of the Earth coordinate system, composed of two sets of imaginary lines: parallels of latitude and meridians of longitude. Parallels are horizontal lines that run east-west to measure distance north or south of the Equator, while meridians are vertical lines that run north-south to measure distance east or west of the Prime Meridian. These lines intersect at right angles to create a network across the globe. This organized system of intersecting lines provides a universal reference for pinpointing the exact location of any point on the Earth's surface using specific numerical coordinates.
52Geography
Why does the Earth assume the shape of an oblate ellipsoid?
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Answer: (A) The Earth's rotation causes the Earth to bulge slightly at the equator and flatten at the poles
Explanation
The Earth's rotation on its axis generates centrifugal force, which acts outward from the center of rotation. This force is defined by F = mω²r, where r is the distance from the axis. Since r is greatest at the equator and decreases to zero at the poles, the outward centrifugal force is strongest at the equator. This force counteracts gravity and pulls the Earth's mass outward, creating an equatorial bulge. Conversely, the lack of centrifugal force at the poles allows gravity to pull the mass inward more effectively, resulting in polar flattening. This dynamic equilibrium between gravity and rotation-induced force results in the Earth's oblate ellipsoid shape, characterized by an equatorial diameter that is significantly larger than its polar diameter.
53Geography
Which one among the following is a mechanically formed sedimentary rock?
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Answer: (C) Sandstone
Explanation
Sandstone is a clastic sedimentary rock formed through the mechanical process of weathering and erosion of pre-existing rocks. The resulting mineral particles or rock fragments, typically sand-sized grains of quartz or feldspar, are transported by physical agents such as water, wind, or ice. Once deposited in environments like river beds, deserts, or ocean floors, these sediments undergo lithification, which involves the dual processes of compaction under the weight of overlying layers and cementation by minerals like silica or calcium carbonate. This sequence of physical disintegration, transport, and accumulation identifies it as a mechanically formed rock.
54Geography
Consider the following statements :
1. Creepers or climbers are commonly found in the tropical rain forest.
2. The epiphytes, which do not have their roots on the ground, survive on the trees in the tropical rain forest.
3. All epiphytes are not creepers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Tropical rain forests are characterized by high biodiversity and a complex vertical structure. Statement 1 is correct because climbers and woody vines known as lianas are a dominant feature of these forests, using the tall trees as mechanical support to reach the sunlight in the upper canopy. Statement 2 is correct as epiphytes, such as orchids and ferns, grow on the trunks and branches of trees to access light and space. Unlike parasitic plants, they do not take nutrients from the host tree and lack roots in the ground, instead absorbing moisture and nutrients from the atmosphere and falling debris. Statement 3 is correct because epiphytes and creepers represent different ecological niches and growth strategies. While creepers and climbers are rooted in the soil and grow upwards, epiphytes germinate and live their entire lives on other plants without ever having a connection to the forest floor.
55Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about General Bikram Singh :
1. He is the 25th Chief of Indian Army.
2. Prior to his appointment to the top post, he served as commanding officer of the Northern Army Command.
3. He is a veteran infantry officer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
General Bikram Singh served as the 25th Chief of Army Staff of the Indian Army, assuming the office on May 31, 2012, succeeding General V.K. Singh. He was commissioned into the Sikh Light Infantry in December 1972, which identifies him as a veteran infantry officer. Over his distinguished career, he held numerous significant positions, including the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Eastern Command and various roles in United Nations peacekeeping operations.
56Economy
In May 2012, which one among the following Indian Business Houses has signed an agreement with the Bangladesh Government to design and develop a new city, Notun Dhaka (New Dhaka) in Bangladesh?
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Answer: (B) Sahara India Pariwar
Explanation
Sahara India Pariwar, through its subsidiary Sahara Matribhumi Unnayan Corporation Limited, signed a Memorandum of Understanding with the Government of Bangladesh in May 2012. The agreement focused on the development of a massive satellite township project known as Notun Dhaka (New Dhaka) near the existing capital. Designed to alleviate urban congestion, the project was envisioned as a modern, self-contained city featuring international-standard infrastructure, residential complexes, and commercial hubs. The multi-billion dollar investment proposal represented one of the largest foreign direct investment initiatives in Bangladesh at the time, aimed at creating a world-class urban center with advanced amenities.
57History
Who among the following was the winner of Men's Singles Wimbledon Championship, 2012?
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Answer: (A) Roger Federer
Explanation
Roger Federer won the 2012 Wimbledon Men's Singles title by defeating Andy Murray in the final with a score of 4-6, 7-5, 6-3, 6-4. This victory marked Federer's seventh Wimbledon championship, which equaled the all-time record held at that time by Pete Sampras and William Renshaw. It was also his 17th career Grand Slam title. Following this win, Federer reclaimed the world number one ranking in the ATP standings, eventually breaking the record for the most weeks spent at the top of the rankings. The match was historic as it featured the first British man to reach a Wimbledon singles final since 1938.
58Polity and Governance
Recently in which one among the following countries, the Prime Minister has to be changed due to an instruction of the country's Supreme Court?
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Answer: (A) Pakistan
Explanation
In June 2012, the Supreme Court of Pakistan disqualified Prime Minister Yousaf Raza Gilani from holding office following his conviction for contempt of court. The legal crisis began when Gilani refused to comply with the court's repeated directives to write a letter to Swiss authorities to reopen corruption and money laundering cases against President Asif Ali Zardari. The court ruled that since Gilani had been convicted of contempt for defying the judiciary, he was disqualified from being a member of Parliament under Article 63(1)(g) of the Constitution of Pakistan. Consequently, the court declared the office of the Prime Minister vacant, necessitating the appointment of a new leader, Raja Pervaiz Ashraf, to head the government.
59Science and Technology
Why was theoretical physicist Ashoke Sen, a string theorist at Allahabad's Harish Chandra Research Institute, in news recently?
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Answer: (B) He was one of the nine winners of the first Yuri Milner Fundamental Physics Prize
Explanation
In July 2012, Ashoke Sen became one of the nine inaugural recipients of the Fundamental Physics Prize, established by Russian billionaire and philanthropist Yuri Milner. This award, often referred to as the Yuri Milner Prize, carried a purse of $3 million, which was nearly three times the amount of the Nobel Prize at that time. Sen was honored for his groundbreaking work in string theory, specifically for his research on S-duality and the properties of black holes in string theory. His work provided critical insights into how different versions of string theories are related to one another, helping to unify various aspects of the field. This recognition brought significant international and national attention to his research conducted at the Harish-Chandra Research Institute in Allahabad.
60Polity and Governance
New Public Management stands for
1. shift from conventional public policy to cost effectiveness
2. cluster rather than pyramids of organization in structural frameworks
3. flexible and adaptive operational systems
4. rigid planning and conventional bureaucratic hierarchy
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
New Public Management (NPM) emphasizes efficiency and economy by shifting the administrative focus from traditional process-oriented policy to cost effectiveness and measurable results. It promotes structural decentralization by replacing tall, rigid Weberian bureaucratic pyramids with flatter, networked clusters of organization to enhance agility and responsiveness. Additionally, NPM advocates for flexible and adaptive operational systems that allow for managerial discretion and responsiveness to market dynamics, moving away from the static and rule-bound nature of classical administration. These elements collectively aim to modernize public service delivery by adopting private sector management techniques and performance-based accountability.
61Polity and Governance
Which one among the following items was not added to the Concurrent List of the Constitution of India under the provisions of the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976?
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Answer: (D) Railways
Explanation
Railways is a subject mentioned in the Union List (List I) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, specifically under Entry 22. It has been under the exclusive legislative and executive jurisdiction of the Central Government since the inception of the Constitution in 1950. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 transferred five subjects from the State List to the Concurrent List and added specific entries related to population control, but it did not alter the status of Railways, which remains a purely Union subject.
62Polity and Governance
Public Interest Litigation falls within the jurisdiction of the High Court provided certain conditions are fulfilled. Which one among the following conditions is not accepted by the courts?
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Answer: (D) Personal injury or loss is an essential element
Explanation
Public Interest Litigation (PIL) is fundamentally based on the relaxation of the traditional doctrine of locus standi, which specifies that only a person whose own rights are violated or who has suffered a direct personal injury can approach the court. In PIL, the judiciary permits any public-spirited citizen or social organization to move the court for the enforcement of constitutional or legal rights on behalf of those who, by reason of poverty, helplessness, or disability, are unable to approach the court themselves. Therefore, the requirement that personal injury or loss must be an essential element for the petitioner is explicitly rejected by the courts in PIL cases, as the primary objective is to protect the public interest and ensure the accountability of the state.
63Polity and Governance
The Eleventh Schedule inserted by the 73rd Amendment distributes powers between the State Legislatures and the Panchayats, and lists 29 items. Which among the following are listed in the Eleventh Schedule?
1. Minor irrigation
2. Animal husbandry
3. Women and child development
4. Fire service
5. Cattle pounds, prevention of cruelty to animals
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Eleventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution was added by the 73rd Amendment Act of 1992 and contains 29 functional items placed under the purview of Panchayats. Entry 3 of this schedule covers minor irrigation, water management, and watershed development. Entry 4 includes animal husbandry, dairying, and poultry. Entry 25 specifies women and child development. These items are designed to decentralize power and ensure rural development through local self-governance.
In contrast, fire services and cattle pounds or prevention of cruelty to animals are specifically listed under the Twelfth Schedule, which was added by the 74th Amendment Act to define the functional domain of Urban Local Bodies (Municipalities). Specifically, fire services are listed as Entry 7 and cattle pounds are listed as Entry 15 in the Twelfth Schedule. Therefore, only the first three items pertain to the jurisdiction of Panchayats under the Eleventh Schedule.
64Geography
How do marine animals survive in water without air contact?
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Answer: (B) They take oxygen from water
Explanation
Marine animals survive by utilizing dissolved oxygen present in the water. Oxygen gas from the atmosphere dissolves into the water surface through diffusion and is also produced locally by phytoplankton and aquatic plants. Marine organisms, such as fish and crustaceans, have evolved specialized respiratory structures like gills to extract this dissolved oxygen (O₂). As water passes over the thin, highly vascularized membranes of the gills, oxygen molecules diffuse from the water into the animal's bloodstream due to a concentration gradient. This oxygen is then transported to cells throughout the body to support aerobic respiration and energy production, enabling life beneath the surface without direct contact with atmospheric air.
65Science and Technology
Which one among the following causes stomach pain in human body?
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Answer: (B) Acid
Explanation
The stomach contains gastric glands that secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl), which is essential for the activation of digestive enzymes and the destruction of harmful microorganisms ingested with food. When the stomach produces an excessive amount of this acid, a condition known as hyperacidity or acidosis occurs. This excess acid can irritate or erode the protective mucous lining of the stomach wall, leading to inflammation known as gastritis or the development of peptic ulcers. The chemical irritation of the stomach's internal tissues by high concentrations of HCl directly triggers pain receptors, resulting in the burning sensation and abdominal discomfort commonly associated with indigestion and stomach aches.
66Science and Technology
Use of tamarind juice as a part of our meal helps
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Answer: (C) for easy digestion of food
Explanation
Tamarind pulp contains a significant amount of dietary fiber and organic acids, most notably tartaric acid, which provides its characteristic sour taste. These components act as natural digestive stimulants by promoting the secretion of bile and essential digestive enzymes in the stomach and intestines. The fiber content helps in adding bulk to the food and facilitates smooth peristaltic movements, which aids in the efficient passage of waste through the gastrointestinal tract. By enhancing the chemical and mechanical processes of digestion, tamarind juice effectively helps in the assimilation of nutrients and prevents common digestive issues like constipation.
67Geography
Green Muffler is
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Answer: (C) plantation along roadsides to reduce noise pollution
Explanation
Green Muffler is an environmental technique designed to mitigate noise pollution through the strategic plantation of multiple rows of trees and shrubs. These green belts are typically established along busy roadsides, industrial areas, and near high-traffic zones to serve as physical barriers. The leaves, branches, and trunks of the plants absorb, reflect, and dissipate sound waves, effectively reducing the intensity of noise before it reaches residential or sensitive areas. Dense evergreen trees with broad leaves are particularly effective in this role as they provide year-round coverage and have a high surface area for sound attenuation. This biological method is a cost-effective and ecologically friendly way to manage urban acoustic environments while providing additional benefits like dust filtration.
68Science and Technology
Byssinosis disease is common in the workers of
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Answer: (C) textile industry
Explanation
Byssinosis is a chronic occupational lung disease caused by the prolonged inhalation of organic dust from textile fibers such as cotton, flax, hemp, and jute. It is most commonly found among workers in the textile industry, particularly those involved in the early stages of processing like carding, spinning, and cleaning where dust levels are highest. The disease is characterized by symptoms such as chest tightness, coughing, and shortness of breath. It is often referred to as brown lung disease or Monday fever because the respiratory distress typically worsens when workers return to the factory after a weekend or holiday. Over time, continued exposure leads to significant reduction in lung capacity and permanent respiratory damage.
69Economy
As per the Bureau of Indian Standard, the domestic water demand in India in LPCD (liter per capita per day) is
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Answer: (C) 135
Explanation
According to the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) specification IS: 1172-1993 (Code of Basic Requirements for Water Supply, Drainage, and Sanitation), the minimum domestic water consumption for an Indian town with a full flushing system is 135 liters per capita per day (LPCD). This total is derived from the following distribution of daily activities: drinking (5 liters), cooking (5 liters), bathing (55 liters), washing of clothes (20 liters), washing of utensils (10 liters), cleaning of house (10 liters), and flushing of water closets (30 liters). This standard figure is used as the basis for designing water supply systems in urban residential areas to ensure adequate hygiene and sanitation.
70History
Alluri Sitarama Raju's rebellion (1922-1924) took place in
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Answer: (B) Gudem-Rampa Tract
Explanation
Alluri Sitarama Raju led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922-1924 in the Gudem-Rampa hill tracts of the Godavari Agency, located in present-day Andhra Pradesh. The rebellion was a tribal uprising directed against the British colonial administration's restrictive forest policies, specifically the Madras Forest Act of 1882. These laws prevented tribal communities from practicing their traditional podu (shifting) cultivation and restricted their access to forest resources. Raju organized the tribal people to launch a guerrilla war against the British police and officials, effectively using the dense terrain of the Gudem and Rampa hills to his advantage until his capture and execution in 1924.
71History
Which of the following political methods was/were incorporated by Mahatma Gandhi?
1. Petitioning to the British
2. Village reconstruction
3. Gheraos
4. Fasts
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi's approach to political struggle and social reform was multifaceted, emphasizing non-violence and self-reliance. Petitioning the British was an integral part of his political strategy and served as a standard first step in his Satyagraha campaigns to document grievances and seek a peaceful resolution through official channels. Village reconstruction formed the core of his Constructive Programme, which aimed to revitalize the rural economy through the promotion of Khadi, improvements in sanitation, and the elimination of social evils. Fasts were used as a powerful spiritual and political instrument to appeal to the conscience of his opponents and to unify his followers, representing a form of self-sacrifice and moral persuasion rather than physical coercion. These methods collectively focused on moral pressure and long-term societal transformation.
72History
Which of the following Princely States saw major movements over the period from 1930s to 1940s?
1. Tripura
2. Nilgiri
3. Baroda
4. Travancore
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
During the 1930s and 1940s, the Praja Mandal movements spread across various Princely States as people demanded civil liberties and responsible government. In Tripura, the Tripura Rajya Jana Mangal Samiti was founded in 1938 to mobilize the masses against the Maharaja's autocratic rule and seek democratic reforms. Nilgiri, a small state in Odisha, became a focal point of intense Praja Mandal activity; the 1938 agitation and the subsequent 1947 uprising were so significant that Nilgiri became the first Princely State to be integrated into the Indian Union after a breakdown of law and order. In Baroda, the Baroda Rajya Praja Mandal, which had been active since the early 20th century, intensified its struggle during this period for administrative accountability and legislative reforms. Travancore witnessed massive political upheaval, including the formation of the Travancore State Congress in 1938 and the Punnapra-Vayalar revolt in 1946, which was a militant uprising against the proposed American model of government and the independent stance of the Diwan.
73History
Which one among the following relates to a land revenue policy introduced by the English East India Company?
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Answer: (B) Mahalwari Settlement
Explanation
The Mahalwari Settlement was a significant land revenue system introduced by the English East India Company, primarily implemented in the North-Western Provinces, parts of Central India, and the Punjab. Formulated by Holt Mackenzie and legalized through the Regulation of 1822, it was later refined under the administration of Lord William Bentinck in 1833. Under this system, the unit of revenue assessment was the Mahal, which represented a village or an estate. The entire village community was held collectively responsible for the payment of land revenue, with the village headman or Lambardar acting as the intermediary for collection. Unlike the Permanent Settlement, the revenue rates in the Mahalwari system were not fixed forever but were subject to periodic revision based on land surveys and productivity estimates.
74Geography
Which one among the following is a cold current in the Atlantic Ocean?
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Answer: (B) Benguela Current
Explanation
The Benguela Current is a cold ocean current that flows northward along the west coast of southern Africa within the South Atlantic Ocean. It serves as the eastern boundary current of the South Atlantic subtropical gyre. The current originates from the South Atlantic Current and is characterized by significant coastal upwelling of deep, cold, and nutrient-rich waters. This upwelling occurs because the prevailing southeasterly trade winds drive surface waters away from the coast, allowing colder water to rise from below. The presence of this cold current contributes to the arid conditions of the Namib Desert by cooling the lower atmosphere and stabilizing the air mass, which inhibits precipitation.
75Geography
Consider the following statements about irrigation in Punjab:
1. Intensity of irrigation is the highest among all Indian States.
2. Area under canal irrigation is the highest among all Indian States.
3. There has been severe land degradation in Punjab owing to agricultural modernization including high intensity of irrigation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Punjab leads all Indian states in irrigation intensity, with nearly 98 to 99 percent of its net sown area being under irrigation. This high intensity is a result of the extensive development of both canal networks and tube well systems, ensuring that almost the entire cultivable land is utilized for multiple cropping cycles annually.
The modernization of agriculture, particularly during and after the Green Revolution, introduced high-intensity irrigation and chemical-heavy farming practices that have resulted in significant land degradation. In many parts of the state, particularly the southwestern districts, excessive canal irrigation without proper drainage has led to waterlogging and the rise of salts to the surface, causing soil salinity and alkalinity. Additionally, the intensive monoculture of wheat and paddy has led to the depletion of soil micronutrients and a critical decline in the groundwater table, which are major environmental challenges for the region. While Punjab has a vast canal network, it does not have the highest absolute area under canal irrigation; that distinction belongs to Uttar Pradesh due to its much larger geographical size.
76Geography
The Golden Quadrilateral of India connects which of the following places?
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Answer: (B) Delhi—Mumbai—Chennai—Kolkata
Explanation
The Golden Quadrilateral (GQ) is a major national highway network in India that connects the four principal metropolitan cities located in the north, west, south, and east of the country. These cities are Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. Launched in 1999 as part of the National Highways Development Project (NHDP) Phase I, the project aimed to establish a high-quality road network to facilitate faster transport between major industrial, agricultural, and cultural hubs. The total length of this network is approximately 5,846 kilometers, managed by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI). It consists of multi-lane highways that have significantly reduced travel time and boosted economic connectivity across the major regions of India.
77Economy
In the context of agricultural revolution in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. White revolution in the field of agricultural development is associated with modernization of sheep farming.
2. Second green revolution is associated with development of horticulture.
3. Blue revolution in the field of agriculture is associated with improvement in the production of fish and marine products.
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Answer: (B) 3 only
Explanation
The Blue Revolution, or Neel Kranti, is the focused development of the fisheries sector to achieve a multi-fold increase in the production of fish and marine products. Launched during the Seventh Five-Year Plan (1985-1990), this initiative utilizes modern technology and scientific methods to manage inland and marine water resources effectively. The objective is to increase productivity, improve the livelihoods of fishers and fish farmers, and enhance the export earnings of the country through aquaculture. It addresses the entire value chain, including the management of aquatic resources and the modernization of infrastructure, to ensure sustainable growth and food security from aquatic sources.
78Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about the 'Curiosity' rover:
1. It is a robotic mission for exploration of the Mars launched by NASA.
2. It is powered by solar energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Curiosity is a car-sized robotic rover designed to explore the Gale Crater on Mars as part of NASA's Mars Science Laboratory mission. Launched in November 2011, its primary objective is to investigate the Martian climate and geology and to determine whether the planet ever offered environmental conditions favorable for microbial life.
The rover is specifically engineered to operate without reliance on solar power, distinguishing it from predecessors like Spirit and Opportunity. Instead, it utilizes a Multi-Mission Radioisotope Thermoelectric Generator (MMRTG), which produces a reliable source of electricity from the heat generated by the radioactive decay of plutonium-238. This nuclear power source enables the rover to function during the Martian night and throughout various seasons without the degradation issues caused by dust accumulation on solar panels.
79Economy
Consider the following statements:
According to the Second Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey Report, 2011- 2012 conducted by the Labour Bureau, Government of India
1. unemployment rate in the country during the period has come down significantly over the previous year
2. Gujarat tops the list of least unemployed among all Indian States during the period
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Second Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey (2011-12) conducted by the Labour Bureau, Ministry of Labour and Employment, reported that Gujarat had the lowest unemployment rate in India at 1.0 percent under the Usual Principal Status. This ranked Gujarat at the top of the list of states with the least unemployment, followed by states like Chhattisgarh (1.2 percent) and Rajasthan (1.7 percent). Although the reported national unemployment rate in the 2011-12 survey was 3.8 percent compared to the 9.3 percent reported in the 2010-11 survey, the Labour Bureau explicitly noted that the results of the two surveys were not strictly comparable. The discrepancy was due to significant differences in sample size, geographical coverage, and survey methodology between the first (pilot-scale) and the second (full-scale) reports, preventing any conclusion of a significant year-on-year decline in unemployment.
80Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
1. Discovery of Higgs boson of which scientists are almost certain, may discard Einstein's special theory of relativity.
2. Probable discovery of a particle which moves faster than light may prove Stephen Hawking wrong.
3. Probable discovery of a particle that moves faster than light may go against Einstein's special theory of relativity.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
Einstein's Special Theory of Relativity is built on the fundamental postulate that the speed of light in a vacuum (c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s) is the absolute speed limit for all matter and information in the universe. According to relativistic mechanics, as an object's velocity v approaches c, its relativistic mass and the energy required to accelerate it further tend toward infinity, as determined by the Lorentz factor γ = 1/√(1 - v²/c²). Consequently, the discovery of any particle moving faster than light would fundamentally violate this cosmic speed limit and the principle of causality, which ensures that effects do not precede their causes. Such a discovery would invalidate the mathematical and physical framework upon which the Special Theory of Relativity is established.
81Polity and Governance
The President of India has recently given approval to establish separate High Courts in three of the North-Eastern States of India. Which one among the following is not among them?
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Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
The North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) and Other Related Laws (Amendment) Act, 2012, paved the way for the creation of separate High Courts for the states of Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura. Prior to this, all seven North-Eastern states were under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court. While the amendment established independent judicial institutions for these three states to improve legal accessibility and clear case backlogs, Arunachal Pradesh was not part of this specific reorganization. Arunachal Pradesh continues to be under the jurisdiction of the Gauhati High Court, which also serves Assam, Nagaland, and Mizoram, maintaining a permanent bench at Itanagar to handle local cases.
82Quantitative Aptitude
Consider the following years :
1600, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2000, 2100, 2200, 2300 and 2400
How many leap years are there in the above?
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Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
The rule for determining whether a year is a leap year depends on whether it is a century year or a non-century year. While non-century years must be divisible by 4, century years (years ending in 00) must be divisible by 400 to be classified as leap years.
In the given list, all the years are century years: 1600, 1700, 1800, 1900, 2000, 2100, 2200, 2300, and 2400. Applying the divisibility rule for 400:
The leap years in the list are 1600, 2000, and 2400, making a total of 3 leap years.
83Quantitative Aptitude
10 identical coins are lying on a table having head 'H' face as the upper face. In one attempt, exactly four coins can be turned upside down. What is the minimum total number of attempts in which tail 'T' face of all the 10 coins can be brought to be the upper face?
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Answer: (A) 3
Explanation
To change a coin from Head (H) to Tail (T), it must be flipped an odd number of times. Let fᵢ be the number of times the i-th coin is flipped. For all 10 coins to show Tails, fᵢ must be an odd integer (1, 3, 5, …) for each i = 1, 2, …, 10.
The total number of flips in n attempts, where each attempt involves flipping exactly 4 coins, is 4n. The sum of the individual flips must equal this total:
Σ(i=1 to 10) fᵢ = 4n
Since each fᵢ ≥ 1, the sum Σfᵢ must be at least 10. This gives the inequality:
4n ≥ 10 ⇒ n ≥ 2.5
Thus, the minimum possible value for n is 3. We must also satisfy the parity condition: the sum of 10 odd numbers is always an even number. Since 4n is always even for any integer n, the condition is satisfied for n = 3 (4 × 3 = 12). We can distribute 12 flips among 10 coins by flipping one coin three times and the other nine coins once each (3 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 1 = 12).
A possible sequence of 3 attempts is:
Attempt 1: Flip coins 1, 2, 3, 4.
Attempt 2: Flip coins 1, 5, 6, 7.
Attempt 3: Flip coins 1, 8, 9, 10.
In this sequence, coin 1 is flipped 3 times (H → T → H → T), and coins 2 through 10 are flipped exactly once (H → T). Consequently, all 10 coins show Tail faces.
84Logical Reasoning
If
X is richer than Y
Z is richer than X
P is richer than Z
Q is the richest of all
who among the following will have the central position if they are made to sit in the above degree of richness?
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Answer: (C) Z
Explanation
Based on the information provided, we can establish a linear relationship of richness among the five individuals. We are given that X is richer than Y (X > Y), Z is richer than X (Z > X), and P is richer than Z (P > Z). This creates the sequence P > Z > X > Y. Since Q is the richest of all, the complete descending order of richness is Q > P > Z > X > Y.
In a group of five people arranged in order, the central position is the third position. Counting from either the richest or the poorest end of the sequence (Q, P, Z, X, Y or Y, X, Z, P, Q), the person occupying the third or middle position is Z.
85Quantitative Aptitude
A and B take part in 100 meters race, where A beats B by 10 meters. To favour B , A starts 10 meters behind the starting line in a second 100 meters race, running at their earlier speeds. Which one among the following is true in view of the second race?
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Answer: (D) A beats B by 1 meter
Explanation
In the first race of 100 meters, A beats B by 10 meters. This implies that in the same time duration, A covers 100 meters while B covers 100 - 10 = 90 meters. Therefore, the ratio of their speeds is v_A/v_B = 100/90 = 10/9.
In the second race, A starts 10 meters behind the starting line, making the total distance for A equal to 100 + 10 = 110 meters. B still has to run the standard 100 meters. The time taken by A to complete the race is T_A = 110/v_A. To find how far B has traveled in this same time, we calculate D_B = v_B × T_A.
Substituting the values, D_B = v_B × (110/v_A) = 110 × (v_B/v_A). Using the speed ratio v_B/v_A = 9/10, we get D_B = 110 × (9/10) = 99 meters. Since B has covered only 99 meters of the 100-meter race when A reaches the finish line, A beats B by 100 - 99 = 1 meter.
86Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
1. The Rajya Sabha is never dissolved and can be called to session any time at short notice.
2. Under the Constitution of India, the law-making powers of the two Houses of the Indian Parliament are symmetrical.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India stipulates that the Rajya Sabha is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. While one-third of its members retire every second year, the chamber itself continues to exist indefinitely. This permanent status ensures that the Rajya Sabha is always available to be summoned by the President under Article 85(1) to perform critical constitutional duties, even when the Lok Sabha has been dissolved. This is particularly relevant for the approval of proclamations related to National Emergency, President's Rule, or Financial Emergency under Articles 352, 356, and 360, respectively, which must be ratified by the Rajya Sabha if the Lok Sabha is not in session.
The legislative powers of the two Houses are asymmetrical rather than symmetrical. The Lok Sabha holds exclusive power over Money Bills under Article 110; such bills can only be introduced in the lower house, and the Rajya Sabha can neither reject nor amend them, being limited to making recommendations within a 14-day period. Additionally, in the event of a deadlock over ordinary legislation, Article 108 provides for a joint sitting where the Lok Sabha, by virtue of its much larger membership, generally prevails over the Rajya Sabha. These constitutional provisions create a clear hierarchy in legislative and financial authority.
87Polity and Governance
Which of the following was/were the essence of the peace-building efforts of the United Nations from 1980s onwards?
1. To resolve underlying disputes between the belligerents
2. To monitor arms control agreements
3. Providing development assistance to maintain peace
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2
Explanation
The essence of United Nations peace-building efforts from the late 1980s onwards involved a transition toward multidimensional operations aimed at ensuring the long-term sustainability of peace. A central pillar of this approach was to resolve the underlying disputes between belligerents, moving beyond the mere separation of forces to address the root political, social, and territorial causes of conflict.
Additionally, monitoring arms control agreements and ceasefires became a fundamental component of these missions. By overseeing the withdrawal of troops, the demobilization of combatant forces, and the decommissioning of weaponry, the UN provided the necessary transparency and security guarantees to prevent a relapse into hostilities. These efforts were designed to build the mutual trust required for transitional political processes to succeed in post-conflict environments.
88Polity and Governance
Which one among the following treaties of human rights was signed but not yet ratified by India?
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Answer: (D) United Nations Convention against Torture
Explanation
India signed the United Nations Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment (UNCAT) on October 14, 1997. Despite being a signatory for many years, India had not ratified the treaty as of 2012. Ratification requires the enactment of domestic enabling legislation to ensure that the definition and punishment of torture in Indian law conform to the standards set by the convention. While the Prevention of Torture Bill was introduced in Parliament in 2010 to facilitate this process, it faced legislative hurdles and was not passed into law during the period in question, leaving the treaty signed but not ratified.
89Polity and Governance
As part of a framework of human rights law, all human rights are
1. interdependent
2. interrelated
3. indivisible
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The principles of human rights are formally defined by the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action, adopted at the 1993 World Conference on Human Rights. This declaration establishes that all human rights are universal, indivisible, interdependent, and interrelated. Indivisibility implies that civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights are of equal importance and cannot be separated or selectively applied. Interdependence and interrelatedness mean that the improvement of one right facilitates the advancement of others, while the deprivation of one right adversely affects the realization of others. For example, the right to vote (political) is linked to the right to education (social) and the right to an adequate standard of living (economic). The international legal framework treats these rights as a holistic and organic whole, requiring they be addressed with the same emphasis and global priority.
90Economy
Which of the following statements about Ecomark is/are correct?
1. Ecomark is a certification mark issued by the Bureau of Indian Standard for the product conforming to a set of standards aimed at the least impact on ecosystem.
2. The purpose of the mark is to increase awareness among the consumers towards reducing environmental impact.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Ecomark scheme was launched by the Government of India in 1991 to encourage consumers to buy products that cause less damage to the environment. The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is the designated authority that grants this certification mark to products that meet specific environmental and quality standards. The primary objectives of the scheme include reducing the environmental impact of consumer goods and increasing public awareness regarding the ecological consequences of consumption. By providing an incentive for manufacturers to adopt environment-friendly processes, the mark serves as a tool for both market-driven environmental protection and consumer education.
91Science and Technology
In most of the children's toys, a toxic chemical remains present. In this respect, which among the following statements is/are correct?
1. The name of the toxic element is phthalates which are esters of phthalic acid.
2. They are mainly used as plasticizers, i.e., substances added to plastics to increase their flexibility and longevity.
3. They are easily released into environment because there is no covalent bond between the phthalates and plastics in which they are mixed.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Phthalates are a group of chemical compounds primarily used as plasticizers to increase the flexibility, transparency, durability, and longevity of plastics, particularly polyvinyl chloride (PVC). Chemically, they are esters of phthalic acid (1,2-benzenedicarboxylic acid).
In the manufacturing of toys and other plastic products, phthalates are not chemically bound to the polymer chain by covalent bonds. Instead, they are physically mixed into the plastic matrix. Because there is no strong chemical bond, these molecules can easily migrate or leach out of the plastic over time or when subjected to heat, mechanical pressure, or solvents like saliva. This characteristic makes them environmental contaminants and poses health risks to children who may chew on or handle these toys. In 2012, awareness regarding these substances led to increased regulations globally concerning their use in childcare articles.
92History
Given below are some of the important training institutes of the Indian Army:
1. High Altitude Warfare School
2. College of Military Engineering
3. Army War College
4. Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School
Arrange the locations of the above institutes from North to South.
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Answer: (A) 1-4-3-2
Explanation
The High Altitude Warfare School (HAWS) is located in Gulmarg, Jammu and Kashmir, which is the northernmost location at approximately 34 degrees N latitude. Moving southward, the Counter Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS) is situated in Vairengte, Mizoram, at approximately 24.5 degrees N. Further south is the Army War College (AWC) in Mhow, Madhya Pradesh, located at approximately 22.5 degrees N. The College of Military Engineering (CME) is the southernmost among the options, located in Pune, Maharashtra, at approximately 18.5 degrees N. This establishes the North-to-South order as HAWS (1), CIJWS (4), AWC (3), and CME (2).
93Economy
Which one among the following is the correct descending sequence of India's import of commodities in terms of value?
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Answer: (A) Capital Goods—Electronic Goods—Food Products—Fertilizers
Explanation
Based on the Economic Survey of India for 2011-12, the composition of India's non-petroleum imports identifies Capital Goods as the highest value category among the choices provided. This category, encompassing machinery, transport equipment, and project goods, was essential for the country's industrialization and infrastructure development. Electronic Goods followed as the next significant contributor to the import bill due to rising domestic demand for telecommunications and computing hardware. Food Products, largely consisting of edible oils and pulses to bridge the domestic supply-demand gap, occupied a lower position in terms of total value. Fertilizers, while critical for agricultural productivity, accounted for a smaller percentage of the total import expenditure compared to industrial and high-tech equipment during this specific period.
94History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Governor General) List-II (Important Policy)
A. Lord Cornwallis 1. Partition of Bengal
B. Lord Wellesley 2. Doctrine of Lapse
C. Lord Dalhousie 3. Permanent Settlement
D. Lord Curzon 4. Subsidiary Alliance
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Lord Cornwallis (A) introduced the Permanent Settlement (3) in 1793 to stabilize land revenue collection by granting zamindars hereditary proprietary rights over land at a fixed tax rate.
Lord Wellesley (B) expanded British influence through the Subsidiary Alliance (4) system, which required Indian rulers to disband their own armies and maintain British troops at their own expense in exchange for protection.
Lord Dalhousie (C) utilized the Doctrine of Lapse (2) to annex several princely states, such as Satara and Jhansi, when their rulers died without a natural-born male heir.
Lord Curzon (D) presided over the Partition of Bengal (1) in 1905, a move officially justified by administrative necessity but largely intended to create a communal divide and curb the rising tide of Indian nationalism.
95History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (British Policy) (Consequence)
A. Agrarian Settlements
1. Partition
B. Divide and Rule
2. Famines and popular rebellions
C. Excluding Indians from Government Jobs
3. Increase of home charges
D. Wars and Conquests
4. Alienation of the Indian middle class
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Agrarian Settlements are linked to famines and popular rebellions because the high revenue demands and exploitative nature of systems like the Permanent Settlement and Ryotwari led to peasant indebtedness and widespread unrest.
Divide and Rule is linked to Partition because the British policy of fostering communal identities and pitting religious groups against each other to prevent a united nationalist front eventually resulted in the division of the country.
Excluding Indians from Government Jobs is linked to the alienation of the Indian middle class because the educated elite were denied high-ranking positions in the bureaucracy and judiciary, leading to deep resentment and the birth of early nationalist movements.
Wars and Conquests are linked to the increase of home charges because the costs associated with expanding the British Empire, including military expenses and debt interest, were transferred to the Indian exchequer and remitted to Britain as part of the drain of wealth.
96History
Who among the following used the term 'Drain of Wealth' for the first time?
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Answer: (C) Dadabhai Naoroji
Explanation
Dadabhai Naoroji, often called the Grand Old Man of India, was the first nationalist leader to propound the Drain of Wealth theory. He initially introduced the concept in 1867 during a meeting of the East India Association in London through his paper England's Debt to India. He further elaborated on this economic critique in his influential book, Poverty and Un-British Rule in India. Naoroji argued that the British were systematically siphoning off India's resources and capital through mechanisms like home charges, interests on public debt, and official salaries, receiving no equivalent economic return in exchange. This drain was highlighted as the fundamental cause of the recurring famines and the extreme poverty faced by the Indian population during the colonial period.
97Polity and Governance
The Government of India has recently established a committee under the chairmanship of S. K. Thorat. What was the mandate of the committee?
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Answer: (C) To review political cartoons and other contents of the social science and political science textbooks for class IX to XII
Explanation
The Ministry of Human Resource Development established the S. K. Thorat Committee in May 2012 following a major controversy in Parliament regarding a cartoon of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and Jawaharlal Nehru in an NCERT Class IX Political Science textbook. The committee was tasked with reviewing political cartoons and other potentially sensitive content in the Social Science and Political Science textbooks for classes IX to XII. The primary objective was to identify and recommend the removal of any depictions or text that could be perceived as offensive to specific communities or individuals, ensuring the educational material remained appropriate for school-aged children. Professor Thorat, a former chairman of the University Grants Commission, led the six-member panel which eventually suggested the removal or modification of several cartoons and portions of text across various textbooks.
98Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Jeet Thayil :
1. He has been nominated for the 2012 Man Booker Prize for his debut novel, Narcopolis.
2. Narcopolis is a novel on the background of communal riots in Gujarat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Jeet Thayil's debut novel Narcopolis was shortlisted for the 2012 Man Booker Prize, making him one of the few Indian debut authors to achieve this recognition. The novel is set primarily in Bombay (now Mumbai) during the 1970s and 1980s and explores the city's underbelly, focusing on an opium den on Shuklaji Street and the lives of its diverse patrons. The narrative deals with themes of addiction, transformation, and the evolution of the city's drug culture from opium to heroin, rather than the communal riots in Gujarat. Since the second statement provides an incorrect thematic background for the book, only the first statement is correct.
99Polity and Governance
Which of the following memorandum of understandings were signed between India and Myanmar on May 2012 when the Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh visited the country?
1. On India-Myanmar border area development
2. On establishment of joint trade and investment forum
3. On establishment of the advance centre for agricultural research and education
4. On establishment of Rice Bio Park at New Delhi
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
During the historic visit of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh to Myanmar in May 2012, twelve Memoranda of Understanding (MoUs) were signed to enhance bilateral cooperation across various sectors. The MoU on India-Myanmar Border Area Development involved a commitment from India to provide an annual grant of 5 million USD for five years to fund small-scale infrastructure projects like schools, bridges, and health centers in the border regions. The agreement to establish a Joint Trade and Investment Forum was aimed at boosting economic ties by facilitating direct interaction between the business communities of both nations. Additionally, the MoU for the Advance Centre for Agricultural Research and Education (ACARE) was signed to set up a state-of-the-art research facility at Yezin Agricultural University in Nay Pyi Taw, Myanmar. While an agreement for a Rice Bio Park was also signed, it was designated to be established in Nay Pyi Taw to help Myanmar farmers utilize rice biomass, not in New Delhi.
100History
Which one among the following statements about Aung San Suu Kyi is not correct?
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Answer: (B) On April 2012, she was elected to the Upper House of the Parliament
Explanation
In the Myanmar by-elections conducted on April 1, 2012, Aung San Suu Kyi won the parliamentary seat for the Kawhmu constituency. This election marked her entry into the Pyithu Hluttaw, which is the Lower House of the Pyidaungsu Hluttaw (Assembly of the Union). The Upper House of the Myanmar Parliament is known as the Amyotha Hluttaw. Since she was elected to the House of Representatives and not the House of Nationalities, the statement regarding her election to the Upper House is factually inaccurate.
101Decision Making
Study the statement and assumptions, and answer the items using the code given below :
Statement : Teaching through TV is to help the students to learn without a teacher.
Assumptions : I. Students want to study without a teacher. II. Teachers are incapable of teaching.
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Answer: (D) Neither I nor II is implied in the statement
Explanation
The statement describes the objective or function of teaching through television, which is to facilitate learning in the absence of a teacher. Assumption I is not implied because the statement focuses on the capability and purpose of the medium rather than the personal preferences or desires of the students. Providing a tool for independent study does not require the premise that students actively want to avoid teachers. Assumption II is also not implied because the introduction of an alternative or supplementary method of instruction does not suggest that the existing method or its practitioners are ineffective. Methods like televised education are often designed for wider reach or flexibility rather than as a reaction to the perceived incompetence of teachers. Both assumptions introduce external motivations and judgments that are not logically necessary for the statement to be valid.
102Decision Making
Study the statement and assumptions, and answer the items using the code given below :
Statement : If you lose after competing hard that is fine. If you lose without trying hard that is what disappoints me.
Assumptions : I. Losing after trying hard is excusable. II. Losing without effort is regrettable.
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Answer: (C) Both I and II are implied in the statement
Explanation
The statement establishes a value system where the speaker differentiates between two types of losses based on the level of effort exerted. By stating that losing after competing hard is fine, the speaker implies that such an outcome is acceptable or excusable, directly supporting Assumption I. Conversely, by expressing disappointment when a loss occurs without effort, the speaker categorizes that specific outcome as regrettable or unsatisfactory, which directly supports Assumption II. Both assumptions are inherent to the logic used by the speaker to define their expectations regarding performance and results.
103Logical Reasoning
Study the statement and assumptions, and answer the items using the code given below :
Statement : Trade union leadership is in the hands of politicians.
Assumptions : I. Trade unions have leaders. II. Leaders are generally politicians.
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Answer: (A) Only I is implied in the statement
Explanation
The statement that trade union leadership is in the hands of politicians fundamentally relies on the premise that trade unions possess a leadership structure. In logical reasoning, an assumption is an unstated premise that must be true for the statement to hold. For the leadership of an organization to be held by a specific group, the role of a leader must necessarily exist within that organization. Therefore, Assumption I is a necessary prerequisite that is taken for granted when making the statement. Assumption II is a categorical generalization asserting that leaders in a broad, universal sense are usually politicians. The statement is restricted specifically to the domain of trade unions and does not require or imply a general rule regarding the identity of leaders in all other fields. Since the statement does not depend on this broader generalization to be valid, only Assumption I is implied.
104Logical Reasoning
Which one among the following options is a word that can be formed from the letters used in INTELLIGENCE?
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Answer: (C) INCITE
Explanation
The word INCITE can be formed from the letters in INTELLIGENCE because every letter required for INCITE is present in the source word. The word INTELLIGENCE contains the letters I (two), N (two), T (one), E (three), L (two), G (one), and C (one). INCITE requires two Is, one N, one C, one T, and one E. Since all these letters are available in the necessary quantities within INTELLIGENCE, the word can be constructed.
105Logical Reasoning
Which one among the following options is a word that cannot be formed from the letters used in INTELLIGENCE?
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Answer: (D) INTENT
Explanation
The word INTELLIGENCE contains the letter T exactly once. However, the word INTENT requires the letter T to appear twice. Because the source word does not provide the second T necessary for the spelling, the word INTENT cannot be formed.
106Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is/are correct?
1. It is an alternative non-judicial channel.
2. Victims of human rights violations can seek reparation through NHRC.
3. It cannot grant immediate relief.
4. It has the direct power of enforcement.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) is established as a statutory, quasi-judicial body that provides an alternative non-judicial channel for the protection and promotion of human rights. It serves as a specialized mechanism to inquire into complaints of human rights violations or negligence in the prevention of such violations by a public servant, functioning outside the traditional court hierarchy. Under Section 18 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the NHRC is explicitly empowered to recommend the payment of compensation or damages to the victims or their families. This allows victims to seek reparation for grievances through the Commission's inquiry and recommendation process. These functions define its role as a remedial body that operates alongside the judiciary to ensure accountability and provide relief to affected persons.
107Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Convention on the Rights of the Child :
1. This is an international treaty which recognizes the human rights of children up to the age of 14 years.
2. It constitutes a common reference against which progress in meeting human right standards for children can be assessed and results compared.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child (UNCRC) is a legally binding international agreement that sets out the civil, political, economic, social, and cultural rights of every child. According to Article 1 of the Convention, a child is defined as every human being below the age of eighteen years, unless under the law applicable to the child, majority is attained earlier. As a universally recognized framework, the Convention establishes a global set of standards and norms. It functions as a common reference point that enables the international community, governments, and non-governmental organizations to assess, monitor, and compare the progress of different nations in upholding human rights for children, ensuring that the development and protection of children are measured against a consistent global benchmark.
108Economy
Which one among the following is not a goal of National Action Plan for Climate Change?
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Answer: (B) To reduce energy consumption through supply side management
Explanation
The National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), launched in 2008, comprises eight national missions dedicated to mitigation and adaptation. The National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE) is the specific component aimed at reducing energy consumption, but its strategy is fundamentally centered on Demand Side Management (DSM) rather than supply-side management. It implements this through market-based mechanisms like the Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme, which assigns energy reduction targets to industrial consumers, and the Market Transformation for Energy Efficiency (MTEE), which encourages the use of energy-efficient appliances. While the government addresses supply-side issues such as power plant efficiency through separate sectoral policies, the NAPCC framework focuses on curbing demand and improving efficiency at the end-use level to achieve its climate objectives.
109Economy
Which of the following service sectors in India had the highest percentage share to India's GDP in the year 2010-2011?
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Answer: (A) Trade, hotels and restaurants
Explanation
According to the Economic Survey of India 2011-12, the trade, hotels, and restaurants sector contributed approximately 16.9 percent to India's Gross Domestic Product at factor cost during the 2010-2011 fiscal year. This sub-sector represented the largest individual share among the service-oriented components of the economy at that time. The sector growth was fueled by the expansion of internal trade and a burgeoning hospitality industry, reflecting the structural shift of the Indian economy toward services. During this period, the broader tertiary sector accounted for more than half of the total GDP, with trade-related activities consistently maintaining the highest percentage share compared to transport, communication, or social services.
110Geography
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The South-East Asian islands are not rich in biodiversity
Explanation
South-East Asian islands, including the archipelagos of Indonesia and the Philippines, are globally recognized as some of the most biodiverse regions on Earth. These islands comprise several major biodiversity hotspots, such as Sundaland, the Philippines, and Wallacea, which exhibit exceptionally high levels of species richness and endemism. The region contains a vast array of tropical rainforests and marine ecosystems that support a significant portion of the world's flora and fauna. Stating that these islands are not rich in biodiversity contradicts all established ecological data, as South-East Asia is a critical focal point for global conservation efforts due to its dense concentration of unique life forms.
111Geography
Which one among the following Indian States shares boundaries with the largest number of States?
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Answer: (D) Assam
Explanation
Assam shares its boundaries with seven Indian states, making it the state with the most neighbors among the given choices. It borders Arunachal Pradesh to the north, Nagaland and Manipur to the east, Mizoram and Tripura to the south, Meghalaya to the southwest, and West Bengal to the west. Its unique geographic location in the Northeast allows it to touch all the other states of the Seven Sisters group, as well as West Bengal, which connects it to the rest of the Indian mainland through the Siliguri Corridor. This extensive domestic connectivity is a defining feature of Assam's geography, complemented by its international borders with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
112Geography
Which one among the following Indian States shares international boundaries with three nations?
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
Arunachal Pradesh is situated in the extreme northeast of India and possesses a unique geographical position sharing international borders with three sovereign countries. It shares its western border with Bhutan, its northern and northeastern border with China, and its eastern border with Myanmar. These international boundaries define the state's strategic importance in the Himalayan region and along the eastern frontier of India.
113Geography
Which one among the following is the nearest from the 'Zero Mile Centre' of India?
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Answer: (B) Charminar
Explanation
The Zero Mile Stone is a historical monument located in Nagpur, Maharashtra, which was designated by the British as the geographical center of undivided India to calculate distances to various parts of the subcontinent. Charminar is located in Hyderabad, which is approximately 420 kilometers away from Nagpur. This distance is the shortest compared to the distances of the other landmarks from the Zero Mile Centre, making Hyderabad the nearest major destination among the provided choices. The measurement of distances from this central point was part of the Great Trigonometrical Survey conducted during the colonial era.
114Geography
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) The mantle is composed of the heaviest materials of the Earth
Explanation
The Earth is internally stratified by density through the process of planetary differentiation. During the planet's molten early stage, the densest and heaviest materials, primarily iron and nickel, sank toward the center to form the core. The mantle, while denser than the crust, is composed of silicate rocks rich in magnesium and iron with an average density ranging from 3.3 to 5.7 g/cm³. In contrast, the Earth's core consists of the heaviest materials with densities reaching up to 13 to 15 g/cm³ at the center. Therefore, the core, not the mantle, contains the heaviest materials of the Earth.
115History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Individual) List-II (Organization)
A. Bhagat Singh 1. Congress
B. Swami Sahajananda 2. Hindustan Socialist Republican Association
C. G. K. Gokhale 3. All India Trade Union Congress
D. S. A. Dange 4. All India Kisan Sabha
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Bhagat Singh was a key leader of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), which was reorganized from the HRA in 1928 at Feroz Shah Kotla to include socialist objectives. Swami Sahajananda Saraswati was the founder and first president of the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS), established in 1936 to organize the peasantry against the zamindari system. Gopal Krishna Gokhale was a prominent moderate leader of the Indian National Congress who served as its president during the 1905 Banaras session. S. A. Dange was a founding member of the Communist Party of India and a pivotal figure in the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), representing the interests of the industrial working class.
116History
Who among the following had written to the Viceroy, "The Congress is as much opposed to victory for Nazism as any British can be. But their objective cannot be carried to the extent of their participation in the war"?
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Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi expressed this sentiment in his communications with Viceroy Lord Linlithgow during the early stages of World War II. While the Indian National Congress and Gandhi were ideologically opposed to the fascist and racist doctrines of Nazism, they refused to participate in the British war effort because the Viceroy had unilaterally declared India a belligerent without consulting Indian representatives. Gandhi clarified that although their moral sympathies lay with the Allied cause against totalitarianism, the Congress would not compromise its struggle for Indian independence or its commitment to non-violence by actively joining a war for British imperial interests. This stance eventually led to the launch of the Individual Satyagraha in 1940 to assert the right of Indians to speak against the war.
117Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about National Green Tribunal is/are correct?
1. It is a specialized body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle environmental disputes involving multidisciplinary issues.
2. The Tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The National Green Tribunal was established in 2010 as a specialized judicial body with the mandate to provide speedy and effective disposal of cases related to environmental protection and conservation. It is designed to handle multidisciplinary issues by including both judicial members and expert members who possess professional qualifications and practical experience in the fields of environmental science, engineering, and technology. According to Section 19 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, nor is it bound by the rules of evidence contained in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. Instead, the Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice and has the power to regulate its own procedure to ensure the effective adjudication of environmental disputes.
118Polity and Governance
Consider the following about the initiatives taken by the Government of India with regard to total sanitation campaign:
1. Implementation of Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan scheme
2. Encouragement of the use of bio-toilet facility developed by DRDO on bio-digester technology
3. Making toilet construction mandatory for every household
Which of the above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Nirmal Bharat Abhiyan was launched in 2012 by restructuring the Total Sanitation Campaign with the objective of accelerating sanitation coverage in rural areas through a community-led, demand-driven approach. This initiative shifted the focus toward achieving "Nirmal Grams" through higher incentives and convergence with other schemes like MNREGA.
Additionally, in 2012, the Ministry of Drinking Water and Sanitation collaborated with the Defence Research and Development Organisation to scale up the use of bio-digester technology for human waste disposal. This technology uses anaerobic microbial consortia to decompose waste into water and methane, providing an eco-friendly bio-toilet solution suitable for diverse climatic conditions and regions with water scarcity. While these programs incentivized and encouraged toilet construction, there was no national legal mandate making toilet construction compulsory for every household in 2012.
119Economy
On June 2012, about 40 nations participated in an Investment Summit held in New Delhi organized by the Confederation of Indian Industry in association with the Government of India to attract foreign direct investment to a country. Which one among the following is the beneficiary country?
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Answer: (A) Afghanistan
Explanation
The Delhi Investment Summit on Afghanistan was held on June 28, 2012, in New Delhi. This major international event was organized by the Confederation of Indian Industry in association with the Government of India's Ministry of External Affairs. The primary objective was to attract foreign direct investment into Afghanistan to support its economic transition and long-term stability. The summit provided a platform for the Afghan government to showcase investment opportunities in sectors such as mining, hydrocarbons, infrastructure, and telecommunications. Representatives from approximately 40 nations and several international organizations participated, highlighting the global effort to integrate Afghanistan into the regional and world economy through private sector-led growth and commercial partnerships.
120Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Vladimir Putin took his oath of office in May 2012 as the President of Russia for the third time defeating Dmitri Medvedev.
2. Mr. Putin has been facing unprecedented challenges after mass protest against his election.
3. Dmitri Medvedev was the Prime Minister of Russia during the presidency of Mr. Putin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The mass protests following the 2011 legislative and 2012 presidential elections, often referred to as the Bolotnaya protests or the Snow Revolution, constituted the largest anti-government demonstrations in Russia since the 1990s, posing a major political challenge to the administration. Additionally, immediately after Vladimir Putin's inauguration for a third term in May 2012, he nominated Dmitri Medvedev to the post of Prime Minister, a move that was confirmed by the State Duma to continue their political partnership.