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CAPF AC Paper I 2021 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 124 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

124
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8
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3427%
  • Geography2218%
  • History2016%
  • Polity and Governance1714%
  • Quantitative Aptitude1512%
  • Economy119%
  • Art and Culture43%
  • Logical Reasoning11%
1Quantitative Aptitude
The time elapsed between viewing a lightning flash and hearing the thunder of a cloud is 10 s. If the speeds of sound and light in air are 330 m/s and 3 × 10⁸ m/s respectively, how far away is the storm?
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Answer: (B) About 3300 m

Explanation

The distance of the storm is calculated using the fundamental relationship d = v × t. Although both light and sound travel from the source to the observer, the speed of light is so great (3 × 10⁸ m/s) that the time taken for the flash to reach the eye is essentially zero for terrestrial distances. Consequently, the time delay of 10 seconds is entirely attributed to the travel time of the sound waves. By substituting the given speed of sound v = 330 m/s and the elapsed time t = 10 s into the formula, the distance is determined as d = 330 m/s × 10 s = 3300 m.

2Science and Technology
What is the approximate wavelength of violet light in air?
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Answer: (D) 0.4 μm

Explanation

The visible light spectrum ranges approximately from 380 nm to 750 nm. Violet light sits at the shortest wavelength end of this visible range, typically spanning from about 380 nm to 450 nm. To convert nanometers to micrometers, the value is divided by 1,000, resulting in a range of 0.38 μm to 0.45 μm. Consequently, 0.4 μm represents the standard approximate wavelength for violet light in air.

3Science and Technology
Which electromagnetic radiation(s) is/are used to cook food?
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Answer: (C) Infrared and microwave radiations

Explanation

Infrared radiation and microwave radiation are both widely utilized for cooking food through different physical mechanisms. Infrared radiation is the primary form of heat transfer in conventional cooking methods such as grilling, toasting, and baking, where it is emitted by hot surfaces or heating elements and absorbed by the food's surface to cause heating. Microwave radiation is specifically employed in microwave ovens to penetrate the food and induce molecular vibration in water, fats, and sugars via dielectric heating. Because both of these electromagnetic waves are fundamental to the operation of common kitchen appliances like ovens, grills, and microwave units, they are both recognized as radiations used for cooking.

4Science and Technology
An object is placed 10 cm in front of a lens. The image formed is real, inverted and of same size as the object. What is the focal length and nature of the lens?
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Answer: (A) 5 cm, converging

Explanation

When a lens forms a real, inverted image of the same size as the object, the magnification m is -1. According to the magnification formula for lenses, m = v/u, which implies v = -u. Given that the object distance u = -10 cm (using standard sign convention), the image distance v must be +10 cm.

Using the lens formula: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u 1/f = 1/10 - 1/(-10) 1/f = 1/10 + 1/10 = 2/10 f = 5 cm

A positive focal length indicates that the lens is a converging (convex) lens. This specific condition occurs when the object is placed at the center of curvature (2f) of the lens, meaning 2f = 10 cm, which directly yields f = 5 cm. Diverging lenses cannot form real images of real objects, further confirming the lens is converging.

5Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements with regard to a short-sighted person is correct?
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Answer: (B) A short-sighted person sees the near objects clearly but distant objects blurred and a concave lens is used to correct this defect.

Explanation

Short-sightedness, medically known as myopia, is a vision defect where a person can see nearby objects with clarity but finds distant objects to be blurred or out of focus. This condition occurs because the light rays entering the eye from a distance converge too quickly, forming an image in front of the retina instead of directly on it. This is typically caused by an eyeball that is too long or a lens system that has excessive refractive power. To correct myopia, a concave lens is utilized. As a diverging lens, the concave lens spreads the incoming light rays before they reach the eye's lens, effectively shifting the focal point backward so that the image is precisely positioned on the retina, thereby restoring clear distance vision.

6Science and Technology
Which one of the following organelles is not found in animal cells?
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Answer: (C) Cell wall

Explanation

Animal cells lack a cell wall, which is a rigid outer layer found in plants, fungi, and most prokaryotes. While plant cells utilize a cell wall made of cellulose for structural support and protection against osmotic pressure, animal cells rely on a flexible plasma membrane as their outermost boundary. This absence of a cell wall allows animal cells to achieve greater mobility and develop diverse shapes, which is essential for the complex movements and specialized tissue structures found in multicellular animals. Structural integrity in animal tissues is instead maintained by the cytoskeleton and the extracellular matrix.

7Science and Technology
Which one of the following plant tissues has large air spaces?
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Answer: (D) Aerenchyma

Explanation

Aerenchyma is a specialized type of parenchyma tissue that contains large, interconnected air cavities or intercellular spaces. These lacunae are primarily found in aquatic plants, also known as hydrophytes. The presence of these large air spaces provides buoyancy to the plant, allowing it to float on the water surface. Furthermore, aerenchyma serves as an internal pathway for the diffusion of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide between the aerial parts of the plant and the submerged tissues, which is essential for respiration in anaerobic or waterlogged conditions.

8Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a connective tissue?
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Answer: (C) Smooth muscle

Explanation

Smooth muscle is classified as a type of muscular tissue rather than connective tissue. While connective tissues are characterized by cells embedded within an extracellular matrix to provide structural support, binding, and protection, muscle tissues are specialized for contraction and movement. Smooth muscle consists of elongated, spindle-shaped, non-striated cells found in the walls of hollow internal organs such as the stomach, intestines, and blood vessels. Its primary function is to facilitate involuntary movements like peristalsis, which distinguishes it functionally and histologically from the supportive roles of connective tissues.

9Science and Technology
Which one of the following organisms belongs to the kingdom Monera?
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Answer: (C) Anabaena

Explanation

Anabaena is a genus of filamentous cyanobacteria, commonly known as blue-green algae. According to the five-kingdom classification system, Kingdom Monera comprises all prokaryotic organisms. Since Anabaena is a prokaryote characterized by the absence of a defined nucleus and membrane-bound organelles, it is categorized under this kingdom. It is also recognized for its capacity to fix atmospheric nitrogen within specialized cells called heterocysts.

10Science and Technology
Which one of the following diseases does not transmit through fine droplets coming out from mouth or nose of an infected person?
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Answer: (C) HIV-AIDS

Explanation

HIV-AIDS is caused by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus, which is transmitted exclusively through specific bodily fluids such as blood, semen, pre-seminal fluid, rectal fluids, vaginal fluids, and breast milk. The virus is fragile and cannot survive for long periods outside the human body; it does not spread through the air or via the fine respiratory droplets expelled during coughing, sneezing, or talking. Transmission typically occurs through unprotected sexual intercourse, the sharing of contaminated needles or syringes, or from a mother to her child during pregnancy, childbirth, or breastfeeding. Because the virus is not present in infectious concentrations in saliva, it cannot be transmitted through the droplets that originate from the mouth or nose of an infected individual.

11Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a breakdown product of glucose during respiration?
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Answer: (D) Methanol

Explanation

Methanol is not produced during the metabolic pathways of glucose respiration in living organisms. Cellular respiration involves the breakdown of glucose through glycolysis, followed by either aerobic oxidation or anaerobic fermentation. In aerobic respiration, glucose is completely oxidized to yield carbon dioxide and water (H₂O). In anaerobic conditions, such as fermentation in yeast or metabolic activity in oxygen-deprived muscle cells, glucose is converted into ethanol (C₂H₅OH) or lactic acid (C₃H₆O₃). Methanol (CH₃OH) is a one-carbon alcohol that is not a derivative of the pyruvate processing steps or the citric acid cycle. It is primarily obtained through industrial synthesis or the destructive distillation of wood, rather than the enzymatic breakdown of glucose for energy.

12Science and Technology
Which one of the following is an example of endothermic reaction?
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Answer: (B) CaCO₃(s) → CaO(s) + CO₂(g)

Explanation

The thermal decomposition of calcium carbonate (CaCO₃) into calcium oxide (CaO) and carbon dioxide (CO₂) is a process that requires the absorption of heat energy to break the chemical bonds within the solid lattice. This reaction is typically carried out at high temperatures in a lime kiln. Because the system absorbs energy from its surroundings, the enthalpy change (ΔH) is positive, which is the defining characteristic of an endothermic reaction. In this specific case, heat is a necessary reactant for the conversion of limestone into quicklime.

13Science and Technology
Packets of potato chips are usually flushed with which one of the following gases to prevent rancidity?
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Answer: (C) Nitrogen

Explanation

Rancidity is the process of oxidation of fats and oils present in food materials, which results in an unpleasant smell and taste. To prevent this chemical decomposition, food manufacturers use nitrogen gas to flush the packets of potato chips. Nitrogen is an inert and non-reactive gas that effectively displaces oxygen from the packaging. By creating an oxygen-free environment, nitrogen halts the oxidative rancidity of the oils used in frying the chips and inhibits the growth of aerobic microorganisms. Furthermore, the gas serves as a pressurized cushion within the bag, protecting the delicate chips from physical damage and breakage during shipping and handling.

14Art and Culture
According to early Indian philosophers, what are the basic elements described in Pancha Tattva?
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Answer: (B) Air, Earth, Fire, Sky and Water

Explanation

Early Indian philosophers classified matter into five basic elements known as the Pancha Tattva. These fundamental elements are Air (Vayu), Earth (Prithvi), Fire (Agni), Sky or Space (Akasha), and Water (Jal). This ancient belief posits that everything in the physical world, ranging from living organisms to inanimate objects, is formed through the combination and interaction of these five components. These concepts were central to various schools of Indian thought and are fundamental to systems like Ayurveda, where they are used to explain the constitution of the human body and the nature of the universe.

15Science and Technology
A milkman adds a small amount of baking soda to milk. This makes the pH of the milk
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Answer: (B) weakly alkaline

Explanation

Fresh milk has a slightly acidic pH of approximately 6.6. Baking soda, or sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), is a basic salt. When a small amount of baking soda is added to milk, it neutralizes the lactic acid present and shifts the pH of the mixture toward the alkaline side of the scale. This change makes the milk weakly alkaline, typically raising the pH to a level slightly above 7. This practice is commonly used by milkmen to slow down the fermentation process and prevent the milk from turning sour or curdling quickly, as the bacteria that produce lactic acid take longer to lower the pH back to the acidic levels required for coagulation.

16Science and Technology
Which one of the following metal oxides does not usually react with sodium hydroxide?
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Answer: (A) Copper oxide

Explanation

Copper oxide (CuO) is a basic oxide. In chemical reactions, basic oxides typically react with acids to form salt and water but do not react with strong bases like sodium hydroxide (NaOH). Since sodium hydroxide is itself a strong base, there is no neutralization or chemical affinity between the two substances. Unlike amphoteric oxides, which exhibit both acidic and basic properties and can react with NaOH to form soluble complex salts, copper oxide lacks acidic character and remains chemically unreactive in the presence of sodium hydroxide under standard conditions.

17Science and Technology
When calcium metal reacts with sulphuric acid, the reaction stops after a short while. Why?
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Answer: (B) Formed calcium sulphate is insoluble in water and covers the calcium metal, preventing it from reacting any further

Explanation

When calcium reacts with sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), the chemical reaction produces calcium sulphate (CaSO₄) and hydrogen gas (H₂). Calcium sulphate is a sparingly soluble salt that precipitates as a solid. This solid CaSO₄ forms a thin, dense layer on the surface of the calcium metal. This layer acts as a physical barrier that prevents the sulphuric acid from coming into contact with the unreacted calcium underneath. Since the reactants are physically separated by this insoluble coating, the reaction is inhibited and eventually stops shortly after it begins.

18Science and Technology
When a white light beam is made to fall on a hollow prism filled with water, it breaks into seven constituent colours. Which of the following colours suffers the maximum angle of deviation?
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Answer: (B) Violet

Explanation

When white light passes through a prism, the degree of bending or deviation depends on the refractive index of the material for each specific wavelength. The relationship is defined by the formula δ = (μ - 1)A, where δ is the angle of deviation, μ is the refractive index, and A is the prism angle. Based on Cauchy's equation, the refractive index μ is inversely proportional to the wavelength λ of light. Since violet light has the shortest wavelength among the seven constituent colours of the visible spectrum, it encounters the highest refractive index while passing through the water-filled prism. This higher refractive index leads to the greatest change in speed and direction, resulting in violet light suffering the maximum angle of deviation.

19Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a luminous object?
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Answer: (C) Jupiter

Explanation

Jupiter is a planet and is classified as a non-luminous object because it does not produce its own visible light. Unlike stars, which generate light through nuclear fusion in their cores, planets do not have an internal source of energy that allows them to emit light in the visible spectrum. Jupiter is visible in the night sky only because it reflects the light emitted by the Sun. Although it radiates some energy in the infrared range due to its internal heat, it remains a non-luminous body in the context of visible light emission.

20Science and Technology
Let an electric current of 1.5 A flow through an incandescent lamp in a circuit. What is the amount of charge that flows through it in 10 ms?
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Answer: (A) 0.015 C

Explanation

The electric charge Q flowing through a conductor is given by the formula Q = I × t, where I is the electric current and t is the time duration. Given the current I = 1.5 A and the time t = 10 ms, we first convert the time into the standard unit of seconds. Since 1 ms = 10⁻³ s, the time t is 10 × 10⁻³ s, which simplifies to 0.01 s. Substituting these values into the charge formula: Q = 1.5 A × 0.01 s = 0.015 C.

21Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a renewable energy source?
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Answer: (C) Nuclear

Explanation

Nuclear energy is classified as a non-renewable energy source because it relies on the fission of specific radioactive isotopes, such as Uranium-235, which are finite mineral resources found in the Earth's crust. These elements were formed through stellar nucleosynthesis and are present in limited quantities that do not replenish over time. Since the extraction and consumption of these nuclear fuels lead to their eventual exhaustion, the process does not meet the criteria for renewability, which requires a source to be naturally and indefinitely replenished on a human timescale.

22Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a function of chlorophyll?
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Answer: (C) Oxidation of carbohydrate

Explanation

Chlorophyll is the primary pigment in plants responsible for capturing light energy to drive photosynthesis. During the light-dependent reactions, chlorophyll absorbs photons, becomes excited, and facilitates the conversion of light energy into chemical energy in the form of ATP and NADPH. This process also involves the photolysis or splitting of water molecules to provide electrons for the electron transport chain. Conversely, the oxidation of carbohydrates is the defining characteristic of cellular respiration, a catabolic process that breaks down glucose to release energy, which occurs primarily in the cytoplasm and mitochondria rather than being a function of chlorophyll.

23Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about life processes in single-celled organisms is not correct?
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Answer: (A) They require separate organ for food uptake.

Explanation

Single-celled organisms have their entire body surface in contact with the surrounding environment, which allows for the direct exchange of materials. Unlike multicellular organisms that possess complex organ systems, unicellular organisms perform vital life processes such as nutrition, respiration, and excretion through the cell membrane. Food uptake in these organisms occurs through mechanisms like diffusion, phagocytosis, or the use of temporary cellular structures like pseudopodia in Amoeba. Since these are cellular-level processes and not specialized multicellular structures, the requirement for separate organs for food uptake does not apply to single-celled organisms.

24Science and Technology
Which one of the following organisms does not possess notochord at any stage of its life cycle?
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Answer: (A) Holothuria

Explanation

Holothuria, commonly known as the sea cucumber, belongs to the Phylum Echinodermata. This phylum consists of marine invertebrates that are characterized by a water vascular system, radial symmetry in adults, and a calcareous endoskeleton. Unlike organisms in the Phylum Chordata, echinoderms are non-chordates and do not possess a notochord, dorsal hollow nerve cord, or pharyngeal gill slits at any stage of their embryonic or adult life cycles. While they are deuterostomes like chordates, they lack the structural support provided by a notochord.

25Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Hydrotropic: Flower

Explanation

Hydrotropism is a plant growth response where the direction of growth is determined by a gradient in water concentration. This physiological process is most prominently observed in plant roots, which demonstrate positive hydrotropism by growing toward areas of higher moisture to ensure the plant receives adequate water and minerals for survival. Flowers, however, do not exhibit hydrotropic growth. The movement and development of flowers are primarily influenced by phototropism, which is growth toward light, or nastic movements like photonasty and thermonasty, which are non-directional responses to light intensity or temperature changes. Because flowers are specialized reproductive structures rather than water-seeking organs, they do not show a directional growth response to water.

26Science and Technology
Which one of the following metals does not react with oxygen, water or acids?
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Answer: (D) Au

Explanation

Gold (Au) is classified as a noble metal because it occupies a position at the bottom of the reactivity series, indicating extremely low chemical reactivity. Its outer electrons are held tightly by the nucleus, resulting in high ionization energy that makes it resistant to oxidation and chemical attack. Consequently, gold does not react with oxygen in the atmosphere to form oxides, nor does it react with water or steam. It is also chemically resistant to most acids, including strong mineral acids such as HCl or H₂SO₄. This unique chemical stability allows gold to maintain its luster and metallic properties indefinitely in natural environments, which is why it is found in its native metallic state.

27Science and Technology
Which one of the following metals produces hydrogen with cold water?
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Answer: (B) Sodium

Explanation

Sodium is a highly reactive alkali metal positioned near the top of the reactivity series. Due to its low ionization enthalpy, it reacts vigorously and exothermically with cold water to form sodium hydroxide and liberate hydrogen gas. The reaction is represented by the chemical equation 2Na(s) + 2H₂O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H₂(g) + heat. The heat released during this process is often sufficient to ignite the hydrogen gas produced. Unlike less reactive metals that require heat or steam to overcome activation energy barriers, sodium possesses enough chemical potential energy to react spontaneously at room temperature.

28Science and Technology
Manganese is extracted by heating manganese dioxide with aluminium powder. Which one of the following statements with regard to the reaction is correct?
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Answer: (A) The reaction is exothermic.

Explanation

The extraction of manganese from manganese dioxide using aluminium powder is a displacement reaction where aluminium, being more reactive than manganese, reduces the oxide to metal. The chemical equation for this process is 3MnO₂(s) + 4Al(s) → 3Mn(l) + 2Al₂O₃(s) + Heat. This reaction is highly exothermic because the formation of aluminium oxide releases a very large amount of energy. The heat evolved is so significant that the temperature of the reaction mixture rises above the melting point of manganese (1246°C), resulting in the manganese being produced in a molten (liquid) state. Such aluminothermic reactions are standard industrial methods for reducing metal oxides that cannot be easily reduced by carbon.

29Science and Technology
Which one of the following properties decreases across the periodic table from left to right and increases from top to bottom?
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Answer: (D) Atomic radius

Explanation

Atomic radius is defined as the distance from the center of the nucleus to the outermost electron shell. As one moves across a period from left to right, the number of protons in the nucleus increases, which leads to a higher effective nuclear charge (Z_eff). This increased positive charge exerts a stronger pull on the electrons in the same principal energy level, drawing them closer to the nucleus and resulting in a decrease in atomic size. Moving down a group from top to bottom, the principal quantum number (n) increases because new electron shells are added. These additional shells significantly increase the distance of the valence electrons from the nucleus and provide an effective shield against the nuclear charge, causing the atomic radius to increase despite the increase in the number of protons.

30Economy
Which one of the following statements about production possibility frontier is not correct?
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Answer: (D) On the production possibility frontier, the output of one commodity can be increased without changing the output of another commodity.

Explanation

The Production Possibility Frontier represents the maximum combination of two goods that an economy can produce by fully and efficiently utilizing its limited resources and technology. Because resources are finite and scarce, the economy faces a fundamental trade-off known as opportunity cost. When an economy is operating on the frontier, it is at full productive capacity, meaning all available resources are already optimized. To increase the production of one commodity, resources must be diverted away from the production of the other commodity, which inevitably results in a decrease in the output of that second good. Therefore, on the frontier, it is impossible to increase the output of one commodity without changing (specifically, decreasing) the output of another. This inverse relationship and the necessity of sacrifice are the reasons why the frontier is downward-sloping. Only if the economy were operating at a point inside the frontier, representing inefficiency or underemployment of resources, could the output of one good be increased without reducing the other.

31Economy
How is the magnitude of price elasticity for an individual good determined? 1. By the degree to which the good is a necessity or luxury 2. By the extent to which substitutes are available 3. By the rate of income growth in the economy 4. By the relative importance of the good in the consumer's budget Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The price elasticity of demand for an individual good measures the sensitivity of the quantity demanded to a change in its price. This magnitude is determined by several specific factors related to consumer behavior and the nature of the product. The availability of close substitutes is a critical determinant; when many substitutes exist, consumers can easily switch to another product if the price of the original good rises, resulting in higher elasticity. The classification of a good as a necessity or a luxury also plays a vital role. Necessities tend to have inelastic demand because consumers continue to buy them even when prices rise, whereas luxuries are more elastic as consumers can forgo them more easily. Furthermore, the proportion of a consumer's income spent on a good influences elasticity. If a good represents a large share of the consumer's total budget, they are more likely to respond significantly to price changes, making the demand for that good more elastic compared to items that account for a negligible portion of their spending.

32Economy
Which one of the following functions as an automatic stabilizer in the context of fiscal and monetary policies of an economy?
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Answer: (A) Personal income tax

Explanation

Personal income tax functions as an automatic stabilizer because it automatically adjusts the level of aggregate demand in response to changes in the economic cycle without requiring specific legislative action. In a progressive tax system, as the economy expands and national income rises, individuals move into higher tax brackets, leading to a more than proportionate increase in tax revenues. This siphons off excess purchasing power and helps prevent inflation. Conversely, during a recession, as incomes drop, individuals fall into lower tax brackets or pay lower effective rates, which reduces the tax burden and leaves more disposable income in the hands of households. This supports consumption and mitigates the depth of the economic downturn, thereby smoothing out the fluctuations of the business cycle.

33Geography
Broadly both birth and death rates are low in which one of the following stages of demographic transition model?
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Answer: (D) Low stationary stage

Explanation

In the low stationary stage of the Demographic Transition Model, both birth rates and death rates are at low levels, leading to a stable or very slowly growing population. This stage is characteristic of advanced, industrialized, and urbanized societies. The death rate remains low due to high standards of living, advanced medical technology, and efficient healthcare systems. Simultaneously, the birth rate declines significantly because of factors such as increased access to contraception, higher levels of female education, late marriages, and the rising economic cost of raising children. As the birth rate falls to meet the low death rate, the population growth rate approaches zero, resulting in a stationary population at a high total number.

34Geography
Which one of the following is a pull factor for migration?
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Answer: (B) High wage

Explanation

Migration is primarily driven by push factors, which force individuals to leave their place of origin, and pull factors, which attract them to a specific destination. Pull factors represent the positive conditions and opportunities available in the receiving area that promise a better quality of life. High wages serve as a significant economic pull factor because they offer the prospect of increased financial stability, improved living standards, and better social mobility. Individuals are incentivized to move to regions or urban centers where the labor market provides higher compensation than what is available in their home region, making it a key driver for voluntary economic migration.

35Geography
What is the depression at the top of a volcano following a volcanic eruption called?
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Answer: (D) Crater

Explanation

A volcanic crater is a bowl-shaped or funnel-shaped depression found at the summit or on the flanks of a volcano. It is formed during an eruption when volcanic material such as ash, lava, and rocks are explosively ejected from the vent. The removal of this material, combined with the force of the explosion, creates the hollowed-out feature at the top of the volcanic cone. In some cases, a crater may also form or enlarge due to the collapse of the surface into the conduit after an eruptive phase ends.

36Geography
In order to find out the absolute location of a place on the map, which of the following will be required?
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Answer: (C) Both latitude and longitude of the place

Explanation

Absolute location refers to the exact, fixed position of a place on the Earth's surface, independent of its relationship to other landmarks. To define such a point on a spherical or ellipsoidal body like Earth, a two-dimensional grid system known as the geographic coordinate system is utilized. This system relies on the intersection of two sets of imaginary lines: latitudes and longitudes. Latitudes measure the angular distance of a place north or south of the Equator, while longitudes measure the angular distance east or west of the Prime Meridian. Since a single coordinate value defines an entire line or circle around the globe, both coordinates must be provided simultaneously to determine the unique point of intersection where the specific place is located.

37Science and Technology
The speed of the wind is measured by
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Answer: (D) anemometer

Explanation

An anemometer is a standard meteorological instrument used specifically to measure wind speed and pressure. The name is derived from the Greek word anemos, meaning wind. In its most common form, the cup anemometer, three or four hemispherical cups are mounted on horizontal arms attached to a vertical shaft. The flow of air past the cups in any horizontal direction turns the shaft at a rate that is proportional to the wind speed. Modern versions may also use ultrasonic sensors or hot-wire technology to provide precise digital readings of wind velocity and direction.

38Geography
In the course of a river, in time, which one of the following features is formed when the old meander is closed off by deposition?
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Answer: (C) Oxbow lake

Explanation

An oxbow lake is formed through a process of lateral erosion and deposition in a meandering river. As a river flows through a flood plain, it creates winding loops known as meanders. Over time, erosion occurs on the outer banks while sediment is deposited on the inner banks, causing the meander loop to become more pronounced and the neck of the meander to narrow. During periods of high water or flooding, the river eventually breaches the narrow neck, taking a straighter path and bypassing the loop. Subsequent deposition of silt and sediment at the entrance and exit of the abandoned loop eventually seals it off from the main river channel, leaving behind a crescent-shaped body of water known as an oxbow lake.

39History
Most of the mature Harappan sites in the region of Cholistan had been abandoned during
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Answer: (C) C. 1800 BCE

Explanation

The abandonment of most mature Harappan sites in the Cholistan region occurred around 1800 BCE, signifying a major demographic shift in the Indus Valley Civilization. During this period, archaeological evidence indicates a significant movement of population away from the core river valleys of the Cholistan desert toward newer, smaller settlements in Gujarat, Haryana, and western Uttar Pradesh. This mass migration is primarily attributed to environmental factors, most notably the drying up of the Hakra River, which had previously supported a high density of urban centers. This decline in the Cholistan region marked the end of the Mature Harappan phase and the transition into the Late Harappan period, which was characterized by a loss of specialized crafts, standardized weights, and large-scale urban planning.

40History
Madhyamika Karika, the basic text of Madhyamika School, was composed by
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Answer: (A) Nagarjuna

Explanation

Nagarjuna, a prominent Indian Buddhist philosopher who lived around the 2nd century CE, authored the Mulamadhyamakakarika, also known as the Madhyamika Karika or Fundamental Verses on the Middle Way. This text serves as the foundational treatise for the Madhyamika school of Mahayana Buddhism. In this work, Nagarjuna systematically developed the doctrine of Sunyata, or emptiness, arguing that all phenomena are empty of inherent existence (svabhava) because they arise dependently. By demonstrating the logical contradictions in the concept of independent existence, he established a philosophical middle way that avoids the extremes of eternalism and nihilism, profoundly influencing the development of Buddhist thought across Asia.

41History
Which one of the following pairs of authors and Sanskrit literary works is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Kalidasa : Vasavadatta

Explanation

Vasavadatta is a celebrated Sanskrit prose romance authored by Subandhu, who is believed to have lived in the late 6th or early 7th century CE. The work is famous for its highly stylized language and the extensive use of shlesha or double meanings. Kalidasa, while a legendary figure in Sanskrit literature, is the author of works such as the plays Abhijnanashakuntalam and Vikramorvashiyam, and the poems Raghuvamsha, Kumarasambhava, and Meghaduta. He is not associated with the authorship of the prose romance Vasavadatta.

42Art and Culture
In the Mathura School of Art, Buddha's images are largely carved in
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Answer: (B) Abhaya Mudra

Explanation

The Mathura School of Art, which flourished under the patronage of the Kushana rulers, is known for creating the earliest indigenous anthropomorphic representations of the Buddha. Sculptures from this school are typically carved from local red spotted sandstone and depict the Buddha with a sturdy, fleshy physique. The most prominent and characteristic hand gesture used in these early Mathura images is the Abhaya Mudra, which represents fearlessness, reassurance, and protection. In this iconography, the Buddha is shown with his right hand raised to shoulder height, the palm facing outward and the fingers pointing upward. This specific gesture was intended to convey a sense of peace and security to the devotee, reflecting the benevolent nature of the Buddha as visualized by the Mathura artisans.

43History
The Mauryan capital of Pataliputra has been associated with the archaeological remains of
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Answer: (C) Kumrahar and Bulandibagh

Explanation

The Mauryan capital Pataliputra is primarily identified with the archaeological remains found at Kumrahar and Bulandibagh in present-day Patna. Kumrahar is famous for the discovery of an eighty-pillared pillared hall, often interpreted as the Mauryan royal palace or a ceremonial assembly hall, which showcased the use of polished sandstone. Bulandibagh provided crucial evidence of the city's defenses, specifically the remains of a massive wooden palisade that served as a fortification wall. These findings corroborate the detailed accounts of the Greek ambassador Megasthenes, who described Pataliputra as a city protected by wooden walls with holes for archers and surrounded by a deep moat. Archaeological excavations conducted by experts like D.B. Spooner confirmed that these sites represent the core urban and administrative center of the Mauryan Empire.

44History
The Satavahanas are identified in the Puranas by which one of the following epithets?
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Answer: (A) Andhras

Explanation

The Puranas, specifically the Matsya, Vayu, and Vishnu Puranas, identify the Satavahana dynasty by the name Andhras or Andhra-bhrityah. While the contemporary inscriptions and coinage of the dynasty almost exclusively use the name Satavahana, the Puranic genealogical lists categorize these rulers as the Andhra-jatiyah. According to these texts, the Andhra kings succeeded the Kanvas and ruled over the Deccan and parts of central India. This Puranic terminology led many early historians to refer to the Satavahanas as the Andhra dynasty, linking their origins or primary seat of power to the Andhra region.

45Polity and Governance
Which one of the following powers of the Supreme Court is also conferred on a High Court?
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Answer: (C) Power of court of record

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, both the Supreme Court and the High Courts are designated as Courts of Record. Article 129 establishes the Supreme Court as a court of record, while Article 215 confers the same status upon the High Courts. This status implies that the records of the court's proceedings, judgments, and acts are preserved for perpetual memory and testimony, serving as authoritative evidence that cannot be questioned in subordinate courts. Furthermore, being a court of record grants these judicial bodies the inherent power to punish for contempt of themselves, which is essential for maintaining judicial authority and ensuring the administration of justice.

46Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India does not guarantee which one of the following as a fundamental right?
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Answer: (C) Right to property

Explanation

The Right to property was originally incorporated as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(f) and Article 31 of the Constitution. However, the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 removed it from the list of fundamental rights in Part III. It was instead reclassified as a legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution. This article specifies that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. While it remains a constitutional right and a human right, it does not carry the same status or special protections accorded to the fundamental rights.

47Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Supreme Court is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Under Article 129 and Article 144 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has been vested with power to punish for contempt of court.

Explanation

Article 129 of the Constitution of India defines the Supreme Court as a Court of Record and explicitly confers upon it the power to punish for contempt of itself. This authority is further supplemented by Article 142(2), which empowers the Court to make orders for the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself. However, Article 144 stipulates that all authorities, civil and judicial, in the territory of India shall act in aid of the Supreme Court. Article 144 serves as a constitutional mandate for external authorities to assist in the implementation of the Court's orders and does not constitute the legal basis or source of the Court's power to punish for contempt. Consequently, linking the power to punish for contempt to Article 144 is constitutionally incorrect.

48Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Public Accounts Committee is correct?
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Answer: (C) A member of the Committee is given a term for one year.

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee is a standing parliamentary committee whose members are elected annually. According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the committee is constituted for a term not exceeding one year. The members are elected from both Houses of Parliament—specifically 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha—using the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. This annual election process ensures that the committee is regularly reconstituted to maintain continuous parliamentary oversight over the accounts showing the appropriation of sums granted by Parliament for the expenditure of the Government of India.

49Polity and Governance
Who can be appointed as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
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Answer: (C) A distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India

Explanation

Under Article 124(3)(c) of the Constitution of India, a person is eligible for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court if they are a citizen of India and, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist. This provision exists alongside two other primary qualifications: serving as a Judge of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least five years, or practicing as an advocate of a High Court (or two or more such courts in succession) for at least ten years. The distinguished jurist category allows the President the discretion to appoint eminent legal scholars or academicians to the bench, ensuring the Supreme Court can benefit from diverse and profound legal expertise beyond traditional judicial or litigation backgrounds.

50Quantitative Aptitude
Eight metallic balls of one centimetre radius each are melted into one ball. The diameter of the new ball is
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Answer: (C) 4 cm

Explanation

The principle of conservation of volume applies when melting and reshaping objects. The volume of a sphere is calculated using the formula V = (4/3)πr³.

For each of the eight small metallic balls, the radius r is 1 cm. Thus, the volume of one small ball is (4/3)π(1)³ = (4/3)π cubic centimeters. The total volume of all eight balls combined is 8 × (4/3)π.

Let R be the radius of the new larger ball formed by melting these eight balls. Its volume is given by (4/3)πR³. Since the total volume remains the same: (4/3)πR³ = 8 × (4/3)π

By cancelling (4/3)π from both sides of the equation, we get: R³ = 8 Taking the cube root of both sides, R = 2 cm.

The diameter of the new ball is twice its radius, so D = 2 × R = 2 × 2 = 4 cm.

51Quantitative Aptitude
The ratio of monthly incomes of A and B is 7:10. The ratio of their expenditures is 2:3. If each of A and B saves ₹1,000 per month, then what will be the monthly income of B?
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Answer: (B) ₹ 10,000

Explanation

Let the monthly incomes of A and B be 7x and 10x respectively. Since each saves ₹1,000 per month, their expenditures are (7x - 1000) and (10x - 1000). According to the problem, the ratio of their expenditures is 2:3. This gives the following equation:

(7x - 1000) / (10x - 1000) = 2/3

Cross-multiplying to solve for x:

3(7x - 1000) = 2(10x - 1000) 21x - 3000 = 20x - 2000 21x - 20x = 3000 - 2000 x = 1000

The monthly income of B is 10x. Substituting the value of x:

Income of B = 10 × 1000 = ₹10,000

52Quantitative Aptitude
A and B together can finish a job in 20 days. B and C together can finish the same job in 30 days. If A and C together can finish it in 24 days, in how many days can A alone finish the job?
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Answer: (C) 34 2/7 days

Explanation

Let the total work be the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of 20, 30, and 24, which is 120 units.

The efficiency (work done per day) of the pairs is calculated as follows: Efficiency of A + B = 120 / 20 = 6 units/day Efficiency of B + C = 120 / 30 = 4 units/day Efficiency of A + C = 120 / 24 = 5 units/day

Summing these efficiencies gives the combined efficiency of 2(A + B + C): 2(A + B + C) = 6 + 4 + 5 = 15 units/day Efficiency of A + B + C = 15 / 2 = 7.5 units/day

To find the efficiency of A alone, subtract the efficiency of B + C from the total efficiency of A + B + C: Efficiency of A = (A + B + C) - (B + C) = 7.5 - 4 = 3.5 units/day

The number of days A alone takes to finish the job is: Time = Total Work / Efficiency of A Time = 120 / 3.5 = 1200 / 35 = 240 / 7 days

Converting 240/7 into a mixed fraction: 240 ÷ 7 = 34 with a remainder of 2, which equals 34 2/7 days.

53Quantitative Aptitude
A tree is at present 9 feet tall. If every year it grows 1/9 th of its height, what will be the height of the tree after three years?
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Answer: (B) 12.34 feet

Explanation

The height of the tree after three years is calculated using the compound growth formula Hₙ = H₀(1 + r)^n, where Hₙ is the final height, H₀ is the initial height, r is the growth rate per period, and n is the number of periods. Given H₀ = 9 feet, r = 1/9, and n = 3, the formula is applied as follows:

H₃ = 9 × (1 + 1/9)³ H₃ = 9 × (10/9)³ H₃ = 9 × 1000/729 H₃ = 1000/81

Dividing 1000 by 81 yields 12.3456... feet. Rounding or truncating this value to two decimal places gives 12.34 feet.

54Logical Reasoning
If first March of a year is Sunday, which day will be the first February of the next year?
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Answer: (D) Monday

Explanation

To determine the day on February 1st of the following year, we calculate the total number of days between March 1st and the subsequent February 1st.

The number of days in each month from March to January is constant: March: 31 days April: 30 days May: 31 days June: 30 days July: 31 days August: 31 days September: 30 days October: 31 days November: 30 days December: 31 days January: 31 days

Total days = (31 × 7) + (30 × 4) = 217 + 120 = 337 days.

Using the concept of odd days, we divide the total number of days by 7 to find the remainder: 337 ÷ 7 = 48 weeks and 1 odd day.

Since there is 1 odd day, February 1st of the next year will be one day ahead of the day on March 1st of the current year. Given that March 1st is Sunday, February 1st of the next year will be Monday. Note that this calculation remains unchanged regardless of whether it is a leap year, as the extra day (February 29th) falls outside the range between these two specific dates.

55Economy
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) At full employment, the measured unemployment rate is negative.

Explanation

The unemployment rate is defined as the ratio of the number of unemployed persons to the total labor force, expressed as a percentage. Mathematically, u = (U/LF) × 100. Since the number of unemployed individuals (U) and the labor force (LF) are counts of people and cannot be negative, the unemployment rate must always be greater than or equal to zero. Furthermore, the concept of full employment does not imply an unemployment rate of zero or less. In macroeconomics, full employment corresponds to the natural rate of unemployment, which is the sum of frictional and structural unemployment. Even when an economy is performing at its potential, there is always some level of positive unemployment due to people transitioning between jobs or shifts in the industrial structure.

56Economy
The amount by which the equilibrium level of real GDP exceeds the full employment level of GDP is called
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Answer: (B) inflationary gap

Explanation

An inflationary gap occurs when the actual equilibrium level of real GDP in an economy is greater than the full employment level of GDP, also known as potential GDP. This situation arises when the total aggregate demand for goods and services exceeds the economy's maximum sustainable productive capacity. Since the economy is already utilizing all its available resources at the full employment level, the excess demand cannot be met by increasing real production. Instead, this surplus demand puts upward pressure on prices, leading to demand-pull inflation. The gap represents the difference between the current level of real GDP and the GDP that would exist if the economy were operating at full employment.

57Economy
For anything to be recognized as money, it needs to have which of the following characteristics? 1. Act as an intermediate in the exchange process 2. Standard unit for quoting prices 3. Must be easily divisible 4. Have higher value in alternative uses Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Money is defined by specific functions and properties that allow it to facilitate economic transactions. It acts as a medium of exchange, serving as an intermediate tool that is universally accepted for the purchase of goods and services. As a unit of account, it provides a standard numerical scale for quoting prices and measuring the relative value of different items, which simplifies accounting and economic calculation. Additionally, money must possess the physical characteristic of divisibility, meaning it can be easily separated into smaller denominations. This ensures that it can be used for both high-value and low-value transactions without losing its fundamental utility or proportional value in the exchange process.

58Economy
The sectoral shares of Gross Value Added (GVA) for the year 2009-10 to 2018-19 show that the share of service sector in GVA in India has increased over the years. Which among the following have driven the maximum increase?
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Answer: (B) Trade, hotel, transport, communication and services related to broadcasting

Explanation

Between the years 2009-10 and 2018-19, the sub-sector comprising Trade, Hotels, Transport, Communication, and Services related to Broadcasting emerged as the primary driver of the increasing share of the service sector in India's Gross Value Added (GVA). This period was characterized by a significant expansion in digital infrastructure and telecommunications, alongside a robust growth in internal trade and the logistics sector. The rapid adoption of mobile technology and internet services significantly enhanced the contribution of the communication and broadcasting segment. Furthermore, the liberalization of trade and the modernization of transport networks allowed this specific sub-sector to witness a higher percentage point increase in its share of the total GVA compared to other service categories like financial services or public administration. This trend reflects the structural transformation of the Indian economy toward a service-led growth model powered by domestic consumption and connectivity.

59Economy
On the basis of employment conditions, the economy is divided into
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Answer: (A) organized and unorganized sectors

Explanation

The division of the economy into organized and unorganized sectors is based on the terms and conditions of employment offered to the workforce. The organized sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. These entities are registered by the government and are required to follow its rules and regulations, such as the Factories Act, the Minimum Wages Act, and the Shops and Establishments Act. Workers in the organized sector enjoy security of employment, fixed working hours, and various social security benefits like provident fund and medical insurance.

In contrast, the unorganized sector is characterized by small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government. Jobs in this sector are typically low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, or leave due to sickness. Employment is not secure, and people can be asked to leave without any reason. This classification specifically addresses the legal and contractual environment in which labor operates rather than the nature of the economic activity or the ownership of assets.

60Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a type of chemical weathering?
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Answer: (B) Salt crystal growth

Explanation

Salt crystal growth, also known as haloclasty, is a form of physical or mechanical weathering rather than chemical weathering. This process occurs primarily in arid and coastal environments where saline solutions seep into the pores and joints of rocks. As the water evaporates, salt crystals are left behind. These crystals exert significant expansive pressure on the surrounding rock structure as they grow or undergo thermal expansion when heated. This internal stress eventually leads to the physical disintegration and granular fragmentation of the rock. Unlike chemical weathering processes that involve chemical reactions and changes in mineral composition, salt crystal growth relies entirely on mechanical forces to break the rock apart.

61Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Fold Mountain) List-II (Country/Continent) A. Ural 1. South America B. Appalachians 2. South Africa C. Drakensberg 3. Russia D. Andes 4. North America Code :
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Answer: (B) A B C D 3 4 2 1

Explanation

The Ural Mountains are a physiographic and tectonic mountain range that runs north-to-south through western Russia, traditionally considered the boundary between Europe and Asia.

The Appalachians represent a massive system of mountains in eastern North America, formed during the Paleozoic Era, extending primarily through the United States and parts of southeastern Canada.

The Drakensberg is the highest mountain range in Southern Africa, situated within the borders of South Africa and Lesotho, and forms the eastern portion of the Great Escarpment.

The Andes are the longest continental mountain range in the world, stretching along the entire western coast of South America through countries such as Chile, Argentina, Peru, and Colombia.

62Geography
Which of the following main types of iron ores are found in India? 1. Haematite 2. Magnetite 3. Limonite 4. Siderite Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

India is endowed with abundant resources of iron ore, primarily occurring in the form of oxides. The two main types of iron ore found in the country are haematite and magnetite. Haematite (Fe₂O₃) is considered the most important industrial iron ore due to its high iron content, ranging from 60 to 70 percent, and its widespread availability in the states of Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. It is preferred for smelting in blast furnaces because of its superior quality and high concentration of metal.

Magnetite (Fe₃O₄) is the finest iron ore with a very high iron content of up to 72 percent. It possesses excellent magnetic properties, making it highly valuable in the electrical industry. Significant deposits of magnetite are located in the Kudremukh region of Karnataka, as well as in parts of Andhra Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Tamil Nadu. Although limonite and siderite are also found in India, they are lower-grade ores occurring in much smaller quantities and are not considered the primary or main types used for large-scale industrial production.

63Geography
Where is Asan Conservation Reserve located?
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Answer: (B) Uttarakhand

Explanation

Asan Conservation Reserve is situated in the Dehradun district of Uttarakhand at the confluence of the Yamuna and Asan rivers. It gained significant international prominence in October 2020 when it was declared Uttarakhand's first Ramsar site, identifying it as a wetland of international importance. The reserve is a small yet ecologically vital area that serves as a major wintering ground for numerous migratory bird species traveling along the Central Asian Flyway. It supports several globally threatened species, including the Baer's Pochard, Pallas's Fish Eagle, and the White-rumped Vulture, making it a critical site for biodiversity conservation in the Himalayan foothills.

64History
Consider the following statements : 1. The early Sikh Gurus were religious preachers and did not interfere in politics but Guru Arjan extended his good wishes for the rebel prince Khusrau. 2. Guru Arjan attempted to organize the finances by introducing the system of more or less compulsory 'spiritual tribute' to be collected by his agents called Masands. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The early Sikh Gurus primarily focused on spiritual leadership and the social consolidation of the Sikh community, generally avoiding direct political involvement. However, Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Guru, provided his blessings and a tilak of welcome to the rebel prince Khusrau, who had fled against his father, Emperor Jahangir. This event marked a significant shift as it was interpreted by the Mughal state as political support for a rebel, leading to the Guru's subsequent arrest and martyrdom. To support the growing needs of the community and the construction of the Harmandir Sahib, Guru Arjan also institutionalized the Dasvandh system, which mandated that Sikhs contribute one-tenth of their income as a spiritual tribute. This collection was organized through a network of deputies known as Masands, who gathered the offerings from various congregations and delivered them to the Guru, effectively creating a structured financial administration for the Sikh Panth.

65History
Qutb Minar was originally four-storied. Who among the following Delhi Sultans raised the height to the structure by adding the fifth storey?
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Answer: (D) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

Explanation

The Qutb Minar was originally commissioned by Qutb-ud-din Aibak, who completed only the first storey. His successor, Iltutmish, added three more storeys, bringing the total to four. In 1369, the fourth storey was severely damaged by lightning. Firoz Shah Tughlaq repaired the damaged portion and added a fifth storey to the monument, using a combination of white marble and red sandstone. This addition by Firoz Shah Tughlaq increased the overall height of the structure to its present form.

66History
Which one of the following pairs of Deccan Sultanates and their respective regions is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (A) Nizam Shahis : Bijapur

Explanation

The Nizam Shahi dynasty, founded by Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah I in 1490, ruled the Sultanate of Ahmadnagar in the northwestern Deccan. The city of Bijapur was the capital of the Adil Shahi dynasty, which was established by Yusuf Adil Shah following the decline of the Bahmani Sultanate. Because the Nizam Shahis were based in Ahmadnagar and not Bijapur, this pair is the incorrect match among the given options.

67History
Consider the following statements : 1. Under Akbar, the system of Zabt was established over a large area from Punjab to Awadh. 2. In the seventeenth century North India, the system of Zabit lost much ground to the system of Kankut. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Zabt system, also known as the Dahsala system, was a land revenue method introduced during the reign of Akbar and finalized by his revenue minister, Raja Todar Mal. This system relied on the measurement of land and the calculation of revenue based on the average crop yield and market prices of the preceding ten years. It was the predominant system of revenue assessment across the core provinces of the Mughal Empire, spanning a contiguous and extensive territory that included the subas of Lahore (Punjab), Delhi, Agra, Allahabad, and Awadh.

Regarding the seventeenth century, while the Zabt system was rigorous, it was also administratively expensive and required a large staff for annual measurements. Over time, in several parts of North India, it was often replaced by or converted into the Nasaq system, which was a form of summary assessment or a group-based calculation based on past revenue data. The historical record indicates that the Zabt system did not lose ground specifically to Kankut (grain-sharing or crop estimation) during this period, but rather evolved toward simpler administrative forms like Nasaq.

68History
Who among the following warned his colleagues that the Constituent Assembly was British made and was "working the British plan as the British should like it to be worked out"?
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Answer: (A) Somnath Lahiri

Explanation

Somnath Lahiri was the sole Communist Party representative in the Constituent Assembly and a vocal critic of the body's origins and functions. During the debates in December 1946, he expressed a radical perspective, arguing that the Assembly was not a truly sovereign body because it had been created by the British Cabinet Mission Plan. He warned his colleagues that they were working under the shadow of British imperialism and that the British government still held the ultimate power. His statement reflected the communist view that the transition of power was being choreographed by the colonial masters to serve their own strategic interests, suggesting that the Assembly was merely executing a plan as the British intended it to be worked out.

69Polity and Governance
Who among the following fixes the date of election of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
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Answer: (A) The President of India

Explanation

According to Rule 7 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Speaker is held on such date as the President of India may fix. Following the President's decision, the Secretary-General of the Lok Sabha sends a notice of the date to every member of the House. This procedure typically occurs during the first session of a newly constituted Lok Sabha, shortly after the newly elected members have taken their oath or affirmation under the presidency of the Speaker Pro Tem.

70Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about 'personal liberty' is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The majority view of the Supreme Court in A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras case invented 'due process of law'.

Explanation

In the A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras (1950) case, the Supreme Court of India adopted a narrow interpretation of Article 21, specifically ruling that the phrase procedure established by law did not mean due process of law as understood in the United States. The majority view held that the Constitution only protected individuals against arbitrary executive action and not against arbitrary legislative action. Under this interpretation, the judiciary could not question the fairness, justice, or reasonableness of a law passed by the legislature, provided the prescribed procedure was followed. The concept of due process, which mandates that a procedure must be fair, just, and non-arbitrary, was actually established in Indian constitutional law much later through the Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) case.

71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Directive Principles of State Policy is not correct?
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Answer: (B) They can override all the fundamental rights.

Explanation

The Directive Principles of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country but are non-justiciable under Article 37, meaning they are not enforceable by any court. In the constitutional scheme, Fundamental Rights generally hold supremacy over Directive Principles. While Article 31C allows for a limited exception where laws giving effect to the principles in Article 39(b) and 39(c) may override Article 14 and Article 19, this does not apply to all Directive Principles or all Fundamental Rights. The Supreme Court in the Minerva Mills case (1980) reaffirmed that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Part III and Part IV, and giving absolute primacy to one over the other would disturb the basic structure of the Constitution. Fundamental Rights like those guaranteed under Articles 20 and 21 can never be overridden by any Directive Principle.

72Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Preamble to the Constitution of India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The Supreme Court has held that the Preamble cannot be considered as an aid to the legal interpretation of the Constitution, where the language is ambiguous.

Explanation

The Supreme Court has established that the Preamble is a vital tool for constitutional interpretation. In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court famously described the Preamble as a key to open the mind of the makers of the Constitution, noting that it can be used to resolve ambiguities when the language of a specific article is unclear or capable of more than one meaning. This interpretive role was reaffirmed in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), where the Court held that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution and that the provisions of the Constitution must be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble. Therefore, it serves as a significant aid to legal interpretation rather than being excluded from it.

73Polity and Governance
The Electoral College for electing the President of India does not include which of the following? 1. All elected members of the Rajya Sabha 2. All elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States 3. All members of the Legislative Councils of States Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

Under Article 54 of the Constitution of India, the Electoral College for the election of the President consists specifically of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and certain Union Territories. Members of the State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads) are excluded from this college, regardless of whether they are elected or nominated. This exclusion is maintained to ensure federal balance and uniformity, as only a few states in India possess a bicameral legislature. If members of Legislative Councils were included, it would give states with a second chamber an unfair advantage and higher voting weightage compared to states with unicameral legislatures. Therefore, only the representatives directly elected to the Legislative Assemblies and the Parliament participate in the presidential poll.

74Quantitative Aptitude
A, B and C start a business by investing ₹7,000, ₹8,000 and ₹12,000 respectively. After a year, B gets ₹3,200 as his share of profit. What is the total profit?
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Answer: (D) ₹10,800

Explanation

In a partnership where the time period of investment is the same for all partners, the profit is distributed in the ratio of their capital investments.

The ratio of the investments of A, B, and C is: A : B : C = 7000 : 8000 : 12000 = 7 : 8 : 12

The total number of ratio units is 7 + 8 + 12 = 27.

Given that B receives ₹3,200 as his share of the profit, we equate B's share in the ratio (8 units) to this amount: 8 units = 3200 1 unit = 3200/8 = 400

The total profit corresponds to the total ratio units (27). Therefore: Total Profit = 27 × 400 = 10,800

75Quantitative Aptitude
In a stock clearance sale, a shopkeeper gives 40% off on all his items. He incurs a loss of 25% by selling an item of marked price ₹2,000. Which one of the following is the cost price of this item?
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Answer: (C) ₹1,600

Explanation

The Selling Price (SP) is determined by applying the discount to the Marked Price (MP): SP = MP × (1 - Discount Rate) SP = 2000 × (1 - 0.40) = 2000 × 0.60 = ₹1,200

The shopkeeper incurs a loss of 25% on the transaction. The relationship between the Cost Price (CP), Selling Price, and loss percentage is given by the formula: SP = CP × (1 - Loss Rate)

Substituting the known values into the formula: 1200 = CP × (1 - 0.25) 1200 = CP × 0.75

To solve for the Cost Price: CP = 1200 / 0.75 CP = (1200 × 100) / 75 = (1200 × 4) / 3 CP = 400 × 4 = ₹1,600

76Quantitative Aptitude
The average age of Raj and his father is 45 years. If the ages of the father and the grandfather of Raj are respectively two and three times that of Raj, then the age of Raj's grandfather is
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Answer: (B) 90 years

Explanation

Let the age of Raj be R. Based on the problem, the father's age is 2R and the grandfather's age is 3R. The average age of Raj and his father is 45, which means the sum of their ages is 45 × 2 = 90 years.

We can set up the equation: R + 2R = 90 3R = 90 R = 30

The age of Raj is 30 years. Since the grandfather's age is three times that of Raj, his age is: Grandfather = 3 × 30 = 90 years.

77Quantitative Aptitude
The smallest number which when added to 10000 becomes divisible by 20, 24 and 30 is
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Answer: (C) 80

Explanation

To find the smallest number that must be added to 10000 to make it divisible by 20, 24, and 30, we first determine the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of these numbers.

The prime factorizations are: 20 = 2² × 5 24 = 2³ × 3 30 = 2 × 3 × 5

The LCM(20, 24, 30) = 2³ × 3 × 5 = 8 × 15 = 120.

Any number divisible by 20, 24, and 30 must be a multiple of 120. Dividing 10000 by 120: 10000 ÷ 120 = 83 with a remainder of 40 (120 × 83 = 9960).

To find the next multiple of 120 greater than 10000, we multiply 120 by 84: 120 × 84 = 10080.

The smallest number to be added is the difference between this next multiple and 10000: 10080 - 10000 = 80.

Alternatively, using the remainder formula, the number to be added is L - R, where L is the LCM and R is the remainder: 120 - 40 = 80.

78Quantitative Aptitude
Suppose the n th term of a series is 1 + n/2 + n²/2 . If there are 20 terms in the series, then the sum of the series is equal to
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Answer: (D) 1560

Explanation

The sum of a series where the n-th term is aₙ is given by S_N = Σ_(n=1)^(N) aₙ. For the given n-th term aₙ = 1 + n/2 + n²/2 and N = 20 terms, the sum is expressed as:

S_(20) = Σ_(n=1)^(20) (1 + n/2 + n²/2) = Σ_(n=1)^(20) 1 + 1/2 Σ_(n=1)^(20) n + 1/2 Σ_(n=1)^(20) n²

Using the standard summation formulas for the first N natural numbers and their squares: Σ_(n=1)^(N) 1 = N Σ_(n=1)^(N) n = N(N+1)/2 Σ_(n=1)^(N) n² = N(N+1)(2N+1)/6

Substituting N = 20 into these formulas: First part: Σ_(n=1)^(20) 1 = 20 Second part: 1/2 Σ_(n=1)^(20) n = 1/2 [20 × 21/2] = 210/2 = 105 Third part: 1/2 Σ_(n=1)^(20) n² = 1/2 [20 × 21 × 41/6] = 2870/2 = 1435

Combining these components, the total sum of the first 20 terms is: S_(20) = 20 + 105 + 1435 = 1560

79Quantitative Aptitude
How many different words, with or without meaning, can be formed by using the letters of the word COVID?
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Answer: (D) 120

Explanation

The number of different words that can be formed by rearranging the letters of a given word is determined by the total number of permutations of its letters. The word COVID consists of 5 letters: C, O, V, I, and D. All these letters are distinct, meaning there are no repeated characters in the set.

For a set of n distinct objects, the number of possible arrangements is given by the formula n! (n-factorial). Substituting the number of letters in COVID (n = 5) into this formula, we get:

5! = 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1

Performing the multiplication step-by-step, we find that 5 × 4 = 20, then 20 × 3 = 60, then 60 × 2 = 120, and finally 120 × 1 = 120.

Because there are no repeating letters to divide by, the total number of unique arrangements or words that can be formed using the letters C, O, V, I, and D is exactly 120.

80Economy
The widespread deaths due to starvation and epidemics are the characteristics of
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Answer: (A) famine

Explanation

Famine is defined as a catastrophic failure of food security in a region, resulting in widespread acute malnutrition and starvation among the population. This severe deprivation weakens the immune systems of individuals, making them highly susceptible to infectious diseases. Consequently, historical and modern famines are characterized by a sharp increase in mortality rates due to the synergistic relationship between lack of food and the rapid spread of epidemics, such as cholera, typhus, or respiratory infections, which often occur in the unsanitary conditions and social displacement accompanying such crises.

81Economy
The price declared by the Government every year before the sowing season to provide incentives to the farmers is called
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Answer: (C) minimum support price

Explanation

The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a price guarantee mechanism used by the Government of India to protect farmers from excessive price fluctuations and to ensure a stable income. It is announced at the beginning of the sowing season for specific crops based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). By declaring this price beforehand, the government provides an incentive to farmers to invest in better inputs and increase production, as they are assured that the government will purchase their produce at this minimum rate if market prices fall below it. This policy serves as a safety net for agricultural producers and is a key component of India's food security and agricultural pricing strategy.

82Geography
Caves, arches, stacks and stumps are the landscape features of which one of the following?
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Answer: (B) Wave

Explanation

Caves, arches, stacks, and stumps are sequential erosional landforms created by the relentless action of waves on coastal headlands. Wave refraction concentrates energy on the sides of a headland, where hydraulic action and abrasion enlarge cracks into sea caves. When two caves meet from opposite sides or a single cave erodes through the headland, a sea arch is formed. As the arch is further undercut and weakened by weathering, its roof eventually collapses, leaving behind an isolated vertical pillar of rock in the sea known as a stack. Over time, wave attack at the base of the stack causes it to fall, leaving only a low-lying remnant called a stump, which may be submerged during high tide.

83Geography
Which of the following statements about tropical rain forests are correct? 1. The soils of tropical rain forests are quite infertile. 2. The vegetation is evergreen, enabling photosynthesis to take place year around. 3. They have been described as 'deserts covered by trees'. 4. They are most productive land-based ecosystem. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Tropical rain forest soils are predominantly Oxisols and Ultisols, which are heavily leached of nutrients like calcium and magnesium due to high annual precipitation, leaving behind iron and aluminum oxides. This makes the soil itself nutrient-poor. Because most of the ecosystem's nutrients are locked within the living biomass and recycled rapidly through fast decomposition, they are often metaphorically called deserts covered by trees. The consistent warm temperatures and abundant rainfall near the equator eliminate a dormant season, allowing evergreen vegetation to perform photosynthesis and maintain high Net Primary Productivity (NPP) throughout the year. This combination of factors makes tropical rain forests the most productive terrestrial ecosystems on Earth.

84Geography
In which one of the following soils, the salt content is so high that common salt is obtained by evaporating the saline water in some areas?
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Answer: (D) Arid soil

Explanation

Arid soils are characteristically found in dry and semi-dry regions where the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of precipitation. This high evaporation rate leads to the accumulation of soluble salts on the surface and within the soil profile. In many parts of Western Rajasthan and the Rann of Kutch, the concentration of salt is so high that common salt (sodium chloride) is commercially extracted by evaporating the saline water sourced from these soils or the associated saline depressions and lakes. These soils generally have a sandy texture and are poor in organic matter and nitrogen due to the arid climate.

85History
Which of the following statements about Akbar are correct? 1. In 1560s, Akbar had the Fort of Agra constructed. 2. In 1570s, Akbar decided to build a new capital at Fatehpur Sikri. 3. Akbar also commissioned a white marble tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti at Sikri. 4. In 1585, Akbar decided to shift the capital back to Agra. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Akbar initiated the construction of the Agra Fort in 1565, which falls within the 1560s, replacing an earlier brick fortification with a massive red sandstone structure. In the early 1570s, specifically starting in 1571, he decided to build a new capital city at Fatehpur Sikri to honor the Sufi saint Shaikh Salim Chishti. Within the central courtyard of the mosque complex at Fatehpur Sikri, Akbar commissioned the tomb of Shaikh Salim Chishti, which is famous for its elegant white marble construction and delicate lattice screens. In 1585, Akbar shifted the capital to Lahore to better manage the northwestern frontiers, only returning to Agra much later in 1598.

86History
Which of the following statements about Amaranyakas of Vijayanagara are correct? 1. The Amaranyakas were military commanders who were given territories to govern by the Raya. 2. In lieu of their service and also to maintain their contingents, they were paid in cash. 3. They maintained stipulated contingents and elephants. 4. They used to send tribute to the king annually and personally appeared in the royal court with gifts to express their loyalty. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

The Amara-nayaka system was a key political innovation of the Vijayanagara Empire, derived from the iqta system of the Delhi Sultanate. The Amara-nayakas were military commanders who were assigned specific territories, known as amaram, by the Raya to govern and collect revenue. They did not receive cash salaries; instead, they retained a portion of the revenue collected from their assigned lands to support their personal expenses and the maintenance of a stipulated military contingent consisting of horses, elephants, and foot soldiers. This military force provided the Vijayanagara kings with a powerful standing army during periods of conflict. To ensure their continued loyalty and recognize the king's sovereignty, the Amara-nayakas sent a fixed annual tribute to the central treasury and made personal appearances at the royal court during important occasions like the Mahanavami festival, bearing expensive gifts for the Raya.

87History
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched? 1. Permanent Settlement: Lord Cornwallis 2. Ryotwari Settlement : Thomas Munro 3. Mahalwari Settlement : Holt Mackenzie Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Permanent Settlement was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in the Bengal Presidency. This system fixed the land revenue in perpetuity and recognized zamindars as the owners of the land, provided they paid the fixed amount to the British government.

The Ryotwari Settlement was primarily associated with Thomas Munro, who implemented it in the Madras Presidency in 1820 after initial trials by Alexander Read. Under this system, the government dealt directly with the ryots or individual cultivators, who were granted ownership rights as long as they paid the revenue, which was subject to periodic revision.

The Mahalwari Settlement was devised by Holt Mackenzie and came into effect through the Regulation VII of 1822. It was applied in the North-Western Provinces of the Bengal Presidency, Punjab, and parts of Central India. In this system, the revenue was assessed at the level of the village or estate, known as a mahal, and the responsibility for payment was often collective for the entire community.

88History
Who among the following assumed the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah to set himself up as an independent ruler with his base in Hyderabad?
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Answer: (D) Chin Qilich Khan

Explanation

Chin Qilich Khan, also known as Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan Siddiqi, was a powerful noble who served in the Mughal court under multiple emperors. In 1724, following the decline of central Mughal authority, he defeated the Mughal governor of the Deccan, Mubariz Khan, at the Battle of Shakarkhelda. This victory allowed him to establish the autonomous state of Hyderabad. Although he nominally remained a vassal of the Mughal Empire, he ruled independently. In recognition of his dominance, Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah conferred upon him the title Asaf Jah in 1725, leading to the establishment of the Asaf Jahi dynasty. He is widely remembered as Nizam-ul-Mulk, the first Nizam of Hyderabad.

89Polity and Governance
Which one of the following fundamental rights has not been provided to a person?
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Answer: (B) To refuse to give his/her sample of handwriting as evidence to support a prosecution against him/her

Explanation

Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India provides the fundamental right against self-incrimination, which states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. However, in the landmark case of State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad (1961), the Supreme Court clarified that the expression to be a witness refers specifically to testimonial evidence, which involves the communication of the accused's personal knowledge. The court held that providing physical or material evidence, such as handwriting samples, specimen signatures, or thumb impressions, does not constitute being a witness. These are considered mechanical tools used for identification and comparison rather than the disclosure of the accused's private knowledge. Consequently, the legal framework, including provisions in the Code of Criminal Procedure, allows authorities to compel an accused to provide such samples, and a person does not possess a fundamental right to refuse this requirement.

90Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India contains no provision for the constitution of municipalities in every State for
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Answer: (D) an Urban Panchayat

Explanation

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 inserted Part IX-A into the Constitution of India, which deals with Municipalities. Article 243Q specifically mandates the constitution of three types of municipalities in every State: a Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area (an area in transition from a rural area to an urban area), a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area, and a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area. The Constitution makes no mention of an Urban Panchayat, as this term is not part of the formal three-tier structure defined for urban local governance in India. Therefore, while the other structures are constitutionally mandated based on the size and nature of the urban area, an Urban Panchayat is not a recognized constitutional entity.

91Polity and Governance
Consider the following quote : "On the 26th January, 1950, we are going to enter a life of contradictions. In politics we will have equality and in social and economic life we will have inequality." To whom among the following leaders is this quote attributed?
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Answer: (C) B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar made this statement during his concluding speech in the Constituent Assembly on November 25, 1949. He was highlighting the paradox that while the new Constitution would grant every citizen equal political rights through the principle of one man, one vote, and one value, the existing social and economic structures of India were still steeped in deep-seated inequality. Ambedkar warned that if the country failed to address the systemic disparities caused by the caste system and economic deprivation, the political democracy established on January 26, 1950, would remain fragile. He emphasized that for democracy to be truly meaningful, it must be supported by a social and economic foundation that recognizes equality as a fundamental aspect of life, otherwise, those suffering from inequality would eventually undermine the structure of political democracy.

92Polity and Governance
Which one of the following powers has not been conferred on the President of India?
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Answer: (B) To decide at his/her discretion any question regarding disqualification of a Member of the Parliament

Explanation

Article 103 of the Constitution of India provides the mechanism for deciding on the disqualification of Members of Parliament under Article 102(1). While the President is the formal authority who makes the decision, this power is not discretionary. Article 103(2) explicitly mandates that the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and must act according to such opinion, rendering the Commission's advice binding. Furthermore, cases of disqualification arising from the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law) fall under the jurisdiction of the Chairman or the Speaker of the respective House, not the President. Consequently, the President lacks the independent or discretionary authority to decide on the disqualification of legislators.

93Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India case, 1978 is not correct?
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Answer: (B) It was held that a law coming under Article 21 may not satisfy the requirements of Article 19.

Explanation

In the Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India (1978) case, the Supreme Court explicitly overruled the "exclusivity theory" established in the A.K. Gopalan case, which had previously treated fundamental rights as separate, watertight compartments. The Court introduced the concept of the "Golden Triangle," ruling that Articles 14, 19, and 21 are interconnected and must be read together. It held that any law or procedure depriving a person of "personal liberty" under Article 21 cannot be arbitrary; it must be "fair, just, and reasonable." Consequently, such a law is required to satisfy the tests and requirements of Article 19 and Article 14 simultaneously. The statement that a law under Article 21 may not satisfy the requirements of Article 19 directly contradicts this landmark judicial principle.

94Quantitative Aptitude
A shopkeeper gives two consecutive discounts of 10% and 5% respectively on his items. He then adds 20% GST on his items. If an item has marked price 2,000, how much more or less of the actual price of the item a customer has to pay?
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Answer: (B) 2.6% more

Explanation

To find the net percentage change on the marked price, we use the successive percentage change formula or the multiplier method. The marked price undergoes two successive discounts (negative changes) and one tax addition (positive change).

The net multiplier for the final price is calculated as: Final Price Ratio = (1 - d₁/100) × (1 - d₂/100) × (1 + g/100)

Substituting the given values: Final Price Ratio = (1 - 10/100) × (1 - 5/100) × (1 + 20/100) Final Price Ratio = 0.90 × 0.95 × 1.20

Calculating the product: 0.90 × 0.95 = 0.855 0.855 × 1.20 = 1.026

The net percentage change is: Percentage Change = (1.026 - 1) × 100 = +2.6%

Applying this to the given marked price of 2,000: Final Price = 2000 × 1.026 = 2052 Increase in price = 2052 - 2000 = 52 Percentage increase = (52 / 2000) × 100 = 2.6%

Since the result is positive, the customer pays 2.6% more than the initial marked price.

95Quantitative Aptitude
The difference of compound interest and simple interest of a sum of money at the rate of 5% per year for 2 years is 250. The sum is
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Answer: (A) 1,00,000

Explanation

For a period of 2 years, the difference D between Compound Interest and Simple Interest on a principal sum P at an annual rate of interest R is determined by the formula:

D = P × (R/100)²

Given that the difference D is 250 and the rate R is 5%, we substitute these values into the formula:

250 = P × (5/100)²

Simplifying the term in the parentheses:

250 = P × (1/20)²

250 = P × 1/400

To solve for the principal P, multiply the difference by 400:

P = 250 × 400

P = 1,00,000

The calculation shows that the sum of money required to produce a 250 difference between compound and simple interest over 2 years at a 5% interest rate is 1,00,000.

96Quantitative Aptitude
How much water is to be added to 75 ml of alcohol so that the mixture contains 25% of alcohol?
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Answer: (B) 225 ml

Explanation

Let x be the volume of water to be added in ml. The total volume of the final mixture will be the sum of the alcohol and the added water, which is 75 + x ml. The problem states that the alcohol (75 ml) must represent 25% of this total mixture. Using the percentage concentration formula:

(75/(75 + x)) × 100 = 25

Dividing both sides by 25:

(75/(75 + x)) × 4 = 1

Multiplying by the denominator:

300 = 75 + x x = 300 - 75 x = 225 ml

Alternatively, if alcohol constitutes 25% of the mixture, then water must constitute the remaining 75%. This means the ratio of alcohol to water in the final mixture is 25:75 or 1:3. Since the alcohol part is 75 ml, the water part must be 3 × 75 ml, which equals 225 ml.

97Quantitative Aptitude
If 35% of a number is 416 more than 27% of the same number, then the number is
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Answer: (A) 5200

Explanation

Let the number be x. The problem states that the difference between 35% of the number and 27% of the same number is 416. This can be expressed as:

(35% - 27%) of x = 416 8% of x = 416

To find the value of x, we use the formula for percentage: x = (Value/Percentage) × 100 x = (416/8) × 100

Dividing 416 by 8 gives 52. x = 52 × 100 = 5200

98Geography
In India, Cardamom Hills are regarded as a continuation of the
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Answer: (D) Western Ghats

Explanation

The Cardamom Hills, located in the southern part of India across Kerala and Tamil Nadu, are a geographical extension of the Western Ghats. They form the southern segment of this mountain system, situated south of the Palakkad Gap. The range is contiguous with the Anaimalai Hills to the northwest and the Palani Hills to the northeast. As the Western Ghats run approximately 1,600 km along the western edge of the Indian peninsula, the Cardamom Hills serve as one of the final links in this continuous chain of mountains before it reaches the southern tip of the subcontinent.

99Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: | List-I (Tributary) | List-II (River) | |--------------------|-----------------| | A. Sutlej | 4. Indus | | B. Kosi | 3. Ganga | | C. Teesta | 2. Brahmaputra | | D. Chambal | 1. Yamuna |
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Answer: (C) A B C D 4 3 2 1

Explanation

The Sutlej river originates near Lake Rakshastal in Tibet and is a major left-bank tributary of the Indus river system. The Kosi river is an antecedent transboundary river that flows through Nepal and India, eventually joining the Ganga as one of its largest tributaries. The Teesta river, originating from the Pahunri glacier, flows through Sikkim and West Bengal before emptying into the Brahmaputra river in Bangladesh. The Chambal river is a major right-bank tributary of the Yamuna, known for the Chambal ravines and flowing through Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before its confluence with the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh.

100Geography
Which one of the following is the only riverine major port in India?
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Answer: (C) Kolkata

Explanation

The Kolkata Port, officially known as the Syama Prasad Mookerjee Port, is the only major riverine port in India. It is situated on the left bank of the Hooghly River, approximately 203 kilometers inland from the sea. Established by the British East India Company, it is the oldest operating port in India. Unlike coastal ports that are located directly on the seafront, this port relies on the freshwater of the Hooghly River and requires constant dredging to maintain the necessary depth for navigation due to heavy siltation. It serves as a critical gateway for the eastern and northeastern states of India, as well as landlocked neighboring countries like Nepal and Bhutan.

101Geography
Which one of the following is not a desert river?
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Answer: (A) Barak

Explanation

The Barak River originates in the Manipur Hills of Northeast India, specifically near the village of Liyai in Manipur. It flows through the states of Manipur, Mizoram, and Assam before entering Bangladesh, where it splits into the Surma and Kushiyara rivers and eventually becomes part of the Meghna river system. This region is characterized by high annual rainfall and dense tropical forests, making the Barak a perennial river that drains into the Bay of Bengal through the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna delta. It is not associated with arid or semi-arid desert landscapes, distinguishing it from rivers that flow into endorheic basins or seasonal salt marshes like the Rann of Kutch.

102Geography
The heaviest rocks, which are rolled along the river bed in river transport, come under which type of load?
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Answer: (D) Traction load

Explanation

Traction load consists of the largest and heaviest materials transported by a river, such as boulders, cobbles, and large pebbles. Because these materials are too heavy to be suspended in the water or even to bounce along the bed, they are moved by being rolled or dragged along the river channel floor by the shear stress of the flowing water. This process of rolling and sliding usually occurs during periods of high river discharge and velocity, when the energy of the stream is sufficient to overcome the friction and weight of these heavy rocks.

103Geography
Which of the following factors are needed for the growth of corals? 1. Freshwater 2. Clear shallow salt water 3. Plenty of sunlight for photosynthesis 4. Warm water between 23°C and 25°C Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

Coral reefs require specific environmental conditions to thrive. Clear, shallow salt water is essential because it allows sunlight to penetrate to the depths where corals grow. This sunlight is critical for photosynthesis by Zooxanthellae, the symbiotic algae that reside within the coral polyps and provide them with essential nutrients and oxygen. Furthermore, reef-building corals are generally restricted to warm tropical and subtropical waters where the temperature stays within an optimal range, typically between 23°C and 25°C, as they are highly sensitive to cold water. High salinity is also a prerequisite for their skeletal development and survival, as corals are marine organisms that cannot tolerate the low salinity levels or high sediment loads often associated with freshwater influxes.

104Geography
Convection currents, which move the tectonic plates, are found in which layer of the earth?
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Answer: (B) Mantle

Explanation

Convection currents occur within the Earth's mantle due to the heat generated from the core and the decay of radioactive elements. This heat causes the semi-molten rock in the asthenosphere—the upper, more plastic part of the mantle—to expand and become less dense. As the material heats up, it rises toward the lithosphere, moves horizontally as it cools, and then sinks back down as its density increases. This continuous cycle of rising and sinking material creates large-scale thermal convection cells. These currents act as a mechanical engine that exerts frictional drag on the underside of the tectonic plates, providing the primary driving force for their movement, seafloor spreading, and subduction processes.

105History
Consider the following statements: 1. The growth of socialist tendency in the national movement led to the foundation of the Congress Socialist Party in 1934 under the leadership of Acharya Narendra Deva and Jayaprakash Narayan. 2. In 1936, Jawaharlal Nehru urged the Congress to accept socialism as its goal and to bring itself closer to the peasantry and the working class. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Congress Socialist Party (CSP) was formally established in 1934 within the Indian National Congress to give the national movement a more radical and socialist orientation. This development was a result of the growing influence of left-wing ideologies among the nationalist ranks following the suspension of the Civil Disobedience Movement. The foundation was led by prominent figures such as Acharya Narendra Deva, who served as the first President, and Jayaprakash Narayan, who was the General Secretary.

During the Lucknow session of the Indian National Congress in 1936, Jawaharlal Nehru, in his presidential address, championed the cause of socialism as the only path to solve India's socio-economic problems including poverty and unemployment. He pushed for the Congress to bridge the gap between the political leadership and the masses by actively engaging with the peasantry and the industrial working class. Nehru advocated for the collective affiliation of trade unions and peasant organizations (Kisan Sabhas) with the Congress to transform it into a truly revolutionary mass organization.

106History
Initially, what was the purpose of setting up of the hill stations during the colonial period in India?
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Answer: (D) To set up sanatoria

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The initial development of hill stations by the British in India was primarily motivated by health considerations and the need for medical recuperation. British soldiers and officials frequently suffered from tropical diseases such as cholera, malaria, and heatstroke, which were prevalent in the hot and humid plains. The cooler, temperate climate of the hills was perceived as a healthy alternative that closely mirrored the environment of Europe. Consequently, these locations were established as sanatoria — specialized health resorts where personnel could recover from illnesses and the physical exhaustion caused by the Indian climate. Over time, these sanatoria evolved into more permanent settlements, but their foundational purpose remained rooted in providing a curative and restorative atmosphere for the colonial administration and its military forces.

107History
Who among the following founded the Dharma Sabha?
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Answer: (C) Radhakanta Deb

Explanation

Radhakanta Deb founded the Dharma Sabha in Calcutta in 1830. This orthodox society was established primarily to counter the socio-religious reform movements led by Raja Ram Mohan Roy and the Brahmo Samaj, specifically responding to the 1829 abolition of the practice of Sati. The organization served as a platform for the conservative Hindu elite to protect traditional customs and religious practices from colonial legislative interference. Although the Dharma Sabha was socially conservative, Radhakanta Deb was a proponent of Western education and contributed significantly to the promotion of English learning and female education in Bengal through his involvement with the Hindu College and the Calcutta School Society.

108History
Consider the following Jat peasant leaders of 17th and early 18th centuries: 1. Badan Singh 2. Raja Ram Jat 3. Gokula Jat 4. Churaman Jat Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above leaders?
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Answer: (A) 3-2-4-1

Explanation

Gokula Jat was the first prominent leader who led the Jat uprising against the oppressive policies of Aurangzeb in 1669 near Mathura. After Gokula’s death, Raja Ram Jat assumed leadership and reorganized the Jat forces, notably leading an attack on Akbar's tomb at Sikandra in 1688. He was succeeded by his nephew Churaman Jat, who further consolidated Jat power by constructing the fort of Thun and carving out a territory during the decline of the Mughal Empire in the early 18th century. Finally, Badan Singh, the nephew of Churaman, succeeded him in 1722 and is credited with the formal foundation of the princely state of Bharatpur, ruling until 1756. This sequence reflects the transition of the Jat movement from a localized peasant rebellion to the establishment of a formal state.

109History
Who among the following Bhakti saints did not belong to Nirguna School of Bhakti?
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Answer: (D) Chaitanya

Explanation

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a prominent saint of the Saguna school of Bhakti, which emphasizes the worship of God with specific forms, attributes, and human-like qualities. He was the founder of Gaudiya Vaishnavism and centered his devotion on the worship of Lord Krishna and Radha. Unlike the Nirguna saints who envisioned God as an abstract, formless reality without attributes, Chaitanya promoted the path of ecstatic devotion through Sankirtana, which involves the public chanting of the names of Krishna. His philosophy, known as Achintya-Bheda-Abheda, focuses on the simultaneous oneness and difference between the individual soul and the personal supreme deity. This approach is rooted in the tradition of seeing God as a tangible presence that can be reached through intense personal love and emotional devotion.

110Geography
Volcano Mount Merapi, which erupted in January 2021, is situated in
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Answer: (C) Indonesia

Explanation

Mount Merapi is an active stratovolcano located on the island of Java in Indonesia, specifically on the border between the province of Central Java and the Special Region of Yogyakarta. It is recognized as the most active volcano in Indonesia and has erupted regularly since the mid-16th century. Indonesia is situated on the Pacific Ring of Fire, a horseshoe-shaped belt of high seismic and volcanic activity resulting from the subduction of tectonic plates. The eruption in January 2021 was characterized by the discharge of hot clouds of ash and lava flows that traveled several kilometers down its slopes.

111Science and Technology
E-100 pilot project, launched in Pune in June 2021, is related to the production and distribution of
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Answer: (B) ethanol

Explanation

Prime Minister Narendra Modi launched the E-100 pilot project in Pune on June 5, 2021, to commemorate World Environment Day. This initiative is a significant step toward establishing a robust network for the production and distribution of ethanol across India. The project specifically focuses on setting up ethanol dispensing stations to promote the use of ethanol as a direct fuel for vehicles. It aligns with the government's strategic roadmap to achieve a 20 percent ethanol-blending target in petrol by 2025, which aims to reduce the country's dependence on oil imports and lower carbon emissions from the transport sector. By launching the pilot in Pune, the government intended to test the logistics and infrastructure requirements for distributing pure ethanol (E-100) before scaling the model nationwide.

112Geography
On the occasion of the World Environment Day, 2021, which one of the following was declared as a National Park in India?
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Answer: (A) Raimona

Explanation

On June 5, 2021, coinciding with World Environment Day, the Government of Assam officially notified Raimona as the sixth National Park of the state. Located in the Gossaigaon subdivision of the Kokrajhar district within the Bodoland Territorial Region (BTR), the park spans an area of approximately 422 square kilometers. It forms a vital part of a transboundary landscape, being contiguous with the Phibsoo Wildlife Sanctuary in Bhutan and the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal. The park is renowned for being a significant habitat for the Golden Langur, which serves as the mascot of the Bodoland region, and it also supports diverse wildlife including Asian elephants, tigers, clouded leopards, and several species of orchids and hornbills.

113History
Who among the following has withdrawn from the French Open Tennis Tournament, 2021 in second round after controversy over media obligations?
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Answer: (D) Naomi Osaka

Explanation

Naomi Osaka withdrew from the 2021 French Open following a significant controversy regarding her decision to skip mandatory post-match press conferences. Prior to the tournament, Osaka announced that she would not participate in media sessions to protect her mental health, stating that the nature of many interviews often creates self-doubt and mental strain for athletes. After her first-round victory, she was fined $15,000 by tournament officials and warned of potential disqualification or suspension from future Grand Slams if she continued her boycott. To avoid further escalation and to prioritize her well-being, Osaka chose to withdraw from the tournament before her scheduled second-round match, bringing global attention to the mental health pressures faced by professional tennis players.

114Science and Technology
Heron drones, inducted by Indian forces for enhancing their surveillance capabilities, are acquired from
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Answer: (C) Israel

Explanation

The Heron is a Medium Altitude Long Endurance (MALE) Unmanned Aerial Vehicle (UAV) developed and manufactured by Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). The Indian Armed Forces have long relied on these drones for high-altitude surveillance, reconnaissance, and target acquisition along the borders with China and Pakistan. By 2021, India further enhanced its capabilities by inducting the advanced Heron Mark II version under emergency procurement powers to bolster real-time monitoring and intelligence gathering in sensitive sectors like Eastern Ladakh. These drones are capable of staying airborne for up to 45 hours and are equipped with sophisticated sensors and satellite communication links.

115Geography
Cyclone 'Tauktae' was named by
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Answer: (B) Myanmar

Explanation

Cyclone Tauktae, a powerful tropical storm that formed in the Arabian Sea in May 2021, was named by Myanmar. The name Tauktae is derived from the Burmese language and refers to a gecko, which is a highly vocal lizard species common in the region. This nomenclature follows the established protocol of the World Meteorological Organization/United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific (WMO/ESCAP) Panel on Tropical Cyclones. This intergovernmental body consists of 13 member nations that provide a pre-determined list of names on a rotating basis to identify cyclones in the North Indian Ocean region, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea. The naming system is designed to facilitate disaster awareness, management, and communication across different countries during extreme weather events.

116Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I (Variant of COVID- 19) A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Delta List-II 1. India 2. Brazil 3. Britain 4. South Africa Code :
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Answer: (A) A B C D 3 4 2 1

Explanation

Alpha (B.1.1.7) was first identified in Britain in late 2020 and was the first variant designated as a Variant of Concern by the WHO. Beta (B.1.351) was initially detected in South Africa in October 2020 and showed mutations that influenced vaccine efficacy. Gamma (P.1) was first documented in Brazil and was associated with a major surge of infections in the city of Manaus. Delta (B.1.617.2) was first identified in India in late 2020 and became the dominant global variant during 2021 due to its extremely high transmissibility.

117Science and Technology
Indian Coast Guard Offshore Patrol Vessel 'Sajag', which was commissioned in May 2021, was constructed by
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Answer: (D) M/s Goa Shipyard Limited

Explanation

ICGS Sajag is the third in the series of five Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) designed and built indigenously by M/s Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian Coast Guard. Commissioned on May 28, 2021, by National Security Advisor Ajit Doval, the vessel is part of a contract for five 105-meter OPVs. These vessels are equipped with advanced technology, including integrated platform management systems, navigation and communication equipment, and high-power external fire-fighting systems. The construction of Sajag by Goa Shipyard Limited highlights India's indigenous shipbuilding capabilities under the Make in India initiative, aimed at strengthening maritime security and surveillance within the country's Exclusive Economic Zone.

118Economy
Who among the following was the Head of the Expert Committee on Variable Capital Company in India which has submitted its report recently?
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Answer: (A) K. P. Krishnan

Explanation

Dr. K.P. Krishnan, a former Secretary to the Government of India, chaired the Expert Committee on Variable Capital Company (VCC) constituted by the International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA). The committee was established to examine the feasibility of introducing a VCC structure in India, specifically for use within International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs), to provide a more flexible corporate vehicle for investment funds. The committee submitted its report in May 2021, recommending the adoption of the VCC model to allow funds to efficiently alter their share capital without the restrictive requirements typically found under the Companies Act, thereby bringing Indian fund structures in line with global standards found in jurisdictions like Singapore and Mauritius.

119Polity and Governance
Which one of the following States ranked first on Sustainable Development Goal India Index, 2020-21 released by NITI Aayog?
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

Kerala retained its top rank in the third edition of the NITI Aayog Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index 2020-21 with a composite score of 75. The index evaluates the progress of all Indian states and union territories on various social, economic, and environmental parameters across 115 indicators. Kerala's performance was particularly strong in sectors such as health, education, and poverty reduction, allowing it to maintain its leading position in the national rankings launched by NITI Aayog.

120Geography
Which one of the following is the theme of the World Ocean Day, 2021?
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Answer: (B) The Ocean : Life and Livelihoods

Explanation

The United Nations designated "The Ocean: Life and Livelihoods" as the official theme for World Ocean Day 2021, which is observed annually on June 8th. This theme was chosen to highlight the ocean's role as a primary source of life, supporting humanity and all other organisms on Earth. It specifically focused on how the ocean sustains the livelihoods of billions of people through diverse sectors like fishing, tourism, and international trade. The 2021 observance also served as a declaration of intentions for the launch of the UN Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development (2021–2030), emphasizing the need for international cooperation to protect our shared marine resources while ensuring they continue to provide essential services to the global population.

121Polity and Governance
In the latest Chandler Good Government Index (CGGI), which classifies 104 countries in terms of government capabilities and outcomes, India has been ranked
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Answer: (A) 49th

Explanation

The Chandler Good Government Index (CGGI) 2021, which was the inaugural edition of the index released by the Singapore-based Chandler Institute of Governance, ranked India 49th out of 104 countries. The index evaluates national government capabilities and outcomes across seven specific pillars: Leadership and Foresight, Robust Laws and Policies, Strong Institutions, Financial Stewardship, Attractive Marketplace, Global Influence and Assistance, and Helping People Rise. India's position at 49th highlights its performance in these metrics relative to other global economies, focusing on how government capacity translates into better outcomes for citizens.

122Science and Technology
Scientists at CSIR-NCL Pune, with support from the Water Technology Initiative of the Department of Science and Technology (DST), Government of India, have recently developed a novel hybrid technology to bring safe and healthy drinking water. What is the name of the hybrid technology?
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Answer: (B) SWASTIIK

Explanation

SWASTIIK stands for Safe Water and Sustainable Technology Initiative from Indian Knowledgebase. Developed by scientists at the CSIR-National Chemical Laboratory (NCL) in Pune with support from the Department of Science and Technology (DST), this hybrid technology integrates modern engineering with traditional Indian wisdom to ensure safe drinking water. The process utilizes hydrodynamic cavitation, a phenomenon where the formation, growth, and sudden collapse of bubbles in a liquid generate intense localized pressure and temperature. These physical forces effectively destroy the cell membranes of harmful pathogens, including enteric bacteria and viruses. To boost the disinfection efficiency and provide a sustainable solution, the technology incorporates natural oils and herbal extracts known for their antimicrobial properties. This approach is highly effective against antimicrobial-resistant (AMR) bacteria and offers a chemical-free alternative to conventional methods like chlorination, which often produce harmful disinfection byproducts.

123Art and Culture
Which one of the following films has won the Best Film Award in Environment Conservation category at the 67th National Film Awards, 2021?
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Answer: (C) Water Burial

Explanation

The film Water Burial, directed by Shantanu Sen and produced by Faruque Iftikar Laskar, was honored with the National Award for Best Film on Environment Conservation/Preservation at the 67th National Film Awards. Set in Arunachal Pradesh, this Monpa-language film is inspired by the Assamese novel Saba Kota Manuh, authored by Yeshe Dorjee Thongchi. The narrative focuses on the unique and eco-friendly rituals of the Monpa tribe, specifically their practice of river burials, and serves as a powerful commentary on the intricate relationship between tribal traditions and the preservation of the natural environment.

124Art and Culture
Which one of the following books was declared winner of the 2021 International Booker Prize?
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Answer: (A) At Night All Blood is Black

Explanation

The novel At Night All Blood is Black, written by David Diop and translated from French by Anna Moschovakis, was awarded the 2021 International Booker Prize. The story follows Alfa Ndiaye, a Senegalese soldier fighting for France in the trenches of World War I, who descends into madness following the death of his childhood friend. With this win, David Diop became the first French author to receive the prestigious award, which is granted annually to a single book that is translated into English and published in the UK or Ireland. The prize money of £50,000 was shared equally between the author and the translator.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2D
  3. 3C
  4. 4A
  5. 5B
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8C
  9. 9C
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12B
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15B
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18B
  19. 19C
  20. 20A
  21. 21C
  22. 22C
  23. 23A
  24. 24A
  25. 25D
  26. 26D
  27. 27B
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30D
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33D
  34. 34B
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37D
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40A
  41. 41D
  42. 42B
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48C
  49. 49C
  50. 50C
  51. 51B
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54D
  55. 55D
  56. 56B
  57. 57C
  58. 58B
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63B
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66A
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69A
  70. 70D
  71. 71B
  72. 72D
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78D
  79. 79D
  80. 80A
  81. 81C
  82. 82B
  83. 83D
  84. 84D
  85. 85B
  86. 86B
  87. 87D
  88. 88D
  89. 89B
  90. 90D
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93B
  94. 94B
  95. 95A
  96. 96B
  97. 97A
  98. 98D
  99. 99C
  100. 100C
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105C
  106. 106D
  107. 107C
  108. 108A
  109. 109D
  110. 110C
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113D
  114. 114C
  115. 115B
  116. 116A
  117. 117D
  118. 118A
  119. 119C
  120. 120B
  121. 121A
  122. 122B
  123. 123C
  124. 124A

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