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CAPF AC Paper I 2014 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 122 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

122
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8
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance2924%
  • History2218%
  • Science and Technology2218%
  • Geography1613%
  • Economy1210%
  • Quantitative Aptitude108%
  • Logical Reasoning76%
  • Art and Culture43%
1Polity and Governance
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 1. Statement I : The Rajya Sabha is not subject to dissolution and the members enjoy a tenure of six years Statement II : According to Article 83 of the Constitution of India, one third of members of Rajya Sabha retire every two years
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India stipulates that the Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. To maintain this continuity, the Constitution provides a staggered retirement system where one-third of its members retire every second year. While the Constitution authorized Parliament to determine the specific term of office, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, fixed the tenure of each member at six years. This rolling cycle of biennial retirements and subsequent elections directly facilitates the non-dissolvable nature of the House and establishes the mathematical necessity of the six-year term, thereby making Statement II a direct functional explanation for the status described in Statement I.

2Polity and Governance
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 2. Statement I : Impeachment procedure is a quasi-judicial procedure and the President of India can be impeached only on the grounds of violation of the Constitution Statement II : The impeachment procedure can be initiated in either House of the Parliament
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Article 61 of the Indian Constitution stipulates that the President can be impeached only for the violation of the Constitution. This procedure is termed quasi-judicial because, while conducted by the legislature, it involves the formal preferring of charges by one House and the subsequent investigation of those charges by the other House, mimicking a judicial trial. Statement II is true as the Constitution allows either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha to initiate the proceedings. While both statements accurately describe aspects of Article 61, the ability to initiate the process in either House is a procedural rule and does not serve as the logical explanation for the quasi-judicial nature of the proceedings or the specific constitutional grounds required for removal.

3History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 3. Statement I : James Prinsep, an officer in the mint of the East India Company, deciphered Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts which were used in the earliest inscriptions and coins Statement II : James Prinsep found that most of the scripts mentioned a king referred to as Piyadassi—meaning 'pleasant to behold'
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

James Prinsep, serving as an assay master at the Calcutta Mint of the East India Company, successfully deciphered the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts in 1837-1838. These scripts were the primary writing systems used in the earliest Indian inscriptions and coins. His breakthrough was fundamentally driven by the discovery of recurring titles in the inscriptions, most notably the name Piyadassi, which translates to pleasant to behold. By identifying this title across numerous edicts and comparing the characters with names found on Indo-Greek coins, Prinsep established the phonetic values of the symbols. This systematic identification of the king's name and titles served as the essential linguistic key that enabled the complete decipherment of the scripts, making Statement II the direct explanation of how the feat in Statement I was accomplished.

4Art and Culture
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 4. Statement I : The rich sculptural tradition of Mathura is distinguished by its principal medium, the white spotted red sandstone Statement II : The white spotted red sandstone is locally available in Mathura region
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The Mathura school of art, which reached its zenith during the Kushana period, is globally recognized for its unique aesthetic, primarily characterized by the use of mottled or white-spotted red sandstone. This specific variety of stone became the hallmark of the Mathura tradition, distinguishing its icons and architectural elements from the grey schist used in the contemporary Gandhara school. The selection of this medium was not incidental but was dictated by geographical factors, as large deposits of this sandstone were readily available in the nearby quarries of the Agra and Mathura regions, such as those at Sikri and Rupbas. The local availability of the material facilitated a prolific and consistent sculptural output, directly leading to it becoming the defining physical attribute of the Mathura artistic style.

5History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 5. Statement I : The cities of the second urbanization in Indian history are mainly located in the Ganga valley Statement II : Advanced iron technology, ensuring an agrarian surplus is instrumental to this process of urbanization
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The second urbanization in Indian history, which began around the 6th century BCE, was concentrated in the Ganga valley due to the region's fertile alluvial soil and favorable climate for intensive agriculture. The primary catalyst for this transition from rural settlements to urban centers was the widespread adoption of advanced iron technology. The use of iron tools, such as axes for clearing the dense subtropical forests of the Gangetic plains and iron ploughshares for tilling the heavy soil, dramatically increased agricultural efficiency. This technological shift enabled the production of a substantial agrarian surplus, which is a prerequisite for urbanization. A surplus allows for the sustainment of non-food-producing classes, including artisans, merchants, and a centralized administrative machinery, thereby facilitating the growth of complex urban societies in the Middle Ganga basin.

6Geography
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 6. Statement I : The Doldrums is a low pressure area around the Equator where the prevailing winds are calm Statement II : Low pressure is caused by the heat at the Equator which makes the air rise and travel both Northwards and Southwards
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The Doldrums, located near the Equator, is a region characterized by low atmospheric pressure and remarkably calm surface winds. This phenomenon occurs because the intense solar radiation at the Equator heats the Earth's surface and the overlying air. As the air becomes warm, it expands, becomes less dense, and rises vertically through convection. This constant vertical ascent creates a belt of low pressure at the surface and prevents the development of strong horizontal pressure gradients, leading to the characteristic calm or light winds. Once the rising air reaches the upper atmosphere, it diverges and travels both Northwards and Southwards toward the subtropics. Thus, the thermal heating and subsequent vertical movement of air described in Statement II provide the direct physical explanation for the low pressure and calm conditions defined in Statement I.

7Geography
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below : Code : 7. Statement I : Roaring Forties are strong Westerly winds found in the Southern Hemisphere, generally between the latitudes of 40° and 50° Statement II : The strong East to West air currents are caused by the combination of air being displaced from the Equator towards the South Pole and the Earth's rotation and there are few landmasses to serve as wind breaks
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Roaring Forties are powerful Westerly winds located in the Southern Hemisphere, typically between the latitudes of 40° S and 50° S. These winds are known for their consistency and strength, which facilitated historical sailing routes.

Statement II is incorrect because it describes the air currents as moving from East to West. Westerlies, as the name implies, are winds that blow from the West towards the East. While the statement correctly identifies factors that contribute to the strength of these winds in the Southern Hemisphere—such as the displacement of air from the Equator towards the poles combined with the Coriolis effect and the absence of significant landmasses to act as windbreaks—the specified direction of the air flow is factually wrong for the Roaring Forties.

8Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the revised ceiling on poll expenditure for elections in India is correct?
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Answer: (C) Rs. 70 Lakh per candidate for Lok Sabha Constituencies for all states except Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Sikkim

Explanation

The Conduct of Elections (Amendment) Rules, 2014, modified Rule 90 of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, to increase the maximum expenditure limit for candidates. For Lok Sabha constituencies, the ceiling was raised to Rs. 70 lakh per candidate in all major states and the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This revision was based on the recommendation of the Election Commission to account for the increase in the number of electors and the rising cost of campaigning due to inflation. However, the limit was set lower at Rs. 54 lakh for geographically smaller states with fewer electors, namely Arunachal Pradesh, Goa, and Sikkim. The same lower limit of Rs. 54 lakh applied to Union Territories, with the sole exception of Delhi.

9Polity and Governance
Which of the following does not relate to the Fundamental Rights as enshrined in the Constitution of India ? 1. Free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years 2. Prohibition of trafficking in human beings and forced labour 3. Improvement of Public health and prohibition of intoxicating drinks 4. Promotion of the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, especially the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 3 and 4

Explanation

The provisions mentioned in statements 3 and 4 are classified as Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) under Part IV of the Constitution of India, rather than Fundamental Rights under Part III. Specifically, Article 47 directs the State to improve public health and endeavor to bring about prohibition of the consumption of intoxicating drinks and drugs which are injurious to health. Article 46 mandates the State to promote the educational and economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections with special care. While Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable by courts, these Directive Principles are non-justiciable guidelines intended to be fundamental in the governance of the country and in making laws to establish a social and economic democracy.

10History
Which one among the following regarding the Ahadis of the Mughal period is not true ?
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Answer: (D) Their salary was at par with the Mansabdars

Explanation

The Ahadis were a class of elite gentlemen-troopers who were recruited individually and served as the personal bodyguards or specialized soldiers for the Mughal Emperor. While they enjoyed a much higher status and salary compared to ordinary regular troopers known as tabinan, their remuneration was not equivalent to the salaries of Mansabdars. Mansabdars represented the high-ranking administrative and military bureaucracy of the Mughal state, with their pay scales determined by their specific Zat and Sawar ranks, which often reached into the thousands of rupees. In contrast, an Ahadi's pay generally ranged between 20 to 500 rupees per month depending on their quality and the number of horses they maintained. This placed them in a professional tier above common soldiers but well below the high-ranking officer corps that comprised the Mansabdari system.

11History
Consider the following : In March 2014 mortal remains of a number of Indian soldiers of 1857 mutiny were exhumed from a well at _________ .These mortal remains are of _________ who revolted against the British. Complete the statements with appropriate information using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Ajnala, 26 Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry

Explanation

In March 2014, the remains of 282 Indian soldiers were exhumed from a well known as Kalian Wala Khuh, or the Well of the Blacks, located in Ajnala, Punjab. These soldiers belonged to the 26th Regiment of Bengal Native Infantry, which was stationed at Mian Mir near Lahore during the 1857 uprising. On July 30, 1857, these sepoys revolted against the British, killed their commanding officers, and attempted to escape towards the Ravi river. They were captured by the British forces led by Deputy Commissioner Frederick Henry Cooper. Following their capture, the soldiers were executed and their bodies were thrown into the well, which was then filled with soil. The site remained hidden for over 150 years until local historians and the community excavated it to provide a proper memorial for the martyrs.

12Economy
When a fall in price of a commodity reduces total expenditure and a rise in price increases it, price elasticity of demand will be :
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Answer: (B) < 1

Explanation

The relationship between price changes and total expenditure is explained by the Total Outlay Method of elasticity. According to this principle, price elasticity of demand is less than unity (Eₚ < 1) when price and total expenditure move in the same direction. Total expenditure is the product of price (P) and quantity demanded (Q), expressed as TE = P × Q. If a fall in price results in a reduction of total expenditure, it implies that the percentage increase in quantity demanded is proportionately less than the percentage decrease in price. Similarly, if a rise in price leads to an increase in total expenditure, the percentage contraction in demand is smaller than the percentage rise in price. This direct relationship between price and expenditure characterizes inelastic demand.

13History
Which one among the following cannot be attributed to Shahjahan's reign ?
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Answer: (B) Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid

Explanation

The Qila-i-Kuhna Masjid was commissioned by Sher Shah Suri of the Sur Dynasty around 1541 CE. It is located inside the Purana Qila complex in Delhi, which Sher Shah built after defeating the Mughal Emperor Humayun. The mosque represents a critical transition in Indo-Islamic architecture, bridging the gap between the earlier Lodi style and the later grand Mughal style. It features a single dome, pointed arches, and a sophisticated use of red sandstone and white marble. This structure predates the reign of Shah Jahan by over a century, as Shah Jahan ruled from 1628 to 1658 CE.

14History
The historical drama film '12 Years a Slave' which was adjudged best picture at 86th Academy Awards presented in March 2014, is based on 1853 memoir of the same name by :
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Answer: (B) Solomon Northup

Explanation

Solomon Northup was a free-born African American musician from Saratoga Springs, New York, who was kidnapped and sold into slavery in 1841. After regaining his freedom in 1853 with the help of colleagues and the Governor of New York, he published his memoir Twelve Years a Slave. The book provides a detailed first-hand account of the slave trade and plantation life in Louisiana. The 2013 film adaptation, which won the Academy Award for Best Picture, stayed true to Northup's original 1853 literary work as its primary source material.

15Polity and Governance
Which of the following are true regarding the Preamble of the Constitution of India ? 1. The Objective Resolution was proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru and passed by the Constituent Assembly which ultimately became the Preamble 2. The idea of the Preamble was borrowed from the Constitution of USA 3. The words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' were adopted by the 42nd Amendment in 1976 4. The Preamble incorporates the Fundamental Rights of the citizens of India Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution is based on the Objective Resolution drafted and moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, and adopted on January 22, 1947. The tradition of having a Preamble to the Constitution was borrowed from the USA, which was the first nation to include one. The Preamble has been amended only once by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, which added the three new words Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. Although the Preamble mentions the ideals of Liberty, Equality, and Justice which the state seeks to secure for its citizens, it does not incorporate the Fundamental Rights themselves; those are specifically detailed in Part III of the Constitution.

16History
Which one among the following is not true of bead-making as a salient feature of mature Harappan crafts ?
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Answer: (D) The structure at Banawali yielded many beads in finished, semi-finished and unfinished states

Explanation

The production of beads was a highly specialized craft during the Mature Harappan period, with Chanhudaro and Lothal serving as the primary industrial centers for this activity. Chanhudaro was a small settlement almost exclusively devoted to craft production, where archaeologists discovered a bead-maker's shop equipped with tools, furnaces, and beads at every stage of manufacture. While beads were found at various Harappan sites including Banawali, the specific archaeological identification of a large-scale specialized workshop structure containing assemblages of beads in finished, semi-finished, and unfinished states is a defining characteristic of Chanhudaro and Lothal rather than Banawali. Banawali is better known for its well-planned urban layout and the discovery of terracotta models of the plough.

17Polity and Governance
The leader of which one of the following countries has recently executed his deputy who happened to be his own uncle ?
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Answer: (D) North Korea

Explanation

In December 2013, the leader of North Korea, Kim Jong-un, ordered the execution of his uncle and high-ranking official, Jang Song-thaek. Jang was the husband of Kim Kyong-hui, the sister of the former leader Kim Jong-il, and was widely regarded as the second most powerful figure in the regime, serving as a key mentor to the young Kim Jong-un. He held the position of Vice-Chairman of the National Defence Commission before being stripped of all titles and purged. The North Korean state media officially confirmed his execution shortly after a military trial, citing charges of treason, corruption, and attempting to overthrow the state. This event was significant due to the public nature of the purge and the close familial relationship between the leader and the deputy.

18Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is true ?
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Answer: (A) The Panchayat system exists in all states of India except Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram. It also exists in all Union Territories except Delhi

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, which institutionalized the Panchayati Raj system in India, contains specific jurisdictional exemptions under Article 243M. The provisions of Part IX of the Constitution do not apply to the states of Nagaland, Meghalaya, and Mizoram, as these regions are permitted to maintain their traditional tribal councils and customary laws. Furthermore, while the Act applies to Union Territories through Article 243L, the National Capital Territory of Delhi is excluded from this system. In Delhi, the rural panchayat structure was phased out and replaced by a unified municipal governance framework, making it the only Union Territory without a functional Panchayati Raj system.

19Art and Culture
Composition of the biography of the Buddha occupies a special place in Buddhist literature. Which one among the following is a full-fledged biography of the Buddha ?
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Answer: (A) Lalitavistara

Explanation

The Lalitavistara Sutra is a Mahayana Buddhist scripture that provides a detailed and stylized biography of Gautama Buddha. The title translates to the Play in Full, reflecting the Mahayana view that the Buddha's life on Earth was a divine performance or Lalita intended for the benefit of all sentient beings. This text narrates the life of the Buddha starting from his descent from the Tushita heaven to his miraculous birth as Siddhartha Gautama, his youth in the palace, his renunciation, the attainment of supreme enlightenment at Bodh Gaya, and concluding with his first sermon at Sarnath. Written in a combination of prose and verse using Sanskrit and Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit, it serves as one of the most comprehensive primary sources for the legendary and hagiographical life of the Buddha in the Mahayana tradition.

20Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements about the GSLV-D5 launched by India on 5 January 2014 is not true ?
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Answer: (D) It placed INSAT-14 precisely into its orbit

Explanation

The GSLV-D5 mission, conducted on 5 January 2014, successfully deployed the GSAT-14 communication satellite into its Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit. The statement naming the satellite as INSAT-14 is factually incorrect, as the payload was part of the GSAT series, which are India's indigenous communication satellites. This mission was critical for the Indian Space Research Organisation because it validated the performance of the indigenous Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS) after several previous attempts, allowing India to lift satellites weighing approximately two tonnes into orbit without foreign assistance.

21Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are true regarding Urban Local Bodies in India ? 1. The Constitution 74th Amendment Act envisages three types of urban local bodies, namely Municipal Corporation, Municipality and City Council 2. Municipal Corporations are established in cities with population greater than 1 million 3. Bombay and Calcutta Corporations were the first Municipal Corporations that were established during British time Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX-A into the Constitution, providing for a three-tier system of urban local bodies to ensure uniform governance. Under Article 243Q, these three types are Nagar Panchayats for areas in transition from rural to urban, Municipal Councils (often referred to as municipalities) for smaller urban areas, and Municipal Corporations for larger urban areas. This structure allows for administrative scaling based on the specific needs and size of the urban center.

Municipal Corporations are specifically designated for the administration of major cities and metropolitan centers. While the Constitution grants State Governors the authority to notify an area as a larger urban area based on factors like population density and revenue, the standard demographic threshold generally adopted for the establishment of a Municipal Corporation in India is a population exceeding 1 million. This threshold distinguishes major urban hubs from smaller municipalities and allows for a more complex administrative framework to manage high-density infrastructure and services.

22History
The Assam Company, consisting of European tea planters, remained the virtual proprietor of the tea industry till 1850. In the 1850s, who among the following established two small proprietary tea gardens of his own, which were confiscated by the State after his execution for treason in 1858 ?
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Answer: (D) Maniram Dewan

Explanation

Maniram Dewan, born Maniram Dutta Baruah, was the first Indian to establish private tea gardens in Assam, breaking the monopoly held by the European-run Assam Company. After resigning from his administrative post at the Assam Company, he founded two tea estates, Cinnamara and Senglung, in the early 1850s. His entrepreneurial success and local influence grew, but he became increasingly critical of British policies. During the 1857 uprising, he was accused of plotting to restore the Ahom monarchy and overthrow British rule in the region. He was arrested in Calcutta, tried for treason, and executed by hanging in Jorhat on February 26, 1858. Following his execution, the British government confiscated his tea gardens and all other properties as part of the state's crackdown on the rebellion.

23History
Which one among the following teams did not top in their respective Groups in the 2013-2014 Ranji Trophy League Table ?
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Answer: (B) Punjab

Explanation

In the 2013–2014 Ranji Trophy league stage, Punjab competed in Group A and finished the season in second place. The team earned a total of 31 points from eight matches, achieving three wins and one loss. Consequently, they did not occupy the top position in their respective group standings at the end of the league phase.

24Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the election of the President of India ? 1. He is elected indirectly 2. He is elected through an electoral college consisting of all elected MPs and MLAs 3. He is elected directly 4. Members of the Legislative Council have no right to vote in the Presidential election Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Under Article 54 of the Indian Constitution, the President is elected indirectly by an electoral college rather than directly by the citizens. This electoral college is composed of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all States, including the National Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Territory of Puducherry. Since the process specifically mandates the participation of elected representatives from the primary legislative bodies, members of the State Legislative Councils (Vidhan Parishads) are excluded from voting in the Presidential election. This system ensures the President represents both the Union and the States, maintaining the federal balance and reflecting the will of the people through their elected representatives at various levels of government.

25History
Dinabandhu Mitra published a play in Bengali titled : Neel Darpan (Blue Mirror), which depicted the atrocities on the indigo planters. The play was translated into English by :
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Answer: (C) Michael Madhusudan Dutta

Explanation

Michael Madhusudan Dutta, a renowned Bengali poet and playwright, translated Dinabandhu Mitra's play Neel Darpan into English in 1861. The translation, titled Nil Darpan; or, The Indigo Planting Mirror, was undertaken at the request of Reverend James Long. Dutta performed the translation anonymously to avoid professional repercussions from the British authorities, as the play was a scathing critique of the exploitation and atrocities committed by British indigo planters against Indian peasants. This English version was instrumental in raising awareness in Britain about the systemic abuses of the indigo plantation system in Bengal, eventually leading to legislative reforms and the appointment of the Indigo Commission.

26Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. The Presidency of the Council of European Union rotates among the Member States every six months 2. Italy became the President of the European Union for six months since 1 January 2014 Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Presidency of the Council of the European Union is a rotating responsibility where each member state takes charge for a period of six months. This system allows each member state, regardless of its size or population, to set the agenda and chair meetings at all levels within the Council. In 2014, the presidency for the first half of the year, from 1 January to 30 June, was held by Greece. Italy subsequently took over the presidency for the second half of the year, serving from 1 July to 31 December 2014.

27Polity and Governance
Which of the following are related to Right to Equality under the provisions of Articles 14-18 of the Constitution of India ? 1. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth 2. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment 3. Educational and cultural rights to minorities 4. Abolition of untouchability Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The Right to Equality is guaranteed under Articles 14 to 18 of the Constitution of India. Article 15 provides for the prohibition of discrimination against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth. Article 16 ensures equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State. Article 17 deals with the abolition of untouchability and forbids its practice in any form, declaring it an offense punishable in accordance with the law. These provisions are the specific mechanisms established within the Article 14-18 range to ensure social and legal parity among all citizens.

28History
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. Humayun invented Taj-i-izzat 2. Taj-i-izzat was a head gear, composed of a cap and a wrapping cloth Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Emperor Humayun was known for his creative innovations in courtly fashion and administrative protocol, many of which are documented in the contemporary work Qanun-i-Humayuni by the historian Khwandamir. Among his inventions was a distinctive type of headgear called the Taj-i-izzat, or Crown of Honor. This headgear was designed to be worn by the Emperor and bestowed upon his favorite courtiers as a mark of distinction and royal favor. Structurally, the Taj-i-izzat was composed of a central cap known as a kulah and a long wrapping cloth called a qasaba. The design reflected Humayun's deep interest in symbolism and the celestial order, as the headgear was intended to represent the dignity and majesty of the Mughal throne.

29Economy
Which of the statements given below is/ are correct ? 1. For the marketing year 2014-2015, the minimum support price (MSP) for wheat in India has been fixed at Rs. 1,400 / quintal 2. MSP is the rate at which the government sells the grains through the fair price shops Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

For the Rabi Marketing Season 2014-15, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the Minimum Support Price for wheat at Rs. 1,400 per quintal, which was an increase from Rs. 1,350 per quintal in the 2013-14 season. Minimum Support Price is the price at which the government purchases crops directly from the farmers to ensure they receive a remunerative price for their produce and to prevent distress sales. In contrast, the price at which the government provides food grains to the beneficiaries through fair price shops under the Public Distribution System is referred to as the Central Issue Price, not the Minimum Support Price.

30Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are correct regarding the office of Governor in India ? 1. One Governor can act as Governor of more than one State 2. The Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, remission of punishment to persons convicted under the State Law 3. The Governor is appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Chief Minister of the respective State Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Article 153 of the Constitution originally required a separate Governor for every state, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 amended this to allow the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more states. Under Article 161, the Governor possesses the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offense against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends. This executive power of the state generally covers all matters listed in the State List and the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule. While the President appoints the Governor under Article 155, the Constitution does not mandate the recommendation or consultation of the Chief Minister of the state for such an appointment; the President acts on the aid and advice of the Union Council of Ministers.

31History
Which one among the following was/were the motive/motives behind Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's transfer of capital from Delhi to Daulatabad ? 1. The shift to Daulatabad would give him a chance to establish control over Deccan and Gujarat 2. It would provide access to the Western and Southern ports 3. It would protect him from direct Mongol invasion from the North-Western frontier Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Muhammad Bin Tughlaq's decision to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad in 1327 was a multifaceted strategic move. By choosing Daulatabad, which was more centrally located within his vast empire, the Sultan aimed to consolidate his authority over the newly annexed territories in the Deccan and Gujarat, ensuring quicker military response to regional rebellions. Economically, the proximity of the new capital to the Western and Southern coasts provided the Sultanate with better access to maritime trade routes and busy ports, which were vital for the state's commercial interests. Furthermore, Delhi was constantly vulnerable to Mongol incursions from the North-Western frontier. Relocating the seat of power to the Deccan provided a natural defensive depth, placing the administrative heart of the empire beyond the immediate reach of Mongol raiding parties and ensuring the safety of the central government.

32Economy
The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PMEAC) in India has recommended phased dilution of Government stake in Public Sector Banks from :
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Answer: (B) 58% to 51%

Explanation

The Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister (PMEAC) suggested the phased dilution of the government's stake in public sector banks to help these institutions raise much-needed capital from the equity market. During the 2013-2014 period, the average government holding in many public sector banks was approximately 58%. The council recommended reducing this stake to 51%, which is the statutory minimum required to maintain the public sector character of the banks. This move was designed to enable banks to meet the stringent Basel III capital adequacy requirements by accessing private capital, thereby reducing the fiscal burden on the government for bank recapitalization while ensuring that the state remained the majority shareholder.

33Polity and Governance
The major cleavage in global human rights discourse has been between :
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Answer: (D) civil and political rights v. economic, social and cultural rights

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The fundamental ideological divide in global human rights discourse emerged during the Cold War, splitting the international community between Western liberal democracies and the socialist/developing nations. Western states prioritized civil and political rights, often referred to as first-generation rights, which focus on individual liberties and protection from state overreach, such as the rights to free speech, assembly, and a fair trial. In contrast, the Soviet bloc and many nations in the Global South argued that economic, social, and cultural rights, or second-generation rights, were more fundamental. They contended that political freedoms are hollow without guaranteed access to basic needs like food, healthcare, housing, and employment. This major cleavage was formally institutionalized when the United Nations split the principles of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights into two separate binding treaties in 1966: the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR) and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR).

34History
Which one among the following is not true of the Brahmo Samaj ?
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Answer: (A) It considered Vedic scriptures as infallible

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The Brahmo Samaj explicitly rejected the doctrine of the infallibility of the Vedas. While Raja Ram Mohan Roy held the Upanishads in high regard, he advocated for the application of human reason to all religious texts and did not believe any scripture was beyond error. This stance was further solidified under the leadership of Debendranath Tagore in the late 1840s. After sending students to Benares to study the Vedas, the Samaj concluded that the scriptures were not divinely inspired or infallible, transitioning the movement towards a religion based on rationalism and natural theism. The belief in the absolute infallibility of the Vedas was actually a core tenet of the Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayananda Saraswati, which distinguishes it from the Brahmo Samaj.

35Economy
Which of the statements given below is/ are correct ? 1. In India, the provisions of General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) will be implemented with effect from 1 April 2015 2. The provisions of GAAR were aimed at checking tax avoidance by overseas investors
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) was introduced in the Finance Act, 2012, to grant tax authorities the power to scrutinize and deny tax benefits for transactions that lack commercial substance and are structured primarily for tax avoidance. Following significant concerns from foreign institutional investors regarding the potential for administrative harassment and the impact on the investment climate, the government appointed the Parthasarathi Shome Committee to review the provisions. Based on the committee recommendations, the government announced in early 2013 that the implementation of GAAR would be deferred by two years, making it effective from April 1, 2015. A core objective of GAAR is to check aggressive tax avoidance strategies employed by overseas investors, particularly practices like treaty shopping and round-tripping, where entities are set up in low-tax jurisdictions specifically to exploit Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements without having any genuine economic activity there.

36Economy
The rate at which the consumer is willing to substitute one good for another without changing the level of satisfaction is known as :
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Answer: (A) Marginal rate of substitution

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The Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS) is an economic concept that quantifies the rate at which a consumer is willing to give up a specific quantity of one good in exchange for another good while maintaining the same level of total utility or satisfaction. In the graphical representation of consumer theory, the MRS is the absolute value of the slope of the indifference curve at any given point. It is calculated as MRS_(xy) = MUₓ/MU_y, where MUₓ and MU_y represent the marginal utilities of good X and good Y respectively. As a consumer moves along an indifference curve, they remain indifferent between the different combinations of goods because each point provides the exact same level of satisfaction.

37History
Which one among the following is not true of the Theosophical Society of Madam H P Blavatsky ?
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Answer: (D) It was silent on the idea of Universal Brotherhood

Explanation

The Theosophical Society was definitely not silent on the idea of Universal Brotherhood; in fact, the first of its three core stated objectives was to form a nucleus of the Universal Brotherhood of Humanity, without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste, or color. Founded in 1875 by Madame H.P. Blavatsky and Colonel H.S. Olcott, the society viewed the spiritual unity of all mankind as a fundamental principle. This goal was central to their mission of bridging the gap between different cultures and religions through the study of ancient wisdom and esoteric philosophy. By promoting this ideal, the society sought to overcome social divisions and emphasize the shared spiritual heritage of all human beings.

38Economy
Recently a leading public sector bank of India has allowed withdrawal of upto Rs. 1000 from any shop/trader with a point-of-sale (PoS) terminal. Identify the bank from below :
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Answer: (C) State Bank of India

Explanation

State Bank of India launched the Cash@PoS facility following Reserve Bank of India guidelines that allowed banks to permit cash withdrawals at merchant establishments. Under this initiative, SBI debit card holders could withdraw up to Rs. 1,000 per day from any merchant or trader using an SBI Point-of-Sale terminal. This facility was particularly aimed at enhancing banking reach and convenience in areas with low ATM density, allowing customers to access liquidity through retail touchpoints. By using their debit cards at shops, customers could receive cash directly from the merchant's till, which also helped traders manage their daily cash collections more efficiently.

39Polity and Governance
The issue whether a commitment made by a Minister on the floor of the House has been fulfilled or not is decided by the :
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Answer: (C) Committee on Public Assurances

Explanation

The Committee on Public Assurances is a parliamentary committee specifically constituted to examine the assurances, promises, and undertakings given by Ministers from time to time on the floor of the House. Its primary role is to scrutinize whether these commitments have been implemented within the minimum time necessary and to report on the extent to which they have been fulfilled. This committee serves as an institutional mechanism to ensure executive accountability to the legislature for verbal or written pledges made during parliamentary proceedings such as Question Hour, debates, or motions. In the Lok Sabha, the committee consists of 15 members nominated by the Speaker, while in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members nominated by the Chairman.

40History
Which one among the following was not a provision of the Regulating Act of 1773 ?
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Answer: (C) It changed the power of vote in the Court of Proprietors by removing all restrictions on qualifications

Explanation

The Regulating Act of 1773 did not remove restrictions on qualifications for voting in the Court of Proprietors; rather, it made them significantly more stringent. Before the Act, any shareholder who held stock worth £500 for at least six months was entitled to one vote. The Act raised this minimum qualification to £1000 and required the stock to be held for at least twelve months before the holder could exercise their vote. Additionally, the Act introduced a weighted voting system where holding £3000 of stock granted two votes, £6000 granted three votes, and £10,000 or more granted four votes. These changes were specifically designed to prevent the practice of splitting stock into smaller portions to create temporary voters and to ensure that the Company's policy was directed by individuals with a substantial, long-term financial stake in its operations.

41Polity and Governance
Recently Iran has clinched a deal with six world powers to curb nuclear activities. Which one among the following is not a party to it ?
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Answer: (D) Japan

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The nuclear deal with Iran, specifically the Joint Plan of Action agreed upon in November 2013, was negotiated by a group of six world powers known as the P5+1. This group includes the five permanent members of the United Nations Security Council—the United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom—along with Germany. Japan was not a member of this negotiating bloc and was therefore not a party to the agreement, although the deal was supported by the European Union and the broader international community to ensure the peaceful nature of Iran's nuclear program.

42Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements related to Money Bills is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) In case of deadlock over a Money Bill, the President can summon a joint sitting of the Parliament

Explanation

The provision for a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is governed by Article 108 of the Indian Constitution. This article explicitly states that a joint sitting can be summoned by the President to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only for Ordinary Bills and Financial Bills (Category II). It specifically excludes Money Bills and Constitution Amendment Bills from its ambit. Under the special procedure for Money Bills defined in Article 109, the Rajya Sabha has very limited powers and must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within this period, or if the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha. Because the Lok Sabha has the final authority, a legislative deadlock cannot occur, and therefore the President cannot summon a joint sitting for a Money Bill.

43History
Which one among the following explains the meaning of the 'Safety Valve Theory' in the context of Indian National Movement ?
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Answer: (A) A theory that argued that the Congress was formed as a safe outlet to the discontented educated Indians

Explanation

The Safety Valve Theory suggests that the Indian National Congress was founded by A.O. Hume, with the support of Viceroy Lord Dufferin, to provide a constitutional outlet for the growing grievances of the educated Indian middle class. Proponents of this theory, such as Lala Lajpat Rai, argued that the British government feared a repeat of the 1857 revolt due to widespread economic and political discontent. By encouraging the formation of an organized political body, the British aimed to divert this mass frustration into peaceful, deliberative channels. This allowed the administration to monitor and manage Indian political aspirations, effectively acting as a pressure release valve to prevent a violent revolutionary outburst against colonial rule.

44Economy
As per the latest trade agreement in Bali Ministerial Conference of WTO, India and other developing and under developed countries can launch food security programmes :
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Answer: (B) till an alternative mechanism is developed

Explanation

The Bali Ministerial Conference held in 2013 resulted in an agreement on an interim mechanism, commonly referred to as the Peace Clause, regarding public stockholding for food security purposes. This agreement allows developing and underdeveloped countries to implement food security programs that might otherwise breach the WTO Agreement on Agriculture's subsidy limits. The decision explicitly stated that this interim mechanism would remain in place until a permanent solution or an alternative mechanism for the issue of public stockholding is negotiated and adopted by the WTO members. This provided a legal safeguard for countries like India to continue their food procurement and distribution activities without the risk of being challenged in the WTO Dispute Settlement Body while negotiations for a long-term resolution continued.

45Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the residuary powers under the Constitution of India is/are correct ? 1. Residuary powers have been given to the Union Parliament 2. In the matter of residuary power, the Constitution of India follows the Constitution of Australia 3. Schedule 7 of the Constitution of India provides a list of residuary powers 4. The Government of India Act 1935 placed residuary powers in the hands of the Governor General
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4

Explanation

Article 248 of the Indian Constitution confers residuary powers of legislation exclusively upon the Union Parliament. This means that Parliament has the power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List, including the power to levy taxes not mentioned in either of those lists. This centralizing feature follows the Canadian model of federalism.

The Government of India Act 1935 followed a unique arrangement where residuary powers were neither assigned to the federal legislature nor to the provincial legislatures. Instead, Section 104 of the Act vested the Governor-General with the discretionary power to decide whether a residuary subject should be allocated to the federal or provincial domain on a case-by-case basis.

46History
The Deccan Riots Commission was concerned with :
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Answer: (A) indebtedness of the peasant

Explanation

The Deccan Riots Commission was established in 1875 to investigate the causes of the agrarian uprising that occurred in the Pune and Ahmednagar districts of the Bombay Presidency. The riots were primarily directed against local moneylenders, or sahukars, who exploited the peasantry through exorbitant interest rates and fraudulent accounting. The Commission found that the fundamental cause of the unrest was the extreme indebtedness of the peasants. This debt was fueled by the high land revenue demands of the Ryotwari system and a sharp decline in cotton prices following the conclusion of the American Civil War, which left farmers unable to pay taxes without borrowing. The findings of the Commission eventually led to the enactment of the Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act of 1879, which aimed to protect the ryots from the predatory practices of moneylenders and ensure they could not be easily evicted from their land for failing to repay debts.

47Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about Vijay Seshadri is/are correct ? 1. He is an India-born US poet 2. He won the prestigious Pulitzer Prize in the year 2014 for his book '3 Sections' 3. He is the first Indian origin person to bag the Pulitzer Prize
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Vijay Seshadri is an American poet born in Bangalore, India, who moved to the United States in 1959. His status as an India-born US poet is a well-documented biographical fact. In 2014, his poetry collection titled 3 Sections was awarded the Pulitzer Prize for Poetry. The collection was lauded for its examination of the human condition and its shifting perspectives on time and memory. Regarding the timeline of Indian-origin Pulitzer winners, Seshadri was preceded by several others. The first Indian-origin person to win a Pulitzer Prize was Gobind Behari Lal in 1937 for journalism. Subsequently, Jhumpa Lahiri won for fiction in 2000 and Siddhartha Mukherjee won for general non-fiction in 2011.

48Economy
Which of the following is not a characteristic of globalization ?
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Answer: (A) Fragility of national barriers for the flow of capital and goods

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Globalization is defined by the intentional liberalization and removal of national barriers to facilitate the free movement of capital, goods, and services across borders. The term fragility is not a standard characteristic used to describe this process, as it implies a state of being delicate or easily broken. In contrast, globalization involves the structural and legal dismantling of trade restrictions through robust policy shifts and international agreements, such as those overseen by the World Trade Organization (WTO). While the process results in more porous borders for commerce, the barriers themselves are strategically reduced rather than being inherently fragile. Furthermore, national barriers often remain significant and resilient in other areas, such as labor migration and national security, which contradicts the concept of generalized fragility of national barriers.

49History
William James, Henry Colebrooke and Nathaniel Halhed had which of the following common among them ?
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Answer: (D) They were linguists who tried to interpret the culture of South Asia to the East India Company

Explanation

Sir William Jones, Henry Thomas Colebrooke, and Nathaniel Halhed were leading figures of the Orientalist movement in late 18th-century India. They shared a deep interest in ancient Indian culture and the study of languages such as Sanskrit, Persian, and Bengali. Sir William Jones founded the Asiatic Society of Bengal in 1784 and was instrumental in highlighting the linguistic connections between Sanskrit and European languages. Nathaniel Halhed is credited with compiling the Code of Gentoo Laws and writing a comprehensive grammar of the Bengali language. Henry Thomas Colebrooke was a pioneering Sanskrit scholar who produced authoritative works on Hindu law and ancient Indian philosophy. By translating classical Indian texts and codifying local traditions, these linguists acted as cultural intermediaries, helping the East India Company understand the social, legal, and religious fabric of South Asia to facilitate more effective administration.

50Economy
Data presented in Interim Budget for 2014-2015 reveal that for the financial year 2013-2014, the revised estimates do not show a decline in :
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Answer: (A) Revenue deficit

Explanation

In the Interim Budget 2014-15, the Revised Estimates (RE) for the financial year 2013-14 indicated that the government succeeded in reducing several deficit indicators relative to their original Budget Estimates (BE). Specifically, the Fiscal Deficit was lowered from 4.8 percent of the GDP in the BE to 4.6 percent in the RE. Similarly, the Primary Deficit was reduced from 1.5 percent of the GDP to 1.3 percent.

However, the Revenue Deficit was recorded at 3.3 percent of the GDP in the Revised Estimates, which was the same as the 3.3 percent target set in the Budget Estimates. Because the Revenue Deficit remained stagnant at the budgeted level instead of being revised downwards like the Fiscal and Primary deficits, it did not show a decline. This data reflected the government's difficulty in narrowing the gap between its revenue expenditures and revenue receipts during that fiscal period.

51Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Presidential system is/are correct ? 1. The Head of Government is also Head of State 2. The Executive can veto Legislative acts
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

In a presidential system of government, such as that in the United States, the President fulfills the dual role of Head of State and Head of Government. This means the same individual performs ceremonial duties and exercises actual executive authority, unlike in parliamentary systems where these roles are typically split between a President/Monarch and a Prime Minister. Additionally, the presidential system is defined by a clear separation of powers between the branches of government. To maintain this equilibrium, a system of checks and balances is employed, which includes the Executive's power to veto acts passed by the Legislature. This veto power allows the President to reject proposed laws, serving as a significant check on legislative authority and ensuring the executive branch has a direct influence on the law-making process.

52History
The Permanent Settlement was rarely extended to other regions because :
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Answer: (D) all of the above

Explanation

The decision to move away from the Permanent Settlement in newer territories was driven by fiscal, theoretical, and administrative factors. By the early 19th century, rising agricultural prices and expanded cultivation increased the value of land produce, but the fixed nature of the Permanent Settlement prevented the British government from increasing its revenue share, leading to significant financial loss. This was compounded by the influence of David Ricardo's theory of rent, which suggested that the state should claim the surplus economic rent produced by land rather than leaving it to intermediaries. Administratively, officials in southern and western India preferred direct settlements with the ryots to eliminate the middleman Zamindars, ensuring more control over local resources and the ability to periodically revise revenue assessments to capture future increases in land value.

53Polity and Governance
Who among the following is serving as the Chief Minister of his State for the fourth consecutive term ?
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Answer: (A) Manik Sarkar of Tripura

Explanation

Manik Sarkar, representing the Communist Party of India (Marxist), first assumed office as the Chief Minister of Tripura on 11 March 1998. He successfully led the Left Front coalition to victory in four successive state assembly elections held in 1998, 2003, 2008, and 2013. By the year 2014, he was serving his fourth consecutive term in office, a tenure that continued until March 2018. This distinguished him from other regional leaders of the time who were largely serving their second or third consecutive terms.

54Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Constitutional Government : 1. It is a form of limited government 2. One where Constitution is the basis of public authority 3. One where Monarch is the formal Head of the State 4. One where there is always universal adult franchise
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

A constitutional government is defined by the principle of limited government, where the powers of the state are legally restricted to protect individual liberties and prevent the arbitrary exercise of authority. In such a system, the Constitution serves as the fundamental source of public authority, meaning that all branches of government derive their power from and must operate within the boundaries set by the constitutional framework. This essence of constitutionalism ensures that the government is not above the law but is subject to it, establishing a predictable legal order and institutional checks and balances. While specific features like the type of head of state or the extent of the franchise may vary across different nations, the core requirements of a constitutional government are the limitation of power and the supremacy of the constitutional document as the basis for governance.

55History
The ruling dynasties Sangama, Saluva, Tuluva were associated with :
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Answer: (D) Vijayanagara

Explanation

The Vijayanagara Empire was ruled by four distinct dynasties from its inception in 1336 until its decline in the 17th century. The Sangama dynasty was the founding lineage, established by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I. It was succeeded by the Saluva dynasty, which came to power through Saluva Narasimha Deva Raya. The Tuluva dynasty followed, reaching the zenith of the empire's power and cultural achievement, most notably during the reign of Krishnadevaraya. These three dynasties, along with the subsequent Aravidu dynasty, were responsible for the political stability and architectural brilliance centered at the capital of Hampi in the Deccan region.

56Polity and Governance
India has made a Polio Vaccination Certificate mandatory for Indian Visa applicants from :
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Answer: (D) Pakistan

Explanation

In early 2014, following India's certification as a polio-free nation by the World Health Organization, the Indian government implemented strict health protocols to prevent the re-importation of the wild poliovirus. Effective from March 1, 2014, it became mandatory for all travelers, including visa applicants from Pakistan, to possess a valid polio vaccination certificate. This requirement specifies that the applicant must have received the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) at least four weeks prior to their departure but not more than one year before travel. Since Pakistan remained one of the few countries globally where polio was still endemic, this measure was deemed essential to safeguard India's hard-won polio-free status.

57Polity and Governance
The Ex-Officio Members of the National Human Rights Commission of India include :
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Answer: (A) Chairpersons of National Commission for Minorities, National Commission for Scheduled Castes, National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, National Commission for Women

Explanation

Under Section 3(3) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the National Human Rights Commission is constituted with both appointed and ex-officio members. As per the statutory provisions applicable in 2014, the ex-officio members included the Chairpersons of the National Commission for Minorities, the National Commission for Scheduled Castes, the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes, and the National Commission for Women. These chairpersons were deemed to be members of the Commission for the discharge of functions specified in the Act, ensuring that the NHRC maintains a comprehensive perspective on the human rights concerns of various vulnerable and minority sections of society through established specialized national bodies.

58History
Between the 15th August 1947 when India became free and the 26th January 1950 when she declared herself a democratic sovereign republic, the Government of India functioned under the provisions of :
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Answer: (A) The Government of India Act 1935

Explanation

Under Section 8(2) of the Indian Independence Act 1947, it was mandated that until a new Constitution was framed and implemented by the Constituent Assembly, the Government of India and its provinces would continue to be governed as nearly as possible in accordance with the Government of India Act 1935. Although the 1935 Act underwent several adaptations through the Indian (Provisional Constitution) Order 1947 to remove the authority of the British Crown and the Secretary of State, its core provisions regarding the federal structure, administrative procedures, and the distribution of legislative powers remained the legal basis for governance. This ensured a smooth administrative transition for the Dominion of India until the formal adoption of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950.

59Polity and Governance
The January 2014 referendum held in Egypt was on :
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Answer: (A) Accepting or rejecting a draft constitution

Explanation

The Egyptian constitutional referendum held on January 14 and 15, 2014, was organized to allow the electorate to accept or reject a new draft constitution. This draft was developed by a 50-member committee to replace the 2012 constitution, which had been suspended following the removal of President Mohamed Morsi in July 2013. The referendum served as a critical step in the transitional roadmap proposed by the military-backed interim government, seeking to establish a new legal and political framework for the country. The draft was overwhelmingly approved by over 98 percent of the voters who participated, paving the way for upcoming presidential and parliamentary elections.

60Economy
Which of the following factors affects individual's demand for a commodity ? 1. Price of the commodity 2. Income of the consumer 3. Prices of related goods
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The demand for a commodity is determined by several interrelated factors that influence a consumer's willingness and ability to purchase. The price of the commodity itself is the primary determinant, as per the law of demand, which states that quantity demanded usually moves inversely with price. The income of the consumer is another critical factor; for normal goods, demand increases as income rises, while for inferior goods, demand decreases. Furthermore, the prices of related goods—categorized as substitutes or complements—significantly impact demand. For instance, a price hike in a substitute good increases the demand for the commodity in question, while a price hike in a complementary good decreases it. Mathematically, the individual demand function is expressed as D_x = f(P_x, Y, P_r, T, E), where Pₓ is the price, Y is income, and Pᵣ represents the prices of related goods. Thus, all three factors are fundamental determinants of individual demand.

61History
On the New Year day of 2014, New Zealand batsman Corey Anderson made a world record of fastest :
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Answer: (C) ODI century

Explanation

On January 1, 2014, New Zealand all-rounder Corey Anderson set a new world record for the fastest century in One Day International (ODI) cricket during a match against the West Indies in Queenstown. Anderson reached his hundred in just 36 deliveries, surpassing the previous record of 37 balls held by Pakistan Shahid Afridi since 1996. His record-breaking innings included 14 sixes and 6 fours, ending with an unbeaten 131 runs from 47 balls. This performance took place in a rain-shortened match reduced to 21 overs per side. Anderson's achievement remained the fastest ODI century until it was later broken by AB de Villiers in 2015.

62Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Social activist) List II (Activity/ Organisation) A. Aruna Roy 1. Lok Sangharsh Morcha B. Kalpanatai Salunkhe 2. Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana C. Akhil Gogoi 3. Krishak Mukti Sangram Samiti D. Pratibha Shinde 4. Paani Panchayat Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 4 3 1

Explanation

Aruna Roy is a renowned social activist who co-founded the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathana (MKSS) in Rajasthan, which was instrumental in the movement for the Right to Information Act.

Kalpanatai Salunkhe is associated with the Paani Panchayat movement in Maharashtra, which focuses on equitable water sharing and sustainable agricultural practices in drought-prone areas.

Akhil Gogoi is a peasant leader from Assam who founded the Krishak Mukti Sangram Samiti (KMSS), an organization dedicated to the rights of farmers and opposing large dam projects.

Pratibha Shinde is a prominent activist leading the Lok Sangharsh Morcha, which works primarily for the implementation of the Forest Rights Act and the land rights of tribal communities in Maharashtra and North Gujarat.

63Science and Technology
Which one among the following books is not written by Bharat Ratna Prof. CNR Rao ?
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Answer: (C) Wings of Fire

Explanation

Wings of Fire is the autobiography of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam, the 11th President of India and a preeminent scientist in the fields of aerospace and defense. Co-authored with Arun Tiwari, the book details Dr. Kalam's early life, his personal struggles, and his leadership in India's space research and missile development programs, such as the SLV-3 and the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme. Since it is the personal narrative of Dr. Kalam, it is not a work authored by Prof. C.N.R. Rao.

64Science and Technology
What was the name given to the Indian Air Force's first ever day-night full combat and fire demonstration conducted recently at the Pokhran range ?
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Answer: (D) Iron Fist

Explanation

Exercise Iron Fist was the Indian Air Force's first-ever day-night full combat and fire power demonstration, held on February 22, 2013, at the Pokhran firing range in Rajasthan. The event showcased the IAF's operational capabilities through the participation of over 100 aircraft, including the Su-30MKI, Mirage 2000, Jaguar, and indigenous Tejas. The demonstration focused on precision-guided munitions, all-weather strike capabilities, and night-fighting prowess, proving the force's transition into a modern, network-centric aerial power capable of performing diverse roles in both day and night environments.

65Economy
The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme in India is related to :
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Answer: (C) Energy efficiency

Explanation

The Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme is a flagship program of the Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) under the National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (NMEEE). It was established as a market-based mechanism to enhance the cost-effectiveness of energy efficiency improvements in energy-intensive industrial sectors. Under this scheme, the government assigns specific energy consumption reduction targets to industrial units known as Designated Consumers. Those who over-achieve their targets are issued Energy Saving Certificates (ESCerts), which can be traded with other designated consumers who find it difficult to meet their reduction targets. This regulatory tool encourages the adoption of energy-efficient technologies and practices across major sectors such as thermal power plants, iron and steel, cement, and fertilizers.

66Polity and Governance
Which one among the following was the reason behind the boycott of recent general elections in Bangladesh by the main opposition parties ?
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Answer: (C) Demand for holding the elections under a neutral government was not fulfilled

Explanation

The 2014 general elections in Bangladesh were boycotted by the main opposition alliance, led by the Bangladesh Nationalist Party (BNP), because the ruling Awami League government refused to restore the neutral caretaker government system. This system, originally designed to oversee national elections and ensure impartiality, had been abolished by the 15th Amendment to the Constitution in 2011. The opposition argued that a free and fair election was impossible under the incumbent partisan administration and demanded that the polls be conducted by a non-partisan interim government. When the government proceeded with the elections without meeting this demand, the opposition launched a boycott and a series of protests, resulting in more than half of the parliamentary seats being won uncontested by the ruling party and its allies.

67Polity and Governance
In December 2013, TTEX-2013 (Trilateral Tabletop Maritime Security Exercises) was conducted between :
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Answer: (C) India, Sri Lanka and Maldives

Explanation

TTEX-2013 was a trilateral tabletop maritime security exercise held at the Maritime Warfare Centre in Kochi, India, involving the naval and coast guard representatives of India, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. The exercise was a follow-up to the second National Security Adviser-level meeting on maritime security cooperation held in Colombo in July 2013. Its primary objective was to enhance maritime domain awareness and foster better coordination in responding to common maritime threats such as piracy, illegal trafficking, and search and rescue operations in the Indian Ocean Region. By sharing best practices and operational procedures, the three nations aimed to strengthen regional maritime security and ensure the safety of sea lanes of communication.

68Science and Technology
According to the principle of energy conservation, when a piston in an automobile engine compresses the gas in a cylinder, which of the following must occur ?
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Answer: (A) Kinetic energy of gas must increase

Explanation

According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, ΔU = Q + W, where ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat added to the system, and W is the work done on the system. When a piston compresses the gas in a cylinder, work is performed on the gas. This mechanical energy is transferred to the gas molecules, increasing the total internal energy of the system.

In the kinetic molecular theory of gases, the internal energy of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its absolute temperature, as represented by the relation U = (f/2)nRT. Furthermore, temperature is a macroscopic measure of the average kinetic energy of the gas molecules, given by KE_avg = (3/2)kT. As the piston moves inward, it strikes the gas molecules and reflects them with higher speeds, thereby increasing their kinetic energy. Consequently, the work done during compression results in an increase in the kinetic energy of the gas particles, which is observed as a rise in the temperature of the gas.

69Science and Technology
Which one among the following is successfully tested in Germany recently as world's first green helicopter which is environment friendly and emission free ?
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Answer: (A) Volocopter

Explanation

The Volocopter VC200, developed by the German company e-volo, was successfully tested in Karlsruhe, Germany, in late 2013. It is recognized as the world's first manned multicopter to rely entirely on electric propulsion, making it a pioneering green aviation technology. The aircraft uses 18 battery-powered rotors to provide lift and thrust, ensuring that it operates with zero direct CO2 emissions and significantly lower noise levels compared to traditional internal combustion engine helicopters. By replacing conventional fuel with rechargeable batteries, the Volocopter established a new category of environmentally friendly urban air mobility, leading to its identification as the first emission-free green helicopter during that period.

70Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements correctly defines the term Bio-fortification ?
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Answer: (B) Breeding crops to increase their nutritional values

Explanation

Bio-fortification is the process of increasing the nutritional value of food crops by increasing the concentration of vitamins, minerals, and proteins through selective breeding or genetic engineering. Unlike conventional fortification where nutrients are added during food processing, bio-fortification involves growing crops that are inherently more nutritious from the seed stage. This approach is primarily used to address micronutrient deficiencies, such as vitamin A, iron, and zinc, in populations that depend on staple crops for their basic diet. By improving the genetic makeup of the plant, bio-fortification provides a sustainable and cost-effective method to combat malnutrition without requiring changes in dietary habits or expensive post-harvest interventions.

71Science and Technology
Which of the following countries has successfully test fired Hatf IX (Nasr) short range surface to surface multitube ballistic missile in November 2013 ?
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Answer: (A) Pakistan

Explanation

The Hatf IX (Nasr) is a short-range, surface-to-surface ballistic missile developed by Pakistan. In November 2013, the Pakistan Army's Strategic Forces Command successfully conducted a series of test fires to validate the technical parameters and the operational readiness of the weapon system. The Nasr missile has a range of approximately 60 kilometers and is launched from a multi-tube mobile platform, providing a "shoot-and-scoot" capability. It is designed as a high-precision, tactical nuclear-capable system intended to provide quick-response deterrence against evolving security threats at shorter ranges.

72Quantitative Aptitude
If three times of the first of the three consecutive odd integers is 3 more than twice the third, what is the third integer?
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Answer: (A) 15

Explanation

Let the three consecutive odd integers be represented as x, x + 2, and x + 4. According to the problem, three times the first integer is three more than twice the third integer. This relationship is expressed by the equation:

3x = 2(x + 4) + 3

Expanding and simplifying the equation:

3x = 2x + 8 + 3 3x - 2x = 11 x = 11

The first integer is 11, which makes the consecutive odd integers 11, 13, and 15. The third integer in the sequence is 11 + 4 = 15.

73Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Hormone) List II (Function) A. Aldosterone 1. Maintains female secondary sex characteristics B. Oestrogen 2. Controls circadian rhythm C. Melatonin 3. Salt-retaining hormone D. Progesterone 4. Sustains the pregnancy Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 3 1 2 4

Explanation

Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid secreted by the adrenal cortex that plays a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by increasing the reabsorption of sodium and water in the kidneys, making it a salt-retaining hormone. Oestrogen is the primary hormone responsible for the development and maintenance of female secondary sex characteristics and the regulation of the female reproductive system. Melatonin is produced by the pineal gland and is the principal hormone involved in regulating the sleep-wake cycle and the body's internal biological clock, known as the circadian rhythm. Progesterone is often called the hormone of pregnancy because it prepares the uterine lining for the implantation of a fertilized egg and is essential for maintaining the pregnancy after conception.

74Polity and Governance
Which one among the following has been declared recently as the first zero-landless district in India ?
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Answer: (A) Kannur

Explanation

Kannur district in Kerala was officially declared the first zero-landless district in India in October 2013. This achievement was part of the Zero Landless (Citizens) Kerala Project, a flagship initiative by the state government aimed at providing a minimum of three cents of land to every landless family. The declaration was made by the then-Union Rural Development Minister Jairam Ramesh during a ceremony attended by state officials. The project utilized a massive identification drive and land distribution program to ensure that all eligible landless citizens in the district received land titles, setting a precedent for land reform and social security in the country.

75Logical Reasoning
If every alternate letter of English Alphabet is written in lower case (small letters) such that the 21st letter is in capital letter and remaining letters are capitalized, then how many vowels will be written in capital letters ?
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Answer: (A) 5

Explanation

The positions of the English alphabet letters are as follows: A=1, B=2, C=3, D=4, E=5, F=6, G=7, H=8, I=9, J=10, K=11, L=12, M=13, N=14, O=15, P=16, Q=17, R=18, S=19, T=20, U=21, V=22, W=23, X=24, Y=25, Z=26.

The problem states that every alternate letter is written in lowercase and the remaining letters are capitalized. This divides the alphabet into two sets based on the parity (odd or even) of their positions.

We are given that the 21st letter (U) is a capital letter. Since 21 is an odd number, this implies that all letters at odd-numbered positions are capitalized, while all letters at even-numbered positions are written in lowercase.

The vowels in the English alphabet and their corresponding positions are: A: 1 (Odd) E: 5 (Odd) I: 9 (Odd) O: 15 (Odd) U: 21 (Odd)

Since all five vowels (A, E, I, O, and U) are located at odd-numbered positions, they will all be written in capital letters according to the established pattern.

76Science and Technology
If a scientist reads an ambient temperature 273 K in the laboratory, what will a doctor's thermometer read it ?
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Answer: (B) 32 degrees Fahrenheit

Explanation

The temperature in Kelvin can be converted to Fahrenheit using the relationship between the Kelvin, Celsius, and Fahrenheit scales. First, convert Kelvin (K) to Celsius (C) using the formula C = K - 273. For a reading of 273 K:

C = 273 - 273 = 0°C

Next, convert Celsius to Fahrenheit (F) using the standard formula F = (9/5)C + 32. Substituting the value of 0°C:

F = (9/5)(0) + 32 = 32°F

Since 273 K represents the freezing point of water, it corresponds exactly to 0°C and 32°F. A doctor's thermometer, which measures temperature on the Fahrenheit scale in many regions, would therefore read this ambient temperature as 32 degrees Fahrenheit.

77Science and Technology
Methane is a very potent green house gas. It is converted to carbon dioxide to ease its overall effect on global warming. This process is known as :
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Answer: (C) Flaring

Explanation

Flaring is the process of controlled burning of waste gases, primarily methane, released during industrial operations such as oil and gas extraction, coal mining, or landfill management. Methane (CH₄) is a significantly more potent greenhouse gas than carbon dioxide (CO₂), possessing a Global Warming Potential (GWP) roughly 25 to 34 times higher over a 100-year period. By igniting the gas in a flare stack, the methane undergoes combustion according to the reaction CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O. This conversion ensures that the resulting emissions consist of carbon dioxide and water vapor, which, despite still being greenhouse gases, have a much lower relative impact on global temperature rise than raw methane would if released directly into the atmosphere.

78Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the detailed corporate governance norms for listed companies issued in April 2014 by SEBI is/are correct ? 1. It provides for stricter disclosures and protection of investor rights, including equitable treatment for minority and foreign shareholders 2. Under the new norms listed companies are required to provide the option of facility of e-voting to shareholders on all resolutions proposed to be passed at general meetings Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) amended Clause 49 of the Listing Agreement in April 2014 to align corporate governance standards with the Companies Act, 2013. These norms introduced stricter disclosure requirements and significantly enhanced the protection of investor rights. Specifically, the guidelines mandated equitable treatment for all shareholders, including minority and foreign investors, by ensuring they have access to relevant information and a voice in critical corporate decisions such as related party transactions.

Furthermore, SEBI made it mandatory for all listed companies to provide e-voting facilities to their shareholders for every resolution proposed at general meetings. This initiative was aimed at leveraging technology to facilitate wider shareholder participation, allowing investors to cast their votes electronically regardless of their physical location, thereby improving the democratic functioning of listed entities.

79Geography
With reference to the various multipurpose projects in India, which one among the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Mayurakshi project is a joint venture of Odisha and West Bengal

Explanation

The Mayurakshi project is a major multipurpose project of the West Bengal government, primarily designed for irrigation and hydroelectric power generation. The project involves the construction of the Massanjore Dam, also known as the Canada Dam, which is located on the Mayurakshi River in the Dumka district of present-day Jharkhand (formerly part of Bihar). While the dam is situated in Jharkhand, the project was specifically developed to provide irrigation and electricity to the Birbhum, Murshidabad, and Bardhaman districts of West Bengal. Odisha is not a partner or beneficiary in this project, making the claim that it is a joint venture between Odisha and West Bengal factually incorrect.

80Science and Technology
3G and 4G are wireless technologies, which are supposedly faster, more secure and reliable. Present day 3G technology is capable of handling data around 2 Megabits per second (1.8 - 2.5 GHz frequency band). What speed is expected from new 4G technology ?
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Answer: (C) 100 Megabits-1 Gigabit per second (2-8 GHz frequency band)

Explanation

The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) established the requirements for 4G standards under the IMT-Advanced (International Mobile Telecommunications-Advanced) specification. For a technology to be defined as 4G, it must provide peak data rates of approximately 100 Megabits per second (Mbps) for high mobility communication, such as for users in cars or trains, and up to 1 Gigabit per second (Gbps) for low mobility communication, such as for pedestrians or stationary users. These high speeds are achieved through advanced technologies like Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing (OFDM) and Multiple-Input Multiple-Output (MIMO), utilizing a broad range of frequencies generally situated between the 2 GHz and 8 GHz bands to ensure a balance between data capacity and signal propagation.

81Geography
The Kuroshio is a north flowing Ocean current on the west side of the North Pacific Ocean. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) It begins off the coast of Japan and flows northward

Explanation

The Kuroshio current does not originate off the coast of Japan. It begins in the western tropical Pacific Ocean as a continuation of the North Equatorial Current, specifically off the coast of the Philippines and Taiwan. From there, it flows northward toward the Japanese archipelago. While it does travel along the southern and eastern coasts of Japan, its starting point is located much further south in the low-latitude tropical region where it gathers its characteristic warm water.

82Logical Reasoning
Consider the following information : 1. Six books are kept one above the other 2. History book is just above Commerce book and Mathematics book is just above Civics book and just below Physics book 3. English book is between History and Civics books Which book is between Mathematics book and English book ?
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Answer: (C) Physics

Explanation

Based on the information provided, we can determine the order of the books from top to bottom:

From the second statement, we have two distinct blocks of positions. First, the History book is just above the Commerce book (History, Commerce). Second, the Mathematics book is just above the Civics book and just below the Physics book, creating the sequence: Physics, Mathematics, Civics.

From the third statement, the English book is located between the History and Civics books. To satisfy this while incorporating the five books already positioned, we can arrange them in a single sequence: History Commerce English Physics Mathematics Civics

Verifying this arrangement against all conditions: There are six books in total. History is just above Commerce (1st and 2nd positions). Mathematics is just above Civics (5th and 6th positions). Mathematics is just below Physics (5th is below 4th). English (3rd position) is between History (1st) and Civics (6th).

In this sequence, the Physics book (4th) is located between the English book (3rd) and the Mathematics book (5th).

83Economy
Pesticide treadmill refers to :
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Answer: (B) Increase in doses of pesticides to prevent the resurgence of pests that were being controlled

Explanation

The pesticide treadmill describes a self-reinforcing cycle of chemical dependency in agriculture. When synthetic pesticides are applied, they initially kill a large percentage of the target pest population. However, a small number of individuals with natural genetic resistance survive and reproduce, passing this resistance to their offspring. As the pest population becomes increasingly resistant, the original pesticide dosage becomes ineffective. To combat the resurgence of these resistant pests, farmers are forced to use higher concentrations of the chemicals, more frequent applications, or switch to increasingly toxic alternatives. This creates a continuous need for more intensive chemical interventions to achieve the same level of pest control previously obtained with smaller amounts.

84Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (Wildlife Sanctuary) List II (State) A. Mahananda 1. Madhya Pradesh B. Lakhari Valley 2. Uttar Pradesh C. Pachmarhi 3. West Bengal D. Chandra Prabha 4. Odisha Code : A B C D
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Answer: (A) 3 4 1 2

Explanation

Mahananda Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the foothills of the Himalayas in the Darjeeling district of West Bengal, serving as an important corridor for elephant migration. Lakhari Valley Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Gajapati district of Odisha and is known for its diverse flora and fauna within tropical deciduous forests. Pachmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary is found in the Hoshangabad district of Madhya Pradesh and forms a central part of the Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve in the Satpura Range. Chandra Prabha Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Chandauli district of Uttar Pradesh and was originally established in the 1950s as a habitat for Asiatic lions.

85Logical Reasoning
The right letters for question marks (?) in the following series are : A C B E C G D ? ?
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Answer: (D) I E

Explanation

The given series is an alternating series composed of two separate sequences interleaved with each other. By separating the terms into odd and even positions, the pattern becomes clear.

The first sequence consists of the letters at the odd positions (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, and 9th terms): A, B, C, D, ... This is a simple alphabetical progression where each term moves forward by one letter. Following this pattern, the 9th term (the second question mark) is E.

The second sequence consists of the letters at the even positions (2nd, 4th, 6th, and 8th terms): C, E, G, ... In this sequence, the letters increase by two positions in the alphabet (C + 2 = E, E + 2 = G). Following this pattern, the next letter is G + 2 = I. Therefore, the 8th term (the first question mark) is I.

Combining these results, the two missing letters in the series are I and E.

86Science and Technology
Nowadays a new term 'jail breaking' is in use. It implies a process :
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Answer: (B) that gives users the ability to install unauthorized software on certain types of phones

Explanation

Jailbreaking is a process that removes software restrictions imposed by the manufacturer on devices running certain operating systems, most notably Apple's iOS. By exploiting security vulnerabilities, jailbreaking grants the user root access to the device's file system, bypassing the digital rights management (DRM) controls that limit the device to running only manufacturer-approved code. This allows for the installation of third-party applications, themes, and extensions from unauthorized sources that are not available through the official App Store. It essentially unlocks the operating system to provide the user with greater control over the hardware and software environment.

87Geography
Which one among the following is the most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar Desert in Western India ?
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Answer: (D) The moisture carried by the SouthWest Monsoon is driven away by the dry upper air current

Explanation

The Thar Desert's aridity is primarily caused by specific atmospheric dynamics during the monsoon season. While the Southwest Monsoon brings moisture-laden winds from the Arabian Sea into the region, the presence of a persistent dry upper air current inhibits rainfall. This upper air subsidence, associated with the subtropical high-pressure belt, creates an inversion layer that prevents the moist surface air from rising and cooling to its dew point. Consequently, the atmospheric stability suppresses convective activity and cloud formation, effectively counteracting the moisture present in the lower atmosphere. This mechanism maintains the hyper-arid conditions of Western India despite its proximity to the sea and the path of monsoon winds.

88Quantitative Aptitude
If x is a positive integer such that 2x + 12 is perfectly divisible by x, then the number of possible values of x is :
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Answer: (C) 6

Explanation

The expression (2x + 12)/x can be simplified by dividing each term in the numerator by x: 2x/x + 12/x = 2 + 12/x

For 2x + 12 to be perfectly divisible by x, the result of this expression must be an integer. Since 2 is an integer, the term 12/x must also result in an integer. This condition is satisfied when x is a positive divisor of 12.

To find the number of positive integer factors of 12, we use the prime factorization method. The number 12 can be expressed as: 12 = 2² × 3¹

The total number of factors for a number N = p₁^a × p₂^b is given by the formula (a + 1)(b + 1). Substituting the exponents from the prime factorization: Number of factors = (2 + 1) × (1 + 1) = 3 × 2 = 6

The six possible values for x are the divisors of 12, which are {1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12}.

89Science and Technology
What is clickjacking ?
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Answer: (C) A malicious technique of tricking Web users into revealing confidential information

Explanation

Clickjacking, also technically known as user interface (UI) redressing, is a malicious technique where an attacker uses multiple transparent or opaque layers to trick a user into clicking on a button or link on another page when they intended to click on the visible top-level page. By embedding an invisible iframe containing a target website over a decoy webpage, the attacker hijacks the user's interaction. This leads the user to perform unintended actions such as deleting accounts, changing privacy settings, or revealing confidential information and login credentials without their knowledge or consent.

90Geography
The inner most region of a hurricane is known as hurricane-eye where :
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Answer: (A) temperature is highest and pressure is the lowest

Explanation

The eye of a hurricane is a central region of relative calm characterized by the lowest atmospheric pressure found within the storm. This extreme low pressure is generated by the intense cyclonic rotation and the centrifugal force of the surrounding eyewall. Within this central core, air from high altitudes sinks toward the surface in a process known as subsidence. As this air descends, it undergoes adiabatic compression, which significantly increases its temperature. This makes the eye the warmest part of the hurricane, a feature described as a warm core. This sinking motion also inhibits the formation of clouds, often resulting in clear skies and light winds despite the violent conditions existing just outside in the eyewall.

91Quantitative Aptitude
The following table gives demand and supply of rice, in million ton, for the period 2008 to 2013. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand : | Year | Demand | Supply | |------|--------|--------| | 2008 | 43.3 | 46.4 | | 2009 | 47.2 | 47.8 | | 2010 | 49.5 | 50.7 | | 2011 | 53.4 | 54.2 | | 2012 | 54.5 | 57.3 | | 2013 | 62.7 | 63.4 | The increase in demand of rice was the lowest in the year :
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Answer: (C) 2012

Explanation

To find the year with the lowest increase in demand, we calculate the difference between the demand of the current year and the demand of the preceding year.

For the year 2009, the increase is 47.2 - 43.3 = 3.9 million tons. For the year 2010, the increase is 49.5 - 47.2 = 2.3 million tons. For the year 2011, the increase is 53.4 - 49.5 = 3.9 million tons. For the year 2012, the increase is 54.5 - 53.4 = 1.1 million tons. For the year 2013, the increase is 62.7 - 54.5 = 8.2 million tons.

Comparing the calculated increments, the value of 1.1 million tons in 2012 is the lowest among all the years in the given period.

92Quantitative Aptitude
The following table gives demand and supply of rice, in million ton, for the period 2008 to 2013. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand : | Year | Demand | Supply | |------|--------|--------| | 2008 | 43.3 | 46.4 | | 2009 | 47.2 | 47.8 | | 2010 | 49.5 | 50.7 | | 2011 | 53.4 | 54.2 | | 2012 | 54.5 | 57.3 | | 2013 | 62.7 | 63.4 | The average surplus (in million ton) rice for the period 2009 to 2013 is :
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Answer: (B) 1.22

Explanation

Surplus is calculated as the difference between Supply and Demand. To find the average surplus for the period 2009 to 2013, we first calculate the surplus for each year in that range:

For 2009: 47.8 - 47.2 = 0.6 million ton For 2010: 50.7 - 49.5 = 1.2 million ton For 2011: 54.2 - 53.4 = 0.8 million ton For 2012: 57.3 - 54.5 = 2.8 million ton For 2013: 63.4 - 62.7 = 0.7 million ton

The total surplus for these 5 years is the sum of these values: Total Surplus = 0.6 + 1.2 + 0.8 + 2.8 + 0.7 = 6.1 million ton

The average surplus is given by the formula: Average Surplus = Total Surplus/Number of Years Average Surplus = 6.1/5 = 1.22 million ton

93Quantitative Aptitude
The following table gives demand and supply of rice, in million ton, for the period 2008 to 2013. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand : | Year | Demand | Supply | |------|--------|--------| | 2008 | 43.3 | 46.4 | | 2009 | 47.2 | 47.8 | | 2010 | 49.5 | 50.7 | | 2011 | 53.4 | 54.2 | | 2012 | 54.5 | 57.3 | | 2013 | 62.7 | 63.4 | In how many years, the supply (in million ton) of rice was more than the average supply for 2008 to 2013 ?
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Answer: (A) 3

Explanation

To find the number of years where the supply was above the average, we first calculate the average supply for the given period (2008-2013):

Average Supply = Sum of supply for all years/Number of years

Sum of supply = 46.4 + 47.8 + 50.7 + 54.2 + 57.3 + 63.4 = 319.8 million ton.

Average supply = 319.8/6 = 53.3 million ton.

Now, we compare the supply of each individual year with the average value of 53.3: 2008: 46.4 < 53.3 2009: 47.8 < 53.3 2010: 50.7 < 53.3 2011: 54.2 > 53.3 2012: 57.3 > 53.3 2013: 63.4 > 53.3

The supply was more than the average in 2011, 2012, and 2013, making a total of 3 years.

94Quantitative Aptitude
The following table gives demand and supply of rice, in million ton, for the period 2008 to 2013. Surplus is defined as excess of supply over demand : | Year | Demand | Supply | |------|--------|--------| | 2008 | 43.3 | 46.4 | | 2009 | 47.2 | 47.8 | | 2010 | 49.5 | 50.7 | | 2011 | 53.4 | 54.2 | | 2012 | 54.5 | 57.3 | | 2013 | 62.7 | 63.4 | The surplus of rice was lowest for the year :
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Answer: (D) 2009

Explanation

Surplus is calculated using the formula Surplus = Supply - Demand. By applying this formula to each year provided in the table, we get:

For 2008: 46.4 - 43.3 = 3.1 million ton For 2009: 47.8 - 47.2 = 0.6 million ton For 2010: 50.7 - 49.5 = 1.2 million ton For 2011: 54.2 - 53.4 = 0.8 million ton For 2012: 57.3 - 54.5 = 2.8 million ton For 2013: 63.4 - 62.7 = 0.7 million ton

Comparing these values, the minimum surplus is 0.6 million ton, which occurred in the year 2009.

95Geography
The weight of any object is felt due to gravity of Earth. When any object goes inside the Earth or above the Earth, weight decreases. It will weigh minimum when an object is placed at :
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Answer: (D) Centre of Earth and in an orbiting satellite

Explanation

The weight of an object is defined as the force with which gravity pulls it toward a celestial body, expressed as W = mg. At the center of the Earth, the gravitational force exerted by the Earth's mass cancels out because the object is surrounded by the Earth's mass in all directions. According to Shell Theorem, the gravitational force inside a uniform spherical shell at its center is zero. Therefore, at the Earth's center, the acceleration due to gravity g becomes zero, resulting in a weight of zero.

In an orbiting satellite, the object is in a state of persistent free fall. The gravitational pull of the Earth provides the necessary centripetal force required to keep the satellite in its circular or elliptical orbit. From the perspective of an observer inside the satellite, the centrifugal force perfectly balances the gravitational force. This results in a state of apparent weightlessness where the normal reaction force is zero, making it the minimum possible weight an object can experience.

96Geography
Which one among the following countries of Asia is land-locked ?
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Answer: (C) Laos

Explanation

Laos is the only landlocked nation in Southeast Asia, positioned in the center of the Indochinese Peninsula. It is bordered by China to the north, Vietnam to the east, Cambodia to the south, Thailand to the west, and Myanmar to the northwest. This geographic situation means that the country has no direct territorial access to the sea or any ocean, making it entirely dependent on its neighbors for transit to international maritime trade routes. Its terrain is primarily mountainous and densely forested, further emphasizing its inland character within the region.

97Science and Technology
Large Hadron Collider was in news recently for doing some scientific research to prove the presence of an elementary particle. The scientist who predicted this particle in 1964 has been awarded Nobel Prize in 2013. What is this discovery ?
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Answer: (C) Higg's Bosons or God Particles explaining why fundamental particles have mass

Explanation

The discovery refers to the Higgs boson, a fundamental particle predicted by Peter Higgs and François Englert in 1964. This particle is the physical manifestation of the Higgs field, an invisible energy field that permeates the entire universe. According to the Standard Model of particle physics, fundamental particles such as quarks and electrons acquire mass by interacting with this field. The Large Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN provided the experimental confirmation of the particle's existence in 2012. This validation of the Brout-Englert-Higgs mechanism led to Peter Higgs and François Englert being awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2013 for their theoretical work on how subatomic particles obtain mass.

98Geography
The Mariana trench is the deepest part of the Oceans. Which one among the following statements regarding this is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) It is located in the Western Pacific Ocean, to the West of Mariana island

Explanation

The Mariana Trench is located in the Western Pacific Ocean to the East of the Mariana Islands. It is a crescent-shaped trench that forms part of the convergent plate boundary where the Pacific Plate is subducted beneath the smaller Mariana Plate. Geographically, the volcanic arc of the Mariana Islands sits on the overriding plate to the West of the trench itself. Therefore, saying the trench is located to the West of the islands is geographically inaccurate.

99Quantitative Aptitude
There are 28 steps in a temple. In the time A, initially at the 28th step, comes down two steps, B, initially at 1st step, goes one step up. If they start simultaneously and keep their speed uniform, then at which step from the bottom will they meet ?
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Answer: (C) 10th

Explanation

Let n represent the number of time intervals elapsed. Person A starts at the 28th step and descends at a rate of 2 steps per interval, so the position of A after n intervals is 28 - 2n. Person B starts at the 1st step and ascends at a rate of 1 step per interval, so the position of B after n intervals is 1 + n.

For them to meet, their positions must be identical: 28 - 2n = 1 + n 27 = 3n n = 9

Substituting n = 9 into the position equation for B, we find the step number from the bottom: 1 + 9 = 10

Similarly, checking with the position of A: 28 - 2(9) = 10

Both individuals reach the 10th step simultaneously after 9 time intervals.

100Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List I (cell type) List II (Function) A. Red Blood Cell 1. Help blood to clot B. White Blood Cell 2. Fight infection C. The Platelets 3. Carrier of dissolved substances D. The Plasma 4. Transport oxygen Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 2 1 3

Explanation

Red Blood Cells contain the protein hemoglobin, which specifically binds with oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the tissues, making them the primary oxygen transporters in the circulatory system. White Blood Cells, or leukocytes, are integral components of the immune system that protect the body against both infectious disease and foreign invaders. Platelets, also known as thrombocytes, are specialized cell fragments that aggregate at the site of a blood vessel injury to initiate the clotting process and prevent excessive blood loss. Plasma is the liquid component of blood, consisting mostly of water, that serves as a medium for transporting dissolved substances such as nutrients, hormones, waste products, and minerals throughout the body.

101Geography
The Saragasso Sea is a vast patch of Atlantic Ocean characterized by an abundance of floating brown seaweed called 'Sargassum'. This is formed due to the deposit of marine plants and refuse carried by the : 1. North Atlantic current 2. Canary current 3. North Atlantic Equatorial current Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Sargasso Sea is a unique region in the North Atlantic Ocean defined not by land boundaries but by four circulating ocean currents that form the North Atlantic Subtropical Gyre. These currents include the North Atlantic Current to the north, the Canary Current to the east, the North Equatorial Current to the south, and the Gulf Stream to the west. As these currents rotate in a clockwise direction, they create a convergence zone in the center of the gyre. This rotational movement traps floating marine plants, specifically the brown seaweed known as Sargassum, along with other marine refuse, in the relatively calm and still waters of the interior. Therefore, the North Atlantic current, the Canary current, and the North Atlantic Equatorial current are all essential components of the circulating system that facilitates the deposit and accumulation of material in the Sargasso Sea.

102Quantitative Aptitude
A class starts at 11:00 am and lasts till 2:27 pm. Four periods of equal duration are held during this interval. After every period, a rest of 5 minutes is given to the students. The exact duration of each period is :
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Answer: (B) 48 minutes

Explanation

The total time elapsed from 11:00 am to 2:27 pm is 3 hours and 27 minutes. Converting this duration into minutes gives: Total duration = (3 × 60) + 27 = 207 minutes.

There are four periods of equal duration. Since a 5-minute rest is given after every period, there are exactly three rest intervals occurring between the four periods (after the first, second, and third periods). No rest period is counted after the fourth period as the class session concludes at 2:27 pm.

Total rest time = 3 × 5 = 15 minutes. Total time dedicated to the four periods = Total duration - Total rest time = 207 - 15 = 192 minutes. Duration of each period = 192 ÷ 4 = 48 minutes.

103Science and Technology
Which of the following are not chemical changes ? 1. Tempering of iron 2. Conversion of iron piece into an electro-magnet by passing the current around the iron 3. Melting of iron 4. Rusting of iron Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Tempering of iron is a heat treatment technique used to improve the mechanical properties of the metal by heating it to a specific temperature below its melting point and then cooling it. This process changes the internal crystalline structure and physical characteristics of the iron without altering its chemical composition. The magnetization of an iron piece to create an electromagnet occurs due to the alignment of magnetic domains within the metal in response to an electric field; this is a physical phenomenon that is typically reversible and does not produce any new chemical substances. Melting of iron is a phase transition where the substance changes from a solid to a liquid state (Fe(s) → Fe(l)) at its melting point. Since phase changes do not alter the molecular or atomic identity of the substance, melting is classified as a physical change. These three processes are distinct from chemical changes like rusting, which involves a reaction between iron, oxygen, and moisture to form a new substance, hydrated iron(III) oxide.

104Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to the Indian Peninsular Plateau is/are correct ? 1. The Southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss 2. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally arranged lava sheets 3. The Malwa plateau dominates the Vindhyan scraps, forming the Eastern flank of the plateau 4. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti is interposed between the Vindhyan and the Satpura ranges Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Indian Peninsular Plateau is an ancient landmass forming part of the Gondwanaland, characterized by its stability and geological composition. The Southern block of the plateau consists predominantly of Archean crystalline rocks, specifically granite and gneiss, which form the base of the Deccan and South Indian shields. The Deccan Trap region is a classic example of a volcanic plateau formed by fissure eruptions. During the late Cretaceous period, successive layers of basaltic lava flowed out and solidified into horizontal sheets. This gives the region its characteristic step-like or tableland topography, where the lava sheets are stacked on top of each other. These two features define the core geological and structural framework of the Peninsular region.

105Logical Reasoning
All letters of which of the following series of the English Alphabet appear same when looked at in a mirror ?
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Answer: (C) T, U, V, W, X

Explanation

The letters in the series T, U, V, W, and X all possess vertical symmetry. A letter appears the same in a mirror image when it has a vertical axis of symmetry, meaning its left side is a perfect reflection of its right side. When these specific characters are placed before a mirror, the reflection process swaps the left and right sides, but since both sides are identical, the appearance remains unchanged. All five letters in this specific group satisfy this property of reflectional symmetry.

106Science and Technology
Arrange the following fuels in the decreasing order of air pollution caused by burning a kilogram of each of them :
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Answer: (B) Diesel, Petrol, CNG

Explanation

Diesel fuels are heavier hydrocarbons that produce the highest levels of particulate matter and nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) upon combustion. The complex chemical structure and the compression-ignition process in diesel engines lead to significant soot and sulfur emissions. Petrol is a lighter fraction than diesel and burns more cleanly regarding particulates, though it still emits substantial carbon monoxide and unburnt hydrocarbons. CNG, which is primarily methane (CH₄), has a simpler molecular structure with a high hydrogen-to-carbon ratio. This allows for more complete combustion, resulting in the lowest emissions of carbon dioxide (CO₂), nitrogen oxides, and nearly negligible particulate matter compared to liquid fossil fuels. This hierarchy identifies diesel as the most polluting, followed by petrol, with CNG being the cleanest alternative.

107Geography
Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their source near the Manasarovar Lake in the Great Himalayas. Which among the following are the rivers ?
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Answer: (C) Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej

Explanation

The region surrounding Lake Manasarovar and Mount Kailash in the Tibetan Plateau serves as a primary hydrological source for several major river systems in South Asia. The Brahmaputra, known as the Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibet, originates from the Angsi Glacier located southeast of Lake Manasarovar. The Indus River begins its course from the northern slopes of the Kailash Range near the Sengge Zangbo source, situated just north of the lake. The Sutlej River originates from Lake Rakshastal, which lies immediately to the west of Lake Manasarovar and is geographically linked to it. These three rivers are characterized as antecedent rivers because they existed before the Himalayan mountain range attained its current height, eventually carving deep gorges as they flow into the Indian subcontinent.

108Science and Technology
Which of the following ions present in low concentration in drinking water is essential for normal growth of teeth but harmful to teeth at high concentration ?
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Answer: (C) Fluoride

Explanation

Fluoride is a trace element that plays a dual role in dental health depending on its concentration in drinking water. At low concentrations, typically around 0.5 to 1.0 mg/L, it is essential for the development of healthy teeth and the prevention of dental caries. It works by converting hydroxyapatite in tooth enamel into fluorapatite, which is significantly more resistant to acid attacks from mouth bacteria. However, when the concentration exceeds the World Health Organization's guideline of 1.5 mg/L, it becomes harmful, leading to a condition known as dental fluorosis. This condition causes permanent mottling, staining, and pitting of the tooth enamel during the mineralization stage of tooth development in children. Chronic ingestion at even higher levels can lead to skeletal fluorosis, which affects the bones and joints.

109Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the duties and functions of Indian Coast Guard ? 1. Preservation and protection of marine environment 2. Safety and protection of artificial islands 3. Assistance in anti smuggling operations Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is a multi-mission organization, established by the Coast Guard Act, 1978, to protect Indias maritime interests and enforce maritime law within its jurisdiction. Under Section 14 of the Act, the primary duties of the ICG include the safety and protection of artificial islands, offshore terminals, and other installations in the maritime zones. The organization is also legally mandated to take necessary measures for the preservation and protection of the marine environment, which involves preventing and controlling marine pollution. Additionally, the ICG provides critical support to the Customs department and other authorities by assisting in anti-smuggling operations. Other responsibilities include ensuring the safety of life and property at sea, providing assistance to fishermen in distress, and enforcing various maritime enactments. All three functions listed are central to its statutory obligations for maritime security and environmental stewardship.

110Science and Technology
List I List II A. Colour of an opaque object 1. Fluorescence B. Colour observed through a coloured glass 2. Reflection C. Bending of the image of a rod partially dipped in water 3. Transmission D. Shining observed when one steps on an earthworm 4. Refraction Code : A B C D
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Answer: (D) 2 3 4 1

Explanation

The colour of an opaque object is determined by reflection, as these objects absorb most wavelengths of light and reflect only specific ones that reach the observer eye. Colour observed through a coloured glass is the result of transmission, where the glass acts as a filter, absorbing certain wavelengths and allowing others to pass through. The bending of the image of a rod partially dipped in water is a classic demonstration of refraction, occurring because light changes speed and direction when moving from the denser medium of water to the rarer medium of air. The shining observed when one steps on an earthworm is attributed to fluorescence, caused by the excitation of specific chemicals in the earthworm coelomic fluid which then emit light.

111Geography
Which of the following islands are made of small coral atolls and reefs in the Arabian Sea ?
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Answer: (D) Lakshadweep

Explanation

Lakshadweep is an archipelago located in the Arabian Sea, approximately 200 to 440 km off the Malabar Coast of India. The entire island group is of coral origin, consisting of 36 islands including 12 atolls, 3 reefs, and 5 submerged banks. These islands are formed by the deposition of calcium carbonate from coral polyps on the Chagos-Laccadive Ridge, which is a submarine volcanic mountain range. The presence of shallow lagoons and various types of coral formations like fringing reefs and atolls characterizes its unique geography within the Arabian Sea.

112Logical Reasoning
Six roads lead to a village. They are named as A, B, C, D, E, F. When there is storm, B is blocked. When there are floods, A, D and E will be affected. When road D is blocked, C also is blocked. At a time, when there are floods and a storm also blows, which road/roads can be used ?
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Answer: (C) F

Explanation

The occurrence of a storm directly blocks road B. The occurrence of floods directly affects and blocks roads A, D, and E. Additionally, the problem states a conditional constraint that if road D is blocked, road C is also blocked; since road D is blocked by the floods, road C becomes unusable as well. Evaluating all six roads, A, B, C, D, and E are all rendered impassable by the combination of the weather conditions and the stated dependency. Road F is the only road for which no blocking condition is mentioned, meaning it remains the only usable route.

113Science and Technology
Which of the following lamps contains a poisonous gas and therefore should be disposed safely ?
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Answer: (A) Compact fluorescent lamp

Explanation

Compact fluorescent lamps (CFLs) contain a small amount of mercury (Hg), typically around 3 to 5 milligrams per bulb, in the form of vapor and droplets. Mercury is an essential component in these lamps; when an electric current passes through the mercury vapor, it emits ultraviolet (UV) light, which then excites the phosphor coating on the inside of the glass tube to produce visible light. Mercury is a highly toxic heavy metal and a potent neurotoxin that can cause damage to the brain, kidneys, and lungs. If a CFL breaks or is disposed of in a standard landfill, the mercury can escape into the environment, leading to air and water contamination and potentially entering the food chain through bioaccumulation. Consequently, CFLs are classified as hazardous waste and require specialized disposal and recycling procedures to capture the mercury safely.

114Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Jaitapur, which is situated in Rajapur Tehsil of Ratnagiri district in Maharashtra ? 1. It was one of the important ports in ancient and early medieval times 2. It is a proposed nuclear power plant site being constructed with the collaboration of France Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Jaitapur is historically significant as a prominent port on the Konkan coast of Maharashtra. During the ancient and early medieval eras, it served as an essential center for maritime trade, connecting inland markets with international trade routes across the Arabian Sea.

In the contemporary context, Jaitapur is the site of a proposed 9,900 MW nuclear power project. This project is being developed by the Nuclear Power Corporation of India Limited in collaboration with the French company Areva. The agreement involves the installation of six European Pressurized Reactors (EPR), making it a cornerstone of the Indo-French civil nuclear cooperation framework aimed at expanding India's clean energy production.

115Quantitative Aptitude
In a family, the age of father, mother, son and grandson are A, B, C and D respectively. Given that A - B = 3 , B + C = 78 , C + D = 33 and the average age of the family is 34 years, then B - C is :
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Answer: (D) 22

Explanation

Given the ages of the family members as A, B, C, and D, we can represent the information with the following equations: A - B = 3 ⇒ A = B + 3 B + C = 78 C + D = 33 ⇒ D = 33 - C The average age is 34, so the sum of ages is A + B + C + D = 34 × 4 = 136.

To find B and C, express all variables in terms of B and C. From the first equation, A = B + 3. From the third equation, we can substitute C using the second equation (C = 78 - B), giving D = 33 - (78 - B) = B - 45.

Substituting these into the sum equation: (B + 3) + B + (78 - B) + (B - 45) = 136 2B + 36 = 136 2B = 100 B = 50

Now, find C using B + C = 78: 50 + C = 78 ⇒ C = 28

Finally, calculate B - C: 50 - 28 = 22

116Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. 'Ship of Theseus' was adjudged as the best feature film in the 61st National Film Awards 2. 'Ship of Theseus' was produced and directed by Rakeysh Omprakash Mehra Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The 61st National Film Awards, announced in 2014 for films released in 2013, honored the philosophical drama Ship of Theseus with the Swarna Kamal (Golden Lotus) for Best Feature Film. This recognition is the highest honor at the National Film Awards. While the film achieved this distinction, it was written and directed by Anand Gandhi and produced by Sohum Shah under the banner of Recyclewala Films. Rakeysh Omprakash Mehra was not the producer or director of Ship of Theseus; his film Bhaag Milkha Bhaag won the award for Best Popular Film Providing Wholesome Entertainment at the same ceremony. Therefore, only the first statement is factually accurate according to the records of the 61st National Film Awards.

117Geography
Which meridian forms the boundary line between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean ?
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Answer: (A) The meridian of Cape of Tasmania

Explanation

The boundary between the Indian Ocean and the Pacific Ocean is geographically defined by the meridian of South East Cape, which is the southernmost point of the island of Tasmania, Australia. According to the definitions established by the International Hydrographic Organization (IHO), this boundary follows the longitude of 146° 49' E from South East Cape directly southward to the Antarctic continent. This line effectively separates the waters of the Great Australian Bight and the Tasman Sea, marking the transition point between the two major oceans.

118Quantitative Aptitude
A distance X km is covered by two different trains with velocity v (in km/hr) and kv (in km/hr) in y and y + 3 hours respectively. If y < 13 then k is less than :
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Answer: (D) (13)/(16)

Explanation

Using the distance formula Distance = Speed × Time, we can express the distance X for both trains: X = v × y X = kv × (y + 3)

Equating the two expressions for X: vy = kv(y + 3)

Since v ≠ 0, we can divide both sides by v: y = k(y + 3) y = ky + 3k y - ky = 3k y(1 - k) = 3k y = 3k/(1 - k)

It is given that y < 13. Substituting the expression for y: 3k/(1 - k) < 13

Since velocity and time are positive, k must be positive and k < 1 (as the second train takes more time, its speed must be less). Thus, (1 - k) is positive. Multiplying both sides by (1 - k): 3k < 13(1 - k) 3k < 13 - 13k 3k + 13k < 13 16k < 13 k < 13/16

119Science and Technology
Animal cell wall is essentially made of :
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Answer: (C) Lipid bilayer

Explanation

Animal cells do not possess a rigid cell wall like plant cells; instead, they are enclosed by a plasma membrane. The fundamental structural framework of this membrane is the lipid bilayer, which consists of two layers of phospholipid molecules. These phospholipids are amphipathic, containing hydrophilic phosphate heads that face the aqueous environments of the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid, and hydrophobic fatty acid tails that point inward, away from water. This arrangement creates a stable yet flexible semi-permeable barrier that defines the cell boundary, protects the internal contents, and regulates the transport of substances into and out of the cell. In biological contexts where the animal cell boundary is discussed, the lipid bilayer constitutes its primary and essential matrix.

120Logical Reasoning
If B's mother is A's mother's daughter, how is A related to B ?
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Answer: (B) Maternal uncle

Explanation

To determine the relationship, we analyze the description provided for B's mother. The phrase A's mother's daughter refers to the sister of A. The statement establishes that B's mother is A's sister. This makes A the brother of B's mother. In genealogical terms, the brother of one's mother is defined as the maternal uncle. Based on the given options, A must be the male sibling of B's mother, confirming the relationship as maternal uncle.

121Science and Technology
Consider the following statements describing the functions of plants : 1. Photosynthesis is a process to convert light energy from the Sun into chemical energy i.e., Carbohydrates are synthesized from carbon dioxide and water using sun light 2. Fermentation or Zymology is a metabolic process that converts carbohydrate to alcohols and carbon dioxide Which of the statements given above is/ are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Photosynthesis is the primary process through which green plants, algae, and certain bacteria convert solar energy into chemical energy. Using chlorophyll to capture sunlight, plants transform carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O) into glucose, a carbohydrate that serves as a stored energy source. Fermentation, or zymology, is an anaerobic metabolic pathway that occurs when oxygen is limited. In plants, this process typically involves the breakdown of sugars into ethanol and carbon dioxide to generate energy, which is particularly vital for survival during conditions such as seed germination or root waterlogging. Both statements accurately characterize these biochemical transformations occurring within plant life.

122Logical Reasoning
If GOLD is coded as EMJB, then code NMPR stands for what ?
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Answer: (D) PORT

Explanation

The coding pattern follows a reverse shift of 2 positions in the English alphabet for each letter. Specifically, the relationship between the word GOLD and its code EMJB is:

G → E O → M L → J D → B

To find the word that the code NMPR stands for, we must apply the inverse operation by shifting each letter forward by 2 positions:

N → P M → O P → R R → T

Following this logic, the original word is PORT.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2B
  3. 3A
  4. 4A
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14B
  15. 15A
  16. 16D
  17. 17D
  18. 18A
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21A
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26A
  27. 27C
  28. 28C
  29. 29A
  30. 30A
  31. 31D
  32. 32B
  33. 33D
  34. 34A
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37D
  38. 38C
  39. 39C
  40. 40C
  41. 41D
  42. 42C
  43. 43A
  44. 44B
  45. 45C
  46. 46A
  47. 47B
  48. 48A
  49. 49D
  50. 50A
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53A
  54. 54A
  55. 55D
  56. 56D
  57. 57A
  58. 58A
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65C
  66. 66C
  67. 67C
  68. 68A
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71A
  72. 72A
  73. 73D
  74. 74A
  75. 75A
  76. 76B
  77. 77C
  78. 78C
  79. 79C
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83B
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86B
  87. 87D
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95D
  96. 96C
  97. 97C
  98. 98A
  99. 99C
  100. 100C
  101. 101D
  102. 102B
  103. 103C
  104. 104C
  105. 105C
  106. 106B
  107. 107C
  108. 108C
  109. 109D
  110. 110D
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113A
  114. 114C
  115. 115D
  116. 116A
  117. 117A
  118. 118D
  119. 119C
  120. 120B
  121. 121C
  122. 122D

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