Which one of the following European countries borders Atlantic Ocean?
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Answer: (A) Portugal
Explanation
Portugal is situated on the western edge of the Iberian Peninsula in Southwestern Europe. It is the westernmost country of mainland Europe and possesses an extensive coastline that faces the North Atlantic Ocean to the west and south. This direct access to the Atlantic Ocean has historically defined Portugal's maritime identity and was a fundamental factor in its leadership during the Age of Discovery, as the ocean served as the primary gateway for its global exploration and trade routes.
2Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Greenland is an overseas territory of France.
2. Bermuda, an overseas territory of UK, is situated in Western Atlantic.
3. State of Bahrain is situated in the Persian Gulf.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Bermuda is a British Overseas Territory located in the North Atlantic Ocean, situated off the east coast of North America, which places it within the Western Atlantic region. The State of Bahrain is an island nation located in the Persian Gulf, positioned between the Qatar peninsula and the northeastern coast of Saudi Arabia. These geographic and administrative facts confirm that both the status of Bermuda as a UK territory in the Western Atlantic and the location of Bahrain within the Persian Gulf are accurate.
3Geography
If the usual rule of calculation of time were applied for the extremes of Gujarat and Arunachal Pradesh, then approximately time
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Answer: (D) at Arunachal Pradesh would be ahead of that at Gujarat by about 2 hours.
Explanation
The longitudinal extent of India is approximately 30°, stretching from about 68° 7' E in Gujarat to 97° 25' E in Arunachal Pradesh. Since the Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, it takes 4 minutes to cover 1° of longitude (1440 / 360 = 4). Applying this rule, a longitudinal difference of 30° results in a time difference of 30 × 4 = 120 minutes, which equals 2 hours. Because the Earth rotates from west to east, places located further east see the sun earlier and are ahead in time compared to places in the west. Therefore, the local time at the eastern extreme in Arunachal Pradesh is ahead of the western extreme in Gujarat by approximately 2 hours.
4Quantitative Aptitude
While the time in India is 4 p.m., the corresponding time (approximate) in
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Answer: (B) London (England) is 10.30 a.m.
Explanation
Indian Standard Time (IST) is calculated based on the longitude 82° 30' E, which is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). Since London is situated on the Prime Meridian (0° longitude), it follows GMT. To find the corresponding time in London when it is 4:00 p.m. in India, we subtract this 5.5-hour difference from the Indian time.
16:00 hours (IST) - 5:30 hours = 10:30 a.m. (GMT)
Thus, when the time in India is 4 p.m., the corresponding time in London is 10:30 a.m.
5History
Consider the following statements:
1. Lord Mountbatten was sent to India in place of Lord Wavell as the Governor-General of India in March 1947.
2. In July 1947, British Government passed the Act containing the main provisions of the Mountbatten Plan. This is known as the Indian Independence Act.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Lord Mountbatten was appointed to succeed Lord Wavell as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India, arriving in the country in March 1947 to facilitate the transfer of power. Following negotiations with various political stakeholders, he proposed the partition of the subcontinent in the June 3 Plan. The British Parliament subsequently drafted and passed the Indian Independence Act in July 1947, which incorporated the fundamental provisions of the Mountbatten Plan, including the creation of the two independent dominions of India and Pakistan effective from August 15, 1947.
6Quantitative Aptitude
How many numbers are there between 99 and 1000 such that the digit 8 occupies the unit's place?
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Answer: (C) 90
Explanation
The numbers between 99 and 1000 are the 3-digit integers ranging from 100 to 999. To find how many of these have the digit 8 in the unit's place, we consider the structure of a 3-digit number abc.
The unit's digit c is fixed as 8, which provides 1 possibility. The hundred's digit a can be any non-zero digit from 1 to 9 to ensure it remains a 3-digit number, providing 9 possibilities. The ten's digit b can be any digit from 0 to 9, providing 10 possibilities. According to the fundamental principle of counting, the total number of such integers is 9 × 10 × 1 = 90.
Alternatively, these numbers form an arithmetic progression (AP) starting with 108 and ending with 998, where the common difference is 10. Using the formula for the nth term of an AP, aₙ = a + (n - 1)d, where aₙ = 998, a = 108, and d = 10:
998 = 108 + (n - 1)10
890 = (n - 1)10
89 = n - 1
n = 90
7Logical Reasoning
In a question paper there are five questions to be attempted and answer to each question has two choices—True (T) or False (F). It is given that no two candidates have given the answers to the five questions in an identical sequence. For this to happen the maximum number of candidates is—
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Answer: (D) 32
Explanation
The total number of possible ways to answer n questions, where each question has k choices, is given by the formula kⁿ. In this problem, there are n = 5 questions and k = 2 choices (True or False) for each question.
Using the Fundamental Principle of Counting, the total number of unique sequences of answers is:
2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 = 2⁵ = 32
Since no two candidates have provided answers in an identical sequence, each candidate must have a unique sequence. Therefore, the maximum number of candidates possible is equal to the total number of distinct answer sequences available, which is 32.
8Polity and Governance
Which of the following States is the first to have enacted a comprehensive legislation to protect the girl child?
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
Maharashtra was the first state in India to enact comprehensive legislation specifically aimed at the protection of the girl child through the Maharashtra Regulation of Pre-natal Diagnostic Techniques Act in 1988. This pioneering law was introduced to combat the rising incidence of female foeticide by prohibiting the misuse of technology for sex selection and pre-natal sex determination. The legislative framework established by Maharashtra served as the fundamental blueprint for the national Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (PCPNDT) Act passed by the Indian Parliament in 1994. Furthermore, the state led the country by introducing the first comprehensive State Policy for Women in 1994, which included specific provisions for the survival, protection, and development of the girl child.
9Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. 'Astra' is an air-to-air guided missile which was recently test-fired.
2. Recently test-fired 'Akash' is a medium range surface-to-surface missile.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Astra is India's first indigenous beyond-visual-range air-to-air missile (BVRAAM), developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). It was designed to be launched from fighter aircraft to intercept and destroy enemy planes at various altitudes and speeds. The missile was successfully test-fired for the first time in May 2003 from the Integrated Test Range at Chandipur. In contrast, the Akash missile is a medium-range surface-to-air missile (SAM) system designed for air defense to provide multi-directional and multi-target engagement capabilities. Since Akash is a surface-to-air system rather than a surface-to-surface missile, only the first statement regarding Astra is factually accurate within the context of the 2003 test flights.
10Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries is not included in G-8 (Group of eight industrialised countries)?
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Answer: (C) Holland
Explanation
The G8 consisted of eight of the world's largest industrialized economies: France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom, the United States, Canada, and Russia. Holland, representing the Netherlands, has never been a member of the G8. While the Netherlands is a significant global economy and a member of the European Union (which participates in G8 meetings), it does not hold individual membership status in the group. This distinction remained consistent throughout the group's history until Russia's suspension in 2014.
11Art and Culture
Match List-I (Dance Forms) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Dance Forms)
A. Kathakali
B. Kuchipudi
C. Bharat Natyam
List-II: (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Kerala
3. Andhra Pradesh
4. Orissa
5. Karnataka
Code:
A B C
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Answer: (C) 2 3 1
Explanation
Kathakali is a major form of classical Indian dance-drama that originated in the state of Kerala, characterized by its elaborate costumes and facial masks. Kuchipudi is a classical dance form that traces its roots to the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh, blending both nritta (pure dance) and natya (expressive dance). Bharat Natyam is the oldest classical dance tradition in India, which evolved from the Sadir dance performed in the temples and courts of Tamil Nadu. Matching these origins leads to the sequence A-2, B-3, and C-1.
12Economy
Gross National Product of a country is the sum of the market value of all the goods and services produced in a year—
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Answer: (D) plus net income from abroad
Explanation
Gross National Product (GNP) measures the total market value of all final goods and services produced by the factors of production owned by a country's residents, regardless of where those factors are located geographically. The standard economic identity to calculate GNP from Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is:
GNP = GDP + Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA)
Net Factor Income from Abroad is the difference between the income earned by citizens and domestic companies from their activities and assets outside the country and the income earned by foreign citizens and overseas companies from their activities and assets within the country. While GDP accounts for all production within a country's borders, adding the net income from abroad adjusts the figure to represent the total economic output attributable to the nation's citizens and businesses.
13Economy
India had a plan holiday:
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Answer: (B) after the drought of 1966
Explanation
The Plan Holiday refers to the period from 1966 to 1969 when the tradition of five-year planning was temporarily suspended. Following the conclusion of the Third Five-Year Plan in 1966, the Indian economy was in a state of crisis due to the cumulative effects of the 1962 war with China, the 1965 war with Pakistan, and back-to-back years of severe drought in 1965 and 1966. The 1966 drought, in particular, led to a catastrophic drop in food grain production, necessitating a shift in focus toward agricultural recovery and price stabilization. Consequently, the government implemented three successive annual plans instead of a formal Fourth Five-Year Plan to address the immediate economic instability and the urgent food security situation.
14Polity and Governance
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the -
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Answer: (B) Directive Principles of State Policy
Explanation
Article 51 of the Indian Constitution, situated within the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV, explicitly mandates the State to promote international peace and security. This article directs the State to maintain just and honorable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another, and encourage the settlement of international disputes by arbitration. It serves as a constitutional guide for India's foreign policy and its commitment to global stability.
15Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements related to the Prime Minister of India:
1. He signs the bills passed by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his absence.
2. He assists the President in making all the appointments.
3. He communicates to the President all the decisions of the Council of Ministers.
Which of these statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Explanation
Under Article 78 of the Indian Constitution, the Prime Minister serves as the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers. It is his constitutional duty to keep the President informed of all decisions taken by the Council concerning the administration of the Union and any legislative proposals. Additionally, the Prime Minister provides necessary advice and assistance to the President in the exercise of his executive functions, including the appointment of high-ranking officials such as the Attorney General of India, the Comptroller and Auditor General, and the Chairmen and members of various constitutional bodies like the UPSC and the Election Commission. While the President formally makes these appointments, the actual selection and recommendation process is led by the Prime Minister in accordance with the principle of aid and advice.
16Science and Technology
Match List-I (Place) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Place)
A. Sriharikota
B. Thumba
C. Hasan
D. Chandipur
List-II: (State)
1. Karnataka
2. Andhra Pradesh
3. Orissa
4. Kerala
5. Tamil Nadu
Code:
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Sriharikota is an island located in the Nellore district of Andhra Pradesh and serves as the home to the Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), which is India's primary spaceport for launching satellites. Thumba is a suburb of Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala and is the site of the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS), established due to its proximity to the Earth's magnetic equator. Hasan, located in Karnataka, houses the Master Control Facility (MCF) of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), which manages the post-launch operations of geostationary and geosynchronous satellites. Chandipur is a beach in the Baleswar district of Orissa (now Odisha) that hosts the Integrated Test Range (ITR), a major facility used by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) for testing missiles and other flight vehicles.
17Polity and Governance
Separation of the judiciary from the executive in public service of the State is enjoined by—
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Answer: (D) a Directive Principle of State Policy
Explanation
Article 50 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) in Part IV, explicitly mandates the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State. The fundamental objective of this provision is to ensure the independence of the judiciary and prevent the executive branch from exercising judicial powers or influencing legal proceedings. By insulating the judiciary from executive control, the Constitution aims to maintain the rule of law and guarantee an impartial legal system where the adjudicating body remains neutral and free from political pressure. While DPSPs are not justiciable in a court of law, they are fundamental in the governance of the country, and Article 50 serves as the constitutional basis for this structural separation of powers.
18History
Which one amongst the following is the oldest Dynasty?
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Answer: (C) Maurya Dynasty
Explanation
The Maurya Dynasty was founded by Chandragupta Maurya in approximately 322 BCE after he overthrew the Nanda Dynasty with the assistance of Chanakya. It represents the first major pan-Indian empire, reaching its greatest extent under the reign of Emperor Ashoka. Chronologically, the Maurya period spanned from the late 4th century BCE to 185 BCE. This timeline places its establishment well before the rise of the Gupta Empire in the 4th century CE, the Pallava Dynasty which became prominent around the 4th to 6th centuries CE, and the medieval Chola Empire which rose to power in the 9th century CE. Even the early reference to the Cholas in Ashokan edicts confirms that the Maurya Empire was the dominant and established power during the 3rd century BCE.
19History
The Chalukya King who defeated Harshavardhana on the banks of the Narmada was:
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Answer: (A) Pulakesin II
Explanation
Pulakesin II was the most illustrious ruler of the Badami Chalukya dynasty. During his reign, the North Indian emperor Harshavardhana attempted to expand his kingdom into the Deccan region. The two monarchs met in a major battle on the banks of the Narmada River around 618-619 CE. Pulakesin II successfully defeated Harsha, halting his southward advance and forcing him to accept the Narmada as the southern boundary of his empire. This historic victory is immortalized in the Aihole Inscription of 634 CE, composed by the court poet Ravikirti. The inscription poetically describes how Harsha's harsha (joy) was lost when his elephant army was crushed by the Chalukyan forces. This triumph solidified Pulakesin II's status as the Dakshinapathapatha-pathisvara (Lord of the South).
20History
Who among the following Indian rulers was a contemporary of Akbar?
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Answer: (A) Rani Durgawati
Explanation
Rani Durgawati was the ruling Queen of Gondwana from 1550 to 1564, which coincides with the early part of the Mughal Emperor Akbar's reign (1556–1605). She was a Chandel princess who married Dalpat Shah of the Garha-Katanga kingdom. In 1564, seeking to expand his empire, Akbar sent his general Asaf Khan to invade Gondwana. Rani Durgawati led her forces personally and fought a heroic battle against the Mughal army. After being severely wounded in the Battle of Damoh, she chose to take her own life rather than face the humiliation of capture by the Mughal forces.
21History
Consider the following statements related to Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
1. He advocated widow remarriage.
2. He strongly advocated for the abolition of Sati system.
3. He advocated for the promotion of English education.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Raja Ram Mohan Roy, often called the Father of the Indian Renaissance, worked tirelessly for the social and educational advancement of Indian society. He was a staunch advocate for the rights of women, which included supporting their right to inherit property and advocating for widow remarriage to improve their social standing. His most notable achievement was the relentless campaign against the practice of Sati, where his intellectual and moral arguments influenced the British administration to pass the Sati Abolition Act in 1829. Additionally, he believed that modern English education and the study of Western sciences were vital for the intellectual growth and modernization of the country. He actively collaborated with David Hare to establish the Hindu College in 1817 and founded the Vedanta College, which offered courses in both Indian learning and Western physical and social sciences.
22Science and Technology
Tissue culture is:
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Answer: (A) growing of tiny plant fragments in a nutrient solution
Explanation
Tissue culture, or micropropagation, is a biological technique where small pieces of plant tissue, known as explants, are grown under sterile conditions in a controlled laboratory environment. These tiny fragments are placed in a specialized nutrient medium that contains essential minerals, vitamins, carbon sources like sucrose, and specific growth regulators such as auxins and cytokinins. The process relies on the biological principle of totipotency, which is the inherent capacity of a single plant cell to divide and differentiate into a complete, multi-cellular plant. This method allows for the rapid production of a large number of genetically identical clones from a single parent plant fragment.
23Science and Technology
Match List-I (Substance) with List-II (Constituent) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Substance)
A. White paint
B. Glass
C. Artificial fertilizer
D. Match-stick
List-II: (Constituent)
1. Titanium dioxide
2. Phosphorus
3. Sodium silicate
4. Potassium sulphate
5. Potassium chloride
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 1 3 4 2
Explanation
White paint commonly uses Titanium dioxide as a primary white pigment because of its high refractive index, which provides excellent opacity and brightness. Glass production frequently involves Sodium silicate, often referred to as water glass, which is a major component in various glass formulations and chemical applications. Artificial fertilizers often include Potassium sulphate, a source of highly soluble potassium and sulfur that is essential for crop growth, particularly for plants sensitive to chlorides. Match-sticks and their striking surfaces rely on Phosphorus, where red phosphorus is used for its reactive properties to generate the heat necessary for ignition when rubbed against a friction surface.
24History
The six distinct schools of Indian philosophy—Vedanta, Mimamsa, Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika became fully articulated during the:
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Answer: (B) Gupta age
Explanation
The Gupta period, often referred to as the Golden Age of India, was a pivotal era for the formalization and systematization of Indian intellectual traditions. While the foundational concepts of the six orthodox schools—Sankhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisesika, Mimamsa, and Vedanta—had their roots in the earlier Upanishadic and Post-Vedic periods, it was during the Gupta age that they reached their full articulation. This era witnessed a significant revival of Brahmanical culture, leading to the compilation of definitive sutras and the writing of extensive commentaries (Bhashyas) that provided these schools with their rigorous logical and metaphysical structures. The intellectual stability and royal patronage of the Gupta Empire allowed scholars to refine these philosophies, distinguishing them as distinct systems of thought and establishing the classical framework of Indian philosophy that persisted for centuries.
25History
Gautama Buddha attained parinirvana at:
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Answer: (C) Kushinagar
Explanation
Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana, which refers to the final death and the passing into Nirvana of a person who has attained awakening, at Kushinagar in approximately 483 BCE at the age of eighty. Kushinagar was the capital of the Malla republic at the time. According to Buddhist tradition, he traveled to the Sal grove of the Mallas on the banks of the Hiranyavati River and laid down between two Sal trees before passing away. This significant event in the life of the Buddha is commemorated by the Mahaparinirvana Temple and the Parinirvana Stupa located at the archaeological site in modern-day Uttar Pradesh.
26History
Who among the following belongs to the period of Kanishka?
1. Buddhaghosa
2. Nagarjuna
3. Vasumitra
4. Asvaghosa
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
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Answer: (A) 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Kanishka I, the prominent ruler of the Kushan dynasty, was a great patron of Buddhism and his court was adorned by several illustrious scholars. Vasumitra was a distinguished Buddhist theologian who presided over the Fourth Buddhist Council held in Kashmir during Kanishka's reign. Asvaghosa was a celebrated philosopher, dramatist, and poet who served as the vice-president of the same council and is well-known for writing the Buddhacharita. Nagarjuna, the founder of the Madhyamaka school of Mahayana Buddhism, is traditionally and historically associated with the era of Kanishka, having lived during the late 1st or 2nd century CE. These figures played a pivotal role in the religious and intellectual flourishing of the Kushan period. Conversely, Buddhaghosa was a 5th-century CE commentator and scholar who lived during the Gupta era, long after Kanishka's time.
27Science and Technology
Match List-I (Disease) with List-II (Nature of Disease) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Disease)
A. Filaria
B. Epilepsy
C. Enteric fever
D. Mumps
List-II: (Nature of Disease)
1. Hereditary
2. Waterborne
3. Contagious
4. Insect transmitted
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Filaria matches with insect transmitted as it is a parasitic disease caused by microscopic, thread-like worms that are spread from person to person by the bite of infected mosquitoes such as Culex or Anopheles.
Epilepsy matches with hereditary because, while it has various causes, it is a non-infectious neurological condition where genetic factors are frequently responsible for a person's predisposition to seizures.
Enteric fever matches with waterborne because this condition, commonly known as typhoid fever, is caused by the bacterium Salmonella typhi and is typically contracted by drinking water or eating food contaminated by the feces of an infected person.
Mumps matches with contagious because it is an acute viral infection that spreads easily through saliva or respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs, sneezes, or talks.
28Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the hydroelectric plants.
2. In India, the maximum part of electric energy is generated by the thermal power plants.
3. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Ltd. is located in Tamil Nadu.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 2 and 3
Explanation
Thermal power plants are the primary source of electricity in India, contributing the largest share to the total power generation. By 2003, thermal sources, which include coal, gas, and liquid fuel, accounted for more than two-thirds of the total installed capacity and actual generation, significantly outperforming hydroelectric, nuclear, and renewable sources. Neyveli Lignite Corporation Limited, now known as NLC India Limited, is a prominent public sector undertaking under the administrative control of the Ministry of Coal. It was established in 1956 and is located in Neyveli, in the Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu. The corporation operates large open-cast lignite mines and several thermal power stations in this region, serving as a vital power source for the southern grid.
29Science and Technology
The layer of the atmosphere which makes radio communication possible is:
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Answer: (C) ionosphere
Explanation
The ionosphere is a region of the upper atmosphere characterized by a high concentration of ions and free electrons, primarily created by the ionization of atmospheric gases by solar ultraviolet and X-ray radiation. This layer plays a critical role in telecommunications because it reflects certain frequencies of radio waves back to Earth. Specifically, shortwave and medium-wave radio signals transmitted from the surface hit the ionosphere and are refracted back down, a process known as skywave or skip propagation. This mechanism enables long-distance radio communication across the globe by allowing signals to travel far beyond the line of sight of the transmitter.
30Quantitative Aptitude
Rs. 782 is divided into three parts proportional to the fractions 1/2, 2/3 and 3/4 . Then the first part is
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Answer: (D) Rs. 204
Explanation
The ratio of the three parts is given as 1/2 : 2/3 : 3/4. To simplify this into an integer ratio, we multiply each term by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators 2, 3, and 4, which is 12.
The simplified ratio is:
(1/2 × 12) : (2/3 × 12) : (3/4 × 12) = 6 : 8 : 9
The sum of the ratio proportions is 6 + 8 + 9 = 23.
The value of the first part is calculated by multiplying the total amount, Rs. 782, by the fraction representing the first part's share:
First part = 6/23 × 782
Dividing 782 by 23 gives 34. Multiplying this quotient by the ratio term 6:
34 × 6 = 204
The first part is Rs. 204.
31Quantitative Aptitude
If the duty on an article is reduced by 40% of its present rate, by how much per cent must the consumption increase in order that the revenue remains unaltered?
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Answer: (C) 66 2/3 %
Explanation
Total revenue is defined by the product of the rate of duty and the volume of consumption, expressed as R = D × C. When the duty rate is decreased by r%, the consumption must increase by [r / (100 - r)] × 100% to maintain the same level of revenue.
Given a 40% reduction in duty, we substitute r = 40 into the formula:
Percentage increase in consumption = 40/(100 - 40) × 100
Alternatively, if the initial duty is D and consumption is C, the initial revenue is DC. After a 40% reduction, the new duty is 0.6D. To find the new consumption C', we set 0.6D × C' = DC. Solving for C' gives C' = C / 0.6 = C / (3/5) = (5/3)C. The fractional increase is 5/3 - 1 = 2/3, which is equivalent to 66 2/3%.
32Quantitative Aptitude
A train passes through a tunnel whose length is 500 metres in 1 minute while running at a speed of 72 km. per hour. The length of the train is—
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Answer: (A) 700 metres
Explanation
When a train passes through a tunnel, the total distance covered is the sum of the length of the train and the length of the tunnel. First, convert the speed of the train from km/h to m/s using the conversion factor 5/18:
Speed = 72 × 5/18 = 20 m/s
The time taken is given as 1 minute, which is equivalent to 60 seconds. Using the standard formula Distance = Speed × Time, we can calculate the total distance traversed by the train:
Total Distance = 20 m/s × 60 s = 1200 metres
Since the total distance represents the sum of the train's length and the tunnel's length, we have:
Length of Train + 500 m = 1200 m
Length of Train = 1200 m - 500 m = 700 metres
33Polity and Governance
Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Organization) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Person)
A. C.P. Jain
B. M.S. Ramachandran
C. Sunil Arora
D. G.N. Bajpai
List-II: (Organization)
1. Indian Oil Corporation
2. National Thermal Power Corporation
3. Securities and Exchange Board of India
4. Indian Airlines
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
C.P. Jain served as the Chairman and Managing Director of the National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) from September 2000 to March 2006. M.S. Ramachandran was appointed as the Chairman of the Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) in April 2002. Sunil Arora, a Rajasthan cadre IAS officer, served as the Chairman and Managing Director of Indian Airlines between 2002 and 2005. G.N. Bajpai held the office of the Chairman of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) from February 2002 to February 2005.
34Art and Culture
Consider the following statements related to the 50th National Film Awards:
1. Aishwarya Rai got the Best Actress award for her role in the film Devdas.
2. Aparna Sen got the Best Director award for the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer.
3. Konkona Sen got the Best Actress award for her role in the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer.
4. Sanjay Leela Bhansali got the Best Director award for the film Devdas.
Which of these statements are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3
Explanation
At the 50th National Film Awards, which honored films released in 2002, the film Mr. and Mrs. Iyer was a major winner. Aparna Sen received the National Film Award for Best Direction for her work on this film, which dealt with themes of communal harmony and human relationships. Konkona Sen Sharma, credited in the statements as Konkona Sen, won the National Film Award for Best Actress for her lead role as Meenakshi Iyer in the same production. These awards were presented by the President of India in 2003, recognizing excellence in Indian cinema for the preceding year.
35History
Consider the following statements:
1. In July 2003, East Bengal Club won the LG Asean Cup football tournament defeating Bec Tero Sasana Club of Indonesia at Jakarta.
2. Sandip Nandy of East Bengal Club was adjudged the best goalkeeper of this tournament.
3. Baichung Bhutia of East Bengal Club was the highest goal scorer of the tournament.
Which of these statements are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
East Bengal FC made history in July 2003 by winning the LG ASEAN Cup, an international club football tournament held in Jakarta, Indonesia. In the final match, they defeated the Thai club BEC Tero Sasana 3-1 to become the first Indian club to win a recognized international trophy on foreign soil.
Baichung Bhutia was the most dominant player of the competition, scoring 9 goals throughout the tournament to finish as the highest goal scorer. His exceptional performance was a key factor in the team's success and also earned him the Player of the Tournament award. These achievements remain a landmark in Indian club football history.
36Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Linux
B. Pentium
C. C++
D. MODEM
List-II
1. Internet
2. Programming language
3. Microprocessor
4. Operating system
5. Laser printer
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
Linux is a well-known open-source operating system kernel that manages hardware and provides services for software applications. Pentium refers to a series of x86 architecture microprocessors developed by Intel that were standard in personal computers during the late 20th and early 21st centuries. C++ is a powerful, high-level programming language used extensively for developing operating systems, games, and complex software. A MODEM (Modulator-Demodulator) is a hardware device that facilitates communication between computers over telephone or cable lines, serving as a critical component for accessing the internet.
37Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Indo-Tibetan Border Police was raised after the Chinese aggression.
2. Border Security Force was raised in 1965.
3. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy is located in Udaipur.
Which of these statements are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2
Explanation
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police was established on October 24, 1962, specifically in response to the Sino-Indian War. It was conceived as a specialized mountain force to secure the borders along the Himalayas following the Chinese aggression. The Border Security Force was officially raised on December 1, 1965, after the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965 highlighted the inadequacies of the existing border security arrangements which relied on state police battalions. It was created to provide a unified and dedicated central force for guarding India's international borders.
38Quantitative Aptitude
Rakesh got married 8 years ago. His present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of his marriage. Rakesh's sister was 10 years younger to him at the time of his marriage. The age of Rakesh's sister is:
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 38 years
Explanation
Let Rakesh's age at the time of his marriage be x. Since he married 8 years ago, his present age is x + 8. The problem states that his present age is 6/5 times his age at the time of marriage, which gives the equation:
x + 8 = (6/5)x
Multiplying by 5 to clear the fraction:
5x + 40 = 6x
x = 40
Rakesh was 40 years old when he married, so his present age is 40 + 8 = 48 years. The age difference between Rakesh and his sister is constant. Since she was 10 years younger than him at the time of his marriage, she remains 10 years younger than him at present. Therefore, the present age of Rakesh's sister is 48 - 10 = 38 years.
39Quantitative Aptitude
A farmer travelled a distance of 61 km. in 9 hours. He travelled partly on foot at the rate of 4 km. per hour and partly on bicycle at the rate of 9 km. per hour. The distance travelled on foot is:
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Answer: (B) 16 km.
Explanation
Let the time spent travelling on foot be t hours. Since the total duration of the journey is 9 hours, the time spent travelling on the bicycle is (9 - t) hours. The total distance is the sum of the distances covered by each mode of transport, calculated using the formula Distance = Speed × Time.
4t + 9(9 - t) = 61
Expanding the equation gives:
4t + 81 - 9t = 61
81 - 5t = 61
5t = 20
t = 4 hours
The distance travelled on foot is the product of the speed on foot and the time calculated above:
Distance on foot = 4 km/h × 4 hours = 16 km
This can also be verified using the rule of alligation on speeds. The average speed for the trip is 61/9 km/h. The ratio of time spent on foot to time spent on the bicycle is (9 - 61/9) : (61/9 - 4), which simplifies to 20/9 : 25/9, or 4:5. Since the total time is 9 hours, the time spent on foot is exactly 4 hours, confirming the distance is 16 km.
40Art and Culture
Bhimbetka, which was been conferred the status of World Heritage Site is situated in:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
Bhimbetka rock shelters are located in the Raisen District of Madhya Pradesh, situated along the southern edge of the Central Indian Plateau in the foothills of the Vindhya Range. This archaeological site features more than 700 rock shelters, with paintings that span from the Upper Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods through the Chalcolithic and medieval eras. These paintings provide a rare glimpse into the early human life, rituals, and hunting practices of the Indian subcontinent. UNESCO recognized the site's exceptional universal value by declaring it a World Heritage Site in 2003, highlighting its status as one of the largest and oldest repositories of rock art in the world.
41Economy
Prof. Raghuram Rajan has recently been appointed the Chief Economist of:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) International Monetary Fund
Explanation
In September 2003, Raghuram Rajan was appointed as the Economic Counselor and Director of Research at the International Monetary Fund, a role widely referred to as the Chief Economist. He succeeded Kenneth Rogoff in this position. At the age of 40, Rajan made history by becoming both the youngest person and the first non-Westerner to lead the research department of the IMF, where he was tasked with steering the organization's global economic outlook and providing high-level policy analysis.
42History
The autobiography Living History has been authored by
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Hillary Clinton
Explanation
Living History is the memoir written by Hillary Rodham Clinton, published in June 2003. At the time of its release, she was serving as a United States Senator from New York. The book chronicles her early life, her education at Wellesley College and Yale Law School, her marriage to Bill Clinton, and her eight years as the First Lady of the United States. It provides her personal perspective on various political events, the challenges of public life, and her transition from the White House to the Senate. The autobiography was a significant literary event in 2003, detailing her experiences during one of the most scrutinized periods in American political history.
43Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Jean Chretien: President of Austria
Explanation
Jean Chretien served as the 20th Prime Minister of Canada from November 4, 1993, to December 12, 2003. He was the leader of the Liberal Party of Canada and is well-known for his long tenure in Canadian federal politics. In contrast, the President of Austria during the year 2003 was Thomas Klestil, who held the office from 1992 until 2004. Therefore, the pairing of Jean Chretien with the Presidency of Austria is factually incorrect.
44Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Nalin Surie: Ambassador to America
Explanation
Nalin Surie was an Indian diplomat who did not serve as the Ambassador to the United States in 2003. During that period, the position of Indian Ambassador to the United States was held by Lalit Mansingh, who served in the post from March 2001 to 2004. Nalin Surie instead served in the Ministry of External Affairs as a diplomat and was appointed as the Indian Ambassador to China in late 2003, a role he held until 2006.
45Geography
No Biosphere Reserve has been set up at
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Answer: (D) Gulf of Kuchchh
Explanation
As of the year 2003, the Gulf of Kuchchh (Kachchh) had not yet been designated as a Biosphere Reserve. While the area had been protected as India's first Marine National Park and Marine Sanctuary since 1982, it was officially declared a Biosphere Reserve only in 2008. The Biosphere Reserve in this region covers a vast area of the Great Rann of Kuchchh and the Little Rann of Kuchchh, focusing on the conservation of the Indian Wild Ass and the unique saline desert ecosystem. Since the designation occurred several years after 2003, it was not part of the established network of Biosphere Reserves at the time the question was asked.
46Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
1. Antrix is the commercial arm of ISRO for marketing Indian space capabilities.
2. Megha-Tropiques is a joint satellite mission of ISRO and Russian Space Agency for atmospheric studies.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Antrix Corporation Limited was established in 1992 as the wholly owned government company under the administrative control of the Department of Space. It serves as the commercial and marketing wing of ISRO, dedicated to the promotion and commercial exploitation of space products, technical consultancy services, and the transfer of technologies developed by ISRO to industrial partners and international customers.
Megha-Tropiques is a joint satellite mission between the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) and the French National Centre for Space Studies (CNES). It was specifically designed to study the water cycle and energy exchanges in the tropical atmosphere to better understand the tropical weather system. Since the mission is a collaborative effort between India and France, the statement attributing it to a partnership with the Russian Space Agency is incorrect.
47Economy
Bauxite is the principal ore of:
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Answer: (B) Aluminum
Explanation
Bauxite is a sedimentary rock that serves as the world's primary source of aluminum. It consists largely of the aluminum minerals gibbsite Al(OH)₃, boehmite γ-AlO(OH), and diaspore α-AlO(OH), mixed with iron oxides, silica, and titania. The extraction of aluminum from bauxite typically involves two main stages: the Bayer process, which refines the bauxite ore to produce alumina (aluminum oxide), and the Hall-Héroult process, which uses electrolytic reduction to smelt the alumina into pure aluminum metal. Most of the world's bauxite reserves are found in tropical and subtropical regions where intense weathering of silicate rocks has occurred.
48Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. State Central Library is located at Mumbai.
2. National Library is located at New Delhi.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The State Central Library of Maharashtra is situated in the iconic Town Hall building in Mumbai. It is a premier library that also serves as one of the four depository libraries in India entitled to receive a copy of every book published in the country under the Delivery of Books and Newspapers (Public Libraries) Act, 1954. The National Library of India is located at the Belvedere Estate in Kolkata, West Bengal, which is why the second statement is incorrect.
49Geography
Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of contribution to the forest-cover of India:
According to the official data from the Forest Survey of India available in 2003, dense forests constituted the largest component of the national forest cover, spanning over 400,000 square kilometers. Open forests followed as the second largest category, covering approximately 258,000 to 287,000 square kilometers according to the 2001 and 2003 assessments. Mangrove forests, while ecologically vital, occupied a much smaller fraction of the total forest area, estimated at approximately 4,482 square kilometers. This hierarchy demonstrates that the area categorized as dense forest, which includes both very dense and moderately dense canopy classes, was significantly greater than the area of open forests, with mangroves representing the smallest share among these three categories.
50Art and Culture
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library: Lucknow
Explanation
The Khuda Bakhsh Oriental Public Library is located in Patna, Bihar, and not in Lucknow. It was opened to the public in 1891 by Khan Bahadur Khuda Bakhsh with his personal collection of manuscripts. In 1969, the Government of India recognized its immense value by declaring it an Institution of National Importance through an Act of Parliament. The library is globally renowned for its rare collection of Arabic and Persian manuscripts, Rajput and Mughal paintings, and significant historical documents, functioning today as an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Culture.
51Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
The Estimates Committee
1. is an ad hoc committee.
2. has members from both the Houses of Parliament.
3. has members drawn entirely from the Lok Sabha.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
The Estimates Committee is a standing financial committee of the Parliament that consists of 30 members. A unique feature of this committee is that all its members are elected annually from the Lok Sabha alone, according to the principle of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in this committee because the Lok Sabha holds primary authority and responsibility over financial matters and the voting of demands for grants. Since it is a permanent body reconstituted every year, it is classified as a standing committee rather than an ad hoc committee.
52Polity and Governance
The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens were laid down by which of the following Amendment to the Constitution of India?
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Answer: (C) 42nd Amendment
Explanation
The Fundamental Duties were incorporated into the Constitution of India by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This amendment followed the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which suggested that a specific chapter on duties should be included to remind citizens that while they enjoy rights, they also have obligations toward the state and society. By inserting Part IV-A and Article 51A, the amendment initially established ten fundamental duties, drawing inspiration from the Constitution of the former Soviet Union (USSR). These duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be enforced directly by the courts, but they serve as a moral and legal guide for the conduct of citizens in a democratic society. While an eleventh duty was later added in 2002, the original framework was laid down by this 1976 amendment.
53Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The President of India can promulgate an Ordinance at any time if he is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action.
2. The Vice-President of India can be re-elected to his post.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Article 123 of the Constitution of India grants the President the power to promulgate ordinances when either or both Houses of Parliament are not in session. This power can be exercised if the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action. It is a legislative power that allows the executive to respond to emergencies or urgent matters during the recess of Parliament, and such ordinances have the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Regarding the Vice-President, the Constitution does not place any restriction on the number of times an individual can be re-elected to the office. Article 66 and Article 67 describe the qualifications and the five-year term respectively but do not prohibit serving multiple terms. This was historically established when Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan served as the Vice-President for two consecutive terms between 1952 and 1962.
54Geography
Jharkhand does not share boundary with
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh
Explanation
Jharkhand was carved out of the southern part of Bihar on November 15, 2000, becoming the 28th state of India. It shares its borders with five states: Bihar to the north, West Bengal to the east, Odisha to the south, and Chhattisgarh and Uttar Pradesh to the west. Madhya Pradesh does not share a boundary with Jharkhand because the state of Chhattisgarh, which was created from the eastern portion of Madhya Pradesh just days before Jharkhand's formation, lies entirely between them. Therefore, Madhya Pradesh is situated further west and lacks any direct territorial contact with Jharkhand.
55Geography
Match List-I (Major Port) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Major Port)
A. Jawaharlal Nehru Port
B. Paradwip Port
C. Kandla Port
D. Ennore Port
List-II: (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Maharashtra
3. Orissa
4. Gujarat
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 2 3 4 1
Explanation
Jawaharlal Nehru Port, also known as Nhava Sheva, is the largest container port in India and is situated in Navi Mumbai, Maharashtra. Paradwip Port is a major deep-water port located at the confluence of the Mahanadi River and the Bay of Bengal in the state of Orissa. Kandla Port, located on the Gulf of Kutch, acts as a significant hub for petroleum and chemical imports in Gujarat. Ennore Port, which was commissioned in 2001 as the first corporatized major port in the country, is located on the Coromandel Coast in Tamil Nadu.
56Polity and Governance
In accordance with the Table of Precedence (Government of India), select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of precedence:
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Governors of States within their respective States - Chief Justice of India - Chief Minister of States within their respective States - Chief Election Commissioner
Explanation
The Table of Precedence is the protocol list in which the functionaries and authorities of the Government of India are ranked according to their office. In this hierarchy, Governors of States within their respective States hold the 4th position, following only the President, Vice-President, and Prime Minister. The Chief Justice of India is placed at the 6th position, shared with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. Chief Ministers of States within their respective States are ranked 7th, alongside Cabinet Ministers of the Union and the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission. The Chief Election Commissioner occupies the 9a position, which is shared with the Chairperson of the Union Public Service Commission and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India. Therefore, the decreasing order of precedence among these officials is Governors of States (within their respective States), followed by the Chief Justice of India, then Chief Ministers of States (within their respective States), and finally the Chief Election Commissioner.
57Polity and Governance
Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Position/Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Distinguished Ladies)
A. Aruna Roy
B. Poornima Advani
C. Amrita Patel
D. Mridula Sinha
List-II: (Position/Area of Work)
1. Chairperson, Central Social Welfare Board
2. Chairperson, National Dairy Development Board
3. Community Development
4. Chairperson, National Commission for Women
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 3 4 2 1
Explanation
Aruna Roy (A) is matched with community development (3) as she is a prominent social activist recognized for her leadership in the Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan and the Right to Information movement. Poornima Advani (B) corresponds to the Chairperson of the National Commission for Women (4), a role she served in from 2002 to 2005. Amrita Patel (C) matches with the Chairperson of the National Dairy Development Board (2), having led the organization starting in 1998. Mridula Sinha (D) is associated with the Chairperson of the Central Social Welfare Board (1), where she served from 1998 to 2003.
58Science and Technology
Hypo, used in photography is chemically
● Correct
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Answer: (D) sodium thiosulphate
Explanation
Sodium thiosulphate (Na₂S₂O₃·5H₂O), commonly referred to as hypo, is a vital chemical used in traditional film photography where it acts as a photographic fixer. After the latent image is developed, the film still contains unexposed silver halide crystals which remain sensitive to light. Sodium thiosulphate dissolves these unexposed silver salts by reacting with them to form a water-soluble coordination complex. The chemical reaction is typically represented as AgBr + 2Na₂S₂O₃ → Na₃[Ag(S₂O₃)₂] + NaBr. By removing the unreacted silver halides, hypo prevents further darkening of the image upon exposure to light and makes the developed image permanent.
59Geography
Which one of the following groups of crops is grown in India during the Rabi season?
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Answer: (A) Wheat, barley, gram
Explanation
Rabi crops are sown in India during the winter season, typically starting from October to November, and are harvested in the spring between March and April. These crops require a cool climate during the growing period and a warm, dry atmosphere during the ripening and harvesting stages. Wheat is the most significant rabi crop, while barley and gram (chickpeas) also belong to this category as they thrive under the specific temperature and moisture conditions prevalent in the Indian subcontinent during the winter months. The cultivation of these crops is heavily supported by the western disturbances that provide essential rainfall in North India during the winter season.
60Science and Technology
The part of the human brain that retains memory is the:
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Answer: (C) Cerebral cortex
Explanation
The cerebral cortex, which forms the outer layer of the cerebrum, is the primary site for higher-level brain functions including thought, language, and memory retention. While internal structures like the hippocampus are essential for the formation and encoding of new memories, the actual long-term storage of these memories occurs within the neural networks of the cerebral cortex through a process known as consolidation. Different types of information are stored in specific functional areas of the cortex; for instance, visual information is retained in the visual cortex of the occipital lobe, while complex associations and semantic knowledge are stored across the temporal and frontal lobes. This extensive network allows for the permanent storage and retrieval of vast amounts of information accumulated over a lifetime.
61History
The first woman to climb Mount Everest was:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Junko Tabei
Explanation
Junko Tabei, a Japanese mountaineer, became the first woman to reach the summit of Mount Everest on May 16, 1975. She achieved this historic feat as part of the Japanese Women's Everest Expedition, successfully reaching the peak via the South Col route. Her accomplishment significantly broke gender barriers in high-altitude mountaineering. In addition to her Everest ascent, Tabei continued her mountaineering career and eventually became the first woman to scale the Seven Summits, the highest peaks on each of the seven continents, completing this milestone in 1992.
62Art and Culture
Match List-I (Saint-poets) with List-II (Language of their Compositions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (Saint-poets)
A. Mirabai
B. Tyagaraja
C. Chandidas
D. Purandardasa
List-II (Language of their Compositions)
1. Malayalam
2. Bengali
3. Hindi
4. Telugu
5. Kannada
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (B) 3 4 2 5
Explanation
Mirabai was a prominent 16th-century Bhakti saint whose bhajans and devotional poetry were composed in dialects of Hindi and Rajasthani. Tyagaraja was a legendary composer of Carnatic music who composed the majority of his works in the Telugu language. Chandidas was a 14th-century poet-saint of the Sahajiya movement whose works are major milestones in medieval Bengali literature. Purandardasa was a Haridasa saint and the Pitamaha of Carnatic music who composed his devotional padas in Kannada.
63Science and Technology
The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a living entity because it can:
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Answer: (C) undergo auto-reproduction
Explanation
Viruses like HIV occupy a unique position between the living and non-living worlds. The primary biological criterion that defines HIV as a living entity is its capacity for reproduction. Unlike non-living matter, HIV carries its own genetic material in the form of RNA and possesses the blueprint required to produce progeny. Once inside a host cell, the virus utilizes the host cellular machinery to replicate its genome and assemble new viral particles. This ability to multiply and pass on genetic information to subsequent generations is a fundamental hallmark of life, distinguishing biological entities from inert chemicals or minerals.
64Quantitative Aptitude
In a wooden box, there are 4 red and 4 black balls. If two balls are taken out simultaneously at random, then the probability of both the balls being red is:
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Answer: (D) 3/14
Explanation
The total number of balls in the box is 4 red + 4 black = 8 balls. When two balls are drawn simultaneously, the total number of ways to select them is given by the combination formula nCr = n!/(r!(n-r)!). The total sample space is n(S) = 8C2 = (8 × 7)/(2 × 1) = 28.
The number of favorable outcomes n(E) where both balls are red involves choosing 2 balls out of the 4 available red balls. This is calculated as n(E) = 4C2 = (4 × 3)/(2 × 1) = 6.
The probability P(E) is the ratio of favorable outcomes to the total possible outcomes:
P(E) = n(E)/n(S) = 4C2/8C2 = 6/28
Dividing both the numerator and the denominator by their greatest common divisor, 2, the probability simplifies to 3/14.
65Quantitative Aptitude
Examine the following series of numbers:
50, x, 32, x + 2, 29, 95, 72, 48, 84, 78
If value of the median is 63, and x lies between 55 and 66, the value of x is:
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Answer: (C) 62
Explanation
The given series contains n = 10 numbers. For an even number of observations, the median is calculated as the arithmetic mean of the two middle terms, specifically the (n/2)th and (n/2 + 1)th terms, after arranging the data in ascending order. Here, the median is the average of the 5th and 6th terms.
The constant numbers in the series, arranged in ascending order, are 29, 32, 48, 50, 72, 78, 84, and 95. Given the constraint 55 < x < 66, we can also determine that 57 < x + 2 < 68. Since both x and x + 2 are greater than 50 and less than 72, and x < x + 2, they must occupy the 5th and 6th positions in the sorted sequence.
The ordered series is 29, 32, 48, 50, x, x + 2, 72, 78, 84, 95.
Median = (Term₅ + Term₆)/2
63 = (x + (x + 2))/2
63 = (2x + 2)/2
63 = x + 1
x = 62
66Science and Technology
Match List-I (Vitamins) with List-II (Diseases caused by their Deficiency) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Vitamins)
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C
D. Vitamin D
List-II: (Diseases caused by their Deficiency)
1. Night blindness
2. Scurvy
3. Beriberi
4. Rickets
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (D) 1 3 2 4
Explanation
Vitamin A (Retinol) is essential for the synthesis of rhodopsin in the retina, and its deficiency impairs vision in low light, leading to night blindness. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine) serves as a vital coenzyme in energy metabolism; a lack of this vitamin results in Beriberi, which affects the peripheral nervous system and the heart. Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) is necessary for the production of collagen, and its deficiency causes Scurvy, characterized by bleeding gums and skin hemorrhages. Vitamin D (Calciferol) is required for the intestinal absorption of calcium and phosphorus, and its deficiency leads to Rickets in children, manifesting as soft, weak, and deformed bones.
67Economy
Reserve Bank of India is a:
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Central Bank
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the apex monetary institution and the central bank of India. Established on April 1, 1935, under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, it serves as the supreme authority responsible for regulating the nation's monetary and financial stability. Its primary functions include issuing currency, managing the country's foreign exchange reserves, and acting as the banker to the government and the banking system. As the central bank, the RBI formulates and implements monetary policy to maintain price stability while ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors, fundamentally distinguishing it from institutions that engage in direct public lending or commercial banking activities.
68Science and Technology
Ozone layer in the upper atmosphere blocks:
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Answer: (B) ultraviolet rays from the Sun
Explanation
The ozone layer is a region within the Earth's stratosphere, located approximately 15 to 35 kilometers above the surface, characterized by a high concentration of ozone (O₃) molecules. It serves as a vital protective shield by absorbing the majority of the Sun's high-frequency ultraviolet (UV) radiation, particularly UV-B and UV-C rays. This absorption occurs through the ozone-oxygen cycle, where UV photons break ozone molecules into oxygen atoms (O) and oxygen molecules (O₂), which then recombine. By filtering out these high-energy rays, the ozone layer prevents them from reaching the Earth's surface, where they would otherwise cause significant harm to living organisms, including DNA damage, skin cancers, and disruptions to terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
69Science and Technology
Paraffin is a by-product of:
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Answer: (A) petroleum refining
Explanation
Paraffin wax is a mixture of solid saturated hydrocarbons obtained primarily from petroleum. During the refining of crude oil, various fractions are separated by fractional distillation. Paraffin is recovered as a byproduct during the processing of the heavier lubricating oil vacuum distillate fractions. The specific process involves dewaxing the lubricating oil stocks, where the crude wax is separated from the oil, often through cooling or solvent extraction. This resulting material is then further refined to produce the white, odorless solid known as paraffin wax, which is extensively used in the manufacturing of candles, wax paper, and various industrial sealants.
70Science and Technology
Select the correct sequence in the decreasing order of carbon content:
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Answer: (A) Pig iron—Cast iron—Mild steel
Explanation
Pig iron is the primary product obtained directly from the blast furnace and contains the highest concentration of carbon, typically ranging from 3.5% to 4.5%. Cast iron is produced by remelting pig iron with scrap and alloying elements, resulting in a slightly lower carbon content that generally falls between 2% and 4%. Mild steel is a type of low-carbon steel that has undergone extensive refining to remove impurities, leaving a much lower carbon concentration, usually between 0.05% and 0.25%. Consequently, the sequence of pig iron, cast iron, and mild steel represents a strictly decreasing order of carbon percentages.
71Science and Technology
The term Mach Number is used in connection with the speed of:
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Answer: (D) aeroplanes
Explanation
The Mach number is a dimensionless quantity used to describe the speed of an object moving through a fluid relative to the speed of sound in that same medium. It is calculated using the formula M = v/c, where v is the velocity of the object (such as an aeroplane) and c is the local speed of sound. This term is primarily used in aeronautics and fluid dynamics to classify flight regimes. When an aeroplane travels at the speed of sound, its Mach number is exactly 1. Speeds below Mach 1 are considered subsonic, while speeds exceeding Mach 1 are termed supersonic. The Mach number is essential for understanding the aerodynamic forces and pressure waves, such as sonic booms, that act upon high-speed aircraft and missiles.
72Geography
Mahe, which is situated on the Malabar coast on the Western Ghats is a part of:
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Answer: (C) Pondicherry
Explanation
Mahe is one of the four constituent districts of the Union Territory of Puducherry. Although it is geographically an enclave situated on the Malabar Coast and is completely surrounded by the state of Kerala, it is administratively part of Puducherry. This administrative arrangement dates back to the colonial era when Mahe was a French possession. When the French establishments in India were integrated into the Indian Union, they were grouped together to form a single Union Territory, preserving their distinct historical and political identity despite being geographically separated across different states.
73Science and Technology
Which of the following help human body fight against infection?
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Answer: (B) White blood cells
Explanation
White blood cells, also known as leukocytes, serve as the primary defense mechanism of the immune system. They circulate in the blood and lymphatic system to identify, attack, and destroy pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. Different types of white blood cells employ various strategies to combat infection; for instance, neutrophils and macrophages engulf and digest invading pathogens through a process called phagocytosis, while lymphocytes produce specific antibodies or directly destroy infected host cells to neutralize threats. Their ability to rapidly multiply and migrate to the site of an infection is essential for maintaining the body health and preventing the spread of disease.
74Economy
The situation with increasing unemployment and inflation is termed as
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Answer: (C) stagflation
Explanation
Stagflation is an economic phenomenon characterized by the simultaneous occurrence of stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation. The term is a portmanteau of stagnation and inflation. This condition is particularly challenging for policymakers because traditional macroeconomic tools used to fight inflation, such as tightening monetary policy, often worsen unemployment, while tools used to stimulate growth and reduce unemployment can further drive up prices. It represents a significant departure from the traditional Phillips Curve model, which suggests an inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of inflation. This situation gained global prominence during the 1970s when many industrialized nations faced a period of low productivity and high price increases following significant oil supply shocks.
75Polity and Governance
The basic attribute of a formal organisation is:
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Answer: (D) rules and regulations
Explanation
A formal organization is defined by a deliberately created structure intended to achieve specific objectives through a systematic division of labor and a clear hierarchy of authority. The most fundamental attribute of such an organization is the existence of a set of explicit rules and regulations. These codified norms govern the behavior of members, standardize operational procedures, and ensure predictability and stability within the system. In the context of classical organizational theory, particularly Max Weber's model of bureaucracy, rules and regulations provide the legal-rational framework necessary for impersonal decision-making and efficient management. By establishing clear boundaries and protocols, these regulations ensure that the organization functions as a cohesive unit independent of the personal whims of its individual members.
76Art and Culture
Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Area in which Distinguished) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Person)
A. Rajendra Shah
B. Naresh Trehan
C. Azim Premji
D. Jagdish Khattar
List-II: (Area in which Distinguished)
1. Film industry
2. Computer industry
3. Automobile industry
4. Medical science
5. Literature
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 5 4 2 3
Explanation
Rajendra Shah was a celebrated Gujarati poet and lyrical writer who received the prestigious Jnanpith Award in 2001 for his contributions to Literature. Naresh Trehan is a world-renowned cardiovascular surgeon and the founder of the Escorts Heart Institute and Research Centre, marking his distinction in Medical Science. Azim Premji is the iconic chairman of Wipro Limited, a global leader in software services and information technology, placing him at the forefront of the Computer Industry. Jagdish Khattar was a prominent corporate leader who served as the Managing Director of Maruti Udyog Limited, India's largest car manufacturer, during a period of significant growth in the Automobile Industry.
77Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below.
Assertion (A): If two bodies of equal weight-one cylindrical and another conical are floating in water, then their depths of immersion shall be equal.
Reason (R): Weight of the liquid displaced by a floating body is equal to weight of the body.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
According to the principle of flotation, a body floating in a fluid displaces a weight of fluid equal to its own weight. Therefore, if a cylindrical body and a conical body have equal weights, they must displace the same volume of water to remain in equilibrium, provided the density of the water is constant. This confirms that Reason (R) is a true statement of Archimedes' principle applied to floating bodies.
However, the depth of immersion depends on the geometry of the submerged portion of the body. For a cylinder of radius r and depth of immersion h_cyl, the volume of displaced water is V = πr²h_cyl. For a cone with a base radius R, height H, and depth of immersion h_cone (vertex down), the volume of displaced water is V = (1/3)π(R/H × h_cone)²h_cone = (1/3)π(R²/H²)h_cone³. Since the functional relationship between the submerged volume and the depth of immersion differs significantly between a cylinder and a cone, equal displaced volumes do not result in equal depths of immersion. Thus, Assertion (A) is false.
78Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): If a domestic refrigerator with its door open is kept running in a room, then it shall be cooling the room like an air- conditioner does.
Reason (R): Energy can be converted from one form to another.
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Answer: (D) A is false but R is true
Explanation
A refrigerator is a heat engine operating in reverse, where work is performed to transfer heat from a lower temperature region to a higher temperature region. According to the First Law of Thermodynamics, the total heat rejected by the refrigerator into the room is the sum of the heat extracted from its cooling compartment and the work done by the compressor (Q_out = Q_in + W). If the refrigerator door is left open, it attempts to cool the entire room, but the heat it extracts from the room is released back into the same room along with the heat generated by the electrical work done by the motor. Consequently, the net effect is an increase in the room's temperature rather than cooling.
The reason is a statement of the Law of Conservation of Energy, which remains fundamentally true in all classical thermodynamic processes, as energy is transformed from electrical energy into mechanical work and subsequently into thermal energy.
79Economy
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): If market rate of interest falls, then the prices shall rise.
Reason (R): Price rise is a result of increase in the demand.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
A decrease in the market rate of interest reduces the cost of borrowing for consumers and businesses, which increases the liquidity and disposable income in the economy. This surplus liquidity leads to a higher aggregate demand for goods and services. When the demand for products increases significantly without a corresponding immediate increase in supply, it creates upward pressure on the general price level, a phenomenon known as demand-pull inflation. Thus, the rise in prices is a direct consequence of the stimulated demand triggered by lower interest rates, making the reason a correct explanation for the assertion.
80Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): Alkalis are frequently used for cleaning utensils and clothes in households.
Reason (R): Alkalis readily dissolve in water.
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
Explanation
Alkalis like sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃) and those used in the manufacture of soaps are effective cleaning agents because they can react with fats and oils to form soluble soaps or emulsify grease, making it easy to wash away. The defining characteristic of an alkali is that it is a base which readily dissolves in water, making the second statement also true. However, the cleaning efficacy of alkalis is primarily due to their chemical reactivity with organic matter and their ability to lower the surface tension of water, rather than their solubility alone. Since many water-soluble substances lack cleaning properties, the reason provided does not logically explain the assertion.
81Geography
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): Equatorial Belt is a zone of calm.
Reason (R): There is almost no horizontal movement of air in the Equatorial Belt.
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Answer: (A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
Explanation
The Equatorial Belt, known as the Doldrums or the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), is characterized by intense solar heating throughout the year. This high temperature causes the air to expand, become less dense, and rise vertically in strong convective currents. Because the air movement is predominantly vertical (ascending), there is a marked absence of strong horizontal surface winds. The lack of significant horizontal pressure gradients in this region results in the calm conditions traditionally reported by sailors. Thus, the belt is defined as a zone of calm specifically because the primary atmospheric motion is vertical rather than horizontal.
82Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): In nature, compounds of carbon abound both in numbers and variety than those of any other known element.
Reason (R): Unlike other elements, carbon is an amphoteric element with an ability both for lending and for accepting electrons, while the metals are only lenders and nonmetals are acceptors.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
Carbon possesses the unique ability of catenation, allowing it to form stable covalent bonds with other carbon atoms to create long chains, branched structures, and rings. Coupled with its tetravalency—the capacity to form four covalent bonds with various elements like hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen—carbon can generate an immense variety of complex molecules. This structural versatility is why carbon compounds are more numerous and varied than those of any other known element.
The reason provided is scientifically incorrect. Carbon is chemically classified as a non-metal, not an amphoteric element. It primarily forms covalent bonds through electron sharing rather than the ionic lending or accepting of electrons. Furthermore, the term amphoteric specifically refers to substances that can react as both acids and bases, which is a property unrelated to the bonding characteristics that lead to the vast diversity of carbon-based compounds in nature.
83Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): Infants are given triple antigen injection.
Reason (R): It immunises them against diphtheria, tetanus and polio.
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
The triple antigen injection, commonly referred to as the DPT vaccine, is a combination vaccine administered to infants to provide immunity against three specific bacterial diseases: diphtheria, pertussis (whooping cough), and tetanus. While immunization against polio is a critical part of the pediatric vaccination schedule, it is administered separately, either as the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV) or the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV). Because the triple antigen specifically targets pertussis rather than polio, the assertion that infants receive a triple antigen injection is correct, but the reasoning identifying polio as one of the three components is false.
84Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Assertion (A): When a ship moves from the sea water into freshwater of a river, the ship will sink further.
Reason (R): The density of sea water is less than that of freshwater.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) A is true but R is false
Explanation
The principle of flotation states that a floating object displaces a weight of liquid equal to its own weight, expressed by the formula W = ρ·g·V_submerged, where ρ is the density of the liquid and V_submerged is the volume of the ship below the waterline. Sea water has a higher density than freshwater because of its high salt content, typically around 1025 kg/m³ compared to 1000 kg/m³ for freshwater. When a ship moves from the sea into a river, it enters water with lower density. To keep the buoyant force equal to the ship's constant weight, the volume of displaced water V_submerged must increase. Consequently, the ship sinks deeper into the freshwater. This confirms that the assertion is true while the reason is false, as sea water is denser than freshwater.
85Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not a Defence Public Sector Undertaking?
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Answer: (D) Hindustan Shipyard Limited
Explanation
Hindustan Shipyard Limited (HSL), located in Visakhapatnam, was under the administrative control of the Ministry of Shipping in 2003. Although it is a major shipbuilding facility, it functioned as a commercial public sector undertaking under the transport and shipping ministries for several decades. It was not until February 22, 2010, that the administrative control of HSL was transferred from the Ministry of Shipping to the Ministry of Defence to better serve the strategic needs of the Indian Navy. Therefore, at the time of the 2003 examination, it was not classified as a Defence Public Sector Undertaking (DPSU).
86Science and Technology
Match List-I (Defence Training Institute) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Defence Training Institute)
A. Army School of Physical Training
B. College of Defence Management
C. Naval College of Engineering
D. Military College of Telecommunication Engineering
List-II: (Location)
1. Dr. Ambedkar Nagar (Mhow)
2. Secunderabad
3. Pune
4. Lonavala
5. Dehradun
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 3 2 4 1
Explanation
The Army School of Physical Training is located in Pune and serves as the premier institution for training physical education instructors for the Indian Army. The College of Defence Management is situated in Secunderabad and is a tri-service training institution that imparts management education to senior officers of the Indian Armed Forces. The Naval College of Engineering is based in Lonavala at INS Shivaji, where it provides technical training and degree courses in engineering for naval officers. The Military College of Telecommunication Engineering is located in Dr. Ambedkar Nagar (Mhow) and acts as the principal training establishment for the Corps of Signals, specializing in telecommunications and information technology.
87Geography
In the decreasing order of the length of the rivers, the correct sequence is:
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Answer: (A) Brahmaputra—Ganga—Godavari—Narmada
Explanation
The total length of these rivers, from their source to their mouth, determines their ranking. The Brahmaputra has a total length of approximately 2,900 km, originating from the Chemayungdung glacier in Tibet. The Ganga follows with a total length of 2,525 km, flowing from the Gangotri glacier through India and Bangladesh. Among the rivers of the Indian peninsula, the Godavari is the longest with a length of 1,465 km, while the Narmada has a total length of approximately 1,312 km. This establishes a descending order of Brahmaputra, Ganga, Godavari, and Narmada.
88Geography
The Tropic of Cancer passes through:
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Answer: (C) India and Saudi Arabia
Explanation
The Tropic of Cancer is the parallel of latitude located at approximately 23.5° North of the Equator. It passes through sixteen countries across three continents. In Asia, the line traverses Saudi Arabia, the United Arab Emirates, Oman, India, Bangladesh, Myanmar, China, and Taiwan. In Saudi Arabia, the Tropic of Cancer runs through the central part of the country, while in India, it passes through eight states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. Both India and Saudi Arabia are thus correctly identified as nations positioned along this specific latitudinal circle.
89History
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constituent Assembly started functioning in December 1946.
2. Jawaharlal Nehru was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
3. The Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution of India on 26th November, 1949.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3
Explanation
The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall of the Parliament House in New Delhi, marking the formal start of its functioning. After two years, eleven months, and eighteen days of deliberations, the Assembly completed the monumental task of drafting the document. The Constitution was formally adopted and enacted on November 26, 1949, a date explicitly mentioned in the Preamble as the day the people of India gave to themselves this Constitution. While Jawaharlal Nehru played a pivotal role by moving the Objectives Resolution and heading key committees, the Assembly was presided over by Dr. Rajendra Prasad as its permanent Chairman. Therefore, the timeline beginning in December 1946 and culminating in the adoption on November 26, 1949, accurately describes the functioning of the body.
90History
In a tragic incident in June 2003, an international footballer died while playing an international match. He was playing for:
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Answer: (C) Cameroon
Explanation
Marc-Vivien Foé, a prominent midfielder representing Cameroon, collapsed and died during the 2003 FIFA Confederations Cup semi-final against Colombia. The incident occurred on June 26, 2003, at the Stade de Gerland in Lyon, France. Foé fell unconscious in the center circle during the 72nd minute of the match with no other players near him. Medical staff attempted to resuscitate him for 45 minutes, but he was pronounced dead shortly after being taken to the stadium's medical center. An autopsy later determined that the cause of death was hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, a hereditary heart condition known to cause sudden cardiac arrest during intense physical activity. Foé was 28 years old at the time of his death and was a key figure in the Cameroon national team.
91History
Which of the following Indian cricketers was/were never appointed as captain of the Indian test cricket team?
1. S. Venkataraghavan
2. K. Srikkanth
3. Mohinder Amarnath
4. Syed Kirmani
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4
Explanation
Mohinder Amarnath and Syed Kirmani are the players who never captained the Indian Test cricket team. Mohinder Amarnath, a key figure in India's 1983 World Cup victory and a resilient middle-order batsman, played 69 Test matches between 1969 and 1988 without ever being appointed captain. Syed Kirmani, widely regarded as one of India's greatest wicket-keepers, represented India in 88 Test matches between 1976 and 1986. Although he served as a senior player and vice-captain, he never led the Indian team in the Test format.
92Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act was enacted during the emergency.
2. The amendments under this Act restricted the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976, was enacted during the National Emergency (1975–1977) declared by the Indira Gandhi government. It brought about the most comprehensive changes to the Constitution, earning it the title of a Mini-Constitution.
The amendment significantly restricted the powers of the judiciary by limiting its jurisdiction in judicial review. It introduced Article 32A and Article 131A, which prevented High Courts from considering the constitutional validity of central laws and restricted the Supreme Court's jurisdiction. Furthermore, it curtailed the power of High Courts under Article 226 by limiting their authority to issue writs and stay orders, and it added Article 368(4) and (5) to ensure that constitutional amendments could not be questioned in any court on any ground. Most of these restrictive provisions were later repealed or modified by the 43rd and 44th Amendment Acts.
93Polity and Governance
Recommendations to the President on the specified Union-State fiscal relations are made by the:
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Finance Commission
Explanation
Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the President is required to constitute a Finance Commission every five years or at such earlier time as considered necessary. The primary mandate of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations to the President regarding the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes which are to be, or may be, divided between them and the allocation between the States of the respective shares of such proceeds. It also recommends the principles which should govern the grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India and any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.
94Science and Technology
Which one of the following instruments is used in a submarine to get the view above the surface of water?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Periscope
Explanation
A periscope is an optical instrument designed for observation from a concealed or submerged position. In a submarine, it consists of a long tube with mirrors or prisms at each end, typically set at a 45-degree angle to the line of sight. These reflective surfaces are arranged parallel to each other, allowing light from objects above the water's surface to be reflected down the tube and into the viewer's eyepiece. This mechanism enables the submarine crew to see obstacles, ships, or land targets while the vessel remains safely below the water line.
95Logical Reasoning
Match List-I (Tennis Player) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I: (Tennis Player)
A. Justine Henin-Hardenne
B. Kim Clijsters
C. Tim Henman
D. Andy Roddick
List-II: (Country)
1. Belgium
2. England
3. Australia
4. US
5. Spain
Code:
A B C D
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 1 1 2 4
Explanation
Justine Henin-Hardenne is a professional tennis player from Belgium who became a dominant force in the sport by winning the French Open in 2003 and attaining the world number one ranking.
Kim Clijsters is also a professional tennis player from Belgium who achieved the unique distinction of holding the world number one ranking in both singles and doubles during the 2003 season.
Tim Henman was the most prominent English tennis player of his era, famously known for his serve-and-volley game and reaching four Wimbledon semi-finals between 1998 and 2002.
Andy Roddick is a professional tennis player from the US who won the US Open singles title in 2003 and subsequently reached the world number one ranking in the ATP standings.
96Polity and Governance
Who among the following Indian hockey players is the goalkeeper of the Indian hockey team?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Devesh Chauhan
Explanation
Devesh Chauhan was a prominent member of the Indian national field hockey team, serving as the primary goalkeeper during the early 2000s. He represented India in two consecutive Olympic Games, specifically at Sydney in 2000 and Athens in 2004. Around the time of 2003, Chauhan was a key figure in the squad, contributing significantly to India winning the gold medal at the 2003 Asia Cup in Kuala Lumpur and the 2003 Afro-Asian Games in Hyderabad. His agility and shot-stopping abilities during this period solidified his position as one of the best goalkeepers in the country.
97Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Indian Railways have seven zones.
2. Jan Shatabdi trains were introduced in the 150th years of the Indian Railways.
3. The Research, Design and Standards Organization which functions as a consultant to the Indian Railways in technical matters is located at Allahabad.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 2 only
Explanation
The Jan Shatabdi Express was introduced in 2002 to celebrate the 150th year of the Indian Railways, with the inaugural run occurring on April 16, 2002, exactly 149 years after the first train ran in India in 1853. By 2003, the administrative setup of the Indian Railways had been expanded to sixteen zones, following the creation of seven new zones between 2002 and 2003 to improve operational efficiency. The Research Design and Standards Organization (RDSO), which serves as the centralized technical consultant for the Ministry of Railways, is headquartered in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
98Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Paul is studying in—
● Correct
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Answer: (B) Uttaranchal
Explanation
Based on the given information, we can map the students, colleges, and states as follows:
(ii) The Arts College is in Rajnagar, West Bengal.
(v) The Science College is in Maharashtra.
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu. Since the Arts College (West Bengal) and Science College (Maharashtra) are already accounted for, Varun must be studying in either the Commerce or Engineering College.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College. This means Varun must be in the Engineering College in Tamil Nadu.
Now we have assigned colleges to three states:
Arts College - West Bengal
Science College - Maharashtra
Engineering College - Tamil Nadu (Varun)
The only remaining state is Uttaranchal, and the only remaining college for Paul is the Commerce College. Therefore, the Commerce College where Paul is studying is located in Uttaranchal.
99Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Science College is located in—
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Nayanagar
Explanation
By linking the given statements, we can deduce the attributes for each student. From statement (ii), the Arts College is located in Rajnagar, West Bengal. From statement (v), the Science College is located in Maharashtra. From statement (i), Varun is in Tamil Nadu, and from statement (iii), Paul is in the Commerce College.
Since the Science College is in Maharashtra and the Arts College is in West Bengal, Varun (who is in Tamil Nadu) cannot be in either. Therefore, Varun must be in the Engineering College. This leaves only the Science College and the Commerce College. Since Paul is in the Commerce College, Mushtaq must be in the Science College. Statement (iv) specifies that Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar. Because Mushtaq is in the Science College and Science College is in Maharashtra, it follows that the Science College is located in Nayanagar.
100Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Varun is not studying at Rajnagar
Explanation
According to statement (ii), the Arts College is located in the city of Rajnagar, which is situated in the state of West Bengal. Statement (i) specifies that Varun is studying in the state of Tamil Nadu. Since each student studies in a different city and state, Varun cannot be studying in Rajnagar, as it is located in West Bengal, while he is located in Tamil Nadu.
To determine the full distribution:
West Bengal: Rajnagar, Arts College (Aryan)
Maharashtra: Nayanagar, Science College (Mushtaq)
Tamil Nadu: Janaknagar/Harshnagar, Engineering College (Varun)
Uttaranchal: Harshnagar/Janaknagar, Commerce College (Paul)
Since Paul is in the Commerce College (iii) and the Science College is in Maharashtra (v), Paul cannot be in Maharashtra. With the Arts College in West Bengal (ii) and Varun in Tamil Nadu (i), Paul must be in the only remaining state, Uttaranchal. This places the Engineering College in Tamil Nadu and the Science College in Maharashtra. Since Mushtaq is in Nayanagar (iv), Nayanagar must be in Maharashtra. Consequently, Varun is not in Rajnagar.
101Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Select the correct statement about the Engineering College:
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Answer: (D) Varun is studying there
Explanation
The location of the colleges can be determined by matching the given conditions. According to statement (ii), the Arts College is in West Bengal, and according to statement (v), the Science College is in Maharashtra. Statement (i) specifies that Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu. Since Tamil Nadu is distinct from West Bengal and Maharashtra, Varun cannot be studying in the Arts or Science colleges. Statement (iii) establishes that Paul is studying in the Commerce College. This leaves the Engineering College as the only possible option for Varun. Therefore, Varun is the student studying in the Engineering College.
102Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Engineering College is located in Tamil Nadu
Explanation
To determine the location of the Engineering College, we analyze the constraints provided for the four students, colleges, cities, and states. From the given information, the Arts College is located in Rajnagar, West Bengal, and the Science College is located in Maharashtra. This means neither of these colleges is in Tamil Nadu.
Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu according to the first statement. Since Paul is already assigned to the Commerce College, Varun must be studying in either the Science, Arts, or Engineering College. However, because the Science College is in Maharashtra and the Arts College is in West Bengal, Varun cannot be in either of those. Therefore, Varun must be studying in the Engineering College, which places the Engineering College in Tamil Nadu.
103Logical Reasoning
Four students—Paul, Mushtaq, Aryan and Varun are studying in four different cities—Harshnagar, Nayanagar, Janaknagar and Rajnagar (not necessarily in that order). They are studying in Science College, Arts College, Commerce College and Engineering College (not necessarily in that order) which are situated in four different States—Uttaranchal, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Mahara-shtra (not necessarily in that order).
(i) Varun is studying in Tamil Nadu.
(ii) Arts College is located in Rajnagar which is situated in West Bengal.
(iii) Paul is studying in the Commerce College.
(iv) Mushtaq is studying in Nayanagar.
(v) Science College is located in Maharashtra.
Based on the above information, Aryan is studying in
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Answer: (B) West Bengal
Explanation
To determine Aryan's location and college, we analyze the constraints provided. From statement (ii), we know the Arts College is located in Rajnagar, West Bengal. From statement (v), the Science College is in Maharashtra. Statement (i) specifies Varun is in Tamil Nadu, and statement (iii) states Paul is in the Commerce College. Statement (iv) places Mushtaq in Nayanagar.
By elimination, since Varun is in Tamil Nadu, he cannot be in West Bengal. Paul is in the Commerce College, and Mushtaq is in Nayanagar (which is associated with the Science College in Maharashtra). This leaves Aryan as the only student who can be associated with the Arts College in Rajnagar, West Bengal. Consequently, Aryan is studying in the State of West Bengal.
104Quantitative Aptitude
A and B walk around a circular park. They start at 8 a.m. from the same point in the opposite directions. A and B walk at a speed of 2 rounds per hour and 3 rounds per hour respectively. How many times shall they cross each other before 9.30 a.m.?
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Answer: (C) 7
Explanation
When two people move in opposite directions on a circular path, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds. Given that A walks at 2 rounds per hour and B walks at 3 rounds per hour, their relative speed V_rel is calculated as:
V_rel = 2 + 3 = 5 rounds per hour
A relative speed of 5 rounds per hour means that the two individuals will meet or cross each other 5 times every hour. The time elapsed from 8:00 a.m. to 9:30 a.m. is 1 hour and 30 minutes, or 1.5 hours.
The total number of crossings N during this interval is the product of the relative speed and the total time:
N = V_rel × Time = 5 × 1.5 = 7.5
Since they start together at 8:00 a.m., the subsequent crossings occur at regular intervals of 1/5 hour, which is 12 minutes. The crossings take place at the following times: 8:12 a.m., 8:24 a.m., 8:36 a.m., 8:48 a.m., 9:00 a.m., 9:12 a.m., and 9:24 a.m. The eighth crossing would occur at 9:36 a.m., which is after the 9:30 a.m. cutoff. Therefore, they cross each other 7 times before 9:30 a.m.
105Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Polar diameter of the earth is about 40km. larger than its equatorial diameter.
2. The most abundant element in the earth's crust is oxygen.
3. On summer solstice sun's rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer.
Which of these statements is/ are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3
Explanation
Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth's crust, constituting approximately 46.6 percent of its total mass, followed by silicon at about 27.7 percent. During the summer solstice, typically occurring on June 21, the Northern Hemisphere is tilted at its maximum toward the sun. This orbital positioning causes the sun's rays to fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer, located at 23.5° N latitude. Regarding the Earth's dimensions, the planet's rotation creates a centrifugal force that results in an equatorial bulge. Consequently, the equatorial diameter of approximately 12,756 km is about 43 km larger than the polar diameter of roughly 12,713 km.
106History
When Cripps' Mission came to India, who among the following was the Viceroy of India?
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Answer: (B) Lord Linlithgow
Explanation
Lord Linlithgow served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1936 to 1943, which remains the longest tenure in the history of the British Raj. The Cripps Mission, a failed attempt by the British government to secure full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts in World War II, arrived in India in March 1942. Since the mission took place during this specific timeframe, it occurred while Lord Linlithgow was the head of the British administration in India.
107Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements.
1. India gave up the status of Dominion on 15th August, 1947.
2. The Government of India Act of 1935 was amended and made the provisional Constitution of India till the Constituent Assembly of India framed a new Constitution.
3. Constituent Assembly functioned only as a Constitution-making body and not as a provisional Parliament of India.
Which of these statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 provided that the administration of the Dominion of India would be carried out according to the Government of India Act, 1935, with necessary modifications and adaptations, until the new Constitution was enacted. India did not give up its Dominion status on 15th August 1947; instead, it became an independent Dominion on that date and remained one until 26th January 1950, when the new Constitution came into effect and India became a Republic. Furthermore, the Constituent Assembly of India performed a dual role, acting as both a constitution-making body and the provisional Parliament of India for legislative purposes, until the first general elections were held in 1951-52.
108Geography
Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I (National Park/Sanctuary): A. Nandadevi National Park B. Keoladeo National Park C. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary D. Sasan Gir National Park
List-II (State): 1. Rajasthan 2. Assam 3. Gujarat 4. Mizoram 5. Uttaranchal
Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 5 1 2 3
Explanation
Nandadevi National Park is located in the high-altitude region of the Chamoli district in Uttaranchal. Keoladeo National Park is a globally recognized bird sanctuary situated in Bharatpur, Rajasthan. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary is a biodiversity hotspot and tiger reserve positioned in the Himalayan foothills of Assam. Sasan Gir National Park is located in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat and is the only habitat for Asiatic lions.
109Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not an official language of the United Nations Organisation?
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Answer: (D) German
Explanation
The United Nations recognizes six official languages: Arabic, Chinese, English, French, Russian, and Spanish. These languages are used for all formal meetings and official documents of the organization. German is not an official language of the United Nations, despite being a major international language and the official language of several member states. The choice of the six official languages reflects the languages used by the founding permanent members of the Security Council, along with Spanish and Arabic, which were added later due to their widespread global usage and significance in international relations. All official communications, resolutions, and reports are translated into the six recognized languages, but German does not hold this status within the UN system.
110Quantitative Aptitude
A train starts from Delhi for Mumbai at 5.30 a.m. while another train starts from Mumbai at 6.00 a.m. for Delhi. Both the trains run at same speed and each takes 24 hours to complete the journey.
When shall the trains cross each other?
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Answer: (B) 5.45 p.m.
Explanation
Let the distance between Delhi and Mumbai be D. Since each train takes 24 hours to cover the distance, the speed of each train is v = D/24 per hour.
The first train starts at 5:30 a.m. By the time the second train starts at 6:00 a.m., the first train has traveled for 30 minutes (0.5 hours). The distance covered by the first train in this time is D/24 × 0.5 = D/48.
At 6:00 a.m., the remaining distance between the two trains is D - D/48 = 47D/48. Since the trains are moving towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: v_rel = D/24 + D/24 = D/12 per hour.
The time t taken to meet after 6:00 a.m. is calculated as:
t = Distance/Relative Speed = (47D/48)/(D/12) = 47/48 × 12 = 47/4 = 11.75 hours.
Converting 11.75 hours into hours and minutes, we get 11 hours and 45 minutes (0.75 × 60 = 45). Adding 11 hours and 45 minutes to 6:00 a.m. results in 5:45 p.m.
111Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations Organisation?
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Answer: (D) Food and Agriculture Organisation
Explanation
The Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO) is a specialized agency of the United Nations rather than one of its principal organs. According to Article 7 of the United Nations Charter, there are only six principal organs: the General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council, the International Court of Justice, and the Secretariat. Specialized agencies like the FAO are autonomous intergovernmental organizations that have their own separate memberships, budgets, and statutes, and they coordinate their work with the United Nations through the Economic and Social Council.
112Geography
Match List- I with List- II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
A. Chlika Lake
B. Alappuzha
C. Fort Aguda
D. Cellular Jail National Memorial
List-II
1. Kerala
2. Orissa
3. Port Blair
4. Goa
5. Hyderabad
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Chilka Lake is the largest coastal lagoon in India and is situated in the state of Orissa, spread across the Puri, Khurda, and Ganjam districts. Alappuzha, also known as Alleppey, is a major hub for backwater tourism and is located in the state of Kerala. Fort Aguada is a prominent seventeenth-century Portuguese fort and lighthouse standing on Sinquerim Beach in North Goa, overlooking the Arabian Sea. The Cellular Jail National Memorial, famously known as Kala Pani, is a historic colonial prison located in Port Blair in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, where Indian independence activists were once incarcerated.
113Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. Switzerland became a member of the United Nations Organisation only in 2002.
2. Year 2003 has been declared as the 'International Freshwater Year' by the United Nations Organisation.
3. The Headquarters of the International Civil Aviation Organisation are in Montreal, Canada.
Which of these statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
Switzerland officially became the 190th member of the United Nations on September 10, 2002, following a nationwide referendum held in March 2002 where the Swiss electorate voted in favor of joining the world body. The United Nations General Assembly, in its 55th session in December 2000, adopted resolution 55/196 which proclaimed the year 2003 as the International Year of Freshwater to raise global awareness about the importance of protecting and managing freshwater resources. The International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO), a specialized agency of the United Nations established by the Chicago Convention in 1944, maintains its permanent headquarters in Montreal, Canada, where it coordinates international air navigation and safety standards.
114History
Consider the following statements:
1. Bengal was separated into two provinces during the term of Lord Minto as the Viceroy of India.
2. Simon Commission came to India while Lord Irwin was the Viceroy of India.
3. The Government of India Act of 1919 is also known as Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms.
Which of these statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 2 and 3
Explanation
The Simon Commission, a group of seven British Members of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon, was dispatched to India in 1928 to report on the functioning of the constitutional system. Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931, and it was under his tenure that the commission visited the country amidst widespread protests and the Go Back Simon slogan.
The Government of India Act of 1919 was based on the recommendations of Edwin Montagu, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Chelmsford, the Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921. Consequently, these constitutional reforms are famously known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms or Mont-Ford Reforms.
Statement 1 is incorrect because the Partition of Bengal was implemented in October 1905 during the viceroyalty of Lord Curzon, who served from 1899 to 1905. Lord Minto II succeeded Curzon later in 1905 but was not the architect of the partition itself.
115Quantitative Aptitude
In a circle, points A and B lie on the opposite ends of a diameter while point C lies on the circumference. Given: AC = 16 cm , BC = 12 cm .
Then, the length AB
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Answer: (C) is equal to 20 cm .
Explanation
According to Thales's Theorem, any angle inscribed in a semicircle is a right angle. Since AB is the diameter of the circle and point C lies on the circumference, ∠ACB must be 90°. This makes △ABC a right-angled triangle where AB is the hypotenuse.
Using the Pythagorean theorem:
AB² = AC² + BC²
AB² = 16² + 12²
AB² = 256 + 144
AB² = 400
AB = √400 = 20 cm
116Geography
Which one of the following States shares boundaries with the maximum number of other States of India?
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Answer: (C) Assam
Explanation
Assam shares its land boundaries with seven different Indian states, which is the highest number among the provided options. It is bordered by Arunachal Pradesh to the north, Nagaland and Manipur to the east, Mizoram and Tripura to the south, Meghalaya to the southwest, and West Bengal to the west. This geographical layout places Assam as a central corridor in Northeast India, as it is the only state in that region to share a border with all other Six Sister States while also maintaining a land link with the rest of India via West Bengal.
117Economy
Which of the following is a cash crop?
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Answer: (D) Rubber
Explanation
Rubber is classified as a plantation cash crop because it is grown primarily for commercial profit and industrial processing rather than for direct human consumption as a food staple. In the Indian agricultural context, crops are generally divided into food crops and cash crops (or commercial crops). While food grains are primarily cultivated for subsistence and local consumption, cash crops like rubber, sugarcane, cotton, and tobacco are produced specifically to be sold in the market for industrial use. Rubber cultivation is a major economic activity in tropical regions, particularly in Kerala, where the latex is harvested for the manufacturing of tyres, tubes, and various industrial goods.
118Art and Culture
Match List- I (Temple/Heritage Site) with List- II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List- I: (Temple/Heritage Site)
A. Brhadeswara Temple
B. Dilawara Temple
C. Lingaraja Temple
D. Hampi Group of Monuments
List- II: (State)
1. Orissa
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Rajasthan
5. Kerala
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 4 1 3
Explanation
Brhadeswara Temple matches with Tamil Nadu as it is a magnificent Shiva temple built by Raja Raja Chola I in Thanjavur during the 11th century, representing the pinnacle of Chola architecture. Dilawara Temple matches with Rajasthan because these world-famous Jain pilgrimage sites, known for their extraordinary marble carvings, are located in Mount Abu. Lingaraja Temple matches with Orissa as it is the largest temple in Bhubaneswar, built in the Kalinga style of architecture during the 11th century. Hampi Group of Monuments matches with Karnataka because it contains the ruins of the capital city of the Vijayanagara Empire and is a renowned UNESCO World Heritage Site.
119Quantitative Aptitude
If 8 men or 12 women can do a piece of work in 25 days, in how many days can the same work be done by 6 men and 11 women?
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Answer: (C) 15 days
Explanation
For work problems where m₁ men or w₁ women complete a task in D days, the time taken by a group of m₂ men and w₂ women can be calculated using the formula T = D/(m₂/m₁ + w₂/w₁).
Substituting the values from the question where D = 25, m₁ = 8, w₁ = 12, m₂ = 6, and w₂ = 11:
T = 25/(6/8 + 11/12)
Simplifying the fractions in the denominator:
6/8 = 3/4 = 9/12
Now, sum the terms in the denominator:
9/12 + 11/12 = 20/12 = 5/3
Substitute this back into the main equation:
T = 25/(5/3) = (25 × 3)/5 = 5 × 3 = 15 days.