The setting up of the Inter-State Council in 1990 was meant to :
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Answer: (B) strengthen the federal provisions of the Constitution.
Explanation
The Inter-State Council was established in 1990 by a Presidential Order following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations. Under Article 263 of the Constitution, the President is empowered to create such a council to investigate and discuss subjects of common interest between the Union and the states, or among the states themselves. By providing a formal forum for dialogue and coordination, the Council aims to promote cooperative federalism and ensure that the federal structure of the Indian Constitution is robust and functional. It serves as a constitutional mechanism to decentralize decision-making processes and resolve conflicts through consultation and coordination, thereby strengthening the institutional framework of Indian federalism.
2Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT a Central Paramilitary Force under the Ministry of Home Affairs ?
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Answer: (C) Ladakh Scouts
Explanation
The Ladakh Scouts is an infantry regiment of the Indian Army and functions under the jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defence. Originally raised in 1963 following the Sino-Indian War as a paramilitary unit, it was formally converted into a full-fledged infantry regiment of the regular army in 2001. Known as the Snow Warriors, the unit specializes in mountain warfare and is recruited from the local population of the Ladakh region. Since it is a constituent part of the Indian Army, it does not fall under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, which oversees the Central Armed Police Forces and other central paramilitary organizations.
3Economy
The following item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I : India's share of world manufacturing output steadily declined during the 19th and the 20th centuries.
Statement II : There was no absolute decline in production in India during the colonial rule.
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Explanation
Statement I is true because India's share of global manufacturing output witnessed a drastic fall from approximately 25 percent in 1750 to less than 2 percent by 1900. This decline was primarily caused by the Industrial Revolution in Britain and colonial policies such as one-way free trade, which allowed British machine-made goods to flood the Indian market while Indian exports were restricted by high tariffs in Europe.
Statement II is false because the colonial period was marked by significant de-industrialization, particularly in the 19th century. There was a sharp absolute decline in the production of traditional Indian handicrafts and textiles, such as the famous Dacca muslins. The collapse of these indigenous industries was not initially compensated by the growth of modern factories, leading to a massive displacement of artisans and a net decrease in total manufacturing output for several decades.
4Polity and Governance
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India can be removed from office only by :
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Answer: (C) President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.
Explanation
According to Article 148 of the Constitution of India, the Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) can only be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This procedure requires the President of India to issue a removal order after an address is presented by both Houses of Parliament in the same session. The address must be supported by a special majority in each House—specifically, a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting—on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity.
5Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is under the control of the Ministry of Defence ?
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Answer: (B) Rashtriya Rifles
Explanation
The Rashtriya Rifles is a specialized counter-insurgency force that functions as an integral part of the Indian Army. It was raised in 1990 to relieve the regular army from internal security duties and counter-terrorism operations, particularly in Jammu and Kashmir. Since it is composed entirely of personnel drawn on deputation from various regiments of the Indian Army, it falls under the administrative and operational jurisdiction of the Ministry of Defence. This distinguishes it from paramilitary forces or central armed police forces which are managed by the Ministry of Home Affairs.
6History
Which of the following statements with regard to construction of railways in colonial India by the British companies is /are NOT true ?
1. The companies were guaranteed a return of 5 per cent on their investment by Government of India
2. The railways were to be managed mainly by the Government
3. There was no system of preferential freight charges
4. The companies were to get the land free from the Government
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Statement 2 is incorrect because under the Old Guarantee System (1849–1869), the construction and management of railways were primarily handled by private British companies, not the government. The colonial government acted as a facilitator, providing land and financial security, while the operational control remained with the private entrepreneurs.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the railway freight policy in colonial India was characterized by heavy preference for British commercial interests. A system of discriminatory freight rates was established that charged lower tariffs for the transport of raw materials to ports and the distribution of British manufactured goods into the hinterland. Conversely, higher rates were often applied to the movement of goods between internal Indian trade centers, which disadvantaged local industries and favored imperial trade patterns.
7Polity and Governance
According to Granville Austin, which of the following was / were the most significant contributions of India to constitution-making ?
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Answer: (B) Consensus and Accommodation
Explanation
Granville Austin, in his seminal work The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, identifies consensus and accommodation as the two most significant and unique contributions of India to the process of constitution-making. Consensus refers to the Constituent Assembly's specific methodology of reaching decisions through general agreement and broad-based deliberation rather than relying solely on majoritarian voting, which helped in securing wide legitimacy for the document. Accommodation describes the Assembly's ability to synthesize and reconcile seemingly incompatible principles—such as combining a federal structure with strong centralizing features or balancing individual rights with the needs of social welfare—into a cohesive and pragmatic constitutional framework adapted to India's diverse social landscape.
8Polity and Governance
Jammu and Kashmir Light Infantry is :
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Answer: (C) A regiment of the Indian Army
Explanation
The Jammu and Kashmir Light Infantry (JAK LI) is an elite infantry regiment of the Indian Army. Its origins date back to the 1947 Pakistani invasion of Jammu and Kashmir, when local volunteers formed militias to defend their territory. These volunteer groups were initially organized as the Jammu and Kashmir Militia and functioned as a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Home Affairs. However, following their distinguished service in various conflicts, the force was brought under the Ministry of Defence and formally converted into a regular regiment of the Indian Army on April 27, 1976. The regiment is known for its multi-ethnic and multi-religious composition, primarily recruiting personnel from the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
9History
Which of the following represents the main phases of the Quit India Movement ?
1. Strikes, boycotts, and picketing in urban centres
2. Widespread attacks in rural areas on the many symbols and means of colonial rule and authority, e.g. railways, telegraph lines, and Government buildings
3. Formation of Home Rule leagues
4. The 'Karnataka method'
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Quit India Movement of 1942 unfolded in several distinct stages. The initial phase was characterized by massive urban mobilization, involving strikes, boycotts, and picketing in major industrial and administrative centers like Bombay, Calcutta, and Ahmedabad immediately following the arrest of the Congress leadership. As the movement intensified, it shifted to a second phase in rural areas where peasants engaged in widespread attacks on the physical symbols of colonial authority, including railway stations, telegraph lines, and government buildings, often leading to the establishment of parallel governments. The Karnataka method specifically refers to the organized underground resistance and sabotage tactics employed by activists in the Karnataka region, where revolutionary groups conducted disciplined guerrilla-style operations to disrupt British communications and administration while remaining undetected by the police.
10Polity and Governance
The Special Provisions in Article 371G of the Constitution of India relate to the state of :
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Answer: (C) Mizoram
Explanation
Article 371G was inserted into the Constitution of India by the 53rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1986. This provision was introduced following the signing of the Mizoram Peace Accord between the Government of India and the Mizo National Front. It stipulates that no Act of Parliament shall apply to the State of Mizoram in respect of religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, and ownership and transfer of land, unless the Legislative Assembly of Mizoram by a resolution so decides. The article ensures the protection of the ethnic identity and traditional customs of the Mizo people while providing for the governance of the state.
11Polity and Governance
Who among the following resigned from his post in the year 2014 ?
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Answer: (B) Chief of the Naval Staff
Explanation
Admiral Devendra Kumar Joshi, the 21st Chief of the Naval Staff, resigned from his post on February 26, 2014. His resignation followed a series of accidents involving Indian Navy ships and submarines over the preceding months, with the final trigger being a fire on the submarine INS Sindhuratna off the coast of Mumbai. Taking moral responsibility for these operational mishaps, Admiral Joshi became the first Indian military chief to resign on such grounds in independent India. The Government of India accepted his resignation with immediate effect, and Vice Admiral R.K. Dhowan was subsequently appointed to lead the Navy.
12History
Which of the following was / were NOT part/parts of the RIN Mutiny ?
1. Indian National Army
2. HMIS Talwar
3. Hunger strike by naval ratings
4. Lord Irwin
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4
Explanation
The Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny, which began in February 1946, was a revolt by Indian naval ratings against the British Raj. The Indian National Army (INA) was a separate military organization that had fought against the British during World War II under Subhas Chandra Bose. While the INA trials at the Red Fort acted as a major political catalyst and inspired the ratings, the INA as an organization did not participate in the mutiny itself. Lord Irwin served as the Viceroy of India from 1926 to 1931, which was approximately fifteen years before the naval uprising took place. At the time of the mutiny in 1946, the Viceroy of India was Lord Wavell. Therefore, neither the Indian National Army nor Lord Irwin were parts of the RIN Mutiny.
13Polity and Governance
The locus standi rule to move the court was liberalized by the case of:
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Answer: (C) S.P. Gupta v. Union of India
Explanation
In S.P. Gupta v. Union of India (1981), also known as the Judges' Transfer Case, the Supreme Court of India significantly liberalized the traditional doctrine of locus standi. Justice P.N. Bhagwati ruled that any member of the public acting in good faith could approach the court to seek judicial redress for a legal or constitutional injury caused to a person or a class of persons who, by reason of poverty, helplessness, or disability, were unable to approach the court themselves. This landmark judgment effectively laid the foundation for Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India, moving away from the restrictive rule that only the aggrieved party has the right to be heard. The court emphasized that in a developing country like India, procedural technicalities should not impede the realization of fundamental rights and social justice.
14Polity and Governance
Who heads the Defence Acquisition Council ?
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Answer: (A) Defence Minister
Explanation
The Defence Acquisition Council (DAC) is the highest decision-making body within the Ministry of Defence responsible for the procurement of equipment and weapon systems for the Indian Armed Forces. Established in 2001 following the recommendations of the Group of Ministers on Reforming the National Security System after the Kargil War, the Council is chaired by the Union Minister of Defence. Its primary objective is to ensure the expeditious procurement of approved requirements of the Armed Forces by optimally utilizing allocated budgetary resources. The DAC oversees the entire acquisition process, including the prioritization of capital acquisition proposals and the overall monitoring of the progress of projects from the stage of 'Acceptance of Necessity' to the final contract. By having the Defence Minister as the head, the council ensures direct political oversight and strategic coordination in the nation's defence procurement policy.
15History
Balangadhar Tilak was associated with :
1. Poona Sarvajanik Sabha
2. The Age of Consent Bill
3. Gaurakshini Sabha
4. Atmiya Sabha
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Bal Gangadhar Tilak became a dominant figure in the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha during the 1890s. While the organization was originally founded by M.G. Ranade and others to represent the people's grievances to the government, Tilak and his followers eventually took control of the Sabha in 1895. He used this platform to mobilize the masses, most notably during the famine of 1896-97, when he organized a no-tax campaign and encouraged peasants to demand the remissions they were legally entitled to under the Famine Code.
Tilak was also a central figure in the political agitation against the Age of Consent Bill of 1891. This bill sought to increase the age of consent for girls from ten to twelve years. Tilak opposed the legislation not because he was against the specific reform, but because he challenged the right of a foreign, colonial government to interfere in the traditional social and religious customs of the Hindu community. He argued that social change should be driven by internal community consensus and education rather than by legislative mandates from the British authorities.
16Polity and Governance
The provision under Article 350A of the Constitution of India relates to the :
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Answer: (C) provision for providing facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at primary stage
Explanation
Article 350A was inserted into the Constitution of India by the Seventh Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956, following the recommendations of the States Reorganisation Commission. It specifies that every State and every local authority within the State must endeavor to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. The article also empowers the President of India to issue such directions to any State as he considers necessary or proper for securing the provision of these facilities. This directive serves as a safeguard to ensure that the linguistic identity of minority communities is preserved through the educational system at the foundational level.
17Polity and Governance
The equivalent rank of Commodore of Indian Navy in the Indian Army is :
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Answer: (A) Brigadier
Explanation
The rank of Commodore in the Indian Navy is equivalent to the rank of Brigadier in the Indian Army. Both positions serve as one-star officers in the respective service hierarchies, positioned above the rank of Colonel (Army) or Captain (Navy) and below the rank of Major General (Army) or Rear Admiral (Navy). This standardized equivalence across the Indian Armed Forces ensures parity in protocol, pay scales, and command responsibilities during tri-service operations and administrative functions.
18History
The proposals of the Cabinet Mission did NOT include :
1. a three-tier structure for the Union of India, with both the Provinces and the Princely States
2. formation of a Constituent Assembly
3. creation of a sovereign Pakistan with six Muslim-majority provinces
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Answer: (B) 3 only
Explanation
The Cabinet Mission, which arrived in India in March 1946, explicitly rejected the Muslim League's demand for a sovereign state of Pakistan. The Mission argued that a separate state would not solve the communal problem because it would necessitate the partition of Punjab and Bengal, leaving significant minorities on both sides. They also cited administrative, communication, and defense complications as reasons for maintaining a united India. Instead of a separate Pakistan, the Mission proposed a Union of India with a three-tier administrative structure and the formation of a Constituent Assembly to frame a new constitution. Since the creation of a sovereign Pakistan was rejected by the Mission, only the third statement represents what was not included in their proposals.
19Polity and Governance
Which of the following are provided in India by the Right to Education Act ?
1. Right of children to free and compulsory education till completion of elementary education in a neighbourhood school
2. Prohibition of deployment of teachers for non-educational works, other than decennial census, elections to local authority like State Legislatures, Parliament, and disaster relief
3. Right of minorities to establish and administer education institution
4. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language or any of them
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Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, under Section 3, guarantees every child aged six to fourteen years the right to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school until the completion of elementary education. This mandates that the state and local authorities provide school facilities and ensure that no child is denied education due to financial or geographical barriers. Furthermore, Section 27 of the Act prohibits the deployment of teachers for any non-educational purposes to ensure they can focus on their primary pedagogical responsibilities. The only statutory exceptions allowed under this provision are duties related to the decennial census, disaster relief operations, and elections to local authorities, State Legislatures, and Parliament. These provisions are central to the Act's objective of ensuring high-quality, uninterrupted elementary education for all children in India.
20Science and Technology
INS Vikramaditya is the name of :
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Answer: (A) an aircraft carrier
Explanation
INS Vikramaditya is a modified Kiev-class aircraft carrier that serves as the flagship of the Indian Navy. Originally commissioned in 1987 by the Soviet Navy as Admiral Gorshkov, the vessel was purchased by India and underwent an extensive refurbishment process to convert it from a hybrid cruiser-carrier to a full STOBAR (Short Take-Off But Arrested Recovery) aircraft carrier. It was formally commissioned into the Indian Navy in November 2013 at Severodvinsk, Russia, and reached its home port in Karwar, India, in early 2014. The carrier has an overall length of about 284 meters and is designed to operate a potent air wing consisting of MiG-29K multi-role fighters and various utility and early-warning helicopters.
21History
Which one of the following statements concerning the Freedom and Partition of India is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (A) In February 1947, British Prime Minister Attlee announced that the British were not going to transfer power to Indians, come what may
Explanation
On February 20, 1947, British Prime Minister Clement Attlee made a historic declaration in the House of Commons stating that the British government intended to transfer power to responsible Indian hands by a deadline no later than June 30, 1948. He specified that even if a unified constitution had not been drafted by a fully representative Constituent Assembly by that date, the British would still withdraw and hand over authority to some form of central or provincial government. This announcement explicitly signaled the end of the British Raj and a definitive commitment to Indian independence, making the claim that the British were not going to transfer power factually incorrect.
22Polity and Governance
According to Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may by law :
1. declare war on any country
2. alter the boundaries of any State
3. increase the area of any State
4. establish an Autonomous Council within any State
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Article 3 of the Constitution of India vests the Parliament with the power to reorganize the states of the Indian Union. According to this Article, the Parliament may by law form a new State by separation of territory, increase the area of any State, diminish the area of any State, alter the boundaries of any State, and alter the name of any State. These provisions allow for the internal adjustment of the territories of the constituent states of India. Specifically, the power to alter the boundaries and increase the area of any State is explicitly mentioned under clauses (d) and (b) of Article 3 respectively.
23Polity and Governance
Which one of the following best describes the Andaman & Nicobar Island Command ?
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Answer: (B) A unified command comprising Army, Navy, Air Force and Coast Guard
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Command (ANC) is India's first and only tri-service theater command, established on October 8, 2001. It was created based on the recommendations of the Group of Ministers' report following the Kargil War to enhance jointness and operational synergy between the different branches of the armed forces. Headquartered in Port Blair, the ANC is a unified command that integrates the personnel and resources of the Indian Army, Indian Navy, Indian Air Force, and the Indian Coast Guard under a single Commander-in-Chief (CINCAN). This unified structure is designed to safeguard India's strategic interests in the Southeast Asian region and ensure the security of the sea lines of communication passing through the Andaman Sea and the Malacca Strait.
24History
Match List-I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Peasant Movement) (Leader/ Follower)
A. Bakasht Land 1. Baba Movement Ramchandra
B. Eka Movement 2. Kunhammed Haji
C. Mappila Rebellion 3. Madari Pasi
D. Avadh Kisan Movement 4. Karyanand Sabha Sharma
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
The Bakasht Land Movement in Bihar during the 1930s was led by Karyanand Sharma, a prominent leader of the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha who fought for the rights of tenants over lands confiscated by landlords for rent arrears.
The Eka Movement, or Unity Movement, broke out in late 1921 in the northern districts of Awadh, including Hardoi, Bahraich, and Sitapur, under the leadership of Madari Pasi to protest against high rents and the oppression of intermediaries.
The Mappila Rebellion of 1921 in the Malabar region of Kerala saw Variyankunnath Kunjahammed Haji emerge as a key leader of the Muslim peasantry against the British colonial authorities and the local landlord system.
The Avadh Kisan Movement was spearheaded by Baba Ramchandra, an indentured laborer turned activist, who organized the farmers of the United Provinces against the talluqdars and was instrumental in the formation of the Oudh Kisan Sabha in 1920.
25Polity and Governance
Which of the following committee/ committees submitted reports on Electoral reforms ?
1. Dinesh Goswami Committee
2. Tarkunde Committee
3. Indrajit Gupta Committee
4. Balwantrai Mehta Committee
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Dinesh Goswami Committee (1990) was appointed to study the electoral system and recommended major changes such as the introduction of electronic voting machines and state funding of elections. The Tarkunde Committee (1974) suggested fundamental reforms including the reduction of the voting age from 21 to 18 years and the conversion of the Election Commission into a multi-member body. The Indrajit Gupta Committee (1998) specifically focused on the feasibility of state funding for elections to curb the influence of money power in the democratic process. These committees are recognized for their specialized contributions to improving the transparency and efficiency of the Indian electoral framework.
26Science and Technology
BrahMos is the name of :
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Answer: (A) a short-range supersonic cruise missile
Explanation
BrahMos is a supersonic cruise missile developed as a joint venture between India's Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and Russia's NPO Mashinostroyeniya. The name is derived from the names of two rivers, the Brahmaputra of India and the Moskva of Russia. As of 2015, it was classified as a short-range missile with an operational range of approximately 290 km, which was set to comply with the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) restrictions. It is recognized as one of the fastest cruise missiles in the world, operating at speeds of Mach 2.8 to 3.0. The missile uses a two-stage propulsion system, featuring a solid propellant booster for the first stage to achieve supersonic speed and a liquid ramjet for the second stage to maintain it during the cruise phase. It is a versatile weapon system capable of being launched from land, sea, sub-sea, and air platforms against both ship and land targets.
27History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Movement) (Mass base/ Following)
A. Bardoli 1. Bargadars Satyagraha
B. Tebhaga 2. Kaliparaj
C. Satyasodhak 3. Mundas Samaj
D. Ulgulan 4. Kunbi peasantry
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) in Gujarat was a movement against the hike in land revenue where Vallabhbhai Patel organized the local farmers and the Kaliparaj, a community of landless laborers and tribals who lived in a state of semi-serfdom.
The Tebhaga Movement (1946-47) in Bengal was led by the Bargadars, who were sharecroppers. They demanded the implementation of the Floud Commission recommendation that they should retain two-thirds (tebhaga) of the harvest instead of giving half to the Jotedars (landlords).
Satyasodhak Samaj was founded by Jyotirao Phule in Maharashtra in 1873 to advocate for the rights of the lower castes. Its primary mass base and social support came from the Kunbi peasantry, who sought to challenge the social and religious dominance of the priestly classes.
Ulgulan, or the Great Tumult, refers to the rebellion led by Birsa Munda between 1899 and 1900. It was a significant tribal uprising by the Mundas of the Chotanagpur plateau against the destruction of their traditional land system (Khuntkatti) by the British and non-tribal outsiders.
28Polity and Governance
Under Article 355 of the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the Union to :
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Answer: (A) protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance
Explanation
Article 355 of the Constitution of India, situated within Part XVIII regarding Emergency Provisions, explicitly defines the duty of the Union toward the States. It stipulates that the Union is constitutionally obligated to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance. Additionally, it mandates the Union to ensure that the government of every State is carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This article provides the legal justification for the Union to intervene in state matters, including the deployment of central forces or the eventual imposition of President's Rule under Article 356, should the constitutional machinery in a state fail or its security be compromised.
29Economy
The present cap (as on 01.01.2015) on Foreign Direct Investment in the defence sector is :
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Answer: (B) 49%
Explanation
In August 2014, the Government of India revised the Consolidated Foreign Direct Investment Policy to increase the limit for foreign investment in the defence sector. According to Press Note 7 (2014 Series) issued by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion, the FDI cap was raised from 26% to 49%. This 49% limit was a composite cap, encompassing all types of foreign investments including FDI, Foreign Institutional Investors (FII), and Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPI). While investments up to 49% were permitted through the government approval route, the policy also allowed for FDI above 49% on a case-to-case basis with the approval of the Cabinet Committee on Security, specifically where such investment would result in access to modern or state-of-the-art technology. As of January 1, 2015, 49% remained the standard sectoral cap for the industry.
30Polity and Governance
Who functions as chairman, Chiefs of Staff Committee ?
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Answer: (B) The longest serving Chief among the Chiefs of the three services
Explanation
In the organizational structure of the Indian Armed Forces during 2015, the Chiefs of Staff Committee (CoSC) served as the primary body for inter-service coordination and collective military advice to the government. The chairmanship of this committee was held by the senior-most of the three service chiefs—the Chief of the Army Staff, the Chief of the Naval Staff, or the Chief of the Air Staff. Seniority was determined by the length of time an individual had been serving in their respective role as Chief. This system functioned on a rotational basis, where the longest-serving member among the three became the first among equals to lead the committee and oversee joint military matters until their retirement.
31History
Which one of the following was NOT the feature of the Home Rule movement in India?
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Answer: (A) Boycott and Picketing
Explanation
The Home Rule movement, led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant between 1916 and 1918, focused on constitutional methods and political education to demand self-government within the British Empire. Its primary objective was to mobilize public opinion through peaceful means such as organizing lectures, setting up libraries, and distributing political literature. Boycott and picketing were militant forms of agitation characteristic of the Swadeshi Movement and later the Non-Cooperation Movement. The Home Rule Leagues deliberately avoided these tactics to remain within the legal framework of the time and prevent immediate suppression by the British authorities, making such methods unrepresentative of the movement's operational features.
32Polity and Governance
The 2nd Administrative Reforms Commission has produced Reports on :
1. Ethics in Governance
2. Local Governance
3. Combating Terrorism
4. Eradication of Corruption
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Answer: (D) 1,2 and 3
Explanation
The second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was constituted in 2005 to prepare a blueprint for revamping the public administration system. The commission, chaired by M. Veerappa Moily, submitted 15 reports to the Government of India. Among these, the fourth report is titled Ethics in Governance, which deals with institutional and legal frameworks to ensure integrity in administration. The sixth report, titled Local Governance, focuses on the empowerment and functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies. The eighth report, titled Combating Terrorism, provides recommendations on legal measures and administrative strategies to tackle the security challenges posed by terrorism. These three specific subjects are documented as official standalone report titles issued by the commission.
33Polity and Governance
All proposals for acquisition of weapon systems involving capital expenditure of more than Rs 1,000 crore require the approval of the :
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Answer: (D) Cabinet Committee on Security
Explanation
The Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS) is the apex body responsible for all matters related to India's national security, including defense expenditure and strategy. According to the delegated financial powers and the Defence Procurement Procedure (DPP) applicable in 2015, the CCS is the final authority for approving capital acquisition proposals for the armed forces that exceed a financial threshold of Rs 1,000 crore. Chaired by the Prime Minister, the committee consists of the Ministers of Defence, Finance, Home Affairs, and External Affairs. This structure ensures that high-value defense contracts, which have significant implications for the national exchequer and strategic interests, undergo rigorous scrutiny by the highest levels of the executive branch before being cleared for execution.
34Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
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Answer: (A) India is the largest importer of defence equipment in the world
Explanation
According to the data released by the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI) in 2015, India was the worlds largest importer of major arms for the five-year period between 2010 and 2014. During this duration, India accounted for approximately 15 per cent of the total global arms imports. This high volume of imports was primarily driven by the Indian governments extensive military modernization programs, which involved the procurement of advanced fighter jets, transport aircraft, submarines, and maritime surveillance equipment to replace aging Cold War-era systems. The SIPRI report noted that Indias import volume was significantly greater than that of other major buyers like China, Saudi Arabia, and Pakistan, cementing its position at the top of the global defense procurement rankings during that era.
35History
In 1893, there occurred a split in the Arya Samaj on the issue(s) of :
1. Meat-eating vs vegetarianism
2. Caste system and widow remarriage
3. Shuddhi of converts
4. Anglicised vs Sanskrit-based education
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
The 1893 split in the Arya Samaj was primarily driven by differences over educational philosophy and dietary choices. One faction, known as the College Party or the Cultured Party, led by Lala Hansraj and Lala Lajpat Rai, advocated for a curriculum that integrated modern Western sciences and English (Anglicised education). This group eventually established the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) schools and colleges. They also held more flexible views regarding food, arguing that meat-eating was a matter of personal choice rather than a religious prohibition. The opposing faction, known as the Gurukul Party or the Mahatma Party, led by Swami Shraddhanand (Lala Munshi Ram), insisted on a traditional Sanskrit-based education centered on the Vedas, leading to the foundation of the Gurukul Kangri at Haridwar. This group strictly followed the principle of vegetarianism, viewing it as a fundamental requirement for all members of the Samaj.
36Polity and Governance
The National Human Rights Commission has :
1. a Chairperson who has been a Chief Justice of Supreme Court or a High Court of India
2. one Member who is or has been a Judge of Supreme Court
3. one Member who is, or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court
4. two Members to be appointed from amongst persons having knowledge of or practical experience in matters relating to human rights
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Answer: (D) 2,3 and 4 only
Explanation
The composition of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) as of 2015 was governed by the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. Section 3(2) of the Act mandated that the Commission include one member who is or has been a Judge of the Supreme Court and one member who is or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court. Additionally, it required the appointment of two members from among persons having knowledge of, or practical experience in, matters relating to human rights. During this period, the Chairperson of the Commission was strictly required to be a former Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of India; retired Chief Justices of High Courts were not eligible for the position of Chairperson at that time. Consequently, the specifications provided in statements 2, 3, and 4 accurately reflect the statutory requirements for the Commission's membership.
37Science and Technology
GRSE, BDL and MIDHANI are acronyms of:
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Answer: (A) Defence Public Sector Undertakings
Explanation
Garden Reach Shipbuilders and Engineers (GRSE), Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL), and Mishra Dhatu Nigam Limited (MIDHANI) are industrial entities owned by the Government of India that function under the administrative jurisdiction of the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence. GRSE, located in Kolkata, is a premier shipyard that constructs warships and auxiliary vessels for the Indian Navy and Coast Guard. BDL, based in Hyderabad, is the primary manufacturing hub for guided missiles, torpedoes, and allied defence hardware. MIDHANI, also in Hyderabad, is a specialized metallurgical unit producing high-performance superalloys and special steels essential for advanced defence, aerospace, and nuclear programs. Because these organizations are government-owned corporate entities dedicated to military production, they are categorized as Defence Public Sector Undertakings (DPSUs).
38Polity and Governance
President's Bodyguards is :
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Answer: (D) none of the above
Explanation
The President's Bodyguard (PBG) is an elite household cavalry regiment of the Indian Army, holding the distinction of being the senior-most unit in the Indian Army's order of precedence. Established in 1773, the PBG is a permanent combat unit whose personnel are trained as paratroopers and are responsible for the personal security and ceremonial escort of the President of India. While it performs high-profile ceremonial duties at the Rashtrapati Bhavan, it remains an integral part of the regular armed forces. As a military regiment under the Ministry of Defence, it does not function as a police entity, a paramilitary force, or a wing of the Delhi Police.
39History
Where and when did Mahatma Gandhi first use his method of hunger-strike to achieve a desired goal ?
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Answer: (C) At Ahmedabad in the year 1918
Explanation
The Ahmedabad Mill Strike of March 1918 marks the first time Mahatma Gandhi used a hunger strike as a tool of political protest and mediation in India. The conflict involved a dispute between the cotton mill owners of Ahmedabad and their workers over the discontinuation of the plague bonus and demands for a wage hike. Gandhi intervened to support the workers, who were demanding a 35 percent increase in wages. When the strike began to weaken, Gandhi undertook a fast to demonstrate his commitment to the cause and to prevent the workers from retracting their demands. The hunger strike exerted significant moral pressure on the mill owners, leading to a settlement after three days. An agreement was reached to refer the dispute to an arbitration tribunal, which eventually granted the requested 35 percent wage increase.
40History
Who among the following has authored the book 'The Idea of India'?
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Answer: (C) Sunil Khilnani
Explanation
The Idea of India is a highly acclaimed non-fiction work published in 1997 by Sunil Khilnani, a distinguished scholar and professor of politics. The book provides a profound historical and political analysis of India since its independence in 1947, examining how the country has navigated the challenges of democracy, secularism, and national identity. Khilnani specifically focuses on the internal contradictions and the intellectual foundations of the Indian state, particularly the pluralistic and democratic vision championed by Jawaharlal Nehru. It remains a seminal text for understanding the evolution of the modern Indian polity and the ongoing socio-political shifts within the nation.
41Polity and Governance
Who is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Armed Forces ?
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Answer: (A) President
Explanation
Under Article 53(2) of the Constitution of India, the supreme command of the Defence Forces of the Union is explicitly vested in the President of India. This constitutional mandate establishes the President as the formal head of the military, ensuring the principle of civilian oversight over the armed forces. Although the President is the Supreme Commander, these powers are exercised in accordance with the law and the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. As the Supreme Commander, the President has the authority to declare war or conclude peace, subject to the approval of the Parliament, and performs ceremonial duties such as commissioning officers and presenting gallantry awards.
42Science and Technology
'Cheetah' and 'Chetak' are the names of :
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Answer: (B) Helicopters
Explanation
The HAL Cheetah and HAL Chetak are light utility helicopters manufactured by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under license from French companies. The HAL Cheetah, based on the Aérospatiale SA 315B Lama, is specifically designed for high-altitude operations and is widely utilized by the Indian Armed Forces for reconnaissance and search and rescue missions in the Himalayas. The HAL Chetak is the Indian version of the Aérospatiale Alouette III and serves various roles including troop transport, casualty evacuation, and training. Both platforms have been integral to the operational capabilities of the Indian Army, Air Force, and Navy for several decades.
43Polity and Governance
Border Roads Organization is under the administrative control of the :
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Answer: (B) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways
Explanation
The Border Roads Organization (BRO) operates under the Border Roads Development Board (BRDB). Prior to the administrative restructuring in 2015, the BRDB was an attached office under the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways. This ministry was responsible for the administrative oversight and provided the necessary budgetary allocations for the BRO to carry out its mandate of constructing and maintaining critical road infrastructure in the strategically sensitive border regions of the country. This arrangement ensured that the funding for these developmental projects was channeled through the national highway and road transport budget.
44History
Which of the following were the main influences on Vasudeo Balvant Phadke ?
1. Experience of the Deccan famine of 1876-77
2. Hindu revivalism
3. Theory of Drain of Wealth
4. Reformist idea of Phule
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Vasudeo Balvant Phadke, often called the father of the Indian armed rebellion, was profoundly moved by the catastrophic Deccan famine of 1876-77. The apathy of the British administration toward the starving peasantry convinced him that colonial rule was inherently destructive. His ideological foundation was further strengthened by the Drain of Wealth theory, which he encountered through the lectures of M.G. Ranade and G.V. Joshi at the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha. This economic critique provided him with a clear understanding of how British policies were siphoning India's resources. Additionally, Phadke was a strong advocate of Hindu revivalism, seeking to restore the pride of the nation by establishing a Hindu Republic or Raj. He believed that an armed struggle rooted in indigenous identity was the only way to end foreign exploitation and achieve self-rule.
45Polity and Governance
The Punchhi Commission report was related to :
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Answer: (A) Centre-State relations
Explanation
The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India in April 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, a former Chief Justice of India, to review the status of Centre-State relations. It was the second such commission after the Sarkaria Commission of 1988, tasked with examining the changes that had occurred in the Indian polity and economy since the previous review. The commission explored various aspects of the constitutional relationship between the Union and the States, including the role of Governors, the use of Article 356, the management of internal security, and the financial relations between the two tiers of government. It submitted its seven-volume report in 2010, making over 270 recommendations aimed at strengthening the federal structure and promoting cooperative federalism in India.
46Polity and Governance
'Demand Polity' and 'Command Polity' are terms associated with :
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Answer: (C) Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne H. Rudolph
Explanation
Lloyd I. Rudolph and Susanne Hoeber Rudolph introduced the concepts of demand polity and command polity in their 1987 work, In Pursuit of Lakshmi: The Political Economy of the Indian State. These terms provide a framework for analyzing the interaction between the Indian state and society. A demand polity refers to a political environment where the state is highly responsive to the bottom-up pressures and competitive demands of organized interest groups, caste associations, and electoral constituencies. In contrast, a command polity describes a situation where the state exercises top-down authority and operates with significant autonomy, prioritizing its own developmental or strategic goals over the immediate demands of social groups. The Rudolphs argued that the Indian political system historically moved between these two modes depending on the strength of central leadership and the prevailing economic climate.
47Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the principal place of sitting of the National Green Tribunal ?
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Answer: (D) New Delhi
Explanation
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established on October 18, 2010, under the National Green Tribunal Act 2010 for the effective and expeditious disposal of cases relating to environmental protection and conservation of forests and other natural resources. As per the provisions of the Act and the subsequent notifications issued by the Ministry of Environment and Forests, New Delhi was designated as the principal place of sitting for the Tribunal. While the Tribunal operates through five places of sittings across the country to ensure regional accessibility, the main bench where the Chairperson resides and presides is located in the national capital.
48Science and Technology
In January 2015, Government of India approved the establishment of a Neutrino Observatory at :
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Answer: (A) Bodi hills in Tamil Nadu
Explanation
In January 2015, the Union Cabinet approved the establishment of the India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) project at the Bodi West Hills in the Theni district of Tamil Nadu. The project involves the construction of a large underground laboratory to house a massive 50,000-tonne Iron Calorimeter (ICAL) detector. The primary objective is to study the properties of neutrinos, specifically atmospheric neutrinos, to determine their mass hierarchy. The Bodi West Hills site was chosen primarily because the hard rock cover, specifically Charnockite, provides excellent shielding of over 1,200 meters in all directions, which is essential to block out background cosmic radiation that would otherwise interfere with neutrino detection.
49History
Who among the following was NOT a Communist leader in colonial India ?
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Answer: (A) P. C. Roy
Explanation
Prafulla Chandra Ray, commonly known as P. C. Roy, was a renowned scientist, educator, and industrialist rather than a political leader of the communist movement. Widely celebrated as the Father of Indian Chemistry, he was a professor at Presidency College and founded Bengal Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals, which was India's first pharmaceutical company. While he was a staunch nationalist who actively supported the Swadeshi movement and encouraged indigenous industrial development, his life's work was dedicated to scientific research, teaching, and the promotion of Indian industry. He did not participate in the formation or leadership of the Communist Party of India or its associated labor organizations during the colonial period.
50History
Who among the following were well known as champions of women's education in colonial India ?
1. Sister Subbalaksmi
2. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain
3. Keshub Chandra Sen
4. Ananda Coomarasyamry
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Sister Subbalakshmi was a social reformer in the Madras Presidency who focused on the education of girls and the rehabilitation of child widows, establishing the Sarada Home and the Lady Willingdon Training College to provide them with teacher training and formal schooling. Begum Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain was a pioneering feminist and writer in Bengal who founded the Sakhawat Memorial Girls' School in Calcutta and established the Anjuman-e-Khawateen-e-Islam to advocate for women's education and social rights. Keshub Chandra Sen, a key leader of the Brahmo Samaj, actively promoted female education through the Bamabodhini Patrika and by establishing the Native Ladies' Normal School and the Victoria Institution. These individuals were central figures in creating institutional frameworks and social awareness for the advancement of women's learning in colonial India.
51History
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I (Person) List-II (Political Party)
A. B.R. Ambedkar 1. Pakistan Muslim League
B. Sikander Hayat Khan 2. Krishak Praja Party
C. Fazlul Huq 3. Unionist Party
D. Khaliquzzaman 4. Independent Labour Party
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936 to safeguard the interests of the working class and the depressed classes in the 1937 provincial elections. Sikander Hayat Khan was a prominent leader of the Unionist Party in Punjab, which was a cross-communal political organization representing the interests of landed gentry and agriculturists. A.K. Fazlul Huq, popularly known as Sher-e-Bangla, established the Krishak Praja Party in Bengal to advocate for the rights of tenant farmers and peasants against the zamindari system. Chaudhry Khaliquzzaman was a senior leader of the All India Muslim League (the predecessor of the Pakistan Muslim League) and played a pivotal role in the mobilization of the party in the United Provinces.
52Polity and Governance
The term "Congress System" was coined by :
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Answer: (B) Rajni Kothari
Explanation
Rajni Kothari, a renowned Indian political scientist, coined the term "Congress System" in the 1960s to describe the unique nature of the Indian political landscape during the first two decades after independence. In his analysis, he characterized the Indian National Congress as a "party of consensus" that occupied the broad center of the political spectrum. The system was defined by a single dominant party that incorporated various internal factions representing diverse interests and ideologies, while smaller opposition parties functioned primarily as "parties of pressure" that influenced policy from the periphery. This framework allowed for democratic competition and internal accountability within a one-party dominant structure.
53Polity and Governance
Under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, which of the following category of people are exempted from income tax ?
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Answer: (D) Members of the Scheduled Tribes in States of Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland and Tripura
Explanation
Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, provides an exemption for any income which accrues or arises to a member of a Scheduled Tribe as defined in clause (25) of Article 366 of the Constitution, residing in the states of Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Mizoram, Nagaland, and Tripura. The exemption also extends to tribal residents in specific hill districts of Assam, the State of Sikkim, and the Ladakh region of Jammu and Kashmir. This exemption applies to income derived from any source in these specified areas or income earned through dividends or interest on securities. The legislation aims to protect the economic interests of tribal communities in these specific administrative and hilly regions.
54Polity and Governance
The 9th Schedule to the Constitution of India was added by the :
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Answer: (C) First Amendment Act
Explanation
The First Amendment Act, enacted in 1951, added the 9th Schedule to the Constitution of India along with Articles 31A and 31B. This amendment was primarily introduced by the government to protect land reform laws and the abolition of the zamindari system from judicial scrutiny. By placing specific laws within the 9th Schedule, the government sought to ensure that these social welfare legislations could not be challenged in courts on the grounds that they violated the fundamental rights of citizens, particularly the right to property. This provided a constitutional safe harbor for the state to implement agrarian reforms necessary for economic development and social justice.
55Economy
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Union Budget of India for the year 2015-2016 is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) Allocation in defence sector is kept unchanged at around 5% of GDP
Explanation
The defense allocation in the Union Budget 2015-16 was approximately ₹2,46,727 crore. Based on the economic projections of the time, this amount represented roughly 1.75% of India's Gross Domestic Product (GDP). Historically, India's defense spending has generally remained within the range of 1.5% to 2.5% of GDP. An allocation of 5% would have been a massive and unprecedented increase in military spending that did not occur in the 2015-16 fiscal year.
56Art and Culture
In order to create awareness among the people regarding endangered species of tortoise, in the month of February 2015, the third Tortoise Festival was held at :
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Answer: (A) Hajong Lake, Assam
Explanation
Hajong Lake, located in the Dima Hasao district of Assam, is famously known as the Tortoise Lake due to its unique status as a natural habitat for several rare and endangered species of tortoises and turtles. It is one of the few places in India where the Asian Forest Tortoise (Manouria emys) is found. To promote conservation and raise awareness among the local population and visitors about the threats facing these reptiles, such as habitat loss and hunting, the local community and authorities organized the third Tortoise Festival at this site in February 2015. The festival serves as a platform to integrate traditional knowledge with modern conservation efforts to protect the fragile ecosystem of the lake.
57Economy
Which one of the following Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments had the highest total prize money (in terms of US Dollars) in the year 2014 ?
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Answer: (C) Wimbledon
Explanation
Wimbledon announced a total prize money of £25 million for the 2014 tournament. When calculated in US Dollars using the prevailing exchange rates of June and July 2014, which were approximately 1.70 USD per GBP, the total purse exceeded $42 million. This valuation made it the most lucrative Grand Slam event of the 2014 calendar year in terms of US Dollars, surpassing the prize funds of all other major tennis tournaments held during that specific period.
58History
Which one of the following statements about the Gandhi-Irwin Pact is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) All the lands that had been confiscated were to be returned to the original owners
Explanation
Under the terms of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact signed in March 1931, the British government agreed to the restoration of confiscated properties only if they had not yet been sold or transferred to third parties. If the land had already been auctioned or legally passed into the hands of others during the suppression of the Civil Disobedience Movement, the government refused to return it to the original owners. The assertion that all confiscated lands were to be returned is therefore incorrect as it ignores this specific and significant condition regarding third-party sales.
59Art and Culture
Which one of the following is believed to be a compilation of the psalms sung by the women ?
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Answer: (B) Therigatha
Explanation
The Therigatha is a collection of short poems or psalms composed by senior Buddhist nuns (Theris) during the early days of Buddhism. It is part of the Khuddaka Nikaya within the Sutta Pitaka of the Pali Canon. These verses detail the personal struggles, spiritual attainments, and the eventual enlightenment of women from various social backgrounds who joined the monastic order. It remains one of the most important historical sources for understanding the religious lives and social status of women in ancient India.
60Polity and Governance
The Rajya Sabha can withhold its consent to a Money Bill for :
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Answer: (A) 14 days
Explanation
According to Article 109 of the Constitution of India, a Money Bill passed by the Lok Sabha is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the bill to the Lok Sabha within a mandatory period of 14 days from the date of its receipt. During this time, the Rajya Sabha may recommend amendments, but the Lok Sabha has the absolute authority to either accept or reject any or all of those recommendations. If the Rajya Sabha fails to return the bill within these 14 days, the bill is deemed to have been passed by both Houses of Parliament in the form in which it was originally passed by the Lok Sabha. This constitutional provision ensures that the Rajya Sabha cannot block or indefinitely delay financial legislation initiated by the directly elected house.
61Polity and Governance
Which of the following reasons were cited by the Ashok Mehta Committee for the decline of the Panchayati Raj Institutions in India ?
1. Role of Bureaucracy
2. Lack of Political Will
3. Lack of conceptual clarity
4. Lack of gender parity
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Ashok Mehta Committee (1977) identified that Panchayati Raj Institutions in India had entered a phase of decline after 1969. The committee attributed this decline primarily to the dominance of the bureaucracy, which was often reluctant to work under the control of elected local representatives and preferred centralized administration. Furthermore, there was a significant lack of political will among state-level leadership to devolve actual powers and financial resources to these local bodies, frequently leading to the postponement of elections and the supersession of panchayats. Additionally, the committee noted a lack of conceptual clarity regarding the fundamental nature of PRIs, as there was no consensus on whether they should function as autonomous units of self-government or merely as administrative agencies for implementing state-sponsored developmental programs. These factors combined to weaken the institutional framework of local governance during the 1960s and 1970s.
62Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements with regard to the Saansad AdarshGram Yojana is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (A) It was launched in the year 2014 on the birth anniversary of Lal Bahadur Shastri
Explanation
The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) was launched on October 11, 2014, to commemorate the birth anniversary of Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narayan. While the year of the launch is correct, the association with Lal Bahadur Shastri is incorrect, as Shastri's birth anniversary is observed on October 2. The scheme was envisioned to translate the comprehensive vision of Mahatma Gandhi regarding an ideal Indian village into a reality, focusing on social development, cultural heritage, and infrastructure through the leadership of Members of Parliament.
63Economy
Which one of the following statements with regard to the 'Make in India' initiative of the Government of India is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) The programme is being implemented by the Ministry of Finance
Explanation
The Make in India initiative, launched in September 2014, is implemented by the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), which operates under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. The program is designed to transform India into a global design and manufacturing hub by focusing on 25 sectors of the economy, providing a conducive environment for investment, and developing modern infrastructure. It is not a program managed or implemented by the Ministry of Finance.
64History
Amarasimha is the name of a :
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Answer: (A) famous lexicographer of ancient India
Explanation
Amarasimha was a celebrated Sanskrit grammarian and poet of ancient India, traditionally regarded as one of the Navaratnas (Nine Gems) in the court of the Gupta Emperor Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. He is best known for composing the Amarakosha, also titled Namalinganushasana, which is the most authoritative and widely used Sanskrit lexicon. This thesaurus is organized into three sections known as Kandas and provides a comprehensive classification of Sanskrit words, their synonyms, and the gender of nouns. His work has served as a primary reference for scholars and students of Sanskrit for over fifteen hundred years, establishing his reputation as a premier lexicographer.
65Art and Culture
The Tolkappiyam is the name of :
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Answer: (B) the book on Tamil grammar
Explanation
The Tolkappiyam is the oldest surviving work of Tamil literature and serves as the definitive treatise on Tamil grammar. Attributed to the scholar Tolkappiyar, it is structured into three books: Eluttatikaram, which deals with phonology and orthography; Collatikaram, which focuses on morphology and syntax; and Porulatikaram, which is unique as it discusses poetics, rhetoric, and the social conventions of the Sangam era. Beyond its linguistic importance, the work is a vital historical source for understanding the classification of land into five distinct ecological zones, known as tinais, and the cultural life of the ancient Tamil people.
66Geography
Various landforms observed on the surface of the earth are due to the :
1. differences in the type and structure of the crustal material
2. differences in the land forming processes
3. differential rates of the processes at different places on the Earth's surface
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The diversity of landforms on the Earth surface is the result of a complex interplay between internal endogenic forces and external exogenic processes. The type and structure of crustal material, often referred to as lithology, determines the resistance of the land to various forces. For instance, hard crystalline rocks and soft sedimentary layers respond differently to tectonic stress and erosional agents, leading to varied topographic features.
Land forming processes, such as volcanism, diastrophism, weathering, erosion, and deposition, act as the primary agents of change. Each process, whether driven by wind, water, ice, or tectonic movement, carves the surface in unique ways. Furthermore, these processes operate at differential rates across the globe due to variations in climate, altitude, temperature, and moisture levels. This spatial variation in the intensity and speed of geomorphic agents ensures that even similar crustal materials develop into different landforms over time. Together, the material composition, the specific processes at work, and the varying rates of these processes determine the final geomorphic landscape.
67Geography
Under which of the following condition(s) the occluded fronts are created ?
1. When the front remains stationary
2. When cold air mass moves to warm air mass
3. When warm air mass moves to cold air mass
4. When an air mass is fully lifted above the land surface
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Answer: (D) 4 only
Explanation
An occluded front is a complex frontal system that forms during the mature stage of a mid-latitude cyclone. This process occurs because cold fronts generally move faster than warm fronts. When a rapidly advancing cold front catches up with a slower-moving warm front, the warm air mass trapped between them is squeezed upward. The denser cold air undercuts the warm air, forcing it to rise completely off the ground. Once the warm air mass is fully lifted above the land surface and no longer touches the Earth's surface, the front is classified as occluded. At the ground level, the front then represents the boundary between the two colder air masses that have met.
68Science and Technology
The following item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I : Catalytic hydrogenation is highest when the catalyst remains in the powdered form
Statement II : When a catalyst is in the powdered form, its surface area becomes highest
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Heterogeneous catalysis, such as the hydrogenation of oils using metals like nickel or platinum, is a surface-dependent process where the reaction occurs at the interface of the catalyst and the reactants. The rate of such chemical reactions is directly proportional to the available surface area of the catalyst. When a solid catalyst is ground into a fine powder, the total surface area per unit mass increases significantly because atoms that were previously trapped in the interior of a larger block are exposed to the reactants. This increase in surface area provides a greater number of active sites where reactant molecules can adsorb and react, thereby maximizing the catalytic efficiency and the speed of the hydrogenation process. Therefore, the highest catalytic activity is achieved when the catalyst is in its most finely divided or powdered state.
69Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements regarding baking powder is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (D) It does not contain sodium bicarbonate
Explanation
Baking powder is a dry chemical leavening agent that essentially consists of a mixture of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO₃), also known as baking soda, and a weak acid or acidic salt such as cream of tartar (potassium bitartrate) or sodium aluminum sulfate. It often includes an inert filler like cornstarch to prevent the acid and base from reacting prematurely during storage. When moisture is added to a dough or batter, the sodium bicarbonate reacts with the acidic component to release carbon dioxide gas through the reaction NaHCO₃ + H⁺ → Na⁺ + H₂O + CO₂. Since sodium bicarbonate is the primary source of the carbon dioxide that causes the mixture to rise, the claim that baking powder does not contain it is factually incorrect.
70Quantitative Aptitude
The following table shows the frequency distribution of weekly wages of 65 employees :
Wages (in Rupees) No. of employees
251—260 8
261—270 10
271—280 16
281—290 14
291—300 10
301—310 5
311—320 2
What is the percentage of employees earning less than Rs. 301 per week but more than Rs. 260 per week ?
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Answer: (B) 76.9
Explanation
The number of employees earning more than Rs. 260 but less than Rs. 301 per week is determined by summing the frequencies of the wage groups 261–270, 271–280, 281–290, and 291–300.
From the table, the frequencies for these groups are:
Group 261–270: 10 employees
Group 271–280: 16 employees
Group 281–290: 14 employees
Group 291–300: 10 employees
Total number of employees in the desired range n = 10 + 16 + 14 + 10 = 50.
The total number of employees in the company is N = 65.
Rounding to the nearest tenth, the percentage of employees earning between Rs. 260 and Rs. 301 is 76.9%.
71Quantitative Aptitude
The following table shows the frequency distribution of weekly wages of 65 employees :
Wages (in Rupees) No. of employees
251—260 8
261—270 10
271—280 16
281—290 14
291—300 10
301—310 5
311—320 2
What is the difference between the percentage of employees earning between Rs. 261 and Rs. 300 per week and employees earning less than Rs. 281 per week?
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Answer: (C) 24.6%
Explanation
The total number of employees in the distribution is given as N = 65. To find the difference between the two specified groups, we first calculate the number of employees in each category.
The number of employees earning between Rs. 261 and Rs. 300 per week comprises the frequency groups 261—270, 271—280, 281—290, and 291—300. Adding these frequencies together, we get 10 + 16 + 14 + 10 = 50.
The number of employees earning less than Rs. 281 per week comprises the frequency groups 251—260, 261—270, and 271—280. Summing these frequencies gives 8 + 10 + 16 = 34.
The difference in the number of employees between these two groups is 50 - 34 = 16. To find the difference in their percentages relative to the total population, we use the formula:
Percentage Difference = (Difference in Count)/(Total Employees) × 100
Substituting the values, we have:
16/65 × 100 = 1600/65 ≈ 24.615%
Rounding to one decimal place, the difference is 24.6%.
72Geography
Which one of the following factors is NOT connected with planetary wind system?
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Answer: (C) Earth's revolution around the Sun
Explanation
The planetary wind system, comprising the Trade winds, Westerlies, and Polar Easterlies, is a global circulation pattern driven by the latitudinal variation of atmospheric heating and the Earth's rotation. The differential heating of the Earth's surface creates pressure gradients, leading to the emergence of permanent pressure belts. The Earth's rotation provides the Coriolis force, which deflects moving air to form the specific three-cell circulation (Hadley, Ferrel, and Polar cells).
While the Earth's revolution around the Sun causes the seasonal migration of these pressure belts (as the thermal equator shifts), the revolution itself is the primary cause of periodic or seasonal wind systems, such as the monsoons, rather than the fundamental existence of the planetary wind system. The core structure and mechanics of planetary winds are determined by the planet's energy balance and rotational dynamics regardless of its orbital position.
73Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Volcano type) (Location)
A. Shield Volcano 1. Indonesia
B. Composite Volcano 2. India
C. Caldera 3. Hawaii
D. Flood Basalt Provinces 4. Philippines
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 3 4 1 2
Explanation
Shield volcanoes, such as those found in Hawaii, are formed by the eruption of highly fluid basaltic lava that travels long distances from the vent, resulting in a broad profile with gentle slopes. Composite volcanoes are characterized by their conical shape and explosive eruptions consisting of viscous lava and pyroclastic material; Mount Mayon in the Philippines is a globally recognized example of a near-perfect composite cone. Calderas represent the most explosive volcanic landforms, where the volcanic mountain collapses into its emptied magma chamber to form a large depression; Indonesia is home to historically significant calderas like Krakatoa and Toba. Flood basalt provinces are created by massive eruptions of fluid lava that submerge the landscape under thick layers of basalt; the Deccan Traps in India are one of the most prominent examples of such a province.
74Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List I List-II (Compound) (Colour)
A. Urea 1. Blue
B. Hydrous copper suplphate 2. White
C. Lead sulphide 3. Pinkish purple
D. Potassium permanganate 4. Black
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 2 1 4 3
Explanation
Urea (NH₂CONH₂) is a colorless or white crystalline organic compound widely used in the fertilizer industry. Hydrous copper sulphate (CuSO₄·5H₂O), commonly referred to as blue vitriol, owes its distinct blue color to the presence of water of crystallization associated with the copper ions. Lead sulphide (PbS) is a black solid and is the primary ore of lead, occurring naturally as the mineral galena. Potassium permanganate (KMnO₄) is a strong oxidizing agent that exists as dark purple or pinkish purple crystals, which impart an intense purple color to aqueous solutions.
75Science and Technology
The radius of a hydrogen atom is 10⁻¹⁰ m. Number of hydrogen atoms necessary to have a length of one nanometre is:
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Answer: (C) 5
Explanation
The length occupied by a single hydrogen atom when arranged in a straight line is equal to its diameter d. Given the radius r = 10⁻¹⁰ m, the diameter is calculated using the relation d = 2r, which gives d = 2 × 10⁻¹⁰ m. One nanometre is equivalent to 10⁻⁹ m. The number of atoms n required to span this length is determined by the formula n = L/d, where L is the total length. Substituting the values gives n = 10⁻⁹/(2 × 10⁻¹⁰). This simplifies to n = (1/2) × 10⁻⁹ × 10¹⁰, which is n = 10/2 = 5.
76Quantitative Aptitude
No. of students studying in different standards of 6 different schools
| School | I | II | III | IV | V | VI |
|--------|----|----|-----|----|----|----|
| A | 42 | 54 | 48 | 58 | 50 | 38 |
| B | 50 | 60 | 58 | 45 | 45 | 46 |
| C | 40 | 48 | 58 | 46 | 42 | 54 |
| D | 45 | 55 | 46 | 40 | 52 | 50 |
| E | 48 | 55 | 44 | 55 | 52 | 48 |
| F | 51 | 52 | 54 | 42 | 60 | 54 |
What is the average number of students studying in Standard I from all schools together?
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Answer: (D) 46
Explanation
To determine the average number of students in Standard I across all six schools, we use the arithmetic mean formula:
Average = (Total number of students in Standard I)/(Total number of schools)
First, we sum the number of students in Standard I for schools A, B, C, D, E, and F:
Sum = 42 + 50 + 40 + 45 + 48 + 51 = 276
Next, we identify the number of schools, which is n = 6.
Substituting these values into the formula:
Average = 276/6 = 46
By performing the division, we find that the average number of students per school in Standard I is exactly 46. This calculation accounts for all the data points provided in the Standard I column of the table.
77Quantitative Aptitude
Question are based on the following Table:
No. of students studying in different standards of 6 different schools
| School | I | II | III | IV | V | VI |
|--------|----|----|-----|----|----|----|
| A | 42 | 54 | 48 | 58 | 50 | 38 |
| B | 50 | 60 | 58 | 45 | 45 | 46 |
| C | 40 | 48 | 58 | 46 | 42 | 54 |
| D | 45 | 55 | 46 | 40 | 52 | 50 |
| E | 48 | 55 | 44 | 55 | 52 | 48 |
| F | 51 | 52 | 54 | 42 | 60 | 54 |
What is the respective ratio of students studying in Standard III of schools A and B together to those studying in Standard VI of schools C and D together?
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Answer: (A) 53:52
Explanation
First, identify the number of students for each group from the table. For Standard III, the number of students in School A is 48 and in School B is 58. The total number of students in Standard III for schools A and B together is calculated as:
Total_(III) = 48 + 58 = 106
Next, identify the number of students for Standard VI. School C has 54 students and School D has 50 students. The total number of students in Standard VI for schools C and D together is calculated as:
Total_(VI) = 54 + 50 = 104
The respective ratio is the comparison of these two sums:
Ratio = 106 : 104
To simplify the ratio, divide both terms by their greatest common divisor, which is 2:
Ratio = 106/2 : 104/2 = 53 : 52
78Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Landform feature) (Location)
A. Alluvial fans 1. Mountainous Areas
B. 'V'-shaped Valley 2. Coasts
C. Deltas 3. Lower Reaches of the river
D. Ox-bow lakes 4. Mountain Foothills
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (A) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Alluvial fans are matched with Mountain Foothills because they develop when a high-energy stream exits a narrow canyon and spreads its sediment load onto a flatter plain at the base of the mountain.
'V'-shaped Valleys are matched with Mountainous Areas because they are formed by the intense vertical erosion of rivers during their youthful stage in high-gradient regions.
Deltas are matched with Coasts as they represent the final depositional stage of a river where it meets a standing body of water like an ocean, depositing its remaining sediment.
Ox-bow lakes are matched with the Lower Reaches of the river because they form in mature landscapes where slow-moving rivers meander across floodplains and eventually cut off loops from the main channel.
79Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Tropical Cyclone) (Location)
A. Cyclones 1. USA
B. Hurricanes 2. East Asia
C. Typhoons 3. Australia
D. Willy-willies 4. India
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
A-4: Cyclones are the regional term used for tropical storms in the North Indian Ocean, affecting India.
B-1: Hurricanes are tropical cyclones forming in the North Atlantic and Northeastern Pacific, impacting the USA.
C-2: Typhoons are mature tropical cyclones in the Northwest Pacific Basin, characteristic of East Asia.
D-3: Willy-willies is the traditional name for tropical cyclones that occur in the region of Australia.
80Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List-I List-II (Element) (Application)
A. Isotope of Uranium 1. Treatment of cancer
B. Isotope of Cobalt 2. Treatment of goitre
C. Isotope of Iodine 3. Treatment of secondary cancer
D. Isotope of Radium 4. Nuclear fuel
Code:
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 1 2 3
Explanation
Isotope of Uranium (A) matches with Nuclear fuel (4) because Uranium-235 is the primary fissile isotope used to sustain nuclear chain reactions in power reactors.
Isotope of Cobalt (B) matches with Treatment of cancer (1) because Cobalt-60 emits high-energy gamma radiation which is used in external beam radiotherapy to destroy malignant tumor cells.
Isotope of Iodine (C) matches with Treatment of goitre (2) because Iodine-131 is selectively absorbed by the thyroid gland, making it an effective treatment for goitre and hyperthyroidism.
Isotope of Radium (D) matches with Treatment of secondary cancer (3) because radioactive radium isotopes, such as Radium-223, mimic calcium and target bone metastases, which are secondary cancers that have spread from a primary site to the bones.
81Science and Technology
Hemocyanin is an oxygen-transport metalloprotein present in some invertebrate animals. This protein contains :
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Answer: (B) two copper atoms
Explanation
Hemocyanin is a copper-containing respiratory protein that transports oxygen in the hemolymph of many mollusks and arthropods. Its active site features two copper atoms coordinated by six histidine amino acid residues. During oxygenation, a single molecule of dioxygen (O₂) binds between these two copper centers. This process involves the oxidation of the copper atoms from the colorless Cu(I) state to the blue Cu(II) state, which gives the oxygenated blood of these invertebrates its characteristic blue color. The presence of these two copper atoms functioning as a single unit is essential for the reversible binding and transport of oxygen throughout the organism.
82Quantitative Aptitude
'A', 'B' and 'C' started their independent businesses with equal amounts of capital. During the first year 'A' made 10% profit, 'B' incurred 10% loss and 'C' made a profit of 5% . In the second year 'A' incurred 20% loss, 'B' made profit of 20% and 'C' made profit of 5% . Which of the following is FALSE at the end of second year?
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Answer: (C) 'B' is the richest
Explanation
Let the initial capital for A, B, and C be 100 each.
For A, the final amount after two years is calculated as 100 × (1 + 0.10) × (1 - 0.20). This simplifies to 100 × 1.1 × 0.8 = 88.
For B, the final amount after two years is 100 × (1 - 0.10) × (1 + 0.20). This simplifies to 100 × 0.9 × 1.2 = 108.
For C, the final amount after two years is 100 × (1 + 0.05) × (1 + 0.05). This simplifies to 100 × 1.05 × 1.05 = 110.25.
Comparing the final capitals at the end of the second year, we find that 110.25 (C) > 108 (B) > 88 (A). Since C has the highest amount of capital, C is the richest person among the three. Therefore, the statement that B is the richest is false.
83Logical Reasoning
At what time between 2 and 3 will the hour and minute hands of a clock be 12 minutes divisions apart?
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Answer: (C) 24 minutes past 2
Explanation
At 2:00, the hour hand is at the 10-minute division mark while the minute hand is at the 0-minute division mark. To be 12 minutes apart, the minute hand must first close the 10-minute gap and then gain an additional 12-minute lead over the hour hand.
The relative speed of the minute hand over the hour hand is calculated based on the fact that the minute hand covers 60 minute spaces while the hour hand covers 5 minute spaces in one hour. Thus, the minute hand gains 55 minute spaces in 60 minutes. This gives a gain rate of 60/55 = 12/11 minutes for every 1 minute space gained.
The total distance the minute hand needs to gain relative to the hour hand is the initial 10-minute gap plus the required 12-minute separation:
Total gain required = 10 + 12 = 22 minute spaces
Applying the gain rate formula:
Time taken = 22 × 12/11
Time taken = 2 × 12 = 24 minutes
At 24 minutes past 2, the hour hand is at 10 + 24/12 = 12 minute divisions, and the minute hand is at 24 minute divisions. The difference is exactly 24 - 12 = 12 minute divisions.
84Geography
Which of the following statements with regard to the continental shelf is NOT correct?
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Answer: (A) Shelves are absent close to plate boundaries
Explanation
Continental shelves are not absent close to plate boundaries, though their characteristics differ significantly depending on the tectonic setting. At active continental margins, which are located near convergent or transform plate boundaries like the western coast of South America, the continental shelf is typically very narrow due to tectonic compression and subduction processes. However, even in these high-activity zones, a narrow shelf exists between the shoreline and the shelf break that leads to the continental slope and deep-sea trenches. While passive margins far from plate boundaries feature broad and extensive shelves, active margins simply possess constricted ones rather than lacking them entirely.
85Geography
Arrange the following National Parks of India from North to South direction :
1. Indravati National Park
2. Nagarhole National Park
3. Corbett National Park
4. Madhav National Park
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
Explanation
The geographical sequence from North to South follows the latitudinal positions of these parks across India. Jim Corbett National Park is located in the state of Uttarakhand at approximately 29.5° N latitude, making it the northernmost. Madhav National Park is located in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh at roughly 25.4° N. Indravati National Park is situated in the Bastar region of southern Chhattisgarh at approximately 18.8° N. Nagarhole National Park, also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park, is located in Karnataka at approximately 12.0° N, which is the southernmost position among the four. The sequence 3, 4, 1, 2 accurately reflects the progression from the Himalayan foothills through central India down to the Deccan Plateau.
86Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct ?
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Answer: (B) Iron sulphate and zinc sulphate crystals have same number of water of crystallization
Explanation
The number of water of crystallization refers to the fixed number of water molecules present in one formula unit of a salt. Iron(II) sulphate crystals, commonly known as green vitriol, exist as a heptahydrate with the chemical formula FeSO₄·7H₂O. Similarly, zinc sulphate crystals, known as white vitriol, also exist as a heptahydrate with the chemical formula ZnSO₄·7H₂O. Both compounds contain exactly seven molecules of water of crystallization per formula unit, making their hydration levels identical. In contrast, copper(II) sulphate (blue vitriol) exists as a pentahydrate, CuSO₄·5H₂O, containing only five molecules of water.
87Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Scientist) (Area of study)
A. J.D.Watson 1. Microbiology
B. Louis Pasteur 2. Taxonomy
C. Carl Linnaeus 3. Molecular Biology
D. Charles Darwin 4. Evolution
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (C) 3 1 2 4
Explanation
J.D. Watson is associated with Molecular Biology for his co-discovery of the double-helix structure of the DNA molecule.
Louis Pasteur is linked to Microbiology for his discoveries in the principles of vaccination, microbial fermentation, and pasteurization.
Carl Linnaeus is the father of Taxonomy, credited with formalizing binomial nomenclature for the classification of organisms.
Charles Darwin is synonymous with Evolution for his theory of natural selection and contributions to understanding biological change over time.
88Logical Reasoning
If in a certain language NEOMAN is coded as OGRQFT, then ZKCLUP is the code of :
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Answer: (B) YIZHPJ
Explanation
The coding logic follows an incremental addition pattern where each letter's position in the alphabet is shifted forward by an increasing integer: N + 1 = O, E + 2 = G, O + 3 = R, M + 4 = Q, A + 5 = F, and N + 6 = T. To find the original word for the code ZKCLUP, this pattern must be reversed by subtracting the same sequence of integers from each letter of the code.
Applying the reverse transformation:
Z - 1 = Y
K - 2 = I
C - 3 = Z (using cyclic order where 3 positions before C is Z)
L - 4 = H
U - 5 = P
P - 6 = J
The resulting word is YIZHPJ.
89Quantitative Aptitude
In an examination, there are three subjects 'A', 'B' and 'C'. A student has to pass in each subject. 20% students failed in 'A', 22% students failed in 'B' and 16% students failed in 'C'. The total number of students passing the whole examination lies between :
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Answer: (B) 42% and 78%
Explanation
To determine the range of students who passed the whole examination, we must calculate the minimum and maximum possible values for the total failure rate. Let F_A = 20%, F_B = 22%, and F_C = 16% represent the percentage of students failing in subjects A, B, and C, respectively. A student passes the examination only if they do not fail in any subject.
The maximum possible total failure rate occurs when the sets of students failing in each subject are disjoint (mutually exclusive). In this scenario, the total percentage of students failing in at least one subject is the sum of the individual failure rates:
F_(max) = F_A + F_B + F_C = 20% + 22% + 16% = 58%
Consequently, the minimum percentage of students who passed the whole examination is:
P_(min) = 100% - 58% = 42%
The minimum possible total failure rate occurs when the sets of failing students overlap to the greatest extent possible. This happens when the smaller failure groups are entirely contained within the largest failure group. Since the highest failure rate is 22% in subject B, the minimum total failure rate must be at least 22%:
F_(min) = max(F_A, F_B, F_C) = 22%
Consequently, the maximum percentage of students who passed the whole examination is:
P_(max) = 100% - 22% = 78%
The percentage of students passing the whole examination therefore lies between 42% and 78%.
90Geography
Which one among the following is NOT a minor plate ?
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Answer: (D) Antarctica
Explanation
The Antarctic plate is classified as one of the seven major tectonic plates of the Earth's lithosphere. It covers the entire continent of Antarctica and extends outward beneath the surrounding Southern Ocean. Major plates are distinguished from minor and micro plates primarily by their massive surface area, typically exceeding 20 million square kilometers. While minor plates are smaller lithospheric fragments often located between larger plates, the Antarctic plate is a primary structural unit that plays a fundamental role in global plate tectonics and the movement of the Earth's crustal blocks.
91Geography
The trees of tropical rainforest have buttress roots because :
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Answer: (D) the buttresses have to bear the mechanical load of hardwoods
Explanation
Tropical rainforests are characterized by shallow, nutrient-deficient, and often saturated soils, which prevent trees from developing deep taproots for stability. Consequently, many giant hardwood trees in these ecosystems develop buttress roots, which are large, woody outgrowths that extend from the upper part of the roots to the lower base of the trunk. These structures function primarily as tension members, providing essential mechanical support to stabilize tall, heavy-crowned trees against the force of gravity and strong winds. By significantly widening the base of the tree, buttresses effectively distribute the massive mechanical load of the hardwood structure over a larger surface area, preventing the trees from uprooting in the thin topsoil.
92Geography
It is reported that there is an ongoing decrease in the pH value of ocean water because of global warming. It happens due to :
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Answer: (A) larger uptake of CO₂ by ocean water
Explanation
The phenomenon of decreasing pH in ocean water is known as ocean acidification. As the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO₂) in the atmosphere increases due to human activities, the oceans absorb a significant portion of this gas to maintain chemical equilibrium at the air-sea interface. When CO₂ dissolves in seawater, it reacts with water molecules (H₂O) to form carbonic acid (H₂CO₃), which then dissociates into bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻) and hydrogen ions (H⁺). The increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions leads to a more acidic environment. Because pH is defined by the formula pH = -log₁₀[H⁺], any increase in the concentration of hydrogen ions directly results in a lower pH value. This process is the primary driver behind the ongoing shift in the chemical balance of the global oceans.
93Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :
List-I List-II (Day) (Occasion)
A. 11th July 1. Human Rights Day
B. 5th June 2. Hiroshima Day
C. 6th August 3. International Environment Day
D. 10th December 4. World Population Day
Code :
A B C D
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Answer: (D) 4 3 2 1
Explanation
11th July is celebrated as World Population Day, an observance established by the United Nations Development Programme in 1989 to focus attention on the importance of population issues. 5th June is designated as World Environment Day, which was established by the United Nations General Assembly in 1972 during the Stockholm Conference to stimulate global awareness of environmental protection. 6th August marks Hiroshima Day, the anniversary of the first atomic bombing of a city during World War II in 1945. 10th December is observed as Human Rights Day to honor the United Nations General Assembly's adoption and proclamation of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights on 10 December 1948.
94Quantitative Aptitude
65% students in a class like cartoon movies, 70% like horror movies, and 75% like war movies. What is the smallest percent of students liking all the three types of movies ?
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Answer: (A) 10%
Explanation
To find the minimum percentage of students who like all three types of movies, we use the principle of set intersection for n sets. For any sets A, B, and C within a universal set of 100%, the minimum value of their intersection is given by the formula min(A ∩ B ∩ C) = P(A) + P(B) + P(C) - (n - 1) × 100%, where n is the number of sets.
Substituting the given values into the formula where n = 3:
Minimum Intersection = 65% + 70% + 75% - (3 - 1) × 100%
Minimum Intersection = 210% - 200%
Minimum Intersection = 10%
Alternatively, this can be calculated step-by-step. The minimum intersection of students liking cartoon and horror movies is 65% + 70% - 100% = 35%. Then, the minimum intersection of this group with those liking war movies is 35% + 75% - 100% = 10%.
95Economy
From which among the following pairs of species, a small quantity of fine quality wool is obtained in India ?
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Answer: (A) Pashmina goats and Angora rabbits
Explanation
Pashmina is an exceptionally fine type of cashmere wool harvested from the undercoat of specific goat breeds, notably the Changthangi or Pashmina goat, which is indigenous to the high-altitude Himalayan regions of Ladakh. This fiber is highly prized for its extreme softness and thermal insulation. Angora wool is the long, silky fiber produced by the Angora rabbit. In India, these rabbits are commercially reared in the temperate climates of states like Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand to obtain their soft, fine fur, which is often blended with other fibers to create premium knitwear. While the term Angora is also associated with goats, those specific goats produce mohair rather than the fine wool characteristic of the Angora rabbit. Therefore, Pashmina goats and Angora rabbits are the primary sources of these two distinct types of high-quality fine wool in the country.
96Geography
The following item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I : All the energy received by the earth is from the Sun through electro- magnetic radiation
Statement II : The earth also radiates back all the received energy through various ways to maintain the heat budget of the planet
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is NOT the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
Statement I is true because the Sun serves as the primary source of energy for the Earth, providing nearly all the heat and light required for atmospheric and biological processes. This energy is transmitted through the vacuum of space in the form of short-wave electromagnetic radiation, encompassing a spectrum that includes ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared wavelengths.
Statement II is also true because the Earth maintains a stable average global temperature through a balanced heat budget. To prevent continuous heating, the Earth emits an amount of energy back into space equal to what it absorbs. This is achieved through long-wave terrestrial radiation, as well as convective and evaporative processes that transfer heat from the surface to the atmosphere.
While both statements are factually correct, Statement II does not provide a causal explanation for Statement I. The reason the Earth receives energy from the Sun is due to solar nuclear fusion and the Earth's orbital position, which is independent of the mechanisms the Earth uses to dissipate that energy and maintain its thermal equilibrium.
97Geography
Which one among the following substances is NOT a 'green house' gas ?
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Answer: (D) Nitrogen
Explanation
Nitrogen (N₂) is a homonuclear diatomic molecule, which means it consists of two identical atoms bonded together. For a gas to function as a greenhouse gas, its molecules must be able to absorb infrared radiation, a process that requires a change in the molecule's dipole moment during vibration. Because Nitrogen is symmetric and non-polar, it does not possess a permanent dipole moment and cannot undergo the specific vibrational transitions necessary to trap outgoing long-wave thermal radiation. Consequently, although it makes up approximately 78 percent of the Earth's atmosphere, it is not a greenhouse gas and does not contribute to the atmospheric warming effect.
98Geography
Ozone layer depletion is a major phenomenon in :
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Answer: (B) Stratosphere
Explanation
The stratosphere, which lies between approximately 12 and 50 kilometers above the Earth's surface, houses about 90 percent of the planet's atmospheric ozone. Ozone depletion is a critical environmental phenomenon localized in this layer because it is the primary site where chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and other ozone-depleting substances are decomposed by solar ultraviolet radiation. This decomposition releases chlorine and bromine atoms, which then engage in catalytic cycles that efficiently destroy ozone molecules. The most dramatic manifestation of this process occurs over Antarctica, where the formation of polar stratospheric clouds during winter provides a surface for chemical reactions that lead to massive ozone loss in the spring.
99Logical Reasoning
29th February of the year 2000 was Tuesday. After this date how many times 29th February falls on Tuesday in the whole century ?
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Answer: (A) 3
Explanation
The date 29th February occurs only in leap years, which generally happen every 4 years. The number of days in a standard 4-year cycle (containing one leap year and three common years) is calculated as:
3 × 365 + 366 = 1461 days.
To find the shift in the day of the week every 4 years, we calculate the remainder when the total days are divided by 7:
1461 (mod 7) = 5 days.
This means that for every leap year that passes, the day of the week for 29th February shifts forward by 5 days (or backward by 2 days). For 29th February to fall on a Tuesday again, the cumulative shift must be a multiple of 7 days. Since 5 and 7 are co-prime, this return to the same weekday occurs after 7 leap year cycles:
7 cycles × 4 years/cycle = 28 years.
Given that 29th February 2000 was a Tuesday, the subsequent occurrences in the century (2001–2100) are:
2000 + 28 = 2028
2028 + 28 = 2056
2056 + 28 = 2084
The next occurrence would be in 2084 + 28 = 2112, which falls in the next century. Although 2100 is a century year, it is not a leap year (as it is not divisible by 400), so it does not possess a 29th February. Thus, there are exactly 3 such instances after the year 2000 within the 21st century.
100Quantitative Aptitude
How many numbers from 1 to 1000 are there which are NOT divisible by any of the digits 2, 3 and 5 ?
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Answer: (B) 266
Explanation
To find the number of integers from 1 to 1000 that are NOT divisible by 2, 3, or 5, we use the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion. Let S = {1, 2, …, 1000}, so |S| = 1000. Let A, B, and C be the sets of numbers divisible by 2, 3, and 5 respectively.
The number of elements in each set is:
|A| = ⌊1000/2⌋ = 500
|B| = ⌊1000/3⌋ = 333
|C| = ⌊1000/5⌋ = 200
The number of elements in the intersections are:
|A ∩ B| = ⌊1000/lcm(2,3)⌋ = ⌊1000/6⌋ = 166
|A ∩ C| = ⌊1000/lcm(2,5)⌋ = ⌊1000/10⌋ = 100
|B ∩ C| = ⌊1000/lcm(3,5)⌋ = ⌊1000/15⌋ = 66
|A ∩ B ∩ C| = ⌊1000/lcm(2,3,5)⌋ = ⌊1000/30⌋ = 33
According to the Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion, the number of elements divisible by at least one of these digits is:
|A ∪ B ∪ C| = (|A| + |B| + |C|) - (|A ∩ B| + |A ∩ C| + |B ∩ C|) + |A ∩ B ∩ C|
|A ∪ B ∪ C| = (500 + 333 + 200) - (166 + 100 + 66) + 33
|A ∪ B ∪ C| = 1033 - 332 + 33 = 734
The number of integers NOT divisible by 2, 3, or 5 is:
Total numbers - |A ∪ B ∪ C| = 1000 - 734 = 266
Alternatively, using the pattern within the LCM of the digits (30): the number of integers coprime to 30 in the range [1, 30] is φ(30) = 30(1 - 1/2)(1 - 1/3)(1 - 1/5) = 8. In 1000 numbers, there are 33 full cycles of 30 (33 × 8 = 264) plus the remainder from 991 to 1000. In the range [991, 1000], only 991 and 997 are not divisible by 2, 3, or 5, adding 2 to the count. Thus, 264 + 2 = 266.
101Geography
Which one among the following plains is associated with Limestone Topography ?
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Answer: (C) Karst plain
Explanation
Karst plains are landforms produced by the chemical weathering and dissolution of soluble rocks, most notably limestone, which is primarily composed of calcium carbonate. The process occurs when rainwater absorbs atmospheric carbon dioxide to form a weak carbonic acid, which then reacts with the limestone to dissolve it. Over time, this geological process creates a distinct topography characterized by features like sinkholes, disappearing streams, and subterranean drainage systems. As the landscape evolves through continuous solution and the collapse of underground caverns, a relatively flat or undulating plain known as a karst plain or karst level remains, representing an advanced stage of limestone erosion. These plains are named after the classic Karst plateau region in the Dinaric Alps, where such limestone features were first systematically studied.
102Geography
Regur soil is most suitable for the cultivation of :
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Answer: (B) Cotton
Explanation
Regur soil, widely known as Black Soil, is highly suitable for cotton cultivation because of its high clay content and excellent moisture-retention capacity. Formed from the weathering of basaltic lava rocks in the Deccan Trap region, this soil is rich in essential minerals like calcium, magnesium, potash, and lime. Its ability to retain water for long periods is particularly beneficial for cotton, which requires sustained moisture during its growth cycle. During the dry season, the soil develops deep cracks that facilitate aeration and oxygen penetration into the deeper layers, a characteristic often described as self-plowing. Due to this ideal synergy with the crop's requirements, regur soil is frequently referred to as Black Cotton Soil.
103Science and Technology
The hydrogen atoms present in acetylene molecule are :
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Answer: (A) acidic
Explanation
In acetylene (H-C ≡ C-H), the carbon atoms are sp hybridized. An sp hybridized carbon orbital has 50% s-character, which is significantly higher than the s-character in sp² (33.3%) or sp³ (25%) hybridized carbons. Because s-orbitals are closer to the nucleus than p-orbitals, a higher percentage of s-character makes the carbon atom more electronegative. This high electronegativity pulls the shared pair of electrons in the C-H bond closer to the carbon atom, polarizing the bond and making it easier for the hydrogen to be released as a proton (H⁺). This characteristic allows acetylene to react with strong bases such as sodamide (NaNH₂) or metallic sodium to form acetylides, confirming the acidic nature of its hydrogen atoms.
104Science and Technology
Which one of the following compounds is NOT considered an acid ?
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Answer: (C) NH3
Explanation
Ammonia (NH₃) is chemically classified as a base rather than an acid. According to the Brønsted-Lowry theory, a base is defined as a substance capable of accepting a proton (H⁺); ammonia readily performs this by forming the ammonium ion (NH₄⁺). Furthermore, under the Lewis theory of acids and bases, ammonia is a classic Lewis base because the nitrogen atom possesses a lone pair of electrons that it can donate to an electron-deficient species to form a coordinate covalent bond. While it can theoretically act as a very weak acid by losing a proton in the presence of extremely strong bases, its fundamental character and standard classification in chemistry are defined by its basic properties.
105Geography
Which one among the following is the correct order of west flowing rivers in terms of decreasing size of their river basins ?
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Answer: (D) Narmada—Tapi—Mahi—Sabarmati
Explanation
The Narmada river is the largest west-flowing river in India, possessing a drainage basin of approximately 98,796 square kilometers. It is followed by the Tapi river, which has a catchment area of about 65,145 square kilometers, primarily covering parts of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat. The Mahi river ranks third in this sequence with a basin area of 34,842 square kilometers, originating in the Vindhya Range. The Sabarmati river has the smallest drainage basin among the group, encompassing approximately 21,674 square kilometers. Comparing these values confirms that the hierarchical order from largest to smallest basin area is Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati.
106Geography
Which one among the following States is the leading producer of petroleum (crude) in India ?
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Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
Maharashtra is the leading producer of crude petroleum in India primarily because of the Mumbai High offshore field. Located in the Arabian Sea approximately 160 kilometers off the coast of Mumbai, this field is the largest oil-producing asset in the country and is operated by the Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC). During the period leading up to 2015, offshore production associated with Maharashtra consistently accounted for nearly 50 percent of India's total domestic crude oil output. The high volume of extraction from these offshore blocks ensures that Maharashtra maintains the top position in petroleum production compared to the onshore outputs of other states.
107Economy
Which one among the following States is the leading producer of salt in India ?
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Answer: (B) Gujarat
Explanation
Gujarat is the leading producer of salt in India, contributing approximately 75% to 80% of the country's total salt output. The state's dominance is due to its extensive coastline of about 1,600 km, the longest in India, along with favorable climatic conditions such as high evaporation rates and low rainfall. Major salt-producing areas include the Little Rann of Kutch, Jamnagar, and Bhavnagar. These regions utilize both seawater and subsoil brine to produce salt through solar evaporation. The unique geographical features of the Rann of Kutch, which remains submerged in brine during the monsoon and dries up during the summer, provide a vast natural field for large-scale salt harvesting.
108Science and Technology
Movement of outer electrons in the inner orbits of an atom produces :
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Answer: (D) x-ray
Explanation
When a vacancy is created in one of the inner electron shells of an atom (such as the K or L shell) due to an external impact or excitation, an electron from a higher-energy outer shell transitions downward to fill that vacancy. During this transition, the excess energy, which corresponds to the difference between the two specific energy levels of the atom, is released in the form of electromagnetic radiation. According to the relation ΔE = hν, for atoms with a sufficiently high atomic number, this energy difference is large enough that the emitted photons fall within the X-ray frequency range. These are known as characteristic X-rays because their wavelengths depend on the specific electronic structure of the target element.
109Science and Technology
γ-ray consists of :
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Answer: (D) electromagnetic waves
Explanation
Gamma rays are a form of high-energy electromagnetic radiation that originates from the radioactive decay of atomic nuclei or other high-energy subatomic processes. On the electromagnetic spectrum, they occupy the region with the highest frequencies and the shortest wavelengths, typically measured in picometers or less. Because they are electromagnetic waves, they consist of massless packets of energy called photons that travel at the speed of light in a vacuum. Unlike alpha or beta radiation, which consist of particles with mass and charge, gamma rays carry no electric charge and have no rest mass. This lack of mass and charge allows them to penetrate deeply through various materials. Their energy is directly proportional to their frequency according to the relation E = hf, where h is Planck's constant and f is the frequency, characterizing them as the most energetic form of electromagnetic waves.
110Science and Technology
The heaviest element known up till January 2015 has the atomic number :
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Answer: (B) 118
Explanation
By January 2015, the heaviest element synthesized and recognized by the scientific community was the one with atomic number 118. Initially known by its systematic IUPAC name Ununoctium (and later officially named Oganesson), it was first produced in 2002 at the Joint Institute for Nuclear Research in Dubna, Russia. This element sits at the end of the seventh period in the periodic table, specifically in the noble gas group. Although research was active regarding elements with higher atomic numbers such as 119 and 120, no successful synthesis of these elements had been verified or officially acknowledged by international scientific bodies as of early 2015.
111Geography
Consider the following statements relating to cyclone, anti cyclone and trade wind :
1. The wind direction is clockwise in the cyclone of northern hemisphere
2. The planetary wind that blows from north-east to north-west is known as north-east trade wind
3. The wind direction is anti clockwise in the anticyclone of southern hemisphere
4. Both westerlies and trade winds originate from sub-tropical highs
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
In the Southern Hemisphere, an anticyclone is a high-pressure system where air descends and diverges outward from the center. Due to the Coriolis effect, which deflects moving air to the left in the Southern Hemisphere, this outward flow results in a counter-clockwise or anti-clockwise circulation pattern.
The Subtropical High Pressure Belts, situated approximately between 30 and 35 degrees latitude in both hemispheres, act as major source regions for surface winds. Air subsiding in these high-pressure cells diverges at the surface; the portion of air that flows toward the Equatorial Low Pressure Belt constitutes the Trade Winds, while the portion that flows toward the higher latitudes forms the Westerlies. Therefore, both wind systems originate from the subtropical highs.
112Geography
'Evaporites' is :
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Answer: (A) a rock
Explanation
Evaporites are a specific type of chemical sedimentary rock that forms through the evaporation of saline water. This geological process typically occurs in restricted marine basins or inland lakes where the rate of evaporation exceeds the rate of water inflow. As the water evaporates, the concentration of dissolved salts increases until the solution becomes supersaturated, causing minerals to precipitate out and accumulate in layers. Common examples of minerals found in these rocks include halite (rock salt), gypsum (CaSO₄·2H₂O), and anhydrite (CaSO₄). Because these mineral precipitates consolidate and lithify over time into distinct geological units, they are classified as rocks within the sedimentary sequence.
113Geography
The following item consists of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below :
Code :
Statement I : The Indian Ocean Tsunami of 2004 occurred along a subduction zone along west coast of Sumatra
Statement II : Along the Sumatra coast the Indo-Australian Plate converges below the Eurasian Plate
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I
Explanation
The 2004 Indian Ocean Tsunami was triggered by a massive undersea earthquake with its epicenter located off the west coast of Sumatra, Indonesia. This seismic event occurred along the Sunda Trench, which marks a significant subduction zone where tectonic plates meet. In this region, the Indo-Australian Plate moves in a north-northeasterly direction and is forced beneath the Eurasian Plate, specifically the Burma microplate.
The subduction process at this plate boundary led to a megathrust earthquake when the accumulated tectonic strain was suddenly released, causing the seafloor to uplift by several meters. This abrupt vertical displacement of the ocean floor shifted a massive volume of water, generating the tsunami waves that spread across the Indian Ocean. Because the specific plate convergence and subduction mechanism described in Statement II are the direct causes of the seismic activity and subsequent tsunami mentioned in Statement I, the second statement provides a scientifically accurate explanation for the first.
114Logical Reasoning
Which one of the following series of letters follows a pattern and is different from the rest ?
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Answer: (A) ADHMSZ
Explanation
The series ADHMSZ follows a consistent arithmetic progression in the differences between its letter positions in the English alphabet. By converting the letters into their numerical order (A=1, D=4, H=8, M=13, S=19, Z=26), the pattern of increments is:
4 - 1 = 3
8 - 4 = 4
13 - 8 = 5
19 - 13 = 6
26 - 19 = 7
The sequence of differences is 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, where each subsequent difference increases by exactly 1. This well-defined logical rule identifies this series as the one following a specific mathematical pattern.
115Logical Reasoning
The age of 'E' is twice the age of 'S'. To find out the difference in their ages, which of the following information is/are sufficient ?
I. After five years, the ratio of their ages would be 9:5
II. Before ten years, the ratio of their ages was 3:1
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Answer: (C) Either I or II
Explanation
Let the current age of S be x. Since E is twice as old as S, the age of E is 2x. The difference in their ages is 2x - x = x.
According to statement I, in five years, the ages will be 2x + 5 and x + 5 respectively. The ratio is given as (2x + 5)/(x + 5) = 9/5. Solving this equation:
5(2x + 5) = 9(x + 5)
10x + 25 = 9x + 45
x = 20
Thus, statement I alone is sufficient to find the difference.
According to statement II, ten years ago, the ages were 2x - 10 and x - 10 respectively. The ratio was (2x - 10)/(x - 10) = 3/1. Solving this equation:
2x - 10 = 3(x - 10)
2x - 10 = 3x - 30
x = 20
Thus, statement II alone is also sufficient to find the difference. Since either piece of information can independently lead to the solution, the correct choice is that either statement I or II is sufficient.
116Science and Technology
Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are such that each car makes a complete circle in the same time 't'. The ratio of angular speed of the first to that of the second car is :
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Answer: (B) 1:1
Explanation
Angular speed ω is defined as the rate of change of angular displacement. For an object completing a full circular path, the total angular displacement is 2π radians. The relationship between angular speed and the time period T taken to complete one revolution is given by the formula:
ω = 2π/T
According to the question, both cars complete a circle in the same time t. Therefore, the time period for the first car is T₁ = t and for the second car is T₂ = t. Calculating their respective angular speeds:
ω₁ = 2π/t
ω₂ = 2π/t
Taking the ratio of the angular speed of the first car to that of the second car:
ω₁/ω₂ = (2π/t)/(2π/t) = 1/1
The angular speed depends only on the time taken to complete the rotation and is independent of the masses m₁, m₂ and the radii r₁, r₂ of the circular paths. Since the time t is identical for both, the ratio is 1:1.
117Science and Technology
Heavy water of an atomic reactor is :
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Answer: (D) an oxide of heavier isotope of hydrogen
Explanation
Heavy water, scientifically known as deuterium oxide (D₂O), is a form of water that contains a larger than normal amount of the hydrogen isotope deuterium (²H or D), rather than the common hydrogen isotope protium (¹H). While a standard hydrogen atom consists of only a single proton in its nucleus, deuterium contains both a proton and a neutron, making the water molecule significantly denser. In nuclear reactors, heavy water is primarily used as a neutron moderator to slow down fast neutrons through collisions, increasing the probability of further fission in U-235. Its low neutron absorption cross-section makes it highly efficient for maintaining a nuclear chain reaction while using natural uranium as fuel.
118Science and Technology
In a radioactive decay of a nucleus, an electron is also emitted. This may happen due to the fact that :
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Answer: (B) an electron is created at the time of conversion of a neutron into proton
Explanation
In the process of beta-minus (β⁻) decay, a nucleus with an excess of neutrons achieves stability by converting a neutron into a proton. This transformation is mediated by the weak nuclear force. During this specific reaction, the neutron (n) transforms into a proton (p), and in order to conserve electric charge and lepton number, an electron (e⁻) and an electron antineutrino (ν̄_e) are created and immediately ejected from the nucleus.
The nuclear reaction can be represented as:
n → p + e⁻ + ν̄_e
The electron emitted in this process is known as a beta particle. It is important to note that the electron does not exist inside the nucleus prior to the decay; rather, it is produced at the exact moment the neutron-to-proton conversion occurs. This process increases the atomic number of the atom by one while keeping the mass number constant.
119Logical Reasoning
Code :
Premises : All metals are grey in colour. Some metals are heavy.
Conclusion : I. All heavy metals are grey in colour. II. All light metals are not grey in colour.
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Answer: (A) Only I
Explanation
The first premise establishes that being grey is a universal property for the entire set of metals. The second premise identifies a specific subset within metals, which are heavy metals. Since the property of being grey applies to all members of the set of metals, it must necessarily apply to any subset of that set. Therefore, heavy metals, being a subset of metals, are all grey in colour. Conclusion II fails to follow because the first premise explicitly states that all metals are grey, which would include light metals as well, contradicting the claim that they are not grey.
120Logical Reasoning
Code :
Premises : All film stars are playback singers. All film directors are film stars.
Conclusion : I. All film directors are playback singers. II. Some film stars are film directors.
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Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation
Conclusion I follows directly from the transitive property of the given universal affirmative premises. Using set notation, if the set of film directors is a subset of film stars (D ⊆ S) and the set of film stars is a subset of playback singers (S ⊆ P), it logically follows that the set of film directors is a subset of playback singers (D ⊆ P). This confirms that all film directors are playback singers.
Conclusion II is valid through the logical conversion of the second premise. The statement "All film directors are film stars" (D ⊆ S) implies that there is an intersection between the two sets. In categorical logic, a universal affirmative proposition (All A are B) implies the particular affirmative proposition (Some B are A). Since all directors are contained within the category of stars, those stars who are directors ensure that some film stars are indeed film directors. Therefore, both conclusions are logically sound.
121Logical Reasoning
Code :
Premises : All apples are golden in colour. No golden coloured things are cheap.
Conclusion : I. All apples are cheap. II. Golden coloured apples are not cheap.
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Answer: (B) Only II
Explanation
The logical deduction follows a standard syllogism. The first premise establishes that the set of all apples is a subset of the set of golden coloured things. The second premise states that the set of golden coloured things and the set of cheap things are mutually exclusive, meaning no element belonging to the golden category can belong to the cheap category. Since all apples are contained within the golden category, it logically follows that no apples are cheap. Conclusion II specifically addresses golden coloured apples; since these are a subset of golden coloured things, and no golden coloured things are cheap, it is logically certain that golden coloured apples are not cheap.