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CAPF AC Paper I 2013 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 117 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

117
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8
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100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology2320%
  • History2118%
  • Polity and Governance2118%
  • Economy2017%
  • Geography1815%
  • Quantitative Aptitude87%
  • Logical Reasoning43%
  • Art and Culture22%
1Quantitative Aptitude
If the ratio of X to Y is 3/4 and the ratio of Y to Z is 12/13, then the ratio of X to Z is
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Answer: (D) 9/13

Explanation

To find the ratio of X to Z when given X/Y and Y/Z, we use the property that the product of these ratios eliminates the common term Y: X/Z = (X/Y) × (Y/Z)

Substituting the provided numerical values into the equation: X/Z = (3/4) × (12/13)

We can simplify the expression by dividing the 12 in the numerator by the 4 in the denominator: X/Z = (3/1) × (3/13) = 9/13

Alternatively, we can equalize the term Y across both ratios. Given X:Y = 3:4 and Y:Z = 12:13, we can multiply the first ratio by 3 to make the value of Y equal to 12 in both sets. This results in X:Y = 9:12. Since Y is now consistently represented as 12, the combined ratio is X:Y:Z = 9:12:13, which confirms the ratio X:Z = 9:13.

2Quantitative Aptitude
The sum of the base and altitude of a triangle is 30 cm. What is the maximum possible area of such a triangle?
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Answer: (C) 112.5 cm²

Explanation

The area A of a triangle is given by the formula A = (1/2) × base × altitude. Let b represent the base and h represent the altitude. We are given the constraint b + h = 30.

Mathematically, for a fixed sum of two variables, their product is maximized when the variables are equal. This follows from the Arithmetic Mean-Geometric Mean (AM-GM) inequality, which states that for positive numbers, the product bh is maximum when b = h. Given b + h = 30, setting b = h results in b = 15 and h = 15.

Substituting these values into the area formula: A_max = (1/2) × 15 × 15 = 225/2 = 112.5 cm²

Alternatively, expressing the area as a function of one variable, A(b) = (1/2)b(30 - b) = 15b - (1/2)b². Taking the derivative and setting it to zero, dA/db = 15 - b = 0, confirms that the maximum occurs at b = 15.

3Quantitative Aptitude
If 9 mangoes cost as much as 5 oranges, 5 oranges as much as 3 apples, 4 apples as much as 9 pineapples and if 3 pineapples cost ₹ 48, what will a mango cost?
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Answer: (B) 12

Explanation

The problem can be solved using the chain rule for equivalent ratios. Let the cost of one mango be x. Based on the given equivalent costs, we can set up the following equation:

x = (5/9) × (3/5) × (9/4) × (48/3)

To simplify the calculation, we cancel out common terms in the numerator and the denominator:

x = (5 × 3 × 9 × 48)/(9 × 5 × 4 × 3)

Cancelling 5, 9, and 3 from both sides of the fraction:

x = 48/4 = 12

Alternatively, using step-by-step substitution: Cost of 1 pineapple = 48/3 = ₹ 16. Cost of 4 apples = cost of 9 pineapples = 9 × 16 = ₹ 144. Cost of 1 apple = 144/4 = ₹ 36. Cost of 5 oranges = cost of 3 apples = 3 × 36 = ₹ 108. Cost of 9 mangoes = cost of 5 oranges = ₹ 108. Cost of 1 mango = 108/9 = ₹ 12.

4Logical Reasoning
Through how many degrees does the hour hand in a clock move as the time changes from 3 hours and 12 minutes to 6 hours?
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Answer: (D) 84

Explanation

The time duration between 3 hours 12 minutes and 6 hours is 2 hours and 48 minutes. To find the total movement in degrees, we first convert this duration into minutes: (2 × 60) + 48 = 168 minutes.

The hour hand of a clock covers 360° in 12 hours. Since there are 720 minutes in 12 hours, the angular speed of the hour hand is 360°/720 = 0.5° per minute. By multiplying the total time elapsed by the speed of the hour hand, we get the total degrees moved: 168 minutes × 0.5°/minute = 84°.

5Quantitative Aptitude
If 5 persons can weave 160 mats in 8 days, how many mats will 8 persons weave in 6 days?
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Answer: (B) 192

Explanation

To solve problems involving work, men, and days, we use the chain rule formula:

(M₁ × D₁)/W₁ = (M₂ × D₂)/W₂

Where M is the number of persons, D is the number of days, and W is the work done (number of mats).

Given values from the first scenario: M₁ = 5 persons D₁ = 8 days W₁ = 160 mats

Given values for the second scenario: M₂ = 8 persons D₂ = 6 days W₂ = x (the number of mats to be calculated)

Substituting these values into the formula:

(5 × 8)/160 = (8 × 6)/x

40/160 = 48/x

Simplifying the left side:

1/4 = 48/x

By cross-multiplication:

x = 48 × 4

x = 192

6Quantitative Aptitude
Two cars are moving in the same direction with a speed of 45 km/hr and a distance of 10 km separates them. If a car coming from the opposite direction meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, its speed would be
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Answer: (B) 55 km/hr

Explanation

To find the speed of the third car, we use the concept of relative speed. Let the speed of the car coming from the opposite direction be v km/hr. Since it is moving in the opposite direction to the two cars (each moving at 45 km/hr), the relative speed between the third car and the two cars is (v + 45) km/hr.

The distance between the two cars is given as 10 km. The third car meets these two cars at an interval of 6 minutes, which is 6/60 = 0.1 hours. Using the formula for speed, Relative Speed = Distance/Time:

v + 45 = 10/0.1

v + 45 = 100

v = 100 - 45

v = 55 km/hr.

7Quantitative Aptitude
In a class, 40 students passed in Mathematics, 50% of the students passed in English, 5% of the students failed in Mathematics and English, and 25% of the students passed in both the subjects. What is the ratio of the number of students who passed in English to that in Mathematics?
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Answer: (C) 5:7

Explanation

Let T be the total number of students in the class. The percentage of students who passed in at least one subject is the total percentage minus the percentage of those who failed both: P(M ∪ E) = 100% - 5% = 95%

Using the principle of inclusion-exclusion for the percentages of students who passed in Mathematics (M) and English (E): P(M ∪ E) = P(M) + P(E) - P(M ∩ E)

Substituting the given values: 95% = P(M) + 50% - 25% 95% = P(M) + 25% P(M) = 70%

The ratio of the number of students who passed in English to those who passed in Mathematics is the same as the ratio of their respective percentages of the total population T: Ratio = P(E) : P(M) Ratio = 50% : 70% Ratio = 5 : 7

8Quantitative Aptitude
The least integer whose multiplication with 588 leads to a perfect square is
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

To find the least integer that makes 588 a perfect square upon multiplication, we first determine its prime factorization. Dividing 588 by its prime factors: 588 = 2 × 294 588 = 2 × 2 × 147 588 = 2² × 3 × 49 588 = 2² × 3¹ × 7²

For a number to be a perfect square, the exponent of every prime factor in its prime factorization must be an even integer. In the factorization of 588, the prime factors 2 and 7 already have even exponents (2² and 7²). However, the prime factor 3 has an odd exponent (3¹). To result in a perfect square, we must multiply by 3 to increase its exponent to an even number (3²). Multiplying 588 by 3 gives 588 × 3 = 1764, which is 42². Therefore, 3 is the least integer required to complete the pairs of prime factors and form a perfect square.

9Logical Reasoning
The fifth term of the alphabet series BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO, _? is
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Answer: (A) NOML

Explanation

The series follows a consistent pattern based on the position of letters in the alphabet. Each term is divided into two parts: the first two letters and the last two letters.

For the first two letters, the starting letter of each term moves forward by 3 positions: B (2) → E (5) → H (8) → K (11). Thus, the next starting letter is 11 + 3 = 14, which is N. Since the first two letters are always consecutive, the second letter of the fifth term is O.

For the last two letters, they represent the reverse alphabetical counterparts (opposite pairs) of the first two letters. In an opposite pair, the sum of the numerical positions of the letters is always 27. For the fifth term starting with N (14) and O (15): The third letter is 27 - 14 = 13, which is M. The fourth letter is 27 - 15 = 12, which is L.

Alternatively, observing the sequence of the last two letters directly: YX (25, 24) → VU (22, 21) → SR (19, 18) → PO (16, 15). Each corresponding letter decreases by 3 positions (25-3=22, 22-3=19, 19-3=16). The next values are 16 - 3 = 13 (M) and 15 - 3 = 12 (L), resulting in the term NOML.

10Quantitative Aptitude
By selling an article at ₹ 270, a man loses 10%. If he would sell it at ₹ 360, his gain percent is
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Answer: (C) 20

Explanation

The cost price CP of the article is determined using the selling price and the loss percentage. Given a selling price SP₁ = 270 and a loss of 10%: CP = (SP₁ × 100)/(100 - Loss%) = (270 × 100)/(100 - 10) = (270 × 100)/90 = 300

The cost price of the article is ₹ 300. To find the gain percentage when the article is sold at a new selling price SP₂ = 360, we first calculate the absolute gain: Gain = SP₂ - CP = 360 - 300 = 60

The gain percentage is then calculated based on the cost price: Gain% = (Gain/CP) × 100 = (60/300) × 100 = 20%

11Logical Reasoning
In a certain code, 'PLANT' is written as @2*@ and 'YIELD' is written as B64@%. How is 'DELAY' written in that code?
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Answer: (D) %4@2β

Explanation

The code is determined by a direct character-to-symbol mapping based on the position of letters in the given examples. By extracting the specific symbols for each letter in the word DELAY from the words PLANT and YIELD:

From YIELD (B64@%), we identify the following mappings: Y = B (represented as β in the options) E = 4 (third position) L = @ (fourth position) D = % (fifth position)

From PLANT (@2*@), we confirm: L = @ A = 2 (third position)

Now, substituting these corresponding symbols into the word DELAY: D maps to % E maps to 4 L maps to @ A maps to 2 Y maps to β

Arranging these symbols in the required order results in the code %4@2β.

12Logical Reasoning
If A is coded as 1, B as 3, C as 5 and so on, which of the following is the numerical value of the word 'FAZED' if the numerical value of 'CABLE' is 41?
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Answer: (C) 79

Explanation

The coding logic follows an arithmetic progression where each letter is assigned a value based on its position n in the alphabet using the formula 2n - 1. For example, A (1st letter) is 2(1) - 1 = 1, B (2nd letter) is 2(2) - 1 = 3, and C (3rd letter) is 2(3) - 1 = 5.

To find the value of FAZED, we identify the alphabetical positions: F is 6, A is 1, Z is 26, E is 5, and D is 4. Applying the formula to each: F = 2(6) - 1 = 11 A = 2(1) - 1 = 1 Z = 2(26) - 1 = 51 E = 2(5) - 1 = 9 D = 2(4) - 1 = 7

The total numerical value is the sum of these individual values: 11 + 1 + 51 + 9 + 7 = 79.

13Science and Technology
Natural gas is a mixture of gases and contains mainly
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Answer: (A) methane and higher hydrocarbons

Explanation

Natural gas is a naturally occurring fossil fuel that consists primarily of methane (CH₄), which typically constitutes 70% to 90% of the mixture. Along with methane, it contains varying amounts of higher hydrocarbons, which are alkanes with multiple carbon atoms such as ethane (C₂H₆), propane (C₃H₈), and butane (C₄H₁₀). These components are formed deep underground from the remains of ancient marine organisms through heat and pressure over millions of years. While small quantities of non-hydrocarbon gases like nitrogen and carbon dioxide may also be present, the defining characteristic of natural gas is this specific mixture of methane and its heavier hydrocarbon counterparts.

14Science and Technology
Diamond is a polymorph of graphite. Both contain carbon atoms, but they have extremely different properties because of the condition in which they are formed. Diamond is obtained after applying
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Answer: (D) very high pressure and high temperature

Explanation

Diamond and graphite are both allotropic forms of carbon, but they differ significantly in their crystal structures and physical properties. Diamond is the high-pressure polymorph of carbon. Its formation requires an environment where carbon atoms can be compressed into a dense, three-dimensional tetrahedral lattice. Naturally, this occurs deep within the Earth's mantle at depths of approximately 150 to 200 kilometers. In these regions, the carbon is subjected to extreme lithostatic pressures, often exceeding 4.5 GPa, and intense temperatures typically ranging from 900 to 1300 degrees Celsius. The combination of very high pressure and high temperature provides the necessary energy and physical conditions to transform carbon into the diamond structure. This environment is artificially replicated in the High Pressure High Temperature (HPHT) industrial process to manufacture synthetic diamonds.

15Science and Technology
The three primary soil microorganisms are
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Answer: (C) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium

Explanation

Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium are categorized as the three primary macronutrients because they are essential for plant growth and are required by the soil in larger quantities than other elements. Nitrogen is a fundamental component of chlorophyll and amino acids, driving vegetative growth and photosynthesis. Phosphorus is critical for energy transfer through adenosine triphosphate (ATP), root development, and the reproductive stages of the plant, such as flowering and seed formation. Potassium regulates several physiological functions, including enzyme activation, protein synthesis, and the opening and closing of stomata for water management. These three elements form the basis of most commercial fertilizers and are vital for maintaining soil productivity.

16Science and Technology
Diamond Ring, God's Eye and Baily's Beads are the parts of which one among the following natural phenomena?
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Answer: (A) Solar eclipse

Explanation

Baily's beads are a phenomenon observed during total and annular solar eclipses, caused by the uneven topography of the lunar surface. As the moon covers the sun, sunlight passes through the deep valleys and craters on the lunar limb, creating a series of bright spots that resemble beads on a string. The diamond ring effect occurs immediately before or after totality when only a single point of sunlight remains visible, appearing as a bright diamond set against the thin circular halo of the solar corona. The term God's eye is a metaphorical description for the striking visual of the sun's corona surrounding the dark lunar disk during a total eclipse. These specific optical effects are unique to the precise celestial alignment required for a solar eclipse.

17Science and Technology
'Turing machine' serves as
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Answer: (D) a theoretical computing machine to act as an ideal model for mathematical calculation

Explanation

A Turing machine is a mathematical model of computation introduced by Alan Turing in 1936. It consists of an abstract device that manipulates symbols on a strip of tape according to a predefined table of rules. Despite its structural simplicity, the model is capable of simulating the logic of any computer algorithm, providing a formal definition of the concept of an algorithm or computation. It serves as the fundamental theoretical framework for computer science, allowing researchers to understand the limits of what can be calculated by any physical or theoretical computing system. By acting as an ideal model for mathematical calculation, it establishes the boundaries of computability and forms the basis for the design of modern digital computers.

18Science and Technology
Leaves of lotus and water lily are not easily wet because the leaves 1. have surface uneven in micro-scale and water cannot come into contact with the depressed areas due to high surface tension 2. contain an oily substance 3. contain a greasy substance 4. have surface too smooth to attract water Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The leaves of the lotus and water lily exhibit superhydrophobicity, often called the lotus effect. This occurs because the leaf surface is not smooth but possesses a hierarchical micro-scale roughness consisting of small papillae or bumps. When a water droplet lands on the leaf, air becomes trapped in the valleys between these microscopic bumps. Due to the high surface tension of water, the liquid remains in a nearly spherical shape and cannot penetrate into the depressed areas, significantly reducing the contact area between the water and the leaf. Furthermore, the surface is coated with epicuticular waxes, which are hydrophobic lipids. These waxes function as oily and greasy substances that chemically repel water, preventing it from spreading across or adhering to the leaf surface. This combination of physical micro-structures and chemical lipid coatings ensures the leaves remain dry and clean.

19Science and Technology
Arsenic present in groundwater can be partially removed
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Answer: (A) along with removal of iron by precipitation/coagulation method if iron is also present in the water

Explanation

Arsenic removal from groundwater is highly effective when iron is naturally present. During the process of iron removal, dissolved ferrous iron (Fe²⁺) is oxidized to ferric iron (Fe³⁺), which subsequently forms insoluble ferric hydroxide precipitates (Fe(OH)₃). Arsenic, specifically in its pentavalent form (As(V)), has a high affinity for these iron precipitates. Through processes known as adsorption and co-precipitation, the arsenic attaches to the surface of the ferric hydroxide flocs. Once these flocs are removed via sedimentation or filtration, the arsenic concentration in the water is significantly reduced. This synergistic removal is a standard technique in water treatment where arsenic and iron co-occur.

20Science and Technology
Transformer is used to 1. convert low a.c. voltage to high voltage 2. convert high a.c. voltage to low voltage 3. convert direct current to alternating current 4. regulate the fluctuation of voltage
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Transformers are electromagnetic devices that transfer electrical energy between circuits through the process of mutual induction. They are primarily designed to change the voltage levels of alternating current (AC) without changing its frequency. A step-up transformer increases the voltage from a low level to a high level, which is necessary for minimizing energy loss during long-distance power transmission. A step-down transformer reduces high voltage to a lower, safer level for use in homes and businesses. These functions are dictated by the turns ratio of the transformer, expressed by the formula Vₚ / Vₛ = Nₚ / Nₛ, where V represents the voltage and N represents the number of turns in the primary and secondary coils. This mechanism requires a time-varying magnetic field, which is why transformers are used specifically with alternating current.

21Science and Technology
The filament of electric bulb is generally made of tungsten because
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Answer: (D) melting point of tungsten is high

Explanation

Tungsten is the preferred material for incandescent bulb filaments because it possesses the highest melting point of all pure metals, approximately 3422°C (6192°F). Incandescent bulbs produce light by passing an electric current through a filament to heat it to a point where it glows brightly, a process known as incandescence. To emit a significant amount of visible light, the filament must reach temperatures between 2000°C and 3000°C. Tungsten's extremely high melting point allows the filament to remain in a solid state and maintain its structural integrity at these intense white-hot temperatures. Furthermore, tungsten has a very low vapor pressure at high temperatures, which minimizes the rate of evaporation and prevents the filament from breaking prematurely.

22Science and Technology
Electricity meter may be a/an
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Answer: (D) analog computer

Explanation

Electricity meters, particularly the traditional electromechanical induction types, are considered analog computers because they process continuous physical quantities to perform calculations. These meters use two sets of coils to create magnetic fields that interact with a rotating aluminum disc. The speed of this disc is directly proportional to the instantaneous product of voltage and current, which represents the power being consumed. By counting the total rotations of the disc, the device performs a continuous mathematical integration of power over time to determine total energy consumption. Since the input variables are continuous physical signals and the computation is performed through physical motion rather than discrete digital logic, the device functions as an analog computing system.

23Science and Technology
Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset found in the sky are due to the phenomenon of
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Answer: (B) refraction of sunlight

Explanation

The phenomena of advanced sunrise and delayed sunset are caused by atmospheric refraction. The Earth's atmosphere is not uniform; its density and refractive index decrease with increasing altitude. When sunlight enters the atmosphere from the vacuum of space, it travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium. According to the laws of refraction, the light rays bend progressively toward the normal as they pass through these layers of increasing density. Consequently, when the sun is still slightly below the horizon, the light rays are curved downward toward the observer on the surface. This causes the sun to appear at a higher position than its actual geometric location, making it visible about two minutes before it truly rises and keeping it visible for about two minutes after it has actually set.

24Science and Technology
The formation of colours in soap bubbles is due to the phenomenon of
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Answer: (B) interference of light

Explanation

The formation of colours in soap bubbles is caused by the phenomenon of thin-film interference. When light waves strike the bubble, some part of the light is reflected from the outer surface of the soap film, while another part penetrates the film and is reflected from the inner surface. These two sets of reflected waves travel different distances and then recombine. Depending on the thickness of the film and the angle of the light, the waves either reinforce each other through constructive interference or cancel each other out through destructive interference. Because different wavelengths of light correspond to different colours, specific colours are amplified at specific thicknesses, resulting in the vibrant, shifting colour patterns seen on the bubble surface.

25Science and Technology
Geostationary satellite completes its one revolution around the earth in
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Answer: (B) 24 hours

Explanation

A geostationary satellite is placed in a circular orbit directly above the Earth's equator at an altitude of approximately 35,786 kilometers. To appear stationary relative to a fixed point on the Earth's surface, the satellite's orbital period must match the Earth's sidereal rotation period. According to Kepler's Third Law, the period T of an orbit is related to its radius r by the formula T = 2π√(r³/GM), where G is the gravitational constant and M is the mass of the Earth. At the specific geostationary altitude, the radius r results in an orbital period of approximately 86,164 seconds, which is 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds. This is functionally equivalent to one day or 24 hours in the context of the Earth's rotation, ensuring the satellite remains fixed over the same geographic longitude.

26Science and Technology
What is the correct sequence of conductivity when arranged in ascending order?
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Answer: (D) Insulators, semiconductors, metals

Explanation

Electrical conductivity is determined by the density of free charge carriers and the energy band structure of a material. Insulators possess a wide band gap, meaning very few electrons can transition to the conduction band, leading to extremely low conductivity levels, often between 10⁻²⁰ and 10⁻¹⁰ S/m. Semiconductors have a narrower band gap, allowing a moderate number of electrons to move into the conduction band at room temperature, which results in intermediate conductivity values typically ranging from 10⁻⁶ to 10⁴ S/m. Metals have overlapping valence and conduction bands, creating a high concentration of free electrons that move easily under an electric field, giving them the highest conductivity values, usually exceeding 10⁶ S/m. This progression demonstrates why insulators are the least conductive and metals are the most conductive.

27Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements about 'modem' is correct?
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Answer: (D) Modem converts the analog signal into digital signal and vice versa

Explanation

The word modem is a contraction of modulator-demodulator. This device acts as a critical interface that enables digital computers to communicate over analog transmission media, such as copper telephone wires or coaxial cables. During transmission, the modem performs modulation, which involves encoding digital data from the computer onto an analog carrier signal. Upon receiving data, the device performs demodulation, extracting the digital information from the incoming analog wave so it can be processed by the computer. This bidirectional signal conversion allows for data exchange across different types of physical communication infrastructure, making it a fundamental component for internet connectivity and networking.

28Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a form of carbon?
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Answer: (D) Quartz

Explanation

Quartz is a crystalline mineral composed of silicon and oxygen atoms, with the chemical formula SiO₂. Its structure consists of a continuous framework of SiO₄ silicon-oxygen tetrahedra, where each oxygen atom is shared between two tetrahedra. Because its fundamental chemical composition is based on silicon and oxygen rather than carbon, it is not an allotrope or a form of carbon. It is one of the most abundant minerals in the Earth's continental crust and is categorized as a silicate mineral.

29Science and Technology
Plants capable of performing photosynthesis belong to which one among the following types of organisms?
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Answer: (C) Autotrophs

Explanation

Autotrophs are organisms that produce their own food from simple inorganic substances such as carbon dioxide and water. Green plants are the primary examples of photoautotrophs, as they utilize solar energy to drive the process of photosynthesis. During this process, chlorophyll within the plant cells captures sunlight to convert CO₂ and H₂O into energy-rich organic compounds like glucose, while releasing oxygen as a byproduct. Because they synthesize their own organic requirements without relying on other organisms for nutrition, plants are classified as autotrophs and serve as the foundational producers in most terrestrial ecosystems.

30Geography
With reference to India, which of the following statements relating to urbanization is/are correct? 1. It is a manifestation of economic, social and political progress. 2. Rapid growth of urban population puts pressure on public utilities. 3. Urban sprout is encroaching the precious agricultural land. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Urbanization in India is a manifestation of economic, social, and political progress as it signifies a structural shift from a rural-agrarian economy to an urban-industrial and service-oriented economy, which typically correlates with higher productivity and modernization. However, this growth often outpaces the development of infrastructure, leading to severe pressure on public utilities such as water supply, sanitation, electricity, and public transport. Additionally, the process of urban sprawl involves the horizontal expansion of cities into the periphery, which results in the conversion and encroachment of productive agricultural land for residential, industrial, and commercial use.

31Geography
Which of the following statements regarding landslides is/are correct? 1. They are sudden and sporadic. 2. They result when the slope is gentle. 3. Mining activity is also responsible for landslides. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Landslides are geomorphic processes involving the downward movement of rock, debris, or earth under the influence of gravity. These events are primarily characterized by their sudden and sporadic nature, occurring abruptly when the shear stress on a slope exceeds the shear strength of the underlying materials. Human interventions, particularly mining activity, significantly increase the frequency and intensity of landslides. Mining involves large-scale excavation, blasting, and the removal of vegetation and overburden, which destabilizes the natural equilibrium of terrain. The vibrations from blasting and the removal of geological support layers create structural stresses that often lead to catastrophic mass wasting in hilly or mountainous regions.

32Economy
Which of the following statements related to globalization is/are correct? 1. It has resulted in the change of scale in economic activities. 2. End of Cold War facilitated globalization. 3. Flow of money in transnational corporations is discouraged. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Globalization is characterized by the increasing integration of national economies through the international movement of goods, services, technology, and capital. This process has fundamentally changed the scale of economic activities by expanding them from local and national levels to a global dimensions, allowing for global supply chains and the realization of massive economies of scale. The end of the Cold War in the early 1990s was a pivotal historical event that facilitated globalization. The collapse of the Soviet Union and the dissolution of the Eastern Bloc removed the ideological and physical barriers between command and market economies. This allowed for the integration of formerly closed nations into the global capitalist system, promoting the spread of liberalized trade policies and international investment across the globe.

33Geography
The continent having the largest area in the equatorial belt is
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Answer: (C) Africa

Explanation

Africa occupies the largest land area within the equatorial belt, which is generally defined as the region between 10° North and 10° South latitudes. The equator passes through the central part of the continent, traversing several countries including Gabon, Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, and Somalia. The continent is exceptionally wide at these latitudes, encompassing the vast Congo Basin and significant portions of the East African highlands. While the equator also passes through South America and the islands of Southeast Asia, the total contiguous landmass situated within the equatorial zone is greatest in Africa. This geographic layout contributes to Africa having the most extensive area of tropical rainforests and equatorial climates after the Amazon, but with a broader latitudinal spread of land directly under the sun's zenith.

34Geography
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Sediments of Gondwana System were deposited under marine condition. 2. Rocks of Gondwana System are fossiliferous. 3. Rocks of Gondwana System contain metallic mineral deposits. 4. Gondwana deposition took place in downfaulted trough. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only

Explanation

The Gondwana System is characterized by its rich fossil record and its specific geological setting. Statement 2 is correct as these rocks contain abundant organic remains, notably the Glossopteris flora and various vertebrate fossils, which are essential for dating and correlating the strata. Statement 4 is correct because the sedimentation took place within downfaulted troughs or grabens. These structural basins were created by crustal extension and subsequent subsidence, allowing for the preservation of thick sedimentary sequences and the formation of extensive coal seams in fluvial and lacustrine environments.

35Geography
Which one among the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (C) Vindhyans are examples of fold mountain

Explanation

The Vindhyan Range is not a fold mountain range; it is classified as a block mountain or a residual mountain range. It was formed primarily due to the faulting and subsequent upliftment of the crust, creating a massive structural escarpment that borders the Narmada-Son rift valley. Fold mountains are formed by the compression of the Earth's crustal plates which leads to the folding of rock layers, whereas the Vindhyas consist of thick, horizontally bedded sedimentary rocks of the Proterozoic age that have not undergone such tectonic folding. Instead, they represent a prominent uplifted block or horst relative to the adjacent rift systems.

36Geography
Which one among the following systems contains the oldest rock formation of India?
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Answer: (B) Archean System

Explanation

The Archean System comprises the oldest rock formations in India, dating back to the earliest period of the Earth's geological history, approximately 4000 to 2500 million years ago. These rocks formed during the initial cooling and solidification of the Earth's molten crust. Known as the Basement Complex or Fundamental Gneiss, they provide the foundation upon which all subsequent sedimentary and volcanic sequences were deposited. They are characterized by highly metamorphosed crystalline rocks, such as gneisses and schists, which have lost their original structure due to intense heat and pressure over billions of years. These formations are predominantly found in the Peninsular shield, covering large areas of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha.

37Geography
Which one among the following is not correct regarding the black soils of Peninsular India?
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Answer: (D) Rich in phosphorus and organic matter

Explanation

Black soils, also known as Regur or black cotton soils, are formed from the basaltic rocks of the Deccan Trap. While these soils are chemically rich in iron, lime, calcium, and potash, they are characteristically deficient in phosphorus, nitrogen, and organic matter. The low organic matter content is a common feature of many Indian soils due to the rapid decomposition of humus under tropical and sub-tropical climatic conditions. Therefore, the statement that black soils are rich in phosphorus and organic matter is factually incorrect.

38Geography
Which one among the following places in India is nearest to the Tropic of Cancer?
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Answer: (A) Aizawl

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is the circle of latitude on Earth that currently lies at approximately 23° 30' N. Aizawl, the capital city of Mizoram, is located at a latitude of 23° 43' N. This gives Aizawl a latitudinal deviation of only 13' from the Tropic of Cancer. Since 1° of latitude is roughly equivalent to 111 kilometers, Aizawl is approximately 24 kilometers away from the line, which is the shortest distance among the given geographical coordinates.

39Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : | List I (River) | List II (City) | |----------------|----------------| | A. Spree | 4. Berlin | | B. Rhine | 1. Bonn | | C. Seine | 3. Paris | | D. Elbe | 2. Hamburg | Code : A B C D
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Answer: (B) 4 1 3 2

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Berlin, the capital of Germany, is located on the River Spree, which flows through the city center and connects it to the Havel river system.

Bonn, a major city in Germany and the former capital of West Germany, is situated on the banks of the Rhine, one of the most important commercial waterways in Europe.

Paris, the capital of France, is built along the River Seine, which divides the city into the Right Bank and the Left Bank and is central to its historical and economic development.

Hamburg, Germany's leading port city, is situated on the River Elbe, which provides the necessary depth and access for international maritime trade via the North Sea.

40Geography
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Idukki : Thermal Power Station 2. Sabarigiri : Hydroelectric Project 3. Ghatprabha : Irrigation Project 4. Ramganga : Multipurpose Project Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Sabarigiri project is the second-largest hydroelectric project in Kerala, utilizing the waters of the Pamba and Kakki rivers to generate power. The Ghatprabha project is a significant irrigation project in Karnataka, featuring the Hidkal Dam across the Ghatprabha River to provide water for agriculture in the Belgaum and Bagalkot districts. The Ramganga project, located in Uttarakhand, is a multipurpose project that serves several functions, including the provision of irrigation water, the generation of 198 MW of hydroelectricity, and flood control in the region. Since Idukki is a massive hydroelectric project and not a thermal power station, only the second, third, and fourth pairs are accurately described.

41Geography
Which one among the following States shares common boundaries with maximum number of other States?
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Answer: (C) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

In 2013, Chhattisgarh shared its borders with six neighboring states, which was the highest number among the given options. These states were Uttar Pradesh to the north, Jharkhand to the northeast, Odisha to the east and southeast, Andhra Pradesh (undivided) to the south, Maharashtra to the southwest, and Madhya Pradesh to the west and northwest. By comparison, the other states listed—Madhya Pradesh, West Bengal, and Andhra Pradesh—each shared boundaries with five states during that period. Although Uttar Pradesh and Assam share borders with more states (eight and seven respectively), they were not included in the provided options.

42Geography
The State of Sikkim is surrounded by
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Answer: (A) China, Nepal, Bhutan and West Bengal

Explanation

Sikkim is a landlocked state located in the eastern Himalayas of India. It shares international borders with three different countries: the Tibet Autonomous Region of China to the north and northeast, Nepal to the west, and Bhutan to the east. To the south, Sikkim shares its only domestic boundary with the Indian state of West Bengal. The geography of the region ensures that Sikkim is physically separated from other neighboring Indian states like Assam by the northern districts of West Bengal and the narrow Siliguri Corridor. This specific combination of three international neighbors and one domestic neighbor defines its territorial limits.

43Art and Culture
Khumbum monastery is situated in
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Answer: (C) China

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The Khumbum Monastery, also known as the Kumbum Jampa Ling or Ta'er Temple, is a prominent Tibetan Buddhist monastery located in the Qinghai province of China. It was founded in 1583 in the town of Lusar within Huangzhong County, situated near the city of Xining. The monastery is historically significant as it marks the birthplace of Je Tsongkhapa, the influential philosopher and founder of the Gelugpa (Yellow Hat) school of Tibetan Buddhism. As one of the six great traditional monasteries of the Gelugpa sect, it serves as a major center for religious study and pilgrimage, and it is particularly renowned for its unique yak butter sculptures, traditional murals, and distinctive Tibetan architectural style.

44Geography
The place located at the confluence of Alakananda and Pindar rivers is
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Answer: (B) Karnaprayag

Explanation

Karnaprayag is one of the five sacred confluences, known as the Panch Prayag, located in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand. It marks the specific geographical point where the Alaknanda River joins the Pindar River. The Pindar River originates from the Pindari Glacier in the Bageshwar district and flows through the rugged terrain of the Kumaon and Garhwal regions before merging with the Alaknanda at this location. Historically and religiously, the site is significant as it is believed to be the place where Karna from the Mahabharata performed penance to please the Sun God.

45Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Continent) (Desert) A. Asia 1. Atacama B. Africa 2. Mojave C. North America 3. Kalahari D. South America 4. Gobi Code : A B C D
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Answer: (C) 4 3 2 1

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Asia is associated with the Gobi Desert, a large desert and semi-desert region in East Asia that covers parts of northern and northwestern China and southern Mongolia. Africa contains the Kalahari Desert, a vast semi-arid sandy savanna in Southern Africa, covering much of Botswana and parts of Namibia and South Africa. North America is home to the Mojave Desert, an arid rain-shadow desert located primarily in southeastern California and southern Nevada. South America features the Atacama Desert, known as the driest non-polar place on Earth, located along the Pacific coast in northern Chile.

46Geography
Which one among the following ocean currents mixes with Labrador current?
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Answer: (C) Florida current

Explanation

The Labrador Current is a cold, low-salinity current that flows southward from the Arctic Ocean along the coasts of Labrador and Newfoundland. The Florida Current is a warm, saline current that flows out of the Gulf of Mexico, through the Straits of Florida, and northward along the eastern coast of the United States, serving as the primary precursor to the Gulf Stream. These two major water masses converge in the North Atlantic Ocean near the Grand Banks of Newfoundland. The meeting of the cold Labrador Current and the warm Gulf Stream system, which is fed by the Florida Current, creates a unique hydrographic environment characterized by dense fog and highly productive fishing grounds due to the mixing of nutrient-rich waters.

47Geography
The Wallace's Line distinguishes or separates the flora and fauna between
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Answer: (D) South-East Asia and Australasia

Explanation

Wallace's Line is a significant biogeographic boundary proposed by the naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace that marks the transition between the Oriental and Australian zoogeographical regions. It traverses the Malay Archipelago, specifically running through the Lombok Strait between the islands of Bali and Lombok and extending northward between Borneo and Sulawesi. The line represents a sharp divide in biodiversity: to the west, the fauna consists mainly of Asian species such as placental mammals, while to the east, the wildlife is predominantly of Australasian origin, featuring marsupials and distinct bird families. This biological separation exists because the line follows a deep-water trench that remained a permanent marine barrier even during periods of low sea levels in the Pleistocene, effectively preventing the migration of land animals between the Asiatic Sunda Shelf and the Australasian Sahul Shelf.

48Geography
Which one among the following is the major occupation in equatorial region?
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Answer: (A) Growing of tropical crops

Explanation

The equatorial region, situated between 5° to 10° North and South of the equator, is characterized by a hot and wet climate with high temperatures and heavy convectional rainfall occurring throughout the year. These climatic conditions are ideal for the cultivation of various tropical crops. Major economic activities in this belt involve plantation agriculture focusing on crops such as natural rubber, cocoa, oil palm, coconuts, and sugarcane. Regions like Malaysia and Indonesia are significant producers of rubber and palm oil, while West African nations like Ghana and Ivory Coast lead in cocoa production. The absence of a distinct dry season and the presence of fertile, albeit leached, soils in certain managed areas allow for the continuous growth and harvesting of these tropical commodities.

49History
Mahatma Gandhi's opposition to separate electorates for untouchables was because
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Answer: (A) separate electorates would ensure them bondage in perpetuity

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Mahatma Gandhi believed that granting separate electorates to the Depressed Classes would create a permanent division within Hindu society and obstruct the process of social integration. He argued that such a mechanism would legally and politically institutionalize the status of untouchables as a distinct entity separate from the Hindu fold, thereby ensuring their social isolation and bondage in perpetuity. Gandhi viewed untouchability as a moral stigma that needed to be erased from within the Hindu community; he feared that separate electorates would shift the focus from social reform and the abolition of the caste hierarchy to a permanent political cleavage, making the eventual assimilation of these classes into the mainstream impossible.

50History
Various causes have been suggested for the decline of Harappan culture. Consider the causes mentioned below and identify the weakest of them.
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Answer: (D) The Aryans invaded and destroyed the Harappan culture

Explanation

The theory of an Aryan invasion, most notably proposed by Sir Mortimer Wheeler in the 1940s, is considered the weakest cause for the decline of Harappan culture because it lacks substantive archaeological and forensic support. Wheeler based his hypothesis on a small group of skeletons found at Mohenjo-daro and references to the destruction of forts in the Rig Veda. However, subsequent osteological examinations of these remains revealed that the individuals died at different times and showed no evidence of trauma consistent with military slaughter. Furthermore, there is no stratigraphic evidence of a sudden, violent conquest or large-scale warfare at any major Harappan site. Modern archaeological dating also highlights a significant chronological gap between the decline of mature Harappan urban centers (around 1900 BCE) and the earliest plausible presence of Indo-Aryan groups in the region (around 1500 BCE), rendering the invasion theory historically and scientifically unsupported compared to environmental and tectonic explanations.

51History
Who among the following is the author of 'Ashtadhyayi', the Sanskrit grammar?
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Answer: (B) Panini

Explanation

Panini was an ancient Indian grammarian who composed the Ashtadhyayi, a foundational text on Sanskrit grammar dating back to approximately the 4th century BCE. The title Ashtadhyayi literally translates to Eight Chapters, reflecting the structure of the work which contains nearly 4,000 sutras or aphorisms. This treatise systematically codified the rules of Sanskrit morphology, syntax, and semantics, transforming the language into a highly structured and standardized form. Panini's methodology involved a complex system of rules, meta-rules, and abbreviations that influenced the development of linguistic science globally and remains the definitive authority on Classical Sanskrit grammar.

52History
Which one among the following inscriptions was installed in the easternmost part of Ashoka's territory?
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Answer: (B) Dhauli major rock edicts

Explanation

Dhauli is located in the Puri district of Odisha, near the banks of the Daya River. It is the site of a set of Ashoka's Major Rock Edicts, including the two separate Kalinga Edicts which were issued specifically for the newly conquered province. Geographically, Dhauli is situated at approximately 85.8 degrees East longitude, placing it further east than the other locations listed. The inscriptions at Barabar, Sahasram, and Lauriya Araraj are all located within the state of Bihar at longitudes ranging between 84 and 85 degrees East. As Odisha formed the eastern coastal frontier of the Mauryan Empire, the Dhauli edicts represent the easternmost point of Ashokan inscriptions among the given options.

53History
The prevalence of grain in Harappan sites indicated that
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Answer: (C) agriculture was prevalent in Harappan sites

Explanation

The widespread discovery of carbonized remains of various grains, including wheat, barley, lentils, chickpeas, and sesame, across numerous Indus Valley settlements provides direct evidence that agriculture was a fundamental and pervasive economic activity. The scale of these finds, coupled with the presence of massive granaries at major urban centers like Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, confirms that the Harappan civilization relied on a systematic and extensive agricultural system to support its dense population and urban infrastructure. Such botanical evidence is the primary indicator used by archaeologists to establish that the cultivation of crops was a staple practice throughout the Harappan territory.

54History
Which one among the following statements about industries in colonial India is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The growth of cotton industry was the result of government support

Explanation

The growth of the cotton textile industry in colonial India occurred in spite of, rather than because of, British government support. Throughout the 19th and early 20th centuries, the colonial administration maintained economic policies that favored British manufacturers, particularly those in Lancashire and Manchester. A primary example of this was the imposition of the Cotton Excise Duty in 1894 and 1896, which levied a tax on Indian mill-made cloth to ensure it did not have a price advantage over imported British textiles. The industry's expansion was instead driven by indigenous capital, the initiative of Indian entrepreneurs, and the political momentum of the Swadeshi Movement, which encouraged the consumption of locally produced goods over foreign imports.

55History
The establishment of Mughal rule in India 1. strengthened urbanization 2. strengthened inter-urban contact in riparian North India 3. increased India's sea trade 4. decreased the risk of carrying long-distance trade Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Mughal Empire facilitated a period of significant urban growth through its centralized administrative structure and the concentration of the ruling elite in cities, which created vast markets for artisanal products and services. This urbanization was particularly evident in riparian North India, where the maintenance of major river routes and the expansion of the Sarai system along the Grand Trunk Road connected cities like Agra, Delhi, and Patna, fostering robust inter-urban commercial and social contact. Additionally, the stability provided by the empire and its uniform taxation system encouraged both internal and external commerce. Although the Mughals did not possess a dominant naval force, their political integration of the subcontinent and the promotion of manufacturing sectors like textiles and indigo led to a substantial increase in Indias sea trade. This period saw Indian ports become vital nodes in global maritime networks, resulting in a consistent influx of precious metals into the Indian economy.

56History
The first major boost to modern industry in India happened in the 1860s. It was a direct result of
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Answer: (B) the demand created in Europe because of the Civil War in America

Explanation

The American Civil War, which lasted from 1861 to 1865, resulted in a naval blockade of the Confederate states, severely disrupting the supply of raw cotton to the textile manufacturing hubs of Europe, particularly Britain. This event, known as the Lancashire Cotton Famine, forced European mill owners to turn to India as their primary alternative source for raw cotton. The resulting massive spike in international demand and prices led to a windfall for Indian cotton growers and merchants. The capital accumulated during this period was subsequently reinvested into the establishment of modern Indian industries, most notably the expansion of the domestic cotton textile industry in Bombay and Ahmedabad, providing the first major sustained boost to modern industrialization in India.

57History
The significant difference between Mahayana and Hinayana forms of Buddhism lay in that
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Answer: (A) Mahayana allowed for the transference of merit while in Hinayana, a person would only help another by example and advice

Explanation

Mahayana Buddhism introduced the doctrine of Parinamana, which refers to the transference of merit. In this theological framework, a Bodhisattva accumulates spiritual merit through countless lifetimes of virtuous actions and can choose to transfer this merit to other sentient beings to assist in their salvation or provide them with better rebirths. This concept is rooted in the Mahayana ideal of universal compassion and the belief that all beings are interconnected. Conversely, Hinayana Buddhism adheres to the principle of individual karmic responsibility. In this tradition, spiritual progress is strictly a result of one's own efforts and discipline. While a person can guide others by offering advice, teaching the Dhamma, or providing a moral example, they cannot fundamentally alter another person's spiritual standing or transfer their own merit to them.

58History
The ancient trade route, popularly called the Dakshinapatha, connected
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Answer: (C) Ajanta with Arikamedu

Explanation

The Dakshinapatha was the great northern-to-southern trade artery of ancient India, functioning as a network of routes rather than a single road. It facilitated the movement of goods and ideas between the Gangetic plains, the Deccan plateau, and the far south. Arikamedu, situated on the Coromandel Coast near modern-day Puducherry, was a premier Indo-Roman trading station and a vital maritime terminal. Ajanta, located in the Deccan, sat near the strategic trade passes of the Sahyadri range and served as a major commercial and religious waypoint. The route connecting these two locations was essential for transporting textiles, semi-precious stones, and spices from the interior Deccan hinterland to the eastern coast for export to the Roman Empire and Southeast Asia. This connection integrated the southern maritime economy with the terrestrial trade of the Indian heartland.

59History
The Salt Satyagraha
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Answer: (B) showed to the government that Indians would break unfair laws

Explanation

The Salt Satyagraha, initiated by Mahatma Gandhi with the Dandi March in 1930, served as the definitive start of the Civil Disobedience Movement. By choosing salt—a basic necessity—as the symbol of protest, Gandhi highlighted the repressive nature of British fiscal policies and the salt monopoly. The act of making salt at the Dandi coast was a symbolic and strategic defiance of British authority, demonstrating that Indians were prepared to openly and non-violently violate laws they considered unjust. This movement shifted the nationalist struggle from seeking constitutional reforms to a mass-based challenge of the legal and moral legitimacy of colonial rule, proving to the government that the Indian people would no longer be coerced by unfair legislation.

60History
The Khilafat Movement was built around
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Answer: (B) protecting the sovereignty of the Khalifa

Explanation

The Khilafat Movement (1919-1924) was a pan-Islamic political protest campaign launched by Muslims in British India to influence the British government and to protect the Ottoman Empire in the aftermath of World War I. The Ottoman Sultan was traditionally regarded as the Khalifa (Caliph), the symbolic spiritual and temporal head of the global Sunni Muslim community. Following the defeat of the Ottoman Empire, the Allied powers, led by Britain, proposed harsh terms in the Treaty of Sevres that threatened to dismember the empire and strip the Khalifa of his power and control over Islamic holy sites. In response, Indian Muslim leaders like the Ali brothers (Mohammad Ali and Shaukat Ali), Maulana Azad, and Hakim Ajmal Khan formed the Khilafat Committee to pressure the British to preserve the prestige and territorial sovereignty of the Caliphate.

61History
Mahatma Gandhi's severe criticism of the Congress leadership at the opening of the Benaras Hindu University was focused on
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Answer: (C) condemnation of Indian nationalism for being an elite phenomenon

Explanation

In February 1916, during the opening ceremony of the Benaras Hindu University, Mahatma Gandhi delivered a provocative speech that marked his first major public address after returning to India from South Africa. He criticized the gathered assembly of princes, dignitaries, and Congress leaders for their detachment from the Indian masses. Gandhi pointed out the stark contrast between the gorgeous show of jewelry and wealth displayed by the elites and the millions of the poor who were the true backbone of the nation. He argued that as long as Indian nationalism remained a phenomenon of the English-speaking elite, it could not achieve genuine self-rule. He emphasized that India’s salvation would only come through the farmers, thereby condemning the movement for being an elitist endeavor that ignored the rural population.

62History
Akbar's Ibadat Khana was the place where
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Answer: (B) inter-faith debates and discussions were held

Explanation

The Ibadat Khana, or House of Worship, was established by the Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1575 at Fatehpur Sikri. It was designed as a meeting house to facilitate religious and spiritual discussions. While it initially hosted only Muslim scholars, Akbar's growing interest in the commonalities between various religions led him to invite scholars from different faiths, including Hindus, Christians, Zoroastrians, Jains, and Jews. These sessions allowed the Emperor to hear diverse viewpoints on theology and philosophy, fostering an environment of intellectual exchange that aimed at finding universal truths. The debates held here were instrumental in shaping Akbar's personal religious beliefs and his broader administrative policy of Sulh-i-kul, or universal peace.

63History
The Buddhist Sangha was an organization of monks
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Answer: (A) who became teachers of Dhamma

Explanation

The Buddhist Sangha was a monastic order established by Gautama Buddha to institutionalize his teachings and provide a structured community for those seeking spiritual liberation. The primary responsibility of the monks (Bhikkhus) within the Sangha was to study, preserve, and propagate the Dhamma (the Buddha's teachings). These monks lived a life of renunciation and discipline, following the rules laid down in the Vinaya Pitaka. During their travels, they acted as teachers and spiritual guides for the lay population, explaining the Four Noble Truths and the Eightfold Path. This mission of teaching the Dhamma was central to the Sangha's role in society, as it ensured the continuity and spread of Buddhist philosophy across different regions.

64Art and Culture
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists : List-I List-II (Festival) (Occasion) A. Vallamkali 1. Temple festival B. Pooram festival 2. Boat race C. Chapchar Kut 3. The marriage of Lord Krishna and Rukmini D. Madhavrai fair 4. Spring festival Code: A B C D
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Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Vallamkali is a traditional boat race in Kerala, most notably the Nehru Trophy Boat Race, typically held during the harvest festival of Onam. The Pooram festival refers to grand temple festivals in Kerala, with the Thrissur Pooram being the most famous, involving processions of decorated elephants and traditional music at the Vadakkunnathan Temple. Chapchar Kut is a major spring festival celebrated by the Mizo people in Mizoram to mark the successful completion of the arduous task of jungle clearing for jhum cultivation. The Madhavrai fair is held annually in Madhavpur Ghed, Gujarat, to commemorate the mythological wedding of Lord Krishna and Rukmini as described in the Puranas.

65Polity and Governance
The direct correlation among caste, poverty and social status implied that 1. with improvement in economic status, one could claim higher social status 2. caste hierarchy was immutable 3. lower castes were the only ones to be pushed into menial labour 4. with improvement in social status, one could claim higher caste status Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The historical overlap between ritual hierarchy and economic class in India meant that caste, poverty, and social status were intrinsically linked. This correlation allowed for social mobility through the process of Sanskritization, where a caste group that acquired economic power or improved its economic status could adopt the rituals and lifestyle of upper castes to claim a higher social status (1). Over time, such successful claims to higher social standing often led to the group being recognized as belonging to a higher caste status (4).

Simultaneously, this rigid correlation functioned as a system of exclusion where the division of labour was strictly enforced based on birth. The structural alignment of low ritual status with economic deprivation ensured that lower castes were the exclusive source of menial and stigmatized labour (3). This forced association with menial work served to maintain the state of poverty and low social standing, creating a cycle where ritual identity dictated one's economic role and lifestyle.

66History
Ritual kinship was the hallmark of Vijayanagar rule. Vijayanagar rulers claimed to have ruled on behalf of which one among the following shrines?
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Answer: (C) Virupaksha

Explanation

The rulers of the Vijayanagar Empire established their authority by claiming to rule as deputies or representatives of the deity Virupaksha, a form of Lord Shiva. This practice of ritual sovereignty linked the temporal power of the king with the divine authority of the patron god of the state. Official royal orders and inscriptions were traditionally signed with the name Sri Virupaksha in the Kannada script, signifying that the monarch was acting on behalf of the god. The choice of Virupaksha was deeply rooted in the local sacred geography of Hampi, where the temple of Virupaksha was a pre-existing center of worship associated with the local deity Pampa Devi. By identifying themselves as the protectors and representatives of this primary regional deity, the Vijayanagar kings legitimized their rule and integrated religious symbolism into the heart of their political administration.

67Polity and Governance
Separate electorates for representation of Indian Christians and Anglo-Indians were created under the
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Answer: (C) Government of India Act, 1919

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, significantly expanded the system of communal representation in India. While the earlier 1909 reforms had introduced separate electorates exclusively for Muslims, the 1919 Act extended this principle to provide distinct electoral representation for Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, Sikhs, and Europeans. This legislative change ensured that these minority communities could elect their own members to the legislative councils, reflecting the British administration's policy of recognizing and formalizing communal divisions within the Indian political framework to manage diverse interests.

68History
The Chipko Movement 1. was an environmental movement to prevent cutting down of trees 2. raised the question of ecological and economic exploitation 3. is a movement against alcoholism as its broadened agenda 4. demanded that local communities should have control over their natural resources Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Chipko Movement originated in 1973 in the Uttarakhand Himalayas as a grassroots environmental protest where villagers hugged trees to prevent them from being felled by commercial loggers. The movement went beyond simple conservation to challenge the economic exploitation of the region, arguing that the ecological balance was being sacrificed for industrial profit. Because women were the primary collectors of fuel and fodder, they became the movement's backbone and eventually broadened its agenda to include social issues like the anti-alcoholism campaign (Nasha Mukti Andolan) to address the domestic and financial distress caused by liquor addiction in the hills. Additionally, a core demand of the movement was for the decentralization of forest management, insisting that local communities must have primary control and rights over their surrounding natural resources to ensure sustainable development.

69Polity and Governance
The Parliament of India may form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by unifying any territory to a part of any State. Which of the following procedures is/are true in this regard? 1. By a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process 2. On the recommendation of the President, who usually has to refer the bill to the legislature of the State(s) which is/are going to be affected by the changes proposed in the bill 3. On the advice of the Prime Minister to the President Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament is empowered to form a new state by separation of territory, by uniting states, or by altering the boundaries and names of existing states. Article 4 specifies that such laws are not to be deemed amendments of the Constitution under Article 368, which means they can be passed by a simple majority through the ordinary legislative process.

The procedure stipulates that no bill for this purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President. Furthermore, where the proposal contained in the bill affects the area, boundaries, or name of any of the states, the President must refer the bill to the legislature of that state for expressing its views within a specified period. While the President refers the bill to the state legislature, the Parliament is not bound by the views of the state legislature and can proceed with the bill even if the views are not received in time or if the state opposes the proposal.

70Polity and Governance
A bill introduced in the Parliament, in order to become an Act, has to have which of the following procedures to be followed? 1. It is to be passed by both the Houses of the Parliament. 2. The President has to give his/her assent. 3. The Prime Minister has to sign it after the ratification by the Parliament. 4. The Supreme Court has to approve and declare it to be within the jurisdiction of the Parliament. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Under the legislative procedure of the Indian Parliament, a bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha to proceed. According to Article 107 and Article 108 of the Constitution, except for Money Bills, every bill must be agreed to by both Houses, either through individual passage or a joint sitting in case of a deadlock.

Once the bill has been passed by both Houses, it is presented to the President for assent under Article 111. The legislative process is completed, and the bill becomes an Act of Parliament, only after the President grants his or her assent. The role of the executive head in the legislative process is a formal constitutional requirement for the transformation of a proposal into law.

71Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Offices connected with a religious or denominated institution may be reserved for members professing the particular religion to which the institution relates. 2. The State may reserve any post or appointment in favour of any backward class of citizens who, in the opinion of the State, are not adequately represented in the services under that State. 3. No citizen shall, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth or any of them, be ineligible for any office under the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 16 of the Constitution of India provides for equality of opportunity in matters of public employment. Clause (5) of Article 16 provides an exception by stating that a law can require that the incumbent of an office in connection with the affairs of any religious or denominational institution, or any member of the governing body thereof, shall be a person professing a particular religion or belonging to a particular denomination.

Clause (4) of Article 16 enables the State to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in favour of any backward class of citizens which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately represented in the services under the State.

Clause (2) of Article 16 mandates that no citizen shall, on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, residence, or any of them, be ineligible for, or discriminated against in respect of, any employment or office under the State. These provisions collectively ensure balanced equality by protecting fundamental rights while allowing for specific reasonable classifications and affirmative action.

72Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. While the Fundamental Rights constitute limitations on State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of instruments of instruction to the government of the day to do certain things and to achieve certain goals by their actions. 2. The Directive Principles, however, require to be implemented by legislations and so long as there is no law carrying out the policy laid down in a Directive Principle, neither the State nor an individual can violate any existing law or legal rights under the colour of getting a Directive. 3. The Directive Principles are enforceable in the courts and create justiciable rights in favour of the individual. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Fundamental Rights function as limitations on State power to protect individual liberties, whereas Directive Principles of State Policy act as positive instructions or guidelines for the government to establish a welfare state. Article 37 of the Constitution clarifies that while Directive Principles are fundamental to governance, they are non-justiciable and cannot be enforced by courts. This means they require specific legislative intervention for their implementation. Without a corresponding law passed by the legislature, these principles cannot be used to bypass existing legal structures or violate established legal rights, as they do not automatically grant individuals a cause of action in a court of law. Since they lack direct enforceability, they are subordinate to enacted laws and the Fundamental Rights until operationalized through proper legal channels.

73Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements: 1. It shall be the endeavour of every State and every local authority within the State to provide adequate facilities for instruction in mother tongue at the primary state of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups. 2. The Constitution enjoins the Union of India to provide and promote the spread of Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression of all the elements of the composite culture of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Article 350A of the Constitution of India mandates that every State and every local authority within the State must strive to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education for children belonging to linguistic minority groups. This article also empowers the President to issue necessary directions to any State to ensure these facilities are provided.

Article 351 provides a directive for the development of the Hindi language, stating that it is the duty of the Union to promote its spread and development. The objective is for Hindi to serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India. The Union is tasked with enriching the language by assimilating the forms, style, and expressions used in Hindustani and other languages specified in the Eighth Schedule, while drawing its vocabulary primarily from Sanskrit and secondarily from other languages.

74Polity and Governance
Which of the following expenditures is/are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India? 1. The emoluments and allowances of the President and the expenditure relating to his/her office 2. The salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People 3. Debt charges for which the Government of India is liable Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Article 112(3) of the Constitution of India specifies the items of expenditure that are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. These include the emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office. It also covers the salaries and allowances of the presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament, namely the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Council of States and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of the People. Furthermore, the list includes debt charges for which the Government of India is liable, including interest, sinking fund charges, redemption charges, and other expenditure relating to the raising of loans and the service and redemption of debt. Expenditures charged on the Consolidated Fund are non-votable by Parliament, meaning they can be discussed but are not submitted to the vote of the House.

75Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the privileges of the House of the People collectively? 1. The right to publish debates and proceedings, and the right to restrain publication by others 2. The right to exclude others—to exclude strangers from the galleries anytime 3. The right to punish members and outsiders for breach of its privileges 4. What is said or done within the walls of the Parliament, however, can be inquired into in a court of law Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The collective privileges of the House of the People are derived from Article 105 of the Constitution and established parliamentary conventions to ensure its independent functioning. The House possesses the right to publish its own reports, debates, and proceedings and can restrain any other person or authority from publishing them to maintain the integrity of its records. Additionally, the House has the authority to exclude strangers from the galleries at any time and may hold secret sittings to discuss sensitive matters without public presence. The House also exercises penal jurisdiction, which allows it to punish both members and outsiders for breach of its privileges or for contempt. This authority is necessary to protect the dignity and independence of the legislative body. These collective rights are further reinforced by Article 122, which bars courts from examining the validity of parliamentary proceedings on the grounds of procedural irregularity, ensuring that the internal conduct of the House remains outside judicial scrutiny.

76Polity and Governance
A bill is deemed to be a 'Money Bill' if it contains only provisions dealing with 1. the imposition, alteration or regulation of any tax 2. the regulation of the borrowing of money by the government 3. the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India 4. the provision for imposition of fines or other penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Under Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with specific financial matters. These matters include the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax; the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India; and the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, including the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from these funds.

In contrast, Article 110(2) clarifies that a bill is not a Money Bill merely because it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the demand or payment of fees for licenses or fees for services rendered. These specific exclusions ensure that administrative charges and penalties are not processed through the restrictive legislative procedures reserved for Money Bills. Therefore, while the first three provisions qualify a bill as a Money Bill, the fourth provision is explicitly excluded by the constitutional definition.

77Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the powers of the Speaker of the House of the People is/are correct? 1. The Speaker's conduct in regulating the procedure of maintaining order in the House will not be subject to the jurisdiction of any court. 2. Besides presiding over his/her own House, the Speaker possesses certain powers like presiding over a joint sitting of the two Houses of the Parliament. 3. While a resolution for his/her removal is under consideration, the Speaker shall preside but shall have no right to speak, and shall have no right of vote. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Article 122(2) of the Constitution of India provides that no officer or member of Parliament, including the Speaker, in whom powers are vested for regulating procedure or the conduct of business or for maintaining order in Parliament, shall be subject to the jurisdiction of any court in respect of the exercise of those powers. This constitutional immunity ensures that the internal proceedings of the House and the Speaker's role in maintaining order remain independent of judicial interference.

According to Article 118(4), the Speaker of the House of the People presides over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. Such sittings are convened by the President under Article 108 to resolve legislative deadlocks between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

Under Article 96(1), the Speaker is prohibited from presiding over the House while a resolution for his or her removal is under consideration, though he or she may be present. Article 96(2) further clarifies that in such a situation, the Speaker has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings. Regarding voting rights, the Speaker is entitled to vote in the first instance on the resolution or any other matter during these proceedings, but unlike the usual practice under Article 100, he or she does not possess a casting vote in case of an equality of votes.

78Polity and Governance
A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of the Parliament if she/he 1. holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office exempted by the Parliament by law 2. is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a competent court 3. remains absent from all meetings of the House for a period of 60 days without the permission of the House Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Indian Constitution specifies various grounds under which a person can be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or have their seat declared vacant. Under Article 102(1)(a), a person is disqualified if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, unless that specific office has been exempted from disqualification by a law passed by Parliament. Article 102(1)(b) further stipulates that a person is disqualified if they are of unsound mind and have been officially declared so by a competent court. Additionally, Article 101(4) addresses the vacation of seats by stating that if a member of either House of Parliament is absent from all meetings for a period of sixty days without the permission of the House, the House may declare the seat vacant. This provision ensures that members remain active and accountable in their legislative duties, and it serves as a ground for a person to cease being a member.

79Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding termination of sitting of a House: 1. Only the House of the People is subject to dissolution. 2. The powers of dissolution and prorogation are exercised by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers. 3. The power to adjourn the daily sittings of the House of the People and the Council of States belongs to the Speaker and the Chairman respectively. 4. The Parliament cannot be dissolved as it is a permanent chamber. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because under Article 83 of the Constitution of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution, whereas the House of the People (Lok Sabha) is subject to dissolution after its five-year term or earlier by the President. Statement 2 is correct because the President's power to summon, prorogue, and dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85 is exercised on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, as mandated by Article 74. Statement 3 is correct because the power of adjournment, which suspends the work in a sitting for a specified time (hours, days, or weeks), is a procedural power vested in the presiding officer of the House, namely the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Statement 4 is incorrect because Parliament as a whole is not a permanent chamber; only the Rajya Sabha is permanent, while the Lok Sabha is a temporary chamber subject to periodic dissolution.

80Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. A person who is not a member of either House of the Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers. 2. Anyone can be appointed as a member of the Council of Ministers for a maximum period of three years. 3. A person shall not be less than 25 years of age in order to become a minister. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Article 75(5) of the Constitution of India specifies that a minister who for any period of six consecutive months is not a member of either House of Parliament shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a minister. This constitutional provision allows a person who is not currently a member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha to be appointed to the Council of Ministers, provided they gain membership in either house within the stipulated six-month window.

Additionally, because a minister must be a member of Parliament, they must satisfy the eligibility criteria laid down in Article 84. This article mandates that the minimum age for membership in the Lok Sabha is 25 years and for the Rajya Sabha is 30 years. Consequently, the minimum age required for a person to be appointed as a minister is 25 years, as they can qualify for membership through the Lok Sabha.

81Polity and Governance
The Central Administrative Tribunal adjudicates disputes with respect to the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed 1. to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union 2. members of the defence forces 3. officers and servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court in India Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 1 only

Explanation

The Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, was enacted by the Parliament under Article 323A of the Constitution to provide for the adjudication of disputes and complaints with respect to recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union or other local authorities. The jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) extends to the All-India Services, the Central Civil Services, civil posts under the Union, and civilian employees of the defence services.

However, Section 2 of the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985, specifically excludes certain categories of persons from its jurisdiction. These exclusions include members of the naval, military, or air forces or any other armed forces of the Union, as well as officers and servants of the Supreme Court or any High Court. Additionally, persons appointed to the secretarial staff of either House of Parliament or any State Legislature are also outside the purview of the tribunal. Therefore, the tribunal only adjudicates disputes for those public services and posts related to the affairs of the Union that are not explicitly exempted.

82Economy
The following are some of the items of expenditure of the Central Government in India : 1. Interest payments 2. Major subsidies 3. Pensions 4. Loans and advances Which of the above is/are included in non-plan revenue expenditure?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Non-plan revenue expenditure comprises all expenditure by the government that is not included in the Five-Year Plans and does not result in the creation of physical or financial assets. Interest payments are the largest component of this category, representing the cost of servicing past debt. Major subsidies on food, fertilizer, and petroleum are classified as revenue expenditure because they are transfer payments for consumption rather than investment. Pensions are recurring payments for past services rendered by employees and are treated as current consumption expenditure. Conversely, loans and advances are excluded from this category because they fall under capital expenditure; providing a loan creates a financial asset for the government as it represents a claim for future repayment of the principal.

83Economy
If we deduct grants for creation of capital assets from revenue deficit, we arrive at the concept of
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Answer: (D) effective revenue deficit

Explanation

The concept of Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the Union Budget 2011-12 to provide a more accurate picture of the government's consumption expenditure. It is calculated using the formula:

Effective Revenue Deficit = Revenue Deficit - Grants for creation of capital assets

Under the accounting rules, grants-in-aid provided by the Central Government to States, Union Territories, and other agencies are classified as revenue expenditure. however, a significant portion of these grants is used for the construction of roads, schools, hospitals, and other infrastructure, which results in the creation of durable capital assets. Since these expenditures are not used for pure consumption, they are deducted from the Revenue Deficit to arrive at the Effective Revenue Deficit. This metric helps in distinguishing between the deficit used for administrative consumption and the deficit that contributes to the nation's capital stock.

84Economy
Which one among the following items has maximum weight in wholesale price index in India?
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Answer: (C) Manufactured product

Explanation

In the 2004-05 base year series of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) which was in effect in 2013, the Manufactured Products category held the highest weight of 64.97 percent. This group is the largest of the three major components of the index, representing the significant role of industrial output in the wholesale market. The weightage reflects the value of the total turnover of commodities such as textiles, chemicals, machinery, and metal products. Because this category covers the widest array of goods produced in the Indian economy, it serves as the primary driver of the WPI, far exceeding the weightage assigned to primary commodities or energy-related items.

85Economy
Which among the following agencies disbursed maximum credit to the agricultural sector in India between 2006-07 and 2011-12?
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Answer: (C) Commercial banks

Explanation

Commercial banks consistently provided the largest share of institutional credit to the agricultural sector in India during the period from 2006-07 to 2011-12. According to data from the National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD), these banks accounted for approximately 70% to 75% of the total credit flow to agriculture throughout those years. This leading position was driven by the extensive network of scheduled commercial banks and the Priority Sector Lending (PSL) requirements, which mandate that a specific percentage of Adjusted Net Bank Credit be directed toward agriculture. The implementation of the Interest Subvention Scheme and the growth of the Kisan Credit Card (KCC) scheme through these institutions further enhanced their role as the primary source of credit for farmers during this timeframe.

86Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Repo rate is the interest rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks for short period. 2. Reverse repo rate is the interest rate which RBI pays to commercial banks on short-term deposits. 3. Gap between repo rate and reverse repo rate has been declining in India in the recent past. Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Reserve Bank of India adopted a new operating framework for monetary policy in May 2011, following the recommendations of the Deepak Mohanty Working Group. Under this framework, the Repo Rate was designated as the single independently varying policy rate, while the Reverse Repo Rate was pegged at a fixed 100 basis points (1 percentage point) below the Repo Rate. This established a fixed interest rate corridor for the call money market. Since the margin between the two rates was strictly maintained at this fixed level by policy, the gap did not decline in the years immediately preceding 2013; instead, it remained constant at 100 basis points.

87Economy
The rate of inflation in India is measured generally in respect of movement of
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Answer: (B) wholesale price index

Explanation

Until the policy shift in 2014, the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) was the primary measure used by the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India to track inflation and formulate macroeconomic policies. Published by the Office of the Economic Adviser in the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the WPI measures the change in the price of goods sold and traded in bulk by wholesale businesses. During 2013, it was considered the headline inflation indicator because it captured price movements at the first point of bulk sale in the domestic market, covering a wide range of commodities including primary articles, fuel and power, and manufactured products. While various Consumer Price Indices (CPI) existed for specific labor groups, the WPI served as the standard benchmark for assessing general inflationary trends in the Indian economy at that time.

88Economy
Privatization includes
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Privatization is a broad economic process that involves reducing the role of the government and increasing the role of the private sector in the ownership and management of assets. It encompasses various methods, including the outright sale of public sector units to private buyers, which results in a complete transfer of ownership. It also includes disinvestment, where the government dilutes its stake by selling a portion of its equity to the public or private institutions while often retaining majority control. Furthermore, privatization involves introducing private sector management techniques or allowing private participation in the management of state-owned enterprises to improve efficiency and competitiveness. Since all these mechanisms facilitate the transition of control, ownership, or management from the state to private entities, they are all recognized components of the privatization process.

89Economy
Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the convertibility of Indian rupee?
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Answer: (B) It is convertible on current account

Explanation

India adopted full current account convertibility in August 1994 by accepting the obligations under Article VIII of the International Monetary Fund Articles of Agreement. This status implies that there are no restrictions on the purchase or sale of foreign exchange for transactions involving the trade of goods and services, payment of interest on loans, and remittances for family maintenance or travel. While the government and the Reserve Bank of India have progressively liberalized capital account transactions for various entities like corporates and individuals, the rupee remains only partially convertible on the capital account due to existing regulatory ceilings and conditions. Thus, as per the legal and economic framework established by 1994, the rupee is formally recognized as being convertible on the current account.

90Economy
The Government of India refers to the absolute poverty line in terms of
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Answer: (B) household consumption

Explanation

The Government of India defines the absolute poverty line based on household consumption expenditure, specifically through the Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) data collected by the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO). This approach is preferred over income-based measures because income in the large informal and agricultural sectors is often irregular, seasonal, and difficult to track accurately. Consumption expenditure provides a more stable and reliable reflection of the actual living standards and the ability of a household to meet its basic nutritional and non-food requirements. Historically, expert groups such as the Alagh Committee, Lakdawala Committee, and the Tendulkar Committee have all utilized consumption-based thresholds to identify the percentage of the population living below the poverty line.

91Economy
In the current pricing policy, the price of diesel in India consists of
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Answer: (A) Fuel component + Customs duty + Excise duty + Sales VAT + Dealer's commission

Explanation

The retail price of diesel in India during 2013 was determined through a pricing mechanism that aggregated several distinct cost and tax elements. The foundation was the fuel component, derived from the Trade Parity Price (TPP), which was a weighted average of the Import Parity Price and the Export Parity Price. To this base price, the Central Government added fiscal levies in the form of Customs Duty and Excise Duty. Following the central taxes, State Governments applied a Sales Tax or Value Added Tax (VAT), which was usually calculated as a percentage of the sum of the fuel cost and central duties. Finally, the Dealer’s Commission was added to compensate the petrol pump owners for their operational expenses and provide a profit margin. The summation of the fuel component, Customs Duty, Excise Duty, Sales VAT, and Dealer’s Commission constituted the total price paid by the consumer at the pump.

92Science and Technology
Which one among the following is not a Mars rover?
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Answer: (D) Apollo

Explanation

Apollo was a NASA human spaceflight program primarily focused on lunar exploration between 1961 and 1972. The program is most famous for landing the first humans on the Moon during the Apollo 11 mission in 1969. Although the later missions, specifically Apollo 15, 16, and 17, utilized a Lunar Roving Vehicle (LRV) to transport astronauts across the lunar surface, these vehicles were designed exclusively for the Moon. The Apollo program did not involve any robotic or crewed missions to Mars, nor did it produce any spacecraft categorized as a Mars rover.

93Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : 1. The Fifth Summit of BRICS (2013) was held in Durban. 2. Dr. Manmohan Singh became the only head of States or head of Government to attend all BRICS Summits held so far. 3. The theme of Fifth Summit of BRICS was "BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialization". Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The fifth BRICS summit took place on March 26-27, 2013, at the ICC Durban in South Africa, marking the first time a BRICS summit was held on the African continent. This summit adopted the specific theme of BRICS and Africa: Partnership for Development, Integration and Industrialization, reflecting South Africa's objective to align the BRICS agenda with the development needs of the African continent. By the conclusion of the 2013 summit, Indian Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh was the only head of government among the BRICS nations to have attended all five summits since the inaugural meeting in Yekaterinburg in 2009. The leaders of the other founding nations had all undergone transitions in leadership during this period: Brazil shifted from Lula da Silva to Dilma Rousseff in 2011, Russia saw Vladimir Putin return to the presidency in 2012, and China transitioned from Hu Jintao to Xi Jinping in 2013.

94Geography
The logo of which of the following famous organizations is a Giant Panda?
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Answer: (A) World Wildlife Fund or World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

Explanation

The World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF) adopted the Giant Panda as its official symbol at its founding in 1961. The choice was inspired by Chi-Chi, a giant panda that had arrived at the London Zoo in 1958 and gained international fame. Sir Peter Scott, one of the organization's founders and a renowned naturalist, designed the original logo sketch. The panda was chosen because it was an endangered species with a powerful, recognizable image that transcended language barriers. Additionally, the black and white markings of the panda were ideal for minimizing printing costs on conservation literature and posters during the organization's early years.

95Science and Technology
Which of the following is the correct chronological order of TV display technologies?
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Answer: (A) CRT, Plasma, LED

Explanation

The chronological progression of television display technology follows the transition from vacuum tubes to advanced flat-panel systems. Cathode Ray Tube (CRT) technology is the oldest, serving as the industry standard from the inception of electronic television in the 1930s until the late 1990s. Plasma display panels were the first flat-panel technology to reach the consumer market for large-screen televisions in the late 1990s and early 2000s, offering a thinner profile than CRTs. LED televisions, which are essentially Liquid Crystal Displays (LCDs) using Light Emitting Diodes for backlighting, emerged as a mass-market consumer technology in the late 2000s, specifically gaining prominence around 2009 as they provided better energy efficiency and slimmer designs than previous technologies.

96Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Employment growth in India in the second half of the first decade of 21st century was relatively modest. 2. There was lower labour force participation rate across all ages during the period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Based on the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) 66th Round (2009-10) and the Economic Survey 2012-13, employment growth between 2004-05 and 2009-10 was significantly low, with the total number of workers increasing by only about 2 million compared to an increase of roughly 60 million in the preceding five-year period. This deceleration occurred while the Indian economy was growing at an average rate of nearly 8.7 percent per year, leading economists to describe the period as one of jobless growth. Concurrently, the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) registered a decline across almost all age groups and categories. A major contributor to this decline was the sharp rise in the number of individuals pursuing education, especially in the 15-24 age group, which delayed their entry into the workforce. Additionally, there was a significant drop in female labour force participation in rural areas, attributed to rising household incomes which allowed more women to withdraw from low-paying manual labor to focus on domestic activities or higher education. These structural shifts in the economy resulted in both modest employment growth and lower overall participation in the labour market during the second half of the decade.

97Economy
Which one among the following sectors in India has the highest share of employment?
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Answer: (A) Agriculture and allied activities

Explanation

Agriculture and allied activities continue to be the largest source of employment in India. According to the National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) 68th round data released around 2011-12, this sector employed approximately 48.9 percent of the total workforce. While the sector's contribution to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has significantly decreased over the decades, it remains the primary livelihood for the majority of the rural population. This discrepancy between the share of GDP and the share of employment highlights a structural characteristic of the Indian economy where a large portion of the labor force remains engaged in primary activities. This is often attributed to the high dependence of the rural population on farming, livestock, and forestry, as well as the persistence of disguised unemployment where more people are working in the sector than are objectively required for its output.

98Economy
The Human Development Report, 2013 (UNDP) does not focus on
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Answer: (B) peace and security

Explanation

The Human Development Report 2013, titled The Rise of the South: Human Progress in a Diverse World, focused on the rapid evolution of developing nations and their impact on global dynamics. The report outlined four specific areas essential for sustaining development momentum in these regions: enhancing equity, enabling voice and participation, confronting environmental pressures, and managing demographic change. While peace and security are fundamental components of human development and were the focus of other editions like the 1994 report, they were not identified as one of the primary thematic pillars or policy focuses in the 2013 report.

99Polity and Governance
In order to provide pensions to workers of the unorganized sector, which one among the following schemes has been launched by the Government?
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Answer: (B) Swavalamban

Explanation

The Swavalamban Scheme was a government-backed micro-pension initiative launched in 2010 specifically for workers in the unorganized sector who were not covered by any formal social security scheme. Under this scheme, the Government of India provided a co-contribution of ₹1,000 per annum to every NPS-Swavalamban account holder who contributed between ₹1,000 and ₹12,000 per year. Managed by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA), it aimed to encourage voluntary savings among low-income workers to ensure financial security during their old age. The scheme addressed the lack of retirement benefits for a significant portion of India's workforce that operated outside the structured corporate or government sectors.

100Economy
Which one among the following is the latest nation to join the World Trade Organization (as on March 2013)?
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Answer: (D) Tajikistan

Explanation

Tajikistan officially became the 159th member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) on March 2, 2013. This followed a long accession process that began in 2001, involving significant reforms to the country's trade and economic policies to align with international standards. After the WTO General Council approved the membership terms in late 2012, Tajikistan ratified the deal and deposited its instrument of acceptance, making it the most recent country to join the organization as of March 2013.

101History
The 27th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration was conferred on
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Answer: (C) Mohan Dharia

Explanation

The 27th Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration for the year 2011 was conferred on Mohan Dharia. A veteran Gandhian and former Union Minister, Dharia was recognized for his lifelong commitment to social service and his efforts in promoting national unity. He was the founder of Vanrai, an organization dedicated to environmental conservation and rural development. The award, which includes a citation and a cash prize, was presented to him by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh on October 31, 2012, the death anniversary of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi. This prestigious honor is given annually by the Indian National Congress to individuals or institutions that have made significant contributions to the cause of national integration and communal harmony.

102History
Who among the following won the Men's Singles All-England Badminton Championship held in Birmingham, England in 2013?
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Answer: (B) Chen Long

Explanation

Chen Long of China secured the Men's Singles title at the 2013 All-England Badminton Championships by defeating the top seed Lee Chong Wei in the final held at the National Indoor Arena in Birmingham. Chen Long won the match in straight sets with a score of 21-17, 21-18. This victory marked his first All England Open title and was a significant milestone in his career, occurring shortly after his bronze medal performance at the 2012 London Olympics. His win continued China's strong performance in the tournament and confirmed his status as one of the elite players in the international badminton circuit during the 2013 season.

103Economy
The following are some important sources of tax revenue for the Union Government in India : 1. Corporation tax 2. Customs 3. Union excise duties 4. Service tax Arrange the aforesaid sources of revenue in ascending order as per the Budget Estimates for 2013-14.
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Answer: (D) 4-3-2-1

Explanation

Based on the Budget Estimates (BE) for 2013-14, the revenue projected from these four major tax sources, in order of their contribution to the Union Government's finances, is as follows:

Corporation Tax: ₹4,22,225 crore (largest source) Customs: ₹1,87,308 crore Union Excise Duties: ₹1,97,554 crore Service Tax: ₹1,80,141 crore

To arrange these in ascending order (from the lowest revenue generator to the highest): Service Tax (4) is the smallest contributor at approximately ₹1.80 lakh crore. Union Excise Duties (3) and Customs (2) were the next largest, with estimates of approximately ₹1.97 lakh crore and ₹1.87 lakh crore respectively. While the Budget Estimates for 2013-14 placed Excise slightly above Customs, the actual figures from previous years (such as the 2011-12 actuals where Excise was ₹1.44 lakh crore and Customs was ₹1.49 lakh crore) often showed Customs as a larger contributor than Excise. Corporation Tax (1) was the largest source of tax revenue for the Union Government, projected at over ₹4.22 lakh crore.

Following the hierarchy where Service Tax is the lowest and Corporation Tax is the highest, the sequence 4-3-2-1 represents the ascending order of these revenue sources.

104Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about the scheme 'Roshni' launched by the Ministry of Rural Development in June 2013 is/are correct? 1. The scheme is supposed to provide training and employment to youth in the age group of 10 to 35 years. 2. 50% of the beneficiaries of the scheme will be women. 3. It is a cent percent Central Government funded scheme. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The Roshni scheme was launched in June 2013 by the Ministry of Rural Development as a special placement-linked skill development initiative targeting 27 Left Wing Extremism (LWE) affected districts across nine states. A core mandate of the scheme is to ensure gender inclusivity by requiring that 50% of the total youth trained and placed under the program must be women. The scheme primarily targets rural youth in the age group of 15 to 35 years, rather than starting from age 10. Furthermore, the funding for Roshni is shared between the Central Government and the State Governments in a 75:25 ratio, which means it is not a 100% centrally funded scheme. Priority is also given to Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) within the identified districts to promote social equity in these conflict-affected regions.

105Polity and Governance
In February 2013, the International Court of Arbitration at The Hague ruled in favour of India's position on the diversion of Kishanganga water setting aside the objections raised by
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Answer: (A) Pakistan

Explanation

The Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project dispute involved the diversion of the Kishanganga River, a tributary of the Jhelum, in the Gurez Valley of Jammu and Kashmir. Pakistan raised legal objections under the Indus Waters Treaty of 1960, contending that India's plan to divert water to the Jhelum via a 23-kilometer tunnel would reduce the flow of the river into Pakistan-administered territory, thereby affecting its own downstream Neelum-Jhelum Hydroelectric Project and local agriculture. In February 2013, the International Court of Arbitration at The Hague delivered a Partial Award that upheld India's right to divert the water for hydroelectric power generation. The court ruled that the treaty permitted such a diversion as part of a "Run-of-the-River" plant, provided India maintained a minimum environmental flow in the original river bed, thus setting aside Pakistan's demand to stop the diversion.

106Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about NEOSSat launched by PSLV in February 2013 : 1. It is the only space telescope dedicated to searching for asteroids that might have a threat to the earth. 2. It was designed and developed by ISRO. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

NEOSSat (Near-Earth Object Surveillance Satellite) is the world first space telescope specifically dedicated to the surveillance of near-Earth asteroids and the tracking of man-made satellites. Its mission is to detect and monitor near-Earth objects (NEOs) that may pose a potential impact threat to Earth, as well as to track space debris and other orbital objects. Unlike ground-based telescopes that are limited by daylight and atmospheric conditions, NEOSSat can perform observations 24 hours a day and can look at regions of the sky close to the Sun, which is crucial for identifying asteroids that approach Earth from the inner solar system. Although the satellite was launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) using the PSLV-C20 rocket in February 2013, it was designed, developed, and funded by the Canadian Space Agency (CSA) and Defence Research and Development Canada (DRDC).

107Economy
The Government of India on 12th June, 2013 enhanced the limit of foreign investments in government securities by 5 billion US dollar. In this regard, which of the following statements is not correct?
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Answer: (D) The investment can be made in all categories of investments across the board

Explanation

The enhancement of the foreign investment limit by 5 billion US dollars in June 2013 was specifically restricted to Government Securities (G-Secs), raising the total FII investment cap in this segment from 25 billion to 30 billion US dollars. This policy was a targeted intervention aimed at financing the current account deficit and stabilizing the rupee during a period of significant currency volatility. The assertion that the investment could be made in all categories across the board is incorrect because the hike did not apply to other distinct debt categories, such as corporate bonds or infrastructure bonds, which were subject to separate regulatory caps and eligibility criteria. Foreign investment limits in India are compartmentalized by instrument type, and an increase in one specific category does not translate into a universal increase for all types of overseas investments.

108Economy
The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in June 2013 has specified a value for the cost inflation index of 2013-14. In this regard, which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. There has been a rise in the cost inflation index over the year 2012-13. 2. The cost inflation index helps in reducing the inflationary gains, thereby reducing the long-term capital gains tax payout for a taxpayer. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) notified the Cost Inflation Index (CII) for the financial year 2013-14 at 939, which represented an increase over the 2012-13 index value of 852. This indexation mechanism is designed to adjust the purchase price of an asset to reflect the impact of inflation over the holding period. By using the formula Indexed Cost = Actual Cost × (CII of Sale Year)/(CII of Purchase Year), the taxpayer can increase the cost basis of the asset used for tax calculations. This effectively reduces the taxable portion of the capital gain by eliminating gains that are purely due to inflation, which in turn leads to a lower long-term capital gains tax liability.

109Polity and Governance
United Nations General Assembly declared the year 2013 as
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Answer: (A) International Year of Water Cooperation

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly, through its resolution 65/154 adopted in December 2010, officially declared 2013 as the International Year of Water Cooperation. This initiative was proposed to highlight the critical importance of water as a finite resource and to encourage international collaboration in managing water sustainably across political and sectoral boundaries. By designating 2013 for this theme, the UN sought to raise awareness about the challenges of increasing water demand and the potential for cooperation to prevent conflicts over shared water resources. UNESCO was chosen by UN-Water to lead the activities for the year, focusing on fostering dialogue and shared solutions to achieve global water security and support the Millennium Development Goals related to environmental sustainability.

110Polity and Governance
Which of the following recommendations of J. S. Verma Committee on crime against women was/were accepted by the Government by way of an ordinance? 1. Armed force personnel, who commit crime against women, could be tried under ordinary criminal law 2. There would be restriction of politicians facing sexual offence charges from contesting elections 3. Criminalization of marital rape 4. Question regarding moral character will not be put to the victim during crossexamination Select the correct answer using the code given below.
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Answer: (D) 4 only

Explanation

The Criminal Law (Amendment) Ordinance, 2013, and the subsequent Act were based on the Justice J.S. Verma Committee report but adopted its recommendations selectively. The government rejected several major proposals, including the criminalization of marital rape, the requirement for armed forces personnel to be tried under ordinary criminal law for sexual offenses, and the disqualification of politicians facing sexual offense charges from contesting elections. The accepted recommendation focused on the protection of the victim during the trial process. Specifically, the Indian Evidence Act was amended to prohibit the questioning of a victim regarding her general immoral character or past sexual history during cross-examination. This measure was implemented to ensure that the victim's character is not put on trial and to prevent further trauma during the judicial process.

111Science and Technology
Statement I : When a piece of brick lying on grass for a number of days is removed, the covered part of the grass appears pale. Statement II : Synthesis of chlorophyll, which gives green pigment, occurs in presence of sunlight.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

The green color of grass is primarily due to the pigment chlorophyll, which is essential for photosynthesis. In most plants, the biosynthesis of chlorophyll is a light-dependent process. Specifically, the reduction of protochlorophyllide to chlorophyllide is catalyzed by an enzyme that requires light to function. When a piece of brick covers the grass, it creates an environment devoid of sunlight. In the absence of light, the plant cannot synthesize new chlorophyll, and existing chlorophyll molecules gradually break down. This leads to a condition known as etiolation or chlorosis, where the tissue appears pale or yellow due to the lack of green pigment and the prominence of underlying carotenoids. Statement II accurately describes the physiological requirement for light in chlorophyll production, which directly explains the observation in Statement I.

112Science and Technology
Statement I : The mirror used in searchlight is parabolic. Statement II : All the rays coming from the source at the focus of a parabolic mirror are reflected as an intense parallel beam.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Searchlights are designed to project a powerful, concentrated beam of light over long distances. This is achieved by using a parabolic reflector because of its unique geometric property: any light source placed exactly at its focal point will produce rays that, upon reflection, emerge parallel to the principal axis of the mirror. Unlike spherical mirrors, which suffer from spherical aberration where off-axis rays do not converge or reflect perfectly, a parabolic mirror ensures that all reflected rays are collimated into an intense, non-diverging beam. Statement II provides the fundamental optical principle that explains why the parabolic shape mentioned in Statement I is specifically utilized for this application.

113Science and Technology
Statement I : Ozone is produced naturally by the action of ultraviolet radiation on oxygen molecule (O₂) in the upper atmosphere. Statement II : Ozone depletion has been caused by the release of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) into the atmosphere.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is true because ozone is formed naturally in the stratosphere through the Chapman cycle. In this process, high-energy ultraviolet radiation from the sun strikes oxygen molecules (O₂), causing them to photodissociate into two individual oxygen atoms (O). These highly reactive atoms then combine with other O₂ molecules to create ozone (O₃). Statement II is also true as it identifies the primary cause of anthropogenic ozone layer thinning. Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are stable compounds that migrate to the upper atmosphere where they are broken down by solar radiation to release chlorine radicals. These radicals act as catalysts in a cycle that destroys ozone molecules at a rate much faster than they are naturally produced. While both statements describe processes involving the ozone layer, Statement II is not the explanation for Statement I because the mechanism of ozone destruction by man-made chemicals is a separate phenomenon from the natural photochemical production of ozone from oxygen.

114Economy
Statement I : Virgin soils of newly cleared forests give higher yield of coffee. Statement II : Coffee is a soil nutrient exhaustive crop.
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Coffee is classified as a soil nutrient exhaustive crop because it requires a heavy and continuous supply of organic matter and essential minerals like nitrogen, phosphoric acid, and potash to sustain its growth and fruit production. Virgin soils in newly cleared forest areas are exceptionally rich in humus and these vital nutrients, having accumulated them over long periods without agricultural depletion. Since coffee plants rapidly consume the soil's natural fertility, the high initial concentration of nutrients found in virgin forest soils directly facilitates the significantly higher yields observed in the early years of cultivation compared to older or depleted plantations.

115History
Statement I : Ashoka called the Third Buddhist Council in 252 BC at Pataliputra and it was there that the Buddhist Church became divided into two sects—the Hinayana and the Mahayana. Statement II : Kanishka called the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalvana near Srinagar and Vasumitra was believed to have acted as President.
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Answer: (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the Third Buddhist Council, convened by Emperor Ashoka at Pataliputra around 250 BC, was intended to purge the Sangha of heretical members and finalize the Abhidhamma Pitaka. It did not see the division of Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana sects; that major split formally occurred during the Fourth Buddhist Council and the subsequent Kushana period. Statement II is correct because the Fourth Buddhist Council was indeed held at Kundalvana in Kashmir under the patronage of the Kushana King Kanishka. The council was presided over by Vasumitra, with the scholar Ashvaghosha serving as the vice-president. This council is historically significant for the compilation of the Mahavibhasha and the definitive emergence of the Mahayana school of Buddhism.

116History
Statement I : The Jajmani system was one in which the village artisans supplied traditionally fixed quantities of their products to peasant families in return for shares in the harvest. Statement II : The Jajmani system was a system of the Jotedars (rich farmers) and the Bargadars (sharecroppers).
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Answer: (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

Explanation

The Jajmani system was a traditional socio-economic arrangement in rural India characterized by a reciprocal relationship between different castes. In this system, service-providing castes known as Kamins or Purjans (such as blacksmiths, barbers, potters, and carpenters) provided specialized services and products to the landowning families, known as Jajmans. In return for these services, the artisans were compensated with a traditionally fixed share of the agricultural produce during the harvest seasons, alongside other customary gifts and rights.

Statement II is incorrect because the relationship between Jotedars and Bargadars is part of the land tenure and sharecropping system primarily associated with colonial Bengal. Jotedars were wealthy peasants who owned large tracts of land, while Bargadars were sharecroppers who cultivated that land and handed over a portion of the crop to the Jotedars. This is a landlord-tenant labor relationship based on land cultivation, which is distinct from the caste-based service exchange inherent in the Jajmani system.

117Economy
Statement I : For the three years after 2007- 08 Annual Budget in India, there was practically no increase in tax/GDP ratio. Statement II : At the same time, government expenditure jumped noticeably.
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Answer: (B) Both the statements are individually true but Statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is correct because India's gross tax-to-GDP ratio reached a peak of approximately 11.9 percent in 2007-08 but failed to increase in the three years thereafter. Following the global financial crisis of 2008, the ratio actually declined to about 10.8 percent in 2008-09 and further to 9.6 percent in 2009-10 before a slight recovery to 10.2 percent in 2010-11. This stagnation was largely due to the tax concessions and excise duty cuts provided as part of fiscal stimulus packages to support the economy during the downturn.

Statement II is also correct as government expenditure saw a significant jump during the same period. Total expenditure as a percentage of GDP rose from about 14.3 percent in 2007-08 to nearly 15.8 percent by 2009-10. This surge was driven by increased spending on subsidies, the implementation of the Sixth Pay Commission recommendations, the Agricultural Debt Waiver and Debt Relief Scheme, and the expansion of social welfare programs like MGNREGA to mitigate the impact of the global economic slowdown.

While both statements are factually true for the period concerned, the increase in government spending is a separate fiscal policy decision and does not serve as the causal explanation for the lack of growth in the tax-to-GDP ratio. The stagnant tax ratio was a result of deliberate tax rate reductions and slowed economic activity, whereas the expenditure jump was a result of a proactive expansionary budgetary policy.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2C
  3. 3B
  4. 4D
  5. 5B
  6. 6B
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14D
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17D
  18. 18D
  19. 19A
  20. 20A
  21. 21D
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25B
  26. 26D
  27. 27D
  28. 28D
  29. 29C
  30. 30D
  31. 31B
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35C
  36. 36B
  37. 37D
  38. 38A
  39. 39B
  40. 40A
  41. 41C
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45C
  46. 46C
  47. 47D
  48. 48A
  49. 49A
  50. 50D
  51. 51B
  52. 52B
  53. 53C
  54. 54D
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57A
  58. 58C
  59. 59B
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67C
  68. 68D
  69. 69A
  70. 70A
  71. 71C
  72. 72C
  73. 73C
  74. 74B
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77B
  78. 78C
  79. 79A
  80. 80C
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85C
  86. 86C
  87. 87B
  88. 88D
  89. 89B
  90. 90B
  91. 91A
  92. 92D
  93. 93A
  94. 94A
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100D
  101. 101C
  102. 102B
  103. 103D
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106A
  107. 107D
  108. 108C
  109. 109A
  110. 110D
  111. 111A
  112. 112A
  113. 113B
  114. 114A
  115. 115D
  116. 116C
  117. 117B

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