CAPF AC2011✓ Every question solved

CAPF AC Paper I 2011 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 118 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

118
Questions
8
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance2521%
  • Science and Technology2521%
  • History1916%
  • Geography1815%
  • Economy1311%
  • Art and Culture87%
  • Logical Reasoning54%
  • Quantitative Aptitude54%
1History
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The US Army built the historic Stilwell Road in 1943 running from Ledo in Assam to the China-Burma Road. Statement II: The objective was to form a link with the Bengal-Assam Railway and carry support for the US and the UK warfare against Japan.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

The Stilwell Road, originally known as the Ledo Road, was constructed by the US Army under the direction of General Joseph Stilwell during World War II. Construction began in early 1943 to establish an overland supply route from Ledo in Assam, India, to Kunming, China, after the Japanese had blockaded the original Burma Road in 1942. Statement II identifies the logistical rationale for this project; Ledo served as the northern terminus of the Bengal-Assam Railway, which was the primary artery for moving supplies from the ports of Calcutta and Chittagong. By building a road starting from this railhead, the Allies could bridge the gap between the Indian transport infrastructure and the Chinese theater of operations. This allowed for the continuous flow of military hardware, fuel, and provisions necessary for the US, UK, and Chinese forces to sustain their campaign against the Japanese occupation in the region.

2Polity and Governance
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The recent national election results in India are indicative of a transition towards a new region based multi-party coalition system. Statement II: The intensification of competitive politics has changed the party system in India from being a rivalry between national parties into one between alliances and coalition of national and state parties.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

The period in Indian politics between 1989 and 2014 was characterized by the decline of the one-party dominant system and the rise of multi-party coalitions. Statement I is accurate because the national election results of 2004 and 2009 showed that neither major national party could form a government without the support of numerous regional parties, establishing the UPA and NDA as the primary political vehicles. Statement II explains this transition by identifying the root cause: the intensification of competitive politics. As regional parties grew in strength by mobilizing voters on linguistic, caste, and regional identities, the political space became fragmented. This structural change forced national parties to abandon the pursuit of a solo majority in favor of strategic alliances with state-level players. Thus, the competitive nature of the decentralized party system directly resulted in the region-based multi-party coalition outcomes observed in national elections.

3Science and Technology
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: Statement I: In forensic investigations, DNA fingerprinting tests are carried out. Statement II: In DNA fingerprinting technique, DNA is isolated and subjected to Southern Blotting.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

DNA fingerprinting is a fundamental tool in forensic science used to identify individuals by analyzing unique patterns in their genetic material. This process begins with the isolation of DNA from biological samples such as blood, saliva, or hair follicles. The isolated DNA is then cleaved into fragments by restriction enzymes and separated by size through gel electrophoresis. Statement II describes the specific laboratory procedure known as Southern Blotting, where these separated DNA fragments are transferred from the electrophoresis gel onto a stable membrane, such as nitrocellulose or nylon. Once transferred, the DNA is hybridized with labeled probes to reveal Variable Number Tandem Repeats (VNTRs), which are unique to every individual except identical twins. Because Statement II defines the technical methodology that enables the forensic identification described in Statement I, it provides the correct scientific explanation for why and how these tests are conducted in investigations.

4Geography
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: Statement I: The Earth is shaped more like a tangerine. Statement II: The Earth spins faster at the Poles.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Statement I is true but statement II is false

Explanation

The Earth's true shape is an oblate spheroid, meaning it is slightly flattened at the poles and bulges at the equator. This physical form is often compared to the shape of a tangerine. This equatorial bulge is a result of the centrifugal force exerted by the Earth's rotation. The rotational speed of the Earth varies significantly by latitude. The linear velocity of rotation is determined by the formula v = ωR, where ω is the constant angular velocity and R is the perpendicular distance from the axis of rotation. At the equator, where the distance from the axis is greatest, the linear speed is approximately 1,670 km/h. Conversely, at the geographic poles, the distance from the axis of rotation is zero, meaning the linear rotational speed is also zero. Therefore, the Earth spins fastest at the equator and slowest at the poles.

5Polity and Governance
You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the code given below: Code: Statement I: India used the Minimum Credible Deterrent argument to develop its nuclear weapon system arguing that it had such a threat from China. Pakistan in turn used the same argument against India when it developed its own nuclear weapons. Statement II: The Minimum Credible Deterrent refers to a notion according to which nuclear weapons become necessary for a country when it has a clear nuclear threat.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Both the statements are individually true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I

Explanation

India's nuclear policy is anchored in the principle of Credible Minimum Deterrence, which signifies that the nation maintains a nuclear arsenal limited to the level necessary to deter an adversary by ensuring a retaliatory strike capable of inflicting unacceptable damage. Historically, India justified its nuclear development by citing security threats from China, particularly after the 1964 Chinese nuclear test. Following India's 1998 nuclear tests, Pakistan adopted the same Credible Minimum Deterrent logic, claiming its program was essential to counter India's strategic superiority and maintain regional stability. Statement II provides the conceptual foundation for Statement I by explaining that the Minimum Credible Deterrent is a strategic posture where nuclear weapons are viewed as a necessary tool for survival when a state faces a clear nuclear threat. Because the definition of the deterrent mechanism in the second statement directly explains why both nations used that specific argument to justify their nuclearization in the first statement, the two are logically linked in a cause-and-effect relationship.

6Geography
Which one among the following statements relating to a cyclone is not correct?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Wind movement towards the low pressure centre of a cyclone is clockwise in the northern hemisphere

Explanation

In the Northern Hemisphere, the rotation of wind around the low-pressure center of a cyclone is counter-clockwise. This direction is determined by the Coriolis force, which deflects moving air to the right of its intended path in the Northern Hemisphere. As air moves from high-pressure surroundings toward the low-pressure core, this rightward deflection forces the wind into an anti-clockwise spiral. Clockwise wind circulation for a cyclonic system is only observed in the Southern Hemisphere, where the Coriolis force deflects moving air to the left.

7Geography
Which one among the following forces is most powerful in determining movement of wind including its velocity?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Pressure gradient force

Explanation

The pressure gradient force is the primary driver of wind, as it initiates the movement of air from areas of high atmospheric pressure to areas of low atmospheric pressure. This force is a result of spatial variations in pressure caused by the unequal heating of the Earth's surface.

The magnitude of the pressure gradient force is directly proportional to the pressure difference between two points and inversely proportional to the distance between them. In mathematical terms, the force per unit mass is expressed as -(1/ρ) × (dP/dn), where ρ is air density and dP/dn is the pressure gradient. Closely spaced isobars indicate a steep pressure gradient, which generates higher wind velocities. Because this force is responsible for the initial acceleration of air, it serves as the most critical factor in determining both the direction and the speed of wind movement.

8Science and Technology
Which of the following statements relating to the planet Venus is/are correct ? 1. It is the nearest planet from the Sun. 2. It is only slightly smaller than the Earth. 3. It has no atmosphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 2 only

Explanation

Venus is frequently called Earth's twin because of its similar size, mass, and density. The diameter of Venus is approximately 12,104 km, which represents about 95% of Earth's diameter of 12,756 km. Its mass is roughly 81.5% of Earth's mass. Because these physical dimensions are nearly identical, it is accurately described as being only slightly smaller than the Earth. This similarity in scale distinguishes Venus from other terrestrial planets like Mercury and Mars, which are significantly smaller, and the gas giants, which are much larger.

9Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (River) List II (Tributary) A. Godavari 1. Son B. Krishna 2. Chambal C. Yamuna 3. Bhima D. Ganga 4. Manjira Code : A B C D
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Godavari: The Manjira is a significant right-bank tributary of the Godavari river, originating in the Balaghat range of hills and flowing through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Telangana.

Krishna: The Bhima river is a major tributary of the Krishna river, originating in the Bhimashankar hills of the Western Ghats and traversing through Maharashtra and Karnataka.

Yamuna: The Chambal river is the most important tributary of the Yamuna, flowing through the states of Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan before joining the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh.

Ganga: The Son is a primary right-bank tributary of the Ganga that originates from the Amarkantak plateau and flows northwards to meet the Ganga near Patna in Bihar.

10Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) is/are correct ? 1. The theme for the year 2011 is 'Forest : Nature at Your Service'. 2. It underscores link between quality of life and health and forest ecosystem. 3. India is declared as a global host of World Environment Day 2011. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

World Environment Day (WED) is organized annually on June 5 by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) to raise global awareness for environmental protection. In 2011, coinciding with the International Year of Forests, the official theme was Forests: Nature at Your Service. This theme was specifically chosen to illustrate the critical role of forest ecosystems in providing essential services that support human health and overall quality of life, such as biodiversity conservation, climate regulation, and water purification. Furthermore, India was designated as the global host for World Environment Day 2011, marking the first time the country led the global celebrations for this event with major activities centered in New Delhi and Mumbai.

11History
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Prominent American Indian) List II (Field of activity) A. Piyush 'Bobby' Jindal 1. Journalism B. Manoj Night Shyamalan 2. Medicine C. Siddhartha Mukherjee 3. Film direction D. Fareed Zakaria 4. Administration Code: A B C D
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 4 3 2 1

Explanation

Piyush Bobby Jindal is matched with administration because he served as the 55th Governor of Louisiana and held high-level executive roles in the U.S. healthcare administration. Manoj Night Shyamalan belongs to film direction as a prominent filmmaker and screenwriter known for directing supernatural thrillers like The Sixth Sense and Signs. Siddhartha Mukherjee is categorized under medicine as he is a physician and oncologist whose clinical research and historical account of cancer won the Pulitzer Prize in 2011. Fareed Zakaria is associated with journalism as a leading political analyst, author, and host of the CNN global affairs program Fareed Zakaria GPS.

12Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements regarding SAARC is correct ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) The first SAARC award was posthumously conferred upon late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh

Explanation

The SAARC Award was instituted during the 12th SAARC Summit in Islamabad in 2004 to recognize individuals for their outstanding contributions to the region. The inaugural SAARC Award was posthumously conferred upon the late President Ziaur Rahman of Bangladesh during the 13th SAARC Summit held in Dhaka in November 2005. This recognition was bestowed upon him for his pioneering role and visionary leadership in proposing the concept of regional cooperation among South Asian nations, which eventually led to the formal establishment of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation in 1985.

13History
Which of the following statements regarding Chipko Movement is/are correct ? 1. Chipko Movement took place in the early 1970s against the introduction of commercial forestry. 2. Chipko refers to a single movement and not a collective of several movements. 3. Chipko did not begin as a movement for conservation but primarily as an economic struggle, the root of which lay in rural and peasant protests. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation

The Chipko Movement emerged in the early 1970s as a organized resistance against commercial forestry and large-scale logging operations in the Himalayan region. It was characterized by villagers, notably women, hugging trees to protect them from contractors. This struggle was initially driven by economic necessity rather than purely ecological concerns. The local peasantry was frustrated by government policies that favored industrial interests over the traditional subsistence needs of the rural population. Specifically, the conflict was ignited when the forest department refused to allow local cooperatives to use ash trees for agricultural implements while granting those same trees to a commercial sports goods manufacturer. This highlights that the movement's roots lay in a socioeconomic struggle for control over local natural resources and the survival of rural livelihoods against external commercial exploitation.

14History
Which one among the following wars was ended by the Treaty of Madras ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) First Mysore war

Explanation

The First Anglo-Mysore War (1767–1769) was fought between the Kingdom of Mysore, led by Hyder Ali, and the British East India Company. After a series of successful military maneuvers that brought Hyder Ali's forces to the outskirts of Madras, the British were forced to seek peace terms. The Treaty of Madras was signed on April 4, 1769, effectively ending the hostilities. The treaty was largely dictated by Hyder Ali and stipulated the mutual restitution of conquered territories and the release of prisoners of war. Furthermore, it established a defensive alliance where the British promised to assist Mysore if it were attacked by any third party, such as the Marathas.

15History
The Harappan civilization covered an extensive area of present South Asia. The geographic space covered by this civilization included
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Punjab, Sindh, a part of Northwestern frontier, Kathiawar and a part of Ganga-Yamuna Doab

Explanation

The Harappan civilization, also known as the Indus Valley Civilization, spanned a vast geographic area of approximately 1.3 million square kilometers in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent. Its territory included the major river valleys of Punjab and Sindh, where the urban centers of Harappa and Mohenjo-daro were established. To the west, it extended into the rugged terrains of the Northwestern frontier and Balochistan, reaching as far as the coastal site of Sutkagen Dor. In the south, the civilization encompassed the Kathiawar peninsula in present-day Gujarat, represented by significant sites such as Lothal and Dholavira. The easternmost extent reached the Ganga-Yamuna Doab in western Uttar Pradesh, marked by the site of Alamgirpur, showcasing the civilization's expansion into the fertile plains beyond the Indus system.

16Art and Culture
Sarhul is a festival celebrated during spring by the
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Santhals

Explanation

Sarhul is a major spring festival celebrated by tribal communities in the Chota Nagpur plateau region, including the Santhal, Munda, and Oraon tribes. It takes place during the month of Chaitra and marks the beginning of the tribal New Year. The festival is a celebration of nature, specifically centered on the blooming of Sal trees (Shorea robusta). For the Santhal people, Sarhul is a time for offering prayers to their deities and ancestors to seek protection and a good harvest. The rituals involve traditional music and dances, emphasizing the deep connection between the tribal culture and the environment.

17Polity and Governance
Right to Information is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) both fundamental right as well as legal right

Explanation

The Right to Information is considered both a fundamental right and a legal right in the Indian context. It is recognized as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, which guarantees the freedom of speech and expression. The Supreme Court of India established this link in landmark judgments such as State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain (1975), ruling that citizens cannot meaningfully exercise their freedom of expression without access to information held by public authorities. Additionally, it is a legal right codified by the Right to Information Act, 2005. This statute provides a formal, time-bound mechanism for citizens to request and receive information from the government, thereby translating the constitutional principle into a functional legal entitlement.

18Polity and Governance
While a proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended by not exceeding
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) one year at a time

Explanation

Under Article 83(2) of the Indian Constitution, while a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation, the Parliament may by law extend the normal five-year term of the Lok Sabha for a period not exceeding one year at a time. Although the Constitution does not specify a maximum limit on the total number of such extensions, no such extension can continue beyond a period of six months after the Emergency has ceased to operate. This provision allows for continuity of the legislative body during times of national crisis when conducting general elections may not be feasible.

19Polity and Governance
Which one among the following statements holds good in respect of the Rajya Sabha ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) One-third of its members retire after every two years

Explanation

According to Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India, the Rajya Sabha, or the Council of States, is a permanent body and is not subject to dissolution. To maintain a continuous cycle of representation, the Constitution provides that as nearly as may be, one-third of its members shall retire as soon as may be on the expiration of every second year. While the Constitution did not specifically fix the term of office for members, the Representation of the People Act, 1951, established that a member of the Rajya Sabha serves a term of six years. This arrangement ensures that the chamber remains a continuous legislative body with a rolling membership.

20Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding the Fundamental Duties as contained in the Constitution of India is/are correct? 1. They can be enforced through writ jurisdiction. 2. They have formed a part of the Constitution since its adoption. 3. They are applicable only to citizens of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation

Fundamental Duties, enshrined in Article 51A under Part IV-A, are specifically applicable only to the citizens of India and do not extend to foreigners. Unlike Fundamental Rights, these duties are non-justiciable in nature, meaning they cannot be directly enforced by the judiciary through writ jurisdiction under Article 32 or Article 226. Furthermore, Fundamental Duties were not part of the original Constitution adopted in 1949; they were incorporated later via the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

21Science and Technology
Which one among the following companies did India shortlist for purchasing the Medium Multi Role Combat Aircraft (MMRCA)?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) France Dassault Rafale

Explanation

In April 2011, the Indian Ministry of Defence shortlisted the Dassault Rafale from France as one of the two finalists for the multi-billion dollar Medium Multi-Role Combat Aircraft (MMRCA) contract. This decision followed an exhaustive technical evaluation and field trials conducted by the Indian Air Force to ensure the aircraft met specific operational requirements across diverse geographical conditions. The Rafale was determined to be technically compliant with the IAF's stringent 600-plus parameters, allowing it to proceed to the commercial bid opening stage. This selection aimed to modernize India's air defense capabilities by inducting 126 advanced multi-role fighters to replace older aircraft in the fleet.

22Science and Technology
Heavy water is so called because it
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) contains the heavier isotope of hydrogen in water

Explanation

Heavy water, chemically known as deuterium oxide (D₂O), is characterized by the presence of deuterium instead of the common hydrogen isotope, protium. While a standard hydrogen atom consists of only one proton in its nucleus, a deuterium atom contains both a proton and a neutron, making it approximately twice as heavy. Because the oxygen atom remains the same, the substitution of deuterium for protium increases the molecular weight of the water molecule from approximately 18 to 20 atomic mass units. This increase in mass results in a liquid that is roughly 10.6 percent denser than ordinary water, leading to the designation heavy water. It occurs naturally in very small quantities within regular water and is primarily used as a neutron moderator and coolant in nuclear reactors.

23Science and Technology
Which one among the following statements is correct ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Melting of ice is a physical change and burning of candle is a chemical change

Explanation

Melting of ice is a physical change because it only involves a change in the state of matter from solid to liquid. The chemical composition of the substance remains water (H₂O) throughout the process, and it can be easily reversed by cooling the liquid back into ice. No new chemical substances are formed during this phase transition.

Burning of a candle is a chemical change because it involves the combustion of wax hydrocarbons in the presence of atmospheric oxygen. This chemical reaction produces entirely new substances, primarily carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water vapor (H₂O), along with the release of energy as heat and light. Because new chemical bonds are formed and the original wax is consumed to create different molecular products, the process is inherently a chemical transformation.

24Science and Technology
Steam at 100°C is more effective in heating than water at the same temperature because
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) steam has an additional heat known as 'latent heat of vaporization'

Explanation

Steam at 100°C possesses significantly more thermal energy per unit mass than liquid water at the same temperature. This extra energy is known as the latent heat of vaporization, which for water is approximately 2260 kJ/kg or 540 cal/g. When steam comes into contact with a cooler surface, it undergoes a phase change and releases this stored latent heat as it condenses into water. Only after this phase change is complete does the temperature of the resulting water begin to drop. In contrast, water at 100°C can only release sensible heat as its temperature decreases. Because of this additional energy release during condensation, steam is more effective for heating and causes more severe burns than boiling water.

25Science and Technology
The first large research reactor of India that uses U-233 as fuel is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) KAMINI

Explanation

KAMINI (Kalpakkam Mini reactor), located at the Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research in Kalpakkam, is the first research reactor in the world designed to use Uranium-233 (²³³U) as its fuel. Reaching criticality in 1996, the reactor uses an alloy of aluminum and Uranium-233, which is bred from Thorium-232 in the Fast Breeder Test Reactor. This facility is a key component of the third stage of India's three-stage nuclear power program, aimed at utilizing the nation's extensive thorium reserves. The reactor provides a high neutron flux for applications such as neutron radiography of radioactive and non-radioactive objects and neutron activation analysis.

26Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 per cent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. What is the number of boys who speak both the languages ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 3

Explanation

Total students in the class are 84. Given the ratio of boys to girls is 5 : 7, the number of boys is (5/12) × 84 = 35 and the number of girls is (7/12) × 84 = 49.

The number of students who speak only Hindi is 50% of 84, which is 42. Using the ratio of students speaking only Hindi to those speaking only English (21 : 16), let the multiplier be x. Thus, 21x = 42, which gives x = 2. The number of students speaking only English is 16 × 2 = 32.

Every student in the class falls into one of three categories: speaking only Hindi, speaking only English, or speaking both languages. Therefore, the total number of students who speak both languages is 84 - (42 + 32) = 10.

The total number of students speaking both languages is the sum of boys who speak both and girls who speak both. We are given that 7 girls speak both Hindi and English. Thus, the number of boys who speak both languages is 10 - 7 = 3.

27Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 per cent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. What is the number of girls who speak English only ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 20

Explanation

Total students in the class are 84. Given the ratio of boys to girls is 5 : 7, the number of girls is calculated as (7/(5+7)) × 84 = (7/12) × 84 = 49. Similarly, the number of boys is (5/12) × 84 = 35.

The number of students who speak only Hindi is 50 percent of the total, which is 0.50 × 84 = 42. The ratio of students speaking only Hindi to those speaking only English is 21 : 16. Setting up the proportion 21/16 = 42/x, we find x = (42 × 16)/21 = 32. Thus, 32 students speak only English.

The ratio of boys speaking only English to girls speaking only English is 3 : 5. Let the number of boys be 3k and girls be 5k. Their sum must equal the total number of students speaking only English: 3k + 5k = 32, which simplifies to 8k = 32, giving k = 4. The number of girls who speak English only is 5 × 4 = 20.

28Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 per cent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. What is the ratio of number of boys who speak Hindi only to that of girls who speak Hindi only ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 10:11

Explanation

The total number of students is 84. Given the ratio of boys to girls is 5 : 7, we calculate: Number of boys = (5/12) × 84 = 35 Number of girls = (7/12) × 84 = 49

According to the data, 50% of total students speak only Hindi, so students speaking only Hindi = 0.5 × 84 = 42. The ratio of students speaking only Hindi to only English is 21 : 16. Using the value for only Hindi: 42 / (Only English) = 21/16 ⇒ Only English = (42 × 16)/21 = 32 The number of students speaking both languages is the remainder: 84 - (42 + 32) = 10.

For the English-only group, the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5. Boys speaking only English = (3/8) × 32 = 12 Girls speaking only English = (5/8) × 32 = 20

For the group speaking both languages, it is given that 7 girls speak both. Thus, boys speaking both = 10 - 7 = 3.

Now we find the number of students speaking only Hindi by subtracting the other categories from the gender totals: Boys speaking only Hindi = Total Boys - (Boys Only English + Boys Both) = 35 - (12 + 3) = 20 Girls speaking only Hindi = Total Girls - (Girls Only English + Girls Both) = 49 - (20 + 7) = 22

The ratio of boys speaking only Hindi to girls speaking only Hindi is 20 : 22, which simplifies to 10 : 11.

29Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 per cent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. How many girls can speak Hindi ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 29

Explanation

Total students are 84. Using the ratio of boys to girls 5 : 7, we calculate: Number of boys = (5/12) × 84 = 35 Number of girls = (7/12) × 84 = 49

The number of students speaking only Hindi is 50 percent of the total: Only Hindi = 0.50 × 84 = 42

Using the ratio of students speaking only Hindi to only English (21 : 16): Only English = (16/21) × 42 = 32

The remaining students speak both Hindi and English: Both languages = 84 - (42 + 32) = 10 It is given that 7 girls speak both languages, so the number of boys speaking both is 10 - 7 = 3.

For the students speaking only English, the ratio of boys to girls is 3 : 5: Girls (Only English) = (5/8) × 32 = 20 Boys (Only English) = (3/8) × 32 = 12

To find the number of girls who speak only Hindi, subtract those who speak only English and those who speak both from the total number of girls: Girls (Only Hindi) = 49 - (20 + 7) = 22

The question asks for the total number of girls who can speak Hindi, which includes those who speak only Hindi and those who speak both Hindi and English: Total girls speaking Hindi = 22 + 7 = 29

30Quantitative Aptitude
In a class of 84 students, boys and girls are in the ratio of 5 : 7. Among the girls 7 can speak Hindi and English. 50 per cent of the total students can speak only Hindi. The ratio of the number of students speaking only Hindi to that speaking only English is 21 : 16. The ratio of the number of boys speaking English only to that of girls speaking English only is 3 : 5. What is the ratio of the number of boys who speak English to that of girls who do so ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 5:9

Explanation

Total students in the class are 84. Given the ratio of boys to girls is 5:7, the number of boys is (5/12) × 84 = 35 and the number of girls is (7/12) × 84 = 49.

The number of students speaking only Hindi is 50% of 84, which is 42. Using the ratio of students speaking only Hindi to only English (21:16), the number of students speaking only English is (16/21) × 42 = 32.

The remaining students speak both Hindi and English: 84 - (42 + 32) = 10. It is given that 7 girls speak both languages, which means the number of boys speaking both languages is 10 - 7 = 3.

The total number of students speaking only English (32) is divided between boys and girls in the ratio 3:5. Thus, boys speaking only English = (3/8) × 32 = 12 and girls speaking only English = (5/8) × 32 = 20.

To find the total number of students speaking English, we sum those speaking only English and those speaking both languages. Total boys speaking English = 12 + 3 = 15. Total girls speaking English = 20 + 7 = 27. The ratio of boys who speak English to girls who speak English is 15:27, which simplifies to 5:9.

31Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Border) List II (Guarding force) A. India - Pakistan 1. Indo-Tibetan Police Force B. India - Nepal 2. Border Security Force C. India - China 3. Sashashtra Seema Bal D. India - Myanmar 4. Assam Rifles Code : A B C D
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 2 3 1 4

Explanation

The India-Pakistan border (A) is guarded by the Border Security Force (2) which was established in 1965 to ensure the security of the international borders. The India-Nepal border (B) is the responsibility of the Sashastra Seema Bal (3) which was designated as the border guarding force for this sector in 2001. The India-China border (C) is manned by the Indo-Tibetan Border Police (1) which is a specialized mountain force raised in 1962. The India-Myanmar border (D) is guarded by the Assam Rifles (4) which is the oldest paramilitary force in India and handles both internal security and border patrolling in the North-East.

32Geography
If India adopts two time zones based on 75° E meridian for western India and 90° E meridian for eastern India, which one among the following states of eastern India will be benefited most ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Manipur

Explanation

The benefit of adopting a separate time zone for eastern India is measured by how closely the new standard meridian aligns with the local solar time of a region. Currently, India follows a single time zone (IST) based on the 82.5° E meridian. This creates a significant lag for the eastern states, where the sun rises and sets much earlier than what the clock indicates, leading to a loss of productive daylight hours in the morning and increased electricity consumption in the evening.

Among the options provided, Manipur is the easternmost state, situated approximately between 93.03° E and 94.78° E longitudes. Because it is the furthest east, it currently experiences the greatest discrepancy between its local solar time and the national IST. Adopting a 90° E meridian would advance the clock by 30 minutes (90° - 82.5° = 7.5°; 7.5° × 4 minutes per degree = 30 minutes). This shift would bring the clock time in Manipur much closer to its natural diurnal cycle compared to states like Bihar or West Bengal, which are located further west. Consequently, Manipur would see the most significant improvement in synchronizing human activity with natural daylight.

33Geography
Arrange the following hills of southern India from north to south: 1. Nilgiri 2. Cardamom 3. Nallamala 4. Anaimalai Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 3-1-4-2

Explanation

The geographical arrangement of these hills from north to south follows the latitudinal gradient of the Indian peninsula. The Nallamala Hills are part of the Eastern Ghats, situated primarily in the states of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, making them the northernmost among the choices. Moving south, the Nilgiri Hills are located at the junction of the Western and Eastern Ghats, bordering Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala. Further south, separated from the Nilgiris by the Palghat Gap, lie the Anaimalai Hills on the border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The Cardamom Hills form the southernmost part of the Western Ghats, located in southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu, near the southern tip of India. This sequence places Nallamala first, followed by Nilgiri, Anaimalai, and finally Cardamom.

34Geography
Which one among the following local winds is not characteristically hot and dry?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Mistral

Explanation

The Mistral is a strong, cold, and dry northwesterly wind that blows from the southern parts of France down into the Gulf of Lion in the northern Mediterranean. It occurs when there is a high-pressure system over the Atlantic or northern Europe and a low-pressure system over the Mediterranean. As the cold air is funneled through the Rhône and Durance valleys, it accelerates, reaching high velocities. Because it originates from the polar or arctic regions and moves over the massifs of central France, it remains characteristically cold, which distinguishes it from regional winds that are typically hot and dry.

35Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I (Item) — List II (Use/Property) A. Iron oxide — 1. Glossy finish on wood and steel B. Varnish — 2. Colourless shining protective coating on wood C. Enamel paint — 3. Exterior and interior brick walls D. Emulsion paint — 4. Preparatory coating on steel Code :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation

Iron oxide, specifically red oxide, is frequently used as a rust-inhibiting primer or preparatory coating on steel surfaces to protect them from corrosion before final painting.

Varnish is a solution of resinous substance in oil, turpentine, or alcohol that dries to form a transparent, hard, and colourless shining protective coating on wood surfaces, preserving the natural grain.

Enamel paint is composed of pigments and a varnish-like vehicle that dries to a hard, durable, and glossy finish suitable for surfaces like wood and steel that require high resistance to wear.

Emulsion paint consists of pigments suspended in a water-based synthetic resin, making it a popular choice for both exterior and interior brick walls due to its ease of application, fast drying time, and durability.

36History
Which one among the following places is not covered by the Golden Chariot, the luxury train designed to visit the historical places of South India?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Hyderabad

Explanation

The Golden Chariot is a luxury tourist train operated by the Karnataka State Tourism Development Corporation (KSTDC) in joint venture with the Ministry of Railways. Since its launch in 2008, its itineraries have primarily focused on historical and cultural sites in Karnataka, Goa, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. The original Pride of the South circuit connects Bangalore to Mysore, Hampi, and Goa, while the Southern Splendour circuit covers regions like Pondicherry, Madurai, and Kochi. As of 2011, Hyderabad was not included as a destination in any of the train's official travel packages, as its operations were concentrated within the southwestern and southern tip of the Indian peninsula.

37Polity and Governance
Who among the following was not a non-government representative in the Lokpal Bill Drafting Committee, 2011?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Kiran Bedi

Explanation

Kiran Bedi was not a member of the ten-member Joint Drafting Committee (JDC) for the Lokpal Bill, which was formally constituted by the Government of India in April 2011. This committee was established to create a consensus draft for the anti-corruption legislation and consisted of five Union Ministers and five representatives from civil society. Although she was a prominent leader within the India Against Corruption movement and a key advisor to the campaign, she was not one of the five individuals officially designated to represent the non-government side on this particular drafting body.

38Geography
Why is Nagpur promoted as the tiger capital of the world? 1. Nagpur is the major store house of tigers as the districts adjacent to Nagpur have many tiger reserves and sanctuaries. 2. Nagpur has infrastructure that can support a large tourist industry. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Nagpur is promoted as the tiger capital of the world because it serves as the primary gateway to a high concentration of tiger habitats in Central India. Within a radius of approximately 250 kilometers, there are several world-renowned tiger reserves and wildlife sanctuaries, including Pench, Tadoba-Andhari, Kanha, Melghat, and Navegaon-Nagzira. This unique geographical positioning makes the city a central node for the management and conservation of a significant portion of India's tiger population.

Furthermore, Nagpur possesses the critical infrastructure required to support a large-scale tourist industry. As a major urban center, it features an international airport, a strategic railway junction, and a well-developed network of roads that provide seamless access to the surrounding forest reserves. The availability of diverse hospitality services and logistical support enables the city to function as the administrative and transit hub for domestic and international wildlife tourists visiting the region.

39Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the post-cold war directional changes in Indian foreign policy : 1. By the mid 1990s, Indian foreign policy submitted itself to a process of adaptive learning to boost its status and influence in the global pecking order. 2. Indian foreign policy has shifted from an overemphasis on idealism during the cold war era to pragmatic realism in the post-cold war era. 3. Indian foreign policy is geared to establish tangible economic and security partnership with major regions and countries of the world. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Post-Cold War Indian foreign policy underwent a fundamental transformation necessitated by the disintegration of the Soviet Union and the 1991 economic crisis. India adopted a strategy of adaptive learning by recalibrating its global engagement to boost its status, moving from a peripheral role to seeking a seat at the high table of global governance. The transition from Nehruvian idealism, which focused on moral posturing and non-alignment, to pragmatic realism allowed India to prioritize national interests, strategic autonomy, and nuclear deterrence. This shift is evidenced by the pursuit of tangible economic and security partnerships, such as the Look East Policy, the Civil Nuclear Deal with the United States, and expanded maritime security cooperation. By diversifying its diplomatic portfolio, India has successfully integrated economic diplomacy with strategic security needs to ensure its growth and regional stability in a multipolar world.

40Art and Culture
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists : List I (Festival) List II (Community/ ethnic group) A. Nongkrem 1. Khasi B. Chapchar Kut 2. Mising C. Kherai Puja 3. Bodo D. Ali-Ai-Ligang 4. Mizo Code : A B C D
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1 4 3 2

Explanation

Nongkrem is a major religious festival of the Khasi tribe in Meghalaya, celebrated annually to honor the Almighty for a successful harvest and the prosperity of the community. Chapchar Kut is the most significant spring festival of the Mizo people, observed in March after the completion of the Jhum clearing process. Kherai Puja is a vital religious and ritualistic festival of the Bodo community in Assam, centered around the worship of their supreme deity, Bathow Borai. Ali-Ai-Ligang is an agricultural festival celebrated by the Mising tribe of Assam to mark the commencement of the sowing season, specifically for the Ahu paddy.

41History
The following sentences describe one of the sites of the Harappan civilization : The settlement is divided into two sections, one smaller but higher and the other much larger but lower. Archaeologists designate these as the citadel and the lower town respectively. Both were walled. Several buildings were built on platforms, which served as foundations. Which of the following sites does it refer to ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Mohenjodaro

Explanation

The description provided is a characteristic feature of Mohenjodaro, one of the most significant settlements of the Harappan civilization. As described in standard archaeological texts and NCERT, the city was meticulously planned and divided into two distinct sections.

The first section, known as the Citadel, was smaller in area but built on a higher level. This elevation was achieved by constructing the buildings on massive mud-brick platforms. The Citadel was fortified by a wall, which physically separated it from the rest of the city.

The second section, known as the Lower Town, was much larger but situated at a lower elevation. Like the Citadel, the Lower Town was also surrounded by a wall. A defining feature of Mohenjodaro’s urban planning was that several buildings within the Lower Town were also built on platforms that served as foundations. These platforms required an immense amount of organized labor to construct, as they provided a stable, elevated base for the entire settlement to protect it from the seasonal flooding of the Indus River.

42Polity and Governance
Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state

Explanation

Under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution, the power to alter the name of any State is vested exclusively in the Union Parliament. Although the President is required to refer any bill proposing such a change to the concerned State Legislature to obtain its views within a specified timeframe, the Parliament is not bound by those views. The Parliament can proceed to pass the law regardless of whether the State Legislature agrees or disagrees with the proposal. Therefore, the State Legislature lacks the constitutional authority to unilaterally alter the name of the State, as this function resides strictly with the central legislative body.

43Economy
Which of the following statements regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRB) in India is/are correct ? 1. The basic aim of setting up the RRBs is to develop rural economy. 2. The area of RRBs is limited to a specific region comprising one or more districts. 3. RRBs are sponsored by Commercial Banks. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions of the RRB Act, 1976, following the recommendations of the Narasimham Working Group. The fundamental objective of these institutions is to develop the rural economy by providing institutional credit to the agricultural sector and other rural segments like small entrepreneurs and artisans. RRBs possess a unique organizational structure where their operations are limited to a specific geographical area, typically spanning one or more districts within a single state. This regional character ensures they remain focused on local needs. Additionally, each RRB is sponsored by a Public Sector Commercial Bank which contributes 35 percent of the share capital and provides necessary training and consultancy. The remaining equity is held by the Central Government (50 percent) and the State Government (15 percent), making the sponsorship by commercial banks a core feature of their establishment.

44Economy
Which one among the following is not an institution of Indian Money Market ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Merchant Bankers

Explanation

Merchant bankers are financial intermediaries that primarily focus on the Capital Market rather than the Money Market. Their functions involve providing long-term financial services such as managing public issues of shares and debentures, underwriting, project counseling, and advisory services for mergers and acquisitions. Since these activities facilitate the raising of long-term capital through equity and debt instruments, merchant bankers do not operate as institutions within the money market, which is strictly defined by the trading of short-term financial instruments with maturities of one year or less.

45Polity and Governance
The Naxalites have attacked a town in Dantewada district of Chhattisgarh killing 12 security personnel. When the paramilitary forces responded by giving chase to the Naxalites, they retreated to a village and are now taking shelter in the village huts by making the tribals there human shields against the paramilitary forces. Which amongst the following statements is the best response by the paramilitary forces in this situation ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) The paramilitary forces should surround the village and offer to negotiate peacefully to avoid civilian casualties by offering a surrender policy

Explanation

In counter-insurgency operations within a democratic framework, the primary objective is to neutralize the threat while prioritizing the safety of innocent civilians. When insurgents use villagers as human shields, the use of indiscriminate force or high-intensity weaponry would lead to significant collateral damage and further alienate the local population, which often aids the insurgents' propaganda. Surrounding the village ensures that the Naxalites are contained and cannot escape, while offering to negotiate or providing a surrender policy allows for a resolution that minimizes the loss of life. This strategic patience and focus on civilian protection help maintain the legitimacy of the state and adhere to human rights standards, which is essential for long-term peace and stability in conflict-prone tribal regions like Dantewada.

46Science and Technology
At the time of short-circuit the current in the circuit
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) increases heavily

Explanation

According to Ohm's Law, the current I in a circuit is given by the formula I = V / R, where V is the potential difference and R is the resistance. A short circuit occurs when a path of extremely low resistance is established between two points of different potential, effectively bypassing the intended load. When the resistance R drops to a near-zero value, the denominator in the equation becomes very small, causing the current I to increase heavily and instantaneously. This massive surge in current persists until a safety device like a fuse melts or a circuit breaker trips to open the circuit.

47Science and Technology
Transformers are used in between the electric power stations and homes or factories in order to
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) minimize the power loss in transmission cables

Explanation

Transformers are employed in electrical grids to facilitate efficient long-distance transmission. According to the formula for power loss in a conductor, P_loss = I²R, where I is the current and R is the resistance of the transmission line, power dissipation is directly proportional to the square of the current. By using step-up transformers at power stations, the transmission voltage is increased, which allows the same amount of electrical power, given by P = VI, to be transmitted at a significantly lower current. Reducing the current in this manner dramatically minimizes the energy lost as heat within the cables over long distances. Step-down transformers are subsequently used near homes and factories to reduce the voltage back to safe, usable levels.

48Science and Technology
An elderly person while trying to read a book at about 25 cm from the eyes finds the image appears blurred because of the decreasing effectiveness of the ciliary muscles and the loss of flexibility of the lens. This defect of the eyes is called
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) presbyopia

Explanation

Presbyopia is a common age-related vision condition characterized by the gradual loss of the eye's ability to focus on nearby objects. This condition arises primarily due to the natural aging process, which causes the crystalline lens to lose its elasticity and become increasingly rigid. Simultaneously, the ciliary muscles, which are responsible for changing the shape of the lens to adjust focal length, become less effective. As a result, the eye's power of accommodation diminishes, making it difficult to focus light from near objects directly onto the retina. This typically causes the near point of the eye to recede beyond the standard 25 cm, resulting in blurred vision when attempting to read or perform close-up tasks.

49Science and Technology
The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the Earth is maximum and it
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) decreases as we go up or down

Explanation

The acceleration due to gravity g at the Earth's surface is determined by the formula g = GM/R², where G is the universal gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth, and R is the Earth's radius. When an object moves to a height h above the surface, the distance from the center of the Earth increases to R+h, and the acceleration is given by gₕ = GM/(R+h)². Since the denominator increases, gₕ decreases as we go up. Conversely, when moving to a depth d below the surface, the acceleration is governed by the formula g_d = g(1 - d/R). This happens because as we go deeper, the mass of the shell above the object exerts no net gravitational force, and only the mass of the inner sphere of radius R-d contributes to gravity. Thus, as d increases, the value of g_d decreases linearly until it reaches zero at the Earth's center.

50Science and Technology
'Hydraulic brakes' and 'Hydraulic lift' are devices in which fluids are used for transmitting
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) pressure

Explanation

Hydraulic brakes and hydraulic lifts operate based on Pascal's Law, which states that when pressure is applied to a confined, incompressible fluid, it is transmitted undiminished to every portion of the fluid and to the walls of the containing vessel. In these mechanical systems, a small input force is applied to a piston with a small cross-sectional area A₁, generating a pressure P = F₁/A₁. This pressure is transmitted through the fluid to a second piston with a larger area A₂. Because the pressure remains constant throughout the system, the resulting output force F₂ = P × A₂ is significantly greater than the input force, allowing for the lifting of heavy loads or the stopping of a vehicle. Thus, the fluid acts as the medium for transmitting pressure to achieve mechanical advantage.

51Logical Reasoning
Ms. X goes to work by NH-2. She has a meeting at 9:30 AM on a day and missing it may mean missing out a big opportunity for her. On that day all day long NH-2 will be closed for repair. From the above statements, which one among the options given below follows?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The provided statements establish that Ms. X typically uses NH-2 and has an important meeting, but they do not provide exhaustive details about her circumstances. Specifically, the text does not state that NH-2 is the only possible route to her office or that no alternative modes of transport exist. Without information confirming that NH-2 is the sole access point, it cannot be logically concluded that she will be unable to attend the meeting. Additionally, the statements mention that missing the meeting may result in a lost opportunity, whereas the other options make definitive claims about her inability to reschedule or the certainty of the loss. Because these options rely on assumptions not present in the text, none of them logically follow from the given premises.

52Logical Reasoning
The statement 'Everyone has a father, but not every father has a son' implies that
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) some parents have daughters

Explanation

The statement establishes two conditions. First, everyone is the offspring of a father. Second, while some men are fathers, they do not all have male children. Since the definition of a father requires having at least one child, a father who does not have a son must necessarily have at least one daughter. Therefore, the existence of fathers without sons logically necessitates that some parents have daughters.

53Logical Reasoning
Given that 1. Some dentists are Asians. 2. Some Asians are not pediatricians. Which one among the following is not implied?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) No pediatricians are Asians

Explanation

The statement "No pediatricians are Asians" is a universal negative proposition that asserts a complete separation between the set of pediatricians and the set of Asians. The given premise "Some Asians are not pediatricians" is a particular negative proposition, which only confirms that at least one Asian exists who is not a pediatrician. It does not provide sufficient grounds to conclude that no Asians are pediatricians. In formal logic, a particular negative statement (Some A are not P) does not imply a universal negative statement (No P are A). The premises allow for the possibility that some Asians could indeed be pediatricians, making the categorical exclusion in the option logically unsupported and therefore not implied.

54Logical Reasoning
If we know that 'some utensils are not microwave-safe' is true, it follows that
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 'some utensils are microwave-safe' may be also true

Explanation

In categorical logic, the statement 'some utensils are not microwave-safe' is an O-type proposition (Particular Negative). According to the Square of Opposition, if an O proposition is true, its sub-contrary, the I-type proposition (Particular Affirmative) 'some utensils are microwave-safe', is undetermined. In logical terms, undetermined means that the statement can be either true or false without creating a logical contradiction. Therefore, if we know for certain that some utensils are not microwave-safe, it is logically possible that some other utensils within the set are microwave-safe. This possibility is correctly captured by the phrase 'may be also true', as it reflects that the existence of some microwave-safe utensils is compatible with, though not strictly guaranteed by, the existence of some non-microwave-safe utensils.

55Geography
Arrange the following Indian states in descending order of population density as per the Census of India 2011: 1. Uttar Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Bihar 4. West Bengal Select the answer using the code given below: Code: 1 2 3 4
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 3-4-2-1

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, population density is calculated as the number of persons per square kilometer. Among the states listed, Bihar has the highest population density at 1,106 persons per sq km. West Bengal follows it with a density of 1,028 persons per sq km. Kerala ranks third in this specific list with a density of 860 persons per sq km, and Uttar Pradesh has a density of 829 persons per sq km. Arranging these in descending order yields the sequence of Bihar (3), West Bengal (4), Kerala (2), and Uttar Pradesh (1).

56Economy
In which stage of 'demographic transition' is India at present?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) High birth rate and falling death rate

Explanation

In 2011, India was in the late second stage or early third stage of the demographic transition, commonly described as the stage of a high birth rate and a falling death rate. According to the 2011 Census data, India's birth rate was approximately 21.8 per 1,000, while the death rate had fallen to about 7.1 per 1,000.

This stage is characterized by a significant lag between the decline in mortality and the decline in fertility. Improvements in medical facilities, sanitation, and food security led to a sharp drop in the death rate, while the birth rate, though starting to decline, remained high due to socio-cultural factors. This gap resulted in a high natural increase in population, a phenomenon known as the population explosion phase. Although the 2011 Census recorded the first significant decline in the decadal growth rate (from 21.5% in 2001 to 17.7% in 2011), the birth rate remained high relative to the death rate, keeping India in this transitional phase.

57Polity and Governance
ASEAN (Association of South East Asian Nations) Regional Block consists of a number of countries. Which one of the following groups of countries is a part of this block?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Brunei Darussalam, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, Vietnam

Explanation

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) is a regional organization established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration. As of 2011, the block comprised ten member states located in Southeast Asia. These members are Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand (the five founding members), followed by Brunei Darussalam (joined 1984), Vietnam (joined 1995), Laos and Myanmar (joined 1997), and Cambodia (joined 1999). The group containing Brunei Darussalam, Indonesia, Malaysia, Singapore, Thailand, and Vietnam correctly identifies a set of countries that are all official members of the ASEAN regional block.

58Economy
Which one among the following is not a plantation crop ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Wheat

Explanation

Wheat is classified as a cereal grain and a staple food crop rather than a plantation crop. Plantation agriculture typically involves the large-scale, commercial cultivation of a single perennial or long-term crop on extensive estates, often requiring significant labor and specialized processing units on-site. Examples of plantation crops include products grown for trade such as beverages, industrial raw materials, or specific tropical fruits. Wheat, by contrast, is an annual grass grown through intensive or extensive farming methods primarily for its seeds, which serve as a foundational caloric source in human diets globally. It does not fit the organizational or botanical criteria of the plantation system.

59Polity and Governance
In 2010, at the Lisbon Summit, NATO signed a "Declaration on Enduring Partnership" for future enhanced cooperation with regard to capacity building and security sector reform. With whom did NATO sign this declaration ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Afghanistan

Explanation

During the NATO Summit in Lisbon held in November 2010, NATO and the Government of the Islamic Republic of Afghanistan signed the Declaration on an Enduring Partnership. This agreement provided a framework for long-term political and practical cooperation between NATO and Afghanistan, extending beyond the timeline of the International Security Assistance Force (ISAF) mission. The partnership specifically aimed at supporting the Afghan government through capacity building, professional training of the Afghan National Security Forces, and comprehensive security sector reform to ensure the country could maintain its own security and stability following the transition of lead security responsibility to local forces.

60History
Which one among the following brought together the thinkers, editors, business and cultural groups and political leaders of India and Pakistan to bridge the divide between the nations ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Aman Ki Asha

Explanation

Aman Ki Asha (Hope for Peace) was a prominent social and diplomatic initiative launched on January 1, 2010, as a joint venture between India's leading media house, The Times of India Group, and Pakistan's largest media conglomerate, the Jang Group. The campaign was designed to foster a climate of peace and mutual understanding by facilitating dialogue across various sections of society. It specifically brought together influential editors, business leaders, cultural icons, and politicians to discuss trade, security, and cultural exchange. Through organized business summits and people-to-people initiatives, it sought to create public pressure on the governments of both nations to resolve long-standing disputes and build a cooperative future based on shared interests.

61History
Which of the following countries won the gold medal in Cricket in the Asian Games, 2010 ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Bangladesh

Explanation

The men's cricket tournament at the 2010 Asian Games, hosted in Guangzhou, China, concluded with Bangladesh winning the gold medal. This marked the inaugural appearance of cricket in the Asian Games program. In the final match, Bangladesh faced Afghanistan and successfully chased down the target to win by five wickets. This victory was a historic milestone for the nation, as it represented Bangladesh's first-ever gold medal in the history of the Asian Games. The competition was played in the Twenty20 format at the Guanggong International Cricket Stadium.

62Polity and Governance
Which of the following is the objective of the Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill 2010 passed by the Lok Sabha in March 2011 ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) To provide IIT status to eight new institutions

Explanation

The Institutes of Technology (Amendment) Bill 2010 was introduced to amend the Institutes of Technology Act, 1961, primarily to incorporate eight new Indian Institutes of Technology established by the central government in 2008 and 2009. These eight institutions are located in Bhubaneswar, Gandhinagar, Hyderabad, Indore, Jodhpur, Mandi, Patna, and Ropar. By including them under the 1961 Act, the Bill formally accorded them the status of Institutes of National Importance, allowing them to award their own degrees and establishing a statutory framework for their governance. Additionally, the Bill sought to integrate the Institute of Technology, Banaras Hindu University (IT-BHU) into the IIT system as IIT-BHU. Prior to this legislation, these new institutions functioned as registered societies and lacked the legal authority to function as autonomous degree-granting bodies under the specific IIT legal framework.

63Economy
The Economic Survey 2010-2011 has suggested the creation of a National Forest Land Bank to
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) resolve differences between nodal ministries like Coal and Power and the Ministry of Environment

Explanation

The Economic Survey 2010-11 proposed the creation of a National Forest Land Bank to streamline the process of forest clearances for industrial and infrastructure projects. At the time, significant delays occurred because project proponents struggled to identify suitable non-forest land for compensatory afforestation, leading to frequent policy deadlocks between developmental ministries, such as Coal, Power, and Steel, and the Ministry of Environment and Forests. By creating a pre-identified pool of land available for afforestation, the government aimed to resolve these inter-ministerial differences and expedite the diversion of forest land for developmental purposes while ensuring environmental compliance.

64Economy
India has identified ten new hydropower projects for development to achieve the target of import of 10,000 MW of hydropower from a neighbouring country by 2020. Which is that country ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Bhutan

Explanation

During the visit of Prime Minister Manmohan Singh to Bhutan in May 2008, India and Bhutan committed to a target of developing 10,000 MW of hydropower capacity in Bhutan by the year 2020 for export to India. To implement this, the two countries identified ten specific hydropower projects including Punatsangchhu-I, Punatsangchhu-II, Mangdechhu, Sankosh, Kuri-Gongri, Chamkharchhu-I, Kholongchhu, Amochhu, Wangchhu, and Bunakha. This bilateral cooperation is governed by the 2006 Agreement on Cooperation in Hydropower and the subsequent 2009 Protocol, aiming to utilize Bhutan's significant glacial river potential to provide clean energy to India's power grid while generating substantial export revenue for the Bhutanese economy.

65History
Certain measures of Dalhousie created serious discontent in India which were also responsible for the revolt of 1857. Which of the following measures was not one of them ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Introduction of Railways and Telegraph

Explanation

The introduction of Railways and the Telegraph system by Lord Dalhousie was primarily a technological and administrative modernization intended to facilitate military coordination, commercial expansion, and colonial governance. While these innovations were initially met with some suspicion and superstitious rumors among the local population—such as the telegraph being viewed as a divine or accursed string—they did not constitute a primary source of the deep-seated political and social discontent that triggered the 1857 revolt. Unlike political measures that directly dispossessed the Indian ruling class or educational reforms that were perceived as systematic attacks on traditional religious and cultural identities, the railways and telegraphs were structural improvements. They are historically regarded as constructive reforms of Dalhousie's tenure that enhanced connectivity rather than being fundamental grievances that drove widespread rebellion.

66Art and Culture
The Bahmani architecture in the Deccan is marked by its distinct originality and independent style. Which of the following statements about Bahmani architecture are correct ? 1. It derived its elements from the architectural styles of the Delhi Sultanate and that of distant Persia. 2. The forts built by the Bahmanis were undoubtedly the greatest monuments far exceeding any of the same period in Europe. 3. Bahmani architecture did reflect a harmonious blend of both Hindu and Islamic styles. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Bahmani architecture of the Deccan represents a distinct evolution of the Indo-Islamic tradition. Statement 1 is correct as the early structures in Gulbarga were heavily influenced by the Tughlaq style of the Delhi Sultanate, characterized by thick, sloping walls and simple domes. As the sultanate matured and shifted its capital to Bidar, it established direct cultural links with Persia, leading to the introduction of Persian elements such as high minarets, grand gateways, and vibrant glazed tilework, exemplified by the Madrasa of Mahmud Gawan. Statement 3 is correct because the Bahmani style was a product of local synthesis. It combined Islamic structural forms like the arch and dome with indigenous Hindu craftsmanship. This fusion is visible in the use of local stone, the adaptation of temple-style pillars and brackets, and the inclusion of traditional floral and geometric motifs within the mosques and tombs of the period.

67Art and Culture
India is a land of many beautiful ancient temples. Which one among the following temples displays the most extensive and sumptuous rock-cut shrines and is the most marvellous architectural freak in India ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) The Kailash temple at Ellora

Explanation

The Kailash temple at Ellora, designated as Cave 16, is a colossal monolithic structure carved out of a single basalt cliff. Commissioned by the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I in the 8th century, it is unique because the artisans carved the entire temple from the top down, excavating nearly 200,000 tonnes of rock to reveal a free-standing, multi-storeyed temple complex. This extraordinary method of construction, where the sculptors started at the peak of the hill and worked downwards to the base, led historians and architects to describe it as a marvellous architectural freak. The temple includes a monumental gateway, a Nandi pavilion, and a main sanctuary surrounded by subsidiary shrines and pillared galleries, all featuring intricate relief carvings that represent the zenith of Indian rock-cut architecture.

68Art and Culture
The Nagar style of architecture developed mostly in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) North India

Explanation

The Nagara style of architecture is the primary style of Hindu temple construction prevalent in Northern India, originating during the Gupta period and reaching its peak between the 7th and 13th centuries. This style is traditionally associated with the region between the Himalayas and the Vindhya mountains. Its defining characteristics include the square plan of the temple and the curvilinear tower known as the Shikhara, which tapers upwards and is topped by a fluted disc called an Amalak and a pot-shaped Finial known as the Kalash. Nagara temples are typically built on elevated stone platforms called Jagati and generally do not feature the elaborate boundary walls or massive gateways that are common in other regional styles. Key examples of this architectural tradition can be found in the temples of Khajuraho, the Sun Temple at Konark, and the Dilwara Temples.

69Economy
Which one among the following is not a component of fiscal policy ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Trade policy

Explanation

Fiscal policy refers to the use of government spending and revenue collection to influence the economy. Its primary instruments are taxation, public expenditure, and public debt management, which are used to achieve economic stability and growth. Trade policy, also known as commercial policy, is a separate area of economic policy that governs international trade, including tariffs, quotas, and trade agreements. While trade policy can affect revenue through customs duties, its central objective is the regulation of imports and exports and the management of the balance of payments, rather than the internal management of the government's budget and domestic demand.

70Economy
Import substitution implies
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) replacing import items by domestic production of such items

Explanation

Import substitution is an economic strategy that advocates replacing foreign imports with domestic production. The core objective of this policy is to reduce a countrys dependency on foreign goods and conserve its foreign exchange reserves by fostering the growth of local industries. By manufacturing products internally that were previously sourced from abroad, a nation seeks to achieve self-reliance and stimulate domestic industrial development. Historically, this approach involves the use of trade barriers, such as tariffs and quotas, to protect nascent domestic industries from international competition until they become sufficiently productive and competitive.

71Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the part/parts of the procedure for the impeachment of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ? 1. A motion signed by atleast 100 members of Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha is delivered to the Speaker or Chairman. 2. The motion is investigated by a Committee of three Jurists constituted by the Speaker or Chairman. 3. The Judge will be removed by the Speaker or Chairman if the Committee of three Jurists recommends. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge is governed by Article 124(4) of the Constitution and the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. A removal motion must be signed by at least 100 members in the case of the Lok Sabha or 50 members in the case of the Rajya Sabha before being delivered to the Speaker or Chairman. If the motion is admitted, the Speaker or Chairman constitutes a three-member committee to investigate the charges of misbehaviour or incapacity. This committee consists of a Supreme Court judge, a Chief Justice of a High Court, and a distinguished jurist. While the committee’s report is a prerequisite for further action, the actual removal requires the motion to be passed by each House of Parliament by a special majority (majority of total membership and two-thirds of members present and voting), followed by an order issued by the President of India. The Speaker or Chairman does not have the authority to remove a judge.

72Polity and Governance
In the Constitution of India, the word 'Federal' is used in
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) nowhere

Explanation

The word Federal does not appear anywhere in the text of the Indian Constitution. While the Indian political system is federal in nature, characterized by a division of powers between the Centre and the States, the framers deliberately avoided the term. Instead, Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a Union of States. This terminology was chosen to signify that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement by the units to join a federation, and that the component units have no liberty to secede from it. Even though the Supreme Court has identified federalism as part of the basic structure of the Constitution, the formal document maintains the use of Union rather than Federal.

73Science and Technology
Vehicles carrying inflammable materials usually have metallic ropes touching the ground during motion in order to
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) conduct the charge produced by friction

Explanation

As a vehicle moves, friction between the air and the vehicle's body, along with the internal movement of the liquid within the tank, generates static electricity. This results in the accumulation of electric charges on the metallic surface of the vehicle. If these static charges are allowed to build up, they can create a high potential difference that may result in an electrical spark. For vehicles carrying highly inflammable materials like petrol or gas, even a small spark can trigger a catastrophic explosion. To prevent this, metallic chains or ropes are attached to the vehicle's chassis so that they drag along the ground. Because metals are excellent conductors, these ropes provide a low-resistance path for the accumulated static charges to flow safely into the Earth, effectively grounding the vehicle and neutralizing the risk of spark formation.

74Geography
Tsunami causes devastation near the coast of the sea as the speed of the sonic waves generated at the epicentre is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) directly proportional to the depth of the sea

Explanation

Tsunami waves behave as shallow-water waves because their wavelengths are significantly larger than the depth of the ocean. The velocity v of a tsunami wave is determined by the formula v = √(g · d), where g is the acceleration due to gravity and d is the depth of the sea. This relationship indicates that the speed of the wave is a function of the water depth, increasing as the depth increases and decreasing as the depth decreases. In the deep ocean, where the sea is several kilometers deep, tsunamis can travel at speeds exceeding 700 to 800 kilometers per hour. When the wave approaches the shallow waters of the coast, the decrease in depth d causes a corresponding reduction in the wave speed v. This reduction in speed leads to the compression of the wave's energy and a dramatic increase in wave height, known as shoaling, which results in the devastation observed at the shoreline.

75Geography
What is the correct sequence for treatment of polluted surface water ? 1. Disinfection and fluoridation 2. Screening and mixing 3. Flocculation and sedimentation 4. Filtration and sludge processing Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 2-3-4-1

Explanation

The treatment of polluted surface water follows a logical progression from physical removal of large debris to chemical disinfection. The process begins with screening to remove large floating objects and mixing to blend coagulants into the water. This is followed by flocculation and sedimentation, where fine suspended particles clump together to form larger flocs that settle to the bottom of the tanks. The next stage involves filtration to remove any remaining microscopic particles and the subsequent processing of the accumulated sludge. The final step in the sequence is disinfection, usually through chlorination, and fluoridation to ensure the water is biologically safe and meets public health standards before distribution.

76Science and Technology
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists: List I List II (Plant) (Biofertilizer) A. Soyabean 1. Anabaena B. Azolla 2. Rhizobium C. Pine 3. Azospirillum D. Maize 4. Mycorrhiza Code: A B C D
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 2 1 4 3

Explanation

Soyabean is matched with Rhizobium because this bacterium forms a symbiotic relationship with leguminous plants to fix atmospheric nitrogen within root nodules. Azolla is paired with Anabaena as this water fern hosts the nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium within its leaf cavities, making it an effective biofertilizer for rice paddies. Pine is associated with Mycorrhiza because these fungi form a mutualistic symbiotic relationship with the roots of gymnosperms to enhance the uptake of phosphorus and water. Maize is linked with Azospirillum because this associative nitrogen-fixing bacterium colonizes the root zone of cereal crops to promote growth and provide nitrogen.

77Economy
Which one of the following types of economic activities dominates in all rural settlements?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Primary

Explanation

Rural settlements are primarily defined by the direct relationship between their inhabitants and the natural environment. The economic structure of these settlements is dominated by primary activities, which involve the extraction and harvesting of natural resources directly from the earth. These activities include agriculture, horticulture, animal husbandry, fishing, forestry, and mining. Since rural life is fundamentally grounded in land utilization, the majority of the workforce in these areas is engaged in producing raw materials and food products. The spatial organization and social fabric of rural communities are built around these land-based occupations, distinguishing them from urban settlements where manufacturing and service-oriented sectors are more prevalent.

78Economy
Which one among the following is the oil exploration and production company operated in Siberia and owned by the ONGC?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Imperial Energy

Explanation

Imperial Energy Corporation plc is an oil exploration and production company whose primary operations and assets are located in the Tomsk region of Western Siberia, Russia. In January 2009, ONGC Videsh Limited (OVL), the wholly owned subsidiary of India's state-owned Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC), completed the acquisition of Imperial Energy for approximately $2.1 billion. This acquisition was a major strategic move for India to secure energy supplies from the resource-rich Siberian basin. At the time of the acquisition, Imperial Energy held several licenses for exploration and production blocks in the West Siberian Basin, which is recognized as one of the largest oil-producing regions in the world.

79Science and Technology
A 30-year-old space shuttle programme of NASA ended in July, 2011 when its last shuttle landed in Kennedy Space Centre in Florida. The name of the shuttle was
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Atlantis

Explanation

The Space Shuttle Atlantis performed the final mission of NASA's 30-year Space Shuttle program, designated as STS-135. The mission launched on July 8, 2011, and concluded with a pre-dawn landing at the Kennedy Space Center in Florida on July 21, 2011. This final flight marked the official retirement of the shuttle fleet, which began with the launch of Columbia in 1981. Atlantis carried a crew of four and delivered more than 9,400 pounds of spare parts, equipment, and other supplies to the International Space Station before returning to Earth to become a permanent exhibit at the Kennedy Space Center Visitor Complex.

80Polity and Governance
In July 2011, India and Sri Lanka signed a Memorandum of Understanding to develop the Kankesanthurai port in Sri Lanka. Which of the following statements in this regard is/are correct? 1. It is the first deep water facility being re-built in the northern peninsula. 2. The port will significantly lower the transit time of goods from and to India. 3. The responsibility of preparing the detailed project report of this work is entrusted to Engineers India Limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Kankesanthurai (KKS) port, located in the Jaffna Peninsula, was the first deep-water port facility to be rehabilitated in Northern Sri Lanka following the end of the civil war. Its strategic geographical proximity to Indian ports such as Nagapattinam and Tuticorin allows for a drastic reduction in transit time and freight costs for bilateral trade, as goods no longer need to be routed through the southern port of Colombo. Under the Memorandum of Understanding signed in July 2011, the Indian government provided financial assistance for the project, and Engineers India Limited (EIL) was designated to prepare the Detailed Project Report and oversee the technical aspects of the harbor development, including the removal of sunken vessels and dredging operations to deepen the harbor.

81Science and Technology
Which of the following statements regarding 'Prahar' missile developed by DRDO and test fired in the month of July, 2011 are correct? 1. It is a single stage missile. 2. Its striking range is about 500 km. 3. It is fuelled by solid propellants. 4. Several Prahar missiles can be fired in one salvo. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation

The Prahar is a single-stage, solid-fueled surface-to-surface short-range tactical ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The single-stage design simplifies the launch mechanism, while the solid propellant ensures the missile is always ready for launch without the need for complex fueling procedures on the battlefield. The weapon system is designed to be highly maneuverable and is deployed via a mobile Transporter Erector Launcher (TEL) capable of carrying six missiles in canisters. This configuration allows for several missiles to be fired in a single salvo against multiple targets or to overwhelm enemy defenses. At the time of its initial testing in 2011, the missile was designed with a striking range of 150 km to provide precise and rapid fire support to the Indian Army.

82History
Which of the following statements about the Bhakti movement is/are correct? 1. The Bhakti movement evolved as a homogeneous movement. 2. The Bhakti movement helped to bridge the gulf between Hinduism and Islam. 3. The Bhakti movement rescued Hinduism from the challenges of its own complexities. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 2 and 3

Explanation

The Bhakti movement served as a significant bridge between Hinduism and Islam by emphasizing the unity of God and the brotherhood of mankind. Saints like Kabir and Guru Nanak drew upon both Hindu and Islamic mystical traditions, rejecting the superficial rituals and dogmas of both faiths. This syncretic approach fostered a culture of religious tolerance and mutual respect, aligning closely with the parallel Sufi movement within Islam to create a shared spiritual space for people of different backgrounds.

The movement also successfully revitalized Hinduism by addressing the internal challenges posed by its increasing complexity. During the medieval period, Hinduism was often dominated by elaborate priestly rituals, rigid caste hierarchies, and the use of Sanskrit, which was not understood by the common people. Bhakti saints simplified the path to salvation by prioritizing personal devotion over expensive sacrifices and complex ceremonies. By preaching in vernacular languages and opening the path of worship to all social groups, including women and lower castes, the movement made the religion more inclusive and accessible, effectively rescuing it from stagnation and social alienation.

83Art and Culture
Abul Hasan was one of the most eminent painters of Jahangir's reign. He painted the well known Mughal Darbar scene describing
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Jahangir's accession to the throne

Explanation

Abul Hasan, the son of Aqa Riza, was the preeminent painter in the court of Emperor Jahangir and was honored with the title Nadir-uz-Zaman (Wonder of the Age). His most significant contribution to Mughal art was the creation of the frontispiece for the Jahangirnama, the official memoirs of the emperor. This masterpiece illustrates the grand durbar scene of Jahangir’s accession to the throne in 1605. The painting is celebrated for its exceptional naturalism, complex composition, and the individualised portraits of the courtiers attending the ceremony, reflecting the high degree of refinement reached in the Mughal school of painting under Abul Hasan's influence.

84History
The Khilafat Movement received support from both Hindus and Muslims and it was led from the front by Gandhi. In spite of this, the movement lost momentum. Why?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Office of Khalifa was abolished in Turkey itself and better terms offered to Turkey

Explanation

The Khilafat Movement was primarily driven by the desire of Indian Muslims to protect the religious and temporal authority of the Ottoman Sultan, who was regarded as the Caliph (Khalifa) of the Islamic world. The movement's primary objective became obsolete due to internal developments within Turkey. In 1922, the Turkish nationalist leader Mustafa Kemal Ataturk led a revolution that stripped the Sultan of political power, and in March 1924, the Turkish Grand National Assembly formally abolished the institution of the Caliphate altogether. Furthermore, the harsh Treaty of Sevres was replaced by the Treaty of Lausanne in 1923, which offered Turkey significantly better terms and recognized its sovereignty. These events removed the fundamental grievances that the Khilafat Movement sought to address, leading to its natural decline and loss of momentum in India.

85History
Which of the following statements about Theosophical Society are correct? 1. Its founders were non-Indians. 2. Its advocates were in favour of the revival of Hinduism. 3. It advocated for the adoption of rational and scientific approach based on western ideas. 4. It helped people to overcome the sense of false pride. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Theosophical Society was founded in 1875 in New York by non-Indian individuals, namely Madame H.P. Blavatsky, a Russian, and Colonel H.S. Olcott, an American. They later established the society's international headquarters at Adyar, near Madras, in 1882. The movement played a crucial role in the Indian national awakening by advocating for the revival and strengthening of ancient religions, particularly Hinduism, Buddhism, and Zoroastrianism. Its leaders believed that the ancient wisdom of the East was superior to Western materialism. By promoting the study of the Upanishads, the Vedas, and the Bhagavad Gita, the society provided a philosophical justification for Hindu traditions and helped Indians regain a sense of self-respect and pride in their cultural heritage during the colonial period.

86Geography
Which of the following processes would explain ozone losses in the atmosphere ? When ozone is exposed to 1. CFCs and UV radiation. 2. long winter circumpolar winds to form ice crystals. 3. singlet oxygen atom and chlorine monoxide. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are stable compounds that migrate to the stratosphere, where they are broken down by high-energy ultraviolet (UV) radiation to release chlorine radicals. These radicals act as catalysts in the destruction of ozone molecules. During the polar winter, the circumpolar vortex isolates the air mass over the poles, leading to extremely low temperatures that allow for the formation of ice crystals in Polar Stratospheric Clouds (PSCs). These ice surfaces facilitate heterogeneous reactions that convert inactive chlorine reservoir species into active, ozone-destroying forms. Additionally, the ClOₓ catalytic cycle involves the reaction of chlorine monoxide (ClO) with atomic oxygen, including highly reactive singlet oxygen atoms (O(¹D)) produced by the photolysis of ozone. This reaction regenerates the chlorine radical and results in the net conversion of ozone into molecular oxygen, effectively depleting the ozone layer.

87Geography
Which one among the following phenomena includes processes, such as production, predation, nutrient transformation, and the influx and efflux of energy and materials ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Ecosystem function

Explanation

Ecosystem function refers to the dynamic processes that occur within an ecosystem, representing the sum total of biological, geochemical, and physical interactions. It specifically encompasses the flow of energy and the cycling of matter between the biotic and abiotic components. These functions are realized through various ecological activities such as primary and secondary production, which generate biomass; predation and herbivory, which facilitate the transfer of energy across trophic levels; and nutrient transformation, which involves the decomposition and recycling of essential elements. The overall process is characterized by a constant influx of energy, primarily from the sun, and the efflux of materials and energy, ensuring the maintenance and sustainability of the ecological system.

88Science and Technology
The name of the particle 'Boson' is associated with the name of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) S.N. Bose

Explanation

The particle category Boson is named after the Indian physicist Satyendra Nath Bose to honor his pioneering work in quantum mechanics during the 1920s. Bose developed a new method for counting the states of identical particles, which he applied to photons to derive Planck's radiation law. After sending his findings to Albert Einstein, the two collaborated to generalize this approach, resulting in the Bose-Einstein statistics. These statistics describe particles that possess integer spin and do not obey the Pauli exclusion principle. In 1945, Paul Dirac formally coined the name Boson for all particles that follow this statistical behavior.

89Geography
Which one of the following consequences will happen if large quantities of domestic sewage are continuously discharged in a stream ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Reduction in the dissolved oxygen level of the stream water

Explanation

Domestic sewage contains a high concentration of organic matter, such as carbohydrates, fats, and proteins. When these pollutants are discharged into a stream, they serve as a food source for aerobic microorganisms. These microbes decompose the organic matter through biochemical oxidation, a process that consumes the dissolved oxygen (DO) present in the water. The amount of oxygen required for this decomposition is known as Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). If large quantities of sewage are continuously added, the microbial activity increases significantly, leading to a rapid depletion of dissolved oxygen. When the rate of oxygen consumption by bacteria exceeds the rate of re-aeration from the atmosphere and photosynthesis, the DO levels in the stream drop sharply, often reaching levels that are lethal to fish and other aerobic aquatic life.

90Science and Technology
Father and mother having A and B blood group respectively
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) can give birth to child with O blood group

Explanation

Human ABO blood groups are determined by three alleles: Iᴬ, Iᴮ, and i, where Iᴬ and Iᴮ are codominant and i is recessive. A person with blood group A can possess either a homozygous genotype Iᴬ Iᴬ or a heterozygous genotype Iᴬ i. Similarly, a person with blood group B can have the genotype Iᴮ Iᴮ or Iᴮ i. If both parents are heterozygous (Iᴬ i × Iᴮ i), they can each pass the recessive i allele to their offspring. The resulting genotype ii manifests phenotypically as blood group O. Consequently, a father with blood group A and a mother with blood group B have a 25 percent statistical probability of producing a child with blood group O.

91Geography
The shape of the population pyramid reflects the characteristics of the population. The shape of the pyramid in India is
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) broad base and a tapered top

Explanation

India's population pyramid is characterized by an expansive shape, which features a broad base and a narrow, tapered top. The broad base is a direct result of high fertility rates and a large proportion of the population being in the younger age cohorts, specifically those under the age of 15. As the age groups progress upwards, the pyramid tapers significantly due to the cumulative effect of mortality rates over time and a historically lower life expectancy compared to developed nations. This triangular profile reflects a young and growing population structure typical of a developing economy undergoing demographic transition, where the birth rate remains relatively high while death rates have begun to decline.

92Geography
The retracting monsoons occur during the months of
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) October - November

Explanation

The retreating monsoon season in India occurs during October and November. During this transition period, the low-pressure trough over the northern plains weakens as the sun begins its apparent movement towards the south. This causes the Southwest monsoon winds to withdraw from the northern parts of the country. By early October, the monsoon departs from the Indo-Gangetic plains, and by mid-October, it leaves the northern half of the peninsula. As these winds retreat, they often pick up moisture over the Bay of Bengal and bring significant rainfall to the eastern coastal areas, especially the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh. This season is also associated with the phenomenon known as October Heat, characterized by high temperatures and humidity under clear skies.

93Geography
The chief racial groups constituting India's population are the Dravidian, Aryans, and Mongoloids. Where do the Mongoloids live ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) North-Eastern India

Explanation

The Mongoloid racial group in India is predominantly concentrated in the North-Eastern states and the Himalayan borderlands. According to traditional anthropological classifications of the Indian population, such as those by B.S. Guha, this group is further categorized into Paleo-Mongoloids and Tibeto-Mongoloids. They inhabit regions including Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Meghalaya, and Tripura, as well as Sikkim and the northern parts of West Bengal. These populations are characterized by distinct physical traits like the epicanthic fold and are linguistically associated with the Tibeto-Burman and Austro-Asiatic language families, reflecting historical migration patterns from Central and East Asia into the North-Eastern corridor of the Indian subcontinent.

94Science and Technology
Which one among the following cell organelles in a Eukaryotic cell is acquired during the process of evolution by entrapment or engulfment of Bacterial cells ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Mitochondria

Explanation

The endosymbiotic theory states that mitochondria originated when a primitive eukaryotic cell engulfed a free-living, aerobic alpha-proteobacterium. Instead of being digested, the bacterium survived and entered into a mutually beneficial symbiotic relationship with the host cell, eventually evolving into a specialized organelle. This evolutionary history is evidenced by several prokaryotic characteristics retained by mitochondria, including their own circular DNA genome, which is distinct from the nuclear DNA, and the presence of 70S ribosomes similar to those found in bacteria. Additionally, mitochondria possess a double-membrane structure and replicate independently of the cell cycle through binary fission, a method of division characteristic of prokaryotes. This acquisition was a pivotal event in evolution, enabling eukaryotic cells to perform efficient oxidative phosphorylation to generate ATP.

95Economy
In which of the following types of economy are the factors of production owned individually ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) Capitalist

Explanation

In a capitalist economy, the factors of production, which include land, labor, capital, and entrepreneurship, are owned and managed by private individuals and businesses rather than the state. This system is characterized by private property rights, which allow individuals to acquire, use, and dispose of assets to generate personal wealth and profit. Economic decisions regarding what to produce, how to produce, and for whom to produce are primarily driven by market forces of demand and supply. The incentive for individual ownership stems from the profit motive, where owners of the factors of production compete in a free market to provide goods and services efficiently. Consequently, the decentralization of ownership ensures that the means of production remain in the hands of private entities who bear the risks and reap the rewards of economic activities.

96Geography
Relative humidity
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) decreases with increased temperature

Explanation

Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapor present in the air to the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature, known as the saturation point. This capacity is determined by the saturation vapor pressure, which increases as temperature rises according to the Clausius-Clapeyron relation. Mathematically, RH = (e/eₛ) × 100, where e is the actual vapor pressure and eₛ is the saturation vapor pressure. When the temperature of an air parcel increases without the addition of more moisture, the saturation vapor pressure eₛ increases. Because the denominator of the fraction becomes larger while the numerator remains constant, the resulting relative humidity value decreases.

97Science and Technology
The process by which heat is transmitted from the Sun to the Earth is called
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Radiation

Explanation

Radiation is the process of heat transfer through electromagnetic waves, which allows energy to travel through a vacuum. Unlike other methods of heat transfer, radiation does not require any physical medium like a solid, liquid, or gas to move from one point to another. The Sun emits a continuous spectrum of electromagnetic energy, including ultraviolet, visible light, and infrared radiation. This energy traverses the vacuum of space and is intercepted by the Earth, where it is converted back into thermal energy upon striking the atmosphere and the surface. This mechanism ensures the transmission of solar energy across the approximately 150 million kilometers separating the Sun and the Earth.

98Economy
In July, 2011 Eurozone's 17 member countries agreed to give Greece a massive financial bailout worth more than 150 billion dollars to try to rescue Greece's shaken economy. In this respect, which of the following statements is/are correct ? 1. This is for the first time Greece has been given financial bailout by other European countries. 2. Private lenders including banks are also pledging support which will give Greece easier repayment terms. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The financial bailout package agreed upon in July 2011 was the second rescue mission for Greece, the first having been approved in May 2010. A distinctive feature of this 2011 agreement was the formal inclusion of Private Sector Involvement (PSI). Under this arrangement, private lenders such as commercial banks and insurance companies agreed to contribute to the rescue by accepting a voluntary debt exchange, which involved swapping existing Greek bonds for new ones with significantly longer maturities and lower interest rates. This participation by private creditors was designed to provide Greece with more favorable repayment terms and ensure a more sustainable debt trajectory.

99History
Which of the following statements regarding Home Rule Leagues in India are correct ? 1. The movement was led by the moderate Congress leaders. 2. There were two Home Rule Leagues. 3. The movement became strong, because other mass agitations could not be launched by the Congress during the World War. 4. The government was non-reactive to the movement. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Home Rule Movement was characterized by the establishment of two separate leagues in 1916 to avoid friction between the followers of Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant. Tilak launched his Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum, with its operations restricted to Maharashtra (excluding Bombay city), Karnataka, the Central Provinces, and Berar. Annie Besant launched her All-India Home Rule League in September 1916 in Madras, covering the rest of India through a network of nearly 200 branches.

The movement gained significant strength because the Indian National Congress was not conducting any major mass agitations during the First World War. After the 1907 Surat split, the Congress had become relatively dormant. The Leagues filled this political vacuum by organizing local branches, conducting political education, and advocating for self-government on the lines of the White Colonies. The movement successfully mobilized a wide section of the population, including many who were previously uninvolved in nationalist politics, by focusing on the demand for Home Rule as a matter of right.

100Art and Culture
Who among the following was not a painter in the Mughal period ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Baz Bahadur

Explanation

Baz Bahadur was the last independent Sultan of Malwa, ruling from 1555 to 1561. He is historically recognized as a great musician and a patron of the arts rather than a painter. His reign is famous for his legendary love story with Rani Roopmati and his contributions to the Malwa school of music. After his kingdom was annexed by the Mughal Emperor Akbar, Baz Bahadur eventually joined the Mughal service as a mansabdar, but his reputation remained that of a displaced sovereign and a master of music and poetry.

101Art and Culture
Which of the following statements about Sufism is/are correct ? 1. Sufism was the mystical interpretation that developed within Islam. 2. Sufi philosophy highlighted the atmosphere of religious tolerance by speaking about the universal love in quest of the Almighty. 3. The Sufis developed a very complex philosophy and initiated very complicated practices unintelligible to the masses. Select the correct answer using the code given below :
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

Sufism originated as a mystical and spiritual movement within Islam, emphasizing the internal dimension of the faith. Statement 1 is correct because Sufis sought a direct, personal relationship with God through spiritual discipline and asceticism, moving beyond mere adherence to external rituals. Statement 2 is correct as Sufi philosophy was centered on the concept of divine love (Ishq) and the unity of existence (Wahdat-ul-Wajud). By preaching universal love and the equality of all souls before the Almighty, Sufi saints promoted religious tolerance and communal harmony, often bridging the gap between different social and religious groups. Statement 3 is incorrect because the success of the Sufi movement lay in its simplicity; Sufis used local dialects and accessible devotional practices like music (Sama) and poetry to reach the masses, rather than relying on complex or unintelligible theological doctrines.

102History
Which one among the following statements regarding Satavahanas is not correct ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) Vasishthiputra Satakarni defeated Shaka ruler Rudradaman I

Explanation

The Junagadh rock inscription of the Shaka ruler Rudradaman I clearly states that he twice defeated the Lord of Dakshinapatha, identified as a Satavahana ruler, but spared his life due to a close matrimonial relationship. Historical evidence suggests that Vasishthiputra Satakarni was the son-in-law of Rudradaman I. Consequently, it was Rudradaman I who held the upper hand in the conflict and recovered territories previously lost to the Satavahanas, making the statement that Vasishthiputra Satakarni defeated Rudradaman I historically incorrect.

103Logical Reasoning
If it is true that 'all pollutants are harmful', identify which of the following is invalid to infer from it ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) If anything is harmful, it is a pollutant

Explanation

The statement all pollutants are harmful is a universal affirmative proposition of the form All S is P. In formal logic, this indicates that the set of pollutants is entirely contained within the set of harmful things. However, a universal affirmative proposition cannot be directly converted into another universal affirmative proposition by swapping the subject and predicate. Inferring that if anything is harmful, it is a pollutant (All P is S) is a logical fallacy known as illicit conversion. While every pollutant is harmful, the category of harmful things is broader and may include entities that are not classified as pollutants, such as pathogenic bacteria or physical injuries. Consequently, the reverse relationship does not follow from the original premise.

104Polity and Governance
If it is false that 'no person can operate an industrial plant for the purpose of any scheduled industry in an air pollution control area without the prior consent of the State Board', then, which of the following may be validly inferred ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Someone did not obtain the consent of the State Board but ran a plant commercially in an air pollution control area

Explanation

The statement is a universal prohibition of the form No person can do X without Y. In formal logic, the negation of a universal negative proposition is an existential affirmative proposition. If the claim that no person can operate an industrial plant in an air pollution control area without the prior consent of the State Board is false, it logically necessitates that there is at least one instance where the opposite occurred. This means that at least one individual or entity must have operated such a plant while lacking the required consent. Therefore, the existence of someone who ran a plant in an air pollution control area without obtaining the State Board's permission is the only valid logical inference that can be drawn from the falsity of the original rule.

105Science and Technology
A camel adapts easily in a desert due to
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) hump with stored food as fats

Explanation

The camel's hump is a specialized physiological adaptation containing large deposits of fatty tissue that serve as a concentrated energy reserve. In the desert environment where food resources are sparse and intermittent, the camel metabolizes this stored fat to maintain its biological functions. A crucial aspect of this process is that the oxidation of one gram of fat produces approximately 1.1 grams of metabolic water, which helps the camel survive long periods without drinking. Furthermore, by concentrating fat in the hump rather than in a layer beneath the skin, the camel minimizes insulation across its body, facilitating more efficient heat loss to the environment during the day.

106Science and Technology
If a healthy freshwater fish is placed in saltwater, the fish
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) becomes dehydrated and dies

Explanation

When a freshwater fish is placed in saltwater, it undergoes a process called exosmosis due to the principles of osmosis. The body fluids of a freshwater fish have a much lower salt concentration than the surrounding seawater, making the external environment hypertonic. In an attempt to reach osmotic equilibrium, water molecules move out of the fish's body through its semi-permeable membranes, such as the gills and skin, into the more saline water outside. This rapid and continuous loss of internal water leads to severe dehydration and cellular shrinkage. Because the physiological mechanisms of a freshwater fish are adapted to conserve salts and excrete excess water, they cannot compensate for this sudden osmotic shock, leading to the fish's death.

107History
Which one among the following pairs is not correctly matched ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Warren Hastings : Local Self Government

Explanation

Lord Ripon is officially regarded as the Father of Local Self Government in India, not Warren Hastings. In 1882, Lord Ripon introduced a landmark resolution that proposed the establishment of local boards at the taluk and district levels, consisting of a majority of non-official members and chaired by non-officials wherever possible. This initiative aimed to foster political education and administrative decentralization. In contrast, Warren Hastings served as the first Governor-General of Bengal from 1773 to 1785 and is primarily known for consolidating British rule through administrative and judicial reforms, such as the establishment of the Diwani and Faujdari Adalats and the abolition of the Dual System of government. The modern framework for local self-governance was developed long after Hastings' departure.

108History
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched ? 1. Jamnalal Bajaj : Satyagraha Ashram 2. Dadabhai Naoroji : Bombay Association 3. Syed Ahmed Khan : MAO College 4. Lala Lajpat Rai : Anusilan Samiti
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Jamnalal Bajaj was a devoted follower of Mahatma Gandhi and played a central role in the Satyagraha movement by establishing a branch of the Satyagraha Ashram at Wardha in 1921, providing land and financial support for Gandhi's constructive activities. Dadabhai Naoroji was a co-founder of the Bombay Association in 1852, which was the first political organization in the Bombay Presidency aimed at representing Indian grievances to the British government. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan founded the Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental (MAO) College at Aligarh in 1875 to promote modern Western education among the Muslim community, an institution that became the cornerstone of the Aligarh Movement. These historical figures are accurately linked with the organizations they established or significantly influenced.

109History
Who among the following ministers, in the eight-member council (Ashtapradhan) of Shivaji, held the charge of finance ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) Amatya

Explanation

In the Ashtapradhan system of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, the Amatya, also known as the Mazumdar, was the minister in charge of public accounts and state finances. Acting as the Accountant General, the Amatya was responsible for auditing the income and expenditure of the kingdom. All official accounts of the state, including those from various districts and the central administration, required the signature and verification of the Amatya to ensure financial transparency and accuracy. This role was critical for the systematic management of the Maratha treasury and the overall fiscal health of the empire.

110History
Consider the following events in the history of Indian freedom struggle : 1. Champaran Satyagraha 2. Bardoli Satyagraha 3. Ahmedabad Mill Workers Strike 4. Chauri-Chaura Incident Which one of the following is a correct chronological sequence of the above events starting from the earliest ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 1-3-4-2

Explanation

The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 was Mahatma Gandhi's first major involvement in the Indian national movement, directed against the oppressive tinkathia system practiced by indigo planters in Bihar. This was followed by the Ahmedabad Mill Workers Strike in February and March of 1918, where Gandhi intervened to resolve a dispute over wages and plague bonuses through his first hunger strike in India. The Chauri-Chaura incident took place in February 1922, when a mob set fire to a police station during the Non-Cooperation Movement, leading Gandhi to call off the struggle. Finally, the Bardoli Satyagraha occurred in 1928, led by Vallabhbhai Patel in Gujarat to protest against the unjust increase in land revenue, which earned him the title of Sardar. Therefore, the chronological order is 1917, 1918, 1922, and 1928.

111Polity and Governance
The Indian military occupies a border village believed to be harbouring insurgents and asked the residents to vacate their houses in a night operation. Which one among the following statements is the correct interpretation of this incident ?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) Under the Indian Constitution, every individual is entitled to basic fundamental rights and hence the military cannot ask anyone to leave their house on mere suspicion of supporting insurgents. Hence, this act by the military constitutes a human rights violation

Explanation

The Indian Constitution guarantees fundamental rights to all citizens under Part III, including the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 and the right to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India under Article 19. These rights ensure that individuals are protected against arbitrary state action. While national security is a priority, any restriction on fundamental rights must be based on a procedure established by law that is just, fair, and reasonable. Forcing residents to vacate their homes during a night operation based on mere suspicion, without specific legal authorization or concrete evidence, fails the test of proportionality and legality. Since the Constitution protects the dignity and basic rights of every individual, such an arbitrary displacement by the military constitutes a human rights violation.

112Polity and Governance
There is a growing tension on the India-China border in the eastern sector with media reports of incursions by the Chinese military into the Indian side of the Line of Actual Control (LAC). In this context, which of the following Indian response(s) is/are the most likely? 1. India lodges a diplomatic protest with the Chinese embassy. 2. India utilizes the framework of the India-China border talks and the "special representatives" forum to address these issues. 3. India strengthens troops presence in the border. 4. India lodges a complaint against China at the UN.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation

The India-China border relationship is governed by a series of bilateral agreements and institutional mechanisms aimed at maintaining peace and tranquility. The Special Representatives (SR) forum, established in 2003, serves as the primary high-level channel to address boundary disputes and manage escalations through diplomatic dialogue. This mechanism is specifically designed to handle the complexities of the Line of Actual Control (LAC) and prevent local frictions from turning into full-scale conflicts. On the ground, the Indian military strategy follows a policy of proactive patrolling and mirror deployment. When incursions are reported, the Indian government strengthens troop presence and enhances border infrastructure to ensure territorial integrity and maintain a credible defensive posture. These measures combined—utilizing institutionalized diplomatic frameworks and reinforcing military positioning—constitute the standard and most probable Indian response to border tensions.

113Polity and Governance
The UN Security Council mandates military intervention in Libya by NATO forces in March 2011 in order to prevent Muhammad Gaddafi from engaging in human rights violations against civilians. Which among the following statements is/are correct with regard to India's response to the crisis? 1. India supports UNSC Resolution 1973 imposing "no fly zone" in Libya. 2. India joins in the military intervention in Libya. 3. India sends clandestine support to the rebel forces in Libya. 4. India abstains from voting for UNSC Resolution 1973 on Libya.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 4 only

Explanation

India was one of the five member nations that abstained from voting on United Nations Security Council Resolution 1973 on March 17, 2011. While the resolution passed with ten votes in favor, India, along with Brazil, China, Germany, and Russia, chose not to support the measure. India's decision to abstain was driven by concerns that the resolution authorized far-reaching military measures without sufficient clarity on their implementation or potential consequences. The Indian representative to the UN expressed that the international community should prioritize a political process and peaceful dialogue to resolve the crisis rather than resorting to external military intervention. This position aligned with India's long-standing diplomatic principle of non-interference in the internal affairs of sovereign states and its skepticism regarding the use of force for regime change under the guise of humanitarian protection.

114Economy
There is a growing internal financial crisis in the US with the possibility that there will be de-valuation of the dollar. Which amongst the following countries is/are most affected?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) China

Explanation

China is the most affected because it holds the largest amount of US dollar-denominated assets in the world, including over a trillion dollars in US Treasury securities. A devaluation of the dollar directly reduces the real value and purchasing power of these massive foreign exchange reserves, leading to significant capital losses for the Chinese government. Additionally, China maintains a heavily export-oriented economy with the United States as a primary trading partner. A weaker dollar makes Chinese goods more expensive and less competitive in the American market, which can lead to a decline in manufacturing output and economic growth within China. The high level of interdependence between the two economies, characterized by China acting as a major creditor to the US, ensures that any instability in the dollar has a disproportionate impact on China's financial stability and trade balance.

115Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is true with regard to the 'Malabar 07-2' military exercise?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (A) It was a five nation naval exercise held in the Bay of Bengal between India, the US, Australia, Japan and Singapore

Explanation

Exercise Malabar 07-02 was a significant multilateral naval exercise conducted in September 2007 in the Bay of Bengal. Although the Malabar series originated in 1992 as a bilateral engagement between India and the United States, this particular edition was expanded to include the navies of Japan, Australia, and Singapore. The scale of the exercise was unprecedented, involving more than 25 warships, including three aircraft carriers: the USS Nimitz, the USS Kitty Hawk, and India's INS Viraat. The participating nations practiced complex maritime operations such as anti-submarine warfare, surface firing, and air defense maneuvers. This transition to a five-nation format reflected deepening strategic ties and a shared interest in maritime security within the Indo-Pacific region during that period.

116Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is true with regard to the J-10 fighter aircraft?
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (C) It is a multi-role single engine next generation Chinese fighter aircraft

Explanation

The Chengdu J-10 is a multi-role combat aircraft designed and manufactured by the Chengdu Aircraft Corporation for the People's Liberation Army Air Force of China. It is a single-engine fighter that utilizes a delta wing and canard design to achieve high maneuverability and multi-mission capability. Introduced into service in the mid-2000s, the J-10 represents a major milestone in China's indigenous defense industry, as it was developed to replace older Soviet-derived models with a modern platform capable of modern electronic warfare, air-to-air engagement, and precision ground strikes. In the context of 2011, it was recognized globally as China's premier indigenous next-generation tactical fighter.

117Polity and Governance
There is an emerging dispute in the South China Sea with China aggressively laying claim to the entire area including the islands by threatening other Southeast Asian claimants with coercive power. Which among the following is/are the best conflict resolution mechanism(s) in this situation? 1. The US Pacific Command should militarily counter Chinese aggression. 2. The US should sign military pacts with other Southeast Asian nations against China. 3. The dispute should be resolved by utilizing the ASEAN 2002 Declaration on the Conduct of Parties in the South China Sea in a peaceful manner. 4. The UN Security Council should declare China's aggressive posture as a threat to international peace and security and invoke UN Chapter VII.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (B) 3 only

Explanation

The 2002 Declaration on the Conduct of Parties in the South China Sea (DoC) is a significant diplomatic agreement signed between the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and China. This framework represents the most appropriate and sustainable conflict resolution mechanism because it commits all signatories to resolving territorial and jurisdictional disputes by peaceful means, without resorting to the threat or use of force. The declaration emphasizes the importance of friendly consultations and negotiations by sovereign states directly concerned, in accordance with universally recognized principles of international law, including the 1982 United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS). By prioritizing regional consensus and multilateral dialogue, the DoC aims to enhance cooperation and build trust among claimants, providing a structured diplomatic path to manage tensions and prevent the escalation of maritime disputes into open conflict.

118Polity and Governance
The US military forces are exiting Afghanistan in 2012. In this situation, which among the following is/are the most feasible options for India to ensure that there is no take-over of the Afghan government by the Taliban and the country remains stable? 1. India should send in its military to Afghanistan. 2. India and Pakistan should sign a joint framework of cooperation to monitor the Taliban in Afghanistan. 3. India should continue to build roads and schools in Afghanistan. 4. India should train the Afghan armed forces.
Tap an option to check yourself

Correct

Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted

Show answer & explanationHide answer

Answer: (D) 3 and 4

Explanation

India's strategy in Afghanistan is primarily based on development-led engagement and institutional capacity building. By continuing to invest in critical infrastructure projects, such as the construction of major highways and educational facilities, India strengthens the socio-economic fabric of the country and enhances the legitimacy of the civilian government. Additionally, the India-Afghanistan Strategic Partnership Agreement signed in 2011 specifically outlines cooperation in the security sector. This agreement focuses on training and mentoring the Afghan National Security Forces (ANSF) to improve their professional capabilities. By equipping the local forces with the necessary skills to handle internal security and counter-insurgency, India supports the creation of a self-sustaining security apparatus capable of maintaining stability without the need for direct foreign military intervention.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4C
  5. 5A
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8C
  9. 9A
  10. 10A
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13B
  14. 14C
  15. 15D
  16. 16B
  17. 17D
  18. 18C
  19. 19D
  20. 20D
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25D
  26. 26C
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30A
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35C
  36. 36A
  37. 37A
  38. 38C
  39. 39D
  40. 40A
  41. 41B
  42. 42B
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46C
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50C
  51. 51D
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55B
  56. 56C
  57. 57B
  58. 58C
  59. 59D
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63B
  64. 64A
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67B
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71B
  72. 72D
  73. 73B
  74. 74A
  75. 75C
  76. 76B
  77. 77A
  78. 78D
  79. 79C
  80. 80A
  81. 81C
  82. 82B
  83. 83A
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86A
  87. 87B
  88. 88B
  89. 89D
  90. 90C
  91. 91C
  92. 92D
  93. 93C
  94. 94D
  95. 95A
  96. 96B
  97. 97C
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100D
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106A
  107. 107C
  108. 108D
  109. 109B
  110. 110C
  111. 111C
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114B
  115. 115A
  116. 116C
  117. 117B
  118. 118D

Other years

Practice these questions the way the exam asks them

Timed mock tests from real previous year questions, instant scores, topic-wise analysis and an AI mentor to clear doubts — free to start.

Start practising free

Previous year papers for other exams