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CAPF AC Paper I 2019 Question Paper with Answers & Explanations

All 122 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

122
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8
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Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology3125%
  • Geography1916%
  • History1916%
  • Polity and Governance1714%
  • Economy1311%
  • Quantitative Aptitude1210%
  • Logical Reasoning87%
  • Art and Culture32%
1Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about the Attorney-General of India is NOT correct?
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Answer: (D) He is a whole-time counsel for the Government

Explanation

The Attorney-General of India is not a whole-time counsel for the Government and does not fall into the category of a government servant. Unlike members of the civil services, the Attorney-General is not debarred from private legal practice, provided they do not advise or hold a brief against the Government of India or defend accused persons in criminal cases without permission. The remuneration of the Attorney-General is determined by the President and is not a fixed salary established by the constitution or the legislature as a permanent employee of the state.

2Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements relating to short notice questions asked in the Legislature: 1. These relate to matters of urgent public importance and can be asked for oral answer at a notice less than 10 days 2. Short notice questions can be admissible if the Minister concerned agrees to answer to it 3. Short notice questions are asked during question hour Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Short notice questions are parliamentary devices used to seek information on matters of urgent public importance that require immediate attention. Unlike regular starred or unstarred questions, which generally require a minimum notice period of fifteen days, short notice questions can be submitted with a notice of less than ten clear days. These questions are always intended for oral answers on the floor of the House, allowing for immediate supplementary questions and clarifications.

The procedure for admitting these questions involves a two-step verification. First, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha must be satisfied that the matter is indeed of an urgent nature. Second, the admissibility is contingent upon the consent of the Minister concerned. The Minister must agree to answer the question at shorter notice for it to be scheduled. If the Minister refuses to answer at short notice, the Presiding Officer has the discretion to direct that the question be treated as a regular starred question for the next available date, provided the subject matter is of sufficient public importance. These questions are typically taken up immediately after the conclusion of the regular Question Hour.

3Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is NOT true of the 10th schedule of the Constitution of India pertaining to disqualification of members of the Parliament and State legislatures?
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Answer: (D) The Supreme Court of India is the final arbiter in cases which remain unresolved

Explanation

Paragraph 6 of the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India explicitly states that if any question arises as to whether a member of a House has become subject to disqualification under the schedule, the question shall be referred for the decision of the Chairman or the Speaker of such House and their decision shall be final. The schedule does not contain any provision designating the Supreme Court of India as the final arbiter. In fact, Paragraph 7 of the schedule originally sought to exclude the jurisdiction of all courts in matters connected with the disqualification of members. While the Supreme Court in the Kihoto Hollohan case (1992) struck down Paragraph 7 and ruled that the Presiding Officer's decision is subject to judicial review, this authority arises from the Court's power to review the legality of a tribunal's decision rather than being a provision within the Tenth Schedule itself.

4Polity and Governance
Which of the following pairs of list and contents is/are correctly matched? 1. State list : Public health and sanitation 2. Union list : Citizenship, naturalisation and aliens 3. Concurrent : Legal, medical list and other professions Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution distributes legislative powers between the Union and the States through three lists. Entry 6 of the State List (List II) includes public health and sanitation, hospitals, and dispensaries, placing the primary responsibility for these services on state governments. Entry 17 of the Union List (List I) covers citizenship, naturalisation, and aliens, as these matters involve national sovereignty and are managed exclusively by the Parliament. Entry 26 of the Concurrent List (List III) pertains to legal, medical, and other professions, which empowers both the Union and the State Legislatures to enact laws regarding the regulation and standards of professional practices. All three pairs correctly match the legislative subjects to their respective lists as defined in the Constitution.

5Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Bacteria contain cytoplasm but viruses do not

Explanation

Bacteria are unicellular prokaryotic organisms that possess a cellular structure, including a cell membrane and a jelly-like fluid called cytoplasm. This cytoplasm houses the genetic material, ribosomes, and various enzymes required for metabolic processes. In contrast, viruses are non-cellular, infectious agents consisting of a nucleic acid core (DNA or RNA) surrounded by a protein coat known as a capsid. Since viruses lack a cellular organization, they do not contain cytoplasm or any metabolic machinery, functioning instead as obligate intracellular parasites that rely entirely on the host cell's resources to replicate.

6Science and Technology
Which one of the following will happen if the medium surrounding the cell has a higher concentration than the cell?
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Answer: (D) The cell will lose water

Explanation

When a cell is placed in a medium with a higher solute concentration than its own cytoplasm, the surrounding environment is considered a hypertonic solution. Osmosis dictates that water moves across the semi-permeable cell membrane from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. Since the external medium has more solutes and thus a lower concentration of water compared to the interior of the cell, the net flow of water is directed out of the cell. This process results in the cell losing water and subsequently shrinking.

7Science and Technology
Rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) looks rough under the microscope because of the attachment of which one of following cell organelles to its surface?
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Answer: (D) Ribosomes

Explanation

The Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) derives its name and characteristic appearance from the presence of numerous ribosomes attached to its outer, cytosolic surface. These ribosomes are small, granular organelles responsible for protein synthesis. When viewed under an electron microscope, the attachment of these ribosomes creates a studded or bumpy texture, distinguishing it from the Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER), which lacks these granules. The ribosomes on the RER are specifically involved in producing proteins that are destined for secretion, incorporation into the plasma membrane, or for use within specific organelles.

8Science and Technology
The increase in length of stems and roots in plants is due to
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Answer: (C) apical meristem

Explanation

Apical meristems are located at the growing tips of stems and roots, specifically in the shoot apex and the root apex. These regions contain undifferentiated cells that undergo rapid mitotic division to produce new cells. The continuous addition of these cells, followed by their elongation and differentiation, results in the primary growth of the plant, which is characterized by an increase in the length of the plant body. This allows the root system to extend deeper into the soil and the shoot system to grow taller to optimize light absorption.

9Science and Technology
In plant cells, the turgidity and rigidity is provided by
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Answer: (D) vacuoles full of cell sap

Explanation

In plant cells, the large central vacuole is filled with a fluid known as cell sap, which contains water, sugars, salts, and proteins. This vacuole exerts an outward osmotic pressure, known as turgor pressure, against the rigid cell wall. This pressure keeps the cell stretched and firm, providing the necessary turgidity and structural rigidity that allows the plant to maintain its shape and stay upright even without a skeletal system. In many mature plant cells, the vacuole can occupy up to 90 percent of the total cell volume, making it the primary component responsible for maintaining the mechanical stability of the cell.

10Science and Technology
Pollens are produced in
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Answer: (D) Anther

Explanation

Pollens, which function as the male gametophytes in flowering plants, are produced within the anthers. The anther is the fertile, terminal portion of the stamen, which is the male reproductive organ of the flower. Inside the anther, diploid cells in the microsporangia undergo meiosis to produce haploid microspores, which then develop into mature pollen grains. Once the pollen grains reach maturity, the anther wall splits open in a process called dehiscence to release them for pollination.

11Economy
According to the Law of Diminishing Returns, in a production function when more and more units of the variable factor are used, holding the quantities of a fixed factor constant, a point is reached beyond which
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Answer: (C) the marginal product will diminish

Explanation

The Law of Diminishing Returns, also known as the Law of Diminishing Marginal Productivity, is a fundamental principle of economics that describes the short-run production process where at least one factor is fixed. It states that as equal increments of a variable factor are added to a fixed factor, the resulting additions to the total product will eventually decrease. Mathematically, the marginal product (MP) is the change in total product (ΔTP) divided by the change in the variable factor (ΔL), represented as MP = ΔTP/ΔL. In the initial stages, increasing the variable factor may lead to rising efficiency through specialization and better utilization of the fixed factor. However, beyond a certain optimal point, the fixed factor becomes over-utilized or crowded, causing each additional unit of the variable factor to contribute less to the total output than the preceding unit, thus leading to a diminishing marginal product.

12Economy
Which one of the following is NOT correct ?
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Answer: (B) The Marginal Revenue curve of the monopoly firm is above its Average Revenue curve

Explanation

In a monopoly market, the firm faces a downward-sloping demand curve, which represents the Average Revenue (AR). Because the firm must lower the price to sell an additional unit of the product, the revenue added by the last unit sold is always less than the price at which it is sold. Mathematically, if the demand function is P = a - bQ, then Total Revenue is TR = PQ = aQ - bQ². The Marginal Revenue is the derivative of Total Revenue with respect to quantity, MR = d(TR)/dQ = a - 2bQ. Since a - 2bQ is less than a - bQ for any positive quantity, the MR curve necessarily lies below the AR curve. The statement that the MR curve is above the AR curve is therefore incorrect.

13Economy
Zero price elasticity of demand means
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Answer: (A) whatever the change in price, there is absolutely no change in demand

Explanation

Price elasticity of demand measures the responsiveness of the quantity demanded of a good to a change in its price, calculated using the formula E_d = (percentage change in quantity demanded) / (percentage change in price). When price elasticity of demand is zero, it indicates that the quantity demanded does not change at all, regardless of the magnitude of the change in price. This state is known as perfectly inelastic demand. Graphically, this is represented by a vertical demand curve parallel to the y-axis (price axis). In such a scenario, consumers are willing or compelled to buy a fixed amount of a product irrespective of its cost, which is often observed in the case of essential life-saving goods or unique necessities with no available substitutes.

14Economy
Suppose that the price of a commodity increases from ₹90 to ₹110 and the demand curve shows that the corresponding reduction in quantity demanded is from 240 units to 160 units. Then, the coefficient of the price elasticity of demand will be
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Answer: (D) 2.0

Explanation

The coefficient of price elasticity of demand is determined using the Arc Elasticity formula, which measures responsiveness over a specific range of the demand curve by using the average of the initial and final values:

E_d = (ΔQ/ΔP) × (P₁ + P₂)/(Q₁ + Q₂)

Based on the provided values: Initial Price (P₁) = 90, New Price (P₂) = 110 Initial Quantity (Q₁) = 240, New Quantity (Q₂) = 160

First, calculate the change in quantity (ΔQ) and the change in price (ΔP): ΔQ = |160 - 240| = 80 ΔP = |110 - 90| = 20

Next, find the sum of the prices (P₁ + P₂) and the sum of the quantities (Q₁ + Q₂): P₁ + P₂ = 90 + 110 = 200 Q₁ + Q₂ = 240 + 160 = 400

Substituting these values into the formula: E_d = (80/20) × (200/400) E_d = 4 × 0.5 = 2.0

The calculation results in a price elasticity coefficient of 2.0.

15Economy
What is the real interest rate on a Credit Card loan bearing 24% interest per year, if the rate of inflation is 10% ?
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Answer: (C) 14%

Explanation

The real interest rate represents the true cost of borrowing or the actual yield on an investment after accounting for the effects of inflation. It is determined using the Fisher equation, which describes the relationship between the nominal interest rate, the real interest rate, and the inflation rate. The simplified linear approximation of this relationship is:

r = i - π

In this formula, r denotes the real interest rate, i represents the nominal interest rate, and π signifies the rate of inflation. Given a nominal interest rate of 24% and an inflation rate of 10%, the calculation is:

r = 24% - 10% = 14%

While the exact Fisher equation is expressed as (1 + i) = (1 + r)(1 + π), the simplified subtraction method is the standard approach used in general economic assessments to find the approximate real rate of return or borrowing cost. In this scenario, the 10% inflation reduces the effective value of the 24% interest charged by the credit card issuer, resulting in a real interest burden of 14%.

16Science and Technology
Which one of the following is known as Wood Spirit ?
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Answer: (A) Methanol

Explanation

Methanol (CH₃OH) is commonly known as wood spirit or wood alcohol because it was originally produced through the destructive distillation of wood. This chemical process involves heating wood in a closed container in the absence of air, causing the organic material to decompose into various gaseous and liquid products. The resulting liquid condensate, known as pyroligneous acid, contains methanol along with acetic acid and acetone. Although modern industrial methods primarily synthesize methanol from synthesis gas (a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen), the historical name persists due to this original source of production.

17Science and Technology
Which one of the following will NOT show Tyndall effect ?
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Answer: (B) Lime juice

Explanation

Lime juice is a true solution where the solute particles, such as citric acid and vitamin C, are completely dissolved in water at the molecular or ionic level. In a true solution, the diameter of the solute particles is less than 1 nm (10⁻⁹ meters). Because these particles are so small, they do not have the surface area required to scatter a beam of light passing through the liquid. The Tyndall effect specifically refers to the scattering of light by larger particles found in colloids or suspensions; therefore, a homogeneous true solution like lime juice does not exhibit this phenomenon.

18Science and Technology
Which of the following are the most favourable conditions for liquefying a gas ?
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Answer: (D) High pressure and low temperature

Explanation

Liquefaction of a gas requires the gas molecules to be brought sufficiently close together for intermolecular attractive forces to overcome the kinetic energy of the particles. According to the kinetic molecular theory, applying high pressure reduces the volume available to the gas, forcing the molecules closer together and increasing the influence of van der Waals forces. Simultaneously, lowering the temperature reduces the average kinetic energy of the molecules, given by the relation KE = (3/2)kT, where k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the absolute temperature. As the molecules slow down, they lack the energy to resist the attractive forces and coalesce into a liquid state. Furthermore, a gas can only be liquefied if its temperature is below its critical temperature (T_c), the specific point above which no amount of pressure can induce liquefaction. Therefore, the synergy of high pressure and low temperature is essential for the transition from a gaseous to a liquid phase.

19Science and Technology
Aluminium, Iron, Copper and Zinc are extracted from
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Answer: (A) Bauxite, Magnetite, Malachite and Calamine respectively

Explanation

The extraction of these metals relies on their most common and commercially viable ores. Aluminium is primarily obtained from Bauxite, which consists mainly of hydrated aluminium oxides. Iron is commonly extracted from Magnetite (Fe₃O₄), a high-grade magnetic iron oxide, or Hematite. Copper can be derived from Malachite, a green basic copper carbonate mineral with the formula Cu₂CO₃(OH)₂. Zinc is extracted from Calamine, which refers to the mineral zinc carbonate (ZnCO₃), also known as smithsonite. These ores are processed through various metallurgical techniques such as smelting, electrolysis, or calcination to yield the pure metals.

20Science and Technology
Which one of the following does NOT contain COOH group ?
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Answer: (D) Ascorbic acid

Explanation

Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, has the chemical formula C₆H₈O₆. Structurally, it is a lactone, which is a cyclic ester, rather than a carboxylic acid. It contains four hydroxyl groups and a double bond within its five-membered ring structure but does not possess a carboxyl (COOH) functional group. Its acidity is not due to a COOH group but arises from the ionization of its enolic hydroxyl groups, where the resulting anion is stabilized by resonance. This unique structure allows it to function as a powerful antioxidant and a cofactor in various enzymatic reactions.

21Science and Technology
The Soda-acid fire extinguisher contains
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Answer: (A) sulphuric acid and solution of sodium hydrogencarbonate

Explanation

The soda-acid fire extinguisher utilizes a chemical reaction to generate carbon dioxide (CO₂) gas, which acts as the fire suppressant. The device consists of a metallic cylinder filled with a solution of sodium hydrogencarbonate (NaHCO₃), also known as baking soda. Inside this cylinder, there is a separate container or glass vial holding concentrated sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄). When the extinguisher is operated, usually by striking a plunger, the acid is released and mixes with the sodium hydrogencarbonate solution.

The resulting chemical reaction is represented by the following equation: 2NaHCO₃ + H₂SO₄ → Na₂SO₄ + 2H₂O + 2CO₂↑

The reaction produces a large volume of carbon dioxide gas, which creates high pressure inside the cylinder. This pressure forces the CO₂ and water out through the discharge nozzle. The carbon dioxide gas is heavier than air and forms a blanket over the fire, cutting off the supply of oxygen, while the water helps to cool the burning material below its ignition point.

22History
Who among the following was NOT associated with the Kakori Conspiracy Case ?
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Answer: (D) Surya Sen

Explanation

Surya Sen, popularly known as Masterda, was a prominent Indian revolutionary who primarily operated in the Bengal region. He is most famous for leading the Chittagong Armoury Raid on April 18, 1930, where he and his group attempted to seize the armories of the police and auxiliary forces in Chittagong. He founded the Chittagong branch of the Indian Republican Army and was later captured and hanged by the British in 1934. His revolutionary activities and organizational leadership were centered in Bengal and occurred several years after the Kakori train robbery, which took place in August 1925 and was organized by the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) in Northern India.

23History
Which of the following statements about Bhagat Singh is/are NOT true ? 1. Bhagat Singh was influenced by socialist ideas 2. He was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association 3. Bhagat Singh threw a bomb in the Central Legislative Assembly in 1929 with the objective to kill as many people as possible Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (D) 3 only

Explanation

On April 8, 1929, Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw two low-intensity smoke bombs into the Central Legislative Assembly. Their objective was not to kill or injure anyone, but to protest against the passage of the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute Bill, which aimed to curtail civil liberties and workers' rights. The bombs were deliberately thrown into empty spaces on the floor to avoid casualties. After the explosion, they threw leaflets stating their intent was to make the deaf hear and surrendered voluntarily to use the trial as a platform to propagate their revolutionary ideology and socialist goals to the Indian public.

24History
Which of the following statements about Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar is/are NOT correct ? 1. Vidyasagar's writings significantly helped to develop the Bengali language 2. He received the title 'Vidyasagar' from Presidency College, Kolkata 3. He was enthusiastic about the spread of women's education 4. Vidyasagar defended widow marriage without being convinced about scriptural support Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 2 and 4

Explanation

Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar received the title Vidyasagar, meaning Ocean of Knowledge, from the Sanskrit College, Kolkata, in 1839 in recognition of his mastery of Sanskrit and philosophy, rather than from Presidency College. Additionally, his defense of widow remarriage was specifically based on his deep conviction regarding scriptural support. Unlike many contemporary reformers who relied solely on rationalist arguments, Vidyasagar conducted extensive research into ancient texts and cited the Parashara Smriti to prove that widow remarriage was permissible within the Hindu tradition, particularly in the Kali Yuga. This scriptural justification was the primary basis for his campaign that led to the passing of the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act of 1856.

25History
Which among the following statements about the Jallianwala bagh massacre is/are correct? 1. In Jallianwala bagh troops opened fire upon an unarmed crowd 2. The troops were under the command of General Dyer 3. The troops did not issue any warning to the people before opening fire Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, when Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer led a contingent of troops to an enclosed ground in Amritsar where a large, unarmed crowd had gathered to celebrate Baisakhi and peacefully protest the arrest of leaders Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal. Upon arrival, Dyer positioned his men at the only narrow exit, effectively trapping the assembly inside. Without issuing any warning or order for the crowd to disperse, he immediately commanded his troops to open fire. The firing continued for approximately ten minutes until the soldiers exhausted their ammunition, leading to a massive loss of life. During the subsequent Hunter Commission inquiry, Dyer admitted that he had not given a warning and that his objective was to create a moral effect and strike terror into the hearts of the people across Punjab.

26Polity and Governance
The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in
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Answer: (B) Noksen Assembly Constituency, Nagaland

Explanation

The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was first introduced in India during the bye-election to the Noksen Assembly Constituency in Nagaland, which took place on September 4, 2013. The Election Commission of India implemented this system following an amendment to the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, and subsequent directions from the judiciary to enhance the transparency and credibility of the voting process. The VVPAT is an independent system attached to Electronic Voting Machines that allows voters to verify that their votes are cast as intended. It functions by printing a paper slip containing the serial number, name, and symbol of the candidate voted for, which is visible to the voter for seven seconds through a transparent window before being automatically cut and dropped into a sealed collection box.

27Economy
Name the theme of the annual report published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) on State of World Population - 2019.
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Answer: (C) Unfinished business - the pursuit of rights and choices for all

Explanation

The State of World Population 2019 report, titled Unfinished Business: The pursuit of rights and choices for all, was published by the United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) to coincide with two major milestones: the 50th anniversary of UNFPA's founding and the 25th anniversary of the 1994 International Conference on Population and Development (ICPD) held in Cairo. The report examines the evolution of reproductive rights and health over these decades, documenting the transition from a focus on demographic targets to a focus on individual rights and choices. While celebrating achievements like the increased use of modern contraceptives and the halving of maternal deaths since 1994, the report stresses that millions of women still lack the power to make decisions about their own bodies and futures, thereby defining the ongoing struggle for universal reproductive freedom as unfinished business.

28Art and Culture
Who among the following was awarded Saraswati Samman for the year 2018 ?
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Answer: (A) K Siva Reddy

Explanation

The Saraswati Samman for the year 2018 was conferred upon the renowned Telugu poet K. Siva Reddy for his poetry collection titled Pakkaki Ottigilite, which was published in 2016. This prestigious literary recognition is awarded annually by the K.K. Birla Foundation to an outstanding literary work written in any of the 22 Indian languages listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution. K. Siva Reddy, a prolific figure in contemporary Telugu literature, was selected for this honor by a committee headed by former Supreme Court judge Justice Arjan Kumar Sikri. The award carries a citation, a plaque, and a cash prize, honoring his significant contribution to Indian poetry.

29Geography
'Kandhamal Haldi', which received GI tag recently, is a variety of turmeric indigenous to
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Answer: (B) Southern Odisha

Explanation

Kandhamal Haldi is a famous variety of turmeric produced in the Kandhamal district of Odisha. It received its Geographical Indication tag from the Intellectual Property India office on April 1, 2019, which coincides with Odisha Foundation Day. This variety is renowned for its distinct golden yellow color, strong aroma, and high medicinal value due to its unique chemical properties. It is grown traditionally and organically by the tribal farmers of the Kandhamal region, located in the southern-central highlands of the state, without the use of synthetic fertilizers or pesticides. The cultivation of this turmeric is a primary source of livelihood for the local tribal population and is deeply integrated into their cultural heritage.

30Polity and Governance
Zayed Medal is the top civilian honour of
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Answer: (C) United Arab Emirates

Explanation

The Zayed Medal, also known as the Order of Zayed, is the highest civilian decoration awarded by the United Arab Emirates. Named after the country's founding father and first president, Sheikh Zayed bin Sultan Al Nahyan, it is typically bestowed upon heads of state and royalty to recognize their significant contributions to strengthening bilateral relations with the UAE. In April 2019, the UAE government conferred this prestigious honour upon Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi in recognition of his pivotal role in boosting strategic ties and cooperation between India and the United Arab Emirates.

31Science and Technology
When a longitudinal wave moves through a certain medium, the quantity which is transmitted through the medium is
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Answer: (B) energy only

Explanation

In a longitudinal wave, such as a sound wave, the particles of the medium vibrate back and forth about their mean equilibrium positions in a direction parallel to the direction of the wave propagation. This rhythmic disturbance allows for the transfer of kinetic and potential energy from one particle to the next through successive interactions. While the energy is transmitted across the medium from the source to the receiver, the particles themselves do not undergo any net displacement in the direction of the wave; they return to their original positions after the disturbance has passed. Thus, wave motion serves as a mechanism for the transport of energy and momentum through a medium without the permanent transport of the material itself.

32Science and Technology
The number of neutrons inside the nucleus of the element Uranium-235 is
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Answer: (C) 143

Explanation

The number of neutrons (N) in an atomic nucleus is determined by the formula N = A - Z, where A is the mass number and Z is the atomic number. For the isotope Uranium-235, the mass number A is 235. Uranium is defined by its atomic number Z = 92, which represents the number of protons in its nucleus. Substituting these values into the formula: N = 235 - 92 = 143 The nucleus of Uranium-235 thus contains 143 neutrons.

33Quantitative Aptitude
A snowboard pulled up by a tow rope travels at the rate of 5 m/s up a mountain. If 3000 watt of power is used, what force was applied to it?
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Answer: (C) 600 N

Explanation

The relationship between power, force, and velocity is defined by the formula P = F · v, where P is power in watts, F is force in newtons, and v is velocity in meters per second. This relation is derived from the definition of power as the rate of doing work: P = W/t. Since work W = F · d, power becomes P = (F · d)/t. Given that velocity v = d/t, it follows that P = F · v.

To find the force applied, we substitute the known values into the equation: 3000 W = F · 5 m/s F = 3000 / 5 F = 600 N

34Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT true for an electromagnetic wave?
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Answer: (C) Electromagnetic wave is longitudinal

Explanation

Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves, meaning the oscillations of the electric and magnetic fields occur in a plane perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation. Specifically, the electric field vector E and the magnetic field vector B are mutually perpendicular to each other and both are perpendicular to the direction of the wave vector k. Longitudinal waves, such as sound waves, involve oscillations that occur parallel to the direction of travel, which does not characterize the behavior of electromagnetic radiation. The transverse nature of electromagnetic waves is a fundamental property derived from Maxwell's equations and is the reason why these waves can be polarized.

35Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT an electromagnetic wave?
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Answer: (C) Sound wave

Explanation

Sound waves are mechanical longitudinal waves that propagate through a medium via the periodic compression and rarefaction of particles. Unlike electromagnetic waves, which consist of oscillating electric and magnetic fields and can travel through a vacuum at the speed of light c ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s, sound waves require a material medium such as a gas, liquid, or solid to transmit energy. Because sound relies on the physical vibration of atoms or molecules, it cannot travel through the vacuum of space. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature, whereas sound waves in fluids are longitudinal, where the particle displacement is parallel to the direction of wave propagation.

36Science and Technology
Brilliance of diamond is due to
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Answer: (D) total internal reflection of light

Explanation

The brilliance of a diamond is primarily caused by the phenomenon of total internal reflection. Diamond possesses a high refractive index of approximately 2.42, which leads to a very small critical angle θ_c as determined by the formula sin θ_c = 1/n. For a diamond-air interface, this critical angle is roughly 24.4°. Because this angle is so small, light entering the gemstone is highly likely to strike an internal surface at an angle greater than the critical angle, causing it to reflect back into the stone rather than passing through. Expertly crafted facets are designed to ensure that light undergoes multiple internal reflections within the diamond before eventually exiting through the top facets, creating the intense sparkle and brilliance characteristic of the gem.

37Geography
Which of the following conditions is/are essential for wheat cultivation? 1. Optimum temperature during growing period is around 30°C 2. A frost-free period of about 100 days 3. Light clay or heavy loam soil Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

Wheat cultivation is highly dependent on specific climatic and edaphic factors. It requires a frost-free period of at least 100 days to prevent damage to the crop, especially during the critical flowering and grain-formation stages when sub-zero temperatures can lead to significant yield loss. Additionally, the type of soil plays a vital role in its growth. Wheat grows best in well-drained, fertile soils. Light clay or heavy loamy soils are preferred as they offer the ideal structure for moisture retention while ensuring sufficient drainage, which prevents root rot and facilitates the efficient uptake of nutrients necessary for a healthy crop cycle.

38Geography
Gwadar port is located in
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Answer: (A) Pakistan

Explanation

Gwadar Port is a strategic deep-water seaport situated on the shores of the Arabian Sea in the Balochistan province of Pakistan. It is located at the apex of the Arabian Sea and at the mouth of the Persian Gulf, approximately 635 kilometers from Karachi. The port is a cornerstone of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) project, aimed at connecting China's northwestern region of Xinjiang with the Arabian Sea. Developed with significant investment from China, it is operated by the China Overseas Port Holding Company. Its geographical position provides a transit route for trade from landlocked Central Asian countries and serves as a major hub for maritime trade in the region.

39Geography
North-west part of the Indian peninsula was converted into a great centre of volcanicity in
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Answer: (A) the end of Cretaceous period

Explanation

The north-west part of the Indian peninsula, specifically the Deccan Traps, was formed by massive fissure eruptions that occurred during the end of the Cretaceous period. This intense volcanic activity took place approximately 66 to 67 million years ago as the Indian subcontinent drifted over the Reunion hotspot. The eruptions deposited successive layers of basaltic lava, covering an area of over 500,000 square kilometers. Geochronological data and fossil evidence from intertrappean beds confirm that the peak of this volcanicity occurred just before and during the Cretaceous-Paleogene boundary, coinciding with the transition out of the Mesozoic era.

40Quantitative Aptitude
What is the natural number n for which 3⁹ + 3¹² + 3¹⁵ + 3ⁿ is a perfect cube of an integer ?
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Answer: (D) 14

Explanation

Using the algebraic identity (a+b)³ = a³ + 3a²b + 3ab² + b³, let a = 3³ and b = 3⁵. Substituting these values into the expansion, we get:

a³ = (3³)³ = 3⁹ 3a²b = 3¹ · (3³)² · 3⁵ = 3¹ · 3⁶ · 3⁵ = 3^(12) 3ab² = 3¹ · 3³ · (3⁵)² = 3¹ · 3³ · 3^(10) = 3^(14) b³ = (3⁵)³ = 3^(15)

Summing these terms yields the expression 3⁹ + 3^(12) + 3^(14) + 3^(15), which is equal to (3³ + 3⁵)³ = (27 + 243)³ = 270³. Since 270³ is a perfect cube of the integer 270, comparing this sum to the given expression 3⁹ + 3^(12) + 3^(15) + 3ⁿ shows that n = 14 satisfies the condition.

Alternatively, the expression can be factored by taking out 3⁹: 3⁹ + 3^(12) + 3^(15) + 3ⁿ = 3⁹ (1 + 3³ + 3⁶ + 3^(n-9)) = 27³ (1 + 27 + 729 + 3^(n-9)) = 27³ (757 + 3^(n-9))

For n = 14, the value in the bracket becomes 757 + 3^(14-9) = 757 + 3⁵ = 757 + 243 = 1000. Since 1000 = 10³ is a perfect cube, the entire expression becomes (27 × 10)³ = 270³.

41Quantitative Aptitude
If a circle and a square have the same perimeter, then
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Answer: (B) the area of the circle is greater than the area of the square

Explanation

Let P represent the constant perimeter for both figures. For a square with side length s, the perimeter is P = 4s, meaning s = P/4. The area of this square is A_sq = s² = (P/4)² = P²/16. For a circle with radius r, the perimeter or circumference is P = 2π r, leading to r = P/(2π). The area of this circle is A_cir = π r² = π (P/(2π))² = P²/(4π).

Comparing these two values involves evaluating the denominators. Since π ≈ 3.14, the value of 4π is approximately 12.57. In the expressions for area, A_cir = P²/12.57 and A_sq = P²/16. Because a smaller denominator results in a larger quotient for a fixed numerator P², it follows that A_cir > A_sq. Specifically, the ratio of the area of the circle to the area of the square is 4/π ≈ 1.27. This result is a consequence of the isoperimetric theorem, which states that among all closed plane curves of a given perimeter, the circle encloses the maximum possible area.

42Quantitative Aptitude
Let x² + y² = 1 ; u² + v² = 1 and xu + yv = 0 , then 1. x² + u² = 1 2. y² + v² = 1 3. xy + uv = 0 Which of the above is/are true ?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The given equations x² + y² = 1, u² + v² = 1, and xu + yv = 0 define the properties of an orthogonal matrix. Let A be a matrix defined by these variables as:

A = [[x, y], [u, v]]

The condition for a matrix to be orthogonal is AAᵀ = I, where I is the identity matrix. Computing AAᵀ gives:

[[x, y], [u, v]] × [[x, u], [y, v]] = [[x² + y², xu + yv], [ux + vy, u² + v²]] = [[1, 0], [0, 1]]

This matches the given equations perfectly. A fundamental property of any orthogonal matrix is that if AAᵀ = I, then it is also true that AᵀA = I. This implies that the columns of the matrix are also orthonormal. Computing AᵀA:

[[x, u], [y, v]] × [[x, y], [u, v]] = [[x² + u², xy + uv], [yx + vu, y² + v²]] = [[1, 0], [0, 1]]

By equating the corresponding elements of the matrices: x² + u² = 1 y² + v² = 1 xy + uv = 0

All three statements are mathematically derived from the orthogonality of the matrix formed by the given variables.

43Logical Reasoning
If the first day of the year (other than the leap year) was Sunday, then which was the last day of that year?
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Answer: (B) Sunday

Explanation

A non-leap year consists of 365 days. To determine the last day of the year when the first day is known, we calculate the total number of days elapsed from January 1st to December 31st, which is 365 - 1 = 364 days.

The number of odd days is found by taking the remainder of the total elapsed days when divided by the 7 days of the week: 364 (mod 7) = 0

Since the remainder is 0, the last day of the year falls on the same day of the week as the first day. Because the year started on a Sunday, the 365th day (December 31st) is also a Sunday. This rule applies to any ordinary year, where the year ends on the same day it began, unlike a leap year which ends one day later due to the inclusion of February 29th.

44Quantitative Aptitude
A walks 10 metres in front and 10 metres to the right. Then every time turning to his left he walks 5, 15 and 15 metres respectively. How far is he now from his starting point?
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Answer: (C) 5 metres

Explanation

Let the starting point be at the origin (0, 0). Walking 10 metres in front reaches the point (0, 10). Turning right and walking 10 metres reaches the point (10, 10). The subsequent movements are all left turns. The first left turn of 5 metres moves the position to (10, 15). The second left turn of 15 metres moves the position to (10 - 15, 15), which is (-5, 15). The third left turn of 15 metres moves the position to (-5, 15 - 15), which is (-5, 0). The distance between the starting point (0, 0) and the final point (-5, 0) is calculated using the distance formula: √((-5 - 0)² + (0 - 0)²) = √25 = 5 metres.

45Polity and Governance
Which of the following is NOT provided for under the Directive Principles of State Policy?
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Answer: (D) Participation of workers in the management of local-self government

Explanation

Article 43A of the Indian Constitution, which was inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976, provides for the participation of workers in the management of industries. This Directive Principle mandates that the State shall take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organisations engaged in any industry. There is no provision within the Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV) that mandates or mentions the participation of workers in the management of local-self government. While Article 40 directs the State to organise village panchayats as units of local-self government, the concept of worker participation is legally and constitutionally restricted to industrial management.

46History
According to which one of the following plans/reports, the decision with regard to the partition of Punjab and Bengal was to be taken on the basis of voting of the Members of the respective Legislative Assemblies?
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Answer: (D) Mountbatten plan

Explanation

The Mountbatten Plan, announced on June 3, 1947, laid out the formal procedure for the transfer of power and the partition of India. Under this plan, the Legislative Assemblies of Punjab and Bengal were required to meet in two separate parts, one representing the Muslim-majority districts and the other representing the rest of the province. If a simple majority of either group voted for partition, the province would be divided between India and Pakistan. This mechanism ensured that the decision to split these key provinces was made by the elected representatives of the respective regions. Following the vote for partition, a Boundary Commission headed by Sir Cyril Radcliffe was appointed to demarcate the new international borders.

47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Max Weber's ideal theory of Bureaucracy is/are correct? 1. It refers to the dominant class character. 2. Bureaucracy is associated with structural and behavioral characteristics. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Max Weber's ideal type of bureaucracy is conceptualized as a rational-legal model of organization defined by specific structural and behavioral elements. Structurally, it is characterized by a fixed jurisdictional area, a clear hierarchy of authority, and a system of written rules that standardize procedures. Behaviorally, it mandates impersonality in official dealings, the employment of personnel based on technical qualifications rather than personal connections, and a career-based orientation for officials who receive a fixed salary. These characteristics are intended to promote objectivity, precision, and efficiency in administrative tasks, distinguishing the bureaucratic form from traditional or charismatic modes of authority. By focusing on these distinct traits, Weber provided a framework to analyze how modern organizations function through formalized roles and standardized behavior.

48Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy is NOT correct?
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Answer: (C) The Directive Principles of State Policy have precedence over the Fundamental Rights in case of conflict between the two

Explanation

The Supreme Court has established through various judgments, most notably in the Minerva Mills case (1980), that the Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles. While they are considered complementary and are to be interpreted using the doctrine of harmonious construction, Fundamental Rights generally prevail over Directive Principles in the event of a conflict. This is primarily because Fundamental Rights are justiciable and enforceable in courts of law under Articles 32 and 226, whereas Directive Principles are non-justiciable as per Article 37. Although Article 31C provides a specific, limited exception for laws enacted to implement the directives in Article 39(b) and 39(c), there is no constitutional provision or judicial precedent that grants Directive Principles general precedence over Fundamental Rights.

49Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the defining features of liberal democracy? 1. Constitutional government based on formal, usually legal, rules 2. Guarantees of civil liberties and individual rights 3. It invests political authority with potentially unlimited power Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Liberal democracy is characterized by constitutionalism, which ensures that the government operates within a framework of formal, legal rules that limit its authority and prevent the arbitrary exercise of power. This system places a high value on the protection of civil liberties and individual rights, such as freedom of speech, religion, and assembly, typically safeguarding them through an independent judiciary. By definition, liberal democracy is a system of limited government that employs checks and balances and the separation of powers to ensure that political authority remains constrained and accountable to the citizenry, rather than possessing unlimited or absolute power.

50Geography
Phreatophytes are the plants adapted to grow in
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Answer: (C) arid environments

Explanation

Phreatophytes are specialized plants characterized by extremely long taproots that extend deep into the soil to reach the phreatic zone, which is the layer of soil or rock permanently saturated with groundwater. These plants are typically found in arid and semi-arid environments where surface water is scarce or unreliable. By tapping directly into the permanent water table, phreatophytes can maintain high rates of transpiration and survive prolonged droughts that would otherwise dehydrate surface-rooted vegetation. Common examples include the mesquite tree and saltcedar, which can extend their roots dozens of meters below the surface to ensure a constant water supply regardless of seasonal rainfall patterns.

51Science and Technology
Which of the following organisms belongs to Coelenterata (Cnidaria)?
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Answer: (C) Hydra and sea anemone

Explanation

Hydra and sea anemone are members of the phylum Coelenterata, which is also commonly referred to as Cnidaria. These organisms are characterized by their radial symmetry and a tissue-level organization of the body. A key identifying feature of this phylum is the presence of specialized cells called cnidocytes or cnidoblasts, which contain stinging capsules known as nematocysts used for defense and capturing prey. Hydra is a common freshwater representative of this group, while sea anemones are marine organisms that typically exist in the polyp form, characterized by a cylindrical body that remains attached to a substrate. Both organisms possess a central gastrovascular cavity with a single opening, the mouth, which is surrounded by tentacles equipped with cnidocytes.

52Science and Technology
Bending of shoot of a plant towards light can be referred to as
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Answer: (B) Positive Phototropism

Explanation

Positive phototropism is a growth-driven movement where a plant organ, such as the shoot, bends towards a light source. This process is primarily regulated by the plant hormone auxin, which redistributes to the shaded side of the stem. The higher concentration of auxin on the darker side promotes faster cell elongation compared to the illuminated side, resulting in a directional curvature towards the stimulus. This adaptive response ensures that the leaves and photosynthetic tissues receive maximum light exposure for energy production.

53Science and Technology
Epidermal cells of plant roots increase their absorption surface by having
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Answer: (B) Root hairs

Explanation

Root hairs are long, tubular, unicellular outgrowths of the epiblema, which is the outermost epidermal layer of the plant root. These structures are primarily found in the zone of maturation and function to significantly expand the total surface area of the root system in contact with the soil. By penetrating into the microscopic spaces between soil particles, root hairs allow the plant to absorb water and dissolved mineral nutrients more efficiently via osmosis and active transport. This increased surface area is critical for meeting the physiological and metabolic demands of the plant.

54Science and Technology
Quartz is extensively used as a piezoelectric material. It contains
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Answer: (B) Si

Explanation

Quartz is a crystalline mineral composed of silicon and oxygen atoms linked in a continuous framework of SiO₄ silicon-oxygen tetrahedra, giving it the chemical formula SiO₂. It is one of the most well-known piezoelectric materials because its crystal structure lacks a center of symmetry. When mechanical pressure is applied to a quartz crystal, the internal negative and positive charges shift, resulting in an external electrical profile. This property makes silicon-based quartz essential for use in pressure sensors, oscillators, and highly accurate timekeeping devices like quartz clocks.

55Science and Technology
Which one of the following is used for water softening?
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Answer: (C) Na6P6O18

Explanation

Sodium hexametaphosphate, Na₆P₆O₁₈, is commercially known as Calgon and is used in the Calgon process for water softening. When added to hard water, it reacts with the calcium (Ca²⁺) and magnesium (Mg²⁺) ions present. Instead of forming a precipitate, it forms a highly soluble complex anion through a sequestration process. The reaction can be represented as Na₂[Na₄(PO₃)₆] + M²⁺ → Na₂[MNa₂(PO₃)₆] + 2Na⁺, where M represents the metal cations responsible for hardness. By binding these ions into a complex, Calgon prevents them from interfering with the action of soaps and detergents or forming scale deposits in industrial equipment.

56Science and Technology
If formula of sodium salt of an anion X is Na₂X, then the formula of its aluminium salt would be
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Answer: (C) Al₂X₃

Explanation

In the chemical formula Na₂X, sodium (Na) is a monovalent cation with a valency of +1. Since two sodium ions are required to balance the charge of a single anion X to form a neutral compound, the valency of the anion X must be -2. Aluminium (Al) is a group 13 element and typically forms a trivalent cation with a valency of +3. To determine the formula of the salt formed between Al³⁺ and X²⁻, the criss-cross method is applied where the magnitude of the valency of each ion becomes the subscript for the other ion. Thus, two aluminium ions (total charge +6) will combine with three ions of X (total charge -6) to achieve electrical neutrality. This results in the chemical formula Al₂X₃.

57Economy
In a closed economy with no taxes, if the marginal propensity to consume is always 0.90, then the value of the multiplier will be
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Answer: (A) 10.00

Explanation

In a simple closed economy with no government taxes, the investment multiplier k measures the total increase in national income resulting from an initial increase in autonomous spending. The value of the multiplier is determined by the Marginal Propensity to Consume MPC using the following formula:

k = 1/(1 - MPC)

The denominator 1 - MPC represents the Marginal Propensity to Save MPS. Given that the MPC is constant at 0.90, the calculation is:

k = 1/(1 - 0.90) k = 1/0.10 k = 10

This result means that any initial injection of spending will circulate through the economy, generating additional rounds of consumption that eventually lead to a total increase in income ten times the size of the initial expenditure.

58Economy
According to simple Keynesian theory, the slope of the aggregate consumption curve against income is
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Answer: (A) Positive

Explanation

In simple Keynesian theory, the consumption function is mathematically expressed as C = C̄ + cY, where C is total consumption, C̄ is autonomous consumption, Y is disposable income, and c represents the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC). The slope of the aggregate consumption curve when plotted against income is the MPC, which is defined as the derivative dC/dY. According to Keynes' fundamental psychological law, as income increases, consumption also increases, though by a smaller amount than the increase in income. This relationship implies that the value of c is always a positive fraction between 0 and 1. Since an increase in the independent variable income leads to an increase in the dependent variable consumption, the relationship is direct, resulting in a consumption curve that slopes upward from left to right.

59Economy
Which one of the following is an example of a price ceiling?
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Answer: (B) Price printed on biscuit packets

Explanation

A price ceiling is a government-mandated legal maximum price that can be charged for a product or service, designed to protect consumers from excessively high prices. In India, the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on consumer goods such as biscuit packets acts as a statutory price ceiling. Governed by the Legal Metrology Act, 2009, the MRP is the highest price at which a product can be sold to a consumer. Retailers are legally prohibited from charging any amount exceeding this printed value. This mechanism ensures that essential and non-essential manufactured goods remain accessible at a predictable price point, preventing price gouging or arbitrary inflation by intermediaries and retailers at the point of sale.

60Economy
Which one of the following statements is true with regard to an economy which is on its production possibility frontier?
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Answer: (A) The economy has to sacrifice some production of one commodity in order to increase the production of another commodity

Explanation

The Production Possibility Frontier (PPF) represents the maximum output combinations of two goods that an economy can produce given its available resources and technology. When an economy is operating on its PPF, it is achieving productive efficiency, meaning all resources are fully and optimally employed. Because resources are finite and scarce, increasing the production of one commodity requires reallocating resources away from the production of the other. This trade-off is the core concept of opportunity cost. In such a state, there is no idle capacity or waste to exploit for additional gain; hence, the only way to obtain more of one good is to sacrifice a certain amount of the other. This relationship is reflected in the downward slope of the PPF, where the marginal rate of transformation defines the rate at which one good must be given up to produce an additional unit of another.

61Economy
Who coined the concept of "Paradox of Thrift"?
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Answer: (C) John Maynard Keynes

Explanation

The Paradox of Thrift is a fundamental principle of Keynesian macroeconomics popularized by John Maynard Keynes in his seminal 1936 work, The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money. The concept states that while saving is generally considered a virtue for an individual, if everyone in an economy tries to increase their savings simultaneously during a recession, it leads to a reduction in aggregate demand. Because one person's spending is another person's income, this collective decrease in consumption causes total national income to fall. As a result, the total level of savings in the economy may actually decrease or remain stagnant, demonstrating that individual thrift can be detrimental to the overall economic health when practiced by the entire population at once.

62History
Which one of the following Forest Acts divided forests of India into reserved, protected and village forests ?
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Answer: (D) Forest Act 1878

Explanation

The Indian Forest Act of 1878 was a comprehensive piece of legislation that significantly expanded state control over forests and established a structured management system. It categorized forests into three distinct types: reserved, protected, and village forests. Reserved forests were the most restricted, designated for the exclusive use of the colonial government to secure timber for commercial purposes like the railways. Protected forests were also government-controlled but allowed for limited customary rights of local communities, provided they did not interfere with timber production. Village forests were lands assigned to local communities to meet their basic requirements for fuel and fodder. This classification framework aimed to regulate traditional forest use and prioritize industrial and strategic resource extraction.

63History
Consider the following events : 1. Foundation of the Ramakrishna Mission 2. Foundation of the Arya Samaj 3. Foundation of the Brahmo Samaj 4. Foundation of the Parramhans Mandali Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the above ?
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Answer: (D) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation

The chronological sequence of these socio-religious movements is based on their dates of establishment during the nineteenth century. The Brahmo Samaj was the first to be founded, established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828 to promote monotheism and social reform. The Paramhans Mandali followed in 1849, founded in Bombay by Dadoba Pandurang and Mehtaji Durgaram as a secret society focused on breaking caste barriers. Later, the Arya Samaj was established in 1875 by Swami Dayanand Saraswati with the objective of reviving Vedic traditions and promoting social equality. The Ramakrishna Mission was the latest among these, founded by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 to propagate the teachings of his guru, Ramakrishna Paramahansa, and to engage in humanitarian work.

64History
Which of the following are true in the context of Swadeshi movement in 1905 ? 1. Massive demonstrations were held in Bengal 2. Hartal was observed in Calcutta 3. The movement was initiated by the moderates, but was taken over by the revolutionary nationalists at a later stage
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Swadeshi Movement was a direct reaction to the British decision to partition Bengal in 1905. Following the formal proclamation of the movement on August 7, 1905, massive demonstrations were organized throughout the province of Bengal to protest the division. On October 16, 1905, the day the partition officially took effect, a general hartal was observed in Calcutta; people fasted, shops were closed, and the city witnessed large-scale mourning processions where participants tied rakhis to one another as a symbol of unity. Initially, the movement was steered by Moderate leaders like Surendranath Banerjea and Krishna Kumar Mitra through constitutional means. However, as these methods failed to yield results, the leadership was taken over by Extremists and revolutionary nationalists who advocated for more radical measures including the boycott of foreign goods and the promotion of national education.

65Art and Culture
What is Sant bhasha ?
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Answer: (A) Language of the nirguna mystics

Explanation

Sant Bhasha, also frequently referred to as Sadhukkadi, was the common vernacular and literary medium used by the medieval Sant poets of Northern India who belonged to the Nirguna tradition. These mystics, such as Kabir, Guru Nanak, and Dadu Dayal, preached the worship of a formless and attribute-less supreme reality, rejecting the use of idols or complex rituals. Since these Sants traveled extensively and addressed the common masses rather than the scholarly elite, their language became a practical, eclectic blend of various regional dialects including Khari Boli, Rajasthani, Punjabi, Braj Bhasha, and Avadhi. This accessible linguistic style allowed the Nirguna mystics to bypass formal Sanskrit and communicate their radical social and spiritual ideas directly to people from diverse backgrounds.

66Geography
If the equatorial plane of earth is NOT inclined to its orbit, then
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Answer: (C) there would be no change of seasons

Explanation

The phenomenon of changing seasons is a direct consequence of the Earth's axial tilt, which is currently approximately 23.5° relative to its orbital plane around the Sun. This inclination causes different parts of the planet to receive varying intensities of sunlight and experience different day lengths as the Earth moves through its orbit. If the equatorial plane were not inclined to the orbit, the Earth's axis would be perpendicular to the ecliptic. Under these conditions, the Sun would remain permanently positioned directly over the equator. Every latitude would receive a constant amount of solar radiation throughout the year, and the duration of day and night would remain equal at twelve hours each for all locations on Earth at all times. Without the variation in solar angle and day length provided by the axial tilt, the atmospheric and temperature changes that define seasonal cycles would not occur.

67Science and Technology
Which one of the following is NOT a luminous object ?
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Answer: (D) Moon

Explanation

The Moon is classified as a non-luminous object because it does not generate or emit its own light. Its appearance of brightness in the night sky is due to the reflection of sunlight hitting its surface and bouncing back toward the Earth. Luminous objects are defined as primary sources of light that produce energy through processes such as nuclear fusion, chemical combustion, or electrical excitation. Since the Moon possesses no such internal mechanism to produce photons and merely acts as a reflective surface for solar radiation, it is considered a non-luminous body.

68Science and Technology
When a beam of white light is allowed to fall on a prism, the maximum deviation of the emerging light occurs for
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Answer: (B) violet light

Explanation

When a beam of white light passes through a prism, the degree of deviation depends on the refractive index of the prism material for each constituent color. According to Cauchy's relation, n ≈ A + B/λ², the refractive index n is inversely proportional to the wavelength λ of the light. In the visible spectrum, violet light has the shortest wavelength, which results in the prism offering the highest refractive index for this color. The angle of deviation δ for a prism is directly related to the refractive index, as seen in the formula for a thin prism δ = (n - 1)A, where A is the angle of the prism. Consequently, because violet light encounters the highest refractive index, it undergoes the maximum deviation as it emerges from the prism.

69Science and Technology
Which one of the following phenomena CANNOT be exhibited by sound waves?
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Answer: (D) Polarisation

Explanation

Polarisation is a property specific to transverse waves, where the oscillations occur in a plane perpendicular to the direction of energy transfer. Sound waves in air and other fluids are longitudinal waves, characterized by periodic compressions and rarefactions where the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of wave propagation. Since there is no perpendicular component of vibration in a longitudinal wave, it is physically impossible to restrict the oscillations to a single transverse plane. Therefore, sound waves do not exhibit the phenomenon of polarisation.

70Science and Technology
The principle involved in paper chromatography is
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Answer: (B) Partition

Explanation

Paper chromatography is a type of partition chromatography where the separation of components occurs through their continuous distribution between two liquid phases. In this process, the stationary phase is the water trapped within the cellulose fibers of the paper, rather than the paper itself. The mobile phase is a solvent or a mixture of solvents that travels up the paper via capillary action. As the mobile phase moves, the components of the mixture partition themselves between the stationary aqueous phase and the mobile organic phase based on their relative solubilities and partition coefficients. Because different substances have different affinities for each phase, they move at different rates, leading to their separation at distinct positions on the paper.

71Geography
Which one of the following states of India has the largest area under dense evergreen forest cover?
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Answer: (B) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh possesses the largest area of dense forest cover among the given states, characterized by its unique geography in the Eastern Himalayas. According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, the state has the highest extent of Very Dense Forest (VDF) in the country, covering approximately 21,095 square kilometers. The high annual rainfall and significant altitudinal variations in the region support vast tracts of tropical, sub-tropical, and temperate evergreen forests. These forests are part of a major biodiversity hotspot where the dense canopy and consistent year-round moisture facilitate the growth of diverse evergreen species, making its evergreen forest extent significantly larger than that of the other mentioned states.

72Geography
Which one of the following is the biggest Island of Japan archipelago?
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Answer: (A) Honshu

Explanation

Honshu is the largest and most populous island of the Japanese archipelago, representing approximately 60 percent of the nation's total land mass. Spanning an area of about 227,960 square kilometers, it is the seventh-largest island in the world. Honshu serves as the economic and political center of Japan, housing the capital city of Tokyo and other major urban hubs like Osaka, Nagoya, and Kyoto. The island's geography is dominated by central mountain ranges, including the Japanese Alps and the country's highest peak, Mount Fuji. Its strategic location and vast size make it the primary island for Japanese agriculture, industry, and infrastructure development.

73Geography
Which one of the following latitudes passes through maximum Indian states?
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Answer: (C) 24° N latitude

Explanation

The 24° N latitude passes through a total of ten Indian states, which is the highest count among the provided choices. Traversing the country from west to east, this parallel crosses through Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, Mizoram, and Manipur. It enters Uttar Pradesh at its southernmost tip in the Sonbhadra district and passes through the southern districts of Manipur, such as Churachandpur. This specific latitudinal path covers a broad longitudinal stretch of the Indian landmass, intersecting the complex state borders of both the central heartland and the northeastern frontier.

74Geography
Which one of the following is the correct order of Himalayan ranges from North to South?
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Answer: (A) Karakoram, Ladakh, Zaskar, Pir Panjal, Siwalik

Explanation

The Himalayan mountain system consists of several parallel ranges that follow a specific spatial sequence from the Tibetan plateau towards the Indo-Gangetic plains. The northernmost range is the Karakoram, followed by the Ladakh range and the Zaskar range, which together constitute the Trans-Himalayan region. Moving further south beyond the Greater Himalayas, the Pir Panjal range forms a significant part of the Lesser Himalayas (Middle Himalayas). The southernmost part of the system is the Siwalik range, also known as the Outer Himalayas, which consists of the low-altitude foothills bordering the plains. This geographic arrangement reflects the chronological and structural formation of the mountain system from north to south.

75Geography
Sonoran is a
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Answer: (A) desert area of North America

Explanation

The Sonoran Desert is a major physiographic region in North America, covering approximately 260,000 square kilometers. It spans the southwestern United States, specifically parts of Arizona and California, and extends into northwestern Mexico, encompassing the states of Sonora, Baja California, and Baja California Sur. It is recognized as one of the largest and hottest deserts in North America and is biologically unique for its subtropical warmth in winter and two distinct rainy seasons. The region is well-known for its diverse ecology, most notably being the only place in the world where the giant saguaro cactus grows in the wild.

76Geography
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the positions in the Bay of Bengal from North to South?
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Answer: (C) Palk Strait - Palk Bay - Gulf of Mannar

Explanation

The Palk Strait is the northernmost feature among the listed positions, functioning as the narrow passage that connects the Bay of Bengal to the Palk Bay. Geographically, the Palk Strait is situated at approximately 10 degrees North latitude. Moving southwards, the Palk Bay is a semi-enclosed body of water located between the southeastern coast of India and northern Sri Lanka. Continuing further south, the Gulf of Mannar is encountered, which is separated from the Palk Bay by the geographical barrier of Adam's Bridge, also known as Rama Setu. The latitudinal coordinates confirm this sequence, as the Gulf of Mannar is located at approximately 8.5 to 9 degrees North latitude, placing it to the south of both the Palk Strait and Palk Bay. This spatial arrangement follows the standard geographical mapping of the region between the Indian mainland and Sri Lanka.

77Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is the main objective of Vienna Convention and Montreal Protocol?
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Answer: (C) Protection of ozone layer

Explanation

The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer, adopted in 1985, established a framework for international efforts to protect the Earth's ozone layer. It was followed by the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987, which is a legally binding treaty designed to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS). These substances, including chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), halons, and carbon tetrachloride, break down stratospheric ozone (O₃) molecules, leading to the thinning of the ozone layer and increased levels of ultraviolet (UV-B) radiation reaching the Earth's surface. The primary objective of both agreements is to facilitate global cooperation and regulatory action to ensure the recovery and long-term stability of the ozone layer.

78Logical Reasoning
There are five friends - Sachin, Kunal, Mohit, Amit and Sohan. Sachin is shorter than Kunal but taller than Sohan. Mohit is the tallest. Amit is little shorter than Kunal and little taller than Sachin. If they stand in the order of increasing heights, who will be the third?
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Answer: (A) Amit

Explanation

The relative heights of the five friends can be established by comparing the given statements. First, Sachin is shorter than Kunal but taller than Sohan, which establishes the relationship Sohan < Sachin < Kunal. Second, Mohit is the tallest person in the group. Third, Amit is shorter than Kunal but taller than Sachin, which places him exactly between Sachin and Kunal in terms of height. By integrating these pieces of information into a single sequence of increasing heights, we get Sohan < Sachin < Amit < Kunal < Mohit. When they stand in this increasing order, Sohan is in the first position, Sachin is in the second position, and Amit is in the third position.

79Logical Reasoning
If (M) is brother of (N), (B) is brother of (N') and (M) is brother of (D), then which one of the following statements is definitely true?
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Answer: (D) (M) is brother of (B)

Explanation

From the given information, we can determine the genders and relationships of the individuals. M is a brother, which means M is male. Since M is the brother of N and also the brother of D, M, N, and D are all siblings. Similarly, B is a brother, which means B is male. Given that B is the brother of N, B is also part of the same sibling group comprising M, N, B, and D.

Because M and B are siblings and M is male, M must be the brother of B. While N and D are also siblings in this group, their genders are not explicitly stated; they could be either male or female. Therefore, while we cannot certain if N or D are brothers, we can conclude with absolute certainty that M is the brother of B.

80Logical Reasoning
If in a certain language GAMBLE is coded as FBLCKF, how is FLOWER coded in that language?
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Answer: (C) EMNXDS

Explanation

The coding follows an alternating pattern of -1 and +1 applied to the numerical position of each letter in the English alphabet. In the word GAMBLE, the transformations are: G (7) - 1 = F (6) A (1) + 1 = B (2) M (13) - 1 = L (12) B (2) + 1 = C (3) L (12) - 1 = K (11) E (5) + 1 = F (6)

Applying the same logic to the word FLOWER, we calculate the code as follows: F (6) - 1 = E (5) L (12) + 1 = M (13) O (15) - 1 = N (14) W (23) + 1 = X (24) E (5) - 1 = D (4) R (18) + 1 = S (19)

The resulting code for FLOWER is EMNXDS.

81Logical Reasoning
In this item, four words have been given, out of which three are alike in some manner and the fourth one is different. Choose the odd one out.
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Answer: (D) Enmity

Explanation

The words friendship, intimacy, and attachment all denote positive interpersonal relationships characterized by affection, closeness, and emotional bonding. Conversely, enmity refers to a state of active hostility, hatred, or ill-will between individuals or groups. Because it represents a negative emotional state and a breakdown of social harmony, it is conceptually distinct from the other three positive terms.

82Quantitative Aptitude
One-sixth of a number is 53. What will be 57% of that number?
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Answer: (C) 181.26

Explanation

Let the required number be x. Based on the given information, (1/6)x = 53. By multiplying both sides by 6, we find the value of the number: x = 53 × 6 = 318

The next step is to calculate 57% of this number: Result = 318 × 57/100 Result = 318 × 0.57 Result = 181.26

83Quantitative Aptitude
If the numerator of a fraction is increased by 200% and the denominator is increased by 300%, the resultant fraction is 9/17. What was the original fraction?
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Answer: (C) 12/17

Explanation

Let the original fraction be x/y.

When a value is increased by n%, it becomes (100 + n)% of its original value. Therefore, increasing the numerator by 200% makes it 300% of x (or 3x), and increasing the denominator by 300% makes it 400% of y (or 4y).

The problem states that the resulting fraction is 9/17. We can set up the equation:

(300% of x) / (400% of y) = 9/17

3x / 4y = 9/17

To find the original fraction x/y, isolate it by multiplying both sides by 4/3:

x/y = (9/17) × (4/3)

x/y = (3 × 4) / 17

x/y = 12/17

84Polity and Governance
Which one among the following is NOT the central feature of Polyarchy ?
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Answer: (B) Right to run for office is restricted

Explanation

Robert Dahl defined polyarchy as a political system characterized by high levels of both contestation and inclusiveness. One of the fundamental institutional requirements he identified is that practically all adults have the right to run for elective offices in the government. Therefore, any restriction on the right to run for office contradicts the principle of inclusive eligibility and political equality that polyarchy represents. In a polyarchal system, the barriers to entry for political candidacy are minimized to ensure that the government remains responsive to a wide range of societal interests and that the competitive process is truly open to the citizenry.

85Polity and Governance
Which one of the following does NOT fall under the definition of the Money Bill ?
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Answer: (C) Any financial bill as per requirements of Article 117

Explanation

Article 117 of the Constitution of India deals with Financial Bills, which represent a broader category of legislation than Money Bills. While all Money Bills are technically Financial Bills, not all Financial Bills qualify as Money Bills. A bill is defined as a Money Bill under Article 110 only if it contains exclusively the matters listed in that article, such as the imposition of taxes or regulation of government borrowing. Financial Bills under Article 117 (Type I and Type II) contain provisions that involve the Consolidated Fund of India or other fiscal matters alongside general legislative provisions. Because these bills include subjects that go beyond the restrictive and exhaustive list provided in Article 110, they do not fall under the specific legal definition of a Money Bill.

86Polity and Governance
"To cherish and follow the noble ideas which inspired our national struggle for freedom" is a provision of which one of the following of the Constitution of India ?
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Answer: (B) Fundamental duties

Explanation

The provision to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom is listed as one of the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A of the Constitution of India. These duties were incorporated into Part IV-A by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. Specifically, Article 51A(b) requires every citizen of India to uphold these ideals as a mark of respect and commitment to the foundational values that led to the country's independence. While these duties are non-justiciable, they serve as ethical and moral obligations for the citizens to maintain the spirit of the freedom movement.

87Polity and Governance
Which one of the following authorities CANNOT organize 'Lok Adalats' ?
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Answer: (A) Panchayat Committees

Explanation

Under Section 19 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the power to organize Lok Adalats is specifically vested in the State Legal Services Authority, the District Legal Services Authority, the Supreme Court Legal Services Committee, the High Court Legal Services Committee, and the Taluk Legal Services Committee. These bodies are statutory entities created to provide free legal services and ensure the operation of the legal system promotes justice on a basis of equal opportunity. Panchayat Committees are local self-government bodies governed by state-specific Panchayati Raj Acts and the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act; they do not possess the statutory jurisdiction or mandate under the 1987 Act to constitute or organize Lok Adalats.

88Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct in respect of the 'ecoradicals' ? 1. They believe that human societies on earth are moving dangerously closer to the limits of the earth's carrying capacity 2. They call for strict population control 3. They stress for less consumption-oriented and waste-producing way of life Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ecoradicals, often associated with the radical ecology movement and the limits-to-growth perspective, believe that the current trajectory of industrial civilization is unsustainable. They argue that human societies are rapidly approaching or have already surpassed the Earth's carrying capacity, which refers to the maximum population size of a species that the environment can sustain indefinitely. To prevent ecological collapse, they advocate for fundamental changes in human behavior, including strict population control to reduce the aggregate demand on resources. Furthermore, they stress the necessity of abandoning consumerist ideologies in favor of a simpler way of life that prioritizes reduced resource consumption and minimal waste production, thereby realigning human existence with the biological limits of the planet.

89History
Which of the following statements about Prarthana Samaj are correct? 1. Its aim was to reform the Hindu society 2. It was based in Maharashtra 3. It believed in monotheism 4. It had greatly influenced the Brahmo Samaj Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Prarthana Samaj was established in 1867 in Bombay, Maharashtra, by Atmaram Pandurang as a powerful vehicle for social and religious reform within Hindu society. The movement sought to address social grievances such as the caste system, child marriage, and the prohibition of widow remarriage. In terms of religious belief, it was firmly monotheistic, emphasizing the worship of one God and denouncing idol worship. While it shared common goals with the Brahmo Samaj and was significantly influenced by its leaders, such as Keshub Chandra Sen, the Prarthana Samaj maintained a distinct identity rooted in the traditions of the Marathi Bhakti saints like Namdev and Tukaram.

90History
Why did the early nationalists oppose the Council Act of 1892?
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Answer: (D) The Act did not give the Indians control over the public funds

Explanation

The early nationalists were deeply dissatisfied with the Indian Councils Act of 1892 because it failed to provide the legislative councils with any substantive power over the country's finances. While the Act allowed members the right to discuss the annual financial statement, it explicitly denied them the power to vote on the budget or move any amendments to it. This meant that the British executive retained absolute and final control over the public purse, taxation, and expenditure. To the nationalists, the right to merely talk about the budget without the ability to influence or veto the government's financial decisions rendered the councils ineffective as instruments of popular will, leaving the core demand for no taxation without representation unfulfilled.

91History
Why was Vasudeo Balwant Phadke known in history?
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Answer: (C) He led an armed uprising against the British in the 1870s

Explanation

Vasudeo Balwant Phadke is often referred to as the Father of the Indian Armed Rebellion. Deeply affected by the plight of the peasantry during the Deccan Famine of 1876-1877 and the British government's apathy, he sought to overthrow colonial rule through military force. In 1879, he organized an insurgent group primarily composed of the Ramoshi community, along with Kolis and Bhils, to launch an armed uprising in the Maharashtra region. His strategy involved raiding British government treasuries and disrupting communications to gather resources for a larger liberation war. This movement represented one of the first organized attempts at armed revolution against the British after the 1857 revolt. Phadke was eventually captured by the British in July 1879 and died in exile in Aden in 1883.

92History
Arrange the establishment of the following in a chronological order (starting with the earliest): 1. The East India Association 2. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha 3. The Madras Mahajan Sabha 4. The Bombay Presidency Association Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The East India Association was organized by Dadabhai Naoroji in London in 1866 to discuss the Indian question and influence British public opinion to promote Indian welfare. The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was founded in 1870 by Mahadev Govind Ranade and S. H. Chiplunkar to act as a mediating body between the government and the people. The Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in May 1884 by M. Viraraghavachariar, B. Subramania Aiyer, and P. Anandacharlu to coordinate the activities of local associations. The Bombay Presidency Association was formed in 1885 by Pherozeshah Mehta, K.T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji following the Ilbert Bill controversy. The chronological order of their establishment is therefore 1866, 1870, 1884, and 1885.

93Art and Culture
Why was the Sittar poetry of Tayaumanavar famous?
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Answer: (C) The writings were devotional songs

Explanation

Tayaumanavar was a prominent 18th-century Tamil spiritual philosopher and saint belonging to the Saiva Siddhanta tradition. He is widely celebrated for his collection of hymns known as the Tayaumanavar Tiruppadalgal, which are quintessential devotional songs. His poetry emphasizes a path of universalism, meditation, and intense love for the Divine, blending the philosophical rigor of Vedanta with the emotional depth of the Bhakti movement. These songs are characterized by their simple yet profound language, making complex spiritual concepts accessible to the common people while focusing on the attainment of peace and union with God.

94Economy
Which one of the following is the correct arrangement of the countries in descending order according to Human Development Index (HDI) value ?
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Answer: (B) Norway, Switzerland, Australia, Ireland

Explanation

According to the Human Development Report 2018, which was the authoritative data source available for much of 2019, Norway held the top position globally with a Human Development Index value of 0.953. Switzerland followed in the second position with a value of 0.944. Australia was ranked third with an HDI value of 0.939, and Ireland occupied the fourth position with an HDI value of 0.938. These values are determined by the United Nations Development Programme through a composite calculation of life expectancy at birth, mean and expected years of schooling, and gross national income per capita. This specific arrangement accurately reflects the relative socio-economic standing and human development achievements of these four countries in descending order as per the statistical updates available during that period.

95Geography
Which one of the following does NOT fall in the areas of tropical deciduous forest biomes?
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Answer: (D) North America mainly South-west America

Explanation

The South-western region of North America is characterized by arid and semi-arid desert biomes, such as the Sonoran, Mojave, and Chihuahuan deserts, rather than tropical deciduous forests. This area experiences extremely low annual precipitation and high evaporation rates due to its location within the subtropical high-pressure belt and various rain shadow effects. The vegetation consists primarily of xerophytic plants like cacti, creosote bushes, and succulents that are biologically adapted to survive extreme water scarcity. Tropical deciduous forests, also known as monsoon forests, require a tropical climate with a marked seasonal distribution of rainfall and significantly higher total annual precipitation than what is found in the South-western United States and Northern Mexico. The climate in the South-west is generally classified as BWh (hot desert) or BSk (cold semi-arid) under the Köppen system, which does not support deciduous forest biomes.

96Geography
Doldrum are 1. equatorial calms 2. calm and light winds 3. roaring forties 4. variable both in position and in extent Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The Doldrums, technically referred to as the Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), are located in the equatorial region where the Northeast and Southeast Trade Winds meet. Because the intense solar heating causes air to rise vertically through convection rather than blowing horizontally across the surface, this zone is characterized by equatorial calms and extremely light, erratic winds. The geographical position and the width of this belt are not fixed; they migrate north and south following the seasonal movement of the thermal equator, which is determined by the apparent motion of the sun. This makes the Doldrums highly variable in both their latitudinal position and their spatial extent throughout the year.

97Geography
The gently sloping accumulation of coarse alluvium deposits by a braided stream is known as
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Answer: (B) alluvial fan

Explanation

An alluvial fan is a fan-shaped or cone-shaped accumulation of sediment deposited by a stream as it issues from a narrow mountain canyon onto a flatter plain. This process occurs due to a sudden decrease in the stream velocity and its capacity to carry sediment as the water leaves the confined channel. The deposited material, known as alluvium, is typically coarse-grained, consisting of sand, gravel, and boulders. In these environments, the high sediment load often forces the water to flow through multiple shifting and interconnected channels, which is a hallmark of a braided stream system. This results in a gently sloping landform that radiates outward from the apex at the mountain front.

98Geography
Which one of the following is NOT a palaeoclimatic geological indicator ?
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Answer: (D) Sedimentary deposits

Explanation

Sedimentary deposits is a broad lithological classification that refers to any material deposited by water, wind, ice, or gravity. While many individual types of sedimentary records contain climatic data, the general category itself is not considered a specific palaeoclimatic indicator because it includes many deposits formed by non-climatic processes, such as tectonic subsidence, gravity-driven mass wasting, or volcanic activity. Indicators like lacustrine deposits, ice cores, and evaporites are specific proxies that directly correlate with defined environmental states. Lacustrine deposits provide high-resolution records of regional hydrology and temperature, ice cores preserve atmospheric gases and isotopic ratios like δ¹⁸O that reflect global temperatures, and evaporites serve as direct evidence of hyper-arid conditions. Sedimentary deposits function as the general medium where indicators are stored rather than acting as a specific climatic signature.

99Science and Technology
INSPIRE is an ongoing initiative of Government of India for
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Answer: (A) attraction of talent for science and research

Explanation

The Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research (INSPIRE) is a flagship scheme managed by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) aimed at strengthening the national Science and Technology (S&T) foundation. Its core objective is to attract talented youth to the study of science at an early age and build the required critical human resource pool for expanding the R&D base. The program operates through three main components: the Scheme for Early Attraction of Talent (SEATS), which targets school-age children via awards and internships; the Scholarship for Higher Education (SHE), which provides financial support to students pursuing undergraduate and postgraduate science degrees; and the Assured Opportunity for Research Careers (AORC), which offers fellowships and faculty positions to doctoral and post-doctoral researchers. This integrated approach ensures a steady pipeline of scientific talent from schooling through to professional research careers.

100Quantitative Aptitude
In a test consisting of 150 questions, Neha answered 40% of the first 90 questions correctly. What per cent of the 60 questions does she need to answer correctly for her score in the entire test to be 60% ?
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Answer: (D) 90

Explanation

To find the required percentage for the remaining questions, we first calculate the total number of correct answers Neha needs for a 60% overall score on the test.

Total correct answers required = 150 × 60/100 = 90.

Next, we determine how many questions she has already answered correctly from the first 90 questions. Since she answered 40% of them correctly:

Correct answers obtained = 90 × 40/100 = 36.

The number of correct answers she still needs from the remaining 60 questions is the difference between the total required and the amount already obtained:

Correct answers needed = 90 - 36 = 54.

To express this as a percentage of the remaining 60 questions, we use the formula:

Required percentage = (Correct answers needed / Remaining questions) × 100

Required percentage = (54/60) × 100 = (9/10) × 100 = 90%.

101Quantitative Aptitude
By selling an article for ₹ 2700, a man loses 10%. If he sells it for ₹ 3600, his gain per cent is
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Answer: (C) 20

Explanation

The cost price CP can be calculated using the relation between selling price SP, cost price, and loss percentage: CP = SP / (1 - loss%/100). Given SP = 2700 and a loss of 10%, we have: CP = 2700 / (1 - 0.10) = 2700 / 0.90 = 3000

To find the gain percentage when the article is sold for SP_new = 3600, we first calculate the gain: Gain = SP_new - CP = 3600 - 3000 = 600

The gain percentage is calculated using the formula: Gain% = (Gain / CP) × 100 Gain% = (600 / 3000) × 100 = (1/5) × 100 = 20%

Alternatively, using the unitary method, if ₹ 2700 represents 90% of the cost price (due to a 10% loss), then ₹ 3600 represents: Percentage = (90 / 2700) × 3600 = (1/30) × 3600 = 120% A value of 120% of the cost price implies a gain of 120% - 100% = 20%.

102Logical Reasoning
The next term of the series BCYX, EFVU, HISR, KLPO, is
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Answer: (A) NOML

Explanation

The series follows a pattern based on the alphabetical position of each letter in the four-letter groups. Let n represent the position of a letter in the English alphabet (A=1, B=2, …, Z=26).

The first letter of each term increases by 3 positions: B(2), E(5), H(8), K(11). The next first letter is 11 + 3 = 14, which corresponds to N.

The second letter of each term also increases by 3 positions: C(3), F(6), I(9), L(12). The next second letter is 12 + 3 = 15, which corresponds to O.

The third letter of each term decreases by 3 positions: Y(25), V(22), S(19), P(16). The next third letter is 16 - 3 = 13, which corresponds to M.

The fourth letter of each term decreases by 3 positions: X(24), U(21), R(18), O(15). The next fourth letter is 15 - 3 = 12, which corresponds to L.

Assembling these letters in sequence results in the term NOML.

103Quantitative Aptitude
The least integer when multiplied by 2940 becomes a perfect square is
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Answer: (B) 15

Explanation

To find the least integer that makes 2940 a perfect square when multiplied, we first determine the prime factorization of 2940.

2940 = 2 × 1470 1470 = 2 × 735 735 = 3 × 245 245 = 5 × 49 49 = 7 × 7

So, the prime factorization is 2940 = 2² × 3¹ × 5¹ × 7².

For a number to be a perfect square, the exponent of every prime factor in its prime factorization must be an even number. In the factorization of 2940, the prime factors 2 and 7 already have even exponents (2² and 7²). However, the prime factors 3 and 5 have odd exponents (3¹ and 5¹). To make these exponents even, we must multiply by 3 × 5, which equals 15. Multiplying 2940 by 15 results in 2² × 3² × 5² × 7², which is (2 × 3 × 5 × 7)² = 210² = 44100.

104Quantitative Aptitude
When the digits of two-digit numbers are reversed, the number increases by 27, the sum of such two-digit numbers is
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Answer: (B) 249

Explanation

Let a two-digit number be represented as 10x + y, where x is the tens digit (x ∈ {1, 2, …, 9}) and y is the units digit (y ∈ {0, 1, …, 9}). When the digits are reversed, the resulting number is 10y + x. The problem states that reversing the digits increases the number by 27.

(10y + x) - (10x + y) = 27 9y - 9x = 27 y - x = 3

This implies the units digit must be exactly 3 units greater than the tens digit. Since y is a digit and cannot exceed 9, the maximum value for x is 6 (6 + 3 = 9). Since x is the leading digit of a two-digit number, it must be at least 1. Thus, the possible values for x are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

The corresponding two-digit numbers are: If x = 1, y = 4, the number is 14. If x = 2, y = 5, the number is 25. If x = 3, y = 6, the number is 36. If x = 4, y = 7, the number is 47. If x = 5, y = 8, the number is 58. If x = 6, y = 9, the number is 69.

To find the sum of these six numbers, we can treat them as an arithmetic progression where the first term a = 14, the last term l = 69, and the number of terms n = 6. Using the arithmetic series formula Sₙ = (n/2)(a + l):

Sum = (6/2)(14 + 69) Sum = 3 × 83 Sum = 249

105Logical Reasoning
If 5472 = 9, 6342 = 6 and 7584 = 6, then what is 9236?
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Answer: (A) 2

Explanation

The pattern follows the logic of the digital root, where the digits of each number are summed, and if the result is not a single-digit number, its digits are summed again until a single digit is obtained.

For 5472: 5 + 4 + 7 + 2 = 18 Summing the digits of the result: 1 + 8 = 9

For 6342: 6 + 3 + 4 + 2 = 15 Summing the digits of the result: 1 + 5 = 6

For 7584: 7 + 5 + 8 + 4 = 24 Summing the digits of the result: 2 + 4 = 6

Applying this rule to 9236: 9 + 2 + 3 + 6 = 20 Summing the digits of the result: 2 + 0 = 2

106Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the essential requirements for a person to be appointed as a member of Finance Commission ? 1. A Supreme Court judge or one qualified to be appointed as such 2. A person having wide experience in financial matters and administration 3. A person having special knowledge of economics Select the correct answer using the code given below :
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

According to the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, which was enacted by Parliament under the authority of Article 280 of the Constitution, specific qualifications are prescribed for the members of the Finance Commission. The Act stipulates that the four members (excluding the Chairman) must be selected from individuals who are, or have been, or are qualified to be appointed as Judges of a High Court; or have special knowledge of the finances and accounts of the Government; or have had wide experience in financial matters and in administration; or have special knowledge of economics.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct as they directly match the statutory criteria regarding administrative experience and economic expertise. Statement 1 is incorrect because the legal requirement refers specifically to the qualifications of a High Court judge, whereas the statement mentions a Supreme Court judge. Therefore, only the requirements mentioned in statements 2 and 3 are valid according to the law.

107History
Which one of the following musicians served at the courts of Raja Man Singh Tomar and Bahadur Shah of Gujarat ?
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Answer: (A) Baiju Bawra

Explanation

Baiju Bawra, also known as Baijnath Mishra, was a legendary dhrupad singer of medieval India who flourished during the late 15th and early 16th centuries. He was one of the primary court musicians of Raja Man Singh Tomar of Gwalior, a ruler famous for his patronage of music and for compiling the musical treatise Man Kutuhal. Following the decline of the Tomar dynasty, Baiju Bawra migrated to the court of Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat, where he continued his musical career. Historical accounts of the development of Hindustani classical music specifically associate his life and training with the artistic environment fostered by these two distinct royal patrons.

108History
The Sufi work Kashf-ul-Mahjub was written by
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Answer: (A) Abu'l Hasan al Hujwiri

Explanation

Abu'l Hasan al Hujwiri, also known by the title Data Ganj Bakhsh, was a Persian Sufi scholar and saint of the 11th century who eventually settled in Lahore. He is the author of Kashf-ul-Mahjub, which translates to The Unveiling of the Hidden. This seminal work is recognized as the earliest formal treatise on Sufism written in the Persian language. The book provides a detailed and systematic exposition of Sufi doctrines, spiritual practices, and the biographies of early Sufi masters. It was written to answer specific questions regarding the mystical path and remains a foundational text for understanding the evolution of Sufi thought, bridging the transition from early Arabic mystical literature to the later Persian traditions that became dominant in South Asia.

109History
Who among the following were jailed in the Kanpur Bolshevik conspiracy case in 1924?
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Answer: (A) Muzaffar Ahmad, S. A. Dange, Shaukat Usmani, Nalini Gupta

Explanation

The Kanpur Bolshevik Conspiracy Case of 1924 was a prominent legal action initiated by the British colonial government against the emerging communist leadership in India. The British authorities were increasingly concerned about the spread of Marxist-Leninist ideologies and the influence of the Communist International (Comintern) following the Russian Revolution. In this case, several activists were accused of conspiring to deprive the King-Emperor of his sovereignty of British India by planning a violent revolution. The four individuals who were ultimately convicted and sentenced to four years of rigorous imprisonment in May 1924 were Muzaffar Ahmad, S. A. Dange, Shaukat Usmani, and Nalini Gupta. While other leaders like M. N. Roy were also named in the indictment, they were not present in India to face trial. The case significantly brought the communist movement into the national spotlight, contributing to the formal organization of the Communist Party of India shortly thereafter.

110History
Which one of the following pairs of organization and their founders is NOT correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Socialist Party : M. N. Roy

Explanation

M.N. Roy was a pioneer of the communist movement in India and was instrumental in founding the Communist Party of India in Tashkent in 1920. He later developed the philosophy of Radical Humanism and established the Radical Democratic Party in 1940. The Socialist Party, specifically the Congress Socialist Party (CSP), was founded in 1934 by a different group of leaders including Jayaprakash Narayan, Acharya Narendra Deva, and Ram Manohar Lohia to promote socialist ideologies within the Indian National Congress. Since M.N. Roy is not the founder of the Socialist Party, this pair is the incorrectly matched one.

111Geography
Which one of the following represents the inner planets?
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Answer: (B) Planets between the sun and the belt of asteroids

Explanation

The solar system is divided into inner and outer planets, with the Asteroid Belt serving as the distinct boundary between the two groups. The inner planets, also known as terrestrial planets, include Mercury, Venus, Earth, and Mars. These four planets are characterized by their rocky compositions, high densities, and solid surfaces. They are located in the region of space stretching from the Sun to the inner edge of the Asteroid Belt, which is situated between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter. Because they occupy the space closest to the Sun before reaching the primary concentration of asteroids in the solar system, they are defined as the planets between the Sun and the belt of asteroids.

112Geography
Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists: List I (Landform) | List II (Agent) A. Loess | 1. Wind deposited B. Tombolo | 2. Glacier deposited C. Point bars | 3. River deposited D. Moraines | 4. Sea deposited Code: A B C D
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Answer: (A) 1 4 3 2

Explanation

Loess is an aeolian landform consisting of wind-blown silt and clay deposited over large areas, often sourced from glacial outwash or desert regions.

Tombolo is a coastal depositional feature where a sand bar or spit is created by sea wave action to connect an island to the mainland.

Point bars are fluvial depositional landforms consisting of sand and gravel that accumulate on the inner curves of river meanders where water velocity decreases.

Moraines are glacial depositional features composed of unsorted rock debris and soil (till) deposited by a glacier at its edges or terminus.

113Quantitative Aptitude
If 2 [3] 4 = 14 and 3 [4] 6 = 60, then 4 [5] 7 = ?
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Answer: (C) 96

Explanation

The logic for the operation x [y] z follows the formula x(z² - y²). This can also be expressed as x(z + y)(z - y).

Applying the formula to the given examples: For 2 [3] 4 = 14: 2 × (4² - 3²) = 2 × (16 - 9) = 2 × 7 = 14

For 3 [4] 6 = 60: 3 × (6² - 4²) = 3 × (36 - 16) = 3 × 20 = 60

Applying the same logic to the required expression 4 [5] 7: 4 × (7² - 5²) = 4 × (49 - 25) = 4 × 24 = 96

114Logical Reasoning
Consider the following series : 1, 9, 17, 33, 49, 73, ... Identify the missing number from the following :
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Answer: (B) 97

Explanation

The series follows a pattern where the differences between consecutive terms increase in pairs by multiples of 8. By calculating the difference between each successive term, we observe: 9 - 1 = 8 17 - 9 = 8 33 - 17 = 16 49 - 33 = 16 73 - 49 = 24

The pattern of differences is 8, 8, 16, 16, 24, … where each multiple of 8 (8×1, 8×2, 8×3, …) is added twice. Since the number 24 has been added only once to reach 73, the next difference must also be 24 to complete the pair. Adding this difference to the last term gives: 73 + 24 = 97

115History
Which of the following statements about the Arya Samaj which emerged in the late 19th century are correct? 1. Had a very strong support base amongst the trading castes 2. Introduced 'shuddhi' or mass purification 3. The moderates in the Arya Samaj were headed by Hans Raj and Lajpat Rai and set up a chain of Dayanand Anglo-Vedic colleges 4. The Arya Samaj had fewer members than the Brahmo Samaj Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Arya Samaj, founded by Swami Dayanand Saraswati in 1875, gained significant popularity in North India, particularly among the urban trading castes such as the Khatris and Aroras in Punjab and the Banias in the United Provinces. A key feature of the movement was the Shuddhi ritual, which sought to facilitate the mass purification and reconversion of individuals back to Hinduism. In 1893, the organization split into two factions. The moderate wing, often called the College Party and led by Lala Hans Raj and Lala Lajpat Rai, advocated for a curriculum that blended modern Western education with Vedic teachings, leading to the creation of the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) chain of institutions. Conversely, the Arya Samaj developed a much larger mass following compared to the Brahmo Samaj, which was primarily restricted to the intellectual elite of Bengal.

116History
Which among the following statements about Mahatma Gandhi's Satyagraha is/are correct? 1. It was during the course of his campaign against racialism in South Africa that Gandhiji first applied Satyagraha 2. The two vital ingredients of Satyagraha are 'truth' and 'non-violence' 3. The Satyagrahi resists evil by inflicting suffering on himself and not by inflicting suffering on the opponent 4. In India, Satyagraha was first tried by Gandhiji in Champaran Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi developed the concept of Satyagraha while leading the Indian community struggle against discriminatory racial laws in South Africa, specifically starting with the protest against the Asiatic Registration Act in 1906. The philosophy is fundamentally rooted in the two principles of Satya (truth) and Ahimsa (non-violence), where the pursuit of truth is inseparable from the practice of non-violence. Unlike passive resistance, Satyagraha involves the active resistance of evil through self-suffering; the practitioner seeks to convert the opponent through patience and sympathy rather than by inflicting physical or mental pain upon them. In the Indian context, Gandhi successfully implemented this method for the first time during the Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, where he advocated for the rights of indigo peasants against the exploitative tinkathia system.

117History
Consider the following statements pertaining to the Satavahanas: 1. Satavahana rulers were identified through metronymics 2. Satavahana succession to the throne was generally patrilineal Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Satavahana rulers were notably identified through metronymics, which are names derived from the mother. Famous examples include Gautamiputra Satakarni, named after his mother Gautami Balashri, and Vashishtiputra Pulumavi, named after his mother Vashishti. This practice highlights the importance given to maternal lineages or the high social status of the queens in the royal court. However, despite the use of these maternal names, the system of succession to the throne remained fundamentally patrilineal. Historical evidence and royal genealogies confirm that the crown was inherited through the male line, typically passing from father to son. This indicates that while naming conventions recognized the mother, the political structure of power and inheritance followed traditional patriarchal norms common in ancient Indian dynasties.

118Science and Technology
Which one of the following is the name given by Indian Railways to the indigenously manufactured Train 18?
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Answer: (B) Vande Bharat Express

Explanation

Train 18, India's first indigenously designed and built semi-high-speed train, was officially named the Vande Bharat Express by the Ministry of Railways in January 2019. Developed by the Integral Coach Factory (ICF) in Chennai under the Make in India initiative, it is a self-propelled engine-less train set capable of reaching speeds up to 160 km/h. The name was selected to honor the train's purely Indian origin and its significance as a milestone in domestic engineering. The first Vande Bharat Express was flagged off on February 15, 2019, to operate on the New Delhi-Varanasi route.

119Polity and Governance
The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) aims to reduce particulate matter (PM) in at least 102 cities of India by 20% - 30% by 2024. The base year for the comparison of concentration is
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Answer: (C) 2017

Explanation

The National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) was launched by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in January 2019 as a pan-India time-bound strategy to address air pollution. The programme set a tentative national target of a 20% to 30% reduction in Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5) concentrations by 2024. To measure this reduction, the government designated 2017 as the base year for the comparison of pollutant concentrations. This initiative initially targeted 102 non-attainment cities where air quality was consistently poorer than the National Ambient Air Quality Standards.

120Science and Technology
Which one of the following frontline destroyer of Indian Navy was decommissioned in May 2019?
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Answer: (B) INS Ranjit

Explanation

INS Ranjit, a Rajput-class destroyer of the Indian Navy, was decommissioned on May 6, 2019, at the Naval Dockyard in Visakhapatnam after 36 years of service. It was the third of the five Kashin-class destroyers built by the former USSR and was commissioned into the Indian Navy on September 15, 1983, with Captain Vishnu Bhagwat as its first Commanding Officer. During its tenure, the ship participated in several major naval operations, including Operation Talwar during the Kargil War and various relief missions such as those following the 2004 Tsunami. The decommissioning ceremony followed naval traditions where the national flag, naval ensign, and the decommissioning pennant were lowered for the last time at sunset.

121Science and Technology
The Indian Air Force has recently acquired the AH-64E (I) - Apache Guardian helicopter. The helicopter is made in
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Answer: (D) USA

Explanation

The AH-64E (I) Apache Guardian helicopter is manufactured by Boeing, a major aerospace and defense company headquartered in the USA. India signed a formal contract with the United States government and Boeing in September 2015 for the procurement of 22 of these advanced multi-role attack helicopters. The Apache is widely regarded as one of the world's most lethal combat helicopters, featuring advanced sensors, high-performance engines, and a suite of sophisticated weaponry including Hellfire missiles and Hydra rockets. The first batch of these helicopters was officially inducted into the Indian Air Force at the Pathankot Air Base in September 2019, following a delivery process that began earlier that year.

122Geography
Which one among the following was the first country to declare 'Climate Emergency'?
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Answer: (C) UK

Explanation

The United Kingdom became the first country in the world to officially declare a nationwide climate emergency on May 1, 2019. This historic motion was passed by the House of Commons following intense pressure from environmental activist groups and a series of global climate strikes. The declaration served as a formal recognition by the British government of the urgent need to address the climate crisis and biodiversity loss, aiming to catalyze immediate policy action towards achieving net-zero greenhouse gas emissions. While the motion was technically non-binding, it set a significant international precedent for other nations to acknowledge the climate situation as a state of emergency.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2B
  3. 3D
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7D
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12B
  13. 13A
  14. 14D
  15. 15C
  16. 16A
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19A
  20. 20D
  21. 21A
  22. 22D
  23. 23D
  24. 24A
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30C
  31. 31B
  32. 32C
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35C
  36. 36D
  37. 37C
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40D
  41. 41B
  42. 42C
  43. 43B
  44. 44C
  45. 45D
  46. 46D
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50C
  51. 51C
  52. 52B
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55C
  56. 56C
  57. 57A
  58. 58A
  59. 59B
  60. 60A
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63D
  64. 64A
  65. 65A
  66. 66C
  67. 67D
  68. 68B
  69. 69D
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72A
  73. 73C
  74. 74A
  75. 75A
  76. 76C
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79D
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83C
  84. 84B
  85. 85C
  86. 86B
  87. 87A
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90D
  91. 91C
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94B
  95. 95D
  96. 96A
  97. 97B
  98. 98D
  99. 99A
  100. 100D
  101. 101C
  102. 102A
  103. 103B
  104. 104B
  105. 105A
  106. 106C
  107. 107A
  108. 108A
  109. 109A
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113C
  114. 114B
  115. 115B
  116. 116D
  117. 117C
  118. 118B
  119. 119C
  120. 120B
  121. 121D
  122. 122C

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