MPSC Prelims 2026 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The British Indian Association was established in Calcutta in October 1851 under the leadership of Radha Kanta Deb and Debendranath Tagore. Ahead of the renewal of the Charter Act of 1853, the association sent a comprehensive petition to the British Parliament in 1852 outlining major administrative, legal, and financial grievances.

Among their primary demands were the establishment of a separate legislative council with a popular character representing Indians, the clear separation of judicial and executive functions, a reduction in the exceptionally high salaries of civil servants, and the abolition of the salt, abkari (excise), and stamp duties. Since all four statements represent correct demands made by the association, none of the specific combinations in options 1, 2, or 3 are correct on their own, making None of the above the correct option.

Explanation

Harshcharitra was written by Banbhatta, who was the court poet of King Harshavardhana and authored this historical biography.

Maalati Madhav is an eighth-century Sanskrit drama composed by Bhavabhuti, focusing on the romance of Malati and Madhava.

Malvikagnimitra is a Sanskrit play written by Kalidas, depicting the love story of King Agnimitra and the maiden Malavika.

Mudrarakshas is a historical and political play in Sanskrit written by Vishakhadatta, narrating the ascent of Chandragupta Maurya to the throne.

Explanation

The August Offer, announced on 8 August 1940 by the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, proposed several key provisions to secure Indian cooperation in the Second World War:

The offer proposed Dominion status (often translated in Indian contexts as colonial self-government or colonial freedom) as the ultimate objective for India after the war, stating that assistance would be provided to establish a fully responsible system of governance.

It proposed the immediate expansion of the Viceroy's (Governor General's) Executive Council to include more Indian representatives, giving Indians a majority in the council for the first time.

Explanation

Hemu started his administrative career under the Suri dynasty when Islam Shah Suri recognized his potential and appointed him as the Market Superintendent (Shahang-i-Bazar) in Delhi to manage trade and mercantile operations. During his military service under Muhammad Adil Shah Suri, Hemu rose to become his Prime Minister (Wazir) and chief of the army. He successfully led the Sur forces in 22 consecutive battles from Punjab to Bengal against Afghan rebels and Mughal forces without suffering a single defeat. Adil Shah bestowed upon him the title of Raja Vikramjit (or Vikramaditya) in recognition of his military genius and achievements. In the Second Battle of Panipat fought on 5 November 1556, Hemu was defeated by Akbar's forces under the leadership of Bairam Khan after a chance arrow pierced his eye, leading to his capture and execution.

Explanation

Storia-Do-Mogor was authored by the Venetian traveler Niccolao Manucci, who spent several decades in India and recorded his experiences of the Mughal court during the reigns of Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb.

Travels in the Mogul Empire was written by the French physician François Bernier, who lived in India for twelve years and served as a personal physician to the Mughal prince Dara Shikoh and later to Danishmand Khan.

Early Travels in India is a notable compilation of accounts from early English travelers to India between 1583 and 1619, edited by the English historian William Foster.

Historical Fragments of the Mogul Empire was compiled by the British historian Robert Orme, who served as an official historiographer for the East India Company.

Explanation

Varahamihira wrote the Panchasiddhantika, an important mathematical astronomy treatise that summarizes five earlier astronomical systems.

Vagbhat authored the Ashtang Samgraha, which is one of the classical foundational texts of Ayurvedic medicine.

Ishvara Krishna composed the Samkhya Karika, the earliest surviving authoritative text on the Samkhya school of Indian philosophy.

Prasatapada wrote the earliest commentary on the Vaisheshika Sutra, significantly developing the concepts of the Vaisheshika school of philosophy.

Explanation

Anantadeva composed the Samskarakaustubha, a major section of his larger compendium Smritikaustubha, which comprehensively deals with the rules and procedures for performing various Hindu sacraments and domestic rituals.

Gangadhara, an accomplished astronomer of the medieval era, wrote Manorama, which is a highly regarded commentary on the famous astronomical and mathematical manual Grahalaghava authored by Ganesa Daivajna.

Kamlakara Bhatta, a distinguished scholar of the famous Bhatta family of Varanasi, compiled the monumental Dharmashastra text Nirnaya Sindhu in 1612, which serves as an authoritative and widely consulted guide on religious time-reckoning, festivals, and ritual duties.

Krishna Das Kaviraja, a celebrated saint of the Gaudiya Vaishnava tradition, authored the Chaitanya Charitamrita, which stands as the most revered, detailed, and philosophically profound biographical work on the life, teachings, and spiritual legacy of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.

Explanation

Sindhri is home to the Sindri Fertilizer Plant in Jharkhand, which was the first public sector fertilizer factory in India.

Chittaranjan is famous for the Chittaranjan Locomotive Works in West Bengal, a premier manufacturing unit of electric locomotives.

Perambur in Chennai, Tamil Nadu, houses the Integral Coach Factory, one of the oldest railway coach manufacturing units of the Indian Railways.

Pimpri near Pune, Maharashtra, is home to Hindustan Antibiotics Limited, established as India's first public sector penicillin manufacturing factory.

Explanation

The Bhusawal Bomb Case of 1929 involved revolutionaries belonging to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) who were actively transporting arms and explosives. Sadashiv Raghunath Malkapurkar, along with his close associate Bhagwandas Mahour, was apprehended by the excise police at the Bhusawal railway station in Maharashtra. Following their arrest, they were put on trial in Jalgaon. Malkapurkar was subsequently sentenced to 14 years of rigorous imprisonment, a term he served in the Cellular Jail in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Explanation

Vishnushastri Parashuram Pandit was a distinguished Marathi author, Sanskrit scholar, and social reformer from Maharashtra. In 1848, he joined the government's education department, serving in roles such as teacher and translator. To dedicate his life entirely to social reform and progressive journalism, he resigned from government service in 1864.

Following his resignation, he relocated to Bombay to take up the editorship of the prominent reformist weekly Induprakash. Deeply committed to the emancipation of women, he actively campaigned against child marriage and the forced tonsure of widows. Often referred to as the Vidyasagar of Maharashtra, he translated Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar's book on widow remarriage into Marathi and founded the Punarvivahottejak Mandali (Widow Remarriage Association) in 1866 to actively promote and facilitate the remarriage of widows.

Explanation

Sufism emphasizes structured spiritual exercises to achieve closeness to the divine. Zikr (remembrance) involves repeated recitation of God's names or sacred phrases to purify the heart. Murakabah (meditation) is contemplative focus turning attention inward toward the divine presence. Tawajjuh (spiritual attention) involves a transmission of spiritual energy, often between a Sufi master and disciple. These three constitute the practiced disciplines of Sufi orders, as opposed to states of mystical attainment such as Fana (self-annihilation) and Wasl (union with the divine), which are outcomes rather than practices.

Explanation

Dr. Ramakrishna Gopal Bhandarkar was an eminent scholar, orientalist, and leading social reformer of Maharashtra. He was a co-founder of the Prarthana Samaj in 1867 and played a critical role in advancing social reforms in western India.

Bhandarkar was a staunch champion of women's education and actively opposed child marriage. He demonstrated exceptional courage by practicing what he preached; in 1891, he consented to and arranged the remarriage of his widowed daughter. This act provoked significant backlash and social boycott from orthodox sections of contemporary society but established him as a reformer of true conviction. Furthermore, he opposed infant marriages and ensured that the marriages of his own sons and daughters were performed only when they reached an appropriate age to select their partners.

Explanation

Jiyauddin Barni was a prominent political thinker of the Delhi Sultanate who authored Fatwa-e-Janhadari, a work on statecraft and political philosophy. Khwaja Abu Malik Isami wrote Futuh-us-Salatin, a historical poetic chronicle detailing the Muslim conquests and rulers in India up to the mid-fourteenth century. Ibn Batuta, the famous Moroccan traveller who visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughluq, recorded his observations in his travelogue Kitab-ur-Rahlah. Ahmed Yadgar wrote Tarikh-i-Salatin-i-Afghana, also known as Tarikh-i-Shahi, which details the history of the Lodi and Sur dynasties.

Explanation

Sangeet Saubhadra is a highly celebrated musical play written by Annasaheb Kirloskar in 1882 based on the mythological tale of Subhadra and Arjuna. Thorale Madhavrao Peshwe is a historical play written by Vinayak Janardan Kirtane in 1861, which is credited as the first Marathi play to feature a complete written script. Janaki is a notable play authored by the eminent Marathi writer N. S. Phadake. Andhlyachi Shala is a ground-breaking realistic play written by S. V. Vartak in 1933 that revolutionized modern Marathi theatre.

Explanation

The Maitraka dynasty ruled Saurashtra in Gujarat with Valabhi as their capital. The Chahamanas, or Chauhans, originally ruled the region around Shakambhari in modern Rajasthan. The Gurjara dynasty of Nandipuri ruled the southern region of Gujarat around Broach. The Paramara dynasty ruled the Malwa region with Dhara as their main seat of power.

Explanation

Dr. R.L. Singh, in his 1971 publication India: A Regional Geography, presented a climatic classification scheme that divides India into ten climatic zones. This classification is based on the temperature conditions of the hottest and coldest months and the average annual rainfall of the regions.

The ten distinct climatic zones identified under this scheme are the per-humid north east, humid Sahyadri and west coast, humid south east, sub-humid transition, sub-humid littoral, sub-humid continental, semi-arid sub-tropical, semi-arid tropical, arid, and west Himalaya. This regionalization helps in understanding the transitional nature of India's diverse climatic characteristics.

Explanation

The mineral-bearing areas of Maharashtra are distributed unevenly across its administrative divisions. The Nagpur region in East Vidarbha holds the highest share, accounting for approximately 60% of the state's total mineral-bearing area. The Konkan region in western Maharashtra holds the second-highest share at approximately 20%, making it the region with the highest mineral availability after the Nagpur region.

The Maharashtra State Mining Corporation Limited (MSMC) was incorporated on 14 November 1973 under the Companies Act, 1956. It is a wholly-owned undertaking of the Government of Maharashtra established to promote systematic mining development and resource conservation in the state.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of Maharashtra, the forest circle-wise distribution of forest area as a percentage of the total forest area is as follows:

Gadchiroli is matched with 20.8% because it has the largest forest area and forest cover among all circles in Maharashtra.

Nagpur is matched with 12.5% as it represents the dense forest circle covering parts of the Vidarbha region.

Dhule is matched with 10.4% representing the forest area under the northern tribal belt of the state.

Thane is matched with 9.5% representing the coastal and Konkan-adjacent forest circle area.

Explanation

The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world, having evolved in the Pre-Cambrian era, which makes statement a incorrect.

The range is highly mineralized and holds immense reserves of metallic and non-metallic minerals, including copper at Khetri, zinc and lead at Zawar, as well as vast deposits of high-quality marble and granite. Due to this abundant mineral wealth, the region has historically supported extensive mining and stone construction activities for many centuries.

Additionally, the strategic and rugged terrain of the Aravallis provided natural defense advantages, leading to the construction of several formidable medieval forts. Major historical forts of Rajasthan, including Chittorgarh, Kumbhalgarh, and Ranthambore, are situated along these ranges.

Explanation

According to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare, the average yield of rice in India reached 2882 kg per hectare during the 2023-2024 agricultural year. In the same period, the average yield for wheat was recorded at 3559 kg per hectare.

Explanation

In time measurement and calendar systems, astronomical cycles such as the Earth's rotation, the Moon's orbit around the Earth, and the Earth's orbit around the Sun do not align perfectly in whole numbers of days. This misalignment creates a cumulative time gap over time, which requires time lapse analysis to correct and synchronize the calendar with actual celestial positions.

Leap Year: In the solar Gregorian calendar, the tropical year is approximately 365.2422 days. The fractional difference accumulates over time. To correct this time lapse, a leap day is added every four years to prevent seasonal drift and keep the calendar aligned with the solar cycle.

Adhik Mass: In the Hindu lunisolar calendar, a lunar year consists of approximately 354 days, while a solar year is about 365 days. The resulting annual gap of about 11 days accumulates to a full lunar month roughly every 32.5 months. Through time lapse calculations, an extra intercalary month is inserted to realign the lunar calendar with the solar seasons.

Kshay Mass: In rare astronomical situations in the lunisolar calendar, the time gap and planetary velocities are such that a lunar month experiences no solar transit (Sankranti). In such cases, that month is skipped or omitted to correct the accumulated time lapse.

Tithi Vridhhi - lope: A lunar day (tithi) is defined by the angular distance between the Sun and the Moon. Since the speed of both bodies varies, a tithi may span across two sunrises (vridhhi) or may start and end between consecutive sunrises (lope/omission). This daily adjustment aligns the calendar days with the actual lunar phases.

Explanation

Ch. Sambhajinagar (formerly Aurangabad) is famously known as the City of gates because of the 52 historic gates located in the city, matching (a) with (ii). Gondia is known as the Rice barn of Maharashtra due to its abundant paddy cultivation and numerous rice processing mills, matching (b) with (iii). Wardha became an independent district in 1862 when it was separated from Nagpur for administrative convenience (often written as 1862, with 1962 being a typographical variation), matching (c) with (i). Jalna is the site of India's International Satellite Monitoring Earth Station (ISMES), which acts as a satellite monitoring and hearing center, matching (d) with (iv).

Explanation

The Rural Development and Panchayat Raj Department, Government of Maharashtra, issued a Government Resolution dated October 9, 2024, relaxing the minimum population norm for constituting an independent Gram Panchayat in Banjara, Laman and Labhan Tanda settlements. The threshold, previously set higher for general areas, was fixed at 700 residents for these specific tanda settlements, in recognition of their typically smaller and more scattered populations, to facilitate greater local self-governance access for these communities.

Explanation

The regional divisions of the Himalayas from west to east are demarcated by river valleys:

The Punjab Himalayas lie between the Indus and Sutlej rivers.

The Kumaon Himalayas lie between the Sutlej and Kali rivers.

The Nepal Himalayas lie between the Kali and Tista rivers.

The Assam Himalayas lie between the Tista and Brahmaputra rivers.

Explanation

The Mesabi Range, located in northeastern Minnesota, is the largest iron ore deposit in the Lake Superior region and the United States. Since mining operations began in the late nineteenth century, this district has served as the primary source of iron ore for the American steel industry, housing massive open-pit operations like the Hull-Rust-Mahoning mine, which is one of the largest open-pit iron mines in the world.

Explanation

The correct ascending order of the atmospheric layers and their transition boundaries, starting from the Earth's surface and moving upwards, is determined by their respective altitudes.

The Troposphere (c) is the lowest layer of the atmosphere, extending from the Earth's surface up to an average height of about 13 km.

The Tropopause (g) is the transitional boundary layer that separates the troposphere from the stratosphere.

The Stratosphere (e) lies above the tropopause and extends up to an altitude of about 50 km.

The Stratopause (d) is the boundary zone that marks the upper limit of the stratosphere and separates it from the mesosphere.

The Mesosphere (a) extends above the stratopause to a height of about 80 km.

The Mesopause (f) is the transitional boundary layer that marks the upper limit of the mesosphere and the transition into the next layer.

The Thermosphere (b) is the layer located above the mesopause, extending upwards to about 600 km.

This sequencing directly corresponds to the order: (c), (g), (e), (d), (a), (f), (b).

Explanation

According to the Census 2011 data for Maharashtra, the decadal population growth rates (2001-2011) for the respective districts match as follows:

Thane recorded a decadal growth rate of 35.94%, driven by rapid industrialization and urban expansion.

Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar (formerly Aurangabad) recorded a decadal growth rate of 27.33%.

Pune registered a decadal growth rate of 30.4% due to significant inflows of working professionals and students.

Nandurbar, a predominantly tribal-dominated district, recorded a decadal growth rate of 25.50%.

These matches correspond to (a) with (iv), (b) with (iii), (c) with (ii), and (d) with (i).

Explanation

In the Congo Basin and Central Africa, the traditional form of shifting cultivation is locally known as Masole.

In North-East India, this slash-and-burn agricultural practice is widely referred to as Jhum.

In Vietnam, the local name given to shifting cultivation is Ray.

In Brazil, the indigenous method of shifting agriculture is called Roca.

Explanation

The Mahalwari system of land revenue was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 in the North-West Province, Punjab, and parts of Central India. Under this system, the unit of revenue assessment was the Mahal, which represented a village or a group of villages. The agricultural land within the Mahal was held jointly by the village community, and all members of this community were collectively and individually responsible for the payment of the land revenue to the colonial government.

Explanation

Statement a is incorrect because Uranus has 28 known natural satellites, not 61. Statement b is correct as the average orbital distance of Mercury from the Sun is approximately 57.9 million kilometers, which rounds to 58 million kilometers. Statement c is incorrect because the average distance from the Sun to Uranus is about 2871 million kilometers, while 4495 million kilometers is the average distance of Neptune from the Sun. Therefore, statements a and c are indeed not correct.

Explanation

The Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer is a landmark international treaty adopted on September 16, 1987. Its primary objective is to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by phasing out the global production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances, most notably chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). By implementing legally binding controls on the generation and use of these chemicals, the protocol successfuly prevents the degradation of the ozone layer, thereby reducing the amount of harmful ultraviolet-B radiation that reaches the Earth's surface.

Explanation

An ecosystem is a natural resource system because it functions as the fundamental unit of nature that produces, cycles, and regulates essential resources such as oxygen, water, organic matter, and nutrients.

This systemic capacity to generate and manage natural resources is directly explained by its integrated structure. An ecosystem is a monistic concept in which the physical environment (abiotic factors like soil, water, climate, and inorganic elements) and the biological components (biotic factors like plants, animals, microorganisms, and humans) are combined in a single, unified framework. The continuous exchange of materials and unidirectional flow of energy between these living organisms and their inorganic environment are the exact processes that drive the regeneration of these natural resources. Thus, the reason correctly explains why an ecosystem behaves as a natural resource system.

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect because the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), widely known as the Rio Earth Summit, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992, and not in Montreal.

Statement (b) is incorrect because the Brundtland Report, titled Our Common Future, was published in 1987 by the World Commission on Environment and Development (WCED), which was established by the UN General Assembly in 1983. It was not related to the second UN conference on the human environment held in Nairobi in 1982 to commemorate the tenth anniversary of the Stockholm Conference.

Explanation

According to the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC), global anthropogenic greenhouse gas emissions contribute to global warming in the following descending order. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the largest contributor, accounting for approximately 76% of all emissions. Methane (CH₄) is the second-largest contributor, making up around 16% of emissions. Nitrous oxide (N₂O) accounts for about 6% of emissions, followed by Fluorinated gases which contribute roughly 2%. This establishes the descending order as Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide, and Fluorinated Gases.

Explanation

The concept and term biome was first proposed by the American plant ecologist Frederic Edward Clements in 1916. Clements originally suggested the term as a synonym for a biotic community, which refers to the assemblage of interacting plants and animals inhabiting a given area. Later, the concept of the biome was expanded to define large geographical areas characterized by distinct prevailing climates, soil types, and dominant vegetation alongside their associated animal life.

Explanation

Under the National Policy on the Voluntary Sector (2007), Voluntary Organizations are defined by key characteristics to ensure their independent and constructive role in public service. They are private entities that function separate from the government. They operate on a non-profit basis, meaning any financial surplus or profits generated are not returned to their owners or directors, but are instead reinvested into their public service activities. Furthermore, they can exist as formally registered organizations or as informal groups, provided they operate with clearly defined aims and objectives. To maintain their autonomy, they are self-governing and are not controlled by the government.

Explanation

Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched in 1978 to provide self-employment opportunities to the rural poor.

Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was introduced in 1983 to guarantee employment to at least one member of every landless labour household.

Jawahar Rojgar Yojana was launched in 1989 by merging the National Rural Employment Programme and the Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme to generate wage employment.

Sampoorna Grameen Rojgar Yojana was started in 2001 to provide additional wage employment and food security in rural areas.

Explanation

Under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961, statement (b) is incorrect because the original Act provided for a total of 12 weeks of maternity leave (6 weeks before and 6 weeks after childbirth), which was later amended in 2017 to 26 weeks (up to 8 weeks before and 18 weeks after childbirth). There is no provision for 6 weeks before and 10 weeks after childbirth.

Statement (c) is also incorrect because the Act does not apply to all establishments universally; it applies specifically to mines, factories, plantations, and shops or establishments where 10 or more persons are employed (or were employed on any day of the preceding 12 months).

Statements (a) and (d) are correct. Section 4 of the Act prohibits the employment of women during the 6 weeks immediately following childbirth, effectively mandating 6 weeks of leave after delivery, and the Act is designed to provide maternity leave along with other benefits like medical bonus.

Explanation

The First Five-Year Plan was launched in 1951 under the leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru and focused primarily on agricultural development, spanning the period from 1951 to 1956. Following the Third Five-Year Plan, three annual plans were implemented from 1966 to 1969, known as the Plan Holidays. Consequently, the Fourth Five-Year Plan was introduced for the period from 1969 to 1974, aiming at growth with stability and progress towards self-reliance.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of Maharashtra 2025-26, which references the Report of the Technical Group on Population Projections by the National Commission on Population, the total projected population of Maharashtra as on 1st March 2026 is 12.93 crore. This projected population comprises 6.73 crore males and 6.20 crore females.

During this same projection period, Maharashtra's rural population is estimated to be 6.55 crore, while its urban population is estimated to be 6.38 crore. Consequently, the rural population of the state remains higher than the urban population.

Explanation

According to the World Bank and United Nations demographic data for 2017, India had a population density of approximately 452 people per square kilometer. In comparison, South Korea had a population density of approximately 529 people per square kilometer, and Bangladesh had a population density of approximately 1240 people per square kilometer.

Thus, India's population density was lower than that of South Korea in 2017, which makes statement (a) incorrect. Meanwhile, India's population density was indeed lower than that of Bangladesh in 2017, which makes statement (b) correct.

Explanation

Social security measures are universally classified into two primary categories: social insurance and social assistance.

Social insurance involves contributory programs where workers, employers, and sometimes the government make regular financial contributions to a fund. These funds are then used to provide benefits like pensions, maternal benefits, and disability compensation, helping protect contributors against various life contingencies and loss of income.

Social assistance, on the other hand, consists of non-contributory schemes funded entirely through general taxation. It is targeted toward vulnerable, low-income, or needy populations to ensure they have access to basic necessities and minimum standards of living.

Together, these two components form the core framework of any comprehensive social security system.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of Maharashtra 2025-26, the status of the Public Distribution System (PDS) in the state is as follows:

Statement (a) is incorrect because as of December 2025, there were in all 270.84 lakh ration card holders in Maharashtra (comprising 58.68 lakh yellow, 190.15 lakh saffron, and 22.01 lakh white card holders). The figure of 270.48 lakh given in the statement is factually incorrect.

Statement (b) is correct as there were exactly 51,636 functional Fair Price Shops operating across the state as of 31 October 2025.

Statement (c) is correct because up to October 2025, about 1.55 crore families in the state successfully received their food grain entitlements using Aadhaar-based biometric authentication under the Aadhaar-enabled Public Distribution System.

Explanation

The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was constituted by the Planning Commission in 2005 to review the methodology for poverty estimation in India. The committee recommended shifting away from calorie-consumption-based estimation toward a basket of goods including health and education expenditures using the Mixed Reference Period.

Based on this methodology, the poverty headcount ratios for the year 2004-05 were estimated as: Rural poverty: 41.8% Urban poverty: 25.7% Total (all-India) poverty: 37.2%

Explanation

Subdivision and fragmentation of land holdings lead to several socio-economic and operational disadvantages in agriculture.

Wastage of land occurs because a significant portion of fertile land is lost in creating boundary walls, fences, hedges, and pathways to separate numerous small and scattered plots.

Disguised unemployment is intensified because a large number of family members are forced to work on tiny, fragmented plots where their marginal productivity is virtually zero, as the small size of the holding cannot productively absorb their labor.

Low productivity is a direct consequence because fragmented land holdings make it economically unviable to use modern agricultural inputs, scientific methods, proper irrigation channels, and heavy machinery like tractors, which drastically reduces the crop yield per unit of land.

Explanation

According to the Suresh Tendulkar Committee Report on poverty estimation, the concept of poverty is fundamentally associated with socially perceived deprivation with respect to basic human needs. In the material dimension, these basic human needs are listed as the need to be adequately nourished, the need to be decently clothed, the need to be reasonably sheltered, the need to escape avoidable diseases, the need to be (at least) minimally educated, and the need to be mobile for the purposes of social interaction and participation in economic activity. Since all the given statements from (a) to (e) represent these identified basic needs, all of them are correct.

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct because the National Food Security Act, 2013, contains specific provisions to promote women empowerment. Under Section 13 of the Act, the eldest woman in an eligible household, who is not less than 18 years of age, is designated as the head of the household for the purpose of issuing ration cards.

Statement (b) is correct because Section 16 of the Act mandates every State Government to constitute a State Food Commission. This body is responsible for monitoring and reviewing the implementation of the Act, evaluating its performance, and addressing grievances or complaints regarding any violations of entitlements within the state.

Explanation

David Pearce and Jeremy Warford define sustainable development in terms of maintaining or increasing the overall capital stock over time.

Statement a is correct because they conceptualize the overall capital stock as comprising three types of assets: man-made physical capital, human capital, and environmental capital.

Statement b is incorrect because, under their framework, sustainable development requires that this total capital stock does not decrease in the growth process. Instead, it must remain constant or increase over time to ensure that future generations are at least as well-off as the present one.

Explanation

The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 of India set several objectives, including promoting delayed marriage for girls, not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age — not 21 as stated. Its long-term objective was to achieve a stable population by 2045, consistent with sustainable economic growth, development, and environmental protection — not by 2030 as stated. Both given statements therefore misstate the actual policy targets.

Explanation

The Coale and Hoover model was introduced in their landmark 1958 study, Population Growth and Economic Development in Low-Income Countries, which used India as a primary case study. This makes statement (a) correct as it was formulated in the late 1950s to study demographic transitions and development in low-income nations.

The model argues that lower fertility, rather than higher fertility, leads to faster economic growth. A decline in fertility reduces the dependency ratio, which increases a nation's capacity to save and invest in productive capital, thereby accelerating GNP growth. Thus, statement (b) is incorrect.

Explanation

For a point charge q, the electrostatic potential V at a distance r is given by V = kq/r, where k is the electrostatic constant. Since the potential is constant on an equipotential surface, the distance r must also be constant. This means the equipotential surfaces for a point charge are concentric spheres centered on the charge.

The electric field E is related to the potential V by the relation E = -dV/dr r̂, where r̂ is the unit radial vector. This indicates that the electric field is directed along the radial line perpendicular to the spherical equipotential surface. Assuming a standard positive point charge, the electric field lines diverge straight out from the charge, pointing in the radial outward direction.

Explanation

Electric current is defined as the rate at which electric charge flows past a point or through a specified surface. Mathematically, if a net charge ΔQ passes through a cross-sectional area in a time interval Δt, the average electric current I is given by the relation:

I = ΔQ / Δt

As the time interval approaches zero, the instantaneous current is the derivative of charge with respect to time, represented as dQ/dt. The SI unit of electric current is the ampere, which is defined as one coulomb of charge passing through a surface per second.

Explanation

Permeability (μ₀) matches with (ii) because the force per unit length between two parallel current-carrying wires is F/L = μ₀ I² / (2πd), which gives the dimensional formula [μ₀] = [F] [d] / ([L] [I²]) = MLT⁻²I⁻².

Coefficient of Viscosity (η) matches with (iii) because Newton's formula for viscous force F = η A (dv/dx) gives the dimensional formula [η] = [F] / ([A] [dv/dx]) = MLT⁻² / (L² × T⁻¹) = ML⁻¹T⁻¹.

Planck's Constant (h) matches with (i) because the relation for photon energy E = hν gives the dimensional formula [h] = [E] / [ν] = ML²T⁻² / T⁻¹ = ML²T⁻¹.

Explanation

According to the Lensmaker's Formula:

1/f = (μ_l/μ_m - 1) × (1/R₁ - 1/R₂)

where f is the focal length of the lens, μ_l is the refractive index of the lens, μ_m is the refractive index of the medium, and R₁ and R₂ are the radii of curvature of the two lens surfaces.

When the refractive index of the surrounding medium is greater than that of the lens material (μ_m > μ_l), the term (μ_l/μ_m - 1) becomes less than zero, which is negative.

For a double convex lens, the term (1/R₁ - 1/R₂) is positive. Multiplying this by the negative term (μ_l/μ_m - 1) results in a negative value for 1/f. This means the focal length f becomes negative, and the lens behaves as a diverging lens instead of its usual converging behavior.

Explanation

The Kelvin-Planck statement of the Second Law of Thermodynamics states that it is impossible for any device that operates on a thermodynamic cycle to receive heat from a single reservoir and produce a net amount of work. This implies that some heat must always be rejected to a lower-temperature sink.

The thermal efficiency η of a heat engine is defined by the formula:

η = W / Q_in = (Q_in - Q_out) / Q_in = 1 - Q_out / Q_in

Here, W represents the net work output, Q_in represents the heat absorbed from the high-temperature source, and Q_out represents the heat rejected to the low-temperature sink. Since the second law dictates that heat rejection is unavoidable, Q_out must always be greater than zero. Therefore, the ratio Q_out / Q_in is always positive, making the efficiency η strictly less than one.

Explanation

The nuclear force is strongly spin-dependent. It is stronger when the spins of the interacting nucleons are parallel (triplet state, spin S = 1) than when they are antiparallel (singlet state, spin S = 0). A prime example of this spin-dependent nature is the deuteron, which is a stable bound state of a proton and a neutron with parallel spins. There is no stable bound state of a proton and a neutron with antiparallel spins, demonstrating that the attractive nuclear force is only strong enough to form a bound state when the spins are parallel.

Explanation

Antarctic fish live in extremely cold environments where water temperatures remain near or below freezing. To survive in these conditions, these organisms must maintain the fluidity and functionality of their cell membranes, a process known as homeoviscous adaptation. Unsaturated phospholipids contain double bonds in their hydrocarbon tails, which introduce kinks that prevent the lipids from packing tightly together and crystallizing at low temperatures. By having a high percentage of unsaturated fatty acids in their membrane phospholipids, Antarctic fish lower the transition temperature of their membranes, ensuring they remain fluid, flexible, and active in sub-zero waters.

Explanation

Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles that possess their own circular DNA molecules and 70S ribosomes. According to the endosymbiotic theory, mitochondria originated from ancient prokaryotes that entered into a symbiotic relationship with ancestral eukaryotic host cells. Because of this evolutionary origin, they maintain their own genome and protein-synthesizing machinery, which closely resemble those of bacteria.

Explanation

Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction in plants that mimics sexual reproduction by producing seeds, but does so without fertilization or the fusion of male and female gametes. In this process, the embryo develops directly from maternal tissues of the ovule without undergoing meiosis or syngamy. Consequently, the resulting offspring are genetic clones of the maternal parent. This allows for the complete preservation of parental traits and the rapid propagation of desirable genotypes.

Explanation

Jumping genes, scientifically referred to as transposons or transposable elements, are specific sequences of DNA that can move or transpose from one location to another within the genome of an organism. This capability to change their positions makes the genome dynamic and can alter gene expression. These mobile genetic elements were discovered by geneticist Barbara McClintock during her research on maize in the late 1940s, with her key findings published around 1950, rather than in 1965.

Explanation

The parallel adaptive radiation of marsupials in Australia and placental mammals in other parts of the world serves as a classic example of convergent evolution. When different groups of organisms living in similar but geographically isolated ecological niches face similar environmental pressures, they independently evolve analogous traits and body forms. For instance, placental mammals like the wolf, flying squirrel, and anteater share striking physical and behavioral similarities with marsupials like the Tasmanian wolf, sugar glider, and numbat, respectively, despite their distinct reproductive systems and evolutionary lineages.

Explanation

Calcitonin is a 32-amino acid linear polypeptide hormone synthesized and secreted by the parafollicular cells, also known as C cells, of the thyroid gland. These cells are distinct from the follicular cells that produce thyroid hormones T3 and T4. Calcitonin plays a crucial role in calcium homeostasis by reducing blood calcium levels when they are elevated. It achieves this primarily by inhibiting osteoclast activity in bone, which reduces the release of calcium into the blood, and by increasing calcium excretion in the urine.

Explanation

HIV specifically targets and destroys CD4+ helper T-lymphocytes, which play a critical role in coordinating the immune system. As the infection progresses, the virus replicates actively and damages a massive number of these cells. When the helper T-cell count drops below a critical threshold, the body's immune response is severely compromised, rendering it vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers, which marks the clinical onset and symptoms of AIDS.

Explanation

Methylene (CH₂) is a highly reactive divalent hydrocarbon radical containing a carbon atom with two valence electrons. It exists primarily as a transient intermediate in chemical reactions and does not function as a plant hormone or signaling molecule in plant growth and development.

Explanation

An emulsion is a colloidal system in which fine droplets of one liquid are dispersed throughout another liquid with which it is completely immiscible. To stabilize such a mixture, an emulsifying agent is typically required to reduce the interfacial tension between the two liquids, preventing them from separating into distinct layers. Milk is a classic example of an emulsion, where liquid fat globules are dispersed in an aqueous solution.

Explanation

Mineral acids, also known as inorganic acids, are acids derived from inorganic chemical compounds of mineral origin rather than organic matter. Sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄), nitric acid (HNO₃), and hydrochloric acid (HCl) are classic examples of mineral acids. They do not contain carbon atoms in their structures and typically dissociate completely or to a high degree in aqueous solutions to release hydrogen ions.

Explanation

Chloramphenicol is a broad-spectrum antibiotic because it is effective against a wide variety of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria. It functions by inhibiting bacterial protein synthesis, specifically by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit and blocking peptidyl transferase activity. This broad range of activity makes it highly effective against diverse bacterial infections, including typhoid fever, meningitis, and various anaerobic infections.

Explanation

Fluorine has the highest electronegativity of all elements, with a value of approximately 3.98 on the Pauling scale. Electronegativity is the chemical property that describes the tendency of an atom to attract a shared pair of electrons towards itself in a covalent bond. Fluorine exhibits this extreme electronegative character because it has a very small atomic radius combined with a relatively high nuclear charge. This compact atomic size allows the positively charged nucleus of the fluorine atom to exert an exceptionally strong electrostatic attraction on bonding electrons.

Explanation

An allotrope is a structurally distinct form of a pure element in the same physical state. Because an allotropic form consists entirely of atoms of a single, uncombined element, there is no transfer or unequal sharing of electrons with atoms of different elements. According to standard chemical nomenclature and rules for assigning oxidation numbers, the oxidation state of any element in its free, elemental state is always zero. Consequently, all atoms in any allotropic form of an element—such as dioxygen (O₂) and ozone (O₃), or diamond and graphite—have an oxidation state of zero.

Explanation

Beryllium, though a Group 2 alkaline earth metal, behaves anomalously compared to other members of its group due to its very small ionic size and high polarizing power. This allows it to form stable coordination (complex) compounds even with simple ligands such as halide ions, exemplified by the tetrahedral tetrafluoroberyllate ion [BeF4]2-, a property not shared by heavier Group 2 elements like magnesium.

Explanation

In a parliamentary system, the Kangaroo closure is a type of closure motion where only the important clauses of a bill are debated and voted upon. The intervening, less crucial clauses are skipped over and automatically taken as passed, allowing the house to jump forward to key provisions and expedite the legislative process.

Explanation

In Kehar Singh v. Union of India (1989), the Supreme Court held that the President is not bound to give reasons for their decision when exercising the pardoning power under Article 72 of the Constitution. The power of pardon is an act of executive grace rather than a judicial function, meaning the President does not act as a court and has no constitutional obligation to provide a written, reasoned order for granting or denying clemency. This makes the assertion that the President is bound to give reasons incorrect.

Explanation

Article 165 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Advocate General for the State. According to Article 165(3), the Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor and receives such remuneration as the Governor may determine. This constitutional provision vests the authority to decide the pay and allowances of the state's chief legal advisor directly in the Governor.

Explanation

The writ of prohibition is a preventive judicial remedy issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal. Its primary purpose is to forbid the lower body from continuing proceedings that exceed its jurisdiction or violate the principles of natural justice.

This writ is exclusively applicable to judicial and quasi-judicial bodies. Under Indian constitutional law, it cannot be issued against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private individuals and entities.

Explanation

The draft Constitution prepared by the Constitutional Advisor, Sir B.N. Rau, in October 1947 consisted of 243 Articles and 13 Schedules. Statement (c) incorrectly claims that this draft contained 310 Articles and 8 Schedules, whereas statement (d) correctly specifies the composition of 243 Articles and 13 Schedules. This makes statement (c) the only incorrect statement.

Explanation

The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution of India was added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 and contains 18 functional items within the purview of urban local bodies (Municipalities).

Statement (a) is included in the Twelfth Schedule under the promotion of cultural, educational, and aesthetic aspects (referred to as artistic vision) and fire services.

Statement (b) is included under the provision of burials and burial grounds, cremations, cremation grounds, and electric crematoriums.

Statement (d) is included as it covers safeguarding the interests of weaker sections of society, including the handicapped and mentally retarded, as well as urban forestry, protection of the environment, and promotion of ecological aspects.

Statement (c), which covers rural housing and markets and fairs, is not included in the Twelfth Schedule because these items are listed under the Eleventh Schedule, which defines the 29 functional responsibilities of rural local bodies (Panchayats).

Explanation

The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution, established in 2000 under the chairmanship of Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah, submitted its report in 2002 with key recommendations to popularize and strengthen Fundamental Duties in India. The Commission suggested adding several new duties to Article 51-A of the Constitution.

These new duties specifically include the civic duty to vote at elections and actively participate in the democratic process of governance, as well as the financial obligation to pay taxes honestly. Additionally, the Commission recommended the duty of industrial organizations to provide education to the children of their employees to promote inclusive growth and human capital development. It also emphasized the duty of parents and guardians to foster a spirit of family values and responsible parenthood regarding the education, physical health, and moral well-being of children. All of these proposals form the comprehensive set of recommendations put forward by the Commission for effectuating Fundamental Duties.

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect because the Committee on Public Undertakings was established in 1964 on the recommendation of the Krishna Menon Committee, rather than on the recommendation of Pandit Nehru in 1963.

Statement (d) is incorrect because the members of this committee are elected by the Parliament annually, meaning their tenure of office is one year rather than two years.

Explanation

Under Article 111 of the Constitution of India, the President has the power to either declare assent to a bill passed by Parliament or withhold assent, which represents the absolute veto. The President can also return a non-money bill to Parliament for reconsideration with a message requesting specific amendments, which constitutes a suspensive veto. Under Article 200, the Governor of a state can reserve any bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President. This grants the President a pocket veto or absolute veto over state legislation under Article 201 when such a reserved bill is presented for presidential assent.

Explanation

Article 263 of the Constitution of India explicitly provides for the creation of an Inter-State Council to facilitate coordination, discuss policies, and resolve disputes between the Union and the States. This article empowers the President of India to establish such a council by order whenever it appears that public interests would be served by doing so. The President exercised this constitutional power in 1990, establishing the Inter-State Council through a Presidential Order on the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission. This makes statements a and b correct, while statement c is incorrect because the council has indeed been established and is functional.

Explanation

According to K.C. Wheare, Indian federalism is quasi-federal. He observed that the Indian Constitution creates a system of government which is unitary in spirit but federal in structure, possessing features of both unitary and federal states.

According to Morris Jones, Indian federalism is bargaining federalism. He characterized the system as a continuous process of negotiation and political bargaining between the central government and the state governments, particularly regarding financial assistance, development planning, and political resource sharing.

According to C.F. Strong, Indian federalism is less federalism. Strong argued that in federal models where the residuary or reserve powers are vested in the central authority rather than the states, the system approaches closer to a unitary state and is thus less federal.

According to Granville Austin, Indian federalism is cooperative federalism. In his book, The Indian Constitution: Cornerstone of a Nation, Austin emphasized that despite having a strong central government, the Indian system operates through mutual dependence and coordination between the Centre and the states rather than competition or subordination.

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, several provisions can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.

First, the admission or establishment of new states under Article 2, as well as the formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states under Article 3.

Second, provisions in the Second Schedule, which govern the emoluments, allowances, privileges, and related matters of the President, Governors, Speakers, and Judges.

Third, the delimitation of constituencies for redrawing electoral boundaries.

Provisions such as the Directive Principles of State Policy are not amendable by a simple majority and instead require a special majority of Parliament under Article 368.

Explanation

Article 148 of the Constitution of India establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India. The CAG is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department and acts as the guardian of the public purse, controlling the entire financial system of the country at both the Union and State levels. The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal, and can only be removed from office in a manner and on grounds similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Explanation

Under the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, the Government of India introduced the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme, which was initially restricted to Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) belonging to 16 specified countries. These 16 countries were Australia, Canada, Finland, France, Greece, Ireland, Israel, Italy, Netherlands, New Zealand, Portugal, the Republic of Cyprus, Sweden, Switzerland, the United Kingdom, and the United States of America. Finland, Israel, the Republic of Cyprus, and Portugal are all included in this specified list.

Explanation

Article 350 ensures that any person can submit a representation for the redressal of grievances in any of the languages used in the Union or in the State, matching subject (a) with article (iii).

Article 350 A mandates states to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups, matching subject (b) with article (i).

Article 350 B provides for a Special Officer for linguistic minorities appointed by the President to investigate safeguards, matching subject (c) with article (iv).

Article 351 contains a directive for the Union to promote the spread and development of the Hindi language, matching subject (d) with article (ii).

Explanation

Chabahar Port in Iran gives India a strategic maritime-land route to Afghanistan and Central Asia while bypassing Pakistan, correctly described in statement (a). India Ports Global Limited was indeed established as the special purpose vehicle to operate and develop Chabahar Port, per statement (c). However, statement (b) is factually inaccurate because China's strategic counterweight port in Pakistan is Gwadar Port, not Karachi Port, making any option that validates statement (b) incorrect.

Explanation

Jose Antonio Kast Rist, a conservative lawyer and founder of the Republican Party of Chile, won the runoff presidential election held in December 2025, defeating his rival candidate. He was sworn in as the 38th President of Chile in March 2026, succeeding outgoing President Gabriel Boric, marking a significant shift toward conservative governance in the country.

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved the PM Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana on 16th July 2025, aimed at improving agricultural productivity in underperforming districts. The scheme covers 100 districts selected based on low productivity, low cropping intensity, and inadequate credit disbursement, with additional consideration for land holding size and socio-economic factors. Implementation involves convergence of existing schemes across central and state departments, with a multi-level (district, state, and central) monitoring and governance structure to track progress on key performance indicators.

Explanation

The 2025 Nobel Prize recognitions and laureates are paired as follows:

Discovery of macroscopic quantum mechanical tunnelling and energy quantisation in an electric circuit: This groundbreaking achievement in superconducting circuits paved the way for modern quantum computing and was recognized with the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics, shared by John Clarke, Michel Devoret, and John Martinis.

The development of metal-organic frameworks: This pioneering development in creating porous crystalline materials with vast applications in gas storage and environmental sustainability was honored with the 2025 Nobel Prize in Chemistry, awarded to Richard Robson, Susumu Kitagawa, and Omar M. Yaghi.

Discoveries concerning peripheral immune tolerance: This crucial discovery of the mechanisms governing regulatory T cells that prevent the immune system from attacking the body's own organs earned the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine, awarded to Fred Ramsdell, Mary E. Brunkow, and Shimon Sakaguchi.

Promoting democratic rights for the people of Venezuela: The 2025 Nobel Peace Prize was awarded to Venezuelan opposition leader Maria Corina Machado for her courageous struggle and tireless efforts in advocating for democracy and a peaceful political transition in her country.

Explanation

The 31st National Children's Science Congress (NCSC) was held at Ravindra Bhavan in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh, from 3rd to 6th January, 2025. Therefore, statement (a) is incorrect because of the incorrect year (2026).

The focal theme of the 31st NCSC was indeed "Understanding Ecosystem for Health and Wellbeing", making statement (b) correct.

Explanation

Goa Chief Minister Pramod Sawant announced the creation of the state's third district, named Kushavati, which is carved out of the existing South Goa district. The new district is named after the ancient Kushavati River, which flows through the region. Kushavati comprises the four hinterland talukas of Dharbandora, Quepem, Sanguem, and Canacona, with its administrative headquarters established at Quepem town. This administrative restructuring aims to decentralize governance, improve public service delivery, and boost infrastructure and socio-economic development, particularly for the region's tribal and rural communities. Kushavati is also set to be developed as an aspirational district, making it eligible for additional development funds from the Central Government.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of India 2025-26, the global economic order is shifting from hyper-globalisation to a more fragmented, security-driven, and geopolitically aligned system. The Survey notes that a proliferation of immigration controls across countries typically favoured by Indian emigrants may cap or reduce the growth of remittances in the medium term. Furthermore, global trade is being increasingly influenced by geopolitical alignments and the rapid resurgence of economic statecraft, where economic instruments are strategically deployed to achieve national security and foreign policy goals. Consequently, global trade policy is driven by rising protectionism and retaliatory tariffs, leading to strategic decoupling among major economies. Finally, geoeconomic factors, such as friendshoring and nearshoring trends, have emerged as critical determinants in shaping key bilateral trade patterns, reflecting a broader transition toward strategic and cautious global integration.

Explanation

Suresh Kalmadi served as the President of the Asian Athletics Association (AAA) for a 13-year tenure from 2000 to 2013. He took charge of the continental governing body in 2000 and remained in office until July 2013, when he was succeeded by Dahlan Jaman Al-Hamad of Qatar. During his leadership, several major continental competitions were introduced to promote the sport in Asia, including the Asian Grand Prix Series, the Asian Indoor Athletics Championships, and the Asian All Star Meet.

Explanation

The Department of Science and Technology, Government of India, established Women Technology Parks (WTPs) as single-window hubs to promote gender equality and empower women through science and technology-based livelihood solutions, training, and technology transfer. These parks were set up in Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Sikkim, and Arunachal Pradesh. Gujarat and Maharashtra were not among the states where such Women Technology Parks were established under this initiative.

Explanation

During Brazil's BRICS Chairship in 2025, which held the theme Strengthening Global South Cooperation for More Inclusive and Sustainable Governance, the presidency focused on two main priorities: Global South Cooperation, and BRICS Partnerships for Social, Economic, and Environmental Development. Under these priorities, political attention was focused on six core flagship areas of cooperation.

First, Global Health Cooperation aims to encourage real cooperation projects among member nations, focusing on vaccine research and production, and public health systems.

Second, Trade, Investment, and Finance focuses on utilizing local currencies, diversifying payment platforms, and advancing the Strategy for BRICS Economic Partnership.

Third, Climate Change centers around launching a BRICS Climate Leadership Agenda and mobilizing green finance to address global environmental challenges.

The remaining three areas of focus are Artificial Intelligence Governance, Multilateral Peace and Security Architecture, and the Institutional Development of the BRICS mechanism.

Consequently, (a) Global Health Cooperation, (b) Climate change, and (e) Trade, Investment and Finance represent the official flagship priorities of the Brazilian Chairship.

Explanation

The National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) was approved by the Ministry of Education to outline a methodology to rank educational institutions across the country.

The framework outlines an evaluation process based on five broad parameters: Teaching, Learning and Resources; Research and Professional Practice; Graduation Outcomes; Outreach and Inclusivity; and Perception.

Under the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) category, which evaluates higher education institutions on their contributions toward sustainable development and environmental practices, the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras secured the first rank.

Explanation

India secured the top position in the medal standings at the World Para Athletics Grand Prix 2026 held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in New Delhi. The Indian contingent delivered an exceptional performance to finish with a total of 208 medals, which consisted of 75 gold, 69 silver, and 64 bronze medals. Russia finished second with 35 medals.

Explanation

The chronological order of recognition of the given languages as classical languages of India is Tamil (e) recognized in 2004, Sanskrit (b) in 2005, Telugu (a) in 2008, Odia (d) in 2014, and Pali (c) in 2024. This yields the correct sequence of (e), (b), (a), (d), (c).

Explanation

Assam became the first Indian state to constitute its 8th State Pay Commission, announced by Chief Minister Himanta Biswa Sarma ahead of the scheduled expiry of the 7th Pay Commission on January 1, 2026. The commission, headed by a former Additional Chief Secretary, was tasked with reviewing pay scales, allowances, and pension benefits for lakhs of state government employees and pensioners, with recommendations expected within an 18-month period.

Explanation

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) 2025 report, titled Overlapping Hardships: Poverty and Climate Hazards, is published jointly by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).

The 2025 edition of the report specifically focuses on the intersection between acute multidimensional poverty and environmental shocks. For the first time, it overlays poverty data with four specific climate hazards: high heat, drought, flooding, and air pollution. This analysis reveals that nearly 80% of the world's poor live in regions highly exposed to at least one of these climate hazards.