The state of 'Maharashtra with Mumbai' was established on 1st May 1960. How many districts and Talukas were there in newly created Maharashtra State.
(a) 26 Dist. (b) 28 Dist. (c) 239 Talukas (d) 229 Talukas
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Answer: (C) (d) and (a) correct
Explanation
When the state of Maharashtra was established on 1 May 1960 under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, it initially comprised 26 districts and 229 talukas distributed across 4 administrative divisions.
Statement (a) is correct because the newly created state began with exactly 26 districts.
Statement (d) is correct because there were 229 talukas at the time of the state's formation.
This corresponds to option 3.
2History
The following individuals supported 'The Hindu Code Bill' forwarded by Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in the views of women empowerment.
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (b) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Sucheta Kriplani
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Answer: (B) Only (d) correct
Explanation
The Hindu Code Bill, championed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to reform Hindu personal law on marriage, divorce, inheritance, and women's rights, faced strong opposition from conservative Congress leaders including Dr. Rajendra Prasad, Pattabhi Sitaramayya, and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, who feared backlash from traditionalist sections. Sucheta Kriplani, a prominent woman member of the Constituent Assembly and later Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh, was among the supporters advocating for the bill in the interest of women's empowerment and legal equality.
3HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Annabhai Sathe used the following means to spread the Communist Ideology.
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Answer: (D) Kala Pathak
Explanation
Annabhau Sathe was a highly influential social reformer, folk poet, and writer from Maharashtra who played a pivotal role in popularizing Marxist and Ambedkarite ideas. In 1943, he co-founded the Lal Bawta Kala Pathak (Red Flag Cultural Squad) along with Amar Sheikh and Datta Gavhankar. Operating as a cultural wing, this troupe traveled extensively throughout both rural and urban Maharashtra. It served as a powerful medium to spread Communist ideology, raise political consciousness, and mobilize the working class, peasants, and marginalized communities against socio-economic exploitation using regional folk performances, songs, and street plays.
4History
Which of the following sentences is correct ?
First sentence : M.N. Roy was the leader of the Liberal Party.
Second sentence : M.N. Roy was the leader of the Radical Democratic Party.
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Answer: (B) Second sentence is correct.
Explanation
M.N. Roy founded the Radical Democratic Party in 1940. He established this political outfit after developing differences with the Indian National Congress regarding India's stance on World War II, where he advocated for supporting the Allied powers against fascism to pave the way for India's eventual democratization and independence.
5History
Who among the following founded the Independence for India League ?
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Answer: (A) Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose
Explanation
In 1928, Jawaharlal Nehru and Subhash Chandra Bose founded the Independence for India League, with S. Srinivasa Iyengar serving as its first president. The league was created within the Indian National Congress in opposition to the Nehru Report of 1928, which proposed Dominion Status for India. Younger leaders like Nehru and Bose rejected the idea of Dominion Status and established this league to actively campaign for complete independence (Poorna Swaraj) and to propagate socialist ideas within the nationalist movement.
6HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Match the social reformers with their literature :
(a) Vithal Ramji Shinde (i) Ishara
(b) Dadoba Pandurang (ii) Dharmavivechan
(c) Gopal Hari Deshmukh (iii) Bhartiya Asprushatecha Prashna
(d) Jyotirao Phule (iv) Jatibhed
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Explanation
Vithal Ramji Shinde wrote Bhartiya Asprushatecha Prashna, which is a pioneering historical and sociological research work on the origins and eradication of untouchability in India.
Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar wrote Dharmavivechan in 1848 to outline the core spiritual and monotheistic principles guiding the Paramahansa Sabha.
Gopal Hari Deshmukh, popularly known as Lokhitwadi, penned Jatibhed to critique the rigid and discriminatory Hindu caste hierarchy.
Jyotirao Phule wrote Ishara in 1885 as a powerful cautionary booklet addressing the plight of the peasant classes and critiquing orthodox exploitation.
7History
Match the following :
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Dr. Radhakrushanan Commission | (i) 1949 |
| (b) Mudliyar Commission | (ii) 1952 |
| (c) N.C.E.R.T. establishment | (iii) 1961 |
| (d) Dr. Kothari Commission | (iv) 1964 |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Dr. Radhakrishnan Commission, also known as the University Education Commission, was set up in November 1948 and submitted its report in August 1949 to recommend reforms for Indian university education.
Mudaliar Commission, also known as the Secondary Education Commission, was appointed by the Government of India in September 1952 under the chairmanship of Dr. A. Lakshmanaswami Mudaliar to address issues in school education.
National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) was established as an autonomous organization by the Government of India on September 1, 1961, to assist and advise the Central and State Governments on academic matters.
Dr. Kothari Commission, also known as the Education Commission, was constituted in July 1964 under the chairmanship of Dr. Daulat Singh Kothari to advise the government on a national pattern of education.
8HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Match the following :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| (a) Vithal Ramji Shinde | (i) President, 'Valve Taluka Shetkari Parishad' at Borgaon |
| (b) Khasesaheb Pawar | (ii) President, Fourth session of 'Mumbai Prantik Brahmanetar Party' |
| (c) Dinkarrao Javalkar | (iii) Weekly 'Tej' |
| (d) Shripatrao Shinde | (iv) Vijayi Maratha |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Vithal Ramji Shinde presided over the Valve Taluka Shetkari Parishad held at Borgaon, demonstrating his extensive work in championing the cause of the peasantry and agricultural classes.
Khasesaheb Pawar was a notable leader of the non-Brahmin movement in Maharashtra and served as the President of the fourth session of the Mumbai Prantik Brahmanetar Party, further strengthening the political representation of non-Brahmin communities.
Dinkarrao Javalkar was a fiery writer, journalist, and active leader of the non-Brahmin movement. He edited and wrote highly influential, radical articles for the weekly Tej, focusing on peasant rights and criticizing exploitation.
Shripatrao Shinde founded and edited the popular weekly Vijayi Maratha in 1919. This publication served as a powerful platform for the socio-educational upliftment of the Bahujan and Maratha communities.
9History
Disenchantment with Britisher is growing day by day in India and we have to give them a way to vent it out only than we can stabilise our Government. This statement of Alan Hume was supported by :
(a) Sir Wederburn (b) Mount Stuart Elphinstine
(c) Sir Henry Cotton (d) Slegal
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Answer: (A) (a) and (c) correct
Explanation
The idea that the Indian National Congress was created to provide a platform for peaceful expression to prevent a violent rebellion is famously known as the Safety Valve Theory. Allan Octavian Hume believed that there was rising discontent among the Indian population against the British administration, and providing a constitutional outlet for this anger was essential to maintaining the stability of British rule. This perspective and Hume's initiatives were supported by Sir William Wedderburn and Sir Henry Cotton. Sir William Wedderburn, a retired civil servant and Hume's biographer, worked closely with him to establish the Congress and presided over its sessions in 1889 and 1910. Sir Henry Cotton, another sympathetic British administrator who presided over the Congress session in 1904, also endorsed this approach as a means to constructively channel nationalistic sentiments.
10History
Match the following :
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Gulbadan Begam | (i) Expert in Calligraphy |
| (b) Salima Sultana | (ii) Highly educated and well read in Persian |
| (c) Jahanara Begam | (iii) Humayunnamah |
| (d) Zeb-un-Nisa | (iv) Wrote poems in Persian |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Explanation
Gulbadan Begam, the daughter of Babur, wrote the Humayunnamah to chronicle the reign of her half-brother Humayun. Salima Sultana Begum, a wife of Akbar, was widely respected as highly educated and well read in Persian. Jahanara Begum, the prominent daughter of Shah Jahan, excelled in various artistic fields and was highly skilled in Persian calligraphy. Zeb-un-Nisa, the daughter of Aurangzeb, was a talented poet who composed extensive verses in Persian under the pseudonym Makhfi.
11Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Identify the odd title word.
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Answer: (D) Shetkaryacha Asood
Explanation
Shetkaryacha Asood is a renowned book written by the pioneering social reformer Mahatma Jyotirao Phule, published in 1881, which critiques the exploitation of the peasantry. In contrast, the other three works, namely Vithobachi Shikwan, Kulkarni Leelamrut, and Shetaji Pratap, were authored by Mukundrao Patil, a key intellectual and leading peasant spokesperson of the Satyashodhak and non-Brahmin movement in Maharashtra.
12HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Justice Ranade welcomed Deccan Agriculturist Relief Act, because ________.
(a) This act would protect the farmers from the money lenders
(b) By this act, the farmers would be relieved of the debt burden
Which of the statement/statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a) and (b)
Explanation
Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade and the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha campaigned extensively to highlight the distress of the Deccan peasantry after the Deccan Riots of 1875. He welcomed the Deccan Agriculturists Relief Act of 1879 because it directly addressed the main causes of agrarian unrest. First, the Act protected farmers from the exploitation of moneylenders by establishing village registrars to supervise agreements and require written records of transactions. Second, it reduced the crushing debt burden of the farmers by empowering courts to investigate unfair contracts, scale down high-interest rates, and prevent the arrest or imprisonment of debtors. Thus, both protection from moneylenders and debt relief were major objectives welcomed by Ranade.
13HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who among the following was head of the 'Swadeshi Vastu Pracharini Sabha' organization ?
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Answer: (B) Lokmanya Tilak
Explanation
During the Swadeshi Movement following the partition of Bengal in 1905, Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak led the campaign in the Bombay Presidency and established the Swadeshi Vastu Pracharini Sabha. He served as the head of this organization, which aimed to secure the manufacture, supply, and distribution of indigenous Indian goods, and to set up Swadeshi cooperative stores to promote economic self-reliance. Under his leadership, the Sabha actively promoted Swadeshi products through public lectures, exhibitions, and regional festivals to cultivate patriotic sentiments among the masses.
14HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Match the following prisoners sent from Maharashtra to Andaman with their place of residence.
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| (a) Adhuria | (i) Nagar |
| (b) Pandu Bhorji | (ii) Khandesh Yaval |
| (c) Dharma Subhan | (iii) Nashik |
| (d) Dhondi Birbal | (iv) Pandharpur |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Explanation
During the anti-British rebellions and the 1857 Uprising in Maharashtra, several local revolutionaries were arrested and deported to the penal colony in the Andaman Islands.
Adhuria was a prominent rebel hailing from Khandesh Yaval who was transported to Andaman for active participation in the regional anti-British uprising.
Pandu Bhorji belonged to Nagar and was convicted of waging war against the British East India Company, resulting in his deportation.
Dharma Subhan was a revolutionary from Pandharpur who faced transportation to Andaman for his rebel activities.
Dhondi Birbal was from Nashik and was sent to the Andaman penal settlement for his role in organizing resistance against British colonial rule.
15History
Dinshaw Wancha wrote a letter to Dadabhai Naoroji on 18th Nov. 1899 to convey the failure of Congress.
(a) Lay-off consistently in the work by Congress.
(b) Attitude of leaders towards politics as a leisure activity.
(c) We only bark do not bite.
(d) The only way to follow is revolutionary way.
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Answer: (C) , (b) and (a) correct
Explanation
On 18th November 1899, the prominent Moderate leader Dinshaw Edulji Wacha wrote a letter to Dadabhai Naoroji expressing his deep concern and disappointment over the working methodology and failures of the Indian National Congress.
In this letter, Wacha highlighted that the work of the Congress was highly inconsistent and lacked continuity. It functioned in a spasmodic manner, being active mostly during the three days of its annual session and remaining inactive throughout the rest of the year. He also lamented that most leaders did not take political activism seriously and instead treated politics as a leisure activity or a holiday sport rather than a dedicated, full-time responsibility. Furthermore, he critically remarked on the ineffective nature of their constitutional agitation, noting that they only raised their voice through empty speeches and resolutions without taking any concrete action, famously stating that they only bark and do not bite.
The statement regarding the revolutionary path is incorrect because both Wacha and Naoroji were staunch believers in constitutional methods, peaceful representations, and petitions. As key leaders of the Moderate phase, they firmly rejected revolutionary or violent means, making the revolutionary path completely contrary to their political convictions.
16Geography
Which of the following landforms are produced on coastal area by wave erosion ?
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Answer: (A) Sea cliff, Bay, Sea caves, Sea stacks
Explanation
Wave erosion occurs along coasts through processes such as hydraulic action, abrasion, attrition, and solution. The continuous force of waves against the shoreline carves out several distinct erosional landforms.
Sea cliffs are steep, near-vertical rock faces created when waves continuously undercut the base of a coastal slope, causing the overhanging rock to collapse.
Bays are semi-circular inlets formed along discordant coastlines where bands of soft rock erode much faster than the surrounding hard rock.
Sea caves develop when wave action exploits natural weaknesses, such as joints, faults, or fractures, in the cliff base and hollows them out over time.
Sea stacks are tall, isolated pillars of rock standing in the water near the coast. They are formed when a sea arch collapses due to ongoing wave erosion and weathering, leaving the seaward pillar standing alone.
17Geography
Which of the following group of cities are connected by Golden Quadrilateral National Highway System ?
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Answer: (B) Bangalore, Chennai, Kolkata, Agra
Explanation
The Golden Quadrilateral is a national highway network connecting India's four major metropolitan cities: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata. The network is divided into four main arms linking these hubs. The cities of Bangalore, Chennai, Kolkata, and Agra are directly connected by this highway network. Specifically, Kolkata and Chennai serve as two of the primary vertices of the quadrilateral. Agra is located on the Delhi-Kolkata arm of the highway system, while Bangalore is situated on the Mumbai-Chennai arm, ensuring that all four of these cities are integral nodes on the Golden Quadrilateral.
18Geography
Match the following :
| Region | Name of the wind |
|---|---|
| (a) Sahara desert | (i) Foehn |
| (b) Greece | (ii) Semun |
| (c) Iran | (iii) Sirocco |
| (d) Alps | (iv) Khamsin |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
Sahara desert is matched with Khamsin, which is a hot, dry, sandy local wind that blows from the Sahara Desert across parts of North Africa.
Greece matches with Sirocco, which is a hot, dry wind originating in the Sahara that blows northward across the Mediterranean Sea to Southern Europe, including Greece.
Iran matches with Semun, a very hot, dry, and dust-laden local wind characteristic of the desert regions of Iran and Iraq.
Alps matches with Foehn, which is a warm, dry, down-slope wind that occurs on the leeward side of the Alps mountain range.
19Geography
Which mountain range is found between Karakoram mountain range and Pir Panjal mountain range ?
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Answer: (A) Zaskar mountain range
Explanation
The physical geography of the northern mountain regions of India exhibits a distinct North-to-South alignment of major mountain ranges. Moving from the highest latitudes in the north towards the south, the sequence begins with the Karakoram range, followed by the Ladakh range, the Zaskar range, the Great Himalayas, and the Pir Panjal range of the Lesser Himalayas. This geographical layout positions the Zaskar mountain range between the Karakoram range to its north and the Pir Panjal range to its south.
20Geography
Arrange the following countries of the world having the highest density of population (Year 2012) in descending order.
(a) Bangladesh (b) Singapore
(c) Malta (d) Monaco
(e) Mauritius (f) Bahrain
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Answer: (C) (d), (b), (f), (c), (a), (e)
Explanation
The population densities of the specified countries in the year 2012, measured in inhabitants per square kilometer, are arranged in descending order as follows:
Monaco (d) had approximately 19,361 inhabitants per square kilometer.
Singapore (b) had approximately 8,019 inhabitants per square kilometer.
Bahrain (f) had approximately 2,182 inhabitants per square kilometer.
Malta (c) had approximately 1,642 inhabitants per square kilometer.
Bangladesh (a) had approximately 1,265 inhabitants per square kilometer.
Mauritius (e) had approximately 624 inhabitants per square kilometer.
21Geography
Match the following :
| Types of Plateau | Example of Plateau |
|---|---|
| (a) Intermont Plateau | (i) Colorado Plateau |
| (b) Piedmont Plateau | (ii) Colombia Plateau |
| (c) Lava Plateau | (iii) Greenland Plateau |
| (d) Glacier Erosion Plateau | (iv) Baluchistan Plateau |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
The correct matches for the types of plateaus and their examples are:
Intermontane plateaus are surrounded by mountains on all sides. The Baluchistan Plateau is a prime example, bordered by the Sulaiman, Kirthar, and Makran mountain ranges.
Piedmont plateaus are located at the foot of mountains, bordered by mountains on one side and flat plains, basins, or seas on the other. The Colorado Plateau in the United States fits this category as it is situated between the Rocky Mountains and the Basin and Range province.
Lava plateaus are created by successive sheets of basaltic lava flowing from volcanic fissures and solidifying over vast areas. The Colombia Plateau in the northwestern United States is a classic example of such a volcanic flood basalt plateau.
Glacier erosion plateaus are shaped or formed by the erosional force of massive ice sheets and continental glaciers. The Greenland Plateau is a classic example of a high-altitude plateau heavily modified by glaciation.
22Economy
Observe the statements regarding mineral oil production.
(a) Nunnati oil refinery established with the help of Rumania.
(b) Nunnati oil refinery is located in Assam.
(c) The raw mineral oil is supplied to Koyali oil refinery from Ankleshwar.
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Answer: (C) Statements (a), (b), (c) are correct.
Explanation
Guwahati Refinery, situated at Nunmati in Guwahati, Assam, was commissioned on January 1, 1962, as India's first public sector refinery. This refinery was established in collaboration with Romania.
The Koyali Refinery, also known as the Gujarat Refinery, is situated near Vadodara in Gujarat. It was designed to process domestic crude oil from the fields of Gujarat, and it receives its primary raw mineral oil supply from the highly productive Ankleshwar oil field through an established pipeline network.
23Geography
Arrange the following Geological periods of the earth from the oldest to the newest one.
(a) Triassic Period (b) Carboniferous Period
(c) Cambrian Period (d) Quaternary Period
(e) Permian Period
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Answer: (D) (c), (b), (e), (a), (d)
Explanation
The geological time scale chronologically arranges Earth's history into distinct eras and periods. The Cambrian Period (c) is the earliest of the group, representing the first period of the Paleozoic Era from roughly 541 to 485 million years ago. It is followed later in the Paleozoic Era by the Carboniferous Period (b), which occurred from about 359 to 298 million years ago. The Permian Period (e) succeeds the Carboniferous and serves as the final period of the Paleozoic Era, spanning from around 298 to 252 million years ago. The Triassic Period (a) marks the subsequent transition to the Mesozoic Era, spanning from approximately 252 to 201 million years ago. Lastly, the Quaternary Period (d) is the youngest, representing the current period of the Cenozoic Era which began approximately 2.58 million years ago.
24Geography
Match the following :
| Glacier | Place |
|---|---|
| (a) Siachin | (i) Kashmir |
| (b) Rimo | (ii) Karakoram |
| (c) Gangotri | (iii) Uttarakhand |
| (d) Zemu | (iv) Sikkim |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram Range in the Himalayas, making it the longest glacier in the Karakoram region. Rimo Glacier is situated in the eastern Karakoram range, historically associated with the Jammu and Kashmir region. Gangotri Glacier is a major glacier located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand, serving as the source of the Bhagirathi River. Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalayas, located at the base of Kanchenjunga in Sikkim.
25Geography
Match the following :
| National Park/Sanctuary | State |
|---|---|
| (a) Bandipur | (i) Rajasthan |
| (b) Keoladeo | (ii) Assam |
| (c) Indravati | (iii) Karnataka |
| (d) Manas | (iv) Chattisgarh |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation
Bandipur National Park (a) is located in Karnataka (iii), established as a tiger reserve under Project Tiger. Keoladeo National Park (b) is situated in Rajasthan (i) and is a renowned avifauna sanctuary. Indravati National Park (c) is found in Chhattisgarh (iv), named after the Indravati River flowing nearby. Manas National Park (d) is located in Assam (ii) and is designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
26Geography
Match the following plateaus with their continents :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| (a) Columbia plateau | (i) Asia |
| (b) Bolivia plateau | (ii) Europe |
| (c) Central Massif plateau | (iii) South America |
| (d) Yunan plateau | (iv) North America |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
Columbia plateau is a geographic region located in the northwestern part of the United States in North America.
Bolivia plateau, also known as the Altiplano, is situated in west-central South America within the Andes mountain range.
Central Massif plateau is an elevated highland region located in southern France in Europe.
Yunan plateau is a mountainous region located in southwestern China in Asia.
27GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Find out the descending order of the following districts regarding density of population as per census 2011.
(a) Kolhapur (b) Jalgaon
(c) Pune (d) Nagpur
(e) Solapur
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Answer: (D) (c), (a), (d), (b), (e)
Explanation
According to the Census 2011, the population density values of these districts in Maharashtra, measured as persons per square kilometer, are as follows:
Arranging these districts in descending order of their population density yields the sequence Pune, Kolhapur, Nagpur, Jalgaon, and Solapur, which corresponds to the order of (c), (a), (d), (b), (e).
28Economy
Which of the following industry produces agricultural tools on large scale ?
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Answer: (D) The Kirloskar
Explanation
The Kirloskar Group is a pioneering Indian industrial conglomerate that began manufacturing agricultural tools and implements on a large scale. In the early 1900s, Laxmanrao Kirloskar introduced the first iron plow in India to replace traditional wooden plows. Over the decades, the company expanded its production to include various large-scale farm equipment and tools, such as chaff cutters, power tillers, diesel engines, and casting parts for tractors, significantly contributing to the mechanization of Indian agriculture.
29Geography
Match the pairs of Indian rivers and waterfalls on it :
| River | Waterfall |
|---|---|
| (a) Sharawati | (i) Jog |
| (b) Narmada | (ii) Kapildhara |
| (c) Kaveri | (iii) Shibsamudram |
| (d) Ghatprabha | (iv) Gokak |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Sharawati River matches with Jog Falls, which is a major plunge waterfall located in the Shimoga district of Karnataka.
Narmada River matches with Kapildhara Falls, situated near the river origin at Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh.
Kaveri River matches with Shibsamudram Falls, which is a famous segmented waterfall located in Karnataka.
Ghatprabha River matches with Gokak Falls, a waterfall resembling Niagara Falls located in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.
30Science and Technology
______ planet in solar system found ______ k.m. from sun and takes 88 days to complete one rotation around sun.
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Answer: (B) Mercury, 5.8 crore
Explanation
Mercury is the closest planet to the Sun in our solar system, situated at an average distance of approximately 57.9 million kilometers, which is equivalent to 5.8 crore kilometers. It has the shortest orbital period of any planet, taking about 88 Earth days to complete one full revolution around the Sun.
31Geography
Match the following :
| Column - I (Species) | Column - II (Type) |
|---|---|
| (a) Indian Rhino | (i) Rare |
| (b) Asiatic Elephant | (ii) Endangered |
| (c) Desert Fox | (iii) Extinct |
| (d) Pink Head Duck | (iv) Vulnerable |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Explanation
According to the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) classification of plant and animal species as detailed in the NCERT Geography curriculum:
The Indian Rhino is categorized as an Endangered species because its survival is difficult if the negative factors that led to its decline continue to operate.
The Asiatic Elephant is classified as a Vulnerable species because its population has declined to levels from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if negative factors continue.
The Desert Fox is considered a Rare species because it has a small population that could easily move into the endangered or vulnerable category if threatening factors persist.
The Pink Head Duck is categorized as an Extinct species since it has not been found in the wild after extensive searches of its known or likely habitats.
32Economy
Basel convention an international treaty designed to reduce movement of hazardous waste from developed to less developed countries signed in ______ at ______.
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Answer: (D) March 1989 - Switzerland
Explanation
The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and Their Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989 in Basel, Switzerland. This international treaty was created to restrict the movement of hazardous wastes between nations, particularly from developed countries to developing countries, and to promote environmentally sound management of these wastes.
33Economy
Green Dot Programme means recycling of industrial polluted water began in which country?
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Answer: (B) Germany
Explanation
The Green Dot program (Der Grüne Punkt) was pioneered in Germany in 1990. It was established as the world's first nationwide Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) scheme to reduce and manage packaging waste. Under this program, manufacturers and distributors pay a licensing fee to display the Green Dot symbol on their packaging, which funds the collection, sorting, and recycling of waste materials.
34Geography
"Ecology is the study of structure and function of ecosystem" who defined in 1969 ?
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Answer: (D) Odum
Explanation
Eugene P. Odum defined ecology in 1969 as "the study of structure and function of ecosystem." This definition promoted a modern, holistic approach to ecological science by focusing on the structural components of ecosystems and the biological, chemical, and physical processes that govern their function.
35Geography
Which of the following are ecological impacts of ozone depletion ?
(a) Damage human immune system
(b) Stunted growth of the plants
(c) Rise of temperature
(d) Causes cataracts
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
Ozone layer depletion allows more harmful ultraviolet-B radiation to reach the Earth's surface, resulting in severe ecological and biological impacts.
Damage to the human immune system occurs because increased ultraviolet-B radiation suppresses immune responses, reducing the body's capacity to fight off infections.
Stunted growth of plants is a direct consequence of ultraviolet-B radiation altering crucial physiological and developmental processes, which impairs photosynthesis and damages plant DNA.
The rise of temperature is linked to ozone-depleting substances like chlorofluorocarbons, which are extremely potent greenhouse gases that trap heat and contribute to global warming.
Cataracts, which lead to impaired vision or blindness, are caused by the direct exposure of eye tissues to elevated levels of ultraviolet-B radiation.
36Economy
The three year action agenda of NITI Aayog for 2017-2020 aimed at :
(a) Doubling farmers' income by 2022.
(b) Provision of electricity to all households by 2022.
(c) Establishing central universities in all states by 2022.
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Answer: (D) (a) and (b) only are correct.
Explanation
The Three-Year Action Agenda (2017-18 to 2019-20) formulated by NITI Aayog outlined critical targets to be completed by 2022 to align with the developmental goals of India.
In the agricultural sector, the agenda aimed to double farmers' income by 2022 by enhancing crop productivity, reformulating marketing mechanisms like the electronic National Agriculture Market, and streamlining land leasing policies.
In the energy sector, the agenda targeted the provision of electricity to all households by 2022. It proposed comprehensive steps to upgrade transmission networks, separate agricultural feeders, and accelerate renewable energy capacity.
Regarding higher education, the document focused on creating twenty world-class universities, granting graded autonomy to top-performing colleges, and reforming the regulatory system rather than setting up central universities in every state.
37Economy
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) recommends this :
(a) waste-to-energy mission
(b) national mission on coastal areas
(c) wind mission
(d) mission on climate change and health
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Answer: (D) all of these
Explanation
The National Action Plan on Climate Change, initially launched in 2008 with eight core national missions, was later expanded on the recommendation of the Prime Minister's Council on Climate Change to incorporate new missions to address evolving climate challenges.
The waste-to-energy mission was recommended to incentivize efforts toward harnessing power and fuel from urban, municipal, and industrial waste, thereby lowering India's dependency on fossil fuels.
The national mission on coastal areas was proposed to prepare integrated coastal zone management plans, map shoreline vulnerabilities, and safeguard coastal communities and ecosystems from sea-level rise and extreme weather events.
The wind mission, or National Wind Energy Mission, was recommended to unlock India's high wind energy potential and boost grid-connected wind power generation.
The mission on climate change and health, formulated under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, was introduced to address vector-borne diseases, heat stress, and other health hazards amplified by global warming.
Consequently, all four options are recommended missions under the updated framework of the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
38Economy
Consider the following :
(a) Creeping inflation is conducive for economic growth and may have favourable effects.
(b) During inflation value of money increases.
(c) Inflation benefits debtors.
(d) Inflation decreases the inequality of income.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) (a) and (c)
Explanation
Creeping inflation, which represents a mild and gradual rise in the general price level, acts as a crucial incentive for producers and investors. It helps maintain profit margins, encourages investments in business expansion, and stimulates consumer demand, which are essential factors for sustaining economic growth.
Inflation benefits debtors because the real value of money falls over time. Debtors repay their nominal debts using money that has lower purchasing power than the money they originally borrowed, thereby reducing the real burden of their outstanding debt.
39Economy
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) The Human Capital Index (HCI) suggested in World Development Report - 2019 is measured in terms of the productivity of the next generation of workers.
(b) HCI ranges between zero and one.
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Answer: (D) both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation
The Human Capital Index (HCI) was launched by the World Bank as part of the World Development Report 2019, under the theme Changing Nature of Work.
The index is designed to measure the amount of human capital that a child born today can expect to attain by age 18. This directly conveys the expected productivity of the next generation of workers compared to a benchmark of complete standard education and full health.
The HCI is scored on a scale ranging between zero and one. A score of one represents a state of optimal health and complete standard education, where future workers can achieve their full productivity potential.
40Polity and Governance
Government of India's ministry of Housing and urban affairs is implementing which scheme for urban planning and heritage conservation ?
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Answer: (D) HRIDAY Programme
Explanation
The HRIDAY (Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana) programme was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs on January 21, 2015. The scheme focuses on the holistic development, urban planning, and heritage conservation of heritage cities in India. It aims to preserve and revitalize the unique character of these cities by supporting the development of core infrastructure around heritage assets, including physical infrastructure like water supply, sanitation, drainage, waste management, footpaths, street lights, and tourist conveniences, while seamlessly integrating heritage conservation with modern urban planning.
41Economy
Under 11th Five Year Plan, 27 monitorable targets were divided into how many main categories ?
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Answer: (A) 6 categories
Explanation
The 27 national monitorable targets under the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007–2012) were divided into six major categories to ensure multi-dimensional inclusive growth. These six main categories are Income and Poverty, Education, Health, Women and Children, Infrastructure, and Environment. Out of these twenty-seven national targets, thirteen were disaggregated at the state level to facilitate better tracking of progress across various socio-economic dimensions.
42Economy
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ?
(a) The United Nations conference on Sustainable Development was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2015.
(b) The Sustainable Development Goals are otherwise known as the Global Goals.
(c) The SDGs Replace the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs).
(d) The SDGs came in to effect in January 2012.
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Answer: (C) (b) and (c)
Explanation
The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) are widely known as the Global Goals, representing a universal call to action to end poverty, protect the planet, and ensure peace and prosperity. Adopted by all United Nations Member States in September 2015, they officially came into effect on January 1, 2016, succeeding and replacing the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) that concluded in 2015.
43Polity and Governance
Pension Scheme, Pradhanmantri Shramyogi Mandhan Yojana is applicable for which of the following in India ?
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Answer: (D) All the three mentioned above
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) is a voluntary and contributory pension scheme launched to ensure old-age protection and social security for unorganised workers. The scheme specifically covers various categories of informal workers whose monthly income is ₹15,000 or less and who fall within the entry age group of 18 to 40 years.
The target beneficiaries explicitly include construction workers, audio-visual workers, and mid-day-meal workers, alongside other occupations like street vendors, domestic workers, rickshaw pullers, and agricultural labourers. Therefore, all three categories of workers mentioned are eligible to enroll in the scheme.
44Economy
Which of the following statement/s is/are incorrect about Net National Product (NNP) ?
(a) It shows net production of goods and services produced in a given financial year adjusted for net factor income from abroad.
(b) It includes exports, imports but not factor income from abroad.
(c) It is called 'net' because it deducts capital depreciation from total National Income.
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Answer: (C) (b)
Explanation
Statement (b) is incorrect because Net National Product (NNP) is a national concept of income that explicitly accounts for economic transactions with the rest of the world. By definition, NNP is obtained by deducting depreciation from Gross National Product (GNP):
NNP = GNP - Depreciation
Since GNP is calculated by adding Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA) to Gross Domestic Product (GDP), NNP inherently includes factor income from abroad. NFIA represents the difference between the factor income earned by domestic residents from abroad and the factor income paid to foreign residents within the domestic territory. Therefore, asserting that NNP does not include factor income from abroad is incorrect.
45Economy
It is observed that :
(a) The objective of environmental sustainability often conflicts with growth objective.
(b) There is a trade-off between development and Environmental sustainability.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) both (a) and (b)
Explanation
Economic growth traditionally focuses on increasing the production of goods and services, which raises gross domestic product. But this expansion often relies on the intensive consumption of finite natural resources, deforestation, and industrial pollution. This creates a direct conflict with the objective of environmental sustainability, which aims to preserve ecological balance and protect resources for future generations.
In addition, a clear trade-off is observed between development and environmental sustainability. For a country to build infrastructure, urbanize, and expand industries, it typically sacrifices environmental quality and depletes natural capital, especially during the early stages of development. Although sustainable development models aim to minimize this friction, the practical reality of economic advancement demonstrates that higher development often comes at the cost of environmental preservation.
46Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
(a) National Solar Mission was launched in 2010.
(b) It aims to generate 1,00,000 MW of power by 2021-2022.
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Answer: (C) (a) and (b) both are correct
Explanation
The National Solar Mission, also known as the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission, was formally launched on 11 January 2010 as one of the eight key missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change.
Initially, the mission set a target of achieving 20,000 MW of grid-connected solar power by 2022. In June 2015, the Union Cabinet approved a major revision, stepping up the target five-fold to 1,00,000 MW (100 GW) of grid-connected solar power by the year 2021-2022.
47Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Real Estate (Regulation and development) Act and select correct one.
(a) was passed in 2016.
(b) aims at protecting interest of home buyers.
(c) was not applicable in the state of Jammu and Kashmir.
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Answer: (D) all of the above are correct.
Explanation
The Real Estate (Regulation and Development) Act (RERA) was passed by the Parliament of India in March 2016 and received Presidential assent on March 25, 2016, which validates statement (a).
The primary objective of the Act is to protect the interests of homebuyers by ensuring transparency, accountability, and efficiency in the real estate sector, which validates statement (b).
According to Section 1(2) of the original Act passed in 2016, it extended to the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir due to the special status under Article 370 of the Constitution of India. Although central laws were later extended to the region via the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the original central Act was not applicable to Jammu and Kashmir when enacted, making statement (c) correct.
48Economy
Which of the following is true regarding Indian population ?
(a) Annual population growth rate has been declining.
(b) Share of India's young population has started declining.
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Answer: (C) (a) and (b) both are correct.
Explanation
The annual population growth rate in India has been declining consistently over the past several decades. This is evident from the decadal population growth rate, which slowed from 21.54% during the 1991–2001 decade to 17.64% during the 2001–2011 decade.
Concurrently, the share of India's young population has started declining. This shift is a key characteristic of the ongoing demographic transition in India, primarily driven by a rapid decline in the Total Fertility Rate (TFR), which has dropped to or below the replacement level of 2.1 in a majority of Indian states. As a result of this transition, the proportion of the population in younger age brackets has begun its downward trajectory, shifting the demographic bulge toward the working-age cohort.
49Economy
Which of the following is/are not a Millennium Development Goal(MDG) ?
(a) Achieve universal primary education.
(b) Promotion of gender equality.
(c) Reducing infant mortality.
(d) Ensure environmental sustainability.
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Answer: (C) (c) only
Explanation
The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were eight international development goals established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000.
Among the statements provided:
Statement (a) refers to MDG 2: Achieve universal primary education.
Statement (b) refers to MDG 3: Promote gender equality and empower women.
Statement (d) refers to MDG 7: Ensure environmental sustainability.
Statement (c) is not a Millennium Development Goal, as MDG 4 specifically targets reducing child mortality (reducing the under-five mortality rate by two-thirds) rather than focusing solely on infant mortality.
50Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about goals to be achieved under the National Population Policy, 2000 ?
(a) Reduce dropouts at the primary and secondary school levels to below 30 percent for both boys and girls.
(b) Reduce infant mortality rate to below 20 per 1000 live births.
(c) Reduce maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 1,00,000 live births.
(d) Achieve 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriage and pregnancy.
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Answer: (D) (c) and (d)
Explanation
Under the National Population Policy, 2000, several national socio-demographic goals were formulated:
The maternal mortality ratio was targeted to be reduced to below 100 per 100,000 live births.
The policy sought to achieve 100 percent registration of births, deaths, marriages, and pregnancies.
Additionally, the target for the school dropout rate at primary and secondary levels was set below 20 percent for both boys and girls, and the target for the infant mortality rate was set below 30 per 1,000 live births.
51Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
(a) An atom is electrically neutral.
(b) The negative charge on nucleus is equal to the total negative charge of all the orbiting electrons.
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Answer: (C) (a) correct, (b) incorrect
Explanation
An atom is electrically neutral because the total positive charge of the protons in its nucleus is equal in magnitude to the total negative charge of all its orbiting electrons, resulting in a net electric charge of zero.
The nucleus consists of positively charged protons and neutral neutrons, which gives the nucleus a net positive charge rather than a negative charge. The positive charge of the nucleus is equal in magnitude to the total negative charge of the orbiting electrons, making the statement regarding a negative charge on the nucleus incorrect.
52Science and Technology
If density of water is 1000 kgm⁻³ and density of copper is 8.9 × 10³ kgm⁻³. What is relative density of copper ?
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Answer: (A) 8.9
Explanation
Relative density of a substance is defined as the ratio of its density to the density of water.
Relative density = Density of substance / Density of water
Substituting the given values into the formula:
Relative density of copper = (8.9 × 10³ kgm⁻³) / (1000 kgm⁻³)
Since 1000 kgm⁻³ can be written as 10³ kgm⁻³, the equation becomes:
Relative density of copper = (8.9 × 10³ kgm⁻³) / (10³ kgm⁻³) = 8.9
Because relative density is the ratio of two similar quantities, the units cancel out, making it a dimensionless and unitless quantity.
53Science and Technology
Find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium, if light moves through the first medium with velocity 2 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹, which changes to 1.25 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹ in the second medium.
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Answer: (C) 1.6
Explanation
The refractive index of the second medium with respect to the first medium (₁η₂) is defined as the ratio of the velocity of light in the first medium (v₁) to the velocity of light in the second medium (v₂):
When the two surfaces in contact have a very thin layer of lubricant in between them, it is known as ______.
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Answer: (C) Greasy friction
Explanation
When a very thin layer of lubricant of molecular thickness is present between two contact surfaces, the friction experienced between them is known as greasy friction, which is also commonly referred to as boundary friction or non-viscous friction. In this state, the lubricant is adsorbed onto the rubbing surfaces to form a thin film. Because this layer is extremely thin, the high spots or asperities of the opposing surfaces can still break through the lubricant film and come into direct contact with each other, meaning the friction behaves similarly to dry or solid friction.
55Science and Technology
A person carrying a bag of total mass 25 kg climbs upto a height 5 meters in 30 seconds. How much power the man needs to carry the bag ?
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Answer: (B) 40.83 W
Explanation
Power is defined as the rate of doing work. The formula to calculate the power required to lift a mass against gravity is given by P = mgh / t, where m is the mass of the bag, g is the acceleration due to gravity, h is the height climbed, and t is the time taken.
Using the standard value for acceleration due to gravity g = 9.8 m/s², and substituting the given values of m = 25 kg, h = 5 meters, and t = 30 seconds into the equation:
P = (25 × 9.8 × 5) / 30
P = 1225 / 30
P = 40.83 W
56Science and Technology
A laser light beamed at the Moon takes 2.56 s to return to earth after reflection at the Moon's surface. How much is the radius of the lunar orbit around the Earth ?
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Answer: (D) 3.84 × 10⁸ m
Explanation
The distance between the Earth and the Moon represents the radius of the lunar orbit. Because the laser light travels from the Earth to the Moon and then reflects back, the total distance covered by the light is twice the radius of the orbit.
The relationship between distance, speed of light, and time is given by:
2r = c × t
Here, r is the radius of the lunar orbit, c is the speed of light (3 × 10⁸ m/s), and t is the total round-trip time (2.56 s).
Rearranging the formula to solve for r:
r = (c × t) / 2
r = (3 × 10⁸ × 2.56) / 2
r = 3.84 × 10⁸ m
57Science and Technology
Which of the following cell organelle is not bounded by membrane ?
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Answer: (B) Ribosome
Explanation
Ribosomes are small, dense, granular organelles composed of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) and proteins that are not enclosed by any lipid membrane. Because they lack a membrane barrier, they are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells, where they function as the sites of protein synthesis by translating genetic instructions from messenger RNA (mRNA) into polypeptide chains.
58Geography
Who among the following Scientists coined the term "Ecology" ?
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Answer: (B) Ernst Heinrich Haeckel
Explanation
The German zoologist Ernst Heinrich Haeckel coined the term ecology, originally spelled oekologie, in 1866. He derived the term from the Greek words oikos, meaning house or dwelling, and logos, meaning study. Haeckel defined it as the study of the relationship of organisms with their organic and inorganic environment.
59Science and Technology
With respect to chromosomes in eukaryotic cells regarding DNA as genetic material consider the following statements.
(a) Histones are small proteins associated with chromosomal DNA of eukaryotic cells.
(b) These proteins are rich in basic Amino Acids Argenine and Lysine.
(c) These protein lack Trptophan.
Now, choose the correct option :
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Answer: (B) All the above three statements are correct.
Explanation
Histones are small, basic proteins found in the nuclei of eukaryotic cells where they play a fundamental role in packaging DNA into nucleosomes, which eventually fold to form chromosomes. These proteins contain a very high concentration of the basic amino acids arginine and lysine. The positively charged side chains of these amino acids are essential for electrostatically binding to the negatively charged phosphate groups of DNA. Additionally, histones lack the amino acid tryptophan, a characteristic biochemical property that differentiates them from non-histone chromosomal proteins.
60Science and Technology
Which among the following is not involved in Respiratory Process ?
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Answer: (A) Calvin cycle
Explanation
The Calvin cycle is a light-independent metabolic pathway that occurs during photosynthesis inside the stroma of chloroplasts in plants and algae. Its primary purpose is carbon fixation, where carbon dioxide is converted into organic compounds such as glucose using the chemical energy of ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions. Because it is an anabolic pathway of food synthesis, it is not involved in cellular respiration.
61Science and Technology
Polio is a viral disease. WHO extends facilities to members nations to fight against Polio.
(a) It is acute viral infection caused by DNA virus.
(b) Poliomyelitis is commonly called as Polio.
(c) Pulse Polio immunization programe launched in India in 1995.
(d) Now Polio is already eradicated from India.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Only (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Poliomyelitis, commonly called polio, is caused by the poliovirus, a single-stranded RNA virus (not DNA), making statement (a) incorrect. The Pulse Polio Immunization programme was indeed launched in India in 1995 as part of the global polio eradication initiative. India was certified polio-free by the WHO in 2014 after no wild poliovirus cases were reported since January 2011, confirming that polio has been eradicated from the country. Thus statements (b), (c), and (d) are correct.
62Science and Technology
Which gastric juices are secreted in human stomach ?
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Answer: (C) HCl and Pepsin
Explanation
The gastric glands in the mucosal lining of the human stomach secrete gastric juice containing hydrochloric acid (HCl) and pepsinogen. Hydrochloric acid is highly acidic and serves to kill harmful microorganisms while creating an optimal low pH environment. This acidic environment activates the inactive pepsinogen into pepsin, an active proteolytic enzyme. Pepsin then functions to break down dietary proteins into simpler proteoses and peptones, facilitating the initial stages of protein digestion in the stomach.
63Science and Technology
Give the sequence of blood circulation in mammalian heart.
(a) Left auricle (b) Right auricle (c) Left ventricle (d) Right ventricle
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Answer: (C) (b), (d), (a), (c)
Explanation
In the mammalian heart, blood circulation follows a specific pathway through the four chambers during double circulation. Deoxygenated blood returning from the body tissues enters the right auricle (b). From the right auricle, this blood flows into the right ventricle (d), which then pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation. After oxygenation in the lungs, the oxygen-rich blood returns to the heart and enters the left auricle (a). From the left auricle, the blood passes into the left ventricle (c), from where it is pumped through the aorta to distribute oxygen to all parts of the body. This sequence represents the complete pathway of blood flow through the heart chambers.
64Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an intermediate step in Respiration ?
During glycolysis, which is the initial pathway of cellular respiration, fructose-6-phosphate is phosphorylated to yield fructose-1,6-diphosphate. The reverse conversion of fructose-1,6-diphosphate back to fructose-6-phosphate does not take place in respiration. Instead, this reverse reaction is a key regulatory step in gluconeogenesis, which is an anabolic metabolic pathway responsible for synthesizing glucose rather than breaking it down for energy.
65Science and Technology
In CaO, so as to achieve the stable octate :
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Answer: (A) Ca atom transfer its two valence electrons to the same oxygen atom
Explanation
Calcium has the atomic number 20 with an electronic configuration of 2, 8, 8, 2, meaning it has two valence electrons in its outermost shell. Oxygen has the atomic number 8 with an electronic configuration of 2, 6, meaning it requires two electrons to complete its octet. To achieve stable octet configurations, the calcium atom transfers its two valence electrons to the same oxygen atom. This electron transfer results in the formation of a calcium cation (Ca²⁺) and an oxide anion (O²⁻), both of which possess stable octet configurations, leading to the formation of the ionic compound calcium oxide (CaO).
66Science and Technology
32 g of methane (molar mass 16 g/mol) is mixed with 192 g of oxygen (molar mass 32 g/mol). Presuming that these gases donot react with each other, what is the mole fraction of methane ?
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Answer: (A) 0.25
Explanation
The number of moles of a gas is calculated by dividing its given mass by its molar mass.
For methane, the number of moles is 32 g divided by 16 g/mol, which equals 2 mol.
For oxygen, the number of moles is 192 g divided by 32 g/mol, which equals 6 mol.
The total number of moles in the mixture is the sum of the moles of both gases, which is 2 mol + 6 mol = 8 mol.
The mole fraction of methane is the ratio of the moles of methane to the total moles in the mixture. This is calculated as 2 mol divided by 8 mol, which equals 0.25.
67Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct ?
(a) Diamond is a non-conductor of electricity.
(b) Graphite has a two dimensional sheet like structure.
(c) Graphite conducts electricity.
(d) Diamond is used for rock drilling.
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Answer: (A) All of the above
Explanation
Diamond has a giant covalent structure where each carbon atom is tetrahedrally bonded to four other carbon atoms through strong covalent bonds. Because all valence electrons are locked in these localized single bonds, there are no free-moving electrons, making diamond an excellent electrical insulator. Due to the high strength of these covalent bonds in three dimensions, diamond is the hardest known natural substance, making it ideal for industrial uses such as rock drilling. In contrast, graphite consists of carbon atoms arranged in flat, two-dimensional hexagonal sheets that are stacked on top of each other. Each carbon atom in graphite is bonded to only three neighbors, which leaves one delocalized valence electron per carbon. These delocalized electrons are free to move throughout the layers, enabling graphite to conduct electricity.
68Science and Technology
Which has maximum Ionization Energy ?
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Answer: (C) Mg⊕⁺ (Mg2+)
Explanation
Successive ionization energy always increases for a given element because the ratio of protons to electrons increases with each electron removed, which significantly strengthens the electrostatic attraction between the nucleus and the remaining electrons. In the case of magnesium, Mg²⁺ has a +2 charge attracting its ten remaining electrons, resulting in a much higher effective nuclear charge compared to neutral Mg or the Mg⁺ ion. Additionally, Mg²⁺ has achieved a highly stable noble gas electronic configuration of 1s² 2s² 2p⁶, which is equivalent to neon. Removing another electron to form Mg³⁺ requires breaking this highly stable octet in a doubly charged cation, which demands an exceptionally large amount of energy.
69Science and Technology
Chemical reaction rates generally ________.
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Answer: (C) are greater at the beginning of a reaction and decrease with time
Explanation
According to the rate law, the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the reactants, represented as Rate = k[A]ⁿ. At the start of a reaction, the concentration of the reactants is at its maximum. This high concentration results in a high frequency of effective molecular collisions, producing the fastest reaction rate at the beginning. As the reaction progresses, reactants are continuously consumed to form products, leading to a steady decrease in their concentration. Because the rate of reaction depends on the concentration of these remaining reactants, the reaction rate decreases over time.
70Science and Technology
The mildest reducing agent which reduces only carbonyl group in presence of nitro, carboxyl, double bond and ester group is ________.
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Answer: (C) NaBH₄
Explanation
Sodium borohydride (NaBH₄) is a mild and highly selective reducing agent. It readily reduces aldehydes and ketones (carbonyl groups) to primary and secondary alcohols, respectively. Due to its mild nucleophilic nature, NaBH₄ is not reactive enough to reduce less electrophilic carbonyl groups such as carboxylic acids and esters. Furthermore, it does not reduce isolated carbon-carbon double bonds or nitro groups under normal reaction conditions. This chemical selectivity allows for the targeted reduction of carbonyl groups in the presence of these more resistant functional groups.
71Polity and Governance
The Constitution 105th amendment act, 2021 related to the socially and educationally backward classes, amends ________ articles of Indian Constitution.
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Answer: (D) three
Explanation
The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act, 2021, amended three articles of the Indian Constitution to restore the power of state governments and union territories to identify and notify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs).
These three amended articles are Article 338B, Article 342A, and Article 366.
Article 338B was amended to clarify that state governments and union territories do not need to consult the National Commission for Backward Classes for the purpose of preparing and maintaining their lists of backward classes. Article 342A was amended to clarify that the President can specify the list of SEBCs only for the purposes of the Central Government, while explicitly empowering states and union territories to prepare and maintain their own list of SEBCs. Article 366, specifically clause 26C, was amended to define socially and educationally backward classes in alignment with the restored listing powers of the states and union territories.
72Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is correct with respect to 'Right against exploitation' ?
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Answer: (A) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
Explanation
The Right against Exploitation is a Fundamental Right guaranteed under Articles 23 and 24 of the Constitution of India. Article 23 explicitly prohibits traffic in human beings, begar, and other similar forms of forced labour, making any contravention of this provision an offence punishable in accordance with law.
73Polity and Governance
Who among the following is not directly participating in the election of President ?
(a) The elected members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
(b) The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the State.
(c) The elected members of Legislative Assemblies of the union territories of Delhi and Puducherry.
(d) Both elected and nominated members of the state legislative councils.
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Answer: (C) (d)
Explanation
Under Article 54 of the Constitution of India, the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States and Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry. The members of the State Legislative Councils, whether elected or nominated, are not part of this electoral college and thus do not participate in the election of the President.
74Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding District Judges :
(a) The appointment of District Judge is made by Chief Justice of High Court.
(b) The Chief Minister has the authority to transfer the District Judge.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Neither (a) nor (b)
Explanation
Under Article 233 of the Constitution of India, the appointment, posting, and promotion of district judges in any State are made by the Governor of the State in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State.
Furthermore, under Article 235 of the Constitution of India, the control over district courts and courts subordinate thereto, which includes the posting, promotion, and transfer of district judges, is vested in the High Court of the State. The Chief Minister has no authority in these matters, ensuring the independence of the judiciary from the executive.
75Polity and Governance
Match the following pairs List "A" with List "B".
| List - A | List - B |
|---|---|
| (a) Single Citizenship | (i) United Kingdom (UK) |
| (b) Judicial Review | (ii) America (USA) |
| (c) Directive Principles of State Policy | (iii) Ireland |
| (d) Concurrent list in Union-State Relation | (iv) Australia |
Answer Options:
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Single Citizenship is paired with United Kingdom (UK) because the Indian Constitution adopted the British model of a unified national citizenship rather than a dual citizenship system.
Judicial Review is paired with America (USA) as the Indian judiciary's power to test the constitutional validity of legislative acts and executive orders is inspired by the American system.
Directive Principles of State Policy is paired with Ireland because these fundamental guidelines for governance and socio-economic justice were borrowed from the Irish Constitution of 1937.
Concurrent list in Union-State Relation is paired with Australia because the framework of having a shared list of legislative subjects where both federal and regional governments can make laws is adopted from the Australian Constitution.
76Polity and Governance
When was the word 'Armed Rebellion' added to the Constitution to declare a National Emergency ?
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Answer: (A) By 44th Constitution Amendment Act
Explanation
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion in Article 352 of the Constitution of India. This change was introduced by the Janata Party government to prevent the misuse of emergency powers, ensuring that a National Emergency could no longer be declared on the grounds of domestic political unrest or non-violent protests.
77Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) The President may return an ordinary bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(b) The President may return the money bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
(c) If an ordinary bill is passed again by the Parliament, the President must give his assent to the bill.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a) and (c)
Explanation
Under Article 111 of the Constitution of India, the President has the power to return a bill passed by Parliament for reconsideration, provided it is not a Money Bill. This makes statement (a) correct. Furthermore, Article 111 specifies that if an ordinary bill returned by the President is passed again by both Houses of Parliament, with or without amendments, and presented to the President, the President must give assent to it, making statement (c) correct.
78Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding with Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
(a) He is appointed by the President of India.
(b) His salary and other service conditions are determined by Parliament.
(c) He can be removed by Prime Minister any time.
(d) He acts as a guide, friend and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal as per Article 148 of the Constitution of India. Under the same Article, the salary and other conditions of service of the Comptroller and Auditor General are determined by the Parliament of India. Furthermore, the Comptroller and Auditor General acts as a guide, friend, and philosopher of the Public Accounts Committee of Parliament because he attends its meetings, helps explain the technicalities of the audit reports, and assists the committee in scrutinizing the public accounts and expenditures.
79Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) Legislative Council is a Permanent Chamber.
(b) The Governor is the ex-officio chairman of Legislative Council.
(c) Except few nominated members the members of Legislative council are indirectly elected.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a) and (c)
Explanation
Under Article 171 of the Constitution of India, the Legislative Council is a permanent chamber that is not subject to dissolution, with one-third of its members retiring every second year. The composition of the Council consists of a mix of elected and nominated members. One-sixth of the total strength is nominated by the Governor from fields such as literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service. The remaining five-sixths of the members are indirectly elected through electoral colleges comprising members of local bodies, graduates, teachers, and members of the Legislative Assembly.
80Polity and Governance
The Jammu and Kashmir State Human Rights Commission ceased to exist from ______.
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Answer: (A) 31st October 2019
Explanation
Under the provisions of the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019, the former state of Jammu and Kashmir was reorganized into the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the Union Territory of Ladakh. This transition officially took effect on 31st October 2019.
Following the implementation of this reorganization, several state-specific legislations were repealed, including the Jammu and Kashmir Protection of Human Rights Act, 1997. As a result, the Jammu and Kashmir State Human Rights Commission ceased to exist with effect from 31st October 2019.
81Polity and Governance
According to the 74th amendment act, 1992 of the Indian Constitution there are ______ types of Municipalities in urban India.
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Answer: (B) three
Explanation
The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 introduced Part IX-A to the Constitution of India, which constitutionally recognizes three distinct types of municipalities in urban areas. Under Article 243Q, these three types are a Nagar Panchayat for a transitional area moving from rural to urban, a Municipal Council for a smaller urban area, and a Municipal Corporation for a larger urban area.
82Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Maharashtra Legislative Council completed its 50 years of existence in ______.
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Answer: (C) 1987
Explanation
The Maharashtra Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) was established under the Government of India Act, 1935, which introduced a bicameral legislature to the Bombay Presidency. The first session of this council was held on 20 July 1937. Counting 50 years from its inception in 1937, the Legislative Council completed 50 years of its existence in the year 1987.
83Polity and Governance
Forms of Oaths or Affirmations are included in the ______ schedule of the Indian Constitution.
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Answer: (C) third
Explanation
The Third Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains the forms of oaths or affirmations that must be made by candidates for elections and holders of several constitutional offices. These offices include Union and State Ministers, members of Parliament and State Legislatures, candidates contesting elections for these legislative bodies, judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor General of India. It prescribes the specific wording of the oath or affirmation to either uphold the sovereignty and integrity of India or to faithfully discharge duties without fear or favor.
84History
When was the Communist Party of India Marxist (CPI-M) formed ?
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Answer: (D) 1964
Explanation
The Communist Party of India Marxist, commonly known as CPI-M, was officially formed in 1964. The party emerged from a major split within the Communist Party of India during its Seventh Congress held in Calcutta from October 31 to November 7, 1964. This division was the culmination of intensifying ideological differences, particularly regarding the evaluation of the Indian ruling class, the strategy for socialist revolution, and the geopolitical alignment amidst the Sino-Soviet split. Prominent leaders such as E.M.S. Namboodiripad, Jyoti Basu, and Harkishan Singh Surjeet were instrumental in establishing the new party.
85Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding with speaker of Lok Sabha :
(a) He hold office during the pleasure of the President.
(b) He need not be a member of the House at the time of his election.
(c) He Presides over a joint sitting of the two houses of Parliament.
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Only (c)
Explanation
Under Article 118(4) of the Constitution of India, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over any joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. This joint sitting is summoned by the President of India under Article 108 to resolve a deadlock between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha regarding the passage of a bill. In the event of the Speaker's absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, presides over the joint sitting.
86Polity and Governance
'Muslim Women's Rights Day' is observed in India on ________ since the enactment of law in 2019, which has made the practice of instant triple talaq a criminal offence.
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Answer: (A) 1st August
Explanation
Muslim Women's Rights Day is observed across India on 1st August. This day is dedicated to celebrating the enactment of the law against triple talaq, known as the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, which came into effect on 1st August 2019. Under this legislation, the practice of instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) is declared illegal and void, and it is classified as a cognizable and criminal offence punishable by up to three years of imprisonment. The Ministry of Minority Affairs announced the observance of this day starting from 2020 to acknowledge the protection of the constitutional, fundamental, and democratic rights of Muslim women in India.
87History
Which of the following US states celebrated the 'Kannada Language and Rajyothsava day' on 1st November 2021 ?
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Answer: (D) Georgia
Explanation
The Governor of the US state of Georgia, Brian P. Kemp, issued an official proclamation designating November 1, 2021, as Kannada Language and Rajyothsava Day. This recognition highlighted Kannada as one of the longest-surviving classical languages with a rich literary history, while celebrating the cultural and economic contributions of the Kannadiga diaspora living in Georgia. It was coordinated primarily through the efforts of the Nrupathunga Kannada Koota, making Georgia the first US state to formally recognize the Kannada language and Rajyotsava Day at the state level.
88History
Who was recognised as the 'Miracle Mom from Chandigarh' ?
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Answer: (D) Mann Kaur
Explanation
Mann Kaur was a legendary Indian centenarian track-and-field athlete who was fondly known as the Miracle Mom from Chandigarh. She began her athletics career at the advanced age of 93 under the encouragement of her son. Over the years, she won multiple gold medals in various events, including the 100-meter sprint, at the World Masters Games and World Masters Athletics Championships, inspiring people globally by proving that age is never a barrier to achieving greatness.
89Polity and Governance
Maria Ressa who won the 2021 Nobel Peace Prize co-founded 'Rappler' which is a ________.
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Answer: (D) Digital media company for investigative journalism
Explanation
Rappler is a Philippine online news website founded in 2012 by Maria Ressa and a group of fellow Filipino journalists. It operates as a digital media company that focuses on investigative journalism, gaining international prominence for its fearless reporting on corruption, state-sponsored violence, and the weaponization of social media. This commitment to investigative journalism and defending freedom of expression earned Ressa the Nobel Peace Prize in 2021.
90Economy
Human Development report 2020 (Published by UNDP) emphasises the relations between Human Development and ________.
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Answer: (B) Anthropocene
Explanation
The 2020 Human Development Report (HDR) published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) is titled "The Next Frontier: Human Development and the Anthropocene".
This milestone report emphasizes that humanity has entered a new geological epoch, the Anthropocene (or the Age of Humans), where human activity has become the dominant force driving planetary and environmental changes. The report argues that future progress must look beyond traditional measures of development to address planetary pressures, leading to the introduction of an experimental planetary pressures-adjusted Human Development Index (PHDI) which factors in carbon dioxide emissions and material footprints.
91Polity and Governance
Jains were also added in the list of minorities as classified by the Union Government. In this regard consider the following statements :
(a) Now there are six designated minority communities in the country.
(b) A Constitutional Amendment passed by the Parliament with simple majority is required to bring any community in the list of minorities.
(c) The Ministry of Minority Affairs of the Government of India established in 2009.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct because there are six officially designated minority communities in the country, namely Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains. Jains were added to this list in January 2014.
Statement (b) is incorrect because the designation of a community as a minority is done by the Central Government via an executive notification under Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. No Constitutional Amendment is required for this.
Statement (c) is incorrect because the Ministry of Minority Affairs of the Government of India was established on 29 January 2006, when it was carved out of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
92Art and Culture
2020 Booker Prize was awarded to which of the following novels ?
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Answer: (B) Shuggie Bain
Explanation
The 2020 Booker Prize was awarded to Douglas Stuart for his debut novel Shuggie Bain. Set in Glasgow during the 1980s, the novel tells the poignant story of a young boy named Shuggie growing up in a public housing estate while trying to support his mother, Agnes, as she struggles with severe alcoholism and poverty. Douglas Stuart became the second Scottish author to win the prestigious literary award.
93Art and Culture
2020 चा बुकर पुरस्कार खालीलपैकी कोणत्या कार्दबरीला मिळाला आहे ?
(1) दी सेलआंकट (2) शुगी बेन
(3) दी लुमिनरीज (4) ब्रिंग अप दी बॉडीज
2020 Booker Prize was awarded to which of the following novels ?
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Answer: (B) Shuggie Bain
Explanation
The 2020 Booker Prize for Fiction was awarded to Scottish-American author Douglas Stuart for his debut novel Shuggie Bain. The novel, set in Glasgow, Scotland, during the 1980s, tells the story of a young boy named Shuggie growing up in poverty while trying to care for his mother who is struggling with alcohol addiction.
94Polity and Governance
The 'Blue heart campaign' run by an UN institution is related to ______.
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Answer: (B) Human trafficking
Explanation
The Blue Heart Campaign is a global awareness-raising initiative to fight human trafficking and its impact on society. Launched by the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC), it encourages involvement from governments, civil society, the corporate sector, and individuals to inspire action and help prevent this crime. The blue heart represents the sadness of those who are trafficked, while reminding us of the cold-heartedness of those who buy and sell fellow human beings.
95Art and Culture
2021 Oscar award for actor in a leading role was won by _________.
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Answer: (C) Anthony Hopkins
Explanation
Anthony Hopkins won the Academy Award for Best Actor in a Leading Role at the 93rd Academy Awards in 2021 for his performance in the film The Father. With this win, he became the oldest Oscar winner for acting in the history of the Academy Awards.
96Science and Technology
Wang Yaping, an astronaut, who recently walked in space, is a citizen of _________.
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Answer: (A) China
Explanation
Wang Yaping is a Chinese military pilot and astronaut (taikonaut) who became the first Chinese woman to perform a spacewalk (extravehicular activity) in November 2021. This historic event took place during the Shenzhou 13 mission outside China's under-construction Tiangong space station core module, Tianhe.
97Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) Ladakh became a Union Territory on 31st October, 2019.
(b) The Union Territory of Ladakh comprises two districts namely Leh and Kargil.
(c) Umang Narula is the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh.
Which is the incorrect statement ?
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Answer: (C) (c)
Explanation
Statement c is incorrect because Umang Narula was appointed as the Advisor to the Lieutenant Governor of Ladakh, rather than the Lieutenant Governor himself. The first Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Ladakh was Radha Krishna Mathur, a retired 1977-batch Indian Administrative Service officer.
98GeographyMaharashtra-specific
The Mumbai Metropolitan Region spread over 6,328 sq.km. consists of ________ Municipal Corporations.
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Answer: (C) 9
Explanation
The Mumbai Metropolitan Region is spread over 6,328 square kilometres and consists of 9 Municipal Corporations. These municipal corporations are Greater Mumbai, Thane, Kalyan-Dombivali, Navi Mumbai, Ulhasnagar, Bhiwandi-Nizampur, Vasai-Virar, Mira-Bhayandar, and Panvel. The region also includes 9 municipal councils and more than 1,000 villages spread across Thane, Raigad, and Palghar districts. The planning and developmental activities of this region are administered by the Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority.
99Art and Culture
'Jnanpith award', the highest literary award in India, is sponsored by ________.
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Answer: (C) Bharatiya Jnanpith, a cultural organisation
Explanation
Bharatiya Jnanpith is a premier literary and research organization founded in 1944 by Sahu Shanti Prasad Jain and Rama Jain. The organization instituted the prestigious Jnanpith Award in 1961 to recognize and promote outstanding creative writing in Indian languages. It continues to sponsor and present this highest literary honor in India annually to meritorious authors.
100Economy
Find the correctly matched pairs of Bank and Bank slogans.
(a) Punjab National Bank - The Name you can Bank Upon
(b) Union Bank of India - Good People to Bank with
(c) HSBC - World's Local Bank
(d) Bank of Maharashtra - One Family One Bank
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Explanation
Punjab National Bank, founded in 1894, has the long-standing corporate tagline "The Name you can Bank Upon".
Union Bank of India, one of the leading public sector banks in India, operates with the slogan "Good People to Bank with".
HSBC, a prominent multinational financial services corporation, famously used the slogan "World's Local Bank" for its global operations.
Bank of Maharashtra, a major public sector bank, utilizes the slogan "One Family One Bank", reflecting its customer-centric approach.