MPSC Prelims 2020 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The Peshwas of Pune had several European doctors, such as Dr. Findlay and Dr. Coats, as well as Western scholars serving in their court to introduce vaccination and scientific concepts.

Maharaja Sawai Jaysingh of Amber, a distinguished mathematician and astronomer who established the Jantar Mantar observatories, sent an embassy to King John V of Portugal to invite Portuguese astronomers to his court for astronomical research.

Raghunath Navalkar, the Maratha Subedar of Jhansi, taught himself English, cultivated a deep interest in Western education, and built a massive library of English literature alongside a laboratory equipped for scientific experiments.

Raja Sarfoji of Tanjore was educated under the guidance of the German missionary missionary Christian Friedrich Schwarz, which enabled him to learn English thoroughly and write proficiently in the language.

Explanation

The Sayyid dynasty ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1414 to 1451. All four listed rulers were the successive Sultans of this dynasty:

Khizr Khan (1414 to 1421) founded the dynasty after the invasion of Timur.

Mubarak Shah (1421 to 1434) succeeded his father Khizr Khan and was the first to assume the title of Shah.

Muhammad Shah (1434 to 1445) was the nephew and successor of Mubarak Shah.

Alauddin Alam Shah (1445 to 1451) was the final ruler of the dynasty who voluntarily abdicated the Delhi throne in favor of Bahlul Lodi, which marked the end of the Sayyid dynasty.

Explanation

Mayurbhanj merged into Orissa (iii) on 1 January 1949 due to linguistic and cultural similarities with the province. Kolhapur merged into Bombay Province (ii) on 1 March 1949, transferring its administration to the Bombay state. Rampur merged into Uttar Pradesh (iv) on 1 December 1949, becoming a district within the state. Bhopal became part of the Central Administration (i) as a Chief Commissioner's Province on 1 June 1949 before its eventual reorganization.

Explanation

The pair "Parshuram Dal - Orissa" is incorrect because the Parshuram Dal was an underground revolutionary group active in Bihar during the Quit India Movement of 1942. Founded and led by Parshuram Singh, this group carried out armed guerrilla resistance, sabotage, and anti-British activities primarily in the Bhagalpur and Banka regions of Bihar, not in Orissa.

Explanation

Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay, Hansa Mehta, Ratanben Mehta, and Ramibai Kamdar were key figures in mobilizing and inspiring women in the Bombay Presidency to participate in Mahatma Gandhi's non-violent Civil Disobedience and Satyagraha movements.

Explanation

Govindbhai Shroff was a key leader of the Hyderabad freedom struggle who specifically led and managed the movement in the Marathwada region.

M. Ramchandra Rao was associated with the political activities and the struggle in the Andhra region of the Hyderabad State.

Dr. Gopal Subryacharya Melkote was a prominent physician and freedom fighter who actively led the movement in the twin cities of the Hyderabad-Secunderabad area.

Digambarrao Bindu was appointed as the head of the Action Committee of the Hyderabad State Congress, which operated from Bombay to coordinate the final phase of the struggle against the Nizam's rule.

Explanation

Ramchandra Ghadge was a social reformer born in Kale village of Karad taluka in Satara district. Despite receiving formal education only up to the fourth standard, he worked to awaken the backward and marginalized classes (Bahujan Samaj) against social evils, the tyranny of moneylenders, and the prevailing lack of education. He used the medium of Satyashodhak Jalsas—a form of musical folk theater designed for social enlightenment and public education—which had a powerful and lasting impact on the masses of Maharashtra.

Explanation

Parikshit is the hero of a famous song of praise (the Kuntap hymns) found in the Atharvaveda, which describes his reign as highly prosperous for the Kuru kingdom.

Janamejaya, the son of Parikshit, is credited in the Aitareya Brahmana with having gone round and conquered the entire earth before performing the Ashvamedha sacrifice.

Pravahana Jaivali was a famous philosopher-king of Panchala during the late Vedic period, widely renowned in the Upanishads for teaching profound concepts like the Panchagni Vidya.

Janaka, the celebrated king of Videha, was the royal patron of the great sage Yajnavalkya, hosting numerous philosophical debates and assemblies in his court.

Explanation

On May 23, 1945, a historic conference of over 5,000 Warli Adivasis was organized at Zari village in Umbargaon Taluka. Godavari Parulekar, a prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha and the Communist Party, addressed this massive gathering. She gave a powerful call to the tribal community to unite and end the oppressive system of forced labour (vethbigar) and debt slavery. She urged them to demand a minimum daily wage of 12 annas and refuse to work for landlords unless paid. This conference became the turning point that sparked the historic Warli Adivasi Revolt.

Explanation

In 1889, Mahatma Jyotiba Phule, along with his close associate Narayan Meghaji Lokhande, organized a meeting of barbers in Bombay to address the inhumane custom of tonsure (shaving the heads of Hindu widows). He succeeded in raising awareness among the barber community about the cruelty of this practice, leading to a historic strike where barbers collectively refused to perform tonsuring on widows. This movement was a significant step in the ongoing struggle for women's rights and social reform in Maharashtra.

Explanation

The Malavas, Arjunayanas, Yaudheyas, Madrakas, Abhiras, Prarjunas, Sanakanikas, Kakas, and Kharaparikas were ancient tribal states and republican communities located on the frontiers of the Gupta Empire. According to the Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta, composed by his court poet Harisena, these nine tribal republics surrendered to Samudragupta. They agreed to pay all forms of tribute, obey imperial commands, and offer personal obeisance to the emperor to maintain a tributary status and avoid direct annexation.

Explanation

Mukunda Das was a revolutionary poet and singer from Bengal who composed patriotic songs to inspire the masses and promote national consciousness during the anti-partition Swadeshi movement. Bal Gangadhar Tilak championed the Swadeshi cause in western India and requested the Bombay mill owners to supply dhotis and other handloom garments at moderate rates to make indigenous clothing affordable for the common people. Lala Lajpat Rai led the boycott campaign in Punjab, driving the Swadeshi movement against the use of foreign sugar and other imported essential items. V. O. Chidambaram Pillai made a major contribution to economic self-reliance in southern India by establishing the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company in Tuticorin to challenge British maritime dominance.

Explanation

During the reign of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan, painting reached a high degree of refinement with a strong focus on formal portraiture, grand court scenes, and lavish use of gold. Several master artists served in his imperial atelier.

Mir Hasham was a celebrated portrait artist under Shah Jahan, noted for his precise depictions and realistic character studies of royal figures. Chitramani (also referred to as Chitarman) and Anupchitra (also known as Anoopchatar) were prominent painters of this period who contributed highly detailed works to the Shah Jahan Album. Fakir Ulla (Fakirullah) served as the director and head of Shah Jahan's royal painting workshop, producing several masterpieces himself. Muhammad Hassan was not a court painter under Shah Jahan; the prominent painter of that era was Muhammad Nadir of Samarqand. Therefore, only (a), (b), and (d) were the court painters of Shah Jahan.

Explanation

The Pakistan Resolution, also known as the Lahore Resolution, was adopted during the general session of the All-India Muslim League on March 24, 1940, formally demanding a separate homeland for Muslims.

The rejection of Rajaji's proposal by the Congress took place in May 1942. At the Allahabad meeting of the All India Congress Committee held from April 29 to May 2, 1942, C. Rajagopalachari proposed that the Congress should concede the Muslim League's claim for separation to break the political deadlock, but this proposal was rejected by a vast majority of the Congress members.

The Rajaji Formula, or CR Formula, was drafted by C. Rajagopalachari in 1944 as a fresh framework to resolve the political deadlock. This formula subsequently served as the basis for the Gandhi-Jinnah talks in September 1944.

The Simla Conference was convened by Viceroy Lord Wavell in Simla in June and July 1945, bringing together the major political leaders of British India to negotiate the Wavell Plan for self-governance.

Explanation

Naturalis Historia, commonly translated as Natural History, was written by the Roman administrator and author Pliny the Elder in the first century A.D. and dedicated to the Emperor Titus. In this encyclopedic work, Pliny provides detailed information about the geography and trade of the ancient world, including extensive accounts of the commercial relationship between Rome and India. He meticulously describes various Indian exports such as pepper, spices, fine textiles, and gemstones. Pliny famously lamented the substantial drain of Roman wealth, stating that India, along with China and the Arabian Peninsula, absorbed vast sums of Roman gold annually to pay for these luxury imports.

Explanation

Paris is situated on the banks of the Seine River, which flows through the heart of the French capital.

Geneva is located where the Rhone River exits Lake Geneva in Switzerland.

Bonn is a historic German city situated along the Rhine River.

Kiev is the capital city of Ukraine, located on the banks of the Dnieper River.

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct because the Cuddapah rock system has significant regional extensions in the Deccan region. In the Penganga and Godavari river basins, this system is represented by the Penganga series and the Pakhal series, which primarily consist of shales, limestones, and quartzites.

Statement (b) is correct because the Dharwar rock system is the oldest metamorphosed sedimentary rock system in India and is highly metalliferous. It is the main repository of India's precious metallic minerals, especially high-grade iron ore and manganese.

Statement (c) is correct because the Gondwana rock system is the primary source of coal in India. It contains over 98% of the country's total coal reserves, distributed extensively across major river valleys such as the Damodar, Mahanadi, Son, and Godavari.

Explanation

The Indus river matches with (ii) because it originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near Lake Manasarovar. The Tapi river matches with (iii) as it rises in the Satpura range in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh. The Narmada river matches with (iv) because its source is located in the Amarkantak hills of Madhya Pradesh. The Kaveri river matches with (v) since it originates in the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats in Karnataka.

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, the demographic details of the correctly represented districts are:

Nashik district has a population density of 393 persons per square kilometer and a sex ratio of 934 females per 1000 males.

Nanded district has a population density of 319 persons per square kilometer and a sex ratio of 943 females per 1000 males.

Explanation

The optimum theory of population determines the ideal population size based on different economic and welfare metrics. Boulding (a) associated the optimum population with the size that maximizes the standard of living (ii). Dalton (b) defined optimum population as that which gives the maximum income per head (iv). Peterson (c) linked the concept to achieving maximum economic growth (i). Carr-Saunders (d) defined it as the level of population that produces maximum social welfare (iii). This perfectly corresponds to option 2.

Explanation

Regur soil, commonly known as black cotton soil, is derived from the weathering of basaltic rocks of the Deccan Trap and contains a high proportion of minerals like iron, aluminum, calcium, and magnesium, making statement a correct. Lateritic soil is formed in hot, humid, and high-rainfall regions (moist climate) through the process of intense leaching, which is characteristic of the South Konkan region and Western Ghats in Maharashtra, making statement b correct. Red soil is widely found in the eastern Vidarbha region of Maharashtra, which includes the Bhandara, Gondia, and Gadchiroli districts, making statement c correct. Furthermore, red soil is highly porous and well-drained, which leads to a very low retention of organic matter, humus, nitrogen, and phosphorus, making statement d correct.

Explanation

Statement a is correct because the major coalfields of India are primarily of the Gondwana period, contributing to nearly 98% of the country's coal reserves. These coalfields are concentrated in the river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi, Son, Godavari, and Wardha, which lie in states such as Jharkhand, West Bengal, Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh, and Telangana. Geographically, these regions are situated entirely to the east of 78° East longitude.

Statement b is correct because Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Jharkhand are the leading coal-producing states in the country. Together, they consistently account for approximately 59% of India's total raw coal production, which comfortably exceeds the 50% threshold. For instance, in the 2019-20 fiscal year, Chhattisgarh contributed around 21.6%, Odisha contributed 19.6%, and Jharkhand contributed 18.0% to the national coal output.

Explanation

Trade winds are the permanent easterly winds that blow in the Earth's tropical region. They blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts, which are located around 30 degrees North and South latitudes, towards the equatorial low-pressure belt near the equator. As they flow towards the equator, the Coriolis force deflects them, causing them to blow from the northeast in the Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast in the Southern Hemisphere. These winds are extremely regular and constant in both direction and speed.

Explanation

Fragmentation of agricultural land in Maharashtra is the division of landholdings into small, scattered plots over generations due to inheritance laws and population pressure. This process severely undermines agricultural viability and productivity.

Extremely small plots prevent farmers from producing sufficient food grains to meet even their family needs. It also creates physical obstacles to supplying water and establishing irrigation systems, as channels cannot be efficiently routed across fragmented, tiny properties. Furthermore, implementing modern tools and heavy agricultural machinery is economically unviable on small patches, limiting mechanization. Finally, managing multiple far-flung fragments increases transit times and labor costs, making individual attention to crops highly uneconomical. Consequently, all four statements accurately describe the severe challenges created by land fragmentation in the state.

Explanation

The ocean floor is broadly divided into four major physiographic divisions based on depth, gradient, and relief characteristics.

The continental shelf represents the submerged seaward extension of the continent, characterized by shallow waters and a very gentle slope.

The continental slope is the region that immediately follows the shelf, marked by a steep gradient that connects the continental shelf to the deep ocean basin.

The deep sea plain, also known as the abyssal plain, is a vast, relatively flat, and extremely deep area of the ocean basin lying between the continental margins and mid-oceanic ridges.

The oceanic deeps, or trenches, are the deepest areas of the ocean, forming long, narrow, and steep-sided depressions.

Other relief features, such as continental ridges, hills, and shallow-deep sea plateaus, are classified as minor relief features rather than major physiographic divisions of the ocean floor.

Explanation

The Champion series matches Kolar and Raichur because it is a gold-bearing rock formation located in Karnataka.

The Chilpi series matches Balaghat and Jabalpur as it represents a manganese-bearing metasedimentary formation in Madhya Pradesh.

The Rialo series matches Delhi and Alwar because it constitutes crystalline limestones and quartzitic rocks along the Rajasthan-Delhi border.

The Iron-ore series matches Singhbhum and Bonai since it contains rich hematite iron ore deposits spanning the Jharkhand-Odisha belt.

Explanation

The correct geographical sequence of tahsils from north to south in Nandurbar district is Dhadgaon, Taloda, and Nandurbar.

Dhadgaon tahsil, also known as Akrani, is located in the northernmost, mountainous Satpura range of the district. Directly to its south lies the Taloda tahsil, and moving further southwards is the central Nandurbar tahsil.

Explanation

Indian Standard Time is calculated based on the 82.5° E longitude. Since 1° of longitude corresponds to a time difference of 4 minutes, the time difference between India and the Greenwich Meridian at 0° longitude is 82.5 × 4 = 330 minutes, which equals 5 hours and 30 minutes. Because India lies to the east of Greenwich, it is ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. Therefore, when the time in India is 12:00 Noon, the simultaneous time at the Greenwich Meridian is 12:00 Noon minus 5 hours and 30 minutes, which is 6:30 AM (Morning 6:30).

The International Date Line is located at approximately 180° longitude. The time difference between the Greenwich Meridian (0°) and the International Date Line (180°) is 180 × 4 = 720 minutes, which is exactly 12 hours. Moving eastwards from Greenwich to the International Date Line, the time is 12 hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. Adding 12 hours to 6:30 AM yields 6:30 PM (Evening 6:30).

Explanation

The monsoon system in India is governed by both thermal and aerodynamic factors. The extensive land area of the Indian subcontinent undergoes intense solar heating during the summer months, creating a deep low-pressure zone over north-west India. Simultaneously, the fact that sea lies on three sides of the Indian peninsula (the Indian Ocean, Arabian Sea, and Bay of Bengal) establishes a sharp temperature and pressure gradient, driving moisture-laden marine winds toward the heated landmass. Aerodynamically, the seasonal migration of the subtropical westerly jet stream from its position in the 30° to 40° latitude belt to the north of the Himalayas is crucial, as it facilitates the establishment of the tropical easterly jet stream over the Indian peninsula, which triggers and sustains the south-west monsoon winds.

Explanation

Statement (c) is incorrect because the winds that climb the Alps from the south side are Foehn winds, not Chinook winds.

Statement (d) is incorrect because the local winds that blow in the Rhine river valley are Foehn winds, whereas Chinook winds are situated in the Rocky Mountains of North America.

Explanation

The Asiatic cheetah was officially declared extinct in India in 1952. Large-scale hunting, habitat destruction, and a dwindling prey base during the 19th and early 20th centuries led to its rapid decline. The last physical evidence of the cheetah in India was recorded in 1947, when three of the remaining individuals were shot by the Maharaja of Surguja in present-day Chhattisgarh, after which the species was never sighted again in the wild in India.

Explanation

Deforestation directly removes forest cover, which serves as the primary habitat for a vast majority of terrestrial biodiversity, leading to immediate habitat loss and fragmentation. Reclamation of marshes involves draining, dredging, or filling wetlands for agriculture or urban expansion, which permanently destroys critical aquatic, avian, and semi-aquatic ecosystems. Change of land use pattern, such as converting wildlands and natural areas into industrial, residential, or commercial zones, fundamentally alters the physical environment, making it completely uninhabitable for the native flora and fauna that previously thrived there.

Explanation

(a) Naramdapha maps to (iii) Arunachal Pradesh because it is a prominent biodiversity hotspot situated in the Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh.

(b) Bhagwan Mahavir maps to (i) Goa because this national park is located in Mollem, nestled in the Western Ghats of Goa.

(c) Simlipal maps to (iv) Odisha because it is a national park and tiger reserve located in the Mayurbhanj district of Odisha.

(d) Dudhwa maps to (ii) Uttarakhand because it lies in the Terai region, forming a critical part of the larger Terai-Arc Landscape.

Explanation

100 dB matches with (iii) Permanent Loss of hearing because prolonged exposure to high intensity noise levels at or above 100 dB causes irreversible damage to the cochlea. 40 dB matches with (i) Sleep Interference because even relatively quiet ambient sounds at 40 dB can disrupt sleep patterns and lead to poor sleep quality. 70 dB matches with (iv) Speech Interference because it exceeds the normal conversation level of about 60 dB, thereby masking speech and hindering vocal communication. 90 dB matches with (ii) Loss of Working Efficiency because high levels of continuous noise cause fatigue, cognitive distraction, and psychological stress, leading to reduced productivity.

Explanation

Insects are highly valuable as crop-pollinators since species like bees, butterflies, and beetles facilitate the reproduction of flowering plants and agricultural crops.

Snakes play a vital role in agriculture by preying on rats, mice, and other rodents, thereby protecting crops and stored grains from rodent damage.

Frogs act as natural pest control agents in ecosystems by consuming a vast number of crop-damaging insects and pests.

Earthworms are well-known contributors to soil fertility because their burrowing activity aerates the ground, while their digestion of organic waste produces nutrient-rich humus.

Explanation

Based on the Planning Commission's estimates utilizing the Expert Group (Lakdawala Committee) methodology, the poverty ratios are calculated using National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) consumer expenditure data.

In 1983–84, during the 38th NSSO round, the percentage of the rural population living below the poverty line was estimated to be 46.6%. This aligns with the accepted official estimates for that period, confirming statement (a) as correct.

For 1993–94, during the 50th NSSO round, the overall poverty ratio at the national level was estimated to be 36.0%, which comprised a rural poverty ratio of 37.3% and an urban poverty ratio of 32.4%. This confirms statement (b) as correct.

Explanation

The missing girls and women phenomenon encompasses both the demographic deficit of females relative to males and the physical disappearance of women from their families and communities.

A preference for a male child drives gender-biased prenatal sex selection, female foeticide, infanticide, and the systematic nutritional and medical neglect of young girls.

Women trafficking, often exacerbated by socio-economic vulnerabilities and severe gender imbalances, leads to the physical abduction, forced marriage, and disappearance of girls and women.

A high maternal mortality ratio further reduces the female population due to inadequate reproductive healthcare and preventable complications during pregnancy and childbirth.

In contrast, inadequate data is an administrative and measurement challenge rather than an active causal factor of this phenomenon.

Explanation

The Sansad Adarsh Gram Yojana was officially launched by the Prime Minister of India on 11 October 2014, on the birth anniversary of Lok Nayak Jayaprakash Narayan. The statement stating that it was introduced in September 2016 is incorrect.

Explanation

According to the Baseline SDG India Index 2018 released by NITI Aayog:

The average composite score (index) for India was 57.

States and Union Territories were classified into four categories based on their performance: Aspirant (0-49) Performer (50-64) Front Runner (65-99) Achiever (100)

Under this classification: Maharashtra was placed in the Performer category (not Front Runner). Uttar Pradesh was categorized under the Aspirant category, which represented the lowest tier of performance, not the best.

Explanation

The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed by 23 countries on October 30, 1947, and officially entered into force on January 1, 1948. These 23 founding members sought to minimize barriers to international trade by reducing tariffs and quotas. GATT operated as a provisional multilateral treaty for nearly five decades until the completion of the Uruguay Round of negotiations. This round led to the establishment of the World Trade Organization (WTO) on January 1, 1995, which formally succeeded GATT as the international body governing global trade rules.

Explanation

The National Child Labour Project (NCLP) Scheme is a Central Sector Scheme implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. The scheme was launched in 1988 during the Seventh Five-Year Plan to rehabilitate child labourers in districts with a high concentration of child labour.

Under this scheme, rescued children in the age group of 9–14 years are enrolled in Special Training Centres. These centres provide them with bridge education, vocational training, midday meals, and healthcare before mainstreaming them into the formal education system.

Additionally, a monthly stipend of ₹150 is provided to the rescued children, which is credited directly to their bank accounts via Direct Benefit Transfer on the condition of maintaining a minimum of 75% monthly attendance.

Explanation

Demonetisation was implemented with a primary objective of tackling the menace of counterfeiting and removing high-denomination fake currency notes from circulation.

The Benami Transactions Prohibition Amendment Act, also known as the New Benami Law, was designed to target and recover properties held in fictitious names, thereby directly checking the generation and accumulation of black money.

The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, or the Bankruptcy Law, established a time-bound and efficient framework for resolving corporate insolvency, which significantly helped in promoting the ease of doing business in India.

The Aadhaar Act was enacted to provide legal backing for the targeted delivery of government benefits and services, which helped in identifying genuine beneficiaries and rationalising subsidies.

Explanation

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary measure of average achievement in key dimensions of human development. These dimensions are a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living. This validates statement (a).

For measuring the standard of living, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) utilizes Gross National Income (GNI) per capita in Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) terms, rather than Gross Domestic Product (GDP) per capita. The transition from GDP per capita to GNI per capita was implemented in 2010 to better capture the actual income available to the residents of a country, incorporating net income received from abroad such as remittances and aid. Therefore, statement (b) is incorrect.

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is India's National Mission on Financial Inclusion, designed to ensure affordable access to financial services such as bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions. One of its key structural pillars is providing universal access to banking services to ensure complete financial inclusion. To ensure the effective utilization of these services, the scheme incorporates a dedicated Financial Literacy Programme to educate users about savings, ATM usage, and digital transactions. Additionally, PMJDY accounts are integrated with built-in insurance benefits, which include a free accident insurance cover of up to ₹200,000 on RuPay debit cards and a life insurance cover of ₹30,000 for eligible beneficiaries. This comprehensively covers financial inclusion, financial literacy, and insurance benefits under its scope.

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct because the Planning Commission of India, which was established in 1950 to formulate India's Five-Year Plans, was formally dissolved and replaced by NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) on 1 January 2015. NITI Aayog was introduced as a premier policy think tank to provide strategic and directional inputs while fostering cooperative federalism with a bottom-up approach.

Statement (b) is incorrect because the official guiding principles of NITI Aayog are Antyodaya, Inclusion, Village, Demographic Dividend, People's Participation, Governance, and Sustainability. Normative planning is not among these designated guiding principles.

Explanation

The International Solar Alliance was established with the primary focus on solar-resource-rich countries situated fully or partially between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn, not the Equator. This tropical region, often referred to as the sunshine countries, receives the highest and most consistent intensity of solar radiation globally.

Explanation

The National Food Security Mission is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in October 2007, which falls under the 2007-2008 financial year. It was initiated based on the recommendations of the National Development Council to combat food deficits and enhance agricultural production.

The primary objective of the mission at its inception was to increase the production of rice, wheat, and pulses through area expansion and productivity enhancement in a sustainable manner in the identified districts of the country. The targets set for the end of the Eleventh Five Year Plan were to increase the production of rice by 10 million tonnes, wheat by 8 million tonnes, and pulses by 2 million tonnes.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched in May 2016 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas with multiple socio-economic and health objectives:

The scheme aims to improve the health of women and children by providing clean cooking fuel (LPG). This replaces traditional, highly polluting fuels like firewood, coal, and cow-dung cakes, thereby significantly reducing indoor air pollution and associated respiratory diseases.

It promotes women empowerment by issuing the LPG connections directly in the name of the adult female member of below-poverty-line (BPL) households. This reduces the drudgery and physical strain involved in collecting firewood, freeing up their time for other productive activities.

The rapid expansion of the LPG network under the scheme creates additional employment opportunities, particularly for rural youth, in the domestic supply chain including cylinder manufacturing, distributorships, and home delivery services. At the time of its launch, PMUY was projected to generate around one lakh additional jobs.

Explanation

The Indo-US Dollar Matching Grant, also known as the INDUS Child Labour Project, is a collaborative program developed by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, Government of India, and the United States Department of Labor. Following a joint statement of cooperation signed in August 2000, the project was formally launched in February 2004 with a combined funding of 40 million US dollars, contributed equally by both nations on a dollar-for-dollar matching basis. The project focused on the complete identification, withdrawal, and rehabilitation of child labourers working in identified hazardous sectors across selected districts in India.

Explanation

Statement (b) is incorrect because the part of income produced in the country but earned by foreigners is excluded from Gross National Product (GNP). GNP is calculated by subtracting income earned by foreign residents within the domestic territory from Gross Domestic Product (GDP), while adding income earned by domestic residents abroad.

Statement (c) is incorrect because per capita income represents the average income of the people in a country, which is calculated by dividing the total national income by the total population. It does not show the marginal income, which is the change in total income resulting from an incremental change in output or labor.

Explanation

A geostationary telecommunication satellite orbits the Earth in the equatorial plane with an orbital period of exactly 24 hours, which matches the rotational period of the Earth about its axis. Because the satellite moves in the same direction and at the same angular speed as the Earth, its relative velocity and speed with respect to the Earth's surface is zero. This lack of relative motion is the direct physical reason why the satellite appears completely stationary to an observer on the Earth.

Explanation

At a rigid boundary like a wall, the particles of the medium cannot move, which makes the boundary a displacement node. For the net displacement at the boundary to remain zero, the incident and reflected displacement waves must interfere destructively. This requires the reflected displacement wave to undergo a phase reversal of π radians (180°).

A displacement node is always a pressure antinode, which represents a region of maximum pressure variation. When a compression (a region of high pressure) strikes the rigid wall, the particles are compressed further against the boundary, creating a peak in pressure. This high-pressure region then travels backward, meaning the wave is reflected as a compression.

Thus, the incident compression is reflected as a compression, accompanied by a phase change of π (by 180°) in its displacement representation.

Explanation

Living organisms continuously exchange carbon with their environment, maintaining a constant ratio of the radioactive isotope ¹⁴C to the stable isotope ¹²C. When an organism dies, this exchange stops. Since ¹⁴C is radioactive and decays over time with a half-life of approximately 5730 years while ¹²C remains constant, the ratio of ¹⁴C to ¹²C decreases continuously in dead plants or animals. This continuous change in the isotopic ratio serves as the fundamental principle and reason behind the carbon dating technique, which utilizes the decay of Carbon-14 to determine the age of organic remains.

Explanation

Thomsons model of the atom, proposed by J.J. Thomson, visualized the atom as a sphere of uniform positive charge in which negatively charged electrons are embedded, similar to raisins in a pudding. The total quantity of positive charge of the sphere is equal to the total negative charge of the electrons. This equal distribution of opposite charges ensures that the positive and negative charges cancel each other out, thereby correctly explaining the overall electrical neutrality of the atom.

Explanation

The fraction of a radioactive substance remaining undecayed over time is determined by the radioactive decay formula:

N/N₀ = (½)ⁿ

Here, N/N₀ represents the fraction of Tritium remaining, and n is the number of half-lives that have elapsed. The number of half-lives is calculated by dividing the total elapsed time by the half-life of the substance:

n = t / T

Using the given values where the elapsed time t is 25 years and the half-life T is 12.5 years:

n = 25 / 12.5 = 2

Substituting the value of n back into the decay formula:

N/N₀ = (½)² = ¼ = 0.25

Explanation

Electrical energy consumed in kilowatt-hours (kWh), which represents the number of units, is calculated using the formula: Energy = Power × Time

First, the power rating of the washing machine is converted from watts to kilowatts: 300 W = 300 / 1000 kW = 0.3 kW

The machine runs for 1 hour daily, and March has 31 days. Total operating time in March = 1 hour/day × 31 days = 31 hours

Total electrical energy consumed = 0.3 kW × 31 hours = 9.3 kWh

Since 1 kWh is equal to 1 unit of electricity, the total consumption is 9.3 units. At a rate of ₹ 3.00 per unit, the total cost is: Total cost = 9.3 units × ₹ 3.00 = ₹ 27.90

Explanation

Inexhaustible resources match with solar energy because it is an unlimited resource that cannot be depleted by human activities.

Stratosphere matches with the rich layer of ozone as this atmospheric region contains the ozone layer which protects the Earth from harmful ultraviolet radiation.

Non-renewable resources match with fossil fuels like coal and petrol because they are finite and take millions of years to form, meaning they cannot be replenished once exhausted.

Chlorofluorocarbons match with anthropogenic activities since they are synthetic chemicals released into the environment solely due to human industrial and domestic processes.

Explanation

The role of flowers in attracting pollinators and facilitating pollination is an ecological and reproductive mechanism essential for plant survival and propagation. This biological function does not contribute to the nutritional, dietary, or health-related values that drive the demand for flowers specifically for human consumption.

Explanation

Biosphere matches with (ii) as it comprises all living organisms, including plants, animals, and microbes, which inhabit the zone of life on Earth.

Lithosphere matches with (iv) because it represents the solid crust and hard outer layer of the Earth.

Hydrosphere matches with (i) since it encompasses all the water resources on the Earth's surface, such as oceans, seas, rivers, and lakes.

Atmosphere matches with (iii) because it is the thick gaseous envelope that surrounds the Earth, protecting life and maintaining climatic conditions.

Explanation

Grafting is an artificial method of asexual reproduction where tissues of two distinct plants are joined together to grow as a single organism. This technique involves taking a shoot or stem with desired characteristics, called the scion, and attaching it to a rooted stem of another plant, known as the stock or rootstock, which possesses favorable root characteristics such as disease resistance or drought tolerance. Once the vascular tissues of the scion and stock fuse, the resulting plant combines the superior quality of the upper stem with the resilient, well-adapted root system of the lower stock.

Explanation

Aristotle is recognized as the Father of Biology for his early systematic study of living organisms and classification of animal species.

Theophrastus is regarded as the Father of Botany for writing the foundational books Enquiry into Plants and On the Causes of Plants.

Hippocrates is called the Father of Medicine as he revolutionized the field by establishing medicine as a distinct profession based on scientific observation rather than superstition.

Gregor Johann Mendel is known as the Father of Genetics for discovering the basic laws of inheritance through his hybridization experiments with pea plants.

Explanation

The sarcomere is the fundamental histological and functional unit of striated muscle tissue. Histologically, it is the repeating structural unit visible under microscopic examination, precisely bounded between two consecutive Z-lines (Z-discs) in a myofibril. Physiologically, it is the basic contractile unit where muscle contraction takes place through the sliding of thick myosin and thin actin filaments past one another.

A sarcomere is not merely any arbitrary segment of a muscle fiber, but rather a highly specific structural segment defined strictly by these Z-line boundaries. Therefore, only statement (b) is correct.

Explanation

Sleeping sickness, also known as African trypanosomiasis, is a parasitic protozoan disease caused by the parasite Trypanosoma brucei. This disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected tsetse flies (genus Glossina), which are native to sub-Saharan Africa. When an infected fly bites a host to take a blood meal, it injects the microscopic parasites into the skin tissue, allowing them to enter the lymphatic system and the bloodstream. As the disease progresses, it crosses the blood-brain barrier to infect the central nervous system, leading to neurological disorders, severe sleep cycle disruptions, and ultimately death if left untreated.

Explanation

Robert Hooke first described and coined the term cell in 1665. While examining a thin slice of bottle cork under a primitive compound microscope, he observed a network of tiny, empty, box-like compartments that resembled a honeycomb. He named these structures cells, which is derived from the Latin word cellula, meaning a small room. Hooke published these pioneering observations and detailed drawings of cork cells in his landmark work Micrographia.

Explanation

In reaction (a), magnesium increases its oxidation state from 0 in elemental Mg to +2 in MgO, representing oxidation. Oxygen decreases its oxidation state from 0 in O₂ to -2 in MgO, representing reduction.

In reaction (b), manganese in MnO₂ is reduced as its oxidation state decreases from +4 to +2 in MnCl₂. Chlorine in HCl is oxidized as its oxidation state increases from -1 to 0 in Cl₂.

In reaction (c), sodium is oxidized from 0 in elemental Na to +1 in NaCl, and chlorine is reduced from 0 in Cl₂ to -1 in NaCl.

In reaction (d), bromine in NaBr is oxidized from -1 to 0 in Br₂. Oxygen in H₂O₂ is reduced from -1 in the peroxide to -2 in NaOH.

Since all four chemical equations involve simultaneous oxidation and reduction processes, they are all classified as oxidation-reduction reactions.

Explanation

In vertebrate cells, the intracellular fluid maintains a high concentration of potassium (K⁺) ions and a low concentration of sodium (Na⁺) ions. This crucial ionic gradient is actively established and maintained by the Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase pump located in the cell membrane, which utilizes ATP to pump three Na⁺ ions out of the cell in exchange for two K⁺ ions entering the cell. This difference in ion concentrations is vital for maintaining the cell resting membrane potential, regulating cell volume, and driving various secondary active transport processes.

Explanation

The thermodynamic relation between the change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) and the electromotive force (E) of a cell is given by the formula:

ΔG = -nFE

Here, n represents the number of moles of electrons transferred, which is a positive quantity, and F is the Faraday constant, which is also positive. When the EMF (E) of a chemical cell is positive, the product of the positive quantities n, F, and E multiplied by -1 yields a negative value. Therefore, the free energy change (ΔG) of the reaction must be negative, which is represented as < 0.

Explanation

Atomic radius is the distance from the center of the nucleus to the outermost shell containing electrons.

In the modern periodic table, the atomic radius increases from top to bottom within a group because a new electron shell is added at each successive period, which increases the distance between the nucleus and the valence electrons.

Conversely, the atomic radius decreases from left to right across a period. This trend occurs because the number of protons in the nucleus increases, which increases the nuclear charge. Since the electrons are added to the same valence shell, the stronger electrostatic attraction pulls the electron cloud closer to the nucleus, thereby reducing the atomic size.

Explanation

Terpenoids are a large and diverse class of naturally occurring organic compounds derived from five-carbon isoprene units (C₅H₈).

Menthol, with the chemical formula C₁₀H₂₀O, is a monoterpenoid containing two isoprene units. It is a cyclic monoterpene alcohol obtained naturally from peppermint and other mint oils.

Vitamin A, also known as retinol, has the chemical formula C₂₀H₃₀O. It is a diterpenoid consisting of four isoprene units, featuring a β-ionone ring connected to an isoprenoid side chain.

Because both of these substances are biosynthetically derived from isoprene precursors, they are both classified as terpenoids.

Explanation

In the [Ni(CO)₄] complex, nickel is in a zero oxidation state because carbon monoxide is a neutral ligand. The ground-state electronic configuration of neutral nickel is [Ar] 3d⁸ 4s². Since carbon monoxide is a strong field ligand, it causes the pairing of electrons against Hund's rule. Consequently, the two electrons in the 4s orbital shift and pair up with the eight electrons in the 3d orbitals, resulting in a completely filled 3d¹⁰ configuration. This leaves the 4s and 4p orbitals vacant, which hybridize to form four sp³ hybrid orbitals to accept electron pairs from the four carbon monoxide ligands, resulting in a tetrahedral geometry. Because the 3d subshell is completely filled with ten electrons, all of them are fully paired, leaving zero unpaired electrons in the complex.

Explanation

The Cabinet Secretariat functions under the direct charge and leadership of the Prime Minister of India, who serves as its political head. Its primary role is to act as the chief coordinating agency in the Central Government, facilitating inter-ministerial cooperation, resolving disputes between departments, and ensuring the smooth transaction of government business.

It is classified as a staff agency rather than a line agency because its role is advisory, preparatory, and coordinating in nature, rather than being directly responsible for implementing public policies or executing administrative laws in the field. Additionally, the Cabinet Secretariat was established immediately after independence in 1947 by transitioning from the erstwhile Executive Council Secretariat, rather than in 1950.

Explanation

In Switzerland, the constitutional amendment process is governed by direct democracy, meaning that any total or partial alteration of the Swiss Federal Constitution must be submitted to a referendum of the people and the cantons, and cannot be enacted without their approval.

In Australia, Section 128 of the Constitution outlines that any proposed law to alter the Constitution must be passed by an absolute majority in both houses of the Federal Parliament (or by one house twice in case of deadlock) before being submitted to a popular referendum.

In contrast, a constitutional amendment bill in India can be introduced in either House of Parliament without requiring the prior recommendation or permission of the President. In the United States, proposed constitutional amendments must be ratified by the legislatures or conventions of three-fourths of the states, rather than two-thirds.

Explanation

The salaries and allowances of the Speaker of Lok Sabha are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, which ensures that they are not subject to the annual vote of Parliament, thereby maintaining the independence of the office. Additionally, under Article 100(1) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker does not vote in the first instance on any matter, but instead exercises a casting vote only in the case of an equality of votes to resolve a tie and maintain political neutrality.

Explanation

The pairs (b), (c), and (d) are not correctly matched for the following reasons:

Adjournment Motion is introduced in the Parliament to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance and requires the support of 50 members to be admitted. It is not used to adjourn the House before the expiry of scheduled time, which is a power exercised by the Presiding Officer.

Privilege Motion is raised by a member when they believe a minister has committed a breach of privilege of the House or one or more of its members by withholding facts of a case or giving incorrect or distorted information.

Point of Order is raised by a member when the proceedings of the House do not follow the normal rules of procedure. The presiding officer decides whether the point raised is a point of order or not, and their decision is final.

Explanation

Under Article 4 of the Constitution of India, any law referred to in Article 2 or Article 3, which includes the formation of new states or alteration of areas, boundaries, or names of existing states, shall not be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority through the ordinary legislative process in Parliament, and a special majority is not required.

Explanation

Under the provisions of the Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and Information Commissioners are not eligible for reappointment to the same position. However, an Information Commissioner is eligible to be appointed as the Chief Information Commissioner. To prevent prolonged tenure in these positions, the Act specifies that the total combined period an individual can serve as both an Information Commissioner and Chief Information Commissioner cannot exceed an aggregate of five years.

Explanation

Judicial activism represents a proactive role of the judiciary in protecting the rights of citizens, promoting justice in society, and forcing the legislature and executive to discharge their constitutional duties.

According to standard political science and constitutional analyses, several key situations lead to judicial activism:

Legislative Failure: When the legislature fails to discharge its responsibilities or when there is a legislative vacuum on pressing issues, the judiciary steps in to fill the gap by issuing guidelines and directions. Weak or Instable Government: In the case of a hung legislature where the government is weak and unstable, the legislative and executive wings may struggle to make firm policy decisions. In such scenarios, the judiciary becomes active to protect citizens' interests and ensure stable governance. Failure to Protect Fundamental Rights: When the government fails to safeguard the basic human and constitutional rights of its citizens, or fails to provide an honest, efficient, and just administrative system, the courts actively intervene to uphold these rights. Misuse of Judicial Institutions: When the party in power misuses the courts of law for ulterior motives (such as during periods of authoritarian rule or the Emergency), the judiciary asserts its independence to preserve the constitutional balance and prevent the subversion of justice.

Consequently, all of the given statements represent situations that directly lead to judicial activism.

Explanation

A federal constitution is characterized by a dual polity, division of powers, written constitution, supremacy of the constitution, rigidity of the constitution, independent judiciary, and bicameralism. In contrast, features that centralize power or allow the central government to override the states are unitary or non-federal in nature.

The division of powers between the states and the central government, mentioned in provision (b), is a fundamental federal feature. If this division were absent, India would lose its federal character and become a purely unitary state.

On the other hand, provisions (a), (c), and (d) represent strong unitary features of the Indian Constitution. Vesting residuary powers in the Centre rather than the states limits state legislative autonomy. The absolute veto of the President over state bills, reserved by the Governor under Article 201, gives the federal executive overriding legislative control over state assemblies. Similarly, the unilateral power of Parliament to alter the boundaries, names, or areas of states under Article 3 without their consent undermines the territorial integrity of the states. If these three provisions were absent, the states would enjoy greater autonomy and sovereignty, making the Indian Constitution significantly more federal in nature.

Explanation

Article 262 of the Constitution of India specifically provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-state rivers or river valleys, authorizing Parliament to enact laws for this purpose, such as the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956. Consequently, the adjudication of inter-state river water disputes is excluded from the purview of the Inter-State Council, which is established under Article 263 to perform advisory, investigative, and recommendatory functions.

Explanation

The statement in Option 3 is incorrect because the Committee of Privileges in the Rajya Sabha consists of 10 members, rather than 15 members. Although it is correctly headed by the Deputy Chairman (Deputy Chairperson) of the Rajya Sabha, the total membership of the committee in the Upper House is limited to 10 members nominated by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

The National Youth Policy 2014 defines the youth age-group as 15 to 29 years to maintain a highly focused approach for targeted policy interventions. This changed from previous frameworks. The first National Youth Policy of India was formulated and adopted in 1988 rather than 1986. Furthermore, the National Youth Policy 2003 defined youth as individuals in the age group of 13 to 35 years, specifically incorporating the adolescent group of 13 to 19 years as a distinct constituency, rather than 15 to 35 years.

Explanation

Article 110 of the Constitution of India defines a Money Bill, whereas Article 111 specifies the procedure for the President's assent to bills passed by Parliament.

A Financial Bill of category II under Article 117(3) contains provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India, but does not include any of the matters specified in Article 110. Such a bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, meaning its introduction is not restricted to the Lok Sabha.

A Financial Bill of category I under Article 117(1) contains matters mentioned in Article 110 along with other matters of general legislation. While it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha on the recommendation of the President, it is governed by the same legislative procedure as an ordinary bill in all other respects. This means the Rajya Sabha has full power to reject or amend a Financial Bill under Article 117(1).

Explanation

Under Article 201 of the Constitution of India, if a state bill is returned by the President for reconsideration and is subsequently passed again by the State Legislature with or without amendments, it is presented again to the President for consideration. Unlike the Governor under Article 200, there is no constitutional provision or obligation that binds the President to give assent to such a bill when it is presented a second time. The President can still withhold assent to the bill.

Explanation

Article 217 of the Constitution of India prescribes the qualifications for appointment as a judge of a High Court. It requires a candidate to be a citizen of India who has either held a judicial office in the territory of India for at least ten years or been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years. The provision of being a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President is a qualification applicable only for the appointment of a Supreme Court judge under Article 124 of the Constitution, and is not a criterion for a High Court judge.

Explanation

Article 29 of the Constitution of India provides protection of interests of minorities. Under Article 29(2), it is explicitly stated that no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, language, or any of them. This fundamental right ensures non-discrimination in state-supported educational institutions, protecting an individual's right to admission irrespective of their community or linguistic background.

Explanation

Statement (c) is incorrect because the Gaganyaan Mission was officially announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day address on August 15, 2018.

Statement (d) is incorrect because the Gaganyaan orbital spacecraft mission was planned to carry a crew of three members, rather than five, into a low Earth orbit for a duration of up to seven days, rather than a month-long stay.

Explanation

The colossal squid (Mesonychoteuthis hamiltoni) is the largest and heaviest invertebrate in the world by mass. It is a massive deep-sea cephalopod that can weigh up to 500 kilograms or more. Although some other marine species may exceed it in overall tentacle length, the colossal squid possesses a much thicker, heavier mantle and body, making it the most massive spineless creature on Earth. It resides primarily in the extremely deep, cold waters of the Southern Ocean surrounding Antarctica.

Explanation

In December 2019, the internationally acclaimed Time magazine named Swedish climate activist Greta Thunberg as its Person of the Year. At 16 years of age, she became the youngest individual ever to receive this honor in the history of the magazine, recognized for her influential role in inspiring a global youth movement demanding immediate government action on climate change.

Explanation

The first phase of the strategic Chabahar Port (specifically the Shahid Beheshti terminal) in southeastern Iran was inaugurated on December 3, 2017, by Iranian President Hassan Rouhani.

India took over the operations of a part of the Shahid Beheshti Port on December 24, 2018, during a trilateral meeting in Iran. This operational takeover by the Indian special purpose vehicle, India Ports Global Chabahar Free Zone, marked the first time India operated a port terminal outside its national territories.

Since both statements are factually correct, neither of them is incorrect.

Explanation

The National Skill Development Agency is an autonomous body under the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Its core objectives include coordinating and organizing skill development efforts across all sectors, supporting the Government of India in meeting its five-year plan targets for skill development, and conducting research and evaluating the effectiveness of ongoing skill development programs to suggest corrective measures and policy interventions.

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission was constituted by the President of India under Article 280 of the Constitution. Nand Kishore Singh (N.K. Singh) served as the Chairman of the Commission. Shri Arvind Mehta served as the Secretary of the Commission, while Dr. Anoop Singh served as a full-time Member of the Commission.

Explanation

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated the central dairy at Aarey Milk Colony on March 4, 1951, by planting a sapling. In 1977, which is after 1970, about 200 hectares of land was carved out from the Aarey area to establish the Dadasaheb Phalke Chitranagari (Film City). The colony was established on land specifically handed over to Mumbai's dairy development board to relocate stables, organize cattle rearing, and process high-quality milk for the city.

Explanation

The whip acts as an assistant floor leader and is responsible for ensuring the discipline, attendance, and cooperative behavior of the party members inside the house of legislature.

The concept of the whip is a convention of parliamentary government that India inherited from the British Parliamentary System, where the term originally derived from the practice of whipping in lawmakers to follow the party line.

Every political party, whether in power or in opposition, appoints its own whips in the legislature. A senior party member serves as the Chief Whip, who is assisted by additional whips to manage party discipline and voting patterns.

The election to the Office of the President of India is conducted by secret ballot. The Election Commission of India has clarified that political parties cannot issue a whip to direct Members of Parliament or Members of Legislative Assemblies to vote in a particular manner, as any such direction would interfere with the free will of the electors and amount to undue influence under the law.

Explanation

Three Indian bowlers achieved the milestone of taking an international hat-trick in the calendar year 2019. Mohammed Shami claimed a hat-trick against Afghanistan during the ICC Cricket World Cup in June 2019. Jasprit Bumrah achieved this feat in August 2019 during a Test match against the West Indies, becoming only the third Indian bowler to take a Test hat-trick. Kuldeep Yadav became the first Indian bowler to take two ODI hat-tricks when he claimed his second one against the West Indies in December 2019. Ravindra Jadeja did not take any international hat-tricks during this year.

Explanation

Statement (a) is correct because the Amazon is the largest tropical rainforest in the world, characterized by dense, evergreen broadleaf vegetation situated around the equator.

Statement (b) is correct as the vast Amazon basin drains eastward across South America, bounded by the Atlantic Ocean on its eastern coast where the Amazon River empties.

Statement (d) is correct because the Amazon rainforest is a global hotspot of avian biodiversity, providing a native habitat for iconic bird species like Macaws, Toucans, and Black Skimmers, which utilize the riverine sandbanks of the basin for nesting.

Explanation

In October 2019, Iran officially allowed women to enter a sports stadium to watch a men's football match for the first time in forty years. This decision came after intense pressure from FIFA, the international governing body of association football, following the tragic death of Sahar Khodayari, a female fan who set herself on fire after being prosecuted for trying to sneak into a stadium disguised as a man. Consequently, thousands of Iranian women were allowed to purchase tickets and attend the World Cup qualifier match between Iran and Cambodia at the Azadi Stadium in Tehran.

Explanation

The Marathi drama film Naal (2018) was written and directed by Sudhakar Reddy Yakkanti. It marked his feature film directorial debut, for which he also won the Indira Gandhi Award for Best Debut Film of a Director at the 66th National Film Awards in 2019. The film was co-produced by Nagraj Manjule, who also played a lead role as the protagonist's father. Shrinivas Pokale made his acting debut as the child protagonist, Chaitanya, and won the Best Child Artist Award at the same national ceremony.

Explanation

Statement (b) is incorrect because the Sahitya Akademi Awards can be given to both biographies and autobiographies. In the 2019 awards, Vijaya won for her Kannada autobiography Kudi Esaru, while Shafey Kidwai won for his Urdu biography Savaneh-e-Sir Syed: Ek Bazdeed.

Statement (c) is incorrect because Marathi writer Anuradha Patil was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award 2019 for her poetry collection Kadachit Ajoonahi, rather than for short stories.

Explanation

The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is a standard tool used to communicate the daily air quality status to the public in an easily understandable manner. It is calculated and reported on a daily basis by measuring the concentration levels of eight major criteria pollutants: particulate matter (PM10 and PM2.5), nitrogen dioxide (NO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), carbon monoxide (CO), ozone (O₃), ammonia (NH₃), and lead (Pb). The Indian AQI operates on a 500-point scale divided into six categories ranging from Good (0 to 50) to Severe (401 to 500). Within this framework, a higher AQI value represents a greater concentration of pollutants in the air, indicating a higher level of air pollution and a more severe potential impact on public health. All four statements are therefore accurate.

Explanation

Statement b is incorrect because before independence, Belgaum was part of the Bombay Presidency, which was under British rule, and not part of the Hyderabad princely state.

Statement d is incorrect because the legal dispute over the Belgaum border is pending before the Supreme Court of India, where Maharashtra filed a petition under Article 131 of the Constitution in 2004, rather than the Bombay High Court.