MPSC Prelims 2025 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

On 11 April 1942, the Congress Working Committee formally rejected the Cripps Proposal by publishing its resolution. The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, was sent to India in March 1942 by the British government to secure Indian cooperation during World War II. The Congress Working Committee rejected the proposals because they offered only post-war dominion status instead of immediate complete independence. Furthermore, the proposals allowed provinces the right to secede from the proposed Indian Union, posing a threat to national unity, and retained British control over India's defense during the war.

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act 1909 is officially known as the Morley-Minto Reforms, named after John Morley, the Secretary of State for India, and Lord Minto, the Viceroy of India. The British Government introduced these reforms to create a rift in the nationalist movement by appeasing the moderates within the Indian National Congress and securing the loyalty of the Muslim community. To achieve this, the reforms introduced the system of separate electorates for Muslims, allowing Muslim electors to vote exclusively for Muslim candidates in designated constituencies, thereby institutionalizing communal electorates in Indian politics.

Explanation

Wamanrao Madhavrao Kolhatkar was a prominent 19th-century social reformer, advocate, and educator who hailed from the Vidarbha region of Maharashtra. He was a steadfast proponent of progressive reforms, especially concerning the empowerment and education of women, and the eradication of social evils. He worked closely with Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve to promote widow remarriages, helping to convene a crucial meeting of sympathizers at Wardha in Vidarbha on 31 December 1893, which led to the establishment of the Widow Remarriage Association. His observation highlights the immense personal and social hardships encountered by reformers, who often had to endure severe opposition, ostracization, and resistance from their own families and immediate communities while pursuing societal progress.

Explanation

In the Mughal judicial system, punishments were categorized into specific forms based on Islamic jurisprudence:

Hadd refers to penalties prescribed by religious law for specific crimes, which include severe physical punishments like the death penalty or amputation.

Tazir is discretionary punishment applied for offenses not covered under Hadd, ranging from a warning or admonishment to banishment, meant to reform the culprit.

Qisas refers to the principle of retaliation or retribution (tit for tat), where the victim or their family could demand equal retaliation or blood money for bodily harm.

Tashir is a form of public degradation or humiliation, exposing the offender to public disgrace.

Matching these terms gives the sequence a-iv, b-iii, c-i, and d-ii.

Explanation

The book India for Indians is a compilation of four major political speeches delivered by Barrister Chittaranjan Das in 1917. First published in November 1917 by Ganesh and Company in Madras, this volume brought together his addresses advocating for self-rule and Indian nationalism. In these speeches, Das argued passionately against the colonial bureaucracy and championed the right of the people of India to govern themselves, making it a foundational text of the early Swaraj movement.

Explanation

Lieutenant General Rajendra Singh (General Maharaj Shri Rajendrasinhji Jadeja) was the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Southern Command during the annexation of Hyderabad, code-named Operation Polo. In September 1948, he played the central guiding and planning role in directing the military operations to integrate the princely state of Hyderabad into the Indian Union. Under his overall leadership and strategic planning, the multi-directional advance of the Indian forces successfully neutralized the opposition and led to the surrender of the Nizam's army within five days.

Explanation

Mughal Emperor Akbar bestowed the prestigious title of Khan-e-Khanan upon Abdul Rahim in 1584. This honor was awarded in recognition of his exceptional military command and decisive victory in Gujarat, where he successfully crushed the rebellion led by Muzaffar Shah III. Abdul Rahim, who was the son of Akbar's former regent Bairam Khan, was a highly accomplished commander, administrator, and poet, and he served as one of the influential Navaratnas in the Mughal court.

Explanation

The Delhi Durbar of 1877 was held to proclaim Queen Victoria as Empress of India, bringing together princes, rulers, and dignitaries from across the subcontinent. Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, known as 'Sarvajanik Kaka' and a leading figure of the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha, attended the event in hand-spun khadi and famously described the grand gathering as an 'Indian Parliament' owing to the wide representation of Indian rulers and leaders present.

Explanation

Muhammad bin Tughlaq established the Diwan-i-Amir-i-Kohi as a dedicated department of agriculture to improve farming practices and increase state revenue. The primary objective of this department was to bring barren and uncultivated land under cultivation through direct state support. It provided agricultural loans known as sondhar or taccavi to farmers, encouraged crop rotation, and promoted the cultivation of superior crops to boost agricultural productivity across the Delhi Sultanate.

Explanation

The book Jatibhed Viveksar (Reflections on the Institution of Caste) was written by the Marathi social reformer Tukaram Tatya Padval. First published in 1861 under the pseudonym Ek Hindu, this seminal nineteenth-century text presented one of the earliest vernacular critiques of the caste system. It challenged the notion of caste purity by arguing that both Brahmans and Shudras had mixed ancestry, thereby dismantling the traditional justifications for caste discrimination. The work laid the ideological foundation for the anti-caste movement in Maharashtra and deeply influenced the social reform efforts of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule.

Explanation

The Panchsheel Agreement, officially known as the Agreement on Trade and Intercourse between the Tibet Region of China and India, was signed on April 29, 1954. The five principles of peaceful coexistence were accepted and signed by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru, the Prime Minister of India, and Zhou Enlai, the Premier and Prime Minister of the People's Republic of China. This agreement laid down the foundational tenets for conduct of international relations between the two neighbouring nations.

Explanation

The book Vidhava Vapan Anachar was written by Vyankatesh Rango Katti. He was a prominent 19th-century social reformer, writer, and educator who actively worked toward improving the lives of women, particularly focusing on the hardships faced by widows. Through this influential work, Katti strongly condemned the cruel and regressive social custom of shaving the heads of widows (known as Keshavapan) and advocated for their fundamental social rights, dignity, and the acceptance of widow remarriage.

Explanation

Aparajita Varman was the final ruler of the Pallava dynasty, ruling during the late ninth century.

Aditya I was the Chola king who succeeded his father Vijayalaya and successfully defeated the Pallava king Aparajita to establish Chola dominance in South India.

Vijayalaya was the founder of the medieval Imperial Chola dynasty, reviving the dynasty's power by capturing Tanjore in the mid-ninth century.

Bhoja I, commonly known as Mihira Bhoja, was one of the most powerful and celebrated rulers of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty of northern India.

Explanation

Krishnadevaraya was the legendary emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire who ruled from 1509 to 1529. He belonged to the Tuluva dynasty, while the Sangama dynasty was the founding dynasty of the empire. He was a highly accomplished scholar and composed the famous Telugu epic poem Amuktamalyada, which narrates the story of the wedding of the Hindu mystic Andal. In recognition of his intellectual contributions and his grand patronage of literature, he assumed prestigious titles like Andhra Bhoja and Abhinava Bhoja. His royal court, the Bhuvana Vijayam, was famed for the Ashtadiggajas, a group of eight eminent scholars and poets. Allasani Peddana, revered as the Andhra Kavita Pitamaha (grandfather of Telugu poetry), was the most distinguished court poet among them and enjoyed a close relationship with the king.

Explanation

The Satyashodhak Samaj, founded by Jyotirao Phule in 1873, promoted radical social equality by rejecting Brahmanical ritualism and caste hierarchy. Membership initiation rites reportedly required symbolic acts breaking orthodox Hindu purity taboos, such as eating food associated with Christians or drinking water offered by Muslims, to demonstrate rejection of caste-based discrimination and religious exclusivity, reflecting the organization's broader mission of social reform and equality among all communities.

Explanation

According to the Census 2011, the Union Territory of Lakshadweep has the highest percentage of Scheduled Tribe population in India. Out of its total population of 64,473, around 61,120 individuals belong to the Scheduled Tribes, which accounts for approximately 94.8% of the total population.

Explanation

According to the Census of India 2011, the total literacy rate of Rajasthan was 66.11%. Out of this, the male literacy rate was 79.19% and the female literacy rate was 52.12%.

Explanation

Kibithu, which is the easternmost point of mainland India, is located in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh, not in Assam.

Explanation

In the Northern Hemisphere, tropical cyclones spiral in a counter-clockwise (anticlockwise) direction due to the Coriolis effect. The Coriolis force, which is a consequence of the Earth's rotation, deflects moving air to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. As winds rush inward towards the low-pressure center of a tropical cyclone, this rightward deflection forces the entire system to rotate in a counter-clockwise direction. Conversely, in the Southern Hemisphere, the Coriolis force deflects air to the left, causing cyclones to rotate in a clockwise direction.

Explanation

The Sindhu (Indus) River basin consists of a large network of both left-bank and right-bank tributaries.

The rivers listed in statement C—Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, and Chenab—are all major left-bank tributaries of the Sindhu River. These rivers, along with the Jhelum, flow through the Punjab region and eventually merge near Uch Sharif to form the Panjnad River, which discharges into the Sindhu at Mithankot.

The rivers listed in statement D—Kabul, Kurram, Swat, and Jhelum—are also part of the Sindhu river system. The Kabul, Kurram, and Swat rivers are key right-bank tributaries that flow eastward from Afghanistan and northwestern Pakistan to join the Sindhu, while the Jhelum is one of the five major left-bank tributaries.

Explanation

Kerala is matched with 1084 because it has the highest sex ratio among all Indian states.

Tamil Nadu is matched with 996 because it holds a sex ratio of 996 females per 1000 males.

Puducherry is matched with 1037 because it has the highest sex ratio among all Union Territories.

Andhra Pradesh is matched with 993 because its recorded sex ratio in the 2011 Census is 993.

Explanation

Tropical cyclones and storms in the Arabian Sea and Bay of Bengal are fueled by warm ocean temperatures and low-pressure systems. An increase in sea surface temperature, typically exceeding 26.5°C, heats the overlying air, causing it to expand and rise rapidly. This upward movement of warm, moist air creates a strong localized drop in atmospheric pressure, forming a low-pressure center. Surrounding cooler air rushes into this low-pressure area and spirals upward, sustaining and intensifying the storm. Thus, the primary drivers for these coastal storms are high temperatures and low air pressure.

Explanation

Kalsubai is the highest mountain peak in Maharashtra, standing at an elevation of 1646 meters above sea level. It is located in the Sahyadri mountain range, which is the northern section of the Western Ghats running parallel to the western coast of India. The peak is situated in the Akole taluka of Ahmednagar district and is part of the Kalsubai Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary.

Explanation

The Mariana Trench is located in the western Pacific Ocean and contains the deepest known point on Earth.

The Puerto Rico Trench lies between the Caribbean Sea and the Atlantic Ocean, representing the deepest zone in the Atlantic Ocean.

The Java Trench, also known as the Sunda Trench, is situated in the eastern Indian Ocean and is the deepest trench of the Indian Ocean.

The Eurasian Basin, often referred to in bathymetry in association with the Eurasian Trench system, is located in the Arctic Ocean and contains some of its deepest sections.

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer, located at approximately 23.5° N latitude, passes through eight Indian states from west to east. These states are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram. All four states listed in this combination — Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tripura, and Mizoram — are part of these eight states.

Explanation

The correct matching of the Biosphere Reserves with their respective establishment years is determined by their historical designation dates under the Indian National Biosphere Reserve Programme. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve was established in 1986, making it the oldest biosphere reserve in the country. Sundarban Biosphere Reserve, located in West Bengal, was designated in 1989. Kutch Biosphere Reserve in Gujarat, known for the Great Rann of Kutch, was established in 2008. Panna Biosphere Reserve, situated in Madhya Pradesh, was established in 2011. This maps a to IV, b to III, c to II, and d to I.

Explanation

The correct matching pairs for the river confluences in Maharashtra are:

Prakashe (Nandurbar district) is situated at the confluence of the Tapi and Gomati (Gomai) rivers. Mudavad (Dhule district) is situated at the confluence of the Tapi and Panzara rivers. Mahuli (Satara district) is located at the confluence of the Krishna and Venna rivers. Tulapur (Pune district) is located at the confluence of the Bhima and Indrayani rivers.

Explanation

The South-west monsoon winds are responsible for the rainy season in Maharashtra, spanning from June to September. These moisture-laden winds originate over the warm waters of the Indian Ocean and advance toward the low-pressure system over the Indian subcontinent. As they reach Maharashtra, they strike the Western Ghats (Sahyadri range), causing heavy orographic rainfall in the coastal Konkan region before continuing to bring precipitation across the rest of the state.

Explanation

The troposphere is the lowest layer of the Earth's atmosphere. Its temperature decreases with increasing altitude at an average rate of about 6.5°C per kilometer, which is known as the normal lapse rate. This decrease occurs because the atmosphere is largely transparent to incoming shortwave solar radiation, meaning the sun does not heat the troposphere directly. Instead, solar radiation is absorbed by the Earth's surface, heating it. The warmed surface then heats the adjacent air in the troposphere from below through conduction, convection, and the emission of longwave terrestrial radiation. Because the heat source is the ground, the air temperature is highest near the surface and steadily drops with increasing height, making the second statement the correct explanation for the first.

Explanation

Gypsum is a chemical sedimentary rock with the chemical formula CaSO₄·2H₂O. It is classified as a hydrous rock because it contains chemically bound water molecules within its crystal structure. It forms through chemical processes, specifically the evaporation of saline water in basins, lagoons, or shallow seas, which causes the dissolved calcium and sulfate ions to precipitate out of the solution as evaporite deposits.

Explanation

Under the Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling and Transboundary Movement) Rules, 2008, the Ministry of Environment and Forests, Government of India, is designated as the central nodal authority to oversee and regulate the transboundary movement of hazardous waste. This responsibility includes evaluating proposals, coordinating import and export processes, and granting necessary permissions for the transit of hazardous wastes through any territory of India to prevent environmental hazards and ensure compliance with international treaties like the Basel Convention.

Explanation

Phosphate fertilizers carried by agricultural runoff into water bodies enrich the water with excess nutrients, which stimulates the rapid growth of algae and causes eutrophication.

Methane is a significant greenhouse gas that absorbs and emits radiant energy within the thermal infrared range, thereby contributing to global warming.

Synthetic detergents discharged into aquatic ecosystems contain organic surfactants that undergo biodegradation by microorganisms, a process that consumes dissolved oxygen and increases the biochemical oxygen demand level.

Nitrogen oxides released into the atmosphere undergo chemical reactions with water, oxygen, and other substances to form nitric acid, which precipitates as acid rain.

Explanation

The Bengal Florican is a critically endangered bird belonging to the bustard family (Otididae), meaning it does not fall under the category of reptiles or amphibians.

Explanation

The acronym HIPPO was coined by the eminent biologist E. O. Wilson to represent the five major threat factors to global biodiversity. Each letter in the acronym stands for a critical driver of species extinction and habitat degradation: Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, human Population growth, and Overharvesting. This mnemonic device is widely used in conservation biology to summarize the primary anthropogenic pressures causing the global biodiversity crisis.

Explanation

Geothermal energy is a renewable energy resource because it harnesses the heat naturally generated and stored within the Earth. This thermal energy originates from the continuous decay of radioactive elements in the Earth's crust and the residual heat from the planet's formation. Since the Earth's core maintains extremely high temperatures and continuously transfers heat outward, this resource is virtually inexhaustible and naturally replenished on a human timescale.

Explanation

The imposition of a ceiling on agricultural holdings in India has two primary aspects: a ceiling on future acquisition and a ceiling on existing land holdings.

A ceiling on future acquisition sets a legal limit on the amount of land that any individual or family can acquire in the future. This ensures that new land transactions do not lead to the re-concentration of landownership.

A ceiling on existing land holdings applies to the land already held by individuals. Under this provision, any holding that exceeds the prescribed ceiling limit is declared as surplus land. This surplus land is acquired by the state and redistributed to landless agricultural laborers and marginal farmers to promote social justice and reduce rural inequality.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect because the Gender Development Index (GDI) measures gender gaps in human development achievements using the same three basic dimensions as the Human Development Index (HDI): a long and healthy life (health), knowledge (education), and a decent standard of living (GNI per capita). It does not measure empowerment and labour market dimensions. Those dimensions are instead components of the Gender Inequality Index (GII).

Statement B is incorrect because its premise relies on the four factors incorrectly associated with the GDI in Statement A. Since the GDI does not incorporate empowerment and labour market factors, any assertion about these specific four factors being considered together in the context of the GDI is conceptually incorrect.

Explanation

The Twenty Point Programme (TPP) was launched by the Government of India under Prime Minister Indira Gandhi on 26 June, 1975. The primary objective of this comprehensive socio-economic development plan was to alleviate poverty and uplift the under-privileged sections of society, thereby improving their overall standard of living. It integrated crucial measures such as employment generation, land reforms, housing, clean drinking water, education, and healthcare, specifically targeting populations living below the poverty line to ensure social justice and economic growth.

Explanation

The National Food Security Act, 2013, legally covers up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. Under this legislation, eligible beneficiaries are entitled to purchase foodgrains at the highly subsidized rates of rice at ₹3 per kg, wheat at ₹2 per kg, and coarse grains at ₹1 per kg.

Explanation

The World Conservation Strategy: Living Resource Conservation for Sustainable Development was launched in 1980 by the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) in collaboration with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) and the World Wildlife Fund (WWF). This landmark document was the first major international policy initiative to explicitly introduce, define, and popularize the term sustainable development, emphasizing that conservation and development are mutually dependent rather than mutually exclusive.

Explanation

In the Sustainable Development Goals Index 2020, published as part of the Sustainable Development Report by the Sustainable Development Solutions Network, India secured the 117th position among 193 member states. India received an overall score of 61.92 out of 100 based on its progress toward the 17 global goals. This ranking reflected significant challenges in crucial areas like eradicating hunger, achieving gender equality, ensuring clean water and sanitation, and combating climate change.

Explanation

Professor Charles Kindleberger, a renowned American economic historian, famously distinguished between economic growth and economic development. He defined economic growth as a process characterized primarily by a quantitative increase in the total physical output of goods and services in an economy. This definition frames economic growth as a narrower, output-focused concept, whereas economic development encompasses structural, technical, and institutional changes alongside output expansion.

Explanation

The Trickle Down Theory suggests that economic benefits generated from growth, deregulation, and globalisation will naturally percolate down from the wealthier segments to the lower socioeconomic strata of society.

Nevertheless, in the post-globalisation era, particularly since 2005, the Indian economy has registered exceptionally high GDP growth rates accompanied by a widening gap in wealth distribution, persistent poverty, jobless growth, and regional inequalities. The lack of automatic, equitable transmission of economic gains to marginalized and rural communities demonstrates that high growth alone has not succeeded in poverty eradication. This phenomenon raises critical questions regarding the direct applicability of the trickle-down theory to the Indian context, thereby confirming the validity of Statement B while rendering Statement A incorrect.

Explanation

During his tenure as the President of the World Bank from 1968 to 1981, Robert McNamara highlighted the limitations of the traditional trickle-down theory of economic development. He observed that despite the rapid macroeconomic growth recorded by developing nations during the 1950s and 1960s, the benefits of this expansion failed to reach the poorest segments of society. His statement emphasized that approximately 40% of the population in these countries remained severely marginalized, which prompted a major shift in global development policy toward direct poverty alleviation, rural development, and addressing basic human needs.

Explanation

The National Health Mission is a flagship health-sector initiative of the Government of India aimed at strengthening health systems and providing accessible, affordable, and quality healthcare across the country. It is completely independent of the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), which was launched in 2008 with eight specific missions dedicated to climate change mitigation, adaptation, and environmental sustainability.

Explanation

A primary reason for the persistence of poverty in India after decades of independence is the high dependency of the population on the agricultural sector. Despite a declining share in India's gross domestic product, agriculture still employs nearly half of the national workforce. This heavy reliance leads to widespread disguised unemployment, low agricultural productivity, and low wages, which directly trap a significant portion of the rural population in poverty.

This issue is compounded by the structural failure of the economy to generate enough employment opportunities in the manufacturing sector. Typically, developing nations transition surplus labor from low-productivity agriculture to high-productivity manufacturing. However, India's manufacturing sector has faced stagnant growth and has been unable to create mass-scale, labor-intensive jobs. As a result, millions of low-skilled workers remain unable to transition to formal, better-paying industrial jobs, sustaining high levels of poverty.

Explanation

The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) Scheme, launched in 1975, is a major social welfare programme in India. Its primary focus is on early childhood care and maternal health. Under the scheme, a comprehensive package of six services is delivered to targeted beneficiaries. These core services include supplementary nutrition, which corresponds to the nutrition supplemental program, and health check-ups, which ensure regular monitoring of physical development and detection of illnesses. Because these programs are direct service-delivery components of the ICDS scheme, both nutrition supplemental programs and health check-ups are key programs implemented under ICDS.

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the total urban population of the country was approximately 377.1 million. The three largest mega-cities or urban agglomerations in the country were Mumbai, Delhi, and Kolkata.

Greater Mumbai Urban Agglomeration had a population of approximately 18.4 million, Delhi Urban Agglomeration had approximately 16.3 million, and Kolkata Urban Agglomeration had approximately 14.1 million. The combined population of these three massive urban centers was about 48.8 million, which accounted for approximately 13% of India's total urban population at the time.

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the population of India was approximately 1.21 billion (1,210,854,977), which constituted 17.5% of the total global population.

Explanation

The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 targets the universal immunization of children against all vaccine-preventable diseases as one of its key socio-demographic goals, making Statement B correct. Statement A is incorrect because the policy set the target year to achieve a stable population as 2045, not 2050. Statement C is incorrect because the policy goal is to reduce the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births; the expression "30% per thousand" is mathematically incorrect and does not represent the actual policy target.

Explanation

According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, the total momentum of an isolated system of interacting bodies remains constant. During any collision, whether elastic or inelastic, the forces acting on the colliding bodies are internal action-reaction pairs that cancel each other out. Because the net external force acting on the system is zero, the rate of change of total momentum is zero. Consequently, the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision.

Explanation

The expansion of the universe is confirmed by the cosmological redshift observed in the light coming from distant galaxies. When Edwin Hubble analyzed the spectral lines of light emitted by distant galaxies, he observed that they were shifted toward longer, redder wavelengths of the electromagnetic spectrum. This phenomenon, known as redshift, occurs because the space through which the light travels is expanding, stretching the light waves during their journey to Earth. According to Hubble's Law, represented by the formula v = H₀d, where v is the recessional velocity, H₀ is the Hubble constant, and d is the distance to the galaxy, the velocity at which a galaxy recedes is directly proportional to its distance from us. The universal presence of this redshift across distant galaxies in all directions demonstrates that they are moving away from one another, confirming that the universe is not static but actively expanding.

Explanation

In beta decay (β-decay), an unstable atomic nucleus undergoes a transformation mediated by the weak nuclear force. During beta-minus (β⁻) decay, a neutron converts into a proton, releasing an electron and an electron antineutrino. During beta-plus (β⁺) decay, a proton converts into a neutron, releasing a positron and an electron neutrino. The emission of the neutrino particle is necessary to satisfy the conservation of energy, momentum, and angular momentum in the process.

Explanation

The viscosity of a gas is governed by the transfer of momentum between different layers of the gas through molecular collisions. According to the kinetic theory of gases, the average speed of gas molecules is directly proportional to the square root of the absolute temperature, represented by the relation c ≈ √(3kBT/m). As the temperature increases, the thermal energy of the gas molecules increases, causing them to move faster and collide more frequently. This increased frequency of collisions enhances the rate of momentum transfer across the fluid layers, which increases the internal resistance to flow. Consequently, the viscosity of a gas increases with an increase in temperature, following the relation where viscosity η is proportional to √T.

Explanation

The rate of heat flow H through a conducting rod is given by: H = K × A × ΔT / L

For a cylindrical rod of radius r, the cross-sectional area is A = π × r². Substituting this into the heat flow formula gives: H = K × π × r² × ΔT / L

Since both rods are made of the same material, the thermal conductivity K is constant. The temperature difference ΔT between the ends of both rods is also the same. Therefore, the heat flow is directly proportional to r² and inversely proportional to the length L: H ∝ r² / L

The ratio of heat flow for the two rods is: H₁ / H₂ = (r₁ / r₂)² × (L₂ / L₁)

The given ratios of lengths and radii of the two rods are respectively L₁ : L₂ = 1 : 2 and r₁ : r₂ = 2 : 3. Substituting these values into the ratio expression: H₁ / H₂ = (2 / 3)² × (2 / 1) H₁ / H₂ = (4 / 9) × (2 / 1) = 8 / 9

Explanation

Citrus canker is a highly contagious bacterial plant disease caused by the bacterium Xanthomonas citri, specifically Xanthomonas axonopodis pv. citri. The pathogen infects various citrus species, causing characteristic necrotic lesions or scabs on leaves, stems, and fruit. It spreads easily through wind-blown rain, overhead irrigation, and the movement of infected plant material or contaminated agricultural tools.

Explanation

Sclereids, also termed scleroids, are a group of dead sclerenchyma cells with highly thickened and lignified cell walls that provide mechanical support to plant tissues. They are categorized based on their shape and structure:

Macrosclereids are elongated, rod-like or columnar cells that commonly occur in the outer seed coats of leguminous plants to provide structural protection.

Osteosclereids are bone-shaped cells with column-like shafts and swollen, dilated ends, which are typically distributed in the leaves and seed coats of dicotyledonous plants.

Asterosclereids are star-shaped or stellate cells with multiple radiating lobes, often found in the mesophyll of leaves such as those of Nymphaea.

Tracheids are elongated tracheary elements of the xylem tissue primarily involved in water transport rather than being classified as sclereids.

Explanation

The opening of stomata is primarily driven by the active influx and accumulation of potassium ions (K⁺) into the guard cells. In the presence of light, hydrogen ions (H⁺) are actively pumped out of the guard cells, which facilitates the uptake of potassium ions. This accumulation of potassium ions, along with malate and chloride ions, significantly lowers the water potential inside the guard cells. Consequently, water from the surrounding accessory cells enters the guard cells through osmosis. This influx of water increases the turgidity of the guard cells, causing their thin outer walls to bulge outward and pull the thick inner walls apart, thereby opening the stomatal pore.

Explanation

Spirogyra is a well-known genus of filamentous green algae belonging to the family Zygnemataceae. It is widely known by the common name pond scum because of its characteristic slimy, bright green appearance on the surface of calm freshwater bodies. Within its cylindrical cells, Spirogyra possesses distinctive chloroplasts that are arranged in a helical or spiral fashion, which is the primary identifying feature of this genus.

Explanation

Marijuana is obtained from the dried flowers, leaves, and seeds of the Cannabis sativa plant. This herbaceous species contains active chemical compounds called cannabinoids, primarily delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol (THC), which interact with the central nervous system to produce psychoactive and narcotic effects.

Explanation

In prokaryotes, the process of protein synthesis begins at a specific initiation site on the messenger RNA. The standard start codon that signals the ribosome to begin translation is AUG. This codon specifically codes for the initiator amino acid N-formylmethionine (fMet). During translation initiation, a specialized initiator transfer RNA, tRNAᶠᴹᵉᵗ, binds to the AUG codon in the ribosomal P-site, ensuring that N-formylmethionine is incorporated as the very first amino acid at the amino-terminal end of the growing polypeptide chain.

Explanation

The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex feedback system involving hormones from the pituitary gland and the ovaries. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) are released by the anterior pituitary gland to stimulate follicle growth and trigger ovulation. In response, the ovarian follicles and the corpus luteum produce estrogen and progesterone. Estrogen promotes the proliferation and thickening of the uterine lining during the follicular phase, while progesterone prepares and maintains the endometrium for potential implantation during the luteal phase. Together, these four hormones precisely coordinate the cyclic changes in the ovaries and the uterus.

Explanation

The Human Genome Project, launched in 1990, was an international scientific research effort designed to map and sequence the entire human genome. One of its primary objectives was to identify all the genes in human DNA, which are estimated to number between 20000 and 25000. Another key objective was to transition this newly acquired genomic information and related technologies into biological research and clinical medicine, paving the way for advanced diagnostics and therapeutics.

Explanation

Polyacrylonitrile is a synthetic, semicrystalline organic polymer resin. When spun into fibers, it is used to manufacture acrylic fabrics, which closely resemble natural wool in their warmth, texture, and appearance. These commercial acrylic fibers, often sold under trade names such as Orlon or Acrilan, serve as a highly durable, lightweight, and moth-resistant substitute for wool in sweaters, blankets, and carpets.

Explanation

Paracetamol is a widely used medication classified as both an analgesic and an antipyretic. As an analgesic, it acts on the central nervous system to relieve mild-to-moderate pain, such as headaches and muscle aches, without causing a loss of consciousness. As an antipyretic, it targets the hypothalamus, which is the temperature-regulating center of the brain, to reduce fever by inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins that cause elevated body temperature.

Explanation

Glucose is a monosaccharide, which is the simplest form of sugar and cannot be hydrolyzed further into simpler chemical compounds.

Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of two monomeric units, glucose and fructose, joined together by a glycosidic linkage.

Raffinose is a trisaccharide made up of three monosaccharide units, namely galactose, glucose, and fructose.

Starch is a polysaccharide, a complex macromolecular carbohydrate composed of long chains of glucose units.

Explanation

Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes, which are protium, deuterium, and tritium. Protium has a mass number of 1, containing one proton and no neutrons. Deuterium has a mass number of 2, containing one proton and one neutron. Tritium has a mass number of 3, containing one proton and two neutrons. The approximate atomic masses of protium, deuterium, and tritium are 1, 2, and 3 atomic mass units respectively, giving them a mass ratio of 1 : 2 : 3.

Explanation

Geothermal energy is derived from the natural heat stored deep within the Earth's crust, which is primarily produced by the continuous radioactive decay of isotopes like uranium, thorium, and potassium. This thermal energy is transferred to the surface through water or steam and converted into electricity or utilized directly for heating. Because this process relies entirely on physical heat transfer and thermodynamics to spin turbines, it does not involve any chemical combustion, oxidation, or utilization of carbon or carbon-based compounds for energy generation.

Explanation

Magnesium (Mg) is an alkaline earth metal with a valence shell configuration of 3s², while chlorine (Cl) is a halogen with a valence shell configuration of 3s² 3p⁵. During the formation of magnesium chloride (MgCl₂), the magnesium atom loses its two valence electrons to achieve a stable octet, forming a magnesium cation (Mg²⁺). Each of the two chlorine atoms accepts one of these transfered electrons to complete its valence shell, forming chloride anions (Cl⁻). The strong electrostatic force of attraction between the oppositely charged Mg²⁺ and Cl⁻ ions results in the formation of an ionic bond.

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. The Cabinet Mission, which arrived in India in March 1946, sought to preserve the unity of India and therefore rejected the Muslim League's demand for partition and two separate Constituent Assemblies. Instead, it recommended a single Constituent Assembly for the entire country with a system of provincial groupings to satisfy the League's demands for provincial autonomy.

Explanation

Modern constitutionalism, understood as the principle that governmental power must be limited and exercised according to established law rather than arbitrary will, is generally traced to England. Foundational milestones such as the Magna Carta (1215), the Petition of Right, and the Bill of Rights (1689) following the Glorious Revolution established the precedent that even the sovereign is bound by law and accountable to representative institutions, laying the conceptual groundwork later adopted and codified in written constitutions elsewhere, including America and France.

Explanation

According to Article 57 of the Constitution of India, a person who holds, or who has held office as President is eligible for re-election to that office, subject to the other provisions of the Constitution. Therefore, Statement A is correct.

On the other hand, Article 58(1)(c) specifies that a person must be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) to be eligible for election as President, rather than the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). Therefore, Statement B is incorrect.

Explanation

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, introduced Part IXA to the Constitution of India, which deals with the administration of Municipalities and urban local bodies. Article 243ZE under this Part mandates the creation of a Metropolitan Planning Committee in every metropolitan area to prepare a draft development plan for the metropolitan area as a whole by consolidating the plans prepared by the municipalities and panchayats within that area.

Explanation

Pair C is incorrect because there was no committee named the Central Rights Committee in the Constituent Assembly. J. B. Kripalani was actually the Chairman of the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee.

Pair D is incorrect because the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee was chaired by J. B. Kripalani, not Jawaharlal Nehru. Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee.

Explanation

According to Article 67 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President holds office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office, validating statement A.

Article 67(a) states that the Vice-President may resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the President of India, validating statement B.

Article 67(b) outlines that the Vice-President can be removed by a resolution of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) passed by a majority of all the then members of the Council and agreed to by the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Statement C is incorrect because it incorrectly reverses the roles of the two Houses of Parliament by stating that the resolution is passed by the House of the People and approved by the Council of States.

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect because Article 335 of the Constitution of India deals with the claims of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes to services and posts. The representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Legislative Assemblies of the States is governed by Article 333.

Explanation

Part I of the Constitution of India, which encompasses Articles 1 to 4, is titled The Union and its Territory. Article 1 establishes India, that is Bharat, as a Union of States and defines its territory. Article 2 empowers Parliament to admit or establish new states into the Union. Article 3 allows Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing states. Article 4 outlines that laws made under Articles 2 and 3 for amendment of the First and Fourth Schedules do not require a formal constitutional amendment under Article 368. These provisions collectively define and govern the territorial jurisdiction of the Indian Union.

Explanation

Tripura and Jharkhand do not possess any special status under Article 371 or its sub-articles (371A to 371J) of the Constitution of India. Part XXI of the Constitution contains temporary, transitional, and special provisions for twelve states to meet their unique developmental and cultural requirements. Under these, Article 371 applies to Maharashtra and Gujarat, 371A to Nagaland, 371B to Assam, 371C to Manipur, 371D and 371E to Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, 371F to Sikkim, 371G to Mizoram, 371H to Arunachal Pradesh, 371I to Goa, and 371J to Karnataka. Neither Tripura nor Jharkhand is covered under these sub-articles, meaning they do not have any special status under this specific part of the Constitution.

Explanation

The first Lok Adalat (People's Court) camp in post-independence India was organized in the state of Gujarat on March 14, 1982, at Una in the Junagadh district. This initiative was designed as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism to provide speedy, affordable, and informal justice to the common people directly at their doorsteps, bypassing the lengthy and expensive procedures of traditional courts. Pioneered under the guidance of Justice P.N. Bhagwati, the successful implementation of this camp in Gujarat laid the groundwork for the nationwide adoption and eventual statutory recognition of Lok Adalats under the Legal Services Authorities Act of 1987.

Explanation

Dr. B. Pattabhi Sitaramayya chaired two prominent minor committees of the Constituent Assembly of India: the House Committee and the Committee on Chief Commissioner's Provinces. The House Committee managed the administrative and residential arrangements for the members of the Assembly, while the Committee on Chief Commissioner's Provinces formulated recommendations regarding the administrative and legislative structure of Delhi, Ajmer-Merwara, Coorg, and other centrally administered areas. S. Varadachariar, who was a non-Assembly member, chaired the Ad hoc Committee on Citizenship and the Ad hoc Committee on the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR) is a statutory body established in March 2007 under the Commissions for Protection of Child Rights (CPCR) Act, 2005. Operating under the administrative control of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, its mandate is to ensure that all laws, policies, programmes, and administrative mechanisms are in consonance with the child rights perspective as enshrined in the Constitution of India and the United Nations Convention on the Rights of the Child.

Explanation

The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences (POCSO) Act was enacted in 2012 to safeguard children from sexual abuse, sexual harassment, and pornography. It was passed by the Parliament of India to address these crimes while safeguarding the interest and well-being of the child at every stage of the judicial process. The Act officially came into force on 14 November 2012.

Explanation

The National Commission for Women was established as a statutory body on January 31, 1992, under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990. It was constituted to protect and promote the interests and rights of women, review constitutional and legal safeguards, recommend remedial legislative measures, and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women.

Explanation

On January 24, 1950, the Constituent Assembly of India held its final session and performed several significant functions. On this day, the Assembly officially adopted Jana Gana Mana as the National Anthem of India and Vande Mataram as the National Song of India. In addition, the Assembly elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the first President of India. The National Flag had already been adopted by the Constituent Assembly on July 22, 1947, prior to India gaining independence.

Explanation

The Union Budget 2025-26 announced a Nuclear Energy Mission with an outlay of about Rs 20,000 crore for research and development of Small Modular Reactors (SMRs), aiming to operationalize at least five indigenously developed SMRs by 2033 as part of a broader goal of 100 GW nuclear capacity by 2047. The government indicated that amendments to the Atomic Energy Act, 1962 and the Civil Liability for Nuclear Damage Act, 2010 would be pursued to enable private and foreign investment in the nuclear power sector.

Explanation

Statement A is correct because the indigenous aircraft carrier INS Vikrant officially joined the Western Fleet under the Western Naval Command of the Indian Navy on August 20, 2024. This occurred during its deployment for a multi-domain joint exercise and twin-carrier operations alongside INS Vikramaditya in the Arabian Sea.

Statement B is incorrect because INS Vikrant was designed by the Warship Design Bureau of the Indian Navy and constructed by Cochin Shipyard Limited, which is located in Kochi, Kerala, making it the first indigenous aircraft carrier built in Kerala, not Tamil Nadu.

Explanation

Justice Bhushan Ramkrishna Gavai was appointed as the Government Pleader and Public Prosecutor for the Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court on 17th January 2000, and not in January 2005. By January 2005, he was already serving as an Additional Judge of the Bombay High Court, having been elevated to that position on 14th November 2003.

Explanation

Statement A is correct because the applications and nominations for the Sixth National Water Awards (2024) were actively sought in November 2024, following its launch on 23 October 2024.

Statement B is correct because the Sixth National Water Awards were invited and presented under 9 distinct categories: Best State, Best District, Best School or College, Best Institution (other than school/college), Best Urban Local Body, Best Village Panchayat, Best Water User Association, Best Industry, and Best Civil Society.

Statement C is incorrect because the National Water Awards were first introduced by the Ministry of Jal Shakti in the year 2018, not 2016.

Explanation

In the Global Peace Index 2024, published by the Institute for Economics and Peace, countries are ranked by their overall level of peacefulness, where a lower numerical rank represents greater peacefulness.

The rankings of the given countries are: Iceland (C) is ranked 1st. Ireland (A) is ranked 2nd. Austria (B) is ranked 3rd. New Zealand (D) is ranked 4th.

Arranging these countries in ascending order of their rank (1, 2, 3, 4) gives the sequence C, A, B, D.

Explanation

Gukesh D. achieved historic milestones in 2024. He won the gold medal and the title at the FIDE World Chess Championship held in Singapore in late 2024, making him the youngest undisputed World Chess Champion in history. Additionally, at the 45th Chess Olympiad held in Budapest, Hungary, in September 2024, Gukesh D. delivered a stellar performance on the top board to win the individual gold medal. Since the 45th Chess Olympiad was hosted in Budapest, Hungary, rather than Singapore, only statements A and C are correct.

Explanation

National Girl Child Day is celebrated in India every year on January 24, rather than January 22. This annual event was established in 2008 by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to promote awareness of girl child rights, address gender inequalities, and ensure access to education, health, and nutrition.

The Beti Bachao Beti Padhao scheme was launched on January 22, 2015, in Panipat, Haryana, to prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination, ensure the survival and protection of the girl child, and facilitate her education and participation.

Explanation

The correct matching of the BRICS summits with their respective host cities is based on the chronological sequence of the summits:

The 16th BRICS Summit (A) was hosted by Russia in Kazan in October 2024, which matches with iv.

The 15th BRICS Summit (B) was hosted by South Africa in Johannesburg in August 2023, which matches with iii.

The 14th BRICS Summit (C) was hosted virtually by China in Beijing in June 2022, which matches with ii.

The 13th BRICS Summit (D) was hosted virtually by India in New Delhi in September 2021, which matches with i.

Explanation

Under the Akshay Anna Yojana launched in Maharashtra, eligible low-income families are provided with nine essential kitchen ration items free of cost every month. This package of free essential food items includes rice, jowar, groundnut oil, salt, sugar, turmeric, mustard, cumin, and red chilli powder. Since all the options listed (Rice, Sugar, Red chilli powder, Turmeric, and Jowar) are part of these nine essential items distributed under the scheme, all of them are provided free of cost to the beneficiaries.

Explanation

The Bhagwan Birsa Munda Road Linking Scheme (Bhagwan Birsa Munda Jodaraste Scheme) was initiated by the Government of Maharashtra in August 2023 to improve infrastructure in regions with a predominant tribal population. The scheme was specifically designed to connect all remote tribal villages, hamlets, and habitations (known as Padas and Wadas) in the state’s 17 tribal districts to main roads. Additionally, its primary objective is to link these remote tribal areas with essential service hubs, notably primary health centres and residential Ashram schools, ensuring all-weather connectivity and better access to healthcare and education.

Explanation

The People's National Congress (PNC), led by Maldivian President Mohamed Muizzu, secured a landslide victory in the parliamentary elections held on April 21, 2024. The party won 66 of the 93 seats in the People's Majlis, obtaining a supermajority in the national legislature.

Explanation

The Indus Water Treaty was signed on September 19, 1960, between India and Pakistan under the aegis of the World Bank. According to the provisions of this treaty, India has control and unrestricted rights over the waters of the three Eastern rivers, namely the Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi.

Explanation

The Indian Parliament allocates a specific number of days for the discussion and voting of Demands for Grants of various ministries. Since the time is limited, it is not possible to discuss all the demands in detail. On the last day of the allotted period, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha puts all the remaining undiscussed demands for grants to vote immediately to conclude the process. This parliamentary procedure is known as the guillotine, which ensures that all demands for grants are voted upon within the scheduled timeframe.

Explanation

Maruti Chitampalli is a highly distinguished Marathi naturalist, wildlife conservationist, and writer from Maharashtra. Among the listed titles, Ratva, Pakhar Maya, and Chakwa Chandan are authored by him. Ratva is an engaging narrative detailing forest wildlife and nature observations. Pakhar Maya is a collection of his informative articles on birds, highlighting his deep expertise in ornithology. Chakwa Chandan, subtitled Ek Vanopanishad, is his critically acclaimed autobiography that chronicles his life, experiences, and extensive career in the Maharashtra State Forest Service. Of the remaining options, Phulvanti was written by the prominent historian and writer Babasaheb Purandare, and Janglacha Paus is not a work of Maruti Chitampalli.

Explanation

On 24th January 2024, the President of India, Smt. Droupadi Murmu, inaugurated Kaushal Bhawan in New Delhi. This state-of-the-art office building serves as the new headquarters for the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Designed to accommodate the Ministry and its associated organizations—including the Directorate General of Training, the National Council for Vocational Education and Training, and the National Skill Development Corporation—the modern workspace is built to foster creativity, environmental responsibility, and a more efficient work culture under the Skill India Mission.