MPSC2014General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

MPSC Prelims 2014 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 100 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

100
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6
Subjects
6
Maharashtra-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

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  • Science and Technology3333%
  • Geography1919%
  • History1919%
  • Polity and Governance1313%
  • Economy1111%
  • Art and Culture55%
1History
Which of the following plays were written by Harshavardhan ? (i) Priyadarsika (ii) Ratanavali (iii) Nagananda Answer options :
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Answer: (D) All the three

Explanation

King Harshavardhana, who ruled northern India from 606 to 647 CE, was a renowned patron of art and literature and an accomplished writer. He authored three celebrated Sanskrit plays. Priyadarsika is a four-act romantic drama portraying the love story of King Udayana and Princess Priyadarsika. Ratnavali, or Ratanavali, is another famous four-act play about the love affair between King Udayana and Princess Ratnavali of Ceylon. Nagananda is a unique play with a Buddhist theme, telling the self-sacrificing story of Prince Jimutavahana, who offers his own body to save the Nagas from Garuda. Together, these three works establish Harshavardhana as a key figure in classical Sanskrit drama.

2History
Who has rejected the 'Safety Valve Theory' about the foundation of the Congress calling it the 'myth' ?
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Answer: (D) Bipan Chandra

Explanation

Bipan Chandra, along with other nationalist historians, thoroughly analyzed and rejected the Safety Valve Theory regarding the foundation of the Indian National Congress, characterizing it as a myth.

In his book, India's Struggle for Independence, Chandra argued that the Indian National Congress was not created by A. O. Hume under Lord Dufferin's guidance to serve as a safety valve for releasing popular discontent against British rule. Instead, he demonstrated that the early nationalist leaders established the Congress to serve as a genuine national political platform. Rather than Hume utilizing these leaders as a safety valve, the Indian leaders utilized Hume as a lightning conductor to catalyze the national movement and protect the infant organization from immediate suppression by colonial authorities.

3History
He was given the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk. He was made the Governor of the Deccan. He founded the Asaf Jahi dynasty. His successors are called the Nizams of Hyderabad. Identify him :
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Answer: (A) Chin Quilich Khan

Explanation

Chin Quilich Khan, also known as Mir Qamar-ud-din Khan, was a prominent noble during the later Mughal era who was awarded the title of Nizam-ul-Mulk by Emperor Farrukhsiyar in 1713 and appointed as the Governor of the Deccan. After serving as the Grand Vizier of the Mughal Empire, he returned to the Deccan, defeated the Mughal governor Mubariz Khan in the Battle of Shakar Kheda in 1724, and established the independent state of Hyderabad. He founded the Asaf Jahi dynasty, and his descendants ruled the region as the Nizams of Hyderabad until India's independence.

4History
The Maratha power suffered from certain basic weaknesses which led to its downfall. Which of the following was not one among them ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

All the listed points describe genuine historical weaknesses that led to the decline of the Maratha Empire. The decentralized confederacy system alienated potential allies, such as the Rajputs and Jats, and lacked administrative cohesion. Frequent military incursions and raids into neighboring states made adversaries out of neighboring rulers. Additionally, the imposition of heavy financial levies, specifically Chauth and Sardeshmukhi, oppressed the local peasantry and trading classes, generating widespread resentment.

5History
Which of the following statements are true about Ajatashatru ? (a) His name was also Kunika. (b) He was the last ruler of the Haryanka dynasty. (c) The first Buddhist council was held at Rajgruh during his regime. (d) He integrated Lichhavi kingdom into Magadh. Answer options :
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Answer: (B) (a), (c) and (d)

Explanation

Ajatashatru, the ruler of the Magadha empire, was known by the name Kunika in various ancient Buddhist and Jain literary traditions. He was a devout patron of Buddhism and sponsored the First Buddhist Council in the Saptaparni cave at Rajgriha (Rajgruh) shortly after the Mahaparinirvana of Gautama Buddha to compile and preserve the Buddhist teachings. He also followed an aggressive expansionist foreign policy, which led to a prolonged and successful military campaign against the Vajji confederacy, resulting in the integration of the powerful Lichhavi kingdom of Vaishali into the Magadha empire.

6History
Arrange the following British trading centres in their chronological order. Choose the correct answer option. (i) Calcutta (ii) Surat (iii) Madras (iv) Bombay Answer options :
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Answer: (C) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Explanation

The English East India Company established its early trading centres and factories in India in a sequence beginning with Surat in 1612, after securing permission from the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

Following this, Madras was founded in 1639 when Francis Day obtained a grant of land from the local Nayak ruler, leading to the construction of Fort St. George.

Bombay was acquired by the British Crown in 1661 as part of the royal dowry from Portugal and was leased to the East India Company in 1668.

Calcutta was established latest among these, when Job Charnock selected Sutanuti for a British settlement in 1690, which was later fortified as Fort William.

7History
Who, among the following revolutionaries, was an atheist and a socialist in approach ?
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Answer: (D) Bhagat Singh

Explanation

Bhagat Singh was a prominent Indian revolutionary who openly embraced both atheism and socialist ideology. In 1930, while imprisoned in the Lahore Central Jail, he wrote his landmark essay Why I am an Atheist, in which he detailed his transition to atheism and challenged religious beliefs on rational and scientific grounds. He was deeply influenced by Marxist literature, the Russian Revolution, and Western socialist thinkers. This ideological shift led him and his comrades to rename their revolutionary organization from the Hindustan Republican Association to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association in 1928, explicitly aiming to establish a socialist society in India free from the exploitation of man by man.

8HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Which one of the following statements about the Faizpur Session of Congress is not true ?
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Answer: (D) Shankarrao Deo presided over this session.

Explanation

The Faizpur Session of the Indian National Congress, held in December 1936, was presided over by Jawaharlal Nehru. Shankarrao Deo was a prominent Congress leader from Maharashtra and active in the region, but he did not preside over this session.

9History
The early nationalists provided the firm foundation to the 20th century freedom movement through :
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Answer: (D) Economic critique of colonialism

Explanation

The early nationalist leaders, prominently Dadabhai Naoroji, Mahadev Govind Ranade, and Romesh Chunder Dutt, formulated a detailed economic critique of British rule. Through pioneering concepts like the drain of wealth theory, they systematically exposed how British imperialism drained India's resources and wealth to Britain, leading to widespread poverty, famines, and de-industrialization. This intellectual exposure of colonial exploitation transformed Indian political consciousness, providing a solid ideological and economic foundation for the subsequent mass-based, anti-imperialist freedom struggle of the twentieth century.

10History
Read statements (A) and (B) and choose appropriate option from the answer options : (A) Megasthenes mentions seven castes into which the Indian society was divided. (B) Megasthenes confused castes with professions. Answer options :
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (B) are true, and (B) is the correct explanation of (A).

Explanation

Megasthenes, the Greek ambassador to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, documented his observations of India in his book Indica. He recorded that Indian society was divided into seven classes, which he identified as castes: philosophers, farmers, herdsmen, artisans, soldiers, overseers, and councillors.

This sevenfold division does not correspond to the traditional fourfold Varna system of ancient India. Because Megasthenes was an outsider, he did not understand the birth-based, hereditary nature of the Indian social structure. Instead, he observed the distinct occupational roles people performed in daily life and mistook these professions for castes. Thus, his confusion between castes and professions is the reason why he erroneously recorded that Indian society was divided into seven castes.

11History
Match the pairs. (Choose the correct answer option). | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Adil shahi | (i) Bidar | | (b) Nizam shahi | (ii) Golconda | | (c) Imad shahi | (iii) Vijaypur | | (d) Qutub Shahi | (iv) Ahemadnagar | | (e) Barid Shahi | (v) Berar | Answer options : (a) (b) (c) (d) (e)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (iv) (v) (ii) (i)

Explanation

Adil Shahi: This dynasty was established by Yusuf Adil Shah in 1489 with its capital at Vijaypur.

Nizam Shahi: This dynasty was founded by Malik Ahmad Nizam Shah in 1490 with its capital at Ahmadnagar.

Imad Shahi: This dynasty was founded by Fathullah Imad-ul-Mulk in 1490 with its capital at Berar.

Qutub Shahi: This dynasty was established by Sultan Quli Qutb-ul-Mulk in 1518 with its capital at Golconda.

Barid Shahi: This dynasty was founded by Qasim Barid in 1492 with its capital at Bidar.

12History
The most outstanding Rajput ruler in the post Aurangzeb period was Sawai Raja Jai Singh of Amber. He built the beautiful city of Jaipur. He also erected astronomical observatories at five places. At how many of the following places he did not erect these ? (a) Banaras (b) Ujjain (c) Mathura (d) Udaipur (e) Allahabad Answer options :
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Answer: (B) Two

Explanation

Sawai Raja Jai Singh II of Amber constructed astronomical observatories, commonly known as Jantar Mantar, at five specific locations across India: Delhi, Jaipur, Ujjain, Varanasi (Banaras), and Mathura.

Among the options listed in the question, he erected observatories in Banaras (a), Ujjain (b), and Mathura (c). He did not construct observatories in Udaipur (d) and Allahabad (e). Therefore, there are exactly two places from the given list where he did not erect these observatories.

13History
Who among the following strongly opposed the interference of the Ulemas in the affairs of the state ? (i) Balban (ii) Alauddin Khilji (iii) Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq (iv) Firoze Shah Tughlaq Answer options :
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Answer: (B) (ii) and (iii)

Explanation

Alauddin Khilji and Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq were the two prominent rulers of the Delhi Sultanate who consciously separated religion from politics and strongly opposed the interference of the Ulemas in state administration.

Alauddin Khilji became the first sultan to declare that the administration of the state should be guided strictly by political expediency and the welfare of the kingdom, rather than the dictates of Islamic law as interpreted by the religious class. He famously asserted that he did not know whether his decrees were lawful or unlawful under Shariat, but ordered whatever he deemed fit and necessary for the security of the state.

Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq furthered this secular approach to governance by refusing to allow the religious orthodox class to dominate political, judicial, or administrative affairs. He treated the Ulemas on par with ordinary citizens, stripped them of their special judicial privileges, and did not hesitate to try and punish them in secular courts when they were found guilty of rebellion or corruption.

14History
The princely states that were unwilling to join the Indian Union until July 1947 included : (a) Baroda (b) Travancore (c) Bikaner (d) Bhopal
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Answer: (D) (b), (d)

Explanation

Travancore and Bhopal were among the highly reluctant princely states that resisted joining the Indian Union until late July 1947. Sir C. P. Ramaswamy Iyer, the Dewan of Travancore, announced in June 1947 that the state would declare independence upon the British departure, and it was only after intense political pressure and a physical attack on the Dewan in late July that Travancore finally agreed to accede on July 30, 1947. Similarly, Hamidullah Khan, the Nawab of Bhopal and Chancellor of the Chamber of Princes, fiercely opposed integration and attempted to maintain Bhopal as an independent state or align with Pakistan, delaying accession until August 14, 1947.

15History
The Great Mughals included Babar, Humayun, Akbar, Jahangir, Shahjahan and Aurangzeb in that chronological order. The Mughal emperors who came to the throne after the death of Aurangzeb are called the Later Mughals. Arrange the following four Later Mughals in their chronoological order. (a) Ahmad Shah (b) Bahadur Shah (c) Jahandar Shah (d) Mohammad Shah Answer options :
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Answer: (B) Bahadur Shah, Jahandar Shah, Mohammad Shah, Ahmad Shah

Explanation

Following the death of Aurangzeb in 1707, Bahadur Shah I ascended the throne and ruled from 1707 to 1712. He was succeeded by Jahandar Shah, who had a brief reign from 1712 to 1713. After the reigns of Farrukhsiyar and short-lived puppet rulers, Mohammad Shah became the emperor, ruling a long period from 1719 to 1748. Following his death, Ahmad Shah Bahadur succeeded him, reigning from 1748 to 1754.

16Geography
The Ganga plains accomodate ______ percent of population of India.
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Answer: (D) 43

Explanation

The Ganga Plains represent the most populous region of India. According to geographic and demographic analyses, this highly fertile alluvial plain accommodates approximately 43% of the total population of India. This region spans parts of major states such as Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, Haryana, Delhi, and West Bengal, which are some of the most densely populated areas in the country due to fertile soils, rich water resources, and favorable conditions for agriculture.

17Geography
Consider the following two statements : (A) There are deserts between 10° and 20° latitudes in both the hemispheres (B) Between 10° and 20° latitudes evaporation exceeds precipitation Answer options :
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Answer: (D) Only (B) is true

Explanation

Statement A is incorrect because the major hot deserts of the world are primarily situated further poleward, between 15° and 30° latitudes in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres. These desert zones are associated with the subtropical high-pressure belts where dry, descending air inhibits cloud formation and precipitation. The latitudinal band between 10° and 20° is instead typically occupied by tropical wet-and-dry savanna or monsoon climates, which experience a distinct wet season with significant rainfall.

Statement B is correct because the region between 10° and 20° latitudes experiences high temperatures and is dominated by dry, blowing trade winds on the periphery of the subtropical high-pressure systems. These factors promote highly active evaporation, while precipitation remains relatively low and highly seasonal, resulting in annual evaporation exceeding annual precipitation in this zone.

18HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Which of the following statements is incorrect ? (a) Chauth : Tax realised by Marathas from the areas outside their domain-equal to one fourth of the revenue paid to the Mughal Empire. (b) Sardeshmukhi : Tax realised by the Marathas equal to one tenth of the land revenue. (c) Misl : Political unit among the Rajputs, each loyal to its own particular leader. Answer options :
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Answer: (C) Only (c)

Explanation

A Misl was a sovereign administrative and military unit of the Sikh Confederacy in the Punjab region during the 18th century, rather than among the Rajputs. These twelve independent clans or confederacies were each led by a chief known as a Misldar, whose members remained loyal to their particular leader while cooperating under the collective banner of the Sarbat Khalsa.

19Geography
Match the following : | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | (a) Hawaiian Type | (i) Erupt with great force | | (b) Strombolian | (ii) Most violent | | (c) Vulcanian | (iii) Erupt quietly | | (d) Peleean Type | (iv) Erupt continuously | (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

Explanation

Hawaiian Type matches with erupt quietly because highly fluid basaltic lava allows gases to escape easily, resulting in non-explosive, gentle lava flows.

Strombolian matches with erupt continuously as they are characterized by frequent, regular, and persistent mild ejections of incandescent lava fragments.

Vulcanian matches with erupt with great force because highly viscous magma plugs the volcanic vent, causing pressure to build up until it releases in violent, ash-laden explosions.

Peleean Type matches with most violent because extremely viscous magma completely blocks the conduit, resulting in catastrophic, highly explosive eruptions with devastating pyroclastic flows.

20Geography
Match the following : | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | (a) Gulf of Tonkin | (i) Arctic Ocean | | (b) Parisian Gulf | (ii) China Sea | | (c) Gulf of Aquaba | (iii) Indian Ocean | | (d) Gulf of Ob | (iv) Red sea | (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Explanation

The Gulf of Tonkin is a northern arm of the South China Sea located off the coast of northern Vietnam and southern China, which corresponds to the China Sea.

The Persian Gulf is a mediterranean sea in Western Asia that connects to the Arabian Sea and the broader Indian Ocean via the Strait of Hormuz, which corresponds to the Indian Ocean.

The Gulf of Aqaba is a large gulf situated at the northern tip of the Red Sea, bordered by Egypt, Israel, Jordan, and Saudi Arabia, which corresponds to the Red Sea.

The Gulf of Ob is a major bay of the Arctic Ocean located in northern Russia, situated between the Yamal and Gyda Peninsulas, which corresponds to the Arctic Ocean.

21Art and Culture
Match the following pairs and choose the correct option from those given below : | Tribes | States | |---|---| | (a) Angami | (i) Zarkhand | | (b) Kota | (ii) Assam | | (c) Mundia | (iii) Nilgiri mountain (Tamil Nadu) | | (d) Chutiya | (iv) Nagaland | Answer options : (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation

Angami is a major Naga ethnic group native to the state of Nagaland.

Kota is a small tribal community indigenous to the Nilgiri hills in the state of Tamil Nadu.

Mundia refers to the Munda tribe, which is a major Scheduled Tribe residing primarily in Jharkhand.

Chutiya represents the Chutia community, an ethnic group originating from the state of Assam.

22Art and Culture
Teej a Hindu festival is dedicated to which Goddess ?
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Answer: (C) Parvati

Explanation

Teej refers to the monsoon festivals observed particularly in northern and western India and Nepal. It is primarily dedicated to Goddess Parvati and commemorates her union with Lord Shiva. According to Hindu mythology, Goddess Parvati underwent rigorous penance and devotion for many years to win the love of Lord Shiva. Satisfied with her devotion, Lord Shiva accepted her as his wife on the third day of the bright fortnight in the Hindu month of Shravana. Women celebrate this festival by observing fasts, singing traditional songs, and praying to Goddess Parvati for conjugal harmony, the long life of their spouses, and marital bliss.

23Economy
Tea is made from young leaves of the tea plant. Chinese were the earliest tea drinkers in the world. The British first discovered the Assam tea in 1829 in the forests of North-East India. The popular brands in the world are : (a) Large leaved China tea (b) Small leaved Assam tea
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Answer: (D) Neither (a) nor (b) is correct

Explanation

The botanical classification of the tea plant, Camellia sinensis, distinguishes the major varieties based on leaf size and regional adaptation. The Chinese tea variety, Camellia sinensis variety sinensis, is a small-leaved plant that is highly tolerant of cold climates. In contrast, the Assam tea variety, Camellia sinensis variety assamica, is a large-leaved plant native to the tropical and humid conditions of Northeast India. Since statement (a) describes China tea as large-leaved and statement (b) describes Assam tea as small-leaved, both statements have swapped the characteristics of the two main tea varieties and are incorrect.

24Geography
Consider the following two statements : (a) Tropical Evergreen forests : Scattered distribution of one particular species of tree eg. Rosewood. (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests : They have fewer species but they are found in close proximity eg. Teak. Now state whether :
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Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b) are true

Explanation

Tropical evergreen forests are characterized by extremely high species diversity, which prevents any single tree species from dominating a large contiguous area. Consequently, valuable hardwood species such as rosewood, mahogany, and ebony are found scattered individually or in small numbers throughout the forest rather than in pure stands.

In contrast, tropical deciduous forests have lower species richness. However, they are characterized by dominant species that grow in high concentration or close proximity. Valuable timber species like teak and sal typically grow in dense, extensive, and relatively pure stands, making them highly suitable for commercial exploitation.

25Geography
Newly developed 'Ennore' port near Chennai is the ________ th largest port in the country and ________ th largest port on the eastern coast.
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Answer: (C) 12 and 6

Explanation

Ennore Port, officially known as Kamarajar Port Limited, is located on the Coromandel Coast, north of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. It was declared as the 12th major port of India under the Indian Ports Act in March 1999 and is the first corporatized major port in the country.

Among the major ports situated on the eastern coast of India—which include Kolkata, Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Tuticorin, and Ennore—it is the 6th major port. Thus, Ennore port is the 12th largest port in the country and the 6th largest port on the eastern coast.

26Geography
Arrange the following States in descending order of their forest area, according to forest survey report 2009 : (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Chattisgarh
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Answer: (D) (c), (a), (d), (b)

Explanation

According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2009, the forest cover area of Madhya Pradesh (c) is approximately 77,700 square kilometers, which is the highest among the given states. Arunachal Pradesh (a) follows with about 67,353 square kilometers. Chhattisgarh (d) has approximately 55,870 square kilometers, and Maharashtra (b) has around 50,650 square kilometers. This results in the descending order of (c), (a), (d), (b).

27Geography
Which of the following hills connect Eastern and Western Ghats ?
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Answer: (B) Nilgiri

Explanation

The Nilgiri Hills are located at the tri-junction of the states of Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu, serving as the primary geographical meeting point where the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats merge. This mountainous region forms a vital ecological bridge, facilitating the contiguous flow of biodiversity and wildlife corridors between the two major hill ranges of southern India, and constitutes a central part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve.

28Geography
Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below : | Shifting Cultivation | State | |---|---| | (a) Jhurn | (i) Chattisgarh | | (b) Podu | (ii) Keral | | (c) Ponam | (iii) Assam | | (d) Dahiya | (iv) Andhra Pradesh | Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

Explanation

Jhum is matched with Assam because it is the widely recognized term for shifting cultivation practiced in the northeastern states of India.

Podu is matched with Andhra Pradesh as this is the local term used for shifting agriculture in the hilly and tribal areas of the state.

Ponam is matched with Kerala because it is the traditional name for slash-and-burn agriculture practiced in the Western Ghats region of Kerala.

Dahiya is matched with Chhattisgarh as it is the indigenous name for shifting cultivation practiced by tribal communities in the hilly tracts of Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.

29Geography
Match the following and choose the correct option from those given below : | River | Water fall | |---|---| | (a) Sharavati | (i) Gokak | | (b) Kaveri | (ii) Chulia | | (c) Ghatprabha | (iii) Shivsamudram | | (d) Chambal | (iv) Girsappa | Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Explanation

The Sharavati river creates the Girsappa waterfall, which is also commonly known as Jog Falls, located in Karnataka.

The Kaveri river forms the Shivsamudram waterfall, a major tourist and hydro-electric power site located in Karnataka.

The Ghatprabha river is responsible for the Gokak waterfall, which is situated in the Belagavi district of Karnataka.

The Chambal river features the Chulia waterfall, which is located near Rawatbhata in Rajasthan.

30Geography
Which of the following factors determine diurnal and seasonal variation in intensity and amount of solar radiation ? (a) Inclination of the axis of the earth. (b) Length of the day. (c) Extent of clouds (d) Angle of inclination of the Sun's rays
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

The variation in the amount and intensity of solar radiation received on the Earth's surface is governed by several astronomical, orbital, and atmospheric factors.

The inclination of the axis of the Earth at an angle of approximately 23.5° relative to its orbital plane, combined with its annual revolution, is the fundamental cause of seasons. This tilt determines how the hemispheres lean toward or away from the Sun, causing the seasonal shift in energy distribution.

The length of the day dictates the duration of exposure to solar radiation. Longer days allow a location to receive solar energy over a more extended period, directly affecting both the daily cumulative insolation and the seasonal variation as day lengths change through the year.

The extent of clouds represents an atmospheric factor that alters atmospheric transparency. Clouds reflect, absorb, and scatter incoming solar radiation. Variation in cloud cover modifies the intensity and amount of solar energy reaching the ground on both a diurnal basis and a seasonal basis, such as during monsoon periods.

The angle of inclination of the Sun's rays determines the concentration of solar energy. When the Sun is high in the sky, its rays strike the Earth at a steep angle, concentrating the solar energy over a smaller surface area and minimizing the atmospheric path the light must traverse. When the Sun is low on the horizon, the same amount of energy spreads over a larger area and passes through a thicker layer of the atmosphere, reducing its intensity. This angle changes continuously from sunrise to sunset, causing diurnal variation, and shifts systematically over the months, causing seasonal variation.

31Geography
Accumulation of mercury into human body leads to ______ disease.
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Answer: (C) Minamata

Explanation

Minamata disease is a severe neurological syndrome caused by methylmercury poisoning. It was first identified in Minamata City, Japan, in 1956, following the release of industrial wastewater containing methylmercury into Minamata Bay. The toxic chemical bioaccumulated in shellfish and fish, which were subsequently consumed by the local population. When mercury accumulates in the human body, it crosses the blood-brain barrier and damages the central nervous system. This lead to symptoms such as loss of peripheral vision, numbness in the extremities, muscle weakness, speech and hearing impairment, ataxia, and in severe cases, paralysis, coma, or death.

32Geography
The continuous increase in concentration of a toxicant at successive trophic levels in food chain is :
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Answer: (B) Biomagnification

Explanation

Biomagnification is the process where the concentration of toxic substances increases sequentially at each successive trophic level in a food chain. Non-biodegradable pollutants, such as heavy metals or synthetic organic chemicals like DDT, are ingested by organisms at lower trophic levels. Because these toxicants cannot be metabolized, broken down, or excreted easily, they accumulate in the body tissues of the organisms. When predators at higher trophic levels consume these prey, they ingest the accumulated toxins from many individuals below them in the food chain. Consequently, the concentration of the toxicant becomes progressively concentrated and reaches its highest levels in top-level predators.

33Geography
The main gas responsible for ozone depletion is :
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Answer: (D) Chloro fluro carbon

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons are highly stable, non-toxic, and non-flammable synthetic compounds that migrate to the stratosphere after release. Once in the stratosphere, intense ultraviolet radiation breaks them down, releasing highly reactive free chlorine atoms. These chlorine atoms act as catalysts in a chain reaction, where a single chlorine atom can break down tens of thousands of ozone molecules into oxygen, leading to the thinning of the ozone layer.

34Geography
Heterotrophic organisms, chiefly bacteria and fungi that breakdown the complex compounds of dead protoplasm and release simple usable substances for other organisms are :
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Answer: (B) Decomposers

Explanation

Decomposers are heterotrophic organisms, primarily bacteria and fungi, that obtain energy by breaking down the complex organic compounds present in dead plants and animals. They secrete extracellular digestive enzymes to break down dead protoplasm externally and then absorb the simplified organic molecules. Through this process, they convert complex biological matter into simple inorganic nutrients such as carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorus. These simple substances are released back into the soil, water, and atmosphere, recycling essential nutrients and making them readily usable again for autotrophic plants and other organisms.

35Geography
The First National Park established in India was ________.
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Answer: (A) Jim Corbett

Explanation

Jim Corbett National Park was established in 1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the endangered Bengal tiger. Located in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand, it holds the distinction of being the oldest and the first national park in India. It was briefly renamed Ramganga National Park in the mid-1950s before being named Jim Corbett National Park in honor of the well-known author and wildlife conservationist Jim Corbett, who played a key role in its establishment.

36Polity and Governance
Which of the following is considered as a land mark year in the history of legislative action in India for environment concerns during which National Committee for Environment Planning and Co-ordination (NCEPC) was set up ?
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Answer: (C) 1972

Explanation

The National Committee on Environmental Planning and Coordination (NCEPC) was established by the Government of India in February 1972 under the Department of Science and Technology. Set up on the recommendations of the Pitambar Pant Committee, its formation coincided with India's preparation for the landmark United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm Conference) held in June 1972. The NCEPC served as the apex advisory body responsible for formulating environmental policies, coordinating protection efforts, and ensuring that ecological concerns were integrated into national development projects, marking the beginning of formalized institutional environmental governance in India.

37Science and Technology
Kidneys are helping to maintain pH balance by which of the following ?
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Answer: (A) Adding hydrogen ions to filtrate

Explanation

The kidneys maintain the acid-base balance (pH) of body fluids primarily through tubular secretion, a process where hydrogen ions (H⁺) are actively transported from the renal capillaries into the tubular filtrate. By adding hydrogen ions (H⁺) to the filtrate, the body is able to excrete excess acid in the urine. This selective excretion of hydrogen ions, combined with the reabsorption of bicarbonate ions (HCO₃⁻), prevents metabolic acidosis and maintains the blood pH within its narrow, healthy physiological range of 7.35 to 7.45.

38Geography
One of the worst natural disasters of the World was the cyclone struck in Bangladesh. As many as 3,00,000 people, lost their lives, it is said. When did the disaster struck Bangladesh, then East Pakistan ?
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Answer: (A) 1970

Explanation

The devastating Bhola cyclone struck East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) on November 12, 1970. It is recorded as the deadliest tropical cyclone in history and one of the worst natural disasters of modern times. The cyclone caused a massive storm surge that inundated the low-lying islands and coastal areas of the Ganges Delta, resulting in the loss of an estimated 300,000 to 500,000 lives.

39Science and Technology
Silicon Valley, California, United States is one of the greatest science parks in the world today as it contains hundreds of hightech information technology industries. Which of the following two statements about the Silicon Valley is correct ? (A) Silicon Valley was once called the "Valley of Heart's Delight". (B) It was so called because hundreds and thousands of varieties of flowers bloomed therein.
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Answer: (A) Only (A)

Explanation

Silicon Valley, which corresponds geographically to the Santa Clara Valley, was historically known as the "Valley of Heart's Delight". Until the mid-20th century, the region was the largest fruit-producing and packing valley in the world, filled with extensive orchards of apricots, cherries, peaches, and prunes. The nickname was a tribute to these vast fruit orchards and the scenic beauty of their seasonal blossoms, rather than being named for thousands of varieties of flowers.

40Economy
Human development report of 2011, presented Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) estimates of 109 countries. What proportion of population according to this report, in these countries experience multidimensional poverty?
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Answer: (B) 1/3

Explanation

According to the 2011 Human Development Report, the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) covered 109 countries with a combined population of 5.5 billion. Out of this population, approximately 1.7 billion people lived in multidimensional poverty, which represents about 1/3 of the total population in these covered countries.

41Economy
What are the core values of development as described by Amartya Sen and Goulet D ? Choose the correct option given below :
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Answer: (A) Sustenance, self esteem, freedom, capabilities, entitlement.

Explanation

Denis Goulet identified three core values of development as sustenance, which is the ability to meet basic life-sustaining needs; self-esteem, which represents a sense of personal worth, dignity, and honor; and freedom from servitude, which is the capacity to choose and determine one's own destiny. Amartya Sen expanded this paradigm through his capability approach, which conceptualizes development as the expansion of human freedom and capability, meaning the actual ability of individuals to do and be what they value. Sen also emphasized entitlements, which are the legal and economic means through which individuals command goods and services in a society. Together, sustenance, self-esteem, freedom, capabilities, and entitlement constitute the essential human-centric dimensions of development.

42Economy
The June 2012, Rio + 20 conference on sustainable development advocated the "green economy" model. In whose book the term 'green economy' was coined ?
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Answer: (B) D. Pearce, A. Markandya, E. Barbier

Explanation

The term green economy was first coined in 1989 in the pioneering report titled Blueprint for a Green Economy, which was authored by leading environmental economists David Pearce, Anil Markandya, and Edward Barbier. This report, commissioned by the United Kingdom Department of the Environment, explored practical policy measures for greening modern economies, aligning economic development with environmental sustainability, and integrating ecological concerns into public policies and project appraisals.

43Science and Technology
The velocity of radio waves is ______
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Answer: (B) As that of velocity of light

Explanation

Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation. In a vacuum, all electromagnetic waves, including radio waves, infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet light, X-rays, and gamma rays, travel at the same constant speed. This speed is the speed of light, which is approximately 3 × 10⁸ meters per second. Since radio waves and visible light are both propagation of electromagnetic fields, their velocities in any given medium are governed by the same physical principles, making the velocity of radio waves equal to the velocity of light.

44Geography
According to 2011 census how many cities in India have more than 1 million population ?
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Answer: (B) 53

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, there are 53 urban agglomerations or cities with a population of 1 million or more. This is an increase from the 35 million-plus urban agglomerations recorded in the 2001 Census. These cities, also referred to as metropolitan areas, account for a significant portion of the total urban population in India.

45Economy
Land reforms promote triple revolution. Choose the correct option from the following :
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Answer: (A) Cultural, Political, Technological

Explanation

Land reforms act as a catalyst for a triple revolution in three distinct spheres.

The cultural revolution occurs because traditional land ownership was deeply intertwined with caste-based social hierarchies. Redistributing surplus land from landlords to landless, marginalized laborers who were historically subjected to forced labor dismantled these oppressive structures, fostering dignity and social equality.

The political revolution is driven by the democratization of rural power. Historically, concentrated land ownership equaled political dominance. Land reforms empowered the agrarian masses, making land rights a central issue in democratic elections and shifting political influence to the grassroots.

The technological revolution is triggered by the transition away from cheap, forced labor. This incentivized both large landowners and newly independent farmers to adopt modern agricultural machinery, such as tractors and threshers, as well as improved seeds and fertilizers, which significantly boosted productivity.

46Economy
As per the 2011 census what was the rate of improvement in female literacy during 2001 to 2011 ?
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Answer: (A) 53.7 % to 65.5 %

Explanation

According to the Census of India, the female literacy rate was 53.67% in 2001, which is approximately 53.7%. Over the subsequent decade, focused government efforts and educational drives led to a significant increase in female literacy, reaching 65.46% in the 2011 Census, which rounds to 65.5%. This represents an improvement of 11.79 percentage points over the decade.

47Science and Technology
In plants, which enzyme is found in largest quantity ?
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Answer: (B) RuBP carboxylease

Explanation

RuBP carboxylase-oxygenase is the enzyme that catalyzes the initial step of carbon dioxide fixation in the Calvin cycle of photosynthesis. Due to its low turnover rate and competitive interaction with oxygen, plants must synthesize this enzyme in massive quantities to maintain efficient rates of carbon assimilation. It constitutes up to 50% of the total soluble leaf protein in C3 plants, making it the most abundant enzyme in the plant kingdom and the most abundant protein on Earth.

48Science and Technology
The end product of aerobic respiration is :
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Answer: (D) CO₂ + H₂O

Explanation

Aerobic respiration is the process of cellular respiration that takes place in the presence of oxygen gas to produce energy from food. The overall chemical reaction of aerobic respiration is:

C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂ → 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + Energy (ATP)

In this process, glucose is completely broken down and oxidized. Oxygen serves as the ultimate electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain, where it reacts with hydrogen ions to yield water molecules. Meanwhile, the carbon skeleton of the glucose molecule is oxidized to release carbon dioxide as a byproduct. Thus, the terminal chemical products of this pathway are carbon dioxide and water.

49Economy
The long term objective of population policy 2000 is to achieve stable population. During which of the following years this objective is targetted to be achieved ?
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Answer: (D) 2045

Explanation

The long-term objective of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 is to achieve a stable population by the year 2045. This stabilization is targeted at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection. Along with this long-term goal, the policy laid out an immediate objective of addressing unmet needs for contraception, healthcare infrastructure, and health personnel, as well as a medium-term objective to bring the Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels of 2.1 by 2010.

50Economy
Choose from the following options what the "Malthusian Population Trap" is related to :
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Answer: (C) Population growth and development

Explanation

The Malthusian Population Trap is a well-known concept in development economics that explains the relationship between population growth and economic development. It posits that at low levels of per capita income, any initial increase in income resulting from economic development leads to a corresponding increase in population growth, as food security improves and mortality rates decline. However, because population grows geometrically while food production and resources only increase arithmetically, this rapid population growth eventually outpaces the rate of economic growth. Consequently, per capita incomes are driven back down to subsistence levels, trapping the economy in a cycle of poverty and stagnation. This model directly illustrates how population dynamics can constrain and interact with long-term economic development.

51Science and Technology
What are the advantages of Microwave oven having microwave frequency of 2.45 GHz ? (a) There are no flames (b) Destruction of nutrients is less (c) There is a physical change in foods (d) Sterilization effected
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Answer: (A) (a), (b) and (d)

Explanation

Microwave ovens operating at a frequency of 2.45 GHz utilize electromagnetic radiation that specifically targets water, fat, and sugar molecules in food, causing them to vibrate rapidly and generate heat. This mechanism provides several key advantages:

Safety and Flame-free Cooking: Since the heating occurs internally via molecular friction rather than external combustion, there are no open flames. This significantly reduces the risk of accidental fires and burns in the kitchen.

Nutrient Retention: The rapid heating rate and shorter cooking times associated with microwave ovens, combined with the minimal amount of water required, prevent the leaching and heat-induced degradation of essential vitamins and minerals. Consequently, the destruction of nutrients is less compared to conventional cooking methods.

Sterilization: The heat generated throughout the food is highly effective at destroying harmful microorganisms, bacteria, and pathogens, resulting in reliable sterilization.

52Science and Technology
Raman effect is due to :
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Answer: (C) Inelastic collision of photon with molecule

Explanation

The Raman effect occurs when a beam of monochromatic light passes through a substance and undergoes inelastic scattering by the molecules of that substance. During this inelastic collision between an incident photon and a molecule, there is an exchange of energy. The photon can either lose energy to the molecule, exciting it to a higher vibrational or rotational energy level, or gain energy from an already excited molecule. This exchange causes the scattered photon to emerge with a different frequency and wavelength than the incident photon, which is the defining characteristic of the Raman effect.

53Science and Technology
If a heavy load is pulled along a smooth horizontal surface, then the force acting on the load may be : (a) The applied force in the horizontal direction. (b) The force of gravity acting on the load vertically downwards. (c) The force of friction acting in the horizontal direction opposite the motion. (d) Reaction force due to the horizontal surface. Which of the above statements are true ?
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Answer: (B) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Explanation

When a heavy load is pulled along a smooth horizontal surface, several forces act on it:

The applied force acts horizontally in the direction of the pull to initiate and maintain motion.

The force of gravity, which is the weight of the load, acts vertically downwards, pulling the load toward the Earth.

The normal reaction force is exerted by the horizontal surface vertically upwards, balancing the downward force of gravity.

The force of friction acts horizontally, opposite to the direction of motion. Although a smooth surface is often assumed to be frictionless in theoretical physics, in real-world scenarios, a smooth surface still has a microscopic level of roughness that causes some kinetic friction. The use of the phrase may be in the question allows for this physical reality where a small frictional force still opposes the pull.

All four forces can act on the load under these conditions.

54Science and Technology
The allotropes of carbon are : (a) Carbon halides (b) Diamond (c) Fullerenes (d) Graphite (e) Chaotic
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Answer: (B) (b), (c), (d)

Explanation

Diamond, graphite, and fullerenes are well-known allotropes of carbon. In diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms in a tetrahedral geometry, forming a highly rigid three-dimensional crystal lattice. In graphite, carbon atoms are sp² hybridized and arranged in flat hexagonal layers held together by weak van der Waals forces, which allows the layers to slide easily over one another. Fullerenes, such as Buckminsterfullerene (C₆₀), represent a class of carbon allotropes where carbon atoms form hollow cage-like structures composed of pentagonal and hexagonal rings.

55Science and Technology
Oxygen occurs in nature in ______ isotopic forms.
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

Oxygen occurs in nature in three stable isotopic forms: oxygen-16 (¹⁶O), oxygen-17 (¹⁷O), and oxygen-18 (¹⁸O). These isotopes share the same number of protons (8) and electrons (8) but differ in their number of neutrons, which are 8, 9, and 10 respectively. Oxygen-16 is the most abundant isotope, making up about 99.76% of natural oxygen, while oxygen-18 constitutes approximately 0.20%, and oxygen-17 accounts for about 0.04%.

56Science and Technology
Choose correct statements from the following : (a) Sound waves travel faster in solids than in gases. (b) Sound waves travel fastest through vacuum (c) Sound waves are longitudinal waves (d) Sound waves travel slower in gases than in liquids.
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Answer: (A) (a), (c) and (d) only

Explanation

The speed of sound v in a medium is given by the relation v = √(E/ρ), where E is the elastic modulus and ρ is the density of the medium. Because solids and liquids have much higher elastic moduli than gases, this elasticity dominates over the density difference, meaning sound travels fastest in solids, slower in liquids, and slowest in gases. This validates that sound waves travel faster in solids than in gases, and slower in gases than in liquids. Furthermore, sound waves propagate through a medium as a series of compressions and rarefactions where the particles of the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave propagation, which classifies sound waves as longitudinal waves.

57Science and Technology
Which Botanist introduced the 'Binomial' nomenclature to the plants ?
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Answer: (C) Carolus Linnaeus

Explanation

Carolus Linnaeus systematically introduced and popularized the binomial nomenclature system for plants in his landmark publication Species Plantarum in 1753. Under this taxonomic system, every plant species is assigned a two-part scientific name consisting of a generic name (genus) and a specific epithet. This standardized methodology established a uniform scientific language for identifying organisms, resolving the ambiguity of regional common names and making Linnaeus the father of modern taxonomy.

58Science and Technology
Which animal tissue synthesizes, stores and metabolizes fat ?
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Answer: (B) Adipose tissue

Explanation

Adipose tissue is a specialized connective tissue mainly composed of fat-storing cells called adipocytes. It plays a central role in energy homeostasis by synthesizing lipids through lipogenesis, storing excess energy in the form of triglycerides, and metabolizing or releasing these stored fats through lipolysis to meet the body's energy demands.

59Science and Technology
Viruses are :
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Answer: (D) Non-cellular Organisms

Explanation

Viruses are non-cellular, or acellular, infectious entities that lack any cellular structure, cytoplasm, or cell organelles. They consist simply of a nucleic acid genome, which can be either DNA or RNA, enclosed within a protective protein shell known as a capsid. Since they do not have their own metabolic machinery and are unable to reproduce outside of a host, they exist as inert macromolecules in the environment and only exhibit characteristics of life once they infect and replicate inside a living host cell.

60Science and Technology
Spot the odd one out ?
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Answer: (D) Scapula

Explanation

The scapula is classified as a flat bone, which is thin and broad, primarily serving to protect organs and provide a broad surface for muscle attachment. Unlike the long bones of the skeletal system that support weight and facilitate movement, the scapula functions as part of the shoulder girdle.

61Science and Technology
Which of the following are essential whorls of the flowers ?
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Answer: (C) Androecium and Gynoecium

Explanation

Androecium and gynoecium are classified as the essential or reproductive whorls of a flower because they participate directly in the process of sexual reproduction. The androecium is the male reproductive organ, consisting of stamens that produce pollen grains, which carry the male gametes. The gynoecium is the female reproductive organ, consisting of carpels or pistils that contain the ovary, style, and stigma, housing the female gametes. Without these two whorls, a flower cannot undergo fertilization to produce seeds and fruit, making them indispensable for the reproduction of angiosperms.

62Science and Technology
Urea is transported by :
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Answer: (A) Plasma + Blood

Explanation

Urea is a nitrogenous waste product synthesized in the liver through the urea cycle. Being highly water-soluble, it readily dissolves in the blood plasma, which is the liquid component of blood. The blood then circulates the dissolved urea from the liver to the kidneys for filtration and eventual excretion in urine.

63Economy
Which of the following statements are true ? The guidelines for "the use of chemical additives in food processing" by Food Protection Committee in publication 398 include : (a) Use of antioxidants to maintain nutritional value. (b) Use of anti microbial agents and inert gases for food stability. (c) Use of colouring and flavouring agents to enhance the attractiveness. (d) Use of buffers in food processing.
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Answer: (A) All are true

Explanation

Publication 398, published by the Food Protection Committee of the National Academy of Sciences–National Research Council, outlines the functional uses and guidelines for chemical additives in food processing.

Antioxidants are included to maintain the nutritional value of food products by preventing the oxidation and subsequent degradation of essential vitamins and lipids. Antimicrobial agents and inert packaging gases such as nitrogen are used to ensure food stability and safety by inhibiting microbial spoilage and oxidative deterioration. Coloring and flavoring agents are approved to enhance the sensory appeal and overall attractiveness of processed foods. Buffers are also used as pH regulators to stabilize, modify, or maintain the acidity or alkalinity of food items during various stages of processing. Therefore, all of these applications are valid guidelines defined under the publication.

64Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is true ? (a) Indigo - blue is a natural dye. (b) Alizarin is a synthetic dye.
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Answer: (B) (a) true, (b) false

Explanation

Indigo-blue is a natural vat dye traditionally extracted from the leaves of the plant Indigofera tinctoria, which has been utilized since antiquity to color fabrics a deep blue. Hence, statement (a) is true.

Alizarin is a natural mordant dye traditionally obtained from the roots of the madder plant (Rubia tinctorum) to produce red shades. Although chemists synthesized it in the laboratory in 1869, Alizarin is historically and fundamentally classified under natural dyes, making statement (b) false.

65Science and Technology
Upon hydrolysis, sucrose yields equimolar mixture of :
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Answer: (C) Glucose and fructose

Explanation

Sucrose is a common disaccharide with the chemical formula C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁. Upon hydrolysis in the presence of an acid or the enzyme sucrase (invertase), the glycosidic linkage between the monomeric units is cleaved. This reaction consumes one molecule of water for each molecule of sucrose, yielding an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-fructose:

C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆

This 1:1 mixture of glucose and fructose is commonly referred to as invert sugar because the optical rotation of the solution changes from dextrorotatory to levorotatory as hydrolysis proceeds, due to the high levorotatory rotation of fructose.

66Science and Technology
The composition of cement is :
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Answer: (A) CaO - SiO₂ - Al₂O₃

Explanation

Cement is predominantly composed of three primary oxides which are essential for its hydraulic properties. These major constituents are calcium oxide (CaO), silicon dioxide (SiO₂), and aluminium oxide (Al₂O₃). Together, these three compounds account for more than 90% of Portland cement by weight. Calcium oxide (lime) is the largest component, typically making up about 60% to 67% of the composition. Silicon dioxide (silica) is the second-largest component, comprising around 17% to 25%, and aluminium oxide (alumina) constitutes approximately 3% to 8%. These oxides chemically react during the manufacturing process inside the kiln to form the essential silicates and aluminates of calcium that give cement its binding and strength characteristics.

67Science and Technology
What is not a mixture ?
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Answer: (A) Water

Explanation

Water is a chemical compound represented by the chemical formula H₂O. It consists of hydrogen and oxygen atoms chemically bonded together in a fixed stoichiometric ratio of 2:1. Because its constituent elements are chemically united in a definite proportion and cannot be separated by simple physical methods like filtration or evaporation, water is classified as a pure substance rather than a mixture.

68Science and Technology
The fundamental requirements for nitrogen fixation are : (a) Nitrogenase (b) Ferredoxin (c) ATP (d) Aerobic conditions
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Answer: (B) (a), (b), (c)

Explanation

Biological nitrogen fixation is an anaerobic process. The central enzyme involved, nitrogenase, is highly oxygen-labile and becomes irreversibly inactivated in the presence of oxygen. Therefore, aerobic conditions are not required; instead, anaerobic or protected microaerophilic conditions are essential.

The fundamental components necessary for biological nitrogen fixation include:

Nitrogenase enzyme complex: This enzyme catalyzes the multi-step reduction of atmospheric dinitrogen (N₂) to ammonia (NH₃).

Ferredoxin: This serves as the primary electron carrier, donating high-potential electrons to the iron (Fe) protein of the nitrogenase complex.

ATP (Adenosine Triphosphate): Biological nitrogen fixation is a highly energy-intensive biochemical reaction. The cleavage of the incredibly strong triple covalent bond of N₂ requires a minimum of 16 ATP molecules for every molecule of N₂ reduced to two molecules of ammonia.

69Science and Technology
In DNA, thymine always pairs with ________.
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Answer: (A) Adenine

Explanation

According to Chargaff's rules of base pairing in double-stranded DNA, the purine adenine always pairs specifically with the pyrimidine thymine via two hydrogen bonds. This complementary base pairing is essential for maintaining the uniform helical structure of the DNA double helix and is fundamental to the processes of DNA replication and transcription.

70Science and Technology
In protein synthesis, which RNA plays an important role ?
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Answer: (B) t RNA

Explanation

Messenger RNA (mRNA) plays a fundamental role in protein synthesis by carrying the genetic code transcribed from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm. It serves as the direct template, where its sequence of codons determines the precise order of amino acids to be linked together into a polypeptide chain.

71Polity and Governance
Under Article 22 of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated there in, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention ?
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Answer: (B) 3 months

Explanation

Under Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India, the maximum period for which a person can be detained under a preventive detention law without obtaining the opinion of an Advisory Board is three months. The Advisory Board, consisting of individuals who are, have been, or are qualified to be appointed as High Court Judges, must review the case and report sufficient cause before the expiration of this three-month period if the detention is to be extended further.

72Polity and Governance
Which of the following statutory provisions will you view as the most effective instrument of rural socio-economic distributive justice in the independent India ?
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Answer: (C) Agricultural Land Ceiling Act

Explanation

The Agricultural Land Ceiling Act is one of the most significant land reform measures in independent India aimed at ensuring socio-economic distributive justice in rural areas. It imposes a legal limit on the maximum size of agricultural landholdings that an individual or family can own. The surplus land acquired above this limit is redistributed to landless agricultural laborers and marginal farmers. Since land is the primary productive asset and source of livelihood in rural India, this statutory ceiling directly addresses rural inequality, reduces the concentration of land ownership, and promotes socio-economic equity.

73Polity and Governance
Which one of the following amendments to the Constitution of India sought to curb political defections ?
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Answer: (B) 52nd

Explanation

The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 introduced the Anti-Defection Law to curb the practice of political defections in India. This amendment added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India, which outlines the criteria for the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the grounds of defection from one political party to another. It also amended Articles 101, 102, 190, and 191 of the Constitution to implement these anti-defection provisions.

74Science and Technology
Which of the following two statements is correct ? (a) The soda commonly used in the kitchen for making tasty crispy pokodas is baking soda. The baking soda is a sodium carbonate. (b) Washing soda is usually used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes and in glass, soap, paper industries. The washing soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate.
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Answer: (D) Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation

Baking soda, which is commonly used in the kitchen to make crispy pakoras, is chemically sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO₃). It is not sodium carbonate.

Washing soda, which is used as a domestic cleaning agent and in the glass, soap, and paper industries, is chemically sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na₂CO₃·10H₂O). It is not sodium hydrogen carbonate.

Since both statements have interchanged the chemical names of baking soda and washing soda, both statement (a) and statement (b) are incorrect.

75Polity and Governance
The Chairman and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed on the recommendations of a committee consisting of : (a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b) Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (c) Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (d) Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha (e) Prime Minister (f) Union Home Minister Select the correct answer from the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f)

Explanation

Under Section 4(1) of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, the Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of a six-member committee. This high-level committee is headed by the Prime Minister as its Chairperson. The other five members of the committee are the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha, and the Union Minister in-charge of the Ministry of Home Affairs. This ensures representation from both Houses of Parliament as well as both the ruling government and the opposition.

76Science and Technology
Consider the following two statements : (a) Our stomach produces hydrochloric acid. It helps in digestion of food. During indigestion the stomach produces too much acid causing pain and irritation. (b) Magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia) is often used in the above condition which is an analgesic ? Which is a completely correct statement ?
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Answer: (A) Only (a)

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid is produced naturally in the human stomach to create an acidic medium necessary for the digestion of food, specifically by activating digestive enzymes like pepsin. During indigestion, hyperacidity occurs when the stomach secretes an excess of hydrochloric acid, leading to irritation and pain. Magnesium hydroxide, commonly known as milk of magnesia, is a mild base used to treat this acidity. It acts as an antacid by neutralizing the excess acid, whereas analgesics are a different class of medications used specifically to relieve pain.

77Polity and Governance
Which one of the following cases prompted the Parliament to enact 24th Constitutional Amendment Act ?
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Answer: (A) Golaknath case

Explanation

In the Golaknath case of 1967, the Supreme Court ruled that the Parliament did not have the power to amend or abridge any of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III of the Indian Constitution, declaring that these rights possessed a transcendental and immutable status. To override this landmark judgment and assert its constituent authority, the Parliament enacted the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act in 1971. This amendment modified Article 13 and Article 368, explicitly enabling the Parliament to amend any provision of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, and making it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitution Amendment Bill.

78Science and Technology
Some naturally occurring acids are given below with their sources. Indentify the incorrect pair : (a) Vinegar - Acetic acid (b) Oranges - Citric acid (c) Tamarind - Tartaric acid (d) Tomatoes - Oxalic acid (e) Sour milk (curds) - Lactic acid (f) Lemons - Citric acids (g) Ant sting - Methanoic acid (h) Nettle sting - Sulphuric acid
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Answer: (D) (h)

Explanation

Nettle leaves have stinging hair that injects methanoic acid (commonly known as formic acid) into the skin when touched, causing a painful, burning sensation. Other substances present in a nettle sting include histamine and acetylcholine. Sulphuric acid is a highly corrosive mineral acid and is not found in nettle stings. Therefore, the pair associating nettle sting with sulphuric acid is incorrect.

79Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (a) Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha shall lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha. (b) A Bill pending in Parliament shall lapse by reason of Prorogation of the houses. Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Neither (a) nor (b)

Explanation

Under Article 107 of the Constitution of India, the rules governing the lapsing of bills are clearly defined.

Article 107(4) states that a Bill pending in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) which has not been passed by the House of the People (Lok Sabha) shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the People. This ensures that legislation initiated and remaining solely in the permanent chamber is preserved.

Article 107(3) states that a Bill pending in Parliament shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. Prorogation merely terminates a session of the House, not its life, meaning all pending bills and business are carried over to the next session.

80History
Which of the following non-violent movements led by Mahatma Gandhi against the British Raj, you would rank as the most effective to mobilize the masses ?
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Answer: (C) Civil Disobedience Movement

Explanation

The Civil Disobedience Movement, initiated with the historic Dandi March in 1930, was the most effective mass mobilization movement led by Mahatma Gandhi. By choosing salt, a basic necessity consumed by every individual regardless of class, caste, or religion, Gandhi successfully bridged social divides. This movement witnessed unprecedented participation from all sections of society, particularly women, youth, merchants, and peasants, across both urban and rural India, making it a highly successful template of non-violent mass resistance against British rule.

81History
What is the correct chronological order in which the following states of the Indian Union were created or granted full statehood ? (a) Nagaland (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Haryana (d) Maharashtra Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) (b), (d), (a) and (c)

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh was the first linguistic state established in independent India on 1 October 1953, and later reorganized on 1 November 1956. Maharashtra was created on 1 May 1960 under the Bombay Reorganisation Act, which divided the bilingual Bombay State into Maharashtra and Gujarat. Nagaland was granted full statehood on 1 December 1963 as the 16th state of the Indian Union. Haryana was formed on 1 November 1966 by carving out Hindi-speaking areas from the state of Punjab under the Punjab Reorganisation Act. This establishes the chronological order of their creation as Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, Nagaland, and Haryana, represented by the sequence (b), (d), (a), and (c).

82Polity and Governance
Under the Citizenship Act 1955, by which of the following ways can a person become a citizen of India ? (a) By incorporation of territory (b) By descent (c) By birth (d) By nationalisation (e) By registration Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c) and (e)

Explanation

According to the Citizenship Act of 1955, there are five valid ways to acquire Indian citizenship: by birth, by descent, by registration, by naturalisation, and by incorporation of territory. Nationalisation, which is listed as option (d), is not a method of acquiring Indian citizenship. Therefore, the valid methods to become a citizen of India from the given list are incorporation of territory (a), descent (b), birth (c), and registration (e).

83Geography
Which state of India has negative population growth rate as per census 2011 ?
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Answer: (C) Nagaland

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland was the only state in the country to record a negative decadal population growth rate. During the decade of 2001 to 2011, the population of Nagaland declined from 1,988,602 in 2001 to 1,980,602 in 2011. This represents a negative growth rate of approximately -0.47% (with some provisional estimates stating -0.58%). This trend of negative population growth was unique to Nagaland and is primarily attributed to the systematic correction of inflated figures reported in previous censuses.

84Polity and Governance
In which year 'Bharat Ratna', the India's highest civilian award was instituted and how many persons have been honoured with this award so far ?
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Answer: (B) 1954, 41

Explanation

The Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, was instituted on 2 January 1954 by the first President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad. The award is presented in recognition of exceptional service or performance of the highest order in any field of human endeavour. Up to 2013, a total of 41 individuals had been honoured with this prestigious award, with Pandit Bhimsen Joshi being the 41st recipient in 2009.

85Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Consider the following statements about 'Jaymala Shiledar'. (a) Born in Indore and obtained Degree of 'Sangeet Alankar' with First Rank. (b) Honoured with 'Padma Bhushan' and 'Sangeet Natak Academy' award. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) (a) only

Explanation

Jaymala Shiledar was born in Indore on 21 August 1926. She obtained her Sangeet Alankar degree, securing the first rank.

She was honoured with the Padma Shri award in 2013, rather than the Padma Bhushan. She also did not receive the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award.

86Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
In the Legislative Assembly the official work is carried out in which language ?
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Answer: (D) Marathi, Hindi or English

Explanation

Rule 22 of the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Rules states that the business of the Assembly shall be transacted in Marathi, Hindi, or English. This is supported by the Maharashtra Official Languages Act, 1964, which permits the use of English and Hindi alongside Marathi for the transaction of business in the State Legislature. Additionally, the Speaker may permit any member who cannot adequately express themselves in these three languages to address the Assembly in their mother tongue.

87Science and Technology
Which drug has been banned by the Union Government on June 26, 2013 ?
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Answer: (A) Analgin

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare banned the manufacture, sale, and distribution of the painkiller Analgin, as well as all formulations containing it, in June 2013 under Section 26A of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act of 1940. The suspension was initiated due to serious patient safety concerns. Analgin is linked to agranulocytosis, a severe and potentially fatal condition characterized by a drastic reduction in white blood cell count that compromises the immune system. Due to the availability of safer alternative medicines, the government prohibited its general use, though the ban was subsequently revoked in March 2014 with strict conditions and specific therapeutic warnings.

88Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct ? (a) So as to prevent oxygenated blood from mixing with deoxygenated blood birds and mammals have four chambered hearts. (b) Amphibians and some reptiles tolerate some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood and therefore have three chambered hearts. (c) Fishes have only two chambered hearts as here blood is pumped to gills to get oxygenated which then passes to the rest of the body.
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Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c)

Explanation

Birds and mammals have a four-chambered heart consisting of two atria and two ventricles, which completely separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood. This separation is essential for these warm-blooded organisms to maintain a high and constant metabolic rate and body temperature.

Amphibians and most reptiles are cold-blooded animals that do not require constant high-energy production to maintain body temperature. They have a three-chambered heart with two atria and one ventricle, which allows for some mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood in the single ventricle.

Fishes have a two-chambered heart consisting of one atrium and one ventricle. In this single circulatory system, deoxygenated blood from the body is pumped by the heart to the gills for oxygenation. The oxygenated blood then travels directly from the gills to the rest of the body tissues without returning to the heart first.

89Science and Technology
Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched ? (a) Agni V - Intercontinental Range Missile. (b) Trishul - Supersonic Cruise Missile. (c) Shourya - Hypersonic Cruise Missile (d) Dhanush - Short Range Missile.
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Answer: (B) (b) and (c)

Explanation

Trishul is a quick-reaction short-range surface-to-air missile developed by the DRDO, designed to counter low-level sea-skimming and other aerial targets. It is not a supersonic cruise missile.

Shourya is a canister-launched, hypersonic surface-to-surface tactical ballistic missile developed as a land-based variant of the Sagarika K-15 submarine-launched ballistic missile. It is not a hypersonic cruise missile.

90Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about the Forest Research Institute (India). (a) It was founded as the 'British Imperial Forest School' in 1906. (b) It was reestablished as the Imperial Forest Research Institute in 1947. (c) It is located in Dehradun (Uttarakhand). (d) It was declared as deemed university in 1991. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (c) and (d) only

Explanation

The Forest Research Institute is located in Dehradun, Uttarakhand, and operates under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education. On the recommendations of the University Grants Commission and the Ministry of Human Resource Development, the institute was officially conferred the status of a Deemed University in December 1991, allowing it to offer postgraduate and doctoral research programs in forestry and environment-related fields.

91Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Match the list "A" with list "B" with reference to Sahitya Academy Awards : | List - A (Person) | List - B (Award year) | |---|---| | (a) Shyam Manohar | (i) 2011 | | (b) Vasant Dahake | (ii) 2009 | | (c) Ashok Kelkar | (iii) 2010 | | (d) Manik Godghate | (iv) 2008 | Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)

Explanation

Shyam Manohar matches with 2008 because he received the Sahitya Akademi Award in that year for his novel Utsukatene Mee Zopalo. Vasant Dahake matches with 2009 as he was honored for his poetry collection Chitralipi. Ashok Kelkar matches with 2010 for his scholarly linguistic and critical work Rujuvat-Asvad: Samiksha-Mimamsa. Manik Godghate, who wrote under the pen name Grace, matches with 2011 as he was awarded for his collection of essays Varyane Halte Raan.

92Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Within what period is the Government entitled to reply an unstarred question generally ?
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Answer: (D) Within three months

Explanation

Under the Maharashtra Legislative Assembly Rules and Maharashtra Legislative Council Rules, the Government is generally entitled to reply to an unstarred question within a period of three months from the date of its receipt. Unstarred questions are those for which written answers are required to be submitted by the concerned ministry or department, rather than oral answers on the floor of the House.

93Economy
Match list-I with list-II and select the correct codes given below : | List-I (Planned power projects) | List-II (Capacity in MW) | |---|---| | (a) Chutka | (i) 9564 | | (b) Jaitapur | (ii) 1400 | | (c) Mithi Virdi (Viradi) | (iii) 3300 | | (d) Kovvada | (iv) 6600 | Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

Explanation

The correct pairing of the planned nuclear power projects with their respective capacities is as follows.

Chutka is a proposed nuclear power project in Mandla district, Madhya Pradesh, planned with a total capacity of 1400 MW consisting of two 700 MW pressurized heavy-water reactor units, matching with (ii).

Jaitapur is a nuclear power project in Ratnagiri district, Maharashtra, which in its early planning phases was proposed with an initial capacity of 3300 MW consisting of two European Pressurized Reactor units of 1650 MW each, matching with (iii).

Mithi Virdi is a planned nuclear power plant in Bhavnagar district, Gujarat, envisioned with a total capacity of 6600 MW consisting of six reactor units of 1100 MW each, matching with (iv).

Kovvada is a proposed nuclear power project in Srikakulam district, Andhra Pradesh, planned with a capacity of 9564 MW consisting of six Economic Simplified Boiling Water Reactor units of 1594 MW each, matching with (i).

94Polity and Governance
Which one of the following convicted RJD (Rashatriya Janata Dal) Chief Lalu Prasad Yadav in a fodder scam ?
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Answer: (C) Special CBI Court

Explanation

The Special CBI Court in Ranchi convicted RJD Chief Lalu Prasad Yadav on September 30, 2013, in the multi-crore fodder scam case, specifically regarding the fraudulent withdrawal of ₹37.7 crore from the Chaibasa treasury. The ruling was delivered by Special CBI Judge Pravas Kumar Singh, which subsequently led to Lalu Prasad Yadav's disqualification as a Member of Parliament under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act.

95Science and Technology
Give the correct chronological sequence of the missions undertaken to Mars by the six countries or agencies given below : (a) America (b) Russia (c) China (d) Japan (e) European Space Agency (f) Bharat
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Answer: (B) Russia, America, Japan, European Space Agency, China, Bharat

Explanation

The correct chronological order of the first missions undertaken to Mars by these countries or space agencies is determined by their respective launch dates.

Russia, under the Soviet Union, initiated the earliest attempts at Martian exploration by launching the Mars 1M No.1 and No.2 flyby probes in October 1960.

America followed with the launches of Mariner 3 and Mariner 4 in November 1964, resulting in the first successful flyby of Mars.

Japan launched its first Mars probe, Nozomi, on July 3, 1998.

The European Space Agency sent its first interplanetary mission to the Red Planet, Mars Express, on June 2, 2003.

China launched its first Mars orbiter, Yinghuo-1, on November 8, 2011.

Bharat launched its maiden interplanetary endeavor, the Mars Orbiter Mission, also known as Mangalyaan, on November 5, 2013.

96Polity and Governance
Consider the following two statements about Arvind Kejriwal, the new chief Minister of Delhi and the leader of Aam Aadmi Party : (a) He is an alumni of IIT Kanpur. (b) In the recent elections held in Delhi his party won 29 of the 70 seats.
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Answer: (D) Neither (a) nor (b) is right

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect because Arvind Kejriwal is an alumnus of IIT Kharagpur, where he graduated with a degree in Mechanical Engineering in 1989.

Statement (b) is incorrect because the Aam Aadmi Party won 28 seats out of the 70 available seats in the Delhi Legislative Assembly elections held in December 2013.

97Science and Technology
Arrange in chronological order the chairmen of Atomic Energy Commission of India ? (a) Homi Bhabha (b) Raja Ramanna (c) H.N. Sethna (d) Vikram Sarabhai
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Answer: (A) (a), (d), (c), (b)

Explanation

The chronological order of the Chairmen of the Atomic Energy Commission of India, along with their respective tenures, is as follows:

Homi Bhabha: 1948–1966 Vikram Sarabhai: 1966–1971 H.N. Sethna: 1972–1983 Raja Ramanna: 1983–1987

This yields the sequence (a), (d), (c), (b).

98History
Which one of the following news agencies is the oldest in the world ?
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Answer: (B) Agence France - Presse (France) (AFP)

Explanation

Agence France-Presse (AFP) is the oldest news agency in the world. Its origins date back to 1835, when it was founded in Paris as Agence Havas by Charles-Louis Havas. He created the world's first systematic news-gathering and translation service, translating foreign newspapers for the French press. Following the liberation of Paris during World War II in 1944, a group of journalists took over the offices of Agence Havas and renamed it Agence France-Presse, continuing its legacy as the oldest operating international news agency.

99Economy
The first country to legalize production and trade of marijuana is :
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Answer: (D) Uruguay

Explanation

Uruguay became the first country in the world to fully legalize the production, sale, distribution, and recreational use of marijuana when its parliament approved the landmark legislation in December 2013. Under the leadership of President José Mujica, the government implemented this state-regulated market to curb drug-related crime and shift control of the market away from illegal drug cartels. The law allowed registered citizens to purchase cannabis through licensed pharmacies, cultivate it at home, or participate in cooperative cannabis clubs.

100Art and Culture
The versatile actor Farooq Sheikh passed away recently at the age of 65. He died of heart attack. He acted well in Shatranj Ke Khilari, Noorie, Umrao Jaan, Chasme Baddoor, Katha, Bazaar. Consider the following two statements about him. (a) In "Ji Mantriji" he performed the role of a Secretary to the Government wonderfully well. (b) He suffered the heart attack at Dubai.
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Answer: (B) Only (b) is right

Explanation

Farooq Sheikh played the lead role of Surya Prakash Singh, who was the Minister of Administrative Affairs, in the television show Ji Mantriji (the Indian adaptation of the British sitcom Yes Minister). The role of the department's secretary, Rajnath Mathur, was played by Jayant Kripalani. Thus, statement (a) is incorrect. Farooq Sheikh passed away on 27 December 2013 following a sudden cardiac arrest while on holiday with his family in Dubai, making statement (b) correct.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2D
  3. 3A
  4. 4D
  5. 5B
  6. 6C
  7. 7D
  8. 8D
  9. 9D
  10. 10A
  11. 11C
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14D
  15. 15B
  16. 16D
  17. 17D
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20A
  21. 21A
  22. 22C
  23. 23D
  24. 24C
  25. 25C
  26. 26D
  27. 27B
  28. 28C
  29. 29A
  30. 30D
  31. 31C
  32. 32B
  33. 33D
  34. 34B
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37A
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42B
  43. 43B
  44. 44B
  45. 45A
  46. 46A
  47. 47B
  48. 48D
  49. 49D
  50. 50C
  51. 51A
  52. 52C
  53. 53B
  54. 54B
  55. 55B
  56. 56A
  57. 57C
  58. 58B
  59. 59D
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62A
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65C
  66. 66A
  67. 67A
  68. 68B
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72C
  73. 73B
  74. 74D
  75. 75D
  76. 76A
  77. 77A
  78. 78D
  79. 79B
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82D
  83. 83C
  84. 84B
  85. 85A
  86. 86D
  87. 87A
  88. 88D
  89. 89B
  90. 90C
  91. 91B
  92. 92D
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96D
  97. 97A
  98. 98B
  99. 99D
  100. 100B

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