MPSC2023General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

MPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 99 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

99
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6
Subjects
13
Maharashtra-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

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  • Polity and Governance2323%
  • Science and Technology2121%
  • Economy1919%
  • Geography1818%
  • History1515%
  • Art and Culture33%
1HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Pandita Ramabai with the permission of the Ramabai Association, appointed an advisory board to advise her, who among the following was included in this advisory board ? i. Justice M. G. Ranade ii. Dr. R. G. Bhandarkar iii. Justice K. T. Telang iv. Bapu Hari Shinde
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Answer: (D) i, ii and iii only

Explanation

Pandita Ramabai founded the Sharada Sadan in Mumbai on 11 March 1889, aiming to provide education, shelter, and vocational training to young high-caste Hindu widows. To assist her in running the institution and managing local affairs in India, she obtained permission from the Boston-based Ramabai Association to constitute an local advisory board. Eminent leaders and social reformers of the Bombay Presidency, including Justice Mahadev Govind Ranade, Dr. Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar, and Justice Kashinath Trimbak Telang, agreed to serve on this advisory board to extend their support to her reformist endeavors.

2HistoryMaharashtra-specific
In 1918 A. D., who advised to the Mumbai workers to establish the organization 'People's Union' ?
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Answer: (A) Rajashee Shahu Maharaj

Explanation

On November 10, 1918, Rajarshi Shahu Maharaj presided over a mass meeting of workers in Parel, Mumbai. In his presidential address, he drew parallels with the successful trade unions of England, urging Mumbai workers to unite. Based on his advice and encouragement, social reformer S. K. Bole founded the Lok Sangh (People's Union) to champion the economic, social, and educational rights of the working class. Shahu Maharaj also provided financial assistance of ₹5,000 to support the organization.

3HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who defended Chiplunkar's attack on Mahatma Jyotirao Phule through his newspaper, considered as the beginning of non Brahmin journalism ?
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Answer: (D) Krushnaji Bhalekar

Explanation

Krushnaji Pandurang Bhalekar, a close associate of Mahatma Jyotirao Phule and a prominent leader of the Satyashodhak Samaj, founded the weekly Marathi newspaper Deenbandhu in Pune in January 1877. This publication is widely regarded as the pioneer and the beginning of non-Brahmin journalism in India.

During this period, orthodox writers, most notably Vishnushastri Chiplunkar through his periodical Nibandhamala, launched fierce intellectual attacks against Phule's social reforms, ideology, and publications. Bhalekar used the platform of Deenbandhu to systematically defend Phule and the Satyashodhak movement, successfully countering the conservative opposition while giving a powerful voice to the issues of peasants and the working-class masses.

4History
On which of the following matrimonial relationship between two Royal families, the ancient drama 'Malavikagnimitra' throws light ?
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Answer: (A) Shunga and Vidarbha (Yadnyasen) family

Explanation

The ancient Sanskrit play Malavikagnimitra, composed by the classical poet Kalidasa, narrates the love story of King Agnimitra of the Shunga dynasty and Malavika, a maiden who is later revealed to be a princess of the royal family of Vidarbha. The plot depicts the geopolitical conflict and subsequent reconciliation between the Shungas and the kingdom of Vidarbha, which was ruled by Yajnasena (Yadnyasen), culminating in a matrimonial alliance that brought peace and stability between the two royal houses.

5History
What was the medium of trade exchange during vedic period ? i. Nishka ii. Krusnal iii. Shatman iv. Gan v. Shreni
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Answer: (A) i, ii and iii

Explanation

During the Vedic period, trade and business transactions transitioned from a simple barter system to using specific metal items of standardized weights as units of value and mediums of exchange. Nishka was a gold ornament or piece of defined weight that was widely utilized for transaction purposes. Shatamana (Shatman) and Krishnala (Krusnal) emerged in the Later Vedic period as gold and silver pieces of defined weights, representing key measures of value and currency-like exchange standards in business transactions.

6HistoryMaharashtra-specific
According to Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, who of the following saint renamed himself as 'Shaha Ramjan' and got converted to Islam by a Sufi Saint Nizamuddin. It is a mystery of cultural history of Maharashtra.
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Answer: (D) Kanifnath

Explanation

According to the historian Setu Madhavrao Pagadi, Kanifnath, who is also widely revered as Kanhoba in Maharashtra, renamed himself as Shaha Ramjan after being initiated into Islam by the Sufi saint Nizamuddin. This dual identity and spiritual transition of a prominent yogi of the Nath Sampradaya represents a unique example of medieval religious syncretism and remains an intriguing mystery in the cultural and spiritual history of Maharashtra.

7History
Arrange the following events in the correct order. i. White paper ii. Poona pact iii. Nehru report iv. Dharasna Satyagraha
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Answer: (C) iii, iv, ii, i

Explanation

The correct chronological sequence of these historical events is as follows.

The Nehru Report (iii) was submitted in August 1928 by a committee chaired by Motilal Nehru to outline a constitution proposing a dominion status for India.

The Dharasna Satyagraha (iv) took place in May 1930 as a nonviolent raid on the Dharasna Salt Works in Gujarat, led by Sarojini Naidu and others as part of the Salt Satyagraha.

The Poona Pact (ii) was signed on September 24, 1932, between Mahatma Gandhi and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune to provide reservation of electoral seats for the depressed classes.

The White Paper (i) on Constitutional Reforms was published by the British government in March 1933 after the Round Table Conferences, outlining proposals that eventually became the Government of India Act 1935.

8HistoryMaharashtra-specific
The following statements are written about a. He played an important role in the field of education in Maharashtra. b. He prepared textbooks on various subjects. c. He wrote a book 'Shunyalabdhi' on Mathematics and Science in Marathi. d. Keshavrao Bhavalkar has written his biography.
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Answer: (C) Balshastri Jambhekar

Explanation

Balshastri Jambhekar is widely recognized as the pioneer of the social renaissance and modern education in Maharashtra. He was the first assistant professor of mathematics at Elphinstone College in Mumbai, where he played an instrumental role in shaping the early educational framework of the region.

To facilitate education in the local language, he pioneered the creation of school textbooks on a wide array of subjects, including history, geography, grammar, and science. His book Shunyalabdhi, written in Marathi, was a landmark publication that introduced principles of mathematics and differential calculus to vernacular readers. His notable achievements, intellectual contributions, and life as a reformer were documented in a biography written by Keshavrao Bhavalkar.

9History
Arrange the following political organizations chronologically. a. Pune Sarvajanik Sabha b. Bombay Presidency Association c. Madras Mahajan Sabha d. Indian Association
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Answer: (B) a d c b

Explanation

The correct chronological order of the establishment of these pre-Congress political organizations is:

Pune Sarvajanik Sabha was established on April 2, 1870, by Mahadev Govind Ranade, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and S. H. Chiplunkar.

Indian Association was founded on July 26, 1876, by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose in Calcutta.

Madras Mahajan Sabha was established in May 1884 by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Anandacharlu.

Bombay Presidency Association was established in January 1885 by Pherozeshah Mehta, K. T. Telang, and Badruddin Tyabji.

10History
Which of the following decision was taken by Sabarmati treaty ?
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Answer: (D) A committee of Motilal Nehru and Jayakar to determine the members of the Central Legislature.

Explanation

The Sabarmati Pact of April 1926 was a compromise agreement signed in Ahmedabad between the Swarajists led by Pandit Motilal Nehru and the Responsive Cooperationists represented by leaders like M. R. Jayakar and N. C. Kelkar. The agreement was reached to settle differences regarding the terms of office acceptance under the dyarchy system.

Under this agreement, the decision regarding whether the power, responsibility, and initiative granted by the British government to ministers in any province was sufficient would be determined initially by the Congress members of the respective Legislative Council. However, this assessment was subject to final confirmation and the resolution of any disputes by a specific committee consisting of Pandit Motilal Nehru and M. R. Jayakar.

11History
In 1934 A. D., which of the following region, witnessed the establishment of 'Karshak Sangham' as a peasant organisation ?
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

In the mid-1930s, the Malabar region of Kerala witnessed a powerful peasant movement mobilized primarily by Congress Socialist Party activists. These activists toured various villages and successfully organized the peasantry into local associations known as Karshak Sanghams. Under the leadership of prominent radical leaders, including E.M.S. Namboodiripad, the first conference of the Malabar District Karshaka Sangham was held at Pattambi in March 1934. These associations championed key agrarian demands of the peasants, such as the reduction of land revenue, the abolition of illegal feudal levies, the prevention of arbitrary eviction of tenants by landlords, and ending the practice of unfair renewal fees.

12History
Who remarked about the 'Dandi Yatra' as, Rama's Historical March to Lanka ?
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Answer: (A) Pandit Motilal Nehru and D. J. Tendulkar

Explanation

During the Salt Satyagraha in 1930, Mahatma Gandhi initiated the Dandi March to defy the British salt tax laws. Observing the monumental scale and deep symbolic significance of this journey from Sabarmati to Dandi, Pandit Motilal Nehru and the biographer D. J. Tendulkar compared Gandhi's journey to Lord Rama's legendary march to Lanka in the Ramayana.

13History
About whom the following statements are related ? i. Religion was separated from politics. ii. Adopted a policy of seclusion towards brave women who followed Sati. iii. To stop child marriage and widow marriage was encouraged. iv. Claimed that the final decision regarding the social law will be his.
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Answer: (C) Akbar

Explanation

The provided statements describe the progressive social, administrative, and religious reforms introduced by Emperor Akbar during his reign.

Akbar separated religion from politics by adopting the policy of Sulh-i-kul (universal peace) and reducing the dominance of the orthodox clergy over state administrative decisions. He took active measures to reform social customs, including discouraging forced Sati, protecting women who refused the practice, prohibiting child marriage by setting minimum age limits, and legalizing widow remarriage. Furthermore, by issuing the Mahzar Nama (Infallibility Decree) in 1579, Akbar declared himself the supreme arbiter in socio-religious disputes, asserting that the final decision regarding social and religious laws would reside with the emperor.

14HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Bhills in Khandesh protested against British rule because i. The Bhills of the Satpura division got inspiration from the event of the uprising in North India. ii. Taking advantage of the revolt of 1857 Bhagoji Naik and Kazising Naik joined the revolt. iii. Kazising and his associates burnt government treasuries and post offices.
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

During the Revolt of 1857, the Bhil tribal community in the Khandesh and Satpura region of Maharashtra launched a major uprising against British colonial rule.

The Bhils of the Satpura division were highly inspired by the news and events of the 1857 uprising in North India, which gave them the impetus to organize their own armed rebellion.

Taking advantage of the general breakdown of British authority during this period, key Bhil leaders such as Bhagoji Naik and Kazising Naik (also known as Khaja Naik) joined the revolt. Kazising, who had previously worked with the British administration as a forest guard, revolted due to grievances regarding wages and rights.

To challenge British authority, Kazising Naik and his associates targeted colonial infrastructure by plundering and burning government treasuries as well as post offices, thereby disrupting communication and financial networks.

15History
In which of the following newspapers did Annie-Besant present her thoughts about Home Rule Movement ? a. New India b. Common Weal c. Bombay Gazette d. Telegraph
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Answer: (A) a and b only

Explanation

By early 1915, Annie Besant launched a campaign to demand self-government for India on the lines of white colonies. She used her two main journals, the daily newspaper New India and the weekly journal Common Weal, to propagate her views and build support for the All India Home Rule League. These publications served as critical platforms for expressing her thoughts on self-government, criticism of the British administration, and the necessity of Home Rule, effectively becoming the backbone of her movement's communication in India.

16Geography
Observe the following statements : A. There is loss of bio-diversity due to dumping of toxic waste into soil. B. Deforestation is responsible for frequent floods in river. C. Fransisco Mendez was known as 'Amazon Gandhi' due to his work in energy field.
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Answer: (C) Only statement A and B are correct

Explanation

Dumping toxic industrial and chemical waste into the soil degrades soil health and poisons soil organisms, which directly causes a significant loss of biodiversity.

Deforestation removes the vegetative cover that naturally regulates hydrological cycles. Without tree roots to absorb rainwater and bind the soil, heavy rainfall leads to rapid surface runoff, soil erosion, and river siltation, which in turn causes frequent and severe river floods.

Francisco Mendes, popularly known as Chico Mendes, was a Brazilian rubber tapper, trade unionist, and environmental activist. He became widely known as the Amazon Gandhi because of his non-violent advocacy to preserve the Amazon rainforest and defend the rights of indigenous people and forest dwellers, rather than any work in the energy field.

17Science and Technology
Nitrogen fertilizers in soils releases ______ when broken down by bacteria.
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Answer: (B) Nitrous oxide (N₂O)

Explanation

When nitrogen-based fertilizers are applied to agricultural soils, they undergo biological transformation by soil bacteria and archaea. During the microbial processes of nitrification (the conversion of ammonium into nitrate under aerobic conditions) and denitrification (the reduction of nitrate into nitrogen gas under anaerobic conditions), nitrous oxide (N₂O) is produced and released as a gaseous byproduct. Nitrous oxide is a potent greenhouse gas and ozone-depleting substance.

18Geography
In relation to Ozone which statements are true ? A. Ozone is called protection shield of the Earth. B. In 1985 it was clear that Ozone layer has holes. C. 16th September is celebrated as World Ozone Day. D. In 1989 chemicals responsible for Ozone depletion are banned to utilize.
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Answer: (D) All the above

Explanation

Ozone in the stratosphere absorbs about 97% to 99% of the Sun's harmful high-frequency ultraviolet radiation, which can cause skin cancer and severe ecological harm. This crucial protective role makes it the protective shield of the Earth.

In May 1985, scientists Joe Farman, Brian Gardiner, and Jonathan Shanklin published their groundbreaking findings in the journal Nature, confirming the existence of a massive hole in the ozone layer over Antarctica.

To commemorate the signing of the Montreal Protocol, which occurred on September 16, 1987, the United Nations General Assembly proclaimed September 16 as World Ozone Day (International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer).

The Montreal Protocol officially entered into force on January 1, 1989, initiating the binding international framework to restrict, phase out, and eventually ban the use of ozone-depleting chemicals like chlorofluorocarbons and halons.

19Geography
Which of the following is not the type of Ecological pyramid ?
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Answer: (C) Pyramid of food web

Explanation

An ecological pyramid is a graphical representation designed to show the biomass, productivity, or bioproductivity at each trophic level in a given ecosystem. The three standard types of ecological pyramids recognized in ecology are the pyramid of numbers, the pyramid of biomass, and the pyramid of energy. There is no representation known as a pyramid of food web, as a food web depicts the complex, interlocking feeding relationships within an ecosystem rather than a hierarchical quantitative trophic structure.

20Geography
Some species if eliminated seriously affect the ecosystem. These are called
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Answer: (D) Keystone

Explanation

Keystone species play a defining and disproportionately large role in maintaining the structure, stability, and biodiversity of an ecological community relative to their abundance. The elimination of a keystone species can trigger a trophic cascade, leading to drastic changes in the ecosystem structure and potentially causing the collapse of the entire habitat.

21Geography
"Environment means the sum total of all conditions agencies and influences which affect the development, growth, life and death of an organism, species or race". Who created this definition of environment ?
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Answer: (A) Universal Encyclopedia

Explanation

According to the Universal Encyclopedia, the environment is defined as the sum total of all conditions, agencies, and influences which affect the development, growth, life, and death of an organism, species, or race. This definition emphasizes that any external force or factor, whether living or non-living, that interacts with or impacts a biological entity throughout its lifespan constitutes its environment.

22Geography
In the western part of Rajasthan minerals like limestone, gypsum and mineral salts reserves are distributed. Which of the following reasons are responsible for this occurrence ? a. Western part of Rajasthan was submerged under sea water during permocarboniferous period. b. Western part of Rajasthan receives low rainfall. c. Western part of Rajasthan has hot and dry climate. d. In the western part of Rajasthan the area under vegetation is very low.
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Answer: (A) only a is correct

Explanation

The presence of extensive reserves of limestone, gypsum, and mineral salts in the western part of Rajasthan is primarily attributed to its geological history. During the Permo-Carboniferous period, this entire region was submerged under the Tethys Sea. Over millions of years, marine transgressions and regressions resulted in the deposition of thick sedimentary layers. Limestone was formed from the accumulation of calcium carbonate from marine organisms and shell fragments, while gypsum and mineral salts were deposited as evaporites as the shallow seawater evaporated in closed basins. Therefore, the marine submergence of the region during this geological epoch is the primary reason responsible for the formation and distribution of these mineral deposits.

23Geography
Which of the following soil contain the maximum proportion of iron and bauxite minerals ?
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Answer: (C) Laterite soil

Explanation

call:google:search{queries:["Laterite soil" contains maximum iron and bauxite,"Laterite soil" "iron" "bauxite"]}

24Economy
Given below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and other labeled as Reason (R). Select correct answer from the options given below. (A) Cotton is not a weight loss ing pure raw material, besides is light in weight and durable. (R) The localization of the cotton textile is found either in cotton producing region or near market.
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Answer: (B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

Explanation

Cotton is a pure, non-weight-losing raw material. In the manufacturing process of cotton textiles, the weight of the finished product is almost equal to the weight of the raw cotton used. Because there is no weight loss during processing, and since cotton is light and durable, transport costs do not heavily penalize shipping raw cotton over finished cloth. This makes Assertion (A) correct.

Since cotton is a pure raw material, the cotton textile industry is footloose and can easily be established either close to the raw material sources or near the market centers. This makes Reason (R) correct.

However, the geographic localization patterns described in Reason (R) are actually a consequence of cotton being a pure raw material as described in Assertion (A), rather than the cause of it. Therefore, while both statements are factually true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

25GeographyMaharashtra-specific
In the physical map of India, Maharashtra plateau is shown by which of the following colours ?
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Answer: (C) Yellow

Explanation

In physical maps, a standard color-coding scheme is used to depict varying altitudes and landforms. Lower-lying areas and plains are shown in shades of green, while very high elevations such as hills and mountains are shown in brown. Moderately elevated regions, including tablelands and plateaus like the Maharashtra Plateau, are represented using yellow.

26Geography
On which of the following day does the summer solstice occurs in the southern hemisphere ?
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Answer: (D) 22 December

Explanation

During the December solstice, which typically falls on December 21 or 22, the Southern Hemisphere is tilted directly towards the Sun. At this time, the Sun reaches its highest position in the sky and shines directly over the Tropic of Capricorn at 23.5° S latitude. This orientation results in the Southern Hemisphere receiving the maximum duration and intensity of sunlight of the entire year, resulting in the longest day and the shortest night, which marks the commencement of summer as the summer solstice in this hemisphere.

27Geography
Winter rainfall received by the Mediterranean region is the result of
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Answer: (A) Shifting of pressure belts

Explanation

The Mediterranean climate has hot, dry summers and mild, wet winters, a pattern driven by the seasonal shifting of global pressure and wind belts. In summer, the subtropical high-pressure belt migrates poleward over the Mediterranean, producing dry, subsiding air. In winter, this high-pressure belt shifts equatorward, allowing the sub-polar low-pressure belt and its associated westerly winds and frontal systems to move over the region, bringing cyclonic winter rainfall. This alternating dominance of pressure systems is the fundamental cause of the region's distinctive winter rainfall pattern.

28Geography
Trenches are found mainly along the coast of the western Pacific Ocean because
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Answer: (A) The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is the sub-division zone

Explanation

Oceanic trenches are formed at convergent plate boundaries, specifically at subduction zones. In these areas, the older, denser oceanic lithosphere of one tectonic plate slides underneath another lighter plate and sinks into the mantle. The western margin of the Pacific Ocean is an extremely active subduction zone where the Pacific Plate collides with and subducts beneath several overriding plates, such as the Eurasian Plate, the Philippine Sea Plate, and the Indo-Australian Plate. This intense tectonic activity and ongoing subduction directly result in the formation of deep oceanic trenches, including the Mariana Trench, the Japan Trench, and the Philippine Trench.

29Geography
The climatic phenomena retreating monsoon is the result of which of the following atmospheric condition in India ?
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Answer: (B) The apparent movement of the Sun

Explanation

The retreating monsoon, which occurs during October and November, is primarily driven by the apparent southward movement of the Sun. As the Sun moves towards the equator and the southern hemisphere, solar radiation over the northern hemisphere decreases, causing temperatures over the Indian subcontinent to drop. This thermal transition weakens the low-pressure monsoon trough over the northern plains, which is gradually replaced by a high-pressure system. Consequently, the southwest monsoon winds lose their strength and start withdrawing from northwestern India, initiating the retreat of the monsoon.

30GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Which of the following is/are correct statements ? In Maharashtra, in order from north, the major hill ranges on the plateau and the river basins to their south are as follows : a. Tapi Purna basin to the south of the Satpura mountain range. b. Godavari river valley to the south of Satmala Ajintha hills. c. Harishchandra Balaghat hill and Bhima river basin to its south. d. Shambhu Mahadeva hills and Krishna river basin to its south.
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Answer: (B) All are correct

Explanation

The physiography of the Maharashtra plateau exhibits an alternating sequence of prominent hill ranges and river basins from north to south:

The Satpura Range forms the northern boundary, and the Tapi-Purna river basin lies directly to its south.

The Satmala-Ajanta Range runs south of the Tapi-Purna basin, and the major Godavari river valley is located to its south.

The Harishchandra-Balaghat Hills run south of the Godavari valley, acting as a water divide, with the Bhima river basin lying to their south.

The Shambhu-Mahadev Hills are located further south, dividing the Bhima and Krishna basins, with the Krishna river basin lying to their south.

Thus, all four statements accurately represent the geographical sequence of the plateau.

31GeographyMaharashtra-specific
The Sahyadri range is not straight but at many places it is curved, because
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Answer: (A) The Sahyadri range is curved at many places because of the headward erosion of the Konkan rivers originating in Sahyadri

Explanation

The Sahyadri range, which acts as the primary water divide of the region, has a steep western escarpment facing the Arabian Sea. The rivers of the Konkan region originate on these high slopes and flow westward over a short distance with very high velocity.

Because of this high velocity and heavy monsoonal precipitation, these swift-flowing streams perform intense headward erosion, cutting backward into the mountain slopes at their source. This erosional activity is highly localized and progresses at unequal rates along various geological fractures and joint planes. Over time, this uneven retreat of the western face causes the crestline of the Sahyadri to lose its straight alignment, creating the characteristic curves and deep indentations observed along the range.

32Geography
As compared to the Godavari and Krishna rivers, the course of the Kaveri river receives large volume of water during winter, because
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Answer: (C) The course of the river Kaveri receives rainfall from both south-west and north-east monsoons

Explanation

The upper catchment area of the Kaveri river basin, situated in Karnataka, receives heavy rainfall from the South-West monsoon from June to September. Its lower catchment area, located in Tamil Nadu, receives significant rainfall from the retreating North-East monsoon during the winter months of October to December. This dual rainfall pattern from both monsoon systems ensures that the Kaveri river maintains a relatively constant flow and carries a large volume of water during the winter, unlike other peninsular rivers that depend solely on the South-West monsoon.

33Economy
In his theory of industrial location Alfred Weber tried to establish the pivotal role of which of the following factors ?
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Answer: (D) Transport cost plays a pivotal role in the selection of industrial location

Explanation

In his Least Cost Theory of industrial location, Alfred Weber postulated that transportation cost is the primary and most pivotal factor in determining the location of an industry. Weber assumed that the optimum location is one where the total cost of transporting raw materials to the factory and finished products to the market is minimized. In his model, the transport cost is determined by the distance of transport and the weight of the goods to be moved, thereby serving as the fundamental framework of industrial location, with labor costs and agglomeration serving as secondary factors that could only cause deviations from this transport-optimal location.

34Geography
Consider the following statements and select the correct answer using the code given below. 1. A compact settlement is most probably surrounded by hamlets. 2. Compact settlements are not found in the Himalayan region.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Explanation

In human geography, a compact or nucleated settlement consists of a closely built-up area of dwellings where houses are constructed in tight proximity. These settlements are typically surrounded by agricultural land, farms, and pastures, rather than hamlets. Hamlets themselves are small, physically segregated units of settlement that are characteristic of fragmented or semi-clustered rural patterns, making the first statement incorrect.

Compact settlements are also found in the Himalayan region. While mountainous terrain generally favors dispersed settlements, compact settlements frequently occur in the fertile river valleys of the Himalayas, such as the Kashmir Valley and the Kullu Valley, where flat terrain, water availability, and cultivable land allow for concentrated living, making the second statement incorrect.

35Science and Technology
______ are materials whose resistivities become zero below a critical temperature.
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Answer: (C) Super conductors

Explanation

Superconductors are materials that exhibit zero electrical resistance and expel magnetic fields when cooled below a characteristic critical temperature. Below this specific temperature threshold, they transition into a state of superconductivity where direct electric current can flow indefinitely through the material without any energy loss. This phenomenon was first discovered by Heike Kamerlingh Onnes in 1911 when he observed that the electrical resistance of mercury plummeted to zero at 4.2 K.

36Science and Technology
If an object is placed symmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 36°, then how many images will be formed ?
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Answer: (B) 9

Explanation

The number of images (n) formed by two plane mirrors inclined at an angle θ is determined using the ratio m = 360/θ.

For θ = 36°: m = 360/36 = 10

Since m is an even integer, the number of images formed is given by the formula: n = m - 1

Substituting the value of m: n = 10 - 1 = 9

This formula remains valid whether the object is placed symmetrically or asymmetrically between the mirrors.

37Science and Technology
(P)/(ρ) + hg + ½ = constant is the mathematical statement of
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Answer: (B) Bernoulli's equation

Explanation

Bernoulli's equation represents the principle of conservation of energy for a flowing fluid. For a steady, incompressible, and non-viscous fluid flow, the total energy per unit mass along any streamline remains constant.

This total energy consists of pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit mass, which is mathematically expressed as:

P/ρ + v²/2 + hg = constant

Where: P is the static pressure of the fluid, ρ is the fluid density, v is the fluid flow velocity, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height or elevation of the fluid.

The expression represents Bernoulli's equation in terms of energy per unit mass.

38Science and Technology
When α-particle emits from a radioactive element then
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Answer: (A) atomic number decreases by 2 and mass number decreases by 4

Explanation

An alpha particle is a helium nucleus containing two protons and two neutrons, represented as ⁴₂He. When a radioactive parent nucleus ᴬ_Z X undergoes alpha decay, the nuclear reaction is represented as:

ᴬ_Z X → ᴬ⁻⁴_Z-2 Y + ⁴₂He

This transformation shows that the emission of an alpha particle reduces the atomic number (Z) of the parent nucleus by 2 due to the loss of two protons, and reduces the mass number (A) by 4 due to the loss of four nucleons (two protons and two neutrons).

39Science and Technology
The fever of a child is 104° F. What is this temperature in degree Celsius ?
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Answer: (D) 40° C

Explanation

The conversion of temperature from Fahrenheit (F) to Celsius (C) is given by the formula:

C = (F - 32) × 5/9

Substituting the given value of 104° F:

C = (104 - 32) × 5/9 C = 72 × 5/9 C = 8 × 5 C = 40° C

40Science and Technology
Which of the following statement is correct ?
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Answer: (A) The speed of Planet is faster when they are nearer to the sun and slower when they are farther away from the sun.

Explanation

Kepler's Second Law of Planetary Motion states that a line segment joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out equal areas during equal intervals of time. This law arises from the conservation of angular momentum, where the angular momentum L of a planet of mass m orbiting the Sun at a distance r with velocity v is given by L = mvr sin θ. Because angular momentum is conserved in a central gravitational field, the product of the orbital speed and the distance from the Sun remains constant. Thus, the orbital speed v is inversely proportional to the distance r. This means that a planet moves at its maximum speed when it is closest to the Sun at perihelion and at its minimum speed when it is farthest from the Sun at aphelion.

41Science and Technology
Match the following - Vitamins and respective deficiency diseases : | Vitamins | Deficiency disease | |---|---| | a. Vit. A | i. Rickets | | b. Vit. D | ii. Scurvy | | c. Vit. C | iii. Anaemia | | d. Vit. B12 | iv. Night blindness | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) iv i ii iii

Explanation

Vitamin A (a) deficiency causes night blindness (iv) because vitamin A is essential for the production of rhodopsin, the photopigment in the retina responsible for vision in low-light conditions.

Vitamin D (b) deficiency causes rickets (i) in children, as it is vital for the absorption of calcium and phosphorus required for proper bone mineralization and development.

Vitamin C (c) deficiency leads to scurvy (ii), which is characterized by bleeding gums, easy bruising, and joint pain due to impaired collagen synthesis.

Vitamin B12 (d) deficiency results in anaemia (iii), specifically megaloblastic or pernicious anaemia, because it is necessary for red blood cell maturation and healthy nervous system function.

42Science and Technology
Anguina tritici is the parasitic nematode found on ______ plant.
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Answer: (A) Wheat

Explanation

Anguina tritici, commonly known as the wheat seed gall nematode, is a plant-parasitic nematode that primarily infects wheat (Triticum aestivum). It causes ear-cockle disease, also known as seed gall disease, in wheat crops. Additionally, when associated with the bacterium Rathayibacter tritici, it is responsible for causing the highly destructive tundu disease, which is characterized by a yellow slime rot on the wheat spike.

43Science and Technology
Conchology is the study of what ?
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Answer: (C) Shells of Mollusca

Explanation

Conchology is the specialized branch of zoology that deals specifically with the study of mollusc shells. It focuses on the composition, structure, growth, and classification of these hard outer coverings, which are calcareous exoskeletons secreted by the mantle of shell-bearing molluscan organisms.

44Science and Technology
Phyllum Mollusca contains soft bodied animals characterized of : a. They are second largest phyllum in animal kingdom b. They are generally bilaterally symmetrical c. They are only Terrestrial animals d. They are having muscular foot Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) a, b and d

Explanation

Phylum Mollusca is the second-largest phylum of the animal kingdom, second only to Arthropoda. These organisms are triploblastic, coelomate, and generally exhibit bilateral symmetry. A defining anatomical feature of molluscs is the presence of a muscular foot, which is highly adapted for locomotion, burrowing, and clinging to surfaces.

45Economy
Which of the following major policy interventions are the part of the land reforms in India ? a. Abolition of intermediaries b. Tenancy reforms c. Fixing ceilings on land holdings d. Consolidation of land holdings
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The land reform program in India, initiated after independence, aimed to eliminate exploitative agrarian relations, achieve social justice, and increase agricultural productivity. This comprehensive program was implemented through four major policy interventions:

First, the abolition of intermediaries, such as Zamindars, Jagirdars, and Inamdars, brought millions of tenants into direct contact with the state, ending feudal exploitation.

Second, tenancy reforms were enacted to provide security of tenure to cultivators, regulate fair rents, and confer ownership rights on tenant farmers.

Third, fixing ceilings on land holdings restricted the maximum amount of agricultural land an individual or family could own, allowing the government to acquire surplus land and redistribute it to landless laborers.

Fourth, the consolidation of land holdings aimed to merge scattered and fragmented plots of land into compact blocks, which improved farming efficiency, enabled better irrigation, and reduced cultivation costs.

46Polity and Governance
Who are the beneficiaries of Annapurna Yojana ?
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Answer: (C) Senior citizens who are not under National Old Age Pension Scheme

Explanation

The Annapurna Yojana was launched on April 1, 2000, by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India, as a sub-scheme under the National Social Assistance Programme. The scheme is designed to provide food security to destitute senior citizens who are 65 years of age or older, but who are not covered under the National Old Age Pension Scheme. Under this initiative, eligible beneficiaries receive 10 kilograms of food grains per month entirely free of cost to help meet their primary nutritional requirements.

47Economy
Balanced growth rate aims at
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Answer: (B) equality between growth rate of income and growth rate of population

Explanation

According to British economist R. F. Harrod, the balanced growth rate requires the simultaneous equality between the actual growth rate of income (Gy), the warranted growth rate of output (Gw), and the natural growth rate of natural resources, which includes the labor force and technological progress (Gn). This condition is represented mathematically as:

Gy = Gw = Gn

When this condition is satisfied, the economy grows along a steady-state path where both capital and labor resources are fully employed, avoiding the dual problems of chronic inflation or secular unemployment.

48Economy
Urbanization means a. Centralization of population in the cities b. Decentralization of population in the cities c. Centralization of population in villages d. Increase in density of population
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Answer: (C) Only a and d

Explanation

Urbanization refers to the process of population shift from rural to urban areas, leading to the centralization of population in cities. As more people migrate to cities and towns in search of better economic opportunities, employment, education, and modern infrastructure, the concentration of the population within urban centers increases. This movement directly results in a significant increase in the density of population within these urban areas. Both of these phenomena—the concentration of people in cities and the subsequent rise in population density—are fundamental defining characteristics of the urbanization process.

49Economy
Which of the following statements about Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) It was launched by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

Explanation

Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) was launched on 25 June 2015 by the Ministry of Urban Development. The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs was created later, in July 2017, by merging the Ministry of Urban Development and the Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation. Thus, the mission was not launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs.

50Economy
If deprivation score of a household is ______ percent or greater, then that household is called multidimensionally poor.
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Answer: (D) 33.3

Explanation

Under both the global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) and India's National MPI, a household is identified as multidimensionally poor if its deprivation score equals or exceeds the poverty cutoff of one-third (33.3%) of the weighted indicators.

A deprivation score between 20% and 33.3% classifies a household as vulnerable to poverty, while a score of 50% or greater indicates severe multidimensional poverty.

51Economy
Since July 1991, comprehensive liberalization measures have been undertaken to improve the supply side of the economy. Among these the more important are : a. Trade and capital flows reforms b. Industrial deregulation c. Disinvestment and Public Enterprises Reforms d. Financial sector reforms
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d

Explanation

The comprehensive liberalization measures introduced under India's New Economic Policy in July 1991 aimed to remove structural bottlenecks and improve the supply side of the economy. This structural adjustment strategy comprised several key areas of reform.

Trade and capital flows reforms led to the reduction of import tariffs, abolition of quantitative import restrictions, and easing of foreign capital inflows, facilitating access to global technology and investment.

Industrial deregulation dismantled the licensing regime, significantly reduced the number of industries reserved exclusively for the public sector, and abolished restrictive provisions of the MRTP Act.

Disinvestment and public enterprise reforms enhanced efficiency by transferring government equity to private investors and granting greater administrative and financial autonomy to state-run firms.

Financial sector reforms, guided by the Narasimham Committee, deregulated interest rates, reduced reserve requirements, and modernized capital markets to optimize credit flow to productive sectors.

52Economy
The long-term objectives of economic planning, as spelt out in various plan documents have been as follows : a. Economic growth, self-reliance b. Removal of unemployment, reduction in income inequalities c. Elimination of poverty, modernization d. Inclusiveness and sustainability of growth
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d

Explanation

The core long-term objectives of economic planning in India, spanning from the First Five-Year Plan in 1951 to the Twelfth Five-Year Plan, comprehensively cover growth, equity, modernization, and self-reliance. Economic growth and self-reliance have been fundamental to raising national income, improving living standards, and reducing external dependence. Modernization was pursued to adopt advanced technology and bring structural reforms in agriculture and industry. The social justice component of planning focused on the elimination of poverty, removal of unemployment, and the reduction of income inequalities to establish an egalitarian society. Over time, these goals evolved to address contemporary challenges, culminating in the Eleventh and Twelfth Five-Year Plans explicitly prioritizing inclusive and sustainable growth to ensure development benefits all sections of society while protecting environmental resources.

53Economy
The formulation and success of a plan require the following : a. Planning Commission, Statistical data, Objectives b. Fixation of Targets and Priorities, Mobilisation of Resources c. Incorrupt and Efficient Administration, Proper Development Policy d. Economy in Administration, Education base
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d

Explanation

Economic planning requires a systematic approach spanning institutional, operational, administrative, and socio-economic prerequisites.

First, the formulation of a sound plan depends on an organized central planning authority to design policies, accurate statistical data to understand resource availability, and clearly defined developmental objectives.

Second, the operational success of the plan requires establishing realistic targets and priorities alongside effective mobilization of financial and physical resources.

Third, successful implementation cannot be achieved without an incorrupt and efficient administrative machinery to execute programs honestly, and a proper development policy to guide growth.

Finally, keeping economy in administration prevents wasteful expenditure of resources, while a strong educational base provides the necessary skilled human resources and public awareness to sustain long-term development goals.

54Economy
'A country is poor, because it is poor' this statement is of
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Answer: (B) Ragnar Nurkas

Explanation

Ragnar Nurkse coined the famous dictum "a country is poor because it is poor" in his seminal work on the problems of capital formation in under-developed countries. This statement encapsulates his theory of the "vicious circle of poverty". According to this concept, a circular constellation of forces tends to act and react upon one another in such a way as to keep a poor country in a perpetual state of poverty. For instance, low real income leads to low savings and low demand, which results in low investment, low capital accumulation, low productivity, and ultimately back to low real income. Nurkse used this thesis to highlight how the supply and demand sides of capital formation are locked in a self-reinforcing cycle that prevents economic development without deliberate external intervention or a coordinated investment program.

55Economy
Balanced growth theory requires balance between a. Consumer goods and industrial goods b. Capital goods and industrial goods c. Agricultural sector and industrial sector d. All sectors in the economy
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Answer: (C) Only d

Explanation

The balanced growth theory, pioneered by economists like Ragnar Nurkse and Paul Rosenstein-Rodan, advocates for simultaneous and coordinated investment across all sectors of the economy. Because different sectors are mutually interdependent and serve as markets for one another's products, synchronous growth across all sectors is necessary to expand the market size, generate external economies, and break the vicious cycle of poverty. Therefore, the theory requires maintaining a balance among all sectors in the economy to ensure smooth and sustained economic development.

56Economy
According to Schumpeter, a. Development is a discontinuous and spontaneous change in the stationary state. b. While growth is a gradual and steady change in the long run which, comes about by a gradual increase in the rate of savings and population. Which of the statement above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) a and b

Explanation

Joseph Schumpeter, in his seminal work on economic theory, drew a clear distinction between the concepts of economic growth and economic development. According to Schumpeter, development is a discontinuous and spontaneous change in the stationary state, which permanently alters and displaces the previously existing equilibrium. This process is driven primarily by innovations and creative destruction.

In contrast, he defined economic growth as a gradual and steady change in the long run, which comes about through gradual, quantitative increases in the rate of savings and population over time without changing the underlying structural framework of the economy. Therefore, both statements a and b are correct.

57Economy
Rangarajan Committee, 2014 defined poverty line for 2011 - 12 at Rs. ______ per capita per day consumption expenditure for urban areas and Rs. ______ per capita per day for rural areas.
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Answer: (B) Rs. 47 and Rs. 32

Explanation

The Expert Group to Review the Methodology for Measurement of Poverty, chaired by Dr. C. Rangarajan, submitted its report in 2014. The committee defined the poverty line for the year 2011-12 based on monthly per capita consumption expenditure. It set the monthly poverty line at ₹1407 for urban areas and ₹972 for rural areas. Dividing these monthly figures by 30 days yields a daily per capita consumption expenditure of approximately ₹47 for urban areas and ₹32 for rural areas.

58Economy
In 2014, the Government implemented which of the following Scheme for financial inclusion ?
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Answer: (C) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) was launched by the Government of India on 28 August 2014 as a national mission for financial inclusion. The scheme aims to ensure affordable access to financial services, including basic savings and deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension for all households in the country, particularly focusing on the unbanked population.

59Economy
What is meant by Gender Budget ?
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Answer: (D) Independent provisions for women in the general budget

Explanation

Gender budgeting is an exercise that translates gender commitments into budgetary commitments. It does not mean creating a separate budget for women. Instead, it is an analytical tool used to assess the gender-differential impact of public spending and to ensure that independent provisions, targeted allocations, and specific schemes for women's development, welfare, and empowerment are integrated directly within the general budget.

60Science and Technology
Which of the following mathematical relationships should be used to calculate the pH of a 0.10M aqueous HCl solution ?
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Answer: (C) pH = -log₁₀(1.0×10⁻¹)

Explanation

HCl is a strong monobasic acid that completely dissociates in an aqueous solution according to the equation: HCl → H⁺ + Cl⁻

Since the dissociation is complete, a 0.10 M HCl solution yields a hydrogen ion concentration [H⁺] of 0.10 M. Expressing this concentration in scientific notation gives: [H⁺] = 1.0 × 10⁻¹ M

The standard mathematical relationship used to calculate pH is: pH = -log₁₀[H⁺]

Substituting the concentration of hydrogen ions into this definition yields: pH = -log₁₀(1.0 × 10⁻¹)

61Science and Technology
How is 1.0N H₂SO₄ solution is prepared from 10 dm³ of 1.5M H₂SO₄ solution ?
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Answer: (C) By adding 20 dm³ of water to it

Explanation

The normality of a diprotic acid like H₂SO₄ is given by the relation: N = M × n-factor

Since H₂SO₄ has two replaceable hydrogen ions, its n-factor is 2. Initial normality N₁ = 1.5 M × 2 = 3.0 N Initial volume V₁ = 10 dm³

To dilute this solution to a final normality of N₂ = 1.0 N, the final volume V₂ is found using the dilution equation: N₁ × V₁ = N₂ × V₂ 3.0 N × 10 dm³ = 1.0 N × V₂ V₂ = 30 dm³

The volume of water that must be added to the initial solution is: Volume of water added = V₂ - V₁ = 30 dm³ - 10 dm³ = 20 dm³

62Science and Technology
Which of the following is correct for the shapes of NH₃ and BF₃ ?
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Answer: (D) NH₃ - Pyramidal and BF₃ - Planar

Explanation

The shape of a molecule is determined by the number of bond pairs and lone pairs around the central atom according to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) theory.

In NH₃, the central nitrogen atom has 5 valence electrons. It shares 3 electrons with three hydrogen atoms to form 3 bond pairs, leaving 1 lone pair of electrons. The steric number is 4 (3 bond pairs + 1 lone pair), which corresponds to sp³ hybridization. The arrangement of these electron pairs is tetrahedral, but the presence of the lone pair distorts the geometry, resulting in a trigonal pyramidal shape.

In BF₃, the central boron atom has 3 valence electrons, all of which are shared with three fluorine atoms to form 3 bond pairs, leaving 0 lone pairs. The steric number is 3, which corresponds to sp² hybridization. To minimize repulsion, the three bond pairs lie in a single plane at bond angles of 120°, giving the molecule a trigonal planar shape.

63Science and Technology
Which of the following hydrocarbon has 80% carbon ? (H = 1, C = 12)
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Answer: (C) Ethane

Explanation

The mass percentage of an element in a compound is calculated by dividing the total mass of that element in one mole of the compound by the molar mass of the compound, and then multiplying by 100.

For ethane (C₂H₆): Mass of carbon in one mole of ethane = 2 × 12 = 24 Mass of hydrogen in one mole of ethane = 6 × 1 = 6 Molar mass of ethane = 24 + 6 = 30

Mass percentage of carbon = (24 / 30) × 100 = 80%

64Science and Technology
180 g of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is mixed with 180 g of water (H₂O). The mole fraction of acetic acid in the resultant solution is [H = 1, C = 12, O = 16]
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Answer: (A) 0.23

Explanation

The mole fraction of a component is defined as the ratio of the number of moles of that component to the total number of moles of all components present in the solution.

First, calculate the number of moles of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) and water (H₂O) using their respective molar masses.

The molar mass of acetic acid (CH₃COOH) is: Molar mass = (12 × 2) + (1 × 4) + (16 × 2) = 60 g/mol

The number of moles of acetic acid is: Moles of acetic acid = given mass / molar mass = 180 / 60 = 3 moles

The molar mass of water (H₂O) is: Molar mass = (1 × 2) + 16 = 18 g/mol

The number of moles of water is: Moles of water = given mass / molar mass = 180 / 18 = 10 moles

The total number of moles in the solution is: Total moles = 3 + 10 = 13 moles

The mole fraction of acetic acid is: Mole fraction = moles of acetic acid / total moles = 3 / 13 ≈ 0.23

65Science and Technology
If one mole of an ideal gas occupies 22.4 Lit at Standard Temperature and Pressure, then the value of the universal gas constant R is
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Answer: (A) 0.0821 atm Lit mol⁻¹ K⁻¹

Explanation

Using the ideal gas equation: PV = nRT

Rearranging the formula to solve for the universal gas constant R: R = PV / nT

Given the standard conditions: Pressure (P) = 1 atm Volume (V) = 22.4 Lit Amount of substance (n) = 1 mol Temperature (T) = 273 K

Substituting these values: R = (1 atm × 22.4 Lit) / (1 mol × 273 K) R ≈ 0.0821 atm Lit mol⁻¹ K⁻¹

66Science and Technology
Find the wrong pair.
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Answer: (C) Compositae - Clusiaceae

Explanation

Compositae is the traditional botanical name for the Asteraceae family, which is commonly known as the sunflower, daisy, or aster family. Clusiaceae is the alternative name for the Guttiferae family, which represents the mangosteen or Saint John's wort family. Because these are two completely distinct botanical families, they do not form a valid nomenclatural pair.

67Science and Technology
What is the principal function of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis ?
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Answer: (C) To generate the NADPH and ATP

Explanation

During the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis, which take place in the thylakoid membranes of chloroplasts, chlorophyll and other pigment molecules absorb solar energy. This light energy excites electrons, driving them through an electron transport chain. The flow of electrons leads to the photolysis of water molecules, releasing oxygen as a byproduct, and establishes a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane. This gradient drives the synthesis of adenosine triphosphate (ATP) via ATP synthase. Concurrently, the electrons are transferred to NADP⁺ along with protons to form NADPH. Thus, the principal function of the light-dependent reactions is to generate ATP and NADPH, which provide the chemical energy and reducing power required for the subsequent light-independent reactions (Calvin cycle) to synthesize carbohydrates from carbon dioxide.

68Science and Technology
________ are precursors of enzymes. a. Zymogens b. Ribosomes c. RNA d. Protein Which of the option given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) only a

Explanation

Zymogens, also known as proenzymes, are inactive proteins that serve as precursors to active enzymes. They undergo biochemical modifications, such as proteolytic cleavage, which alters their molecular structure to expose the active catalytic site and transform them into functional enzymes. This protective mechanism ensures that enzymes, particularly digestive or proteolytic enzymes like pepsinogen (the precursor of pepsin) and trypsinogen (the precursor of trypsin), do not degrade the tissues in which they are synthesized before reaching their targeted site of action.

69Science and Technology
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct ? a. Enzymes are organic catalyst that accelerate biochemical reaction. b. Enzymes are made up from proteins. c. Enzyme activity is not depends upon temperature. d. Amylase is an enzyme that act on starch.
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Answer: (C) a, b and d

Explanation

Enzymes are organic catalysts that accelerate the rate of biochemical reactions by lowering the activation energy. They are primarily made up of proteins, which consist of amino acids folded into specific three-dimensional conformations. Amylase is a specialized enzyme that acts directly on starch, catalyzing its hydrolysis into simpler sugars like maltose. Additionally, enzyme activity is highly dependent on temperature, as every enzyme operates within an optimal temperature range, and excessive heat denatures the protein structure, rendering the enzyme inactive. Therefore, statements a, b, and d are correct.

70Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is not included in Article 164 ?
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Answer: (B) The Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible to the State Legislature

Explanation

Article 164(2) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. Therefore, the statement declaring that the Council of Ministers shall not be collectively responsible is incorrect and is not included in Article 164.

71Polity and Governance
Indian citizenship of a person can be terminated if A. A person voluntary acquire the citizenship of some other country. B. A person who has become a citizen through registration is sentenced to imprisonment for 18 months within five years of his registration. C. The government of India is satisfied that citizenship was obtained by fraud. D. A person has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India.
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Answer: (B) A, C and D

Explanation

Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship can be terminated or deprived under the following valid statutory grounds:

Section 9 of the Act provides that if a citizen of India voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country, their Indian citizenship is automatically terminated.

Section 10 of the Act empowers the Central Government to deprive a person of Indian citizenship if it is satisfied that the citizenship was obtained by means of fraud, false representation, or the concealment of any material fact.

Section 10 also provides for deprivation of citizenship if a citizen has shown by act or speech to be disloyal or disaffected towards the Constitution of India.

72Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are correct pair/s with regard to acceptance in the Indian Constitution ? A. America - Post of Vice President B. Canada - The concept of 'Union' for the Central Government C. South Africa - Election method of Rajya Sabha D. Ireland - Nomination method of the members of the Rajya Sabha by the President who have done special work in specific area
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Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

Explanation

All four pairs representing the borrowed features of the Indian Constitution are correctly matched.

The office of the Vice President in India is modeled on the American Vice President, who acts as the presiding officer of the upper house of the legislature.

The concept of a federal system with a strong central government and the usage of the term Union of States is borrowed from the Canadian constitution.

The procedure for the election of the members of the Rajya Sabha by the representatives of state legislative assemblies is adopted from the Constitution of South Africa.

The provision allowing the President of India to nominate twelve members to the Rajya Sabha from the fields of literature, science, art, and social service is inspired by the Irish Constitution.

73Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are the main objective/s of Committee of Parliament on Official language ? A. To review the progress made in the use of Hindi for official purposes of the Union and to make recommendations to increase the use of Hindi. B. Looking into the linguistic demands for new States and make suggestions in that regard. C. Identify the endangered language and make recommendations to protect and preserve them. D. Examine the vernacular education and make recommendations for effective implementation of the three languages formula.
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Answer: (A) A only

Explanation

The Committee of Parliament on Official Language was constituted in 1976 under Section 4 of the Official Languages Act, 1963. Its sole mandate is to review the progress made in the use of Hindi for the official purposes of the Union and to submit a report to the President of India making recommendations to promote and increase its usage in official communication. The committee is chaired by the Union Home Minister and comprises thirty members of Parliament, with twenty elected from the Lok Sabha and ten from the Rajya Sabha.

74Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Consider the following statement/s with reference to the President of Zilla Parishad. A. If 1/5th of the total number of members of the Zilla Parishad moves a motion of no confidence and passes it, the President has to resign from office. B. Sudhakarrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. C. Vasantrao Naik's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. D. Vasantdada Patil's cabinet took the decision to give ministerial status to the President of Zilla Parishad. Select the incorrect statements from the above.
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Answer: (D) C and D

Explanation

The decision to grant the status of Minister of State (State Minister) to the President of a Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra was taken by the cabinet of Chief Minister Sudhakarrao Naik during his tenure from 1991 to 1993. Therefore, Statement B is correct, which makes Statement C (attributing the decision to Vasantrao Naik) and Statement D (attributing the decision to Vasantdada Patil) incorrect.

75Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are non-constitutional body/bodies ? I. NITI Aayog II. State Finance Commission III. National Commission for Backward Classes IV. Central Information Commission
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Answer: (D) Only I and IV are correct

Explanation

NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional, non-statutory body that was established on January 1, 2015, by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet to replace the Planning Commission.

The Central Information Commission is a statutory body, which falls under the category of non-constitutional bodies. It was established in 2005 under the provisions of the Right to Information Act, 2005, passed by the Parliament.

76Polity and Governance
Key Provisions of Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2016 : A. It amended the Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013 (which came into force on 16 January 2014). B. It also amended Section 44 of the 2013 Act that deals with the Provision of furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. C. Made it compulsory that all States should set up the office of the Lokayukta within one year. D. The Amendment has removed the period of 30 days for furnishing details of assets and liabilities of Public Servants. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (B) A, B and D

Explanation

The Lokpal and Lokayukta (Amendment) Act, 2016, amended the parent Lokpal and Lokayukta Act, 2013, which had officially come into force on 16 January 2014.

It amended Section 44 of the 2013 Act, which originally dealt with the mandatory requirement for public servants to submit details of their assets and liabilities within 30 days of joining service.

The amendment removed this strict 30-day timeline. Under the amended provisions, public servants are required to declare their assets and liabilities in the form and manner prescribed by the government, leaving the specific timelines and rules to be defined by subsequent government notifications.

The requirement for states to establish the office of Lokayukta within one year was already part of Section 63 of the original 2013 Act and was not a new provision introduced by the 2016 amendment.

77Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are a duties of National Commission for Backward Classes ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Under Article 338B of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2018, the National Commission for Backward Classes is entrusted with comprehensive duties to safeguard the interests of socially and educationally backward classes. The Commission is constitutionally mandated to inquire into specific complaints concerning the deprivation of rights and safeguards of these classes. It is also required to participate and advise on the planning process of their socio-economic development, while evaluating their developmental progress under the Union and any State. Additionally, the Commission is empowered to discharge other functions relating to the protection, welfare, development, and advancement of socially and educationally backward classes as specified by the President, subject to any law made by Parliament.

78Polity and Governance
Which of the following pair is incorrect ? National Party of India - Year of establishment
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Answer: (B) Communist Party of India (CPI) - 1926

Explanation

The Communist Party of India (CPI) was officially founded on 26 December 1925 at its first party conference held in Kanpur, then known as Cawnpore, where S.V. Ghate was elected as the first General Secretary of the party.

79Polity and Governance
Match the pairs correctly. | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | A. Part - I | i. Fundamental Rights | | B. Part - III | ii. Panchayat Raj | | C. Part - IX | iii. Citizenship | | D. Part - II | iv. The Union and its territory | Code: A B C D
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Answer: (D) iv i ii iii

Explanation

Part I of the Constitution of India, spanning Articles 1 to 4, details the Union and its territory. Part III of the Constitution, comprising Articles 12 to 35, contains the provisions for Fundamental Rights. Part IX of the Constitution, consisting of Articles 243 to 243O, establishes the framework for the Panchayati Raj. Part II of the Constitution, covering Articles 5 to 11, outlines the provisions regarding Citizenship.

80Polity and Governance
Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in Schedule - V
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Answer: (D) may be altered by the Parliament by ordinary legislation

Explanation

Paragraph 7 of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with the amendment of the schedule. It states that Parliament may, from time to time, by law amend by way of addition, variation, or repeal any of the provisions of this Schedule. Paragraph 7(2) explicitly declares that no such law shall be deemed to be an amendment of the Constitution for the purposes of Article 368. Therefore, the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes under the Fifth Schedule can be altered by the Parliament through ordinary legislation.

81Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the objectives of the 'SVAMITVA' Scheme ? A. Ensure financial stability to villagers by letting them use their property to take loans. B. Create precise land records for urban planning and implementation. C. Lessen property related disputes. D. Determine property tax.
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Answer: (C) A, C and D

Explanation

The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages Abadi and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme is a central sector scheme of the Ministry of Panchayati Raj aimed at rural areas. Its primary objectives include enabling rural household owners to use their property as financial assets for securing bank loans to ensure financial stability (A). It also aims to reduce property-related disputes and legal conflicts through clear digital mapping of boundaries (C), and to facilitate the determination of property tax to strengthen Gram Panchayat revenue (D). The mapping and land record creation under this scheme are designed specifically for rural planning and development, rather than urban planning (B).

82Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding 'Zero Hour' of Lok Sabha : A. The time immediately following the question hour and laying of papers and before any listed business is taken up in the house has come to be known as the zero hour. B. For raising matters during the zero hour members has to give notice between 8.00 a.m. to 9.30 a.m. everyday to the Speaker. C. At present, thirty matters per day as per their priority are allowed to be raised during zero hour. D. There is no maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day as there is no provision in rules about Zero Hour. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (D) A and D

Explanation

Statement A is correct because the time immediately following the Question Hour and laying of papers, and before any listed business is taken up in the House, is popularly known as the Zero Hour. It typically begins at 12:00 noon, which gives it its name.

Statement D is correct because Zero Hour is an informal procedural innovation of the Indian Parliament that has been in practice since 1962. It is not formally recognized or mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the Lok Sabha, meaning there is no constitutional or formal procedural provision that sets a maximum limit on the number of matters that can be raised on any given day.

Meanwhile, notices for raising matters during the Zero Hour in the Lok Sabha must be submitted between 8:30 a.m. and 9:00 a.m. on the day of the sitting, and the current practice permits 20 matters per day to be raised according to their priority in the ballot. Hence, statements B and C are incorrect.

83Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the legal relationship between the Central and State Government in India ? A. The subject of transfer of property other than agricultural land is included in the Concurrent List. B. The subject of wealth tax on property other than agricultural land is included in the Union List. C. The subject of entertainment tax is included in the Concurrent List. D. The subject of 'Antiquities Museum' is included in the State List.
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Answer: (C) A, B and D

Explanation

Statement A is correct because the transfer of property other than agricultural land, along with the registration of deeds and documents, is placed under Entry 6 of List III (Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

Statement B is correct as wealth tax, which is a tax levied on the capital value of assets (excluding agricultural land), is covered under Entry 86 of List I (Union List). This entry empowers Parliament to levy taxes on the capital value of the assets, exclusive of agricultural land, of individuals and companies.

Statement D is correct because Entry 12 of List II (State List) includes libraries, museums, and other similar institutions controlled or financed by the State, which encompasses antiquities museums under state control.

On the other hand, the subject of entertainment tax is included in List II (State List) under Entry 62, rather than the Concurrent List. Therefore, only statements A, B, and D are correct.

84Polity and Governance
After the extensive discussion in the Constituent Assembly, the following provisions was/were included. Which Article does not include ? I. Fundamental duties under Art. 51A II. Constitutional Amendment under Art. 368 III. National emergency under Art. 352 IV. Ordinance under Art. 123
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Answer: (A) Only I correct

Explanation

The original Constitution of India, as adopted by the Constituent Assembly in 1949, did not contain any provisions for Fundamental Duties. Article 51A, which details the Fundamental Duties of citizens, was inserted into Part IVA of the Constitution later by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee.

85Geography
In which State was the 10th International Tourism Mart organized in November 2022 ?
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Answer: (C) Mizoram

Explanation

The Ministry of Tourism, Government of India, in association with the Department of Tourism, Government of Mizoram, organized the 10th International Tourism Mart (ITM) for the Northeast Region in Aizawl, Mizoram. Held from November 17 to 19, 2022, the event aimed to showcase the tourism potential of the eight northeastern states to both domestic and international markets. It marked the first time that Mizoram hosted this annual rotational event.

86Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Choose the correct option considering the following statements. a. Ramesh Bais is appointed as the Governor of Maharashtra. b. Earlier he was the Governor of Tripura State. c. He belongs to Chhattisgarh State.
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Answer: (D) a, b and c are correct

Explanation

Ramesh Bais was appointed as the 23rd Governor of Maharashtra in February 2023, succeeding Bhagat Singh Koshyari. Prior to this, he served as the 18th Governor of Tripura from July 2019 to July 2021, and later as the Governor of Jharkhand. He was born in Raipur, which is located in present-day Chhattisgarh, and was a seven-term Member of Parliament representing the Raipur Lok Sabha constituency.

87Polity and Governance
Examine the following statements regarding the 'Nutrition Promotion Campaign' of the United Nations. A. Afshan Khan was nominated as the co-ordinator of this Campaign. B. Antony Blinken was nominated as the co-ordinator of this Campaign. C. To eradicate malnutrition by 2030 is the objective of this Campaign. D. This campaign is implemented in countries suffering with malnutrition in the world. Identify the correct statements from the above.
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Answer: (C) A, C and D are correct

Explanation

In February 2023, United Nations Secretary-General António Guterres appointed Afshan Khan of Canada as the Coordinator of the Scaling Up Nutrition (SUN) Movement, which serves as the UN-led global nutrition promotion campaign.

Antony Blinken is the Secretary of State of the United States and has no association with the coordinator role of this UN campaign.

The primary goal of the SUN Movement is to eradicate all forms of malnutrition by 2030, aligning with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 2 (Zero Hunger).

The campaign works globally and is implemented in countries with high burdens of malnutrition, bringing together governments, civil society, donors, businesses, and researchers to improve nutrition outcomes.

88EconomyMaharashtra-specific
In the Budget 2023 of Maharashtra State, which Corporations was announced to be established ? A. Raje Umaji Naik Economic Development Corporation. B. Marathwada Milk Development Corporation. C. Jagadjyoti Mahatma Basaveshwar Economic Development Corporation. D. Saint Kashiba Gurav Youth Economic Development Corporation.
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Answer: (B) Only A, C and D

Explanation

In the Maharashtra State Budget for 2023–24, the government announced the establishment of several welfare-oriented development corporations under the Maharashtra State Other Backward Classes Finance and Development Corporation.

These include the Raje Umaji Naik Economic Development Corporation for the Ramoshi community, the Jagadjyoti Mahatma Basaveshwar Economic Development Corporation for the Lingayat community, and the Saint Kashiba Gurav Youth Economic Development Corporation for the Gurav community. Each of these corporations was allocated an authorized share capital of ₹50 crores to support youth, educated unemployed individuals, and budding entrepreneurs with financial assistance for self-employment.

89Economy
Which of the following city was the host of '5th ASEAN-India Business Summit' in 2023 ?
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Answer: (C) Kuala Lumpur

Explanation

The 5th ASEAN-India Business Summit was held on March 6, 2023, in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. The summit took place as part of the ASEAN-India Year of Friendship to commemorate over three decades of engagement between India and the 10-member ASEAN bloc. Under the theme "Strengthening and Moving Forward ASEAN-India Economic Relations for a Strategic Business Partnership," discussions at the event focused on enhancing business linkages, connectivity, and supply chain resilience between the regions.

90Art and Culture
The Shrine of Sammed Shikharji has been in news for the past few days. Identify the correct statements about this pilgrimage site. A. It is the pilgrimage site of Jain community. B. This pilgrimage site is at Girdhi in the Jharkhand State. C. This pilgrimage site is at Aravali Mountain in Rajasthan. D. It is the pilgrimage site of Hindu community.
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Answer: (B) Only A and B are correct

Explanation

Sammed Shikharji is the most sacred pilgrimage site for the Jain community, located on Parasnath Hill in the Giridih district of Jharkhand. It holds immense spiritual significance because twenty of the twenty-four Jain Tirthankaras, along with many other monks, attained salvation or moksha at this site. In late 2022 and early 2023, Sammed Shikharji was at the center of widespread protests by the Jain community after the Jharkhand state government declared the Parasnath Hills as an eco-tourism hub, raising concerns about the potential desecration of the sacred site by commercialization and tourism activities.

91Polity and Governance
Which Mission did India conduct to aid earthquake affected in 'Turkey' ?
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Answer: (C) Operation Dost

Explanation

Operation Dost was launched by the Government of India in February 2023 to provide humanitarian assistance, search and rescue operations, and medical aid to Turkey and Syria after they were devastated by a massive earthquake. Under this operation, India dispatched multiple Indian Air Force C-17 Globemaster III transport aircraft carrying National Disaster Response Force personnel, search and rescue dog squads, medical equipment, essential medicines, and established a fully functional 30-bed field hospital in Hatay province, Turkey, to treat injured survivors.

92Geography
Identify the correct statement/s from the following in relation to the 'UN COP 15' A. The Global Biodiversity Agreement was approved by this Council. B. The Global Biodiversity Agreement was done under the Presidency of America. C. China presided 'UN COP 15'. D. There is a need to make efforts to reduce the consequences of climate change and the conservation of threatened species in the agreement.
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Answer: (D) A, C and D are correct

Explanation

The UN Biodiversity Conference (COP 15) was held under the presidency of China. During this conference, the participating parties approved and adopted the landmark Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework, a comprehensive global agreement to safeguard biodiversity. This agreement lays out 4 long-term goals and 23 targets for 2030, which include specific mandates to halt the extinction of known threatened species and recover their populations, as well as to minimize the impacts of climate change on biodiversity and build ecological resilience.

93Polity and Governance
Who among the following inaugurated IBA Women's World Boxing Championship, 2023 in New Delhi ?
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Answer: (A) Shri Anurag Singh Thakur

Explanation

The Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, Shri Anurag Singh Thakur, officially inaugurated the 13th edition of the IBA Women's World Boxing Championship on March 15, 2023, at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall in New Delhi. This prestigious tournament was hosted by the Boxing Federation of India in association with the International Boxing Association (IBA).

94Art and Culture
Match the following. | Winner of Arjun Award 2022 | Sports | |---|---| | a. Bhakti Kulkarni | i. Badminton | | b. Sakshi Kumari | ii. Kabaddi | | c. Lakshya Sen | iii. Chess | Code: a b c
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Answer: (C) iii ii i

Explanation

The matching of Arjuna Award 2022 winners with their respective sports is as follows:

Bhakti Kulkarni is a chess player who achieved the International Master and Woman Grandmaster titles. She was awarded the Arjuna Award for Chess.

Sakshi Kumari is a professional kabaddi player who represented the Indian national team, winning a silver medal at the 2018 Asian Games and a gold medal at the 2019 South Asian Games. She was awarded the Arjuna Award for Kabaddi.

Lakshya Sen is a prominent badminton player who won a gold medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games and a bronze medal at the 2021 World Championships. He was awarded the Arjuna Award for Badminton.

The correct code alignment is a-iii, b-ii, c-i.

95Polity and Governance
Who has been appointed as the Chairman of Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) by Government in March 2023 ?
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Answer: (B) Deepak Mohanty

Explanation

Deepak Mohanty, a prominent economist and former Executive Director of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), was appointed as the Chairperson of the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA) by the Government of India in March 2023. Prior to taking over this apex regulatory role, he had served as a whole-time member of the PFRDA starting in August 2020. During his extensive career at the RBI, he headed crucial departments including monetary policy, financial stability, and economic research. His appointment came following the completion of the tenure of the previous chairperson.

96Polity and Governance
Where was the 25th National E-Governance Conference, 2022 held ?
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Answer: (D) Katra - Jammu Kashmir

Explanation

The 25th National Conference on e-Governance (NCeG) was held on November 26 and 27, 2022, in Katra, Jammu and Kashmir. The conference was jointly organized by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY), in collaboration with the Government of Jammu and Kashmir. The theme of this silver jubilee edition of the conference was "Bringing Citizens, Industry, and Government closer". It served as a platform to recognize excellence in digital governance through the presentation of the National Awards for e-Governance and to deliberate on technologies for enhancing public service delivery.

97Polity and Governance
UNESCO has dedicated International Education Day of 2023 to which country's girls and women ?
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Answer: (B) Afghanistan

Explanation

UNESCO dedicated the fifth International Day of Education, celebrated on January 24, 2023, to the girls and women of Afghanistan. This dedication was made to highlight the severe restrictions that have deprived millions of Afghan girls and women of their fundamental right to access secondary and higher education. Under the theme "To invest in people, prioritize education," UNESCO called for the immediate and unconditional restoration of their rights to learn, study, and teach.

98Economy
Which country has removed the mention of the British Monarchy from its currency notes in 2023 ?
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Answer: (A) Australia

Explanation

In February 2023, the Reserve Bank of Australia announced that it would remove the portrait of Queen Elizabeth II from its 5 dollar banknote. Rather than replacing her image with King Charles III, the central bank decided to feature a new design honoring the culture and history of the First Australians. This move means that the British monarchy will no longer be depicted on any of Australia's paper or polymer currency notes, though the monarch is still expected to appear on coins.

99Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Match the pairs about 'Padma Shri' Award, 2023. | Person | Field | |---|---| | a. Ramesh Patange | i. Science and Engineering | | b. Dr. Mahendra Pal | ii. Literature and Education | | c. Uma Shankar Pande | iii. Art | | d. Parshuram Khune | iv. Social Work | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (D) ii i iv iii

Explanation

Ramesh Patange is a prominent writer, social activist, and editor from Maharashtra who was conferred the Padma Shri in 2023 for his distinguished work in the field of Literature and Education.

Dr. Mahendra Pal is a renowned veterinary scientist and academician recognized as the pioneer of Veterinary Mycology in India. He was honored with the Padma Shri in 2023 for his outstanding contributions to Science and Engineering.

Uma Shankar Pandey is a dedicated water conservationist from Uttar Pradesh who popularized the participatory water conservation model known as the Jakhni model. He was awarded the Padma Shri in 2023 in the field of Social Work.

Parshuram Komaji Khune is a veteran Zadipatti theatre artist from Gadchiroli, Maharashtra, who has performed over 800 different roles across thousands of stage shows and used folk theatre to promote social reforms. He received the Padma Shri in 2023 in the field of Art.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2A
  3. 3D
  4. 4A
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9B
  10. 10D
  11. 11C
  12. 12A
  13. 13C
  14. 14D
  15. 15A
  16. 16C
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19C
  20. 20D
  21. 21A
  22. 22A
  23. 23C
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30B
  31. 31A
  32. 32C
  33. 33D
  34. 34D
  35. 35C
  36. 36B
  37. 37B
  38. 38A
  39. 39D
  40. 40A
  41. 41B
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45D
  46. 46C
  47. 47B
  48. 48C
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51D
  52. 52D
  53. 53D
  54. 54B
  55. 55C
  56. 56C
  57. 57B
  58. 58C
  59. 59D
  60. 60C
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63C
  64. 64A
  65. 65A
  66. 66C
  67. 67C
  68. 68A
  69. 69C
  70. 70B
  71. 71B
  72. 72D
  73. 73A
  74. 74D
  75. 75D
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78B
  79. 79D
  80. 80D
  81. 81C
  82. 82D
  83. 83C
  84. 84A
  85. 85C
  86. 86D
  87. 87C
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90B
  91. 91C
  92. 92D
  93. 93A
  94. 94C
  95. 95B
  96. 96D
  97. 97B
  98. 98A
  99. 99D

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