Observe the following statements :
(a) Sagar cyclonic storm originated in May 2019 in Arabian Sea.
(b) Sagar cyclonic storm disrupted properties on South Konkan coast.
Answer options :
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Answer: (D) Statements (a) and (b) are incorrect
Explanation
Statement (a) is incorrect because Cyclonic Storm Sagar originated in May 2018, not May 2019. It formed as a low-pressure area on May 16, 2018, and intensified into a cyclonic storm in the Gulf of Aden.
Statement (b) is incorrect because Cyclone Sagar did not make landfall or cause damage along the Indian coastline. Instead, the system traveled west-southwest across the Gulf of Aden and made landfall in Somaliland, heavily impacting parts of Somalia, Djibouti, Yemen, and Ethiopia. It had no disruptive impact on the South Konkan coast of Maharashtra.
2HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Research was done at ________ with reference to the Middle Age and Copper Age in terms of human settlement in Maharashtra.
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Patne in Jalgaon is a crucial site representing continuous human habitation from the Upper Palaeolithic into the Mesolithic period, revealing microliths and early human cultural development. Hatkhamba in Ratnagiri represents a major Mesolithic site in the coastal Konkan region of Maharashtra, providing evidence of early hunter-gatherer adaptation and stone tool technology. Inamgaon in Pune is one of India's most extensively excavated Chalcolithic sites belonging to the Jorwe culture, offering deep insights into early farming communities, settlement patterns, and burial practices.
3Geography
Match the following :
| Country/Area | Shifting Agriculture |
|---|---|
| (a) India | (i) Ladang |
| (b) Central America | (ii) Roca |
| (c) Brazil | (iii) Milpa |
| (d) Indonesia | (iv) Jhum |
Answer options :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
India is paired with Jhum because Jhum or Jhumming is the widely used term for shifting cultivation in the northeastern states of India.
Central America is paired with Milpa because Milpa is the traditional slash-and-burn agricultural practice in Mexico and Central America.
Brazil is paired with Roca because Roca is the local term used for shifting agriculture in Brazil.
Indonesia is paired with Ladang because Ladang is the traditional form of shifting cultivation practiced in Indonesia and Malaysia.
4Science and Technology
Match the following :
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Cepheid Theory | (i) Laplace |
| (b) Electromagnetic Theory | (ii) Dr. Banerji |
| (c) Nebular Theory | (iii) Alfven |
| (d) Binary Theory | (iv) Lyttleton |
Answer options :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Explanation
Cepheid Theory was proposed by Dr. A. C. Banerji in 1942, who suggested that the solar system originated from the tidal pulsations of a Cepheid variable star caused by a passing star.
Electromagnetic Theory was formulated by Hannes Alfvén in 1942, emphasizing the crucial role of electromagnetic and magneto-hydrodynamic forces in the formation of the solar system.
Nebular Theory was propounded by Pierre-Simon Laplace in 1796, explaining that the solar system formed from a cooling, rotating nebula of gas and dust.
Binary Theory was proposed by R. A. Lyttleton in 1938, which modified the binary star hypothesis by suggesting that the planets formed from a companion star of the Sun.
5Geography
The father of Human Geography is ______ .
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Answer: (C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
Explanation
Paul Vidal de la Blache is widely regarded as the father of modern human geography. As a pioneering French geographer, he established the school of possibilism, which countered the prevailing theories of environmental determinism. He argued that while the physical environment presents a range of constraints and possibilities, human culture, choice, and agency ultimately determine how those opportunities are utilized to shape the geographic landscape. His concepts, including genre de vie (way of life), and his seminal, posthumously published work, Principes de Géographie Humaine (Principles of Human Geography), laid the methodological and philosophical foundations for the discipline.
6Geography
Match the following :
| Types of Stream | Explanation |
|---|---|
| (a) Consequent | (i) Stream develops valley across outcrop |
| (b) Obsequent | (ii) Flow controlled by original slope |
| (c) Subsequent | (iii) Flowing opposite to the dip of rock |
| (d) Braided | (iv) Maze of interconnected channels |
Answer Options :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Explanation
Consequent streams are defined as those whose course is directly determined by the original slope of the land surface.
Obsequent streams flow in a direction opposite to both the original consequent stream and the dip of the underlying rock strata.
Subsequent streams develop valleys along softer or weaker strata, establishing their course across the geological outcrop.
Braided streams are characterized by a network of multiple, interconnected channels that divide and reunite around alluvial bars.
7Geography
Observe the following statements :
(a) Jhelum is a tributary of River Indus and flows through Lake Wular.
(b) Sutlej is a southern tributary of River Indus.
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Answer: (C) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation
The Jhelum River rises from Verinag Spring in the Kashmir Valley, flows through Srinagar, and enters the Wular Lake, a large freshwater lake, before continuing its course into Pakistan where it eventually joins the Chenab River. Since it is part of the Indus river basin, it is categorized as a tributary of the Indus River.
The Sutlej River originates near Lake Rakshasthal in Tibet, enters India through the Shipki La pass, and is the easternmost and southernmost of the five major tributaries of the Indus River. Geographically, it flows south of the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, and Beas, making it a southern tributary of the Indus river system. Both statements are therefore accurate.
8GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Observe the following statements :
(a) Mountain located between Pravara and Kukadi river is Harishchandra mountain.
(b) River Manjira flows on Balaghat Plateau.
(c) Satmala and Ajantha mountain ranges are between Tapi and Godavari river valleys.
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Answer: (D) All the above statements are correct
Explanation
Harishchandra mountain range lies between the Pravara river basin to its north and the Kukadi river basin to its south, acting as a water divide between them.
The Manjira river, an important tributary of the Godavari river, originates in the Balaghat hills near Patoda in Beed district and flows across the Balaghat plateau.
Satmala and Ajantha hills form a major hill range in Maharashtra that serves as the geographical divide between the Tapi river valley in the north and the Godavari river valley in the south.
Since all three statements accurately describe the physical geography and river systems of Maharashtra, all the statements are correct.
9Geography
Match the following for types of folds :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| (a) Monoclinal fold | (i) Both limbs parallel but inclined to one side |
| (b) Isoclinal fold | (ii) One limb turned over the other limb |
| (c) Recumbent fold | (iii) One limb inclined and the other perpendicular |
| (d) Overturned fold | (iv) Both limbs parallel to each other and the ground |
Answer Options :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation
Monoclinal fold matches (iii) because it represents a step-like bend in rock layers where one limb is inclined and the other remains relatively flat or perpendicular.
Isoclinal fold matches (i) because intense pressure forces both limbs of the fold to become parallel to each other while being inclined to one side.
Recumbent fold matches (iv) because it is an extreme case where the axial plane becomes horizontal, meaning both limbs are parallel to each other and parallel to the ground.
Overturned fold matches (ii) because the fold is pushed so far that the axial plane is highly inclined, causing one limb to be turned over and inverted on top of the other limb.
10Geography
Which of the following statements are correct about Bhabhar Plains ?
(a) The porosity is very high and hence small rivers disappear.
(b) The Bhabhar tract is suitable for crops.
(c) The inhabitants of the Bhabhar Plains are cattle-keeping Gujjars.
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Answer: (C) Statements (a) and (c)
Explanation
The Bhabhar belt is a narrow tract ranging from 8 to 16 km wide running parallel to the Shiwalik foothills. It is made up of coarse sediments, pebbles, and gravels deposited by rivers descending from the Himalayas. This coarse and gravel-dominated alluvial apron gives the tract extremely high porosity, causing the water of smaller streams and rivers to sink underground and disappear from the surface.
Because of this dry, stony, and highly porous soil structure, the Bhabhar tract is unsuitable for agriculture and crop cultivation. Only deep-rooted forest trees can survive in this region, while the agricultural activity is concentrated in the marshy Tarai belt situated to its south.
The sub-Himalayan Bhabhar and Tarai forests are inhabited by the nomadic Van Gujjars, who are a traditional pastoralist community primarily engaged in cattle keeping, dairying, and seasonal migration.
11GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Observe the statements regarding agriculture in Maharashtra :
(a) Soil erosion is not a serious problem of agriculture.
(b) Soil erosion takes place due to flooding in rivers, forest cutting and uncontrolled grazing.
(c) Soils are saline due to over-irrigation.
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Answer: (A) Statements (b) and (c) are correct
Explanation
Soil erosion is a critical agricultural and environmental challenge in Maharashtra, particularly across the undulating topography of the Deccan Plateau and the high-rainfall Western Ghats. The primary drivers of this land degradation are recurrent river flooding, extensive deforestation, and uncontrolled livestock grazing, which strip away the protective vegetative cover and expose the fertile topsoil to water and wind action.
Furthermore, the over-irrigation associated with extensive canal networks, especially for water-intensive cash crops like sugarcane in Western Maharashtra, has led to severe waterlogging. This continuous excessive watering causes dissolved salts from the lower soil profiles to rise to the surface via capillary action, resulting in widespread soil salinization and rendering vast tracts of agricultural land saline and unproductive.
12Geography
Biosphere reserves are demarcated into ________.
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Answer: (A) Core zone, buffer zone and transition zone
Explanation
Under the UNESCO Man and the Biosphere programme, biosphere reserves are organized into three interrelated zones to achieve the goals of conservation, sustainable development, and logistics support.
The core zone is a securely protected site for conserving biological diversity, monitoring minimally disturbed ecosystems, and undertaking non-destructive research and other low-impact uses.
The buffer zone surrounds or adjoins the core areas and is used for cooperative activities compatible with sound ecological practices, including environmental education, recreation, ecotourism, and applied and basic research.
The transition zone, or area of cooperation, is the outermost part of the reserve where the greatest activity is allowed, fostering economic and human development that is socio-culturally and ecologically sustainable.
13Geography
Find the correct pair :
Dams/Projects
(a) Tehri Dam
(b) Dulhasti Project
(c) Shivasamudra Dam
(d) Rana Pratap Sagar Project
Rivers
Kaveri
Bhagirathi
Chambal
Chenab
States
Jammu | Kashmir
Rajasthan
Uttarakhand
Karnataka
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Answer: (A) (c) (i) (IV)
Explanation
The Shivasamudra hydroelectric project is located on the Kaveri River in the state of Karnataka. Established in 1902, it is one of the oldest run-of-the-river hydroelectric power stations in Asia.
14Geography
Match the following :
| Column I | Column II |
|---|---|
| (a) Dome-shaped Plateau | (i) Deccan Plateau |
| (b) Volcanic Plateau | (ii) Vindhya Plateau |
| (c) Step-like Plateau | (iii) Chota Nagpur Plateau |
| (d) Piedmont Plateau | (iv) Shillong Plateau |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
Explanation
Dome-shaped Plateau matches with Chota Nagpur Plateau, which is composed of ancient crystalline rocks and characterized by dome-shaped hills and batholithic structures.
Volcanic Plateau matches with Deccan Plateau, which is formed by the accumulation of basaltic lava through massive fissure-type volcanic eruptions.
Step-like Plateau matches with Vindhya Plateau, which has a distinct terraced or step-like topography.
Piedmont Plateau matches with Shillong Plateau, which lies at the foot of mountain ranges.
15Geography
Examine the following statements and select the proper options :
Statement (A) : Every longitude has a different local time due to the rotation of the Earth.
Statement (B) : Standard time system is utilized to remove the difference in the local time.
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Answer: (A) Statements (A) and (B) both are correct
Explanation
The Earth rotates 360° on its axis in 24 hours, which means it covers 15° of longitude per hour, or 1° every 4 minutes. As a result of this rotation, different meridians of longitude receive sunlight at different times, giving every longitude a unique local solar time. To prevent the confusion and administrative difficulties that would arise if every town used its own local time, the standard time system is adopted. This system synchronizes clocks across an entire region or country to the local time of a single central meridian, successfully resolving the practical challenges of varying local times.
16Geography
In India, which of the following has become a hot-spot with reference to threats to biodiversity ?
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Answer: (C) Northeastern India
Explanation
Northeastern India is part of two globally recognized biodiversity hotspots: the Himalayas and the Indo-Burma region. It is characterized by exceptionally high species richness, high levels of endemism, and a dense concentration of unique flora and fauna. However, this rich biodiversity is under severe threat due to intensive human activities, habitat fragmentation, shifting cultivation (jhum), deforestation, and infrastructure development, designating it as a critical hotspot with high threat levels.
17Geography
Which of the following are characteristics of Coral Reefs ?
(a) These are the oldest living communities on Earth.
(b) It is a high biomass producer.
(c) It is a rich floral and fauna diversity.
(d) These are shallow water tropical ecosystems.
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Coral reefs are ancient marine structures with an evolutionary history dating back hundreds of millions of years, making them some of the oldest living ecological communities on Earth. Despite occupying less than 0.1% of the ocean floor, they are extremely high biomass producers, operating as highly productive oases in otherwise nutrient-poor tropical waters. This high productivity supports an extraordinarily rich diversity of marine flora and fauna, earning them the nickname of rainforests of the sea by harboring approximately one-quarter of all marine species. Geographically, these reef-building corals are shallow-water tropical ecosystems, restricted to warm, sunlit, and clear waters generally within 30 degrees of the equator, where their symbiotic algae can easily photosynthesize.
18Geography
What is Alpha, Beta and Gamma Diversity ?
(a) Richness of species
(b) Simpson's Diversity Index
(c) For measuring biodiversity over geographical scale
(d) Whittaker (1972) suggested these terms
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Answer: (D) Only (c) and (d)
Explanation
The concepts of alpha, beta, and gamma diversity are used to measure biodiversity at different geographical and spatial scales. Alpha diversity measures the species diversity within a specific, localized area or ecosystem. Beta diversity describes the variation or turnover in species composition between different ecosystems or across environmental gradients. Gamma diversity measures the overall regional biodiversity across a broad landscape containing multiple ecosystems.
These ecological scale metrics were suggested and defined by the prominent ecologist Robert H. Whittaker. While he introduced these divisions earlier, he formally refined and synthesized these concepts in his landmark 1972 publication titled Evolution and Measurement of Species Diversity, establishing them as standard frameworks for studying biodiversity over geographical scales.
19Geography
Which of the following factors are included in chemical environment ?
(a) Temperature and soil
(b) Water and soil
(c) Vegetation and water
(d) Human functions and Biological components
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
Environmental factors are typically classified into physical, chemical, and biological/social components. Physical environment includes temperature, sunlight, and climatic elements; chemical environment relates to the chemical composition and properties of natural media such as water and soil (nutrients, minerals, pH, salinity); biological environment covers vegetation, fauna, and human activity. Under this classification, water and soil qualify as chemical environment factors, while temperature is physical and vegetation/human functions are biological.
20Economy
Given the importance of supply side factors in determination of inflation in India, following long-term policies are likely to help.
(a) Changing production patterns
(b) Calibrated import policy
(c) Focus on transportation
(d) Storage infrastructure for perishable commodities
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Supply-side inflation in India is driven by structural bottlenecks, logistical inefficiencies, and seasonal mismatches in food supply. Addressing these issues requires comprehensive, long-term policy interventions across the entire supply chain.
Changing production patterns, such as diversifying agriculture towards high-demand, high-deficit crops like pulses and oilseeds, directly addresses persistent domestic supply shortfalls.
A calibrated import policy enables the government to dynamically manage import duties and facilitate timely procurement of essential commodities from international markets, acting as a buffer against domestic crop failures.
Focusing on transportation infrastructure reduces transit times, lowers logistics costs, and minimizes physical damage to goods during distribution, which directly translates to lower retail prices.
Establishing adequate storage infrastructure, particularly cold chain facilities for perishable commodities like vegetables and dairy, prevents post-harvest wastage and ensures a steady market supply throughout the year, effectively smoothing out seasonal price spikes.
21Economy
Which factor is not considered while calculating Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) ?
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Answer: (B) Per capita income
Explanation
Per capita income is a monetary measure of economic output that is excluded from the Physical Quality of Life Index. The index was specifically designed to evaluate the physical well-being and social development of a population through non-income parameters. Because it focuses strictly on health and education outcomes, purely financial metrics such as per capita income are not factored into its calculation.
22Economy
Which of the following statements are correct about the Total Poverty Gap (TPG) ?
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Answer: (A) TPG measures the total amount of income necessary to raise everyone below poverty line up to that line.
Explanation
The Total Poverty Gap (TPG) is a standard measure used in development economics to determine the depth of poverty in a society. It represents the sum of the differences between the poverty line and the actual income levels of all individuals or households living below that line.
Mathematically, it is expressed as:
TPG = ∑ (Yₚ - Yᵢ)
where Yₚ is the absolute poverty line, Yᵢ is the income of the i-th poor individual, and the summation is carried out over all individuals whose income falls below the poverty line. This sum calculates the precise total amount of financial resources or income transfers required to lift every poor person up to the poverty line, effectively eliminating absolute poverty in the population.
23Polity and Governance
Which of the following programmes have been supported by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) along with Government of India for poverty reduction and livelihoods promotion ?
(a) Affordable Rural Housing for All
(b) Improving Efficiency of Health Care System in Multiple States (2013 – 2017)
(c) Governance and Accelerated Livelihoods Support (GOALS) (2013 – 2017)
(d) Strengthening National Capacities in Tribal Areas (2013 – 2017)
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Answer: (C) (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Under the Country Programme Action Plan (CPAP) for 2013–2017, the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in partnership with the Government of India supported multiple programs designed to achieve inclusive growth, reduce poverty, and promote sustainable livelihoods.
The initiative Affordable Rural Housing for All was aimed at upscaling sustainable, cost-effective, and disaster-resilient housing designs for rural families in India.
The program Improving Efficiency of Health Care System in Multiple States (2013–2017) focused on improving health systems and vaccine supply chains to reduce out-of-pocket expenditure, which is a major driver of poverty among vulnerable groups.
The Governance and Accelerated Livelihoods Support (GOALS) (2013–2017) project was implemented in collaboration with the Ministry of Rural Development to enhance livelihood opportunities and governance, particularly in districts affected by left-wing extremism.
The project Strengthening National Capacities in Tribal Areas (2013–2017) was carried out in partnership with the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to empower forest-dwelling communities, support the implementation of the Forest Rights Act, and establish sustainable livelihood practices.
24EconomyMaharashtra-specific
Government of Maharashtra has adopted gender budgeting from the year ________.
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Answer: (C) 2013
Explanation
The Government of Maharashtra adopted gender budgeting in January 2013. Gender budgeting is a financial planning and policy tool used to assess and analyze the differential impact of government expenditures and revenues on women compared to men. It aims to integrate a gender perspective into the formulation, allocation, and tracking of public funds, thereby promoting gender equality, addressing systemic disparities, and ensuring targeted development and welfare for women and girls across the state.
25Geography
Which of the following States had the lowest child sex ratio in 2011 ?
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Answer: (B) Maharashtra
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census of India, the child sex ratio in the age group of 0 to 6 years for Maharashtra was 894 females per 1000 males. In comparison, Madhya Pradesh recorded a child sex ratio of 918, Karnataka recorded 948, and Kerala recorded 964.
26Economy
Which of the following, according to the World Bank, are critical issues to be addressed in India's urbanisation ?
(a) Poor local governance
(b) Weak finances
(c) Inappropriate planning leading to high costs
(d) Rapidly deteriorating environment
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Answer: (C) All of the above
Explanation
According to the World Bank's analysis of India's urban challenges, urbanization is a vital driver of economic growth, but its potential is constrained by several structural bottlenecks. The critical issues identified that need urgent attention include poor local governance, where local bodies lack the modern planning frameworks, trained human resources, and autonomy required to manage growing cities. Weak finances also severely limit the ability of local governments to build and maintain basic infrastructure. Furthermore, inappropriate planning, marked by rigid master plans and restrictive zoning laws, constricts land availability, leading to high costs of housing and commercial space. Lastly, a rapidly deteriorating environment due to pollution, lack of green spaces, and poor waste management threatens the sustainability and livability of Indian cities.
27Economy
Which of the following is/are applicable to Gender Inequality Index (GII) ?
(a) It provides insights into gender disparities in health, empowerment and the labour market.
(b) Higher values in the GII indicate worse achievements.
(c) The empowerment dimension is partly measured by the share of parliamentary seats held by each gender.
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Gender Inequality Index (GII), introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), measures gender-based disadvantages in three key dimensions: reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation.
The index values range from 0 to 1, where 0 indicates that women and men fare equally (complete equality), and 1 indicates that one gender fares as poorly as possible in all measured dimensions (complete inequality). Therefore, higher values in the GII signify greater gender disparity and worse achievements.
The empowerment dimension is assessed through two indicators: the share of parliamentary seats held by each gender, and the attainment of at least some secondary education by women and men aged 25 and older.
28Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement/s is/are applicable to the web based utility — BhoomiRashi ?
(a) It was launched on 1st April, 2018.
(b) It has been launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
(c) It has been introduced to fully digitize and automate the entire process of land acquisition.
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Answer: (B) Only (b) and (c)
Explanation
The BhoomiRashi portal is a major e-Governance initiative designed and launched by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways to fully digitize, streamline, and automate the land acquisition process for National Highway projects. It was made operational and mandatory for all Project Implementing Agencies with effect from 1st April 2018. The platform provides a single-point online utility that links state revenue authorities, the ministry, and other executing agencies, eliminating physical documentation, minimizing clerical errors, and significantly accelerating the processing of land acquisition notifications. Furthermore, its integration with the Public Financial Management System ensures transparent, real-time, and direct e-transfer of compensation to the beneficiaries bank accounts.
29Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct about UN Conference on Sustainable Development Rio+20 ?
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Answer: (C) The conference adopted guidelines on green economy policies.
Explanation
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, also known as Rio+20, was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012. One of the main themes of the conference was the green economy in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication. In the final outcome document, titled The Future We Want, member nations adopted specific guidelines and principles to frame green economy policies. These guidelines emphasize that green economy policies should serve as a tool for achieving sustainable development, respect national sovereignty, promote inclusive economic growth, and assist in poverty eradication while maintaining ecological balance.
30Economy
Goal-wise performance of India by NITI Aayog SDG India Index Report (2020 - 21) reveals that __________.
(a) India's overall score improved to 66 in 2020 - 21 from 60 in 2019 - 20 and 57 in 2018 - 19.
(b) Despite 2020 - 21 being a pandemic year, India performed well on eight of the 15 SDGs.
Which of the above options is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
Both statement (a) and statement (b) are correct.
According to the NITI Aayog SDG India Index Report (2020-21), India's overall composite score improved to 66 in 2020-21, rising from 60 in 2019-20 and 57 in 2018-19.
Even with the challenges of the pandemic in 2020-21, India achieved significant progress and performed well on eight of the fifteen SDGs measured. These areas of strong performance include Goal 3 (Good Health and Well-being), Goal 6 (Clean Water and Sanitation), Goal 7 (Affordable and Clean Energy), Goal 10 (Reduced Inequalities), Goal 11 (Sustainable Cities and Communities), Goal 12 (Responsible Consumption and Production), Goal 15 (Life on Land), and Goal 16 (Peace, Justice, and Strong Institutions).
31Economy
Which of the following statements is/are true about Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) achievements in India ?
(a) India has achieved the poverty reduction in an even manner.
(b) India was on-track to achieve the hunger target after the 2015 deadline.
(c) Empowering women remains a major development challenge.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) Only (b) and (c)
Explanation
India achieved substantial progress in reducing extreme poverty, but this reduction was highly uneven across different states, regions, and socio-economic groups. While several states made rapid progress, others lagged behind significantly.
Regarding the hunger target, accelerated economic progress and increased social sector spending on interventions such as the National Rural Health Mission and the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act placed India on track to halve the proportion of people suffering from hunger shortly after the 2015 deadline.
At the same time, empowering women remains a major developmental challenge. Despite achieving gender parity in primary and secondary education enrolment, women in India continue to face significant barriers, including low and declining female labor force participation, low representation in legislative bodies, and deep-seated social discrimination.
32Polity and Governance
Name the online platform launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development to support women entrepreneurs.
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Answer: (C) Mahila E-Haat
Explanation
Mahila E-Haat is a bilingual online marketing portal launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development in March 2016. The platform is designed specifically to support and promote women entrepreneurs, self-help groups, and non-governmental organizations. It enables them to showcase and sell their products and services directly to buyers, facilitating direct marketing with zero commission or transaction fees. This digital initiative aims to foster financial inclusion, economic empowerment, and self-reliance among women across India.
33Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Commission for Scheduled Tribes [NCST] ?
(a) It is a constitutional body which came into existence in 2004.
(b) Its function is to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of Scheduled Tribes.
(c) It works to improve literacy rate of Tribal community.
(d) Its function is to facilitate women empowerment of Tribal women.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (B) Only (a) and (b)
Explanation
The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body established under Article 338A of the Constitution of India, which officially came into existence on 19 February 2004 following the Constitution 89th Amendment Act, 2003. According to Article 338A(5)(b) of the Constitution, a core duty of the commission is to inquire into specific complaints with respect to the deprivation of rights and safeguards of the Scheduled Tribes.
34Polity and Governance
National Policy on Voluntary Sector (2007) covers which of the following voluntary organizations ?
(a) Formal and Informal Groups
(b) Community-based organizations
(c) Charitable organizations
(d) Support organizations
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The National Policy on Voluntary Sector (2007) defines voluntary organizations broadly to include various entities engaged in public service based on ethical, cultural, social, economic, political, religious, spiritual, philanthropic, or scientific and technological considerations.
The policy encompasses both formal and informal groups, specifically mentioning community-based organizations, non-governmental development organizations, charitable organizations, support organizations, networks or federations of such organizations, and professional membership associations. Thus, all the specified groups are covered under the scope of this policy.
35Science and Technology
Which of the following methods is used for measurement of distance between Earth and planets ?
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Answer: (A) Parallax method
Explanation
The parallax method is an indirect method used to measure very large astronomical distances, such as the distance of a planet or a star from the Earth. When an object is observed from two different positions, its apparent position shifts relative to a distant background. This apparent displacement is called parallax, and the distance between the two observational points is called the basis. By measuring the parallax angle θ subtended by the basis at the planet, and knowing the length of the basis b, the distance D of the planet from Earth can be calculated using the direct relation D = b/θ, where the angle θ is in radians.
36Science and Technology
When a potential difference of 33 V is applied to a device whose resistance is 110 Ω, some current flows through it. If the same current is to be passed through a device whose resistance is 500 Ω, then how much potential difference is to be applied ?
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Answer: (D) 150 V
Explanation
According to Ohm's law, the current I flowing through a conductor is directly proportional to the potential difference V across its ends, represented by the formula:
I = V / R
where R is the resistance of the device.
In the first case, the applied potential difference V₁ is 33 V and the resistance R₁ is 110 Ω. The current I flowing through the device is:
I = 33 / 110 = 0.3 A
In the second case, the same current of 0.3 A is to be passed through a device with resistance R₂ of 500 Ω. The required potential difference V₂ is calculated as:
V₂ = I × R₂
V₂ = 0.3 × 500 = 150 V
37Science and Technology
Which one of the following is a natural magnet ?
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Answer: (D) Lodestone (Fe₃O₄)
Explanation
Lodestone is a naturally magnetized piece of the mineral magnetite, which has the chemical formula Fe₃O₄. It is a natural magnet because it possesses magnetic properties in its natural state without any artificial magnetization. Ancient civilizations first discovered magnetism through lodestones, which were later used to make the earliest magnetic compasses for navigation.
38Science and Technology
SONAR (Sound Navigational Ranging) technique is used for ________ .
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Answer: (D) measuring motion and position of the submerged objects like submarines
Explanation
SONAR is a technology that uses ultrasonic sound waves to detect, measure, and track submerged objects such as submarines, icebergs, and shipwrecks. The transmitter in a SONAR system produces and transmits high-frequency ultrasonic waves. These waves travel through water, strike the underwater target, and get reflected back to a receiver. By measuring the time delay between the transmission and reception of the echo, and knowing the speed of sound in water, the distance of the submerged object is calculated using the relation 2d = v × t, where d is the distance, v is the speed of sound, and t is the time elapsed. This echo-ranging method allows for precise tracking of both the position and the motion of underwater objects.
39Science and Technology
Calculate the distance travelled by a sound wave having frequency 1000 Hz and wavelength 0·25 m, if it travels for 5 seconds in a certain medium.
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Answer: (B) 1250 m
Explanation
The speed of a wave is given by the formula v = f × λ, where v is the speed of the wave, f is the frequency, and λ is the wavelength. Substituting the given values, the speed is v = 1000 Hz × 0.25 m = 250 m/s. The distance travelled by the wave in a given time is calculated using the formula d = v × t, where d is the distance and t is the time. Substituting the calculated speed and the given time, the distance is d = 250 m/s × 5 s = 1250 m.
40Science and Technology
A cat is sitting in between two plane mirrors. If the angle between two plane mirrors is 30 degrees, how many images of the cat will appear ?
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Answer: (C) 11
Explanation
The number of images formed by two inclined plane mirrors is determined by the formula n = 360/θ, where θ is the angle between the mirrors.
Substituting θ = 30° into the formula:
n = 360/30 = 12
When n is an even integer, the total number of images formed (N) is always given by:
N = n - 1
Since 12 is an even integer, the number of images is:
N = 12 - 1 = 11
41Science and Technology
Which of the following plant hormone is responsible for senescence ?
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Answer: (D) Abscisic Acid
Explanation
Abscisic Acid (ABA) is a key plant hormone that acts as a growth inhibitor and plays a major role in promoting senescence (the biological aging process) and abscission of leaves, flowers, and fruits. It accelerates senescence by promoting the degradation of chlorophyll, proteins, and nucleic acids, leading to leaf yellowing and eventual shedding, particularly under environmental stress conditions such as drought.
42Science and Technology
What will be the eye colour of all female individuals in F1 generation when a white eyed female Drosophila is crossed with a red eyed male Drosophila ?
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Answer: (B) Red
Explanation
In Drosophila melanogaster, eye colour is a sex-linked trait located on the X chromosome. The allele for red eye colour (Xᵂ) is dominant, while the allele for white eye colour (Xʷ) is recessive.
When a homozygous white-eyed female (XʷXʷ) is crossed with a red-eyed male (XᵂY), the female offspring in the F1 generation receive one X chromosome from each parent. Specifically, they inherit the recessive white-eye allele (Xʷ) from the mother and the dominant red-eye allele (Xᵂ) from the father. This results in a heterozygous genotype of XᵂXʷ for all F1 females. Because the red-eye allele is completely dominant over the white-eye allele, all female individuals in the F1 generation exhibit red eyes.
43Science and Technology
Viroids are identified on the basis of which of the following three characteristic features ?
(a) Much smaller in size than viruses
(b) Consist of circular RNA molecule
(c) RNA molecule covered by protein coat
(d) Infect the plant cells
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (d)
Explanation
Viroids are infectious agents that are much smaller in size than viruses. They consist of a low molecular weight, circular, single-stranded RNA molecule that is completely naked, meaning it lacks any protective protein coat. Viroids are obligate intracellular parasites that replicate within and infect plant cells, causing several significant agricultural diseases such as potato spindle tuber disease and coconut cadang-cadang.
44Geography
Which of the following substances are components of soil ?
(a) Stones and sand
(b) Fine soil and decomposed matter
(c) Chemical substances
(d) Colour substances (Dyes)
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Answer: (C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Soil is a complex mixture containing both biotic and abiotic components:
Stones and sand represent the larger mineral fractions formed through the physical and chemical weathering of bedrock.
Fine soil and decomposed matter comprise the fine-textured mineral particles, such as silt and clay, along with organic humus formed by the microbial decomposition of dead plant and animal remains.
Chemical substances consist of soil water, dissolved salts, gases, and essential mineral nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, and magnesium that are critical for plant growth.
Colour substances include natural pigments and organic compounds, such as iron oxides and humic substances, which act as coloring agents and determine the characteristic red, yellow, black, or brown color of the soil.
45Science and Technology
Which steps of taxons are followed for classification of animals ?
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Answer: (D) Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species
Explanation
The taxonomic hierarchy is the process of arranging various organisms into successive levels of the biological classification system, either in an increasing or decreasing order. For the classification of animals, the standard hierarchical sequence from the highest and most inclusive category to the lowest and most specific category is Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order → Family → Genus → Species. In this descending sequence, the number of shared common characteristics increases as we move from Kingdom to Species, with Species representing the basic unit of classification.
46Geography
Ecosystem is a self-regulatory and self-sustained structural and functional unit of nature where biotic and abiotic components are linked together with the following processes :
(a) Productivity
(b) Decomposition
(c) Nutrient cycling
(d) Energy flow
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
An ecosystem is a self-sustaining functional unit of nature where biotic communities interact with their physical environment through several fundamental processes. The structural and functional aspects of an ecosystem are governed by four essential processes: productivity, decomposition, nutrient cycling, and energy flow.
Productivity represents the rate of synthesis of organic matter by producers, which forms the energy base for all other trophic levels. Decomposition is the breakdown of dead organic matter by decomposers into simpler inorganic nutrients, which prevents the accumulation of organic waste and allows nutrient recycling. Nutrient cycling, or biogeochemical cycling, ensures the continuous movement and exchange of essential elements between the living organisms and their abiotic environment. Energy flow is the unidirectional transfer of energy from the sun to producers and then through various consumers, driving all biological activities. Together, these four processes seamlessly link the biotic and abiotic components, maintaining the self-regulatory nature of the ecosystem.
47Science and Technology
Pituitary gland is endocrine gland connected to hypothalamus at the base of the brain. It secretes many hormones.
(a) It is called as master endocrine gland.
(b) Its anterior part is neurohypophysis and posterior is adenohypophysis.
(c) Oxytocin and Vasopressin are secreted by posterior pituitary.
(d) STH, TSH, ACTH are secreted by adenohypophysis.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (A) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
The pituitary gland is called the master endocrine gland because it secretes several trophic hormones that direct and regulate the activity of various other endocrine glands throughout the body, including the thyroid gland, adrenal cortex, and gonads.
Oxytocin and vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, are synthesized by neurosecretory cells in the hypothalamus and transported down axons to the posterior pituitary, from where they are secreted directly into the bloodstream.
The adenohypophysis, which is the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, synthesizes and secretes several major hormones, including somatotropic hormone (STH, or growth hormone), thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), and adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). This confirms that statements (a), (c), and (d) are correct.
48Science and Technology
During Krebs cycle in respiration, fumaric acid gets converted into malic acid by ________.
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Answer: (D) hydration
Explanation
During the Krebs cycle, fumaric acid is converted into malic acid by a hydration reaction. This step is catalyzed by the enzyme fumarase (also known as fumarate hydratase), which adds a molecule of H₂O across the carbon-carbon double bond of fumarate to produce L-malate.
49Science and Technology
In a diamond, each carbon atom is ________ surrounded by other carbon atoms.
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Answer: (B) tetrahedrally
Explanation
In a diamond, each carbon atom undergoes sp³ hybridization and forms strong covalent bonds with four neighboring carbon atoms. These four atoms are positioned at the corners of a regular tetrahedron, with the central carbon atom at the center. This repeating tetrahedral arrangement extends in three dimensions to create a rigid, giant covalent network.
50Science and Technology
An atomic number of Tritium is ________.
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Answer: (D) 01
Explanation
Tritium is a rare and radioactive isotope of hydrogen, often represented by the chemical symbol T or ³H. Because it is an isotope of hydrogen, it contains exactly one proton in its atomic nucleus, which defines its atomic number as 1. Along with this single proton, a tritium nucleus contains two neutrons, giving it a mass number of 3.
51Geography
The __________ part of the Earth's atmosphere contains about 70% of the total air in the atmosphere.
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Answer: (D) Troposphere
Explanation
The troposphere is the lowest and densest layer of Earth's atmosphere, extending from the surface up to an average height of about 13 km. Due to gravity pulling the atmospheric gases toward the surface, approximately 75% to 80% of the total mass of the atmosphere is concentrated within this layer. It also contains nearly all the water vapor and atmospheric aerosols, making it the region where almost all weather phenomena occur.
52Science and Technology
The electrostatic repulsion between electron pairs such as lone pair – lone pair (l.p. – l.p.), bond pair – bond pair (b.p. – b.p.) and lone pair – bond pair (l.p. – b.p.) in a given valence shell decreases in the order of __________.
According to the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion theory, lone pairs of electrons are localized on the central atom and are attracted by only one nucleus, which allows them to occupy more space around the central atom compared to bond pairs. In contrast, bond pairs are shared between two atoms and are attracted by two nuclei, restricting them to a smaller region of space. Consequently, lone pairs exert a greater repulsive force on adjacent electron pairs than bond pairs do. This results in the electrostatic repulsion decreasing in the order of lone pair – lone pair (l.p. – l.p.) > lone pair – bond pair (l.p. – b.p.) > bond pair – bond pair (b.p. – b.p.).
53Science and Technology
The maximum number of molecules are present in __________.
[H = 1, C = 12, O = 16, I = 127]
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Answer: (D) 10 g of hydrogen gas
Explanation
The number of molecules in a given mass of a substance is calculated using the formula:
Number of molecules = (Given mass / Molar mass) × Avogadro's number
For hydrogen gas (H₂), the molar mass is 2 g/mol. Substituting the given values:
Number of moles = 10 g / 2 g/mol = 5 moles
Number of molecules = 5 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 3.011 × 10²⁴ molecules
Because hydrogen has an extremely low molar mass of 2 g/mol, a 10 g sample translates to 5 moles of molecules. This represents the highest number of moles among the choices, directly resulting in the maximum number of molecules.
54Science and Technology
The oxidation state of V in V₂O₇⁻⁴ is __________.
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Answer: (A) + 5
Explanation
Let x be the oxidation state of vanadium in the divanadate ion V₂O₇⁴⁻. Oxygen exhibits an oxidation state of -2. The sum of the oxidation states of all atoms in a polyatomic ion is equal to the net charge of the ion.
Applying this relation:
2(x) + 7(-2) = -4
2x - 14 = -4
2x = 10
x = +5
55Polity and Governance
"Directive Principles is a novel feature in a constitution framed for parliamentary democracy. They have no binding force. But whoever captures power will not be free to do what he likes with it. He will have to respect the Directive Principles. He cannot ignore them. He may not have to answer for their breach in a court of law, but he will certainly have to answer for them before the electorate at election time." Who said this ?
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Answer: (C) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
Explanation
During the Constituent Assembly debates on November 4, 1948, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar defended the inclusion of the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV of the Indian Constitution. In response to critics who dismissed them as mere pious declarations due to their non-justiciable nature, he emphasized that they are fundamental in the governance of the country. He highlighted that while a government cannot be legally sued in a court of law for failing to implement these principles, it remains politically accountable to the sovereign electorate. Any ruling party that ignores these directives will ultimately have to face the consequences and answer to the voters during elections.
56Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the Comptroller and Auditor General of India :
(a) He holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(b) He draws the same salary as a Supreme Court Judge.
(c) Before entering upon his office, he swears an oath or affirmation before the Chief Justice of India.
(d) He may be removed by the President only after an enquiry by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
Under the provisions of the Second Schedule of the Constitution of India and the Comptroller and Auditor-General (Duties, Powers and Conditions of Service) Act, 1971, the Comptroller and Auditor General of India receives a salary that is equal to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India. This ensures that the position of the Comptroller and Auditor General carries the same status and financial security as a senior member of the judiciary.
57Polity and Governance
Who among the following was the first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women ?
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Answer: (A) Jayanti Patnaik
Explanation
Jayanti Patnaik served as the first Chairperson of the National Commission for Women. The commission was established as a statutory body on 31 January 1992 under the provisions of the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to protect and promote the interests and rights of women in India. She headed the commission during its inaugural term from 3 February 1992 to 30 January 1995.
58Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament of India to create or abolish Legislative Councils, if the Legislative Assembly of the State passes a resolution to that effect ?
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Answer: (D) Article 169
Explanation
Article 169 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to abolish an existing Legislative Council or create a new one in a State. This constitutional process is initiated when the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution to that effect. The resolution must be passed by a special majority, which means a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. Following this resolution, the Parliament can pass an ordinary law to implement the creation or abolition of the Legislative Council.
59Polity and Governance
According to the provision of which Article of the Constitution can the President of India ask for advice from the Supreme Court ?
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Answer: (D) Article 143
Explanation
Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers advisory jurisdiction upon the Supreme Court of India. Under this provision, if the President of India determines that a question of law or fact has arisen, or is likely to arise, which is of public importance, the President may refer the question to the Supreme Court for its opinion. The Supreme Court may then, after conducting appropriate hearings, report its opinion back to the President. This advisory opinion is consultative in nature and is not binding on the President.
60Polity and Governance
Which of the following provisions were made by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 ?
(a) Provided for the creation of the All India Judicial Service.
(b) Empowered the President to send back once, the advice of the Cabinet for reconsideration.
(c) Provided that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 and Article 21 cannot be suspended during the National Emergency.
(d) Shifted five subjects from the State list to the Concurrent list.
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Answer: (D) Only (b) and (c)
Explanation
The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 introduced several safeguards to prevent the abuse of emergency powers and restore democratic values. Under this amendment, Article 74(1) was modified to empower the President to return the advice of the Cabinet once for reconsideration, though the President is bound to act in accordance with the advice tendered after such reconsideration. Additionally, it amended Article 359 to specify that the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article 20 (protection in respect of conviction for offenses) and Article 21 (protection of life and personal liberty) cannot be suspended even during the operation of a National Emergency.
61Polity and Governance
Which of the following committees contains representatives of both the Houses of the Parliament ?
(a) Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Committee on Empowerment of Women
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Committee on Privileges
(e) Estimates Committee
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Answer: (D) Only (a) and (b)
Explanation
The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members, out of whom 20 are elected by the Lok Sabha and 10 are elected by the Rajya Sabha. The Committee on Empowerment of Women also consists of 30 members, comprising 20 members nominated from the Lok Sabha and 10 members from the Rajya Sabha. Both of these are joint parliamentary committees that include representatives from both Houses of Parliament.
62Polity and Governance
The National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SC) is constituted by which Article of the Constitution ?
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Answer: (B) Article 338
Explanation
Article 338 of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the National Commission for Scheduled Castes. This constitutional body is vested with the responsibility to monitor and investigate all matters relating to the safeguards provided for the Scheduled Castes under the Constitution or under any other law, and to evaluate their working. The 89th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2003 bifurcated the erstwhile combined National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes into two separate bodies, establishing the National Commission for Scheduled Castes under Article 338 and the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes under Article 338A.
63Polity and Governance
On 13th December, 1946 ________ moved the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly of India.
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Answer: (D) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Explanation
On 13th December, 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru moved the historic Objectives Resolution in the Constituent Assembly of India. This resolution outlined the defining principles, philosophy, and basic structure of the constitution to be framed for independent India. It declared India as an Independent Sovereign Republic and guaranteed justice, equality, and freedom to all its citizens, while safeguarding the interests of minorities, backward classes, and tribal areas. The Objectives Resolution was unanimously adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22nd January, 1947, and its modified version eventually became the Preamble of the Constitution of India.
64Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once, including any departmental proceedings.
(b) The protection against self-incrimination extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence.
(c) The protection against self-incrimination extends to both criminal and civil proceedings.
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Answer: (B) Statement (b) is correct
Explanation
Under Article 20 of the Constitution of India, protection in respect of conviction for offences is guaranteed.
The protection against self-incrimination, provided under Article 20(3), states that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself. This protection extends to both oral evidence and documentary evidence.
In contrast, the protection against double jeopardy under Article 20(2) is available only in proceedings before a court of law or a judicial tribunal. It does not extend to departmental or administrative proceedings, which are not of a judicial nature.
Furthermore, the protection against self-incrimination under Article 20(3) extends only to criminal proceedings and does not apply to civil proceedings or other proceedings that are not of a criminal nature.
65Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :
(a) The special provisions for Nagaland are made in Article 371 (A).
(b) No act of the Parliament in respect to the religious or social practices of Nagas can be applied without the approval of the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland.
(c) Tuensang is the most developed district of Nagaland.
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Answer: (A) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation
Article 371A of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the State of Nagaland. Under this article, Acts of Parliament relating to the religious or social practices of the Nagas, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land and its resources do not apply to Nagaland unless the Legislative Assembly of Nagaland decides so by a resolution.
Tuensang is historically one of the most backward districts of Nagaland, rather than the most developed. Because of its extreme backwardness, Article 371A originally included special administrative provisions specifically for the Tuensang district, including a regional council and a dedicated ministry, to protect and foster its development.
66Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not a Panchheel principle of India's foreign policy ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The Panchsheel, or the Five Principles of Peaceful Coexistence, was signed in 1954 as part of the India-China Agreement. The five tenets are mutual respect for each other's territorial integrity and sovereignty, mutual non-aggression, mutual non-interference in each other's internal affairs, equality and mutual benefit, and peaceful coexistence. Since all the given options are core principles of the Panchsheel treaty, none of them is incorrect.
67Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :
(a) The subject, 'Co-operative Societies' has been included in the Constitution of India by the 97th Amendment in 2011.
(b) The right to establish 'Co-operative Societies' is given in Article 19(1)(c).
(c) The first law related to Co-operative Societies in India was passed in the tenure of Lord Curzon.
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Answer: (D) All the three statements are correct
Explanation
The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2011 integrated the subject of cooperative societies into the Constitution of India. It added the words "co-operative societies" to Article 19(1)(c), thereby granting citizens a fundamental right to form cooperative societies. This amendment also introduced Article 43B as a Directive Principle of State Policy to promote cooperative societies and inserted Part IXB into the Constitution. Historically, the Co-operative Credit Societies Act, 1904 was the first legislation of its kind in India, and it was enacted during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Curzon to alleviate rural indebtedness and facilitate agricultural credit.
68Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about dismissal or removal of persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or State (Article 311) is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) The provisions of Article 311 are applicable to permanent civil servants only and not to temporary servants.
Explanation
Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides safeguards to persons employed in civil capacities under the Union or a State. In the landmark judgment of Parshotam Lal Dhingra v. Union of India (1958), the Supreme Court clarified that the protections under Article 311 are available to both permanent and temporary government servants, provided that the termination of service or reduction in rank of the temporary employee is penal in nature and amounts to punishment.
69Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) A panel of Chairpersons is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members.
(b) A member of the panel of Chairpersons can preside over the Lok Sabha when the office of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker is vacant.
(c) In absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker and member of the panel of Chairpersons, the Speaker's duties are to be performed by a member appointed by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the Speaker nominates a panel of not more than ten chairpersons from amongst the members of the House. They are nominated by the Speaker and not elected by the House.
A member of the panel of chairpersons can only preside over the House during the absence of the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker. They cannot preside when the office of the Speaker or Deputy Speaker is vacant. In the event of a vacancy, the duties of the Speaker are performed by a member of the House appointed by the President.
When the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker, and all members of the panel of chairpersons are absent from a sitting, the House itself determines which of its members will preside over the sitting. The President does not appoint a member to perform the Speaker's duties in the case of temporary absence. This makes all three statements incorrect.
70Polity and Governance
Choose the appropriate option among the following statements :
(a) Crimea was a part of Ukraine till 2014.
(b) Russia annexed Crimea in 2014.
(c) NATO consists of 30 member countries.
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Explanation
Crimea became part of independent Ukraine in 1991 following the dissolution of the Soviet Union, and it remained Ukrainian territory until 2014. In March 2014, Russian forces intervened in the region, leading to a controversial referendum after which Russia formally annexed the Crimean Peninsula. Regarding NATO membership, North Macedonia became the 30th member of the alliance in March 2020. Throughout 2022, NATO consisted of exactly 30 member countries, prior to the accession of Finland in 2023 and Sweden in 2024.
71Polity and Governance
Former JNU Vice Chancellor Mamidala Jagadesh Kumar has been appointed as the Chairperson of which institution ?
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Answer: (B) UGC
Explanation
Mamidala Jagadesh Kumar, the former Vice Chancellor of Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU), was appointed as the Chairman of the University Grants Commission (UGC) in February 2022. The UGC is a statutory organization established by the Government of India under the Ministry of Education to coordinate, determine, and maintain standards of university education across the country.
72Polity and Governance
Who amongst the following was chosen as the 'Time Person of the Year, 2021' by the Internationally acclaimed magazine — Time ?
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Answer: (C) Elon Musk
Explanation
Elon Musk, the founder and CEO of SpaceX and Tesla, was named Time Person of the Year for 2021. The magazine recognized his immense influence on life on Earth and potentially life off Earth, highlighting his leadership in electric vehicles, space exploration, and his significant impact on global financial markets, technology, and social media.
73Art and Culture
R. Nagaswamy died in January 2022. He was related to the field of ______.
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Answer: (B) Archaeology
Explanation
Ramachandran Nagaswamy was a legendary Indian archaeologist, art historian, and epigraphist who passed away in January 2022. He was the founder-director of the Tamil Nadu State Department of Archaeology, serving from 1966 to 1988, and was highly acclaimed for his research on Chola bronzes and temple inscriptions. For his outstanding contributions to the field of archaeology and historical research, he was honored with the Padma Bhushan in 2018.
74Science and Technology
Which country launched the Hwasong-12 mid-range ballistic missile ?
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Answer: (C) North Korea
Explanation
The Hwasong-12 is an intermediate-range ballistic missile developed and operated by North Korea. First unveiled during a military parade in April 2017, this liquid-fueled missile has an estimated range of 3700 to 4500 kilometers. In January 2022, North Korea conducted a high-profile test-launch of the Hwasong-12, which was fired on a lofted trajectory to verify the accuracy and safety of the weapon system during its operational deployment. This test marked the country's most powerful missile launch since 2017.
75History
Find out the incorrect statement from the following about the Yazidi group.
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Answer: (D) This religion has taken some elements from Christianity so they are targeted by Islamic terrorist groups.
Explanation
The Yazidi group is not targeted by Islamic terrorist groups like ISIS because they adopted elements from Christianity. Rather, they are targeted because extremist groups falsely label them as heretical devil worshippers. Yazidis are monotheists whose central figure of worship is Melek Taus, the Peacock Angel. Extremist groups equate this figure with Shaitan or Lucifer. Unlike Christians and Jews, whom Islamic law traditional recognizes as People of the Book and grants certain protections, Yazidis are categorized by these extremist groups as pagans or infidels. Because of this classification, they do not qualify for any religious tolerance under the extremist ideology and have been subjected to genocidal campaigns, forced conversions, executions, and enslavement.
76Economy
How much tax would be imposed on Cryptocurrency, as declared by the Central Finance Minister, Nirmala Sitharaman in the Budget 2022 - 23 ?
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Answer: (C) 30% tax plus cess
Explanation
In the Union Budget 2022–23, the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman introduced a specific taxation framework for virtual digital assets, which include cryptocurrencies and non-fungible tokens. Under this regime, a flat tax rate of 30% plus applicable surcharge and cess is imposed on any income generated from the transfer of these digital assets. Additionally, no deductions are allowed for any expenditures or allowances while computing such income, except for the cost of acquisition, and losses from the transfer of virtual digital assets cannot be set off against any other income.
77Science and Technology
Which racing driver won the Saudi Arabian Grand Prix Tournament held in March 2022 ?
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Answer: (B) Max Verstappen
Explanation
The 2022 Saudi Arabian Grand Prix, held on March 27, 2022, at the Jeddah Corniche Circuit, was won by Max Verstappen. Driving for Red Bull Racing, Verstappen secured the victory after a closely contested battle in the final laps of the race, finishing just 0.549 seconds ahead of his closest competitor.
78Geography
Which of the following statements is incorrect about Pulwama ?
(a) It is known as the Rice Bowl of Kashmir.
(b) Veshu and Jhelum rivers are flowing from Pulwama.
(c) Aharbal Falls and Avantishwar Temple are famous tourist places near Pulwama.
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Pulwama is widely recognized as the Rice Bowl of Kashmir because of its high production of paddy crops. Both the Jhelum River and its prominent tributary, the Veshu (Veshaw) River, flow through the region. Additionally, the historical 9th-century Avantishwar (Awantiswami) Temple ruins are situated in the Awantipora region of Pulwama district, and the majestic Aharbal Waterfall, which is formed on the Veshu River, serves as a major tourist attraction near the area. Since all three statements are correct, none of them is incorrect.
79History
Choose the correct option.
(a) Deon Lendore of Trinidad and Tobago died in a car accident in January 2022.
(b) He won a Bronze medal in the London Olympics, 2012.
(c) Deon Lendore was a Chess Player.
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Answer: (B) (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation
Deon Lendore was an elite sprinter from Trinidad and Tobago who specialized in the 400 metres event. In January 2022, he tragically passed away following a car accident in Texas, United States. During his distinguished athletic career, he represented his country at three Olympic Games (2012, 2016, and 2020) and anchored Trinidad and Tobago to a bronze medal in the men's 4×400 metres relay at the 2012 London Olympics.
80Polity and Governance
Which State has signed Bollywood actor Sanjay Dutt as the Brand Ambassador for its Golden Jubilee celebrations ?
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Answer: (D) Arunachal Pradesh
Explanation
The government of Arunachal Pradesh signed Bollywood actor Sanjay Dutt as the brand ambassador to commemorate its golden jubilee celebrations. This milestone marked the 50th anniversary of the naming of Arunachal Pradesh, which transitioned from the North-East Frontier Agency to a Union Territory in 1972, before achieving full statehood in 1987. Along with Sanjay Dutt as the brand ambassador, filmmaker Rahul Mittra was appointed as the brand advisor for the month-long celebrations that commenced on January 20, 2022, in Ziro.
81Economy
Which of the following UN specialized agencies has completed 100 years of its formation ?
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Answer: (A) International Labour Organization (ILO)
Explanation
The International Labour Organization (ILO) was established in October 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles as an affiliated agency of the League of Nations. It became the first specialized agency of the United Nations in 1946. Having been founded in 1919, the ILO completed 100 years of its formation in 2019, making it the oldest UN specialized agency to celebrate its centenary. The organization is headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, and was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1969 for its work in promoting social and economic justice.
82Art and Culture
Consider the following statements and choose the appropriate option :
(a) Padma Shri Awardee Milena Salvini was born in Italy.
(b) She was a famous Kathakali dancer and had established a dance school named 'Centre Mandapa' in Paris.
(c) The Indian Government honoured her with Padma Shri Award in 2019.
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Explanation
Milena Salvini was born in Milan, Italy, in 1938. She became a highly respected exponent and promoter of Indian classical dance, particularly Kathakali, which she trained in at the Kerala Kalamandalam after obtaining a scholarship in the 1960s. Along with her husband, she founded the Centre Mandapa in Paris in 1975 to teach, promote, and present Indian classical dance and music to Western audiences. Recognizing her lifelong dedication and immense contribution to the performing arts, the Government of India conferred the Padma Shri upon her in 2019.
83Economy
Which bank has became the first Indian Bank to have an office in Australia's Victoria State ?
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Answer: (B) SBI
Explanation
The State Bank of India (SBI) opened its office in Melbourne in September 2019, making it the first Indian bank to establish a branch in the Australian state of Victoria. The office was established to support and enhance trade, investment, and business relations between India and Victoria, aligned with the Victorian state government's 10-year India Strategy.
84Polity and Governance
Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) is related with which of the following subjects ?
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Answer: (B) Homosexuality
Explanation
Section 377 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) was a colonial-era provision introduced in 1861 that criminalised carnal intercourse against the order of nature, which was extensively used to target homosexuality and consensual same-sex relationships. In the landmark judgment of Navtej Singh Johar versus Union of India (2018), a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India unanimously decriminalised consensual homosexual acts between adults. The Court ruled that Section 377, in so far as it penalised consensual sexual conduct between adults of the same sex, violated the fundamental rights to equality, non-discrimination, privacy, and personal liberty under Articles 14, 15, 19, and 21 of the Constitution of India.
85HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Before the formation of 'All India States Peoples' Congress' at the national level, which of the following organizations was active in Kolhapur to raise the concerns of the people ?
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Answer: (A) Lok Sabha
Explanation
Prior to the establishment of the All India States Peoples' Congress in 1927, the Lok Sabha was an active local political organization in the princely states of the Deccan region, including Kolhapur. This body was formed to articulate public grievances, seek administrative reforms, and represent the demands of the people before the ruling administrations of the princely states, fostering political awareness and civic consciousness at the grassroots level.
86HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Pick out the odd person from the following :
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Answer: (C) Sane Guruji
Explanation
Dr. (Mrs.) Laura D'Souza, Sudhatai Joshi, and Hirve Guruji were all prominently associated with the Goa Liberation Movement (Goa Mukti Sangram) to free Goa from Portuguese colonial rule.
Sudhatai Joshi led the satyagraha in 1955 and was arrested by Portuguese authorities. Hirve Guruji was a satyagrahi who attained martyrdom in August 1955 when Portuguese forces opened fire on peaceful Indian demonstrators. Dr. (Mrs.) Laura D'Souza was a leader of the National Congress (Goa) who actively organized campaigns and mobilization efforts.
Sane Guruji (Pandurang Sadashiv Sane), though a renowned social activist and freedom fighter, passed away in 1950. This was prior to the active phase of the mass satyagraha in Goa (1954–1955) in which the other three participated, making him the odd one out.
87Polity and Governance
Who was the president of the 1957 National Commission for Female Education ?
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Answer: (C) Durgabai Deshmukh
Explanation
The National Committee on Women's Education (often referred to as the National Commission for Female Education) was established by the Government of India in May 1958 under the chairmanship of Durgabai Deshmukh. The formulation of this committee was recommended in July 1957 by the educational panel of the Planning Commission to thoroughly examine the various aspects of girls' and women's education at different levels. The committee made crucial recommendations to prioritize and accelerate female education, suggesting the establishment of the National Council for Women's Education, appointing a joint educational advisor to oversee women's education, and implementing targeted schemes like free transport, student hostels, and scholarship facilities to boost female literacy and school enrollment.
88HistoryMaharashtra-specific
After passing away of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar, who from the followers of Dr. Ambedkar, became members of the Congress ?
(a) R.D. Bhandare
(b) Rajabhav Bhole
(c) Dadasaheb Rupwate
(d) Bapusaheb Rajbhoj
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Explanation
Following the passing away of Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar in December 1956, several of his close followers and leaders of the Scheduled Castes Federation and the Republican Party of India decided to join the Indian National Congress to continue their political struggle and ensure representation within the mainstream ruling party.
Ramchandra Dhondiba (R.D.) Bhandare, a prominent leader of the Scheduled Castes Federation, joined the Congress in the 1960s and was elected twice to the Lok Sabha on a Congress ticket in 1967 and 1971, later serving as the Governor of Bihar and Governor of Andhra Pradesh.
Rajabhau Bhole (R.R. Bhole), a close associate of Dr. Ambedkar, joined the Congress after his demise and was subsequently elected as a Member of Parliament representing the party.
Dadasaheb Rupwate (D.T. Rupwate), a dedicated Ambedkarite activist and former editor of Prabuddha Bharat, joined the Congress in the late 1960s, serving as a member of the Maharashtra Legislative Council and twice as a cabinet minister in the government of Maharashtra.
89HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Which of the following two places in Mumbai had Salt Markets during the British time ?
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Answer: (B) Bhendi Bazar and Wadala
Explanation
Wadala was historically a major salt production and trading hub in Mumbai, containing vast coastal salt pans that were crucial for salt extraction during the British colonial era. Bhendi Bazar, situated in South Mumbai, was a central commercial trading and retail market where essential daily commodities, including taxed salt, were distributed through established depots and small godowns. Consequently, both Wadala and Bhendi Bazar functioned as key salt markets under British rule.
90HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who had established the Manav Dharma Sabha at Surat and Paramahansa Mandali at Bombay ?
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Answer: (B) Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar
Explanation
Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar was a prominent social reformer and grammarian from Maharashtra who founded both the Manav Dharma Sabha and the Paramahansa Mandali. He established the Manav Dharma Sabha in Surat in 1844, along with Durgaram Manchharam, to advocate for monotheism and challenge caste prejudices. In 1849, he founded the Paramahansa Mandali in Bombay, which operated as a secret socio-religious society dedicated to breaking caste barriers, promoting widow remarriage, and encouraging monotheism among its members.
91History
Who wrote the book called Tahqiq-i-Hind, which gives a detailed description of North India ?
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Answer: (B) Al-Biruni
Explanation
Al-Biruni, a renowned Persian scholar and polymath, wrote the celebrated book Tahqiq-i-Hind, which is also commonly known as Kitab-ul-Hind. Having accompanied Sultan Mahmud of Ghazni to the Indian subcontinent in the early eleventh century, Al-Biruni spent years studying Sanskrit, Hindu scriptures, and various Indian sciences. His book provides an exceptionally detailed, systematic, and objective description of Indian society, culture, religion, philosophy, caste system, astronomy, and the geography of North India during that period.
92History
Which of the following is a large Mesolithic site in Rajasthan ?
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Answer: (A) Bagor
Explanation
Bagor is a highly significant Mesolithic site situated on the Kothari river in the Bhilwara district of Rajasthan. It is recognized as one of the largest and best-documented Mesolithic settlements in India. Excavations conducted at the site by V. N. Misra in the late 1960s yielded a vast assemblage of microliths, structural remains, and some of the earliest archaeological evidence of animal domestication in the Indian subcontinent, dating back to around 5000-4500 BCE.
93History
Match the following :
| Mahajanapada | King |
|---|---|
| (a) Kashi | (i) Bimbisara |
| (b) Kosal | (ii) Ashwasena |
| (c) Magadha | (iii) Udayan |
| (d) Vatsa | (iv) Prasenjit |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Explanation
Kashi matches Ashwasena because King Ashwasena ruled Kashi and was the father of the 23rd Jain Tirthankara, Parshvanatha.
Kosal matches Prasenjit because King Prasenjit was the prominent ruler of Kosala and a contemporary of Gautama Buddha.
Magadha matches Bimbisara because King Bimbisara was the ruler of Magadha who founded the Haryanka dynasty and expanded the kingdom's territory.
Vatsa matches Udayan because King Udayana was the famous ruler of the Vatsa kingdom with its capital at Kausambi.
94HistoryMaharashtra-specific
By which reward was V.R. Shinde felicitated in 1932-33 by the State of Baroda ?
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Answer: (B) Dalit Mitra
Explanation
Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde dedicated his life to the elimination of untouchability and the social upliftment of marginalized communities in India. He founded the Depressed Classes Mission in Mumbai in 1906 to provide education and vocational training to the depressed classes. In recognition of his tireless efforts and monumental contributions to the welfare and rights of these communities, the princely State of Baroda, under Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, felicitated him with the title Dalit Mitra in 1932-33.
95HistoryMaharashtra-specific
How much fine was charged each month by Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj from the parents who did not send their children to school ?
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Answer: (A) Two paise
Explanation
Rajarshi Chhatrapati Shahu Maharaj, the visionary ruler of the princely state of Kolhapur, was a pioneer of social and educational reforms. To make primary education free and compulsory for all, he issued a historic declaration on July 24, 1917, which came into effect on September 30, 1917. To ensure compliance and compel parents to send their children to school, he introduced a penalty system. Initially, Shahu Maharaj mandated a monthly fine of two paise on parents who failed to send their schooling-age children to school. This administrative measure was designed to act as a deterrent and emphasize the absolute necessity of universal education.
96History
Which Act was sanctioned by British Parliament on 18th July, 1947 ?
(a) Indian Partition Act
(b) Indian Independence Act
(c) Draft Constitution Act
(d) Constitutional Amendment Act
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Only (b)
Explanation
The Indian Independence Act, 1947, was an Act passed by the Parliament of the United Kingdom to partition British India into two new independent dominions, India and Pakistan. Based on the Mountbatten Plan, the bill was introduced in the British Parliament on 4 July 1947 and received the Royal Assent on 18 July 1947. The Act paved the way for the end of British rule in the subcontinent on 15 August 1947.
97History
Where was the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association established by revolutionaries like Chandrashekher Azad and Sardar Bhagat Singh ?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Kolkata
(d) Delhi
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Answer: (D) Only (d)
Explanation
The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was established in September 1928 at the Feroz Shah Kotla ruins in Delhi. It was a reorganization of the erstwhile Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) under the leadership of revolutionaries like Chandrashekhar Azad, Sardar Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev Thapar, and others. The name of the organization was changed to include the word "Socialist" to reflect their commitment to establishing a socialist state. Since the establishment took place in Delhi, statement (d) is correct.
98History
The British appointed Mir Jafar as the Nawab of _______ after the Battle of Plassey in 1757.
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Answer: (B) Bengal
Explanation
The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the forces of the British East India Company, led by Robert Clive, and Siraj-ud-Daulah, the Nawab of Bengal. Mir Jafar, who served as the commander-in-chief of the Nawab's army, conspired with the British by remaining inactive during the battle in exchange for the throne. Following the decisive British victory and the subsequent execution of Siraj-ud-Daulah, Robert Clive installed Mir Jafar as the puppet Nawab of Bengal. This event marked the beginning of British political and economic dominance over Bengal and eventually the rest of India.
99History
Who founded the Slave Dynasty which ruled from 1206 to 1290 ?
(a) Mahmud Ghazni
(b) Muhammad Ghori
(c) Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
(d) Iltutmish
Which of the statement/s given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Only (c)
Explanation
Qutb-ud-Din Aibak founded the Slave Dynasty, also known as the Mamluk Dynasty, in 1206. Originally a Turkish slave who rose through the military ranks to become a ruler, he established the Delhi Sultanate and set up his capital in Lahore, later moving it to Delhi. He ruled from 1206 until his death in 1210 and commissioned several historic structures, including the Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque and the Qutb Minar.