MPSC2017General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

MPSC Prelims 2017 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 98 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

98
Questions
6
Subjects
2
Maharashtra-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Science and Technology2424%
  • Polity and Governance2020%
  • Geography1919%
  • History1616%
  • Economy1414%
  • Art and Culture55%
1History
Match the following Mahajanapadas with their modern names : | a. Anga | I. South Bihar | |---|---| | b. Magadha | II. East Bihar | | c. Vajji | III. North Bihar | | d. Malla | IV. Gorakhpur district | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) II I III IV

Explanation

Anga represents modern East Bihar, covering the districts of Bhagalpur and Monghyr, with its capital at Champa.

Magadha corresponds to modern South Bihar, particularly the districts of Patna, Gaya, and parts of Shahabad, with its initial capital at Girivraja.

Vajji was situated in modern North Bihar, north of the Ganges, with its capital at Vaishali.

Malla was located to the north of Vajji, representing modern Gorakhpur and Deoria districts in eastern Uttar Pradesh, with major centers at Pava and Kusinara.

2History
Match the following explorers of Sindhu civilization with cities discovered by them : | | | |---|---| | a. Harappa | I. Rakhaldas Banerji | | b. Mohenjodaro | II. Ranganath Rao | | c. Chanhudaro | III. Dayaram Sahni | | d. Lothal | IV. Gopal Majumdar | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) III I IV II

Explanation

Harappa is matched with Dayaram Sahni who led the excavations at the site in 1921.

Mohenjodaro is matched with Rakhaldas Banerji who discovered the ruins of the city in 1922.

Chanhudaro is matched with Gopal Majumdar who first excavated the site in 1931.

Lothal is matched with Ranganath Rao who discovered and excavated this port city in 1954.

3History
Which of the following soft stones was used to make the seals in Sindhu civilization ?
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Answer: (D) Steatite

Explanation

Steatite, commonly known as soapstone, is a soft talc-schist metamorphic rock that was the primary material used for making seals in the Indus Valley (Sindhu) Civilization. Due to its softness, craftsmen could easily carve intricate depictions of animals, deities, and script symbols onto it. Once the carving was complete, the seals were baked at high temperatures to harden the stone and give them a durable, glazed white finish.

4History
Match the Mahajanapadas and their kings : a. Kosal I. Bimbisar b. Magadha II. Pradyot c. Vatsa III. Prasenjit d. Avanti IV. Udyan Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) III I IV II

Explanation

During the 6th century BCE, the Indian subcontinent was divided into sixteen powerful kingdoms known as Mahajanapadas.

Kosala was ruled by King Prasenjit, who was a contemporary and patron of Gautama Buddha.

Magadha was ruled by Bimbisara of the Haryanka dynasty, who expanded his empire through strategic matrimonial alliances and conquest.

Vatsa was ruled by King Udayana (Udyan), a legendary ruler famous for his romance with Vasavadatta, which inspired several classical Sanskrit plays.

Avanti was ruled by King Candapradyota (Pradyot), a powerful and fierce monarch whose kingdom was centered around Ujjain.

5History
Which of the following Buddhist texts refer to the sixteen Mahajanapadas ?
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Answer: (A) Anguttar Nikaya

Explanation

The Anguttara Nikaya, a Buddhist scripture belonging to the Sutta Pitaka, contains the earliest and most well-known list of the sixteen great kingdoms, known as the Mahajanapadas, which existed in ancient India during the sixth century BCE. This text describes the political landscape of northern and central India, listing kingdoms such as Anga, Magadha, Kasi, Kosala, Vriji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Matsya, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja.

6History
State who amongst the following were the poets of the Sangama literature. a. Tolaka Pear b. Valluvar c. Elangoadigal d. Sittalaisittanur
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d

Explanation

Tolaka Pear refers to Tolkappiyar, who authored Tolkappiyam, the oldest extant Tamil work on grammar and poetics, belonging to the early classical Sangam literature.

Valluvar refers to Thiruvalluvar, the legendary poet-philosopher who composed the Tirukkural, a masterpiece on ethics and morality that forms part of the Pathinenkilkanakku (Eighteen Lesser Texts) of late Sangam/post-Sangam literature.

Elangoadigal refers to Ilango Adigal, a Chera prince and poet who composed Silappatikaram, one of the Five Great Epics of the classical Tamil literary tradition.

Sittalaisittanur refers to Seethalai Sathanar, a grain merchant and poet who composed Manimekalai, which serves as the companion epic to Silappatikaram.

All four figures are foundational authors and poets whose contributions define the classical Sangam and post-Sangam literary tradition of ancient South India.

7History
Identify the person from the description given below. a. A great scholar of Sanskrit, yet accepted the western thoughts. b. Participation in the Tatwabodhini Sabha. c. Started teaching western education in Sanskrit College. d. Gave evidence from the ancient religious books for the widow remarriage.
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Answer: (C) Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

Explanation

The description refers to Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar, a leading figure of the Bengal Renaissance. He was an outstanding Sanskrit scholar who advocated for a synthesis of traditional Indian learning with Western thought. He participated actively in the Tattwabodhini Sabha, which was founded by Debendranath Tagore. As the Principal of Sanskrit College, he restructured the curriculum to include Western education and science alongside Sanskrit, while also opening the college to non-Brahmin students. Additionally, he famously cited the Parashara Smriti and other ancient Hindu scriptures to prove that widow remarriage was religiously sanctioned, a campaign that directly led to the passage of the Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act of 1856.

8History
Identify the person from the following description. a. He was awarded the 'Third Class of the Star of India' reward by British. b. He had established the Translation Society in 1864. c. He opposed the nationalism of Congress. d. He established the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental School.
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Answer: (B) Sir Sayyed Ahmed Khan

Explanation

Sir Syed Ahmad Khan was an eminent nineteenth-century reformer, educator, and politician who pioneered modern education for the Muslim community in India. In 1864, he established the Translation Society at Ghazipur, which was later renamed the Scientific Society of Aligarh, with the aim of translating Western scientific and historical works into Urdu. Recognizing his contributions, the British government honored him in 1869 with the Companion of the Star of India, which represents the third class of this prestigious order. In 1875, he founded the Mohammedan Anglo-Oriental School in Aligarh to combine Western scientific education with Islamic values, an institution that later evolved into the Aligarh Muslim University. He strongly opposed the nationalist political stance of the Indian National Congress, advocating instead that Muslims should prioritize modern education and maintain cooperative relations with the British administration rather than participating in political agitation.

9History
______ of Mithila was a Bengali poet who enjoyed the patronage of a Hindu ruler as well as of the Sultans of Bengal.
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Answer: (D) Vidyapati Thakur

Explanation

Vidyapati Thakur of Mithila was a highly influential Maithili and Sanskrit poet whose work deeply impacted the development of medieval Bengali literature, leading many in Bengal to claim him as one of their own. He wrote extensively in Abahatta, Maithili, and Sanskrit, and is renowned for his love songs depicting Radha and Krishna. Vidyapati flourished under the patronage of several Hindu kings of the Oiniwar dynasty in Mithila, including Deva Simha, Kirti Simha, and Shiva Simha. Additionally, his literary contributions were highly regarded and patronized by the Muslim Sultans of Bengal, such as Sultan Ghiyasuddin Azam Shah, whom he mentions with praise in his writings. This dual patronage of both Hindu rulers and Bengal Sultans highlights his widespread cultural and literary appeal across regions.

10History
Which of the following statements about Civil Disobedience Movement is/are not true ?
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Answer: (D) The business community supported the Government.

Explanation

During the Civil Disobedience Movement, the Indian business community overwhelmingly supported the nationalist cause rather than the colonial government. Prominent industrialists and merchants, organized under bodies like the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry, actively opposed colonial economic policies that restricted domestic business. They demanded protection against foreign imports, refused to buy or sell imported goods, and provided substantial financial assistance to the Congress. Therefore, the statement that the business community supported the government is false.

11History
Almost all the leading personalities of the country except ______ joined the Congress.
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Answer: (B) Sir Sayyed

Explanation

Sir Sayyed (Sir Syed Ahmad Khan) strongly opposed the Indian National Congress from its inception in 1885. He believed that the interests of Indian Muslims were distinct from those of the majority community represented by the Congress. Fearing that a representative democratic system would lead to the marginalization of Muslims, he advised his community to stay away from the Congress and instead focus on modern western education and cooperation with the British administration. To actively counter the influence of the Congress, he also established the United Patriotic Association in 1888.

12History
Which of the following is/are included in the resolutions passed by the Indian National Congress in its first session ? a. Appointment of a Royal Commission to inquire into the working of the Indian administration. b. Abolition of the Indian Council of the Secretary of State for India. c. Reduction of military expenditure. d. Protest against the annexation of Upper Burma and the proposed incorporation of it with India.
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Answer: (C) a, b, c and d

Explanation

The first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was held in Bombay from December 28 to 30, 1885, presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. During this maiden session, the Congress discussed and adopted nine key resolutions outlining their primary administrative, fiscal, and political demands.

Resolution I demanded the appointment of a Royal Commission to inquire into the functioning of the Indian administration, with adequate representation of Indians.

Resolution II called for the complete abolition of the Council of the Secretary of State for India in London, arguing that it acted as an obstacle to responsive governance.

Resolution VI advocated for a significant reduction in the British military expenditure, which consumed a vast portion of India's revenues.

Resolution VII strongly protested against the British annexation of Upper Burma and opposed its proposed incorporation into the administration of India.

13History
Match the following : | a. Dhumketu | I. Kolkata | |---|---| | b. Navayuga | II. Guntur | | c. Socialist | III. Mumbai | | d. Vanguard of Indian Independence | IV. Berlin | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) I II III IV

Explanation

Dhumketu matches with I (Kolkata) because it was a progressive Bengali weekly launched by Kazi Nazrul Islam from Kolkata in 1922.

Navayuga matches with II (Guntur) as it was an influential left-nationalist journal published from Guntur in the early 1920s.

Socialist matches with III (Mumbai) because S.A. Dange started this weekly newspaper, considered India's first socialist journal, from Mumbai in 1922.

Vanguard of Indian Independence matches with IV (Berlin) since it was a fortnightly political organ published by M.N. Roy from Berlin in 1922 to propagate communist ideas in India.

14Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Gadge Maharaj used ______, a traditional medium of mass communication for propagating against some of the evil social customs.
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Answer: (D) Kirtan

Explanation

Sant Gadge Maharaj, a revered social reformer and saint from Maharashtra, extensively used Kirtan as a traditional medium of mass communication to reform society. His Kirtans were highly interactive, structured in a question-and-answer format, and delivered in local dialects to easily connect with the common people. Through these performances, he strongly campaigned against social evils such as caste discrimination, untouchability, animal sacrifice, blind faith, and alcohol addiction, while emphasizing the importance of cleanliness, self-reliance, and education.

15HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who is the person described in the following sentences ? He had learnt the principle of universal equality of man while at the Scottish Mission School. Under the influence of the Christian missionaries he realized the importance of education, social reforms and universal humanism. He openly supported widow remarriage and attacked the practice of female infanticide.
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Answer: (C) Jyotiba Phule

Explanation

Mahatma Jyotiba Phule was a pioneering social reformer from Maharashtra who completed his education at the Scottish Mission School in Pune. During his time at the school, the teachings of Christian missionaries and exposure to western liberal thoughts deeply influenced him, helping him realize the vital importance of education, social reforms, and universal humanism. These principles motivated him to challenge the orthodox caste system and work towards the upliftment of marginalized sections of society. He strongly advocated for women education, openly supported widow remarriage, and actively fought against the practice of female infanticide by establishing the Balhatya Pratibandhak Griha in 1863 to provide shelter to pregnant widows and protect their children.

16Science and Technology
Match the following : | Philosopher | Hypothesis about origin of the Earth | |---|---| | a. Immanuel Kant | I. Tidal | | b. Laplace | II. Gaseous | | c. Chamberlin | III. Nebular | | d. James Jeans | IV. Planetesimal | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (D) II III IV I

Explanation

Immanuel Kant proposed the Gaseous Hypothesis in 1755, which suggested that the solar system and Earth formed from cold, stationary solid particles that collided under gravity, generating heat and rotation.

Laplace modified this view in 1796 with the Nebular Hypothesis, proposing that a pre-existing hot, rotating gaseous nebula cooled, contracted, and shed concentric rings of matter that subsequently condensed to form planets.

Chamberlin, along with Moulton, introduced the Planetesimal Hypothesis in 1905, asserting that the gravitational pull of a passing star drew out gaseous filaments from the sun that condensed into small, solid bodies called planetesimals, which later accreted into planets.

James Jeans, along with Jeffreys, formulated the Tidal Hypothesis in 1919, explaining that a massive passing star caused a large tidal pull on the sun, detaching a cigar-shaped filament of matter that eventually cooled and broke into individual planetary bodies.

17Geography
Which of the following statements is correct about the interior of the Earth ?
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Answer: (C) The temperature rises with increasing depth.

Explanation

The temperature inside the Earth increases with increasing depth. This geothermal gradient is primarily driven by the heat generated from the radioactive decay of isotopes like uranium, thorium, and potassium in the Earth's crust and mantle, as well as the residual heat left over from the planet's accretion and formation. In the upper crust, the temperature rises at an average rate of about 25°C to 30°C per kilometer of depth.

18Science and Technology
The heat released at the time of condensation is called as
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Answer: (B) Latent heat

Explanation

Condensation is the phase change where water vapor converts into liquid water. During this transition from a gaseous state to a liquid state, heat energy is released into the surrounding environment. This thermal energy, which is released or absorbed by a substance during a change in its physical state without altering its temperature, is known as latent heat. In this specific process, it is called the latent heat of condensation, which warms the surrounding air and plays a crucial role in powering weather systems and atmospheric circulation.

19Geography
Match the following : | Feature / Climate | Date | |---|---| | a. Vernal Equinox | I. December 22 | | b. Summer Solstice | II. September 23 | | c. Winter Solstice | III. March 21 | | d. Autumnal Equinox | IV. June 21 | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) III IV I II

Explanation

Vernal Equinox matches with March 21 because the Sun is directly above the equator, marking the beginning of spring in the Northern Hemisphere.

Summer Solstice matches with June 21 because the Northern Hemisphere is tilted closest to the Sun, resulting in the longest day of the year.

Winter Solstice matches with December 22 because the Northern Hemisphere is tilted farthest from the Sun, resulting in the shortest day of the year.

Autumnal Equinox matches with September 23 because the Sun is directly above the equator, marking the beginning of autumn in the Northern Hemisphere.

20Geography
The point of origin of an earthquake is known as
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Answer: (B) Seismic focus

Explanation

The seismic focus, also referred to as the hypocenter, is the point of origin within the Earth where an earthquake rupture begins. It is the location where geological strain energy stored in the crust is suddenly released along a fault line, generating seismic waves that travel outward in all directions and eventually reach the surface.

21Geography
Bora winds blow in ______ region.
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Answer: (C) Adriatic Sea

Explanation

The Bora is a cold, dry, and extremely gusty katabatic wind that blows from the north-northeast. It originates over the cold inland plateaus of the Dinaric Alps and sweeps down towards the warm coastal waters of the Adriatic Sea. This meteorological phenomenon occurs when a cold high-pressure system establishes itself over the interior mountains of Europe while a low-pressure system forms over the warmer Adriatic Sea, causing the cold, dense air to rush down the steep mountain slopes under the influence of gravity.

22Geography
The process of conversion of water vapour into ice is known as
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Answer: (A) Sublimation

Explanation

Sublimation refers to the direct transition of a substance between the solid and gaseous phases without passing through the liquid phase. In meteorology and physical geography, the process where water vapour in the atmosphere directly transforms into ice crystals or frost under sub-freezing temperatures is classified as sublimation.

23Geography
Match the following : | River | Source | |---|---| | a. Penganga | I. Gomantak Peak | | b. Krishna | II. Budhana range | | c. Tungabhadra | III. Brahmgiri | | d. Cauvery | IV. Mahabaleshwar | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) II IV I III

Explanation

Penganga River originates in the Buldhana (Budhana) range of the Ajanta hills in Maharashtra. Krishna River rises from the Western Ghats near Mahabaleshwar in Maharashtra. Tungabhadra River, formed by the confluence of the Tunga and Bhadra rivers, has its source at Gomantak Peak (Gangamoola) in Karnataka. Cauvery River originates in the Brahmagiri range (Talakaveri) in Karnataka.

This aligns with the sequence: a-II, b-IV, c-I, d-III.

24Geography
Match the following : | Channel | Location | |---|---| | a. 10 Degree | I. Separates Little Andaman from Greater Andaman | | b. 8 Degree | II. Separates Minicoy from main Lakshadweep | | c. 9 Degree | III. Separates Andaman from Nicobar | | d. Duncan Passage | IV. Separates Minicoy from Maldives | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (B) III IV II I

Explanation

The 10 Degree Channel (a) matches with III as it is a water body in the Bay of Bengal that lies on the 10-degree latitude, separating the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands.

The 8 Degree Channel (b) matches with IV as it lies on the 8-degree latitude, separating the island of Minicoy from the Maldives.

The 9 Degree Channel (c) matches with II as it lies on the 9-degree latitude, separating Minicoy from the main group of Lakshadweep islands.

The Duncan Passage (d) matches with I as it is a strait that separates Rutland Island (part of Greater Andaman) from Little Andaman.

25Geography
Match the following : | Islands | Characteristics | |---|---| | a. Salsette | I. Rocket launching site | | b. Sriharikota | II. Missile launching centre | | c. Wellington | III. Group of seven islands | | d. Wheeler | IV. Naval station | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (D) III I IV II

Explanation

Salsette Island is the landmass on which the city of Mumbai is situated, which historically developed from a group of seven islands.

Sriharikota is a barrier island off the coast of Andhra Pradesh that houses the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, India's primary rocket launching site.

Wellington Island is a major artificial island in Kochi, Kerala, that serves as an important naval station hosting the Southern Naval Command of the Indian Navy.

Wheeler Island, located off the coast of Odisha and renamed Dr. Abdul Kalam Island, serves as India's main missile launching centre.

26Geography
Which of the following charactestics is/are not applicable to CBD ? a. High percentage of offices and shops b. High accessibility c. Growth is upward rather than sideward d. Residential area
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Answer: (C) Only d

Explanation

A Central Business District (CBD) is the commercial, retail, and financial heart of a city, characterized by intensive land use, high land values, and high accessibility. Due to these high land costs, development in a CBD typically scales upward rather than sideward, resulting in a high concentration of multi-story office buildings and shops. Consequently, residential areas are generally excluded from the CBD core and are instead situated in suburban fringes or residential zones surrounding the commercial center, making the residential area designation not applicable to a CBD.

27Geography
Identify the correct sequence of the seas on the basis of increasing salinity. Code: I II III IV
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Answer: (B) Baltic Sea, Andaman Sea, Caribbean Sea, Dead Sea

Explanation

The correct sequence represents the seas arranged from the lowest salinity to the highest salinity.

The Baltic Sea is a brackish water body with a very low salinity ranging between 7 and 15 parts per thousand (ppt), primarily due to massive freshwater inflows from rivers and low evaporation in a cool climate.

The Andaman Sea has a moderate salinity of around 31 to 33 ppt, which is slightly lower than typical open oceans because of heavy monsoon precipitation and massive river discharges from the Irrawaddy and Salween rivers.

The Caribbean Sea has a higher salinity typical of tropical open oceans, averaging about 35 to 36 ppt due to strong solar radiation and high evaporation rates.

The Dead Sea is an inland hypersaline lake with an extreme salinity of approximately 337 ppt, caused by intense evaporation in an arid region and the absence of any natural outflow.

28Geography
Consider the following statements : a. La Nino is a little girl. b. During the time of La Nino cold water in the ocean rises to the surface. c. La Nino strengthens the Indian monsoon. d. During the time of El Nino, trade winds weaken and warm water moves east in the ocean. Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

In Spanish, La Niña literally translates to the little girl, whereas El Niño translates to the little boy. During a La Niña event, stronger equatorial trade winds push warm surface water westward toward Asia and Australia. This process enhances upwelling in the eastern Pacific Ocean, causing cold, nutrient-rich water from the deep ocean to rise to the surface. This cooling of the equatorial Pacific ocean temperatures alters global atmospheric circulation patterns, typically strengthening the Indian summer monsoon and bringing above-normal rainfall to the Indian subcontinent. Conversely, during an El Niño event, the trade winds weaken or even reverse, allowing the warm water pool in the western Pacific to move eastward toward the coast of South America.

29Geography
Match the following : | Places of Cloudburst | Date of Cloudburst | |---|---| | a. Kedarnath | I. 6th August 2010 | | b. Leh-Ladakh | II. 15th August 1997 | | c. Mumbai | III. 16th June 2013 | | d. Chirgaon | IV. 26th July 2004 | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) III I IV II

Explanation

Kedarnath: The devastating cloudburst and subsequent flash floods in the Mandakini valley occurred on 16th June 2013, leading to a catastrophic natural disaster in Uttarakhand.

Leh-Ladakh: A massive cloudburst struck the Leh region of Ladakh on 6th August 2010, resulting in severe flash floods and mudslides.

Mumbai: The metropolis experienced unprecedented torrential rains and subsequent flash flooding on 26th July.

Chirgaon: A highly destructive cloudburst occurred in Chirgaon in the Shimla district of Himachal Pradesh on 15th August 1997.

30Polity and Governance
As per the Recycled Plastic Manufacture and Usage Rule 1991, what should be thickness of carry bags ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Under Rule 8 of the Recycled Plastics Manufacture and Usage Rules, 1999, the minimum thickness of carry bags made of virgin or recycled plastics must not be less than 20 microns. This rule mandates a thickness of at least 20 microns, rendering the specified limits of less than 10, 15, or 20 microns incorrect.

31Economy
Which of the following States of India is on the way to becoming the first carbon free State ?
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Answer: (B) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

Himachal Pradesh is on its way to becoming India's first and the world's second carbon-free state. Under its master plan Policy and Strategy on Climate Change and Harnessing Carbon Credits, the state government has mandated environmental audits for all its departments. The state focuses on minimizing its carbon footprint through clean and renewable energy, specifically leveraging its massive hydroelectric power potential, efficient waste management, and extensive afforestation efforts to achieve carbon neutrality.

32Geography
Which of the following mountains are considered as one of the top biodiversity hot spots ?
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Answer: (A) Western Ghats

Explanation

The Western Ghats mountain range is recognized globally as one of the world's eight hottest biodiversity hotspots. Stretching over an area of 160,000 square kilometers along the western coast of the Indian peninsula, it exhibits an exceptionally high level of biological diversity and endemism. It is home to thousands of species of flowering plants, mammals, birds, reptiles, and amphibians, a significant portion of which are found nowhere else in the world. Due to rapid urbanization, agricultural expansion, and forest fragmentation, this ecologically sensitive region faces severe anthropogenic pressure, meeting the critical criteria of high endemism and extreme habitat threat required for its designation as a premier global biodiversity hotspot.

33Science and Technology
Ozone hole was detected in which of the following years ?
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Answer: (C) 1985

Explanation

The Antarctic ozone hole was first discovered and reported in 1985 by British Antarctic Survey scientists Joseph Farman, Brian Gardiner, and Jonathan Shanklin. Their findings, published in the scientific journal Nature in May 1985, detailed a massive, unprecedented decline in stratospheric ozone concentrations over Antarctica during the southern hemisphere spring. This crucial discovery provided empirical evidence of ozone depletion by chlorofluorocarbons and played a decisive role in the global mobilization that led to the signing of the Montreal Protocol.

34Economy
The strategy of planning adopted in India in the earlier period had which of the following three aspects ? a. Developing sound base for initiating the process of long-term growth b. A high priority to industrialization when actual development began c. Emphasis on development of capital goods industries d. Emphasis on development of consumer goods industries
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Answer: (A) Only a, b and c

Explanation

The economic planning strategy in India during the earlier period, particularly from the Second Five-Year Plan onwards under the Nehru-Mahalanobis model, was heavily anchored on the development of heavy and basic industries. This strategy aimed at creating a sound base for long-term growth by investing in basic infrastructure, power, and transport. It assigned a very high priority to rapid industrialization as the prime driver to modernize the economy and transition away from an agrarian structure. Within the industrial sector, the planning strategy laid specific emphasis on establishing capital goods and heavy industries, such as iron, steel, and machine-building, to build domestic capacity and achieve self-reliance. Conversely, the development of large-scale consumer goods industries was not prioritized, as the production of consumer goods was largely left to cottage, village, and small-scale sectors. Therefore, only aspects a, b, and c were part of the early planning strategy.

35Economy
The Annual Plan described as 'Plan Holiday' were implemented during
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Answer: (B) 1966 - 69

Explanation

The Plan Holiday was implemented from 1966 to 1969 due to the failure of the Third Five-Year Plan. This failure was primarily caused by the Sino-Indian War of 1962, the Indo-Pakistani War of 1965, and consecutive severe droughts that led to a massive food crisis. Because of these economic and agricultural disruptions, the government of India postponed the formulation of the Fourth Five-Year Plan and instead introduced three successive Annual Plans during this three-year period to stabilize the economy.

36Economy
The household is vulnerable to become multi-dimensionally poor if the Household Deprivation Index score is a. greater than 20% but less than 33.3% b. greater than 33.3% but less than 50% c. greater than 25% but less than 50%
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Answer: (C) Only a

Explanation

Under the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) methodology developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative and the United Nations Development Programme, a household is identified as vulnerable to multidimensional poverty if its weighted deprivation score is 20% or more but less than 33.3%. Households with a deprivation score of 33.3% or more are classified as multidimensionally poor, while those with a score of 50% or more are considered to be living in severe multidimensional poverty.

37Economy
LPG stands for
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Answer: (C) Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation

Explanation

LPG stands for Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation, which represents the core strategy of the New Economic Policy launched by the Government of India in 1991. This model was introduced to address a severe balance of payments crisis, modernise the country's economic system, and integrate the domestic economy with the global market. Liberalisation reduced government regulations and licensing requirements, privatisation transferred ownership or management of state-run enterprises to the private sector, and globalisation opened up the economy to foreign investments, international trade, and global competition.

38Economy
The Twelfth Five Year Plan emphasises the following dimensions of inclusiveness : a. Inclusiveness as poverty reduction b. Inclusion as group equality c. Inclusiveness as regional balance d. Focus on income inequality
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Answer: (B) All four a, b, c, d above

Explanation

The Twelfth Five Year Plan of India (2012–2017) outlines multiple dimensions of inclusiveness in its framework.

Inclusiveness as poverty reduction ensures that growth delivers tangible benefits to the poor and marginalized to significantly reduce poverty levels.

Inclusiveness as group equality focuses on ensuring that the growth process is fair to different socio-economic groups, including Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, minorities, and women.

Inclusiveness as regional balance targets reducing disparities between States and ensuring that backward regions also benefit from development.

The focus on income inequality addresses the need to keep economic disparities within acceptable limits to promote social cohesion.

39Economy
The Report of the Expert Group to review the methodology for estimation of poverty (2009) was submitted by
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Answer: (A) Prof. S.D. Tendulkar

Explanation

The Expert Group to review the methodology for estimation of poverty was constituted by the Planning Commission of India in 2005 under the chairmanship of Prof. Suresh D. Tendulkar [1]. The committee submitted its report in December 2009 [1]. It recommended moving away from the previous calorie-consumption-based estimation of poverty lines and instead proposed a poverty line based on monthly per capita consumption expenditure on a broader basket of goods, which explicitly included private expenditures on health and education [1].

40Economy
The demographic dividend occurs due to a. falling birth rate and consequent shift in the age structure. b. falling birth rate and changes in the age structure towards the adult working ages. c. falling death rate.
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Answer: (A) Only b

Explanation

The demographic dividend refers to the economic growth potential resulting from shifts in a population's age structure. It primarily occurs when a decline in birth rates leads to a reduction in the proportion of young dependents. Consequently, this shifts the overall age structure, resulting in a larger proportion of the population entering their adult, productive, working ages (typically defined as ages 15 to 64) relative to the dependent younger and older cohorts. This lower dependency ratio frees up resources for economic investment and boosts overall per capita productivity.

41Economy
The theme of the Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007 - 12) was
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Answer: (C) Towards faster and more inclusive development

Explanation

The Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007 - 12) was prepared under the leadership of Prime Minister Dr. Manmohan Singh. The core theme of this plan was Towards faster and more inclusive development (often referred to as Towards faster and more inclusive growth).

This plan aimed to accelerate the rate of economic growth while simultaneously making it more inclusive. It focused heavily on social sectors, such as education, health, and agriculture, to ensure that the benefits of developmental growth reached the marginalized and poorer sections of society, thereby reducing poverty and regional disparities.

42Polity and Governance
The National Population Policy, 2000 aimed to a. Reduce maternal mortality rate below 100 per 1 lakh live births and infant mortality to below 30 per one thousand live births. b. Prevent and control communicable diseases. c. Reduce maternal mortality rate below 130 per 1 lakh live births and infant mortality to below 35 per one lakh live births.
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Answer: (B) Only a and b

Explanation

The National Population Policy, 2000 set down several national socio-demographic goals to be achieved. Among these targets, it aimed to reduce the maternal mortality ratio to below 100 per 1 lakh (100,000) live births and the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births. It also aimed at the prevention and control of communicable diseases to improve overall public health and child survival.

43Economy
Which scheme was introduced by the Government for financial inclusion in 2014 ?
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Answer: (C) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a national mission for financial inclusion launched by the Government of India on August 28, 2014. The scheme aims to ensure affordable access to financial services, including banking savings and deposit accounts, remittance, credit, insurance, and pension for the underprivileged sections of society. Under this initiative, individuals can open a basic savings bank account with zero balance requirement.

44Polity and Governance
The objectives of Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission II include : a. Improve service delivery standards b. Empowering urban local bodies c. Slow down the rate of urbanization to the manageable level d. Reduce urban poverty
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Answer: (A) Only a, b and d

Explanation

Improving service delivery standards, empowering urban local bodies, and reducing urban poverty are the core objectives of Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission II (JNNURM II). The mission focuses on the modernization and upgrade of infrastructure, water supply, sanitation, and urban transport, which directly improves service delivery standards. Empowering and building the capacity of urban local bodies ensures effective governance, financial sustainability, and the local management of assets. Furthermore, the provision of basic services to the urban poor and the generation of sustainable livelihoods help directly in reducing urban poverty. Slowing down the rate of urbanization is not an objective of such missions, as urbanization is recognized as a natural and positive driver of economic growth; the objective is to manage urban growth efficiently through planned development rather than slowing it down.

45Economy
Urbanisation has not helped in economic development due to which of the following factors ? a. The neglect of slums in urban areas in planning strategies. b. The unorganised sectors are exploited by capitalists, landlords and contractors. c. Increasing use of capital intensive technologies resulting in unemployment. d. The benefits of growth are unequally shared by various sectors of society.
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Urbanization in India faces several socio-economic challenges that prevent it from fully translating into balanced and equitable economic development.

The neglect of slums in urban areas during the planning process leads to severe deficiencies in basic infrastructure, sanitation, and housing, which severely limits the productivity and living conditions of a major portion of the urban population.

The vast majority of the urban workforce is absorbed by the unorganised sectors, where workers are vulnerable to intense exploitation by capitalists, landlords, and contractors due to a lack of regulatory protection, job security, and fair wages.

Modern urban development often prioritizes capital-intensive technologies over labour-intensive ones, restricting job creation for low-skilled migrants and aggravating unemployment and underemployment.

Consequently, the benefits of economic growth remain unequally shared, concentrated largely in the hands of a skilled and wealthy minority, while the broader urban populace remains marginalized. Together, all these structural factors prevent urbanization from fostering inclusive economic development.

46Economy
Tenancy reforms include the following measures : a. Regulation of tenancy rent b. Security of tenure c. Conferment of ownership rights on tenants d. Ceiling on maximum size of cultivation holding
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Answer: (D) Only a, b and c

Explanation

Tenancy reforms are a major component of land reforms in India, aimed at improving the contractual terms and economic position of tenants who cultivate leased land. These reforms comprise three specific measures:

Regulation of tenancy rent: Restricting rent to a fair and reasonable level (typically fixed at one-fifth to one-fourth of the gross produce) to prevent exploitation by landlords. Security of tenure: Protecting tenants from arbitrary eviction and ensuring they can cultivate the land with stability, which encourages long-term agricultural investment. Conferment of ownership rights on tenants: Legally transferring land ownership to the actual tillers, bringing them into a direct relationship with the state.

In contrast, imposing a ceiling on the maximum size of a cultivation holding is categorized under land ceiling and redistribution laws (reorganization of agriculture), which is a separate class of land reforms distinct from tenancy-specific regulations.

47Polity and Governance
DBT is the abbreviation of
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Answer: (B) Direct Benefit Transfer

Explanation

Direct Benefit Transfer is a major reform initiative launched by the Government of India on 1 January 2013. This mechanism aims to transfer subsidies and benefits directly to the bank accounts of the beneficiaries, thereby streamlining the delivery system, reducing leakages, eliminating intermediaries, and ensuring accurate targeting of government welfare schemes.

48Economy
In which year was the 'Green Climate Fund' established ?
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Answer: (A) 2010

Explanation

The Green Climate Fund (GCF) was formally established as an operating entity of the financial mechanism under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010 during the COP 16 summit held in Cancun, Mexico. Headquartered in Songdo, South Korea, its primary mandate is to support developing countries in limiting or reducing their greenhouse gas emissions and adapting to the impacts of climate change by mobilizing funding for low-emission and climate-resilient development pathways.

49Science and Technology
In the magnetic meridian of a certain place, the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field is 0·26 units and the angle of dip is 60°. What is the magnetic field of the Earth at this location ?
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Answer: (A) 0·52 units

Explanation

The horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field is related to the total magnetic field by the formula:

H = B cos(θ)

where H is the horizontal component of the Earth's magnetic field, B is the total magnetic field of the Earth, and θ is the angle of dip.

Substituting the given values into the formula:

0.26 = B cos(60°)

Since cos(60°) = 0.5, this simplifies to:

0.26 = B × 0.5

Solving for B:

B = 0.26 / 0.5 = 0.52 units

50Science and Technology
An elevator carrying a maximum load of 1800 kg (elevator + passengers) is moving up with a constant speed of 2 ms⁻¹. The frictional force opposing the motion is 4000 N. Determine the minimum power delivered by the motor to the elevator. (Take g = 10 m/s²)
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Answer: (A) 59 hp

Explanation

The total downward force acting on the elevator is the sum of the gravitational force and the frictional force opposing the motion.

The gravitational force is: F_gravity = m × g = 1800 kg × 10 m/s² = 18000 N

Since the elevator is moving upward, the frictional force opposing the motion acts downward: F_friction = 4000 N

The total downward force to be overcome by the motor is: F_total = F_gravity + F_friction = 18000 N + 4000 N = 22000 N

To maintain a constant speed, the upward force exerted by the motor must balance this total downward force. The minimum power delivered by the motor is given by the relation: Power = Force × Velocity Power = 22000 N × 2 m/s = 44000 W

To convert the power from watts to horsepower, we use the conversion factor 1 hp = 746 W: Power in hp = 44000 / 746 ≈ 58.98 hp

This is approximately 59 hp.

51Science and Technology
What is the focal length of a double convex lens for which the radius of curvature of each surface is 50 cm and the refractive index of glass is 1:50 ?
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Answer: (C) 50 cm

Explanation

The Lens Maker's Formula relates the focal length of a lens to its refractive index and the radii of curvature of its two surfaces:

1/f = (μ - 1) × (1/R₁ - 1/R₂)

For a double convex lens, the first surface is convex with a positive radius of curvature, and the second surface is concave with a negative radius of curvature:

R₁ = +50 cm R₂ = -50 cm μ = 1.50

Substituting these values into the formula:

1/f = (1.50 - 1) × (1/50 - (-1/50)) 1/f = 0.50 × (1/50 + 1/50) 1/f = 0.50 × (2/50) 1/f = 1/50 f = 50 cm

52Science and Technology
A new unit of length is chosen such that the speed of light in vacuum is unity. What is the distance between the Sun and the Earth in terms of the new unit, if light takes 8 minutes and 20 seconds to cover this distance ?
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Answer: (B) 500 units

Explanation

By definition, distance is the product of speed and time:

Distance = Speed × Time

In the new system of units, the speed of light is 1 unit per second.

The time taken by light to travel from the Sun to the Earth is 8 minutes and 20 seconds. Converting this total time into seconds:

Time = (8 × 60) + 20 = 480 + 20 = 500 seconds

Substituting the speed and time into the distance formula:

Distance = 1 unit/second × 500 seconds = 500 units

53Science and Technology
A sound wave having certain frequency travels with a speed of 336 m/s and wavelength 3 cm. What will its frequency be? Will it be audible?
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Answer: (D) 11200 Hz, Yes

Explanation

The relation between speed, frequency, and wavelength of a wave is given by the formula v = f × λ, where v is the speed of the wave, f is its frequency, and λ is its wavelength.

Given values: v = 336 m/s λ = 3 cm = 0.03 m

Substituting these values into the formula to solve for frequency: f = v / λ f = 336 / 0.03 f = 11200 Hz

The range of audible frequencies for the human ear is between 20 Hz and 20000 Hz. Since the calculated frequency of 11200 Hz lies within this range, the sound wave is audible.

54Science and Technology
If two resistors are connected in series, the total resistance is 45 Ω and if the same resistors are connected in parallel, the total resistance becomes 10 Ω. Find the value of the individual resistors.
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Answer: (D) 15 Ω, 30 Ω

Explanation

The formulas for the total resistance of two resistors connected in series and parallel are: Series resistance: R_s = R₁ + R₂ Parallel resistance: R_p = (R₁ × R₂) / (R₁ + R₂)

We are given: R_s = 45 Ω R_p = 10 Ω

Substituting these values into the equations: R₁ + R₂ = 45 (R₁ × R₂) / 45 = 10 R₁ × R₂ = 450

Substituting R₂ = 45 - R₁ into the multiplication equation: R₁(45 - R₁) = 450 45R₁ - R₁² = 450 R₁² - 45R₁ + 450 = 0

Factoring the quadratic equation: (R₁ - 15)(R₁ - 30) = 0

This yields the individual resistance values: R₁ = 15 Ω and R₂ = 30 Ω (or vice-versa).

55Science and Technology
Sources of vitamin B-12 are
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Answer: (A) Meat, Fish, Liver and Bacteria in small Intestines

Explanation

Vitamin B-12 (cobalamin) is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for red blood cell formation, neurological function, and DNA synthesis. It is synthesized exclusively by bacteria and other single-celled microorganisms. Animals obtain this vitamin either by consuming food contaminated with these bacteria or through their own internal symbiotic bacterial synthesis. Consequently, animal-derived foods such as meat, fish, and liver serve as excellent dietary sources of vitamin B-12. In addition, the symbiotic bacterial flora residing in the small intestine of humans and other animals also synthesize vitamin B-12.

56Science and Technology
The one gene - one enzyme hypothesis suggesting that one gene controls the synthesis of one enzyme was proposed by
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Answer: (B) Beadle and Tatum

Explanation

The one gene - one enzyme hypothesis was proposed by George Beadle and Edward Tatum in 1941. Through their genetic experiments on the red bread mold Neurospora crassa, they demonstrated that metabolic pathways are controlled by a series of successive steps, with each step catalyzed by a specific enzyme. By exposing the mold to X-rays to induce genetic mutations, they isolated nutritional mutants that lacked the ability to synthesize specific essential nutrients, such as vitamins or amino acids. This established a direct link between genes and biochemical reactions, showing that a mutation in a single gene leads to the loss of function of a single enzyme. Their work laid the foundation for molecular genetics and earned them the Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine in 1958.

57Geography
Which description is correct for Lichens ?
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Answer: (B) The Fungus make available the moisture and minerals to Algae, which prepare food by photosynthesis.

Explanation

Lichens represent a symbiotic, obligate mutualistic association between a fungus (the mycobiont) and a photosynthetic partner, which is usually a green alga or a cyanobacterium (the phycobiont). In this relationship, the fungus forms the main structural body of the lichen, protecting the alga from environmental stress while absorbing moisture, water vapor, and essential inorganic minerals from the substrate and atmosphere. It provides these vital resources directly to the algal cells. In return, the chlorophyll-containing alga performs photosynthesis to manufacture organic food and carbohydrates, which it shares to nourish the non-photosynthetic fungal partner.

58Science and Technology
Which of the following plant hormones controls fruits ripening ? a. Zeatin b. Auxins c. Gibberellic acid d. Ethylene
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Answer: (D) Only d

Explanation

Ethylene is a gaseous plant hormone that plays a key role in regulating and promoting the ripening of fruits. It triggers the physiological and biochemical changes associated with ripening, such as the softening of cell walls through enzymatic activity, the conversion of complex starches into simple sugars, the breakdown of chlorophyll leading to color changes, and the production of volatile compounds that give fruits their characteristic aroma.

59Science and Technology
Which is the correct group from the taxonomic point of view ?
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Answer: (C) Pholas, Pila, Cuttlefish

Explanation

Pholas, Pila, and Cuttlefish form a taxonomically consistent group because they all belong to the phylum Mollusca. Pholas is a genus of marine bivalve molluscs, commonly known as piddocks. Pila is a genus of freshwater snails belonging to the class Gastropoda. Cuttlefish belong to the class Cephalopoda, which is also a class of molluscs. Since all three organisms are members of the same phylum, they share a unified taxonomic classification.

60Science and Technology
Which of the following is/are not a nitrogenous excretory waste ? a. Ammonia b. Creatine c. Urea d. Creatinine
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Answer: (B) Only Creatine

Explanation

Creatine is an organic compound synthesized from amino acids that serves as an essential energy reserve in muscle tissues, primarily in the form of phosphocreatine. It is highly retained by the body to help supply energy for muscle contraction. Rather than being excreted directly, creatine is metabolized into creatinine, which is then filtered and eliminated as a waste product in urine. Thus, creatine itself is not considered a nitrogenous excretory waste product under normal physiological conditions.

61Science and Technology
The testes normally descend into the scrotum by about
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Answer: (B) the time of birth

Explanation

The testes initially develop in the abdominal cavity of the male fetus. During embryonic and fetal development, under the influence of hormones such as testosterone, the testes gradually migrate downward. This migration occurs through the inguinal canal and into the scrotal sac, typically beginning around the 28th week of gestation and completing by the 36th week. Consequently, in normal, full-term male infants, the testes have fully descended into the scrotum by the time of birth.

62Science and Technology
Which of the following are branches of applied biology ? a. Microbiology b. Agriculture c. Pharmacy d. Medical Science
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Answer: (B) Only b, c and d

Explanation

Biology is broadly categorized into pure biology and applied biology. Pure biology deals with the fundamental study of living organisms to understand basic life processes. This includes core branches such as botany, zoology, and microbiology, which focus on theoretical knowledge of plant, animal, and microbial systems.

Applied biology involves the practical application of this biological knowledge to solve real-world challenges and develop useful products for human welfare. Agriculture applies plant and soil biology to cultivate crops and raise livestock. Pharmacy uses biological insights into how organisms react to chemical compounds to formulate, prepare, and standardize medications. Medical science applies anatomical, physiological, and pathological principles to diagnose, treat, and prevent human illnesses. Thus, agriculture, pharmacy, and medical science are branches of applied biology.

63Science and Technology
Faraday's Laws of electrolysis are concerned with
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Answer: (A) Equivalent weight

Explanation

Faraday's second law of electrolysis states that when the same quantity of electricity is passed through several electrolytes, the masses of the substances liberated or deposited at the electrodes are directly proportional to their chemical equivalent weights. This relationship is mathematically represented as W ∝ E, where W represents the mass of the substance and E represents its chemical equivalent weight (defined as atomic weight divided by valency). This law establishes a direct relationship between the quantity of electricity used and the equivalent weight of the substance involved in the electrochemical reaction.

64Science and Technology
If nuclides have different atomic numbers and different atomic masses but the same number of neutrons, then they are known as
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Answer: (C) Isotones

Explanation

Isotones are nuclides that possess the same number of neutrons but have different atomic numbers and different mass numbers. The number of neutrons in a nucleus is determined by the formula N = A - Z, where N is the neutron number, A is the mass number, and Z is the atomic number. When both Z and A vary in such a way that the difference A - Z remains constant, the nuclides are classified as isotones. Since they have different atomic numbers, they belong to different chemical elements.

65Science and Technology
A unit of Van der Waals constant (a) is
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Answer: (D) kPa dm⁶ mol⁻²

Explanation

The Van der Waals equation of state for real gases is:

(P + an²/V²)(V - nb) = nRT

In this equation, the correction term for intermolecular forces is an²/V², which represents correction to pressure and must have the same units as pressure (P).

Therefore, we can write the relationship for the units as:

Unit of an²/V² = Unit of P

Rearranging this relationship gives:

Unit of a = (Unit of P × Unit of V²) / Unit of n²

Substituting the standard units of pressure in kilopascals (kPa), volume in decimeters cubed (dm³), and amount of substance in moles (mol):

Unit of a = (kPa × (dm³)²)/mol² = kPa dm⁶ mol⁻²

66Science and Technology
The prefix for the multiple 10¹⁸ is
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Answer: (C) exa

Explanation

The SI prefix exa represents the multiplier 10¹⁸, denoted by the capital letter E. It was adopted in 1975 under the International System of Units to signify a scale of one quintillion.

67Science and Technology
The pH at which the charge on protein colloid is reversed is called
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Answer: (D) Isoelectric Point

Explanation

The isoelectric point is the specific pH at which a protein colloid carries no net electrical charge, existing as a neutral zwitterion. When the pH of the medium is below this point, the protein gains protons and becomes positively charged. Conversely, when the pH is above this point, the protein loses protons and carries a net negative charge. The transition through this pH value represents the reversal of the net electrical charge on the protein colloid.

68Science and Technology
The Le Chatelier's principle suggests that ______ are required to drive the reaction to the right and thus form NH₃. N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ + Heat
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Answer: (A) high pressure and low temperature

Explanation

According to Le Chatelier's principle, if a system at equilibrium is subjected to a change in temperature, pressure, or concentration, the system will adjust to counteract that change and re-establish equilibrium.

For the exothermic reaction N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ + Heat, heat is released in the forward direction. Decreasing the temperature (low temperature) shifts the equilibrium to the right to produce more heat, thereby favoring the formation of ammonia.

Additionally, the reactant side has 4 moles of gas (1 mole of N₂ and 3 moles of H₂), whereas the product side has only 2 moles of gas (2 moles of NH₃). Increasing the pressure (high pressure) shifts the equilibrium toward the side with fewer gas molecules to reduce the pressure, which drives the reaction to the right to form more ammonia.

69Polity and Governance
Match the pairs : | Act | Provision | |---|---| | a. Indian Councils Act, 1909 | I. The Crown no longer the source of authority | | b. Govt. of India Act, 1919 | II. Dyarchy at the Centre | | c. Govt. of India Act, 1935 | III. First time, separate representation to the Muslim community | | d. Indian Independence Act, 1947 | IV. Dyarchy in the Provinces | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) III IV II I

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act, 1909 is matched with III because it introduced separate electorates for Muslims for the first time in India.

The Government of India Act, 1919 is matched with IV because it introduced the system of dyarchy, or dual rule, in the provincial executive.

The Government of India Act, 1935 is matched with II as it provided for the establishment of dyarchy at the central level.

The Indian Independence Act, 1947 is matched with I as it ended British rule and declared India an independent sovereign nation, meaning the British Crown was no longer the source of authority.

70Polity and Governance
Consider the statements regarding the proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 : a. It automatically comes to an end on the expiry of one month from its issue, unless it is approved by a resolution of the Lok Sabha before the expiry of that period. b. The President is empowered to proclaim Emergency only if the Council of Ministers recommends to him in writing that such a proclamation should be issued.
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Answer: (B) Statement ‘b’ is correct

Explanation

Under Article 352 of the Indian Constitution, the President can issue a proclamation of National Emergency only after receiving a written recommendation to this effect from the Union Cabinet, which consists of the Prime Minister and other Ministers of cabinet rank. This safeguard was introduced by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. In contrast, statement 'a' is incorrect because the proclamation of emergency must be approved by a resolution of both Houses of Parliament (the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha) within one month from the date of its issue, rather than by the Lok Sabha alone.

71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about ‘Judicial Review’ is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Judicial Review cannot be applied in respect of laws incorporated in the 9th Schedule of the Constitution.

Explanation

In the landmark judgment of I.R. Coelho v. State of Tamil Nadu (2007), a nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court ruled that there can be no blanket immunity from judicial review for laws inserted in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution. The Court held that any law placed in the Ninth Schedule after April 24, 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) is open to judicial review and can be challenged if it violates the basic structure of the Constitution or destroys any of the fundamental rights guaranteed under Articles 14, 19, and 21. Consequently, judicial review is applicable to laws incorporated in the Ninth Schedule.

72Polity and Governance
The reference to National Capital Territory of Delhi is found in
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Answer: (B) Article 239 AA

Explanation

Article 239AA of the Constitution of India contains special provisions with respect to Delhi. It was inserted by the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, and came into effect on 1 February 1992. Under clause 1 of this article, the Union Territory of Delhi was officially designated as the National Capital Territory of Delhi, and its administrator appointed under Article 239 was designated as the Lieutenant Governor. The article also provides for the establishment of a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for the territory.

73Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the 108th Constitutional Amendment Bill : a. It related to reservation of one-third seats in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies for women. b. Rajya Sabha passed the Bill on 9th March, 2010. c. Lok Sabha never voted on the Bill. d. It was lapsed after the dissolution of the 15th Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d

Explanation

The 108th Constitutional Amendment Bill, commonly referred to as the Women's Reservation Bill, aimed to reserve one-third (33%) of all seats in the Lok Sabha and in all State Legislative Assemblies for women.

The Bill was introduced in the Rajya Sabha and was passed by the Upper House on 9th March 2010.

After being passed in the Rajya Sabha, the Bill was sent to the Lok Sabha. However, due to a lack of political consensus, the Lok Sabha never voted on the Bill during its tenure.

Under Article 107(5) of the Constitution of India, a Bill that has been passed by the Rajya Sabha but remains pending in the Lok Sabha lapses upon the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Consequently, the 108th Constitutional Amendment Bill lapsed with the dissolution of the 15th Lok Sabha in 2014.

74Polity and Governance
Which one of the following duties have been prescribed for the citizens ? a. To organize village panchayats b. To minimize inequalities in income c. To defend the country d. To render military service e. To secure uniform civil code f. To vote in public elections
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Answer: (D) Only c

Explanation

Article 51A of the Constitution of India prescribes the Fundamental Duties of every citizen of India. Under Article 51A(d), it is the duty of every citizen to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so. These duties were incorporated into the Constitution via Part IVA by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.

75Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : a. If a person is elected to both the Houses of Parliament, he must intimate within 10 days in which House he desires to serve, otherwise both seats become vacant. b. If a person is elected to two seats in a House he should exercise his option for one, otherwise both seats become vacant. c. If a sitting member of one House is also elected to the other House, his seat in the first House becomes vacant. Which of the above statements is/are not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Only a

Explanation

Statement a is incorrect because under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, if a person is elected simultaneously to both Houses of Parliament and fails to intimate within 10 days in which House they wish to serve, only their seat in the Rajya Sabha becomes vacant. Their seat in the Lok Sabha remains intact, rather than both seats becoming vacant.

76Polity and Governance
The Chairman of National Human Rights Commission is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee of certain persons. Who among the following is/are not part of that committee ? a. The Prime Minister b. The Home Minister c. Leader of the Opposition party in the Lok Sabha d. Leader of the Opposition party in the Rajya Sabha e. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha f. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
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Answer: (D) Only f

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The committee responsible for recommending the appointment of the Chairperson and members of the National Human Rights Commission consists of six members. These members are the Prime Minister, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Leaders of the Opposition in both Houses of Parliament, and the Union Minister of Home Affairs. While the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is included in this committee, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is not a member.

77Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : a. According to Article 262 of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may by law provide for the adjudication of interstate river water dispute. b. Article 262 empowers the President of India to set up an interstate river water dispute tribunal. Select the incorrect statement/s :
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Answer: (C) Only b

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Article 262 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament, rather than the President of India, to provide by law for the adjudication of interstate river water disputes. Under this constitutional provision, the Parliament enacted the Inter-State River Water Disputes Act, 1956, which grants the Central Government the authority to constitute a tribunal for the adjudication of such disputes. Therefore, statement b is incorrect.

78Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is correct ?
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Answer: (B) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his post.

Explanation

Under Article 156 of the Constitution of India, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. The Constitution does not prescribe any specific grounds or structured procedure, such as impeachment, for the removal of a Governor. The President can remove the Governor from office at any time, making the process entirely dependent on presidential pleasure with no constitutional procedure detailed for such removal.

79Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Zonal Councils are not correct ? a. The Zonal Councils are the constitutional bodies. b. They are established by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956. c. Home Minister of the Central Government is the Chairman of Zonal Councils. d. India is divided into seven zones and provided a Zonal Council for each zone.
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Answer: (B) Only a and d

Explanation

Zonal Councils are statutory bodies created by the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, meaning they are not constitutional bodies. Additionally, the States Reorganisation Act of 1956 divided India into five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western, and Southern) and created five Zonal Councils, not seven. A separate statutory body, the North-Eastern Council, was set up later under the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971 to address the specific problems of the north-eastern states.

80Polity and Governance
Which of the following are not the voluntary provisions of the 73rd Amendment Act on Panchayati Raj ? a. Direct elections to all seats in Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district level. b. Granting financial powers to the Panchayats that is authorising them to levy, collect and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls and fees. c. 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting elections to panchayats. d. Giving representation to Members of the Parliament and the State Legislature in the Panchayats at different levels falling within their constituencies.
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Answer: (A) Only a and c

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 distinguishes between compulsory (obligatory) provisions and voluntary (discretionary) provisions. Compulsory provisions are legally binding on all state governments to implement in their respective Panchayati Raj acts, whereas voluntary provisions are left to the discretion of individual state legislatures.

Direct elections to all seats in Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels, as well as establishing 21 years as the minimum age for contesting Panchayat elections, are mandatory compulsory provisions. Since these are compulsory, they do not fall under the category of voluntary provisions.

Conversely, granting financial powers to Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate taxes, duties, tolls, and fees, along with providing representation to Members of Parliament and State Legislatures in Panchayats, are voluntary provisions that states may or may not choose to adopt.

81Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about International Court of Justice is correct ?
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Answer: (B) All questions before it are decided by a majority of judges present.

Explanation

According to Article 55 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice, all questions brought before the Court are decided by a majority of the judges who are present. In the event of an equality of votes among the participating judges, the President of the Court, or the judge who acts in their place, has a casting vote to resolve the matter.

82History
Which of the following statements is correct about the medal tally at the 17th Asiad Games ? a. Host country Japan secured second position. b. South Korea topped the medal tally. c. India secured fifth position with total 59 medals.
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The 17th Asian Games, held in Incheon, South Korea in 2014, saw China top the medal tally with 151 gold, 109 silver, and 85 bronze medals, for a total of 345. The host country, South Korea, finished in second position with 79 gold medals, while Japan secured third place. India finished in eighth position with a total of 57 medals, including 11 gold, 10 silver, and 36 bronze.

83Geography
Match the pairs : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | a. Land of Cakes | I. Thailand | | b. Land of Canals | II. Netherlands | | c. Land of Thousand Lakes | III. Finland | | d. Land of White Elephants | IV. Scotland | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV II III I

Explanation

Scotland is known as the Land of Cakes because of its famous traditional oatmeal cakes.

The Netherlands is called the Land of Canals due to its extensive historic canal network.

Finland is referred to as the Land of Thousand Lakes because it is home to around 188,000 lakes.

Thailand is designated as the Land of White Elephants because these animals are historically sacred symbols of royal power in Thai culture.

84Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the 'Commonwealth': a. Officially formed in 1931. b. It has no Constitution or Charter. c. The newest member country is Rwanda. d. The most recent departure country was the Maldives.
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Answer: (C) a, b, c and d are correct

Explanation

The Statute of Westminster 1931 formally established the legislative independence of the self-governing Dominions, marking the official formation of the British Commonwealth.

The Commonwealth operates as a voluntary association governed by non-binding declarations, such as the Singapore Declaration of 1971 and the Harare Declaration of 1991, rather than a formal or legally binding constitution.

Rwanda joined the organization in November 2009, making it the newest member as of 2017.

The Maldives formally withdrew from the association in October 2016, making it the most recent country to depart before 2017.

85Art and Culture
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) India's first two sites inscribed on the list were Red Fort complex and Khajuraho.

Explanation

India's first sites inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List were Agra Fort, Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, and Taj Mahal, which were designated in 1983 during the seventh session of the World Heritage Committee. The Khajuraho Group of Monuments was inscribed later in 1986, while the Red Fort Complex in Delhi was inscribed in 2007.

86Geography
Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) Tehri Dam is the highest dam in the world.

Explanation

Tehri Dam, constructed on the Bhagirathi River in Uttarakhand, is the tallest dam in India with a height of 260.5 meters. It is not the highest dam in the world. Multiple other dams exceed its height, such as the Jinping-I Dam in China at 305 meters and the Nurek Dam in Tajikistan at 300 meters.

87Geography
Distancewise, which is the longest train in India ?
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Answer: (B) Vivek Express - Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari

Explanation

The Dibrugarh to Kanyakumari Vivek Express (Train No. 22503 / 22504) is the longest train route in India by both distance and travel time. Introduced to commemorate the 150th birth anniversary of Swami Vivekananda, this superfast express train covers a distance of approximately 4189 kilometers. It starts from Dibrugarh in Assam and terminates at Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, traversing through eight Indian states with over 55 halts during its journey of about 74 hours and 35 minutes.

88Art and Culture
Which one of the following pairs is mismatched ?
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Answer: (C) Kuchipudi - Mrinalini Sarabhai

Explanation

Mrinalini Sarabhai was a legendary Indian classical dancer, choreographer, and instructor. She is celebrated worldwide for her pioneering contributions to Bharatanatyam and Kathakali, having founded the renowned Darpana Academy of Performing Arts in Ahmedabad to promote these traditional art forms. She is not an exponent of Kuchipudi, making this pair mismatched.

89Art and Culture
In which State of India, is the 'Sarhool festival' celebrated ?
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Answer: (C) Jharkhand

Explanation

The Sarhul festival is the tribal New Year festival celebrated primarily in the state of Jharkhand. It marks the arrival of the spring season and is celebrated during the Hindu month of Chaitra. The festival is observed with great enthusiasm by major tribal communities in the region, such as the Oraon, Munda, and Ho. The word Sarhul literally translates to the worship of trees, particularly the Sal tree, which is considered highly sacred as the abode of the protector deity Sarna Maa. During the celebrations, tribal people perform traditional rituals, offer Sal flowers to deities, and participate in community dances and songs to show gratitude to nature.

90Art and Culture
Match the pairs : | Writer | Books | |---|---| | a. Munawwar Rana | I. Satta Grahan | | b. Jaswinder | II. Uchat | | c. Asha Mishra | III. Agarbatti | | d. Nanda Hangkhim | IV. Shahadaba | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV III II I

Explanation

The correct matches are based on the recipients of the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 in their respective languages:

a. Munawwar Rana received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 for his Urdu poetry collection Shahadaba.

b. Jaswinder was awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 for his Punjabi ghazal collection Agarbatti.

c. Asha Mishra received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 for her Maithili novel Uchat.

d. Nanda Hangkhim won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2014 for his Nepali short story collection Satta Grahan.

91Geography
Arrange the biggest countries (in area) in ascending order : a. Brazil b. India c. China d. Argentina e. Russia
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Answer: (A) d, b, a, c, e

Explanation

The given countries and their respective total land areas are Argentina with 2.78 million square kilometers, India with 3.29 million square kilometers, Brazil with 8.51 million square kilometers, China with 9.60 million square kilometers, and Russia with 17.10 million square kilometers. Arranging these values in ascending order (smallest to largest) yields the sequence of Argentina, India, Brazil, China, and Russia. This translates to the order d, b, a, c, e.

92Geography
Name the place described below : a. It is an old capital of Tanzania. b. It is the main city of business. c. It is the main centre of transport. d. It is also a natural port.
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Answer: (C) Dares Salaam

Explanation

Dar es Salaam served as the capital of Tanzania from its independence until 1974, when the capital designation was officially moved to Dodoma. Despite this administrative change, it remains the preeminent commercial and financial hub of the country, as well as its main transport node with major road, rail, and aviation connections. The city is built around a highly sheltered, deep natural harbor on the Indian Ocean, making it one of the most important and busiest maritime ports in East Africa.

93Science and Technology
Match the pairs about Armed Forces Exercises during 2016 : | Exercise | Between | |---|---| | a. Shakti | I. India and Sri Lanka | | b. Indra | II. India and U.S.A | | c. Yudh Abhyas | III. India and Russia | | d. Mitra Shakti | IV. India and France | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV III II I

Explanation

Exercise Shakti is a bilateral army exercise conducted between the armed forces of India and France to enhance defense cooperation and counter-terrorism capabilities.

Exercise Indra is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Russia to promote defense coordination and mutual security interests.

Exercise Yudh Abhyas is a bilateral military training exercise conducted regularly between the armies of India and the United States of America.

Exercise Mitra Shakti is a joint military exercise conducted between India and Sri Lanka to build strong bilateral relations and tactical interoperability.

94Economy
Which institution recommended an ‘Islamic Window’ in Conventional Banks ?
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Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) proposed the opening of an Islamic window in conventional banks to gradually introduce Sharia-compliant, interest-free banking in India. This recommendation was aimed at promoting financial inclusion by attracting individuals who do not participate in the conventional banking system due to religious prohibitions against interest. The proposal also aimed to tap into potential institutional and infrastructure investments from foreign countries, particularly the Gulf region.

95Polity and Governance
The eminent journalist Dilip Padgaonkar passed away recently. He headed the committee appointed by the Central Government in 2010. What was the purpose of that committee ?
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Answer: (B) To design a roadmap for peace in J | K.

Explanation

The eminent journalist Dilip Padgaonkar, who passed away in November 2016, was appointed by the Central Government in October 2010 to head a three-member group of interlocutors for Jammu and Kashmir. The committee, which also included academician Radha Kumar and former Central Information Commissioner M.M. Ansari, was tasked with conducting a sustained dialogue with all sections of the public, political parties, and civil society groups in Jammu and Kashmir. The primary goal of this group was to address the grievances of the local population and design a comprehensive roadmap for peace and stability in the region. The group submitted its final report, outlining recommendations for devolution of powers and confidence-building measures, to the Union Home Ministry in 2011.

96Science and Technology
GSAT-7, the first Navy user satellite was launched on
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Answer: (A) August 2013

Explanation

GSAT-7, also known as Rukmini, is an advanced multi-band military communication satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It was successfully launched on August 30, 2013, using an Ariane 5 ECA rocket from Kourou, French Guiana. Designed primarily to serve the Indian Navy as its first dedicated military communication satellite, it facilitates secure, real-time voice, data, and video transmission between naval warships, submarines, aircraft, and land-based maritime operation centres across the Indian Ocean Region.

97History
Who is the author of the famous book 'One Life is Not Enough' ?
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Answer: (C) K. Natwar Singh

Explanation

The book One Life is Not Enough is the autobiography of former Indian diplomat and politician Kunwar Natwar Singh (K. Natwar Singh). Published in 2014, the memoir provides a candid account of his thirty-one-year career in the Indian Foreign Service (IFS) followed by his journey in politics, which culminated in his service as the Union Minister of External Affairs. The book offers an insider's perspective on modern Indian diplomacy, his close associations with key political figures of the Nehru-Gandhi family, and his eventual exit from the cabinet in the wake of the Volcker Report controversy.

98Polity and Governance
Saina Nehwal has been awarded the following in 2016 :
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Answer: (C) Padmabhushan Award

Explanation

In 2016, the Government of India conferred the Padma Bhushan, the nation's third-highest civilian award, upon Saina Nehwal to recognize her exceptional achievements in badminton. She had previously been honored with the Arjuna Award in 2009, the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 2010, and the Padma Shri in 2010.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1A
  2. 2A
  3. 3D
  4. 4B
  5. 5A
  6. 6D
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14D
  15. 15C
  16. 16D
  17. 17C
  18. 18B
  19. 19A
  20. 20B
  21. 21C
  22. 22A
  23. 23B
  24. 24B
  25. 25D
  26. 26C
  27. 27B
  28. 28D
  29. 29A
  30. 30D
  31. 31B
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34A
  35. 35B
  36. 36C
  37. 37C
  38. 38B
  39. 39A
  40. 40A
  41. 41C
  42. 42B
  43. 43C
  44. 44A
  45. 45D
  46. 46D
  47. 47B
  48. 48A
  49. 49A
  50. 50A
  51. 51C
  52. 52B
  53. 53D
  54. 54D
  55. 55A
  56. 56B
  57. 57B
  58. 58D
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62B
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66C
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71C
  72. 72B
  73. 73D
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76D
  77. 77C
  78. 78B
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81B
  82. 82D
  83. 83A
  84. 84C
  85. 85B
  86. 86A
  87. 87B
  88. 88C
  89. 89C
  90. 90C
  91. 91A
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94B
  95. 95B
  96. 96A
  97. 97C
  98. 98C

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