MPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Erdkunde is matched with Carl Ritter, who wrote this monumental nineteen-volume geographical treatise.

Anthropo-Geographie is matched with Friedrich Ratzel, who pioneered the field of human geography in this foundational work.

Geografia Humana is matched with Jean Brunhes, a French geographer who systematized human geography through his influential book of a similar title.

Cosmos is matched with Alexander von Humboldt, who compiled his comprehensive physical description of the universe in this legendary multi-volume work.

Explanation

The Earth completes one full rotation of 360 degrees on its axis in 24 hours, which makes statement A correct.

To find the time required to cross 1 degree of longitude, the relation is: Time per degree = Total minutes in a day ÷ Total degrees of rotation

Substituting the values: Total minutes in a day = 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes Time per degree = 1440 ÷ 360 = 4 minutes

This shows that the Earth requires exactly 4 minutes to rotate through 1 degree of longitude, making statement B correct.

Explanation

Residual mountains are formed by the action of exogenic or external forces operating on the surface of the Earth, rather than internal tectonic activities. These mountains are created through the continuous process of denudation, where agents of erosion and weathering such as running water, wind, and glaciers gradually wear down an existing elevated landmass. The more resistant and harder rock structures withstand this erosion and remain standing as elevated remnants or residual landforms, which is why they are classified as mountains of denudation.

Explanation

The planetary wind systems are distributed globally in distinct latitudinal zones from the equator towards the poles. Nearest to the equator, within the tropics, are the Trade winds, which blow from the subtropical high-pressure belts toward the equatorial low-pressure doldrums. Moving poleward into the mid-latitudes, the Westerlies prevail, blowing from the subtropical high-pressure belts towards the subpolar low-pressure belts. Furthest from the equator, in the high-latitude polar regions, the Polar winds blow from the polar high-pressure zones toward the subpolar low-pressure belts.

Explanation

The equatorial region, despite having high temperatures, experiences persistent cloud cover, high humidity, and heavy daily convectional rainfall. The massive influx of freshwater from precipitation significantly exceeds the rate of evaporation in this zone. This constant dilution by rainwater, coupled with cloudiness that reduces direct solar insolation and prevents extreme evaporation, results in a relatively lower surface salinity of about 34 to 35 parts per thousand in equatorial waters compared to the hot, dry subtropics where salinity is much higher. Thus, the heavy rainfall and humid, cloudy conditions directly explain why oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region.

Explanation

Corrosion is the chemical or electrochemical degradation and destruction of metals and alloys as a result of their reaction with the surrounding environment. While it involves chemical reactions, it specifically pertains to the deterioration of manufactured metals rather than the natural in-situ decomposition and disintegration of geological rock-forming minerals on the surface of the Earth.

Explanation

Statement 'A' is incorrect because the weight of water vapour per unit volume of air at a given temperature is defined as absolute humidity, which is typically measured in grams per cubic meter.

Statement 'B' is incorrect because the ratio of actual water vapour content in the air to its maximum water vapour capacity at a given temperature defines relative humidity, which is expressed as a percentage. Specific humidity, on the other hand, refers to the mass of water vapour per unit mass of moist air.

Explanation

Over large oceanic surfaces, temperatures vary gradually and uniformly because water has a homogeneous surface and a high specific heat capacity. Consequently, the temperature distribution is primarily determined by latitude (solar insolation), which causes isotherms to run almost parallel to one another and parallel to the lines of latitude.

Unlike landmasses, which feature diverse topography such as mountain ranges, valleys, and plateaus that distort temperatures at different altitudes, oceanic surfaces are at sea level. Because maritime locations are free from the effects of elevation, they do not experience altitudinal temperature drops or localized terrain variations. This lack of relief prevents the distortion of isotherms, which directly explains why isotherms remain parallel on oceanic surfaces.

Explanation

Wide continental shelves are shallow coastal areas, generally less than 200 meters deep, allowing sunlight to penetrate easily to the seabed. This abundant sunlight, combined with nutrients carried from the land by rivers, fosters the growth of microscopic plants called phytoplankton. Since phytoplankton forms the foundation of the marine food web, wide continental shelves provide highly productive habitats that support massive populations of fish, making them the most significant fishing grounds globally.

The mixing of warm and cold ocean currents creates optimal conditions for marine life. When these currents meet, they cause the upwelling of nutrient-rich waters from the deep ocean to the surface. This process supplies a steady flow of nutrients that promotes rapid plankton growth. Because plankton is the primary food source for fish, areas of mixing currents attract immense schools of fish, creating highly fertile fishing zones.

Explanation

Developing countries typically exhibit high birth rates, which leads to a large proportion of children and infants at the bottom of the age spectrum, creating a wide base. At the same time, relatively lower life expectancy and higher mortality rates in older age groups mean that fewer people survive to old age, resulting in a narrow top. This expansive type of population pyramid is characteristic of populations that are growing rapidly.

Explanation

India lies entirely in the Northern Hemisphere, with its mainland extending latitudinally between 8°4' N and 37°6' N, meaning no part of its land area is situated in the Southern Hemisphere.

The north-to-south extension of India is approximately 3,214 km, which is far less than 7,500 km. The figure of approximately 7,516.6 km actually represents the total length of India's coastline, including the mainland and the island groups of Andaman and Nicobar and Lakshadweep.

Explanation

Statement A is correct because Himalayan rivers exhibit antecedent drainage. These rivers existed before the uplift of the mountains and carved deep gorges, crossing multiple mountain ranges including the Greater Himalayas, Lesser Himalayas, and the Shivalik Hills, before finally emerging into the northern plains of India.

Statement B is incorrect because flowing through rift valleys created by faulting is not a general characteristic of Peninsular rivers. While the Narmada and Tapi rivers flow through fault-guided rift valleys, the vast majority of major Peninsular rivers, including the Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, and Mahanadi, flow through broad, shallow, graded valleys across the plateau before draining eastward into the Bay of Bengal.

Explanation

Orographic rainfall occurs when moisture-laden air is forced to rise over a physical barrier like a mountain range. As the air ascends the windward side of the mountain, it cools adiabatically, leading to condensation, cloud formation, and heavy precipitation, which creates the highly rain-fed area. After crossing the mountain peak, the air descends along the leeward side, warming adiabatically and increasing its capacity to hold moisture. This prevents condensation and results in extremely low precipitation, creating a dry region known as the rain shadow area.

Explanation

The Coastal Plains region is characterized by extensive coastlines, backwaters, and fertile alluvial soils that make it highly suitable for multiple economic and recreational activities. The presence of numerous lagoons, canals, and navigable rivers facilitates cost-effective water transport and inland navigation. The warm, humid maritime climate combined with high rainfall is perfect for the cultivation of plantation crops, particularly coconut, which thrives in sandy coastal soils. Additionally, the wide continental shelf along the coast supports a rich marine ecosystem, making the region highly favorable for commercial and subsistence fishing. The scenic beauty of sandy beaches, palm-fringed shores, and serene backwaters also serves as a major attraction for national and international tourists.

Explanation

The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) documents categorize pollutants according to their primary medium of distribution and impact.

Nitrogen oxides are major gaseous pollutants released primarily through vehicular emissions and industrial combustion processes, making Air their primary medium.

Petroleum hydrocarbons are common organic contaminants arising from oil spills, drilling activities, and shipping, which directly impact the marine environment, making the Sea their primary medium.

Fluorides enter the environment through the weathering of fluoride-bearing rocks or industrial discharges, commonly contaminating ground and surface water sources, making Fresh water their primary medium.

Mycotoxins are toxic secondary metabolites produced by certain fungi that contaminate agricultural crops during harvest or storage, making Food the primary medium of exposure for humans and animals.

This corresponds to the match of a to III, b to I, c to IV, and d to II.

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly designated 16th September as the International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer, also known as World Ozone Day, in 1994. This date commemorates the signing of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer, which took place on 16th September 1987. The Montreal Protocol is a highly successful global treaty designed to protect the stratospheric ozone layer by gradually phasing out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are synthetic, entirely man-made industrial compounds that do not have any natural sources in the environment. Developed in the 20th century, they were widely utilized as refrigerants, aerosol propellants, solvents, and blowing agents for foam manufacturing. Because no natural biological, chemical, or geological processes produce these compounds, their presence in the atmosphere is solely a result of human industrial activity.

Explanation

An ecotone is a transitional zone where two distinct biological communities or ecosystems meet and integrate. It represents a boundary of tension and contains species from both adjacent ecosystems, as well as unique species adapted specifically to the transition zone. Common examples of ecotones include mangroves (the transition between marine and terrestrial ecosystems), estuaries (the transition between freshwater and saltwater), and grasslands (the transition between forests and deserts). Due to the overlapping of conditions from both neighboring communities, ecotones often exhibit high species richness and population density, a phenomenon known as the edge effect.

Explanation

Human-induced climate change, as explained by the Early Anthropocene Hypothesis, began thousands of years before the Industrial Revolution due to early agricultural expansion and land-use modifications.

Deforestation starting approximately 8000 years ago to clear land for farming significantly reduced global forest cover, thereby weakening carbon sinks and releasing substantial amounts of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.

The widespread use of fire for clearing vegetation and subsequent overgrazing by domesticated animals degraded land, altered the Earth's surface albedo, and directly released greenhouse gases.

Wet paddy rice cultivation, which expanded significantly starting around 5000 years ago, created anaerobic soil conditions that facilitated methane production by methanogenic microbes, leading to a steady rise in atmospheric methane levels.

The Industrial Revolution beginning in the late 18th century exponentially accelerated these human impacts through the large-scale combustion of fossil fuels, rapid industrialization, and massive land clearing. Together, these activities represent the cumulative historical trajectory of human influence on the global climate system.

Explanation

The Bokaro Steel Plant was established in Bokaro, Jharkhand, in collaboration with the Soviet Union. It was incorporated in 1964, which falls during the Third Five Year Plan of India (1961 to 1966), making it the only plant among the choices that was not started during the Second Five Year Plan.

Explanation

An increase in credit creation by commercial banks is a demand-side factor of inflation. When banks extend more loans and credit, the total money supply circulating in the economy increases. This raises the purchasing power and disposable income of consumers and businesses, directly boosting the aggregate demand for goods and services. This excess demand pulls up prices, leading to demand-pull inflation, making it a demand-side driver rather than a supply-side factor.

Explanation

An increase in government expenditure is a primary fiscal tool used to alleviate poverty, as it is directed toward public infrastructure, social security, welfare schemes, education, and employment generation. Deficit financing is an economic mechanism used by the government to bridge the gap between revenue and expenditure to fund these developmental activities and boost economic growth. Both of these are remedial policy measures to counter poverty rather than factors that cause it.

Explanation

Absolute poverty is defined as the condition where individuals or households lack the minimum level of income or resources necessary to meet their basic survival needs, such as food, clean drinking water, sanitation, shelter, basic healthcare, and education. It is measured against a fixed standard or poverty line that remains consistent over time, representing the absolute minimum requirement to sustain human life.

Explanation

The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013, legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System. This covers nearly two-thirds of India's total population.

Under the provisions of the Act, eligible beneficiaries are entitled to receive 5 kg of foodgrains per person per month at highly subsidized prices of ₹ 3 per kg for rice, ₹ 2 per kg for wheat, and ₹ 1 per kg for coarse grains. The second statement incorrectly associates coarse cereals with ₹ 2 per kg and wheat with ₹ 1 per kg.

Explanation

According to the final population data of the Census of India 2011, the country's population was recorded at approximately 1210.85 million (121.08 crore). Out of the total estimated world population of around 6.9 billion in 2011, India's population constituted 17.5% of the global total. This placed India as the second most populous nation in the world, occupying only 2.4% of the world's land area while supporting more than one-sixth of the global population.

Explanation

The first comprehensive National Population Policy of India was announced in April 1976 under the leadership of Dr. Karan Singh, the then Minister of Health and Family Planning. Designed to address rapid population growth, this landmark policy introduced several critical demographic measures. Among these measures was the raising of the legal minimum age of marriage to 18 years for females and 21 years for males, which was subsequently enacted into law through the Child Marriage Restraint (Amendment) Act of 1978.

Explanation

Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana, Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana, and the National Social Assistance Programme are all prominent social security schemes launched by the Government of India to assist vulnerable and unorganized populations.

Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana was launched in 2007 by the Ministry of Finance to provide death and disability insurance cover to rural landless households.

Rashtriya Swasthya Bima Yojana was launched in 2008 by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to provide health insurance coverage, including cashless hospitalization, to Below Poverty Line families in the unorganized sector.

National Social Assistance Programme was introduced on 15 August 1995 by the Ministry of Rural Development to fulfill the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 41 of the Constitution of India, providing financial assistance in the form of pensions to elderly citizens, widows, and persons with disabilities.

Explanation

Green National Income (GNI) is an index designed to measure sustainable economic growth by adjusting traditional national accounting indicators to reflect environmental factors.

The relation is expressed as: Green Net National Income = Net National Income - Depletion of Natural Resources - Environmental Degradation

To compute GNI, the traditional National Income is adjusted by subtracting both the monetary value of natural resource depletion (such as forest loss, mineral extraction, and water depletion) and the costs associated with environmental degradation (such as pollution, loss of biodiversity, and carbon emissions). Thus, all three factors are essential components in the calculation.

Explanation

The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were eight international development goals established following the Millennium Summit of the United Nations in 2000. All four parameters are core objectives of these goals. Goal 1 aims to eradicate extreme poverty and hunger. Goal 3 is dedicated to promoting gender equality and empowering women. Goal 7 focuses on ensuring environmental sustainability. Goal 8 is designed to develop a global partnership for development. Together, these goals represent a comprehensive framework to address global challenges by targeting social, economic, and environmental aspects of development.

Explanation

The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) implements several key central and centrally sponsored schemes focused on the welfare, nutrition, and safety of women and children. Under the restructuring of central schemes, these initiatives operate under umbrella frameworks designed for holistic development.

The Anganwadi Services Scheme, previously known as the core Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme, delivers a package of six critical services, including supplementary nutrition, pre-school non-formal education, and health check-ups, through a nationwide network of Anganwadi centers.

The Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Scheme (PMMVY) is a maternity benefit program launched to provide direct cash incentives to pregnant and lactating mothers for their first live birth, helping compensate for wage loss and ensuring maternal health.

The National Nutrition Mission, also known as POSHAN Abhiyaan, was launched in 2018 as a multi-ministerial convergence mission aimed at comprehensively addressing malnutrition, stunting, wasting, and anemia among young children, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.

The Child Protection Scheme, formerly the Integrated Child Protection Scheme (ICPS), focuses on building a protective environment for children in difficult circumstances and safeguarding children who are in conflict with the law or in need of care and protection.

Explanation

A successful poverty reduction strategy must balance self-employment and wage employment. Self-employment represents a major form of livelihood in rural areas, where formal wage opportunities are scarce and the economy is largely agrarian and informal. At the same time, relying solely on wage employment creates vulnerability, as workers become completely dependent on their employers for income, leaving them susceptible to exploitation and job insecurity. Integrating both pathways provides diverse income sources, enhances economic resilience, and reduces dependency.

Explanation

The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in the 1997 Human Development Report. While the Human Development Index measures average achievements in a country, the HPI was designed to measure deprivations in the same three basic dimensions of human development: longevity, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. It offered a multidimensional view of poverty, focusing on the proportion of people deprived of these essential capabilities. The HPI remained in use until the 2010 Human Development Report, when it was replaced by the Multidimensional Poverty Index.

Explanation

Census towns are defined by the Census of India as settlements that exhibit urban characteristics—specifically a minimum population of 5,000, a population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometer, and at least 75% of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits—but are not formally notified as statutory towns by state governments. Because they lack statutory status, they continue to be governed by rural local bodies like Gram Panchayats and lack an urban governance structure. Consequently, they are excluded from dedicated urban development funds and municipal programs, leaving them without the requisite urban infrastructure such as planned sanitation, piped water supply, and municipal solid waste management. Their growth is primarily driven by structural economic transformation and workforce diversification rather than being a direct consequence of rapid population growth.

Explanation

The Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012–17) was launched by the Planning Commission of India with the central theme of achieving "Faster, Sustainable, and More Inclusive Growth". It focused on reviving investment to achieve high GDP growth while simultaneously emphasizing social sector initiatives, poverty reduction, and environmental sustainability to ensure that development is equitable and durable over the long term.

Explanation

A geostationary orbit is a circular orbit directly above the Earth's equator at an altitude of approximately 35,786 kilometres, which is commonly rounded to 36,000 km above sea level. In this orbit, the satellite travels at a speed that matches the rotation of the Earth. Consequently, the orbital period of the satellite is exactly equal to one sidereal day, which is approximately 24 hours. Because the orbital period matches the Earth's rotation period, the satellite appears completely stationary at a fixed position in the sky when viewed from the Earth's surface.

Explanation

In Fresnel's biprism experiment, the fringe width is given by the formula β = λD / d. Rearranging this relation to solve for the wavelength of the light source gives λ = βd / D. In this formula, d represents the distance between the two virtual coherent sources, β is the fringe-width, and D is the distance between the slit and the eyepiece of the telescope. Consequently, the determination of the wavelength λ directly depends upon all three of these measurable physical quantities.

Explanation

The lens formula is given by: 1/f = 1/v - 1/u

For a hypermetropic eye, the spectacle lens must create a virtual image of an object placed at the normal near point of a healthy eye, which is u = -25 cm, at the person's actual near point of distinct vision, which is v = -50 cm.

Substituting these values into the lens formula: 1/f = 1/(-50) - 1/(-25) 1/f = -1/50 + 1/25 1/f = (-1 + 2)/50 1/f = 1/50 f = 50 cm

Since the calculated focal length is positive, the person requires a convex lens of focal length 50 cm to correct this vision defect.

Explanation

The relationship between the electromotive force E of a cell, the current I, the external resistance R, and the internal resistance r is given by Ohm's law for a complete circuit:

I = E / (R + r)

Rearranging this formula to solve for the internal resistance r yields:

r = (E / I) - R

Substituting the given values of E = 12 V, I = 1.1 A, and R = 10 Ω into the equation:

r = (12 / 1.1) - 10 r = 10.91 - 10 r = 0.91 Ω

Explanation

The fringe separation or fringe width β in a double-slit interference pattern is given by the formula:

β = λD / d

where λ is the wavelength of light, D is the distance of the screen from the slits, and d is the separation between the two parallel slits.

Substituting the given values into the formula: λ = 500 nm = 500 × 10⁻⁹ m D = 1 m d = 1 mm = 1 × 10⁻³ m

β = (500 × 10⁻⁹ × 1) / (10⁻³) β = 500 × 10⁻⁶ m β = 5 × 10⁻⁴ m β = 0.5 × 10⁻³ m β = 0.5 mm

Explanation

The efficiency η of an engine is defined as the ratio of the work delivered to the heat absorbed from the source:

η = W / Q

Here, the work delivered by the engine is W = 5.4 × 10⁸ J and the heat taken from the source is Q = 3.6 × 10⁹ J.

Substituting these values into the formula:

η = (5.4 × 10⁸) / (3.6 × 10⁹)

η = (5.4 × 10⁸) / (36 × 10⁸)

η = 5.4 / 36 = 0.15

Converting this into a percentage:

η = 0.15 × 100% = 15%

Explanation

Exanthema is a physiological disease in trees, notably citrus, caused by a deficiency of the essential micronutrient copper. Copper is crucial for lignin synthesis, cell wall strength, and various enzymatic processes in plants. When copper is deficient, the structural integrity of the plant tissues is compromised, leading to the formation of gum pockets under the bark. This causes the bark to develop blisters, cracks, and deep longitudinal slits from which gum exudes.

Explanation

Sucrose is a disaccharide composed of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose. In plant cells, the complete aerobic oxidation of one hexose molecule (such as glucose or fructose) via glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation yields a net of 30 ATP molecules according to modern biochemical consensus. Since sucrose contains two hexose units, the complete oxidation of one sucrose molecule yields twice this amount:

30 ATP (from glucose) + 30 ATP (from fructose) = 60 ATP

Explanation

Carolus Linnaeus introduced the binomial system of nomenclature in his publication Species Plantarum in 1753. This system of classification assigns every organism a two-part scientific name, where the first part identifies the genus to which the species belongs and the second part identifies the specific species within that genus.

Explanation

According to the pulsation theory proposed by Sir J.C. Bose in 1923, the ascent of sap in plants is driven by the active pulsatory activity of the living cells in the innermost layer of the cortex, situated just outside the endodermis. He demonstrated using a self-designed electric probe connected to a galvanometer that these living cortical cells undergo rhythmic, alternate expansion and contraction. This continuous pulsation acts as a pump, moving water from cell to cell and pushing it upward into the xylem vessels.

Explanation

The theory of natural selection, proposed by Charles Darwin, states that organisms with traits better suited to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, driving evolutionary change. The mutation theory of evolution, proposed by Hugo de Vries, suggests that evolution occurs through sudden, large, heritable changes called mutations rather than gradual variations. The theory of inheritance of acquired characteristics, proposed by Jean-Baptiste Lamarck, suggests that modifications acquired by an organism during its lifetime due to use or disuse of organs can be transmitted to its offspring, which was an early attempt to explain evolutionary adaptation. Together, these three theories represent key historical and scientific frameworks developed to explain the mechanisms behind the evolution of life.

Explanation

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) and somatotropic hormone (STH, also known as growth hormone) are synthesized and secreted by cells in the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH, also known as vasopressin) is stored in and released into the bloodstream from the posterior lobe of the pituitary gland.

Explanation

The skeletal system serves several critical functions in the human body. It provides protection for vital internal organs, such as the skull shielding the brain and the rib cage safeguarding the heart and lungs. Hematopoiesis, which is the process of blood cell production, occurs within the red bone marrow housed inside certain bones. The system facilitates movement by serving as a structural framework and acting as levers that skeletal muscles pull on to produce motion. Additionally, bones function in mineral storage, acting as a reservoir for essential minerals, particularly calcium and phosphorus, which are stored and released as needed to maintain chemical balance in the body.

Explanation

Gregor Mendel performed his pioneering hybridization experiments on the garden pea plant, scientifically known as Pisum sativum, between 1856 and 1863. He selected pea plants because they possess distinct, easily observable contrasting traits (such as tall versus dwarf height, round versus wrinkled seeds, and yellow versus green seeds), have a short life cycle, produce a large number of offspring, and can easily be self-pollinated or cross-pollinated. Through his systematic studies on these plants, he formulated the fundamental laws of inheritance, including the Law of Dominance, the Law of Segregation, and the Law of Independent Assortment.

Explanation

According to Dobereiner's Law of Triads, when elements are arranged in increasing order of their atomic masses, the atomic mass of the middle element is approximately equal to the arithmetic mean of the atomic masses of the other two elements.

For the triad of alkaline earth metals consisting of Calcium (Ca), M, and Barium (Ba):

Atomic mass of Ca = 40.1 u Atomic mass of Ba = 137.3 u

Mean atomic mass = (40.1 + 137.3) / 2 = 88.7 u

Strontium (Sr) has an atomic mass of 87.6 u, which is closest to this arithmetic mean and shares similar chemical properties with Calcium and Barium. Thus, the element M is Strontium (Sr).

Explanation

Methanol, represented by the chemical formula CH₃OH, is commonly referred to as wood alcohol. It historically acquired this name because it was produced primarily through the destructive distillation of wood. In the Marathi version of the examination question, the term used is काष्ठ अल्कोहोल, which translates directly to wood alcohol, confirming methanol as the correct identification.

Explanation

Chlorination is a highly effective water treatment method where chlorine or chlorine compounds are added to water to destroy pathogens. Chlorine acts as a powerful oxidizing agent that penetrates the cell walls of microorganisms, disrupting their metabolic processes and killing germs such as bacteria, viruses, and parasites. This disinfection process is essential for preventing the transmission of waterborne diseases like cholera, typhoid, and dysentery, making the water safe for consumption.

Explanation

Corrosion is fundamentally an electrochemical or chemical process in which a metal reacts with environmental factors such as oxygen, moisture, carbon dioxide, and various acids to form more stable compounds like metal oxides, hydroxides, or sulfides. This process permanently alters the chemical composition of the metal to produce new chemical substances, which is the defining characteristic of a chemical reaction. Physical changes do not alter the chemical identity of the metal and therefore do not cause corrosion.

Explanation

Natural gas is a naturally occurring fossil fuel formed deep beneath the Earth's surface. It consists primarily of methane, which typically makes up about 70% to 90% of its total volume. Methane is a simple hydrocarbon molecule consisting of one carbon atom and four hydrogen atoms, represented by the chemical formula CH₄.

Explanation

Fats and oils are triglycerides, which are esters formed from glycerol and three fatty acid chains. These compounds belong to a diverse class of naturally occurring organic molecules known as lipids. Lipids are characterized by their hydrophobic nature, making them insoluble in water but highly soluble in non-polar organic solvents. They serve critical biological roles in living organisms, including concentrated long-term energy storage, thermal insulation, and forming the structural components of cell membranes.

Explanation

Under Article 394 of the Constitution of India, several provisions came into force immediately on 26th November 1949, which was the date of adoption of the Constitution. These provisions included those relating to citizenship under Articles 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9, elections under Article 324, and the provisional parliament under temporary and transitional provisions like Articles 379, 380, 388, 391, and 392.

Explanation

In the landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala (1973), a 13-judge constitution bench of the Supreme Court of India propounded the Doctrine of Basic Structure. The Court ruled that while Parliament has wide-ranging powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, these powers are not absolute and cannot be used to alter, destroy, or emasculate its basic structure or essential features.

Explanation

Under Article 66(1) of the Constitution of India, the electoral college for the election of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament. This includes both the elected and the nominated members of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. The assertion that the electoral college consists only of the elected members is incorrect.

Explanation

The Chief Minister of each state in the respective zone acts as the Vice-Chairman of that Zonal Council by rotation, holding the office for a duration of one year at a time. Furthermore, whenever joint meetings of two or more Zonal Councils are convened, they are presided over by the Union Home Minister.

Explanation

The Sixth Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), titled "Local Governance: An Inspiring Journey into the Future", made several comprehensive recommendations to reform and strengthen the local self-governments in India.

The Commission suggested setting up Unified Metropolitan Transport Authorities (UMTAs) in all cities with a population of one million or more to ensure coordinated planning, implementation, and management of urban transport systems. To address grievances and curb corruption, it proposed constituting an independent Local Body Ombudsman to investigate complaints against elected representatives and officials of local bodies.

To ensure strong and stable urban leadership, the ARC recommended the direct election of Mayors by popular mandate, vesting them with chief executive powers. Furthermore, it advocated for establishing integrated District Councils with representatives from both rural and urban areas to function as a unified district government, where the District Collector would serve as the Chief Secretary (or Chief Officer) of the Council to provide administrative leadership, coordination, and secretarial support.

Explanation

Article 38(2), which directs the State to minimise inequalities in income, status, facilities, and opportunities, was inserted into the Constitution by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978. Article 48A, which requires the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife, was added by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. Article 39A, which ensures equal justice and free legal aid to the poor, was also introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. These provisions were not present in the original draft of the Constitution and were incorporated subsequently through these constitutional amendments.

Explanation

Under the constitutional provisions governing the enactment of the budget in India, Parliament has the authority to reduce or abolish a tax, but it cannot increase a tax. Any bill or amendment that proposes the imposition or increase of any tax can only be introduced in Parliament with the prior recommendation of the President of India. Consequently, Parliament cannot unilaterally increase a tax on its own initiative, though it retains the power to decrease or completely eliminate a tax proposed by the government.

Explanation

Zero Hour is an informal device in the Indian parliamentary system that was introduced in 1962. It is a unique Indian innovation and is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure of the House. It represents the time gap starting immediately after the Question Hour and lasting until the regular agenda of the House is taken up. During this period, members of Parliament can raise matters of urgent public importance without any prior notice. Since all four statements accurately describe these features of Zero Hour, they are all correct.

Explanation

Under Article 243M(1) of the Constitution of India, the provisions of Part IX relating to Panchayats are not directly applicable to the Scheduled Areas referred to in Article 244(1), which constitute the Fifth Schedule Areas.

To extend the provisions of Part IX to these regions with specific modifications and exceptions, the Parliament enacted the Provisions of the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, popularly known as the PESA Act, in 1996 under Article 243M(4)(b).

There are ten states that possess designated Fifth Schedule Areas, namely Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Himachal Pradesh, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Odisha, and Rajasthan, making the claim of seven states incorrect.

Explanation

Article 351 of the Constitution of India contains a directive for the development and promotion of the Hindi language. It explicitly mandates that it shall be the duty of the Union to promote the spread of the Hindi language and to develop it so that it may serve as a medium of expression for all the elements of the composite culture of India. It further directs the Union to secure the enrichment of Hindi by assimilating, without interfering with its genius, the forms, style, and expressions used in Hindustani and in the other languages of India specified in the Eighth Schedule.

Explanation

Under Article 76(4) of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the President and receives such remuneration as the President may determine. Because their remuneration is determined dynamically by the President rather than being constitutionally fixed under the Second Schedule, the post of the Attorney General of India is not included among the officials listed in the Second Schedule of the Constitution.

Explanation

Under Article 75 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints Union Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Constitution only requires that a minister who is not a member of either House of Parliament must become a member of either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha within six consecutive months. Since nominated members are full members of Parliament, they are eligible to be appointed as Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers.

Explanation

A democracy is a system of governance where supreme power is vested in the people, who rule either directly or through freely elected representatives.

A republic is a state where supreme power is held by the people and their elected representatives, with an elected or nominated head of state rather than a hereditary monarch.

Statement a is correct because many democratic countries are also republics. In these nations, the head of state is elected by the people or their representatives. Examples include India, the United States, and France.

Statement b is correct because some democratic countries are constitutional monarchies instead of republics. In these nations, a hereditary monarch serves as the head of state, while the governance is carried out by democratically elected representatives. Examples include the United Kingdom, Japan, and Canada.

Explanation

Citizens are full members of the State who owe allegiance to it and enjoy all civil and political rights. In contrast, aliens are citizens of some other state. In India, while friendly aliens enjoy certain civil rights, such as the protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21, they are denied several others, including the fundamental freedoms guaranteed under Article 19. Furthermore, aliens do not possess political rights, such as the right to vote in public elections, the right to contest elections for the Parliament or State Legislatures, or the eligibility to hold public offices. Consequently, only citizens enjoy both all civil rights and all political rights within the State.

Explanation

The correct chronological order of the formation of these states is:

Maharashtra was established on 1 May 1960 through the Bombay Reorganisation Act, which bifurcated the bilingual Bombay State into Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Nagaland was formed as the 16th state of India on 1 December 1963, following the enactment of the State of Nagaland Act, 1962.

Meghalaya was carved out of Assam and gained full statehood on 21 January 1972 under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971.

Mizoram achieved full statehood on 20 February 1987, becoming the 23rd state of India through the State of Mizoram Act, 1986.

This gives the sequence d, b, c, a.

Explanation

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is not the sole regulatory body in the higher education sector in India. The higher education system is governed by several other statutory and professional regulatory bodies established under different Acts of Parliament. These include the All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) for technical and management education, the Bar Council of India (BCI) for legal education, the Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) for pharmacy education, and the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE) for teacher training.

Explanation

As of 2018, India had 1,078,732 registered allopathic doctors. Assuming an active availability of 80%, around 8.63 lakh doctors were available for service. For a population of approximately 1.33 billion, this yielded a doctor-to-population ratio of roughly 1:1541, which represents less than one doctor per thousand population (1:1000).

The benchmark ratio commonly cited and attributed to the World Health Organization (WHO) as a target for national health planning is 1 doctor per 1000 population (1:1000), rather than 3 doctors per 1000 population (3:1000).

Explanation

India's Act East Policy does not involve political or military intervention in other countries to curb insurgency. India's foreign policy is guided by the principles of respect for national sovereignty and non-interference in the internal affairs of other sovereign states. The defense and security aspects of the policy are instead focused on maritime security, humanitarian assistance, disaster relief, capacity building, and joint military exercises to counter transnational challenges, rather than active military intervention in the Asia-Pacific or Indian Ocean Region.

Explanation

The Jnanpith Award is presented annually by the Bharatiya Jnanpith, a private cultural and literary organisation established in 1944 by the Sahu Jain family, making statement a incorrect.

Between its inception in 1965 and 1981, the award recognized a specific, outstanding single work of an author, as stated in statement b.

From 1982 onwards, the selection criteria were revised, and the award has been presented to writers for their overall lifetime contribution to Indian literature, which validates statement c.

The 53rd Jnanpith Award for the year 2017 was indeed conferred upon the legendary Hindi fiction writer Krishna Sobti, confirming statement d.

Explanation

The 15th Finance Commission of India was constituted by the Government of India in November 2017 under Article 280 of the Constitution, with Nand Kishore Singh (N.K. Singh) appointed as its Chairman. N.K. Singh is a senior bureaucrat, economist, and former Member of Parliament. The commission was mandated to make recommendations for fiscal devolution and the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States, as well as among the States, for the period from 2020 to 2026.

Explanation

Under Section 11 of the Mumbai Metropolitan Region Development Authority (MMRDA) Act, 1974, the State Government of Maharashtra appoints the Metropolitan Commissioner, who is typically a senior Indian Administrative Service (IAS) officer of the state cadre. The Government of India has no role in this appointment. Therefore, the statement claiming that the Metropolitan Commissioner is an appointee of the Government of India is false.

Explanation

Dr. Dhirendra Pal Singh has served in several prestigious leadership roles in Indian academia. He was the Chairman of the University Grants Commission from 2018 to 2021, the Director of the National Assessment and Accreditation Council from 2015 to 2017, and the Vice-Chancellor of Banaras Hindu University from 2008 to 2011. While he has been associated with the Indian Institute of Science, Bengaluru, as a member of its Court, he never served as the Director of the institution.

Explanation

The Bharat Ratna Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Amrut Ahar Yojana was launched by the Government of Maharashtra on December 1, 2015. The scheme is designed to address the issues of malnutrition, infant mortality, and low birth weight in the tribal and scheduled areas of the state. Under this welfare scheme, pregnant women and lactating mothers residing in designated tribal areas are provided with one hot, cooked, nutritious, and balanced square meal daily. This nutritious meal is served through local Anganwadi centers to meet the recommended dietary allowance of macro and micro nutrients.

Explanation

Shashi Tharoor wrote An Era of Darkness, a highly acclaimed historical and political non-fiction book examining the devastating impact of British colonial rule on India.

Raghuram Rajan, the former Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, authored I Do What I Do, which compiles his key speeches, essays, and economic commentary during his tenure.

Somini Sengupta wrote The End of Karma, a poignant narrative exploring the struggles, opportunities, and aspirations of India's younger generation.

Vivek Shanbhag is the Kannada novelist behind Ghachar Ghochar, a critically acclaimed book translated into English that dissects the psychological shifts in a family experiencing sudden wealth.

Explanation

The novels Norwegian Wood and Kafka on the Shore are written by the Japanese author Haruki Murakami. The other works, namely A Pale View of Hills, An Artist of the Floating World, and The Remains of the Day, are written by Kazuo Ishiguro, who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2017.

Explanation

The fourth Global Conference on Cyber Space was held in The Hague, Netherlands, on April 16 to 17, 2015. Budapest, Hungary actually hosted the second edition of the conference in 2012. Therefore, statement b is incorrect.

Explanation

World Mental Health Day is observed on 10 October annually to raise awareness about mental health. In 2017, the theme for World Mental Health Day was Mental Health at the Workplace. World Health Day is celebrated on 7 April each year to mark the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization in 1948. The theme for World Health Day in 2017 was Depression: Let's talk. All given statements are correct, meaning none of the statements is incorrect.

Explanation

The Ministry of Tourism, in collaboration with other Central Ministries, State Governments, and stakeholders, organized Paryatan Parv across India from 5th October to 25th October 2017. The primary objective of this nationwide initiative was to draw attention to the benefits of tourism, showcase the diverse cultural heritage of the country, and reinforce the core principle of Tourism for All. The festival was inaugurated at Humayun’s Tomb in New Delhi.

This initiative comprised three major components. First, Dekho Apna Desh aimed to encourage domestic tourists to visit and explore various regions of their own country. Second, Tourism for All focused on hosting public events, exhibitions, and cultural programs across multiple sites to foster public engagement. Third, Tourism and Governance facilitated interactive sessions and workshops with stakeholders to discuss development areas such as skill development, innovation, and rural tourism.

Explanation

BharatNet is a flagship initiative of the Government of India, implemented by Bharat Broadband Network Limited under the Ministry of Communications. Funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund, the project was originally launched in 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network and later rebranded as BharatNet in 2015. Its primary objective is to provide high-speed, affordable broadband connectivity of 100 Mbps to all 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across the nation. By establishing this robust optical fiber network, the initiative aims to bridge the digital divide and enable the delivery of critical e-governance, e-education, e-health, and e-banking services to rural and remote populations.

Explanation

The Sumatibai Sukalikar Udyogini Mahila Sakshamikaran Yojana is a state welfare scheme launched by the Government of Maharashtra under the Maharashtra State Rural Livelihoods Mission. The primary objective of this scheme is to provide interest subvention on bank loans taken by eligible women Self Help Groups. It works in coordination with the central government's National Rural Livelihoods Mission to offer additional interest subsidies, thereby lowering the interest rate burden on women SHGs to promote self-reliance, entrepreneurship, and financial empowerment.

Explanation

Kumaragupta I, who succeeded his father Chandragupta II and ruled the Gupta Empire from approximately 415 to 455 CE, assumed the royal title of Mahendraditya. His extensive gold, silver, and copper coinage frequently bears this title along with others like Shakraditya and Shri-Mahendra. His reign was characterized by peace, prosperity, and cultural progress, during which he also founded the famous Nalanda University.

Explanation

Takshan matches with Carpenter (I) because the carpenter held an esteemed position in the Vedic period, crafting chariots, boats, and houses.

Bhagadugha matches with Collector of taxes (II) as this officer was in charge of collecting the king's share (bhaga) of agricultural produce.

Kshattri matches with Chamberlain (III) who acted as the royal usher or chamberlain responsible for the royal household and security of the king.

Vidatha matches with An assembly in which both men and women participated (IV) because it was the earliest Rig Vedic tribal assembly that allowed active female participation in intellectual and ritual deliberations.

Explanation

The Chalcolithic period in India is characterized by the use of copper and stone. Major regions across India have yielded significant relics from this era, categorized into distinct regional cultures.

In Maharashtra, the Jorwe culture is the most prominent Chalcolithic culture, dating roughly from 1400 BCE to 700 BCE. Key archaeological excavations in the Tapi, Godavari, and Bhima river basins have recovered various tools, pottery, and residential relics. Important sites of this culture include Jorwe, Nevasa, Daimabad, Chandoli, Songaon, Inamgaon, Prakashe, and Nasik, making statement a correct.

In Rajasthan, the Banas or Ahar culture flourished near the Banas River basin from around 2100 BCE to 1500 BCE, with significant archaeological finds at Ahar and Gilund. In Madhya Pradesh, the Kayatha culture (circa 2000 BCE to 1800 BCE) and the Malwa culture (circa 1700 BCE to 1200 BCE) are well-represented by major settlements such as Kayatha, Eran, and Malwa, making statement b correct.

Explanation

The Dasharadnya Yuddha, or the Battle of the Ten Kings, is an ancient historical battle described in Mandala 7 of the Rigveda. The conflict was triggered when King Sudas, the ruler of the powerful Bharata tribe, dismissed the renowned sage Vishwamitra from his position as the royal chief priest and replaced him with the sage Vashistha.

Seeking retribution for this insult, Vishwamitra assembled and guided a grand confederacy of ten prominent clans to launch a military campaign against King Sudas. The battle took place on the banks of the Parushni River, which is the present-day Ravi River. Despite being significantly outnumbered, the Bharata tribe under King Sudas emerged victorious, establishing their supremacy and eventually giving the Indian subcontinent the name Bharatvarsha.

Explanation

Ashoka's Fourteen Major Rock Edicts, inscribed at various sites across the empire, form the most comprehensive record of his Dhamma policy, covering themes such as non-violence, tolerance, welfare measures, respect for all religions, and moral conduct expected of subjects and officials. While Minor Rock Edicts reveal his personal conversion to Buddhism and Bhabru Edict addresses the Buddhist sangha specifically, the Fourteen Major Rock Edicts provide the broadest and most systematic exposition of Dhamma as a public ethical and administrative policy.

Explanation

The administrative division of the Mauryan Empire under Chandragupta Maurya consisted of several provinces, each governed by a prince or a royal representative.

Uttarapatha, the northern province, had its capital at Takshashila, which served as an important hub for trade and intellectual activities.

Paschim path, the western province, had its capital at Ujjayini, which was a major trade route junction linking northern India with the western coast.

Purva path, representing the eastern or central province, had its administrative capital at Patliputra, which also served as the main capital of the entire empire.

Dakshin path, the southern province, had its capital at Suvarnagiri, situated near the rich gold-mining areas of present-day Karnataka.

Explanation

Samudragupta was the ruler of the Gupta Empire who vastly expanded its territories, establishing a great empire. He was a great patron of art and literature, an accomplished scholar, and a poet himself, earning the title of Kaviraja or king of poets as evidenced by coins depicting him playing the lute or veena. The celebrated poet Harisena was his court poet who composed the Allahabad Pillar Inscription, which details his military achievements. The prominent Buddhist philosopher and scholar Vasubandhu was also a part of his court. Due to his brilliant military campaigns and undefeated record, the British historian Vincent Arthur Smith described him as the Indian Napoleon.

Explanation

Alauddin Khilji, who ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1296 to 1316, was the first Sultan to separate religion from politics, famously declaring that he ruled in the interest of the state rather than according to the dictates of the Ulemas, thereby breaking their political dominance. As a brilliant military general, he defended his empire against numerous Mongol invasions and successfully expanded his territory. He was also the first Delhi Sultan to direct military expeditions into Southern India, sending his trusted general Malik Kafur to subjugate kingdoms such as Devagiri, Warangal, Dwarasamudra, and Madurai. The legendary Persian poet and scholar Amir Khusro, known as the Parrot of India, served as his court poet and chronicled his military campaigns in his writings.

Explanation

Krishnadeva Raya was the illustrious emperor of the Vijayanagara Empire who ruled from 1509 to 1529 CE. He was a great patron of literature and art, which earned him the title Andhra Bhoja. His royal court, known as the Bhuvana Vijayam, was adorned by the Ashtadiggajas, a group of eight legendary Telugu poets. In honor of his mother Nagala Devi, he established the suburban town of Nagalapuram. On the military front, he successfully led campaigns against the Deccan Sultanates, making him the only Hindu ruler of his era to conquer the Sultanate capitals of Bidar and Gulbarga, where he subsequently reinstated the Bahmani sultan to the throne.

Explanation

The Treaty of Shrirangapattana was signed in March 1792 to end the Third Anglo-Mysore War under the governor-generalship of Lord Cornwallis. The Subsidiary Alliance system was a policy introduced later, in 1798, by Lord Wellesley. Tipu Sultan fiercely guarded his sovereignty and never accepted the Subsidiary Alliance during his lifetime. It was only after his death in 1799, following the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, that the British imposed the Subsidiary Alliance on the state of Mysore under the restored minor ruler of the Hindu Wodeyar dynasty.

Explanation

Subhash Chandra Bose established the Free India Centre (Zentrale Freies Indien) in Berlin in 1942 as the European branch of the provisional Azad Hind government. To expand the network and coordinate support for India's independence struggle across occupied Europe, he also founded branch offices of the Free India Centre in Rome and Paris. These centres, which were headed by A. C. N. Nambiar, were responsible for managing relations with the European Axis powers, recruiting volunteers for the Indian Legion from prisoners of war, and broadcasting patriotic propaganda through the Azad Hind Radio.

Explanation

Madeleine Slade was a British activist who became a devoted disciple of Mahatma Gandhi. As the daughter of British Rear-Admiral Sir Edmond Slade, she left her life in England to join Gandhi at the Sabarmati Ashram in 1925. Gandhi gave her the name Mira Behn, after Mirabai, in recognition of her dedication, and she spent the rest of her life actively participating in India's freedom struggle and promoting rural development.

Explanation

The Indian nationalist movement necessitated a major transition from traditional social and mental submission under foreign rule to a politically conscious, active democratic society. Transforming a diverse, deeply caste-stratified, and mentally subjugated population into one that was receptive to modern democratic ideals and actively participating in national agitations was a monumental challenge. The sheer magnitude, diversity, and long-standing feudal structure of the society made this transformation an exceptionally difficult, arduous, and stupendous task. Therefore, both statements are correct, and the second statement serves as the correct explanation of the first statement by highlighting the immense difficulty and scale of achieving this deep societal change.

Explanation

Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar was born into a Mahar family that followed the Kabir Panth, a reformist Bhakti sect that condemned the caste system. His father, Ramji Maloji Sakpal, served in the British Indian Army and retired as a Subedar-Major. During his school years, Bhimrao faced intense untouchability; school staff, including the lady peon, refused to touch his satchel or belongings, and he was forced to sit on a gunny sack that he had to carry home daily. Due to prevailing caste restrictions that forbade untouchables from learning the sacred language of the scriptures, he was denied the opportunity to study Sanskrit in school and was forced to study Persian instead.

Explanation

Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde was a prominent social reformer from Maharashtra. In 1901, the Prarthana Samaj selected him for a scholarship offered by the American Unitarian Association to study comparative religion at Manchester College, Oxford, in England. During his two years of study there, from 1901 to 1903, he deeply analyzed various liberal religious philosophies. After completing his course, he attended the International Conference of Liberal Religions held in Amsterdam in 1903, where he presented a paper titled Liberal Religion in India. Shinde was an active missionary of the Prarthana Samaj and regularly contributed reformist articles to its official weekly journal, Subodh Patrika.