Which of the following literature was written by King Harshavardhana ?
(a) Priyadarshika (b) Harshacharita (c) Ratnawali (d) Naganand
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Answer: (A) Only (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
King Harshavardhana, the ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, was a renowned author and playwright in Sanskrit literature. He is credited with the authorship of three major Sanskrit dramas: Priyadarshika, Ratnavali, and Nagananda. The text Harshacharita, which is a biography of King Harsha, was actually written by his court poet Banabhatta. Therefore, the works composed by King Harshavardhana himself include Priyadarshika, Ratnavali, and Nagananda.
2History
Match the correct pairs of extension centers of Swadeshi Movement and their concerned persons.
(a) Mumbai (i) Chidambaram Pillai
(b) Delhi (ii) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Punjab (iii) Lokmanya Tilak
(d) Madras (iv) Syed Raza Haider
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation
Mumbai is matched with Lokmanya Tilak, who led the movement in western India and used the Ganpati and Shivaji festivals to mobilize public support for Swadeshi.
Delhi is matched with Syed Raza Haider, who spearheaded the leadership of the Swadeshi movement in the capital region.
Punjab is matched with Lala Lajpat Rai, who along with Ajit Singh led the protests and propagated Swadeshi ideas throughout the province.
Madras is matched with Chidambaram Pillai, who led the movement in the south and set up the Swadeshi Steam Navigation Company to boycott British shipping.
3HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who among the following gave a personal sum of ₹ 25,000 to the Elphinstone Fund ?
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Answer: (C) Nana Jagannath Shankarseth
Explanation
Nana Jagannath Shankarseth (1803-1865) was an eminent philanthropist, social reformer, and educationist who made immense contributions to the modern development of Bombay. Deeply committed to the spread of education, he co-founded the Bombay Native Education Society and played a major role in the creation of multiple educational institutions. When a public fund, known as the Elphinstone Fund, was set up to commemorate Governor Mountstuart Elphinstone's service and to establish educational institutions, Shankarseth personally contributed a massive sum of ₹ 25,000. This fund subsequently laid the foundation for the prestigious Elphinstone College.
4History
Which of the following objectives was outlined in the Nehru Report ?
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Answer: (A) Achieving Dominion Status
Explanation
The Nehru Report, finalized in August 1928, was drafted by an All Parties Conference committee chaired by Motilal Nehru. The report declared that the ultimate political goal for India was to achieve Dominion Status within the British Empire, meaning India would have a self-governing constitution similar to other dominions like Canada, Australia, and New Zealand. This proposal served as the constitutional groundwork designed by Indian leaders to counter the challenge of the Simon Commission.
5History
Simuka was the founder of the ________ dynasty.
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Answer: (A) Satavahana
Explanation
Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty, establishing its rule in the Deccan region around the late 1st century BCE. According to Puranic literature and epigraphic evidence, including the Nanaghat inscription, Simuka laid the foundation of this powerful lineage by consolidating various principalities in the Deccan. Under his leadership and that of his successors, the Satavahana empire grew to become a major political and cultural force in central and southern India, with its prominent early capital situated at Pratishtana.
6Polity and Governance
What were the main principles of the National Education Policy of 1968 based on the recommendations of the Kothari Commission ?
(a) Compulsory and free education till the age of 14 years.
(b) Higher position and improved pay for teachers.
(c) At least 10% of gross national income spent on education.
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Answer: (A) Only (a) and (b)
Explanation
The National Policy on Education of 1968 was formulated based on the landmark recommendations of the Kothari Commission (1964-66) to restructure and reform India's educational framework.
One of its fundamental guiding principles was the implementation of free and compulsory education for all children up to the age of 14 years, aligned with the directive under Article 45 of the Indian Constitution.
The policy also prioritized improving the quality of teaching by recognizing teachers as the primary architects of the educational system. It recommended elevating their social status, upgrading their qualifications, and ensuring better pay scales and more favorable service conditions.
With respect to financial outlays, both the Kothari Commission and the 1968 policy recommended that public expenditure on education should be progressively increased to reach 6% of the national income, rather than 10%.
7History
Who among the following founded the 'Tilak School of Politics' ?
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Answer: (C) Lala Lajpatrai
Explanation
Lala Lajpat Rai founded the Tilak School of Politics in Lahore in 1920. Established shortly after the demise of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, the school was designed to provide systematic political education and practical training to young national workers, cultivating selflessness and patriotism on the model of the Servants of India Society. This school later formed the nucleus of the Servants of the People Society founded in 1921.
8History
Who was the prominent participant in the Satyagraha at Dharasana in the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
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Answer: (D) Sarojini Naidu
Explanation
Sarojini Naidu led the Dharasana Satyagraha in May 1930 following the arrest of Mahatma Gandhi and Abbas Tyabji. This nonviolent protest against the salt tax at the Dharasana Salt Works in Gujarat became a defining moment of the Civil Disobedience Movement, gaining global attention due to the brutal police crackdown on the peaceful satyagrahis, which was widely reported by the American journalist Webb Miller.
9History
Who was the leader in the uprising of 1857 in Kanpur ?
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Answer: (C) Nanasaheb
Explanation
Nana Saheb led the 1857 uprising in Kanpur. As the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II, he was refused his father's pension by the British under the Doctrine of Lapse. This motivated him to lead the rebellion in Kanpur, where he successfully expelled the British forces, proclaimed himself Peshwa, and acknowledged Bahadur Shah Zafar as the Emperor of India.
10History
Which of the following taxes was collected from Hindu and Muslim landlords respectively during the Sultanate rule ?
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Answer: (C) Khiraj and Zakat
Explanation
During the Sultanate period, the administration levied taxes in accordance with Islamic law. Khiraj was a land revenue tax collected from Hindu landlords and cultivators, generally ranging from one-third to half of the agricultural produce. Zakat was a mandatory religious tax collected from wealthy Muslims, including Muslim landlords, calculated on their savings and property.
11History
Abdul Razzaq, a Persian traveller visited Vijayanagar during the period of which of the following rulers ?
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Answer: (D) Devrai II
Explanation
Abdul Razzaq, a Persian traveller and ambassador of the Timurid dynasty ruler Shah Rukh, visited the Vijayanagara Empire in 1443 CE during the reign of King Devaraya II (Devrai II). He stayed at the Vijayanagara court for several months and wrote a detailed chronicle of his journey in his book Matla-us-Sadain wa Majma-ul-Bahrain, in which he highly praised the administration, grand architecture, immense wealth, and military strength of the empire.
12Art and Culture
Identify the wrong pairs.
(a) Abdul Samad - Famous painter
(b) Takhte Taus - Peacock throne
(c) Prince Azam Shah - Bahamani ruler
(d) Bibi ka Makbara - Memorial of Dilras Bano
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Answer: (A) Only (c)
Explanation
Prince Azam Shah was the eldest son of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb and his chief consort Dilras Banu Begum, making him a Mughal prince (who also briefly reigned as the Mughal Emperor in 1707) rather than a Bahamani ruler.
13Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
Noted Warali painter Jivya Soma Mhase was honored with which of the following awards ?
(a) Padma Bhushan
(b) Padma shri
(c) Shilpguru
(d) National award for tribal arts
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Answer: (C) (b), (c) and (d) are correct
Explanation
Jivya Soma Mhase was a legendary Warli artist from Maharashtra who played a monumental role in transforming Warli painting from a ritualistic tribal wall art into an internationally recognized art form.
For his outstanding contributions to Indian art and culture, he was honored with the National Award for Tribal Arts in 1976. He later received the Shilpguru Award in 2002 for his exceptional master craftsmanship and efforts in preserving the traditional art form. He was also conferred the Padma Shri, one of India's highest civilian awards, in 2011.
14History
Who was the main female collaborator with Mahatma Gandhi in the struggle of mill workers in Ahmedabad ?
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Answer: (B) Anusaya Sarabhai
Explanation
Anusaya Sarabhai played a pioneering role in the Indian labor movement and was the chief collaborator with Mahatma Gandhi during the Ahmedabad Mill Strike of 1918. When the mill workers demanded a 35% wage increase to compensate for the high cost of living and the withdrawal of the plague bonus, she led the struggle and invited Gandhi to Ahmedabad to arbitrate the dispute. Her leadership and active involvement alongside Gandhi eventually led to a successful resolution and the subsequent establishment of the Ahmedabad Textile Labour Association (Majoor Mahajan Sangh) in 1920, which became one of India's oldest labor unions.
15History
After the split in the Indian National Congress in 1907, who made the statement 'National Congress Collapsed at Surat, this is our victory' ?
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Answer: (D) Lord Minto
Explanation
Following the Surat Split of 1907, the Viceroy of India, Lord Minto, expressed his satisfaction over the division within the Indian National Congress in a letter to the Secretary of State for India, Lord Morley. He remarked that the Congress collapse at Surat was a great triumph for the British administration.
The division between the Moderates, led by figures like Gopal Krishna Gokhale, and the Extremists, led by Lokmanya Tilak, over ideological differences and the choice of the Congress President, played directly into the British policy of divide and rule. The British officials welcomed this weakening of the united nationalist front as a major political victory.
16GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Coal is found at which of the following place in Chandrapur district ?
(a) Bandar (b) Ghoggus (c) Telwasa (d) Wani
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Answer: (A) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
In Maharashtra, the Wardha Valley coalfield constitutes the state's major coal-producing belt. Within Chandrapur district, coal deposits are located at several places, including Bandar, Ghoggus (Ghugus), and Telwasa. While Wani is also a highly prominent coal-mining area in the region, it is geographically located in the neighboring Yavatmal district rather than Chandrapur district. Therefore, among the choices, Bandar, Ghoggus, and Telwasa are the places in Chandrapur district where coal is found.
17Geography
Dispersed settlement have the following characteristics :
(a) Dispersed settlement is found in hilly areas, grasslands, dense forests due to physical and environmental unfavourable conditions.
(b) The structure of the houses in this settlement is isolated.
(c) Due to rivers, mountain ranges, roads, railway lines etc. the clusters of houses are far away from each other.
(d) These settlements are found in plains and fertile soil areas in India.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
Dispersed or isolated settlements are characterized by scattered, isolated houses separated by large distances. They typically develop in regions with rugged relief, steep slopes, dense forests, or grasslands where physical and environmental conditions are unfavorable for compact habitation. Geographical barriers such as high mountain ranges, dissected hills, river valleys, and transport corridors like roads and railway lines further segment the terrain, causing individual dwellings or small clusters of houses to be situated far apart from one another. Consequently, statements (a), (b), and (c) accurately describe the defining characteristics of dispersed settlements.
18Geography
Which of the following statements is incorrect ?
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Answer: (D) India has a natural land border with Pakistan and Bangladesh.
Explanation
The land borders that India shares with Pakistan and Bangladesh are artificial, man-made political boundaries rather than natural geographical barriers. These frontiers were artificially demarcated in 1947 by the Radcliffe Commission during the Partition of British India, based primarily on religious demography. These lines run across plain areas, deserts, agricultural fields, and riverine tracts without being defined by prominent, continuous natural barriers, making them highly porous subsequent boundaries.
19Geography
Which of the following is not a characteristic of sedimentary rock ?
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Answer: (B) The rocks are huge and hard.
Explanation
Sedimentary rocks are formed by the deposition, compaction, and cementation of mineral and organic particles over time. Because they do not undergo the extreme heat and pressure associated with the formation of igneous and metamorphic rocks, sedimentary rocks are characterized by being relatively soft, brittle, and highly susceptible to weathering and erosion rather than being massive, huge, and exceptionally hard.
20Economy
Match the correct pairs of census year and death rate in India :
Year Death rate (Per 1000)
(a) 1981 (i) 15
(b) 1991 (ii) 11
(c) 2001 (iii) 08
(d) 2011 (iv) 07
Answer options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
In India, the crude death rate (measured as the number of deaths per 1000 population) has shown a consistent and significant downward trend over the decades due to improvements in healthcare, sanitation, access to medical facilities, and overall standard of living.
For the census year 1981, the crude death rate in India was approximately 15 per 1000.
For the census year 1991, the death rate declined to approximately 11 per 1000.
For the census year 2001, the rate further decreased to around 08 per 1000.
For the census year 2011, the death rate reached approximately 07 per 1000.
This sequence represents the direct progressive matching of (a) with (i), (b) with (ii), (c) with (iii), and (d) with (iv).
21Geography
Which of the following is not the pattern of Urban settlement ?
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Answer: (C) Dispersed
Explanation
Dispersed settlement is a pattern of rural settlement where dwellings are isolated and scattered over a vast geographical area, commonly found in rugged terrains, dense forests, or dry grasslands. Because urban settlements are fundamentally defined by a high concentration of population, compact building structures, and nucleation, a dispersed layout is characteristic of rural environments rather than urban areas.
22Geography
Match the correct pairs :
Country
(a) India
(b) Ecuador
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Australia
National Park
(i) Jim Corbett
(ii) Grand Canyon
(iii) Galapagos
(iv) Great barrier reef
Answer options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Explanation
India is paired with Jim Corbett National Park, which was established in 1936 in Uttarakhand as India's oldest national park.
Ecuador is matched with Galapagos National Park, which protects the famous volcanic islands renowned for their unique biodiversity and evolutionary significance.
U.S.A. corresponds to Grand Canyon National Park, located in Arizona and recognized for its immense geological formations carved by the Colorado River.
Australia is paired with the Great Barrier Reef, a globally celebrated marine park protecting the largest coral reef system in the world.
23Geography
Which is the longest river in the United States from the options below ?
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Answer: (A) The Mississippi
Explanation
The Mississippi River flows approximately 2,320 miles (3,730 km) from its source at Lake Itasca in Minnesota to the Gulf of Mexico, making it the longest of the listed rivers. It drains an area of about 1.2 million square miles, which encompasses all or parts of 32 US states and two Canadian provinces.
24GeographyMaharashtra-specific
In relation to Maharashtra which statements are true as per 2011 census ?
(a) In population Maharashtra rank 2nd in Country
(b) Density is 365 per sq. km
(c) Literacy is 82.91%
(d) Sex ratio is 925
Answer options :
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Answer: (A) Only (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
As per the Census 2011 data, Maharashtra has a population of 11.24 crore (112,374,333), which makes it the second most populous state in India after Uttar Pradesh. The geographical area of the state is 307,713 sq. km, yielding a population density of 365 persons per sq. km. The overall literacy rate of Maharashtra is 82.91%, consisting of a male literacy rate of 89.82% and a female literacy rate of 75.48%. The sex ratio of the state is 929 females per 1000 males, making statement (d) incorrect as it states the ratio to be 925.
25Geography
Which of the following is not the tributary of river Sindhu ?
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Answer: (C) Son
Explanation
The Son River is a major right-bank tributary of the Ganges River system rather than the Sindhu River system. It originates near Amarkantak in the Maikal range of Madhya Pradesh and flows north-northeastwards through Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand, and Bihar before merging with the Ganges River just above Patna.
26GeographyMaharashtra-specific
In which district is the Hetwane major irrigation scheme located ?
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Answer: (D) Raigad
Explanation
The Hetwane major irrigation scheme is located in the Raigad district of Maharashtra. The project involves an earthfill dam built across the Bhogeshwari River near Pen. It provides irrigation to local agricultural lands in the Raigad district and serves as a major source of drinking and industrial water supply to Navi Mumbai and surrounding areas.
27GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Which type of drainage pattern is found in Maharashtra ?
(a) Dendritic (b) Parallel (c) Indefinite (d) Trellis
Answer options :
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Maharashtra exhibits a diverse topography and varied geological structures, which result in the presence of all the mentioned drainage patterns across different parts of the state.
The dendritic drainage pattern, characterized by a branching tree-like structure, is the most widespread pattern in Maharashtra. It develops over the uniform basaltic rocks of the Deccan Plateau, as seen in the drainage basins of major east-flowing rivers such as the Godavari, Krishna, and Bhima.
The parallel drainage pattern is highly prominent in the Konkan coastal strip. The steep western slopes of the Sahyadri range cause numerous short, swift rivers to flow parallel to each other westward before emptying into the Arabian Sea.
The indefinite or irregular drainage pattern is found in the eastern Vidarbha region, particularly in the Bhandara and Gondia districts. This area is characterized by a high concentration of lakes, natural tanks, and irregular geological features, causing the streams to flow without a well-defined, coordinated network.
The trellis drainage pattern is observed in areas with folded geological structures and alternating bands of hard and soft rocks, where the tributaries meet the main streams at right angles, typically seen in parts of the mountainous and structurally complex terrains of the state.
28Economy
Through which of the following factors the fisheries development program is implemented effectively ?
(a) The Fishery Survey of India.
(b) National fisheries development board.
(c) Development of fishing harbours.
(d) Meat Marketing.
Answer options :
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Answer: (C) (a), (b), (c)
Explanation
The fisheries development program is effectively implemented through key specialized institutions and infrastructure development.
The Fishery Survey of India is the nodal agency responsible for the survey, exploration, and assessment of marine fishery resources within the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone, providing critical data for sustainable resource exploitation.
The National Fisheries Development Board acts as a dedicated organization to improve fish production, productivity, and modern marketing practices across the country by coordinating diverse fisheries development activities.
The development of fishing harbours provides the essential landing, berthing, and post-harvest infrastructure necessary to support fishers and safely handle the catch, which is vital for the success of any fisheries development program.
29Economy
Which of the following is not a characteristic of intensive subsistence agriculture ?
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Animal husbandry is a complementary business to agriculture
(c) The vast size of the farm
(d) Maximum yield production per hectare.
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Answer: (C) Only (c)
Explanation
Intensive subsistence agriculture is typically practiced in areas with extremely high population pressure on land, such as the densely populated regions of monsoon Asia. Due to high population density and traditional laws of inheritance, landholdings are continuously subdivided and fragmented among successive generations, resulting in very small individual farm holdings. Large or vast farm sizes are characteristic of extensive commercial grain cultivation rather than intensive subsistence agriculture, where every small patch of land must be utilized to its maximum potential.
30GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Choose the correct option considering the following statements :
Statement (a) : According to the final census of 2011, Mumbai sub-urban district had the highest population density in Maharashtra.
Statement (b) : According to the final census of 2011, Kolhapur district is the fifth most densely populated district in Maharashtra.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) Both Statements are correct
Explanation
According to the final data of the Census 2011, the population density of the top five districts in Maharashtra is as follows:
Mumbai Suburban district ranks first with the highest population density of approximately 20,980 persons per km².
Mumbai City district ranks second with a population density of approximately 19,652 persons per km².
Thane district ranks third with a population density of approximately 1,157 persons per km².
Pune district ranks fourth with a population density of approximately 603 persons per km².
Kolhapur district ranks fifth with a population density of approximately 504 persons per km².
31Science and Technology
PAN (Peroxyacetyl nitrate) is formed as a result of following interaction :
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Answer: (C) Nitrogen Oxide and hydrocarbons
Explanation
Peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN) is a secondary air pollutant and a crucial component of photochemical smog. It is formed in the atmosphere through photochemical reactions where nitrogen oxides (NOx) and hydrocarbons react under the influence of solar ultraviolet radiation. In these reactions, the oxidation of hydrocarbons produces acylperoxy radicals, which then combine with nitrogen dioxide (NO₂) to form PAN. PAN is highly toxic, causing eye and respiratory irritation, and acts as a reservoir and carrier of nitrogen oxides over long distances.
32Geography
Consider the following statements regarding global warming :
(a) Anaerobic Methane is emitted with rice cultivation.
(b) When nitrogen - based fertilizers are used, nitrous oxide is released into the soil.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation
Rice fields are typically flooded during the growing season, which creates anaerobic conditions in the soil. Under these oxygen-depleted conditions, specialized methanogenic bacteria decompose organic matter and produce methane (CH₄) as a byproduct, which is then released into the atmosphere.
The application of nitrogen-based fertilizers in agriculture supplies excess nitrogen to the soil. Soil microorganisms process this nitrogen through the biochemical pathways of nitrification and denitrification. This microbial activity converts the nitrogen compounds, releasing nitrous oxide (N₂O)—a highly potent greenhouse gas—from the soil into the atmosphere.
33Geography
Which geological evidence supports the notion that climate change is a natural and continuous process ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Paleoclimatic proxy indicators provide evidence of past climate variations, demonstrating that Earth's climate undergoes continuous, natural cycles. Tree rings in high-altitude areas are sensitive to temperature and moisture changes, recording seasonal growth patterns over centuries. Glacial advances and retreats leave distinct geological marks such as moraines, documenting major transitions between cold glacial epochs and warm interglacial periods. Sediment deposits in glacial lakes, especially annual layers known as varves, preserve high-resolution archives of seasonal runoff, temperature variations, and precipitation trends. Together, these natural archives offer a comprehensive geological record of the Earth's long-term, dynamic climate history.
34Geography
Consider the following statements.
(a) High latitudes generally have greater biodiversity than low latitudes.
(b) Biodiversity is generally greater at lower altitude than at higher altitude on mountain slopes.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
Biodiversity is generally greater at lower altitudes on mountain slopes because environmental conditions at lower elevations are more stable and favorable, featuring warmer temperatures, higher humidity, and more developed soils. As altitude increases, harsher environmental conditions, such as freezing temperatures, high wind speeds, low atmospheric pressure, and thin soils, severely limit species survival, leading to a progressive decrease in species richness.
35Science and Technology
Government of India has established system of Air quality, Weather forecasting and Research (SAFAR) in which of the following four cities for research on air quality assessment, weather forecasting ?
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Answer: (A) Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, Mumbai
Explanation
The System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting and Research (SAFAR) is a national initiative introduced by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, Government of India, to measure the air quality of metropolitan cities. The system was indigenously developed by the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM), Pune, and is operationalized by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).
The SAFAR system is currently implemented and operational in four major Indian cities: Delhi, Pune, Ahmedabad, and Mumbai. It provides location-specific, near-real-time air quality data and forecasting up to three days in advance. It monitors critical air pollutants like PM2.5, PM10, ozone, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide to inform and raise awareness among the general public.
36Polity and Governance
When was the 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' campaign launched for the protection and empowerment of the girl child as per the last revised statistics of child sex Ratio in India ?
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Answer: (C) 22 January 2015
Explanation
The 'Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao' (Save the Girl Child, Educate the Girl Child) campaign was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 22 January 2015 at Panipat, Haryana.
This joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, and the Ministry of Education was designed to address the declining Child Sex Ratio (CSR) in India, which had dropped to 918 girls per 1000 boys in the 2011 Census. The primary objectives of the scheme are to prevent gender-biased sex-selective elimination, ensure the survival and protection of the girl child, and promote her education and active participation.
37Economy
According to Gunnar Mirdal the role of Govt. in economic development should be as follows :
(a) Effecting the spread effect by neutralizing backward effect.
(b) Neutralizing spread effect by effecting the backward effect.
(c) Effecting spread effect and backward effect.
(d) Neutralizing spread effect and backward effect.
Answer options :
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
Gunnar Myrdal, in his theory of circular cumulative causation, explains that economic growth at a specific core center produces two opposing forces on surrounding, lagging regions: backwash (referred to as backward) effects and spread effects.
Backwash effects are negative impacts that drain capital, skilled labor, and raw materials from underdeveloped regions to the growing center, widening regional inequalities. Spread effects represent positive spillovers, such as technology transfer and increased demand for raw materials and agricultural products, which stimulate growth in backward regions.
Myrdal argues that in an unregulated free market, backwash effects dominate spread effects, leading to persistent and widening regional disparities. Therefore, the government must actively intervene to strengthen and effect the spread effects while neutralizing or minimizing the negative backward effects to achieve balanced regional development.
38Economy
According to Higgs Population growth can be ________.
(a) A motivator for autonomous investment in developed countries.
(b) A motivator for induced investment in under-developed countries.
(c) A motivator for only induced investment in developed countries.
(d) Demotivate for autonomous investment in a developed countries.
Answer options :
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Answer: (C) only (a)
Explanation
Benjamin Higgins, in his discussion of demographic factors in economic development, argued that population growth acts as a powerful stimulant to investment in developed countries. In these mature economies, a rising population expands the market size and directly drives autonomous investment, which is investment made independently of short-term changes in income or output. This type of population-driven investment is primarily channelled into housing, public transport, schools, and municipal infrastructure to accommodate the growing demographic. Consequently, population growth acts as a motivator for autonomous investment in developed countries, making statement (a) correct.
39Economy
In a Society where the income distribution is excessive ________ the handful individual there has unlimited money.
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Answer: (B) Asymmetry
Explanation
The term asymmetry refers to a lack of equality, balance, or symmetry in a system. In the context of income distribution, excessive asymmetry indicates that wealth is highly concentrated and unevenly distributed. This severe economic imbalance results in a situation where a small group or a handful of individuals hold a disproportionate share of the total resources, while the majority of the population has significantly less.
40Economy
Gaurav Dutt and Martin Ravalin said that Poverty Gap Index is calculated for which of the following reasons ?
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Answer: (B) How much income would be needed to cover the deficit to eliminate poverty ?
Explanation
The Poverty Gap Index (PGI) is a key metric used to assess the depth and intensity of poverty. Unlike the headcount ratio, which only counts the percentage of people below the poverty line, the PGI measures the mean distance separating the poor from the poverty line, expressed as a proportion of that line.
Economists Gaurav Datt and Martin Ravallion emphasized that calculating the Poverty Gap Index is essential because it quantifies the minimum resource transfer needed to eliminate poverty. The index represents the aggregate income shortfall of the poor population. Therefore, it indicates the precise amount of income or financial resources required to cover this deficit and bring every poor individual up to the poverty line, assuming perfectly targeted social transfers.
41Economy
Perspective Planning refers ________.
(a) Long run planning for 20 to 25 years.
(b) Long range targets are set in-advance for a period of 15, 20 or 25 years.
(c) One plan for entire period of 15 to 20 years.
(d) Broader Objectives and targets are achieved within one or two years.
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Answer: (A) only (b)
Explanation
Perspective planning is a type of long-term economic planning where long-range targets and goals are set in advance for an extended timeframe of 15, 20, or 25 years. It establishes a broad, comprehensive vision and macro-level objectives for the economy. This framework allows for strategic planning where short-term and medium-term plans (such as five-year plans) can be aligned and integrated to achieve the specified long-term developmental milestones systematically.
42Economy
Who has criticized that economics is a Kuber worshiping science ?
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Answer: (C) Karlail and Raskin
Explanation
The nineteenth-century English social critics Thomas Carlyle and John Ruskin strongly criticized the classical wealth-centric definition of economics popularized by Adam Smith. They argued that classical economics focused exclusively on the acquisition of material wealth while ignoring moral values, social welfare, and spiritual well-being. Consequently, they denounced economics as the dismal science and the Gospel of Mammon, which is translated in Indian academic contexts as a science of Kuber worship (the worship of the deity of wealth). This critical stance emphasized that human welfare, rather than mere material accumulation, should be the true focus of social study.
43Economy
Relative poverty depends on following factors :
(a) The human body needs calories every day.
(b) Income is necessary to meet basic needs.
(c) Comparing two income groups, the lower income group comes in poverty.
(d) Poverty is the condition of not being able to meet the basic needs.
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Answer: (A) only (c)
Explanation
Relative poverty is a comparative concept that measures the economic status of an individual or a household in relation to others in the same society. It focuses on income inequality and distribution within a population rather than absolute survival requirements. Therefore, comparing two distinct income groups to identify the lower income group as experiencing poverty directly illustrates the principle of relative poverty.
44Economy
The Employees Provident Fund Act was made in ______.
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Answer: (B) 1952
Explanation
The Employees Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act was enacted in 1952. This social welfare legislation was introduced to provide financial security and stability to institutional and industrial workers in India by establishing provident funds, pension funds, and deposit-linked insurance schemes.
45Economy
What percentage of the rate of price increase was required to be kept as per the objectives of the 12th Five Year Plan ?
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Answer: (A) 4.5 to 5.0%
Explanation
During the Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012–2017), the Planning Commission of India set the target for the annual rate of price increase (inflation) at 4.5 to 5.0%. Keeping the inflation rate within this moderate range was considered critical for maintaining macroeconomic stability, ensuring the affordability of essential goods and services, and fostering a conducive environment for faster, sustainable, and inclusive economic growth.
46Economy
The largest share of allocation in the Seventh Five Year Plan went to the :
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Answer: (C) Energy Sector
Explanation
During the Seventh Five Year Plan (1985–1990), the Energy Sector received the largest share of the public sector outlay, accounting for approximately 30.4% of the planned allocation (and 28.6% of the actual expenditure). This prioritized funding aimed to boost domestic power generation, improve energy infrastructure, and reduce power shortages to sustain the growth of both industrial and agricultural sectors.
47Economy
To study the problems of India in the year 1995 ______ committee was formed under the chairmanship of Dr. Abid Hussain.
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Answer: (D) Small Industry
Explanation
The Abid Hussain Committee, officially known as the Expert Committee on Small Enterprises, was established by the Government of India in December 1995 under the chairmanship of Dr. Abid Hussain, a former member of the Planning Commission. The committee was specifically tasked with evaluating the problems, policies, and growth opportunities of the small-scale industries sector in India in the context of economic liberalization. It assessed issues related to credit availability, technological challenges, and reservation policies, submitting its report in 1997 with landmark recommendations such as the gradual dereservation of products reserved for small-scale industries to boost their competitiveness.
48Economy
Education for women reduses fertility due to ______.
(a) Education improves work opportunity for women.
(b) Educated women want their own children to be educated.
(c) Education and literacy make women more receptive to information about contraception
(d) Improving economic condition of women.
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Answer: (B) Only (c)
Explanation
Female education and literacy directly lead to reduced fertility because they enhance a woman's capacity to access, understand, and apply health-related knowledge. Educated women are significantly more receptive to information about modern contraception and family planning methods. This empowers them to make informed, autonomous decisions concerning their reproductive health and family size, directly contributing to a decline in overall fertility rates.
49Economy
Food security includes following stages :
(a) Adequate availability of food grains to all.
(b) Adequate availability of food grains and pulses to all.
(c) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk and vegetables to all.
(d) Adequate availability of food grains, pulses, milk products, vegetables, fruits, meat and fish etc.
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Food security in a developing economy is a dynamic concept that progresses through distinct, evolutionary stages of food and nutrition availability. In the initial stage, the primary focus is on ensuring basic human survival by making adequate quantities of food grains available to all. In the second stage, the scope expands to address protein needs by ensuring the adequate availability of both food grains and pulses. The third stage incorporates essential micronutrients and calcium by including milk and vegetables alongside grains and pulses. In the final and most comprehensive stage, food security evolves into complete nutritional security, ensuring adequate access to a fully diversified diet that includes food grains, pulses, dairy products, vegetables, fruits, meat, and fish to support an active and healthy life.
50Economy
______ development is prioritized over environment degradation in energy generation.
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Answer: (D) Social
Explanation
Human development is heavily dependent on reliable and affordable energy, which is essential for improving living standards, healthcare, education, and economic productivity. In policy decision-making, especially in developing regions, the immediate necessity of generating energy to foster human well-being and alleviate poverty has historically been prioritized over the long-term impacts of environmental degradation. Consequently, human-centric progress often takes precedence in energy generation strategies, highlighting the ongoing global challenge of balancing human advancement with environmental sustainability.
51Science and Technology
At room temperature (300k), what is the significant contribution wavelength for the thermal radiation emitted by a body ?
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Answer: (B) 9550 nm
Explanation
Wien's displacement law states that the wavelength of maximum emission λ_max is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature T:
λ_max = b / T
Here, b is Wien's displacement constant, approximately equal to 2.898 × 10⁶ nm K, and T is the absolute temperature of the body.
This peak wavelength of 9660 nm lies in the infrared region of the spectrum, representing the major contribution of thermal radiation emitted by a body at room temperature. The value of 9550 nm represents this dominant emitted wavelength.
52Science and Technology
Say whether following sentences are true or false :
(I) For propagation of sound medium is necessary.
(II) Unit of frequency of sound is Hertz.
(III) Loudness of sound is expressed in decibel unit.
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Answer: (A) (I), (II), (III) are true
Explanation
Sound waves are mechanical longitudinal waves that require a material medium such as a solid, liquid, or gas to propagate. They travel through the successive compressions and rarefactions of the particles of the medium, meaning sound cannot travel through a vacuum.
The frequency of a sound wave refers to the number of vibrations or cycles per second. The standard unit of frequency is Hertz (Hz).
Loudness represents the human perception of the intensity of sound, which is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude of the sound wave. The level of loudness is measured and expressed in decibel (dB) units.
53Science and Technology
Which of the following sentence is wrong ?
(I) Atomic nucleus is made up of protons and neutrons.
(II) Proton has a positive charge.
(III) Electron has a negative charge.
(IV) Neutron has a positive charge.
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Answer: (D) Only (IV)
Explanation
Neutrons are neutral subatomic particles found in the nucleus of an atom and carry a net electric charge of zero. Unlike protons, which have a positive charge, and electrons, which have a negative charge, neutrons do not possess any charge. Therefore, statement (IV) is incorrect, making only (IV) the wrong sentence.
54Science and Technology
Which one of the following is not an application of Bernoulli equation ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Bernoulli's equation, which describes the conservation of energy for flowing fluids, forms the theoretical basis for the working of aspirator pumps, venturi pumps, and the determination of the speed of efflux (Torricelli's law). An aspirator pump uses a high-velocity fluid jet to create a low-pressure region that draws in another fluid. A venturi pump relies on the pressure drop created when a fluid is forced through a constricted section of a pipe. The speed of efflux is derived directly from Bernoulli's equation to relate the velocity of a fluid discharging from an opening to the height of the fluid column. Since all these phenomena are valid applications of the Bernoulli equation, the correct choice is none of the above.
55Science and Technology
A particle thrown up has zero velocity but how much will be the acceleration ?
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Answer: (C) Equal to acceleration due to gravity
Explanation
When a particle is thrown vertically upward, it is in a state of free fall under the sole influence of gravity. Throughout its entire motion, a constant gravitational force acts downwards on the particle. At the highest point of its trajectory, the velocity of the particle momentarily becomes zero as it reverses its direction of motion. According to Newton's second law of motion, force equals mass times acceleration (F = ma). Since the net force acting on the particle at this peak is its weight (F = mg), the acceleration is equal to the acceleration due to gravity (a = g), directed vertically downwards.
56Science and Technology
Which of the following wavelengths are used to study the crystal structure of material ?
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Answer: (C) X-Rays wavelength
Explanation
X-ray diffraction is the primary technique used to study the crystal structure of materials because the wavelength of X-rays, typically ranging from 0.01 to 10 nanometers, is of the same order of magnitude as the interatomic spacing (about 0.1 to 0.3 nanometers) in a crystal lattice. When a beam of X-rays strikes a crystal, the regularly spaced atoms scatter the waves, producing constructive interference and a distinct diffraction pattern. This phenomenon is governed by Bragg's Law:
2d sin θ = nλ
In this relation, d is the interplanar distance, θ is the angle of incidence, n is an integer, and λ is the wavelength of the electromagnetic radiation. By analyzing the angles and intensities of these diffracted beams, researchers can construct a three-dimensional picture of the electron density and determine the precise positions of atoms within the crystal.
57Science and Technology
Which division of Plantae is called amphibians of plant kingdom ?
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Answer: (A) Bryophyta
Explanation
Bryophytes are referred to as the amphibians of the plant kingdom because, like terrestrial amphibians, they occupy a transitional zone between aquatic and terrestrial habitats. While they live on land and grow in moist, shady, and damp soils, they are entirely dependent on water for sexual reproduction. The flagellated male gametes (antherozoids) require an external film of water to swim to the female reproductive organ (archegonium) to facilitate fertilization.
58Science and Technology
With respect to structure of DNA, following four statements are made. Choose the two relevant statements.
(a) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleotides coiled in a helix around a central axis.
(b) DNA is made of two long chains of nucleoside coiled around a central axis.
(c) The two chains are complimentary to each other so that Adenine is always paired with Thymine and cytosine with Guanine.
(d) The two chains are not complimentary to each other where Adenine is paired with uracil and cytosine with Guanine.
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Answer: (C) Only (a) and (c) is relevant.
Explanation
DNA consists of two long polynucleotide chains coiled in a right-handed double helix around a common central axis. Each nucleotide in these chains is composed of a nitrogenous base, a deoxyribose sugar, and a phosphate group. The two strands are complementary to each other because of specific hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous bases of opposite strands, where Adenine always pairs with Thymine via two hydrogen bonds, and Cytosine always pairs with Guanine via three hydrogen bonds.
59Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct about the cell theory of Schleiden and Schwann ?
(a) All living things are composed of one or more cells.
(b) New cells are formed from the pre-existing cells.
(c) There are basic similarities in chemical composition and metabolic functions of cells.
(d) The activity of an organism is collective activities and interactions of its cellular structures.
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Answer: (C) (a), (c) and (d)
Explanation
The cell theory was originally formulated by Matthias Schleiden (1838) and Theodor Schwann (1839). Their classical theory established that all living organisms are composed of one or more cells, that cells share basic similarities in their chemical composition and metabolic functions, and that the overall activity of an organism is the result of the collective activities and interactions of its individual cells.
However, Schleiden and Schwann did not know how new cells were formed; they incorrectly believed that cells formed spontaneously through a process resembling crystallization. The tenet that new cells are formed from pre-existing cells through cell division was contributed later by Rudolf Virchow in 1855 under the principle of omnis cellula e cellula. Therefore, statement (b) is not attributed to Schleiden and Schwann's original cell theory.
60Science and Technology
Leaf Blight of wheat is caused by infection of which of the following fungus ?
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Answer: (B) Alternaria triticina
Explanation
Leaf Blight of wheat is primarily caused by the fungal pathogen Alternaria triticina. First identified in India, this seed-borne and wind-disseminated pathogen causes reddish-brown, oval necrotic lesions on the leaves, typically starting from the lower foliage and progressing upwards. Under favourable warm and humid conditions, these lesions enlarge and coalesce, causing the leaves to dry up and shrivel, which significantly reduces the photosynthetic area and leads to substantial yield losses.
61Science and Technology
Which of the following animals belong to same class ?
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Answer: (D) Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, Anabas
Explanation
Torpedo, Pristis, Hippocampus, and Anabas all belong to the class or superclass Pisces, as they are all aquatic, gill-breathing, and fin-bearing jawed vertebrates. Torpedo, commonly known as the electric ray, and Pristis, the sawfish, are cartilaginous fishes belonging to the class Chondrichthyes. Hippocampus, commonly known as the seahorse, and Anabas, the climbing perch, are bony fishes belonging to the class Osteichthyes. Under standard and traditional biological classification, all of these organisms are grouped together under the single major fish category, Pisces.
62Science and Technology
Which plants extract/latex is used to prepare a narcotics called Heroin ?
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Answer: (A) Poppy plant
Explanation
Heroin, chemically known as diacetylmorphine, is a highly addictive semi-synthetic opioid synthesized from morphine. Morphine is a naturally occurring alkaloid extracted from the milky latex found in the unripe seed pods of the opium poppy plant, scientifically named Papaver somniferum. This raw latex is harvested, dried, and processed to isolate morphine, which then undergoes chemical acetylation to produce heroin.
63Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) The adult human skeleton consists of 208 bones.
(b) Vertebrae and facial bones are irregular type of bones.
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
Irregular bones are classified by their complex, peculiar shapes that do not fit into any other category such as long, short, flat, or sesamoid bones. They typically consist of cancellous tissue enclosed within a thin layer of compact bone and serve specialized functions like protecting internal organs and providing attachment points for muscles. Both the vertebrae, which protect the spinal cord, and the facial bones, which form the structure of the face and protect sensory organs, are classic examples of irregular bones.
64Science and Technology
Match the following to express general resemblance between bones and girdle fore limbs and hind limbs. | List no. - 1 | List no. - 2 | |---|---| | (a) Shoulder joint | (i) Tibio-fibula | | (b) Humerus | (ii) Knee | | (c) Elbow | (iii) Femur | | (d) Radio-ulna | (iv) Hip joint | Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
The anatomical parts of the fore limb and hind limb show a clear pattern of homology and general resemblance.
The shoulder joint corresponds to the hip joint because both are synovial ball-and-socket joints connecting the limbs to the pectoral and pelvic girdles.
The humerus corresponds to the femur since both are the single, long bones forming the proximal segment of the upper and lower limbs respectively.
The elbow corresponds to the knee because both function as major hinge joints of the limbs.
The radio-ulna corresponds to the tibio-fibula as both constitute the pair of bones in the middle segment of the limbs.
65Science and Technology
Which chemical compound is used to neutralize the acidity of soil increased due to excessive use of Chemical Fertilizers ?
(a) Potash
(b) Lime water
(c) Milk of magnesia
(d) Ammonium hydroxide
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Answer: (C) Only (b)
Explanation
Lime water is a solution of calcium hydroxide, which is basic in nature. The excessive use of chemical fertilizers increases the acidity of the soil, making it unfavorable for plant growth. To restore the soil's pH balance, an alkaline substance like lime water is added. The base reacts with the excess acids in the soil to neutralize them, bringing the soil pH closer to neutral and improving its fertility.
66Science and Technology
Which of the following pair/pairs of metal/metals can be extracted from their ores by using cyanide complex solutions ?
(A) Cu and Au
(B) Co and Ag
(C) Au and Ag
(D) Na and Hg
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Answer: (B) Only (C)
Explanation
Gold (Au) and silver (Ag) are extracted from their ores using a hydrometallurgical method known as the MacArthur-Forrest process (or cyanide process). In this process, the powdered ore is treated with a dilute solution of sodium cyanide (NaCN) or potassium cyanide (KCN) in the presence of atmospheric oxygen. Gold and silver dissolve to form soluble cyano complexes, while the impurities remain insoluble:
4Au + 8NaCN + 2H₂O + O₂ → 4Na[Au(CN)₂] + 4NaOH
4Ag + 8NaCN + 2H₂O + O₂ → 4Na[Ag(CN)₂] + 4NaOH
The metals are then recovered from these soluble coordination complexes by a displacement reaction using a more reactive metal like zinc (Zn):
2Na[Au(CN)₂] + Zn → Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] + 2Au
2Na[Ag(CN)₂] + Zn → Na₂[Zn(CN)₄] + 2Ag
67Science and Technology
______ is used to estimate the presence of unsaturation in oils and fats.
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Answer: (B) Iodine value
Explanation
The iodine value, also known as the iodine number, is the mass of iodine in grams absorbed by 100 grams of a fat or oil. It is directly used to measure the degree of unsaturation in lipids. Unsaturated fatty acids contain carbon-carbon double bonds that react with iodine through an addition reaction. Because each double bond adds two halogen atoms, the amount of iodine consumed is directly proportional to the number of double bonds, meaning a higher iodine value indicates a greater degree of unsaturation in the substance.
68Science and Technology
Identify the type of following chemical reaction.
2KClO₃(s) Δ 2KCl(s) + 3O₂ ↑
(a) Exothermic reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Decomposition reaction
(d) Photochemical reaction
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Answer: (A) Only (c)
Explanation
The chemical reaction represents a decomposition reaction because a single reactant, potassium chlorate (KClO₃), breaks down upon heating (represented by the symbol Δ) to form two simpler products, potassium chloride (KCl) and oxygen gas (O₂). Since this decomposition is initiated by the absorption of thermal energy, it is classified as a thermal decomposition reaction.
69Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
Rate of a chemical reaction is __________.
(a) proportional to the concentration of reactants.
(b) decreases on increasing the concentration of reactants.
(c) increases on increasing the temperature.
(d) decreases on increasing the temperature.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) Only (a) and (c)
Explanation
According to the rate law of chemical kinetics, the rate of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of the reactants raised to the power of their respective reaction orders. Increasing the concentration of reactants increases the number of reacting particles per unit volume, which leads to a higher frequency of successful collisions and consequently increases the rate of the reaction.
Additionally, the rate of a chemical reaction increases with an increase in temperature. According to the Arrhenius equation, k = Ae⁽-E_a/RT), where k is the rate constant, A is the pre-exponential factor, E_a is the activation energy, R is the gas constant, and T is the absolute temperature. As temperature increases, the fraction of molecules possessing kinetic energy greater than or equal to the activation energy increases exponentially, resulting in a higher rate of effective collisions and an accelerated reaction rate.
70Science and Technology
From the following which isotope is called as heavy hydrogen ?
(a) Protium
(b) Deuterium
(c) Tritium
(d) None of the above
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
Deuterium is called heavy hydrogen because its nucleus contains one proton and one neutron, giving it an atomic mass of approximately 2. This makes it twice as heavy as ordinary hydrogen (protium). It is represented by the chemical symbol D or ²H and is key to forming heavy water (D₂O), which is utilized as a neutron moderator in nuclear reactors.
71Polity and Governance
Consider the following provision/s with respect to various 'National Commissions' in India.
(A) 'National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes' was established under Article 339 of the Constitution of India.
(B) The 'National Commission for Women' was established under the 'National Commission for Women Act' 1990.
(C) The 'National Commission for Minorities' was established under the 'National Commission for Minorities Act' 1992.
(D) On 27th December 1993 an ordinance was passed to establish the 'National Human Rights Commission'.
Which of the above provision/s is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) (B) and (C)
Explanation
The National Commission for Women was established as a statutory body in January 1992 under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990.
The National Commission for Minorities was set up as a statutory body under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
72Polity and Governance
Delhi was called National Capital Territory by which Constitution Amendment Act ?
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Answer: (B) 69th Constitutional Amendment Act
Explanation
The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1991 designated the Union Territory of Delhi as the National Capital Territory of Delhi. This amendment inserted Article 239AA and Article 239AB into the Constitution of India, which established a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for Delhi, providing the capital territory with a framework for democratic governance.
73Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the citizenship of India ?
(A) India has single citizenship system.
(B) Citizenship Act was passed in 1955.
(C) Part 4 of the Indian Constitution provides citizenship.
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Answer: (C) Only (A) | (B) Correct
Explanation
The Indian Constitution establishes a dual polity but provides for only a single citizenship for the entire country, ensuring uniform rights for all citizens irrespective of the state they reside in. The Parliament of India enacted the Citizenship Act in 1955 to comprehensively govern the acquisition, determination, and termination of Indian citizenship. While citizenship is governed by Part II of the Constitution from Article 5 to Article 11, Part IV is dedicated to the Directive Principles of State Policy.
74Polity and Governance
The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of which authority among the following ?
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Answer: (B) President of India
Explanation
Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India provides for the establishment of the Contingency Fund of India. It explicitly states that this fund is placed at the disposal of the President of India to enable advances to be made for meeting unforeseen expenditure pending authorization of such expenditure by Parliament. The Secretary to the Government of India in the Ministry of Finance holds and administers this fund on behalf of the President.
75Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding 'Kesavanand Bharati' Case :
(A) This case was heard by the Constitution Bench of 13 judges headed by Chief Justice of India A.N. Ray.
(B) In Seven - Six majority, the bench outlined the basic structure doctrine.
(C) This case changed the decision of Golaknath case.
(D) This case seems to be the instance of judicial activism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) (B), (C) and (D)
Explanation
The 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) outlined the basic structure doctrine with a 7-6 majority, where Chief Justice S.M. Sikri headed the bench rather than A.N. Ray. This landmark decision overruled the previous Golaknath case (1967), which had declared that Parliament had no power to amend fundamental rights. By introducing the basic structure doctrine—a concept not explicitly mentioned anywhere in the text of the Indian Constitution—the judiciary actively limited the amending power of Parliament under Article 368, making this case a prominent instance of judicial activism.
76Polity and Governance
Consider the following statement/s regarding constitutional amendment/s in India and Choose the correct option/s.
(A) Dadra and Nagar Haveli territories were included in India as per the 10th Amendment.
(B) The territories of Diu, Daman and Goa were included in India as per the 11th Amendment.
(C) Legislature was established in Union Territories as per the 15th Amendment.
(D) The state of Meghalaya was created as per the 22nd Amendment.
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Answer: (D) (A) and (D) correct
Explanation
The Tenth Constitutional Amendment Act of 1961 incorporated Dadra and Nagar Haveli into the Union of India as a Union Territory.
The Twenty-Second Constitutional Amendment Act of 1969 amended the Constitution to enable the creation of an autonomous state of Meghalaya within the state of Assam.
77Polity and Governance
Which Article in the Constitution of India provides for the Post of Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) ?
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Answer: (A) Article 148
Explanation
Article 148 of the Constitution of India establishes the independent office of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG). As the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts Department, the CAG serves as the guardian of the public purse and controls the entire financial system of the country at both the Central and State levels. The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal, and can only be removed from office in a manner and on grounds similar to a Judge of the Supreme Court of India.
78Polity and Governance
The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state, meaning :
(A) The state makes discrimination on the basis of religion in matters of employment.
(B) The state avoids preferential treatment for any particular religion.
(C) The state treats all religions equally.
(D) Freedom of faith and worship is allowed to all the people.
(E) Educational institutions, without exception, are free to impart religious instructions.
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Answer: (B) (B), (C) and (D)
Explanation
The Indian Constitution establishes a secular state where the state avoids giving preferential treatment to any particular religion and instead treats all religions equally with equal respect and protection, a concept often described as Sarva Dharma Sambhava. This is supported by Articles 25 to 28 of the Constitution, which guarantee the fundamental right to freedom of religion, ensuring that freedom of faith, conscience, and worship is allowed to all people.
79Polity and Governance
Which Articles in the Constitution provide for the electoral system in our country ?
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Answer: (B) Articles 324 to 329
Explanation
Part XV of the Constitution of India, which encompasses Articles 324 to 329, contains the provisions regarding elections and the electoral system in India. Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction, and control of elections in the Election Commission of India. Article 325 mandates a single general electoral roll for every territorial constituency, ensuring no discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, or sex. Article 326 establishes universal adult suffrage, granting the right to vote to all citizens aged eighteen and above. The subsequent articles govern the power of Parliament and State Legislatures to make provisions regarding elections and place a bar on the interference of courts in electoral matters.
80Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about First Lok Sabha :
(A) The first Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952 after India's First General Elections were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952.
(B) The first session of first Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.
(C) The first Lok Sabha lasted its Full tenure and dissolved on 1 April 1957.
(D) Shri. G.V. Mavalankar was the First Deputy Speaker of First Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) (A) and (B)
Explanation
The First Lok Sabha was constituted on 17 April 1952, following India's first general elections which were held from 25 October 1951 to 21 February 1952.
The first session of this Lok Sabha commenced on 13 May 1952.
The First Lok Sabha was dissolved on 4 April 1957, rather than 1 April 1957.
Shri G.V. Mavalankar served as the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha, while the first Deputy Speaker was Shri M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar.
81Polity and Governance
Who among the following are members of a Committee that recommends the appointment of the Chief Information Commissioner ?
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
(C) Leader of Opposition in the Rajya Sabha
(D) Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
(E) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
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Answer: (A) (A), (B) and (D)
Explanation
Under Section 12(3) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Chief Information Commissioner and the Information Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a three-member committee. This high-level committee comprises the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister. If there is no recognized Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, the leader of the single largest opposition group in the Lok Sabha is included in the committee.
82Polity and Governance
The Central Information Commission includes one Chief Information Commissioner and Maximum how many Information Commissioners ?
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Answer: (B) Ten Information Commissioners
Explanation
Under Section 12(2) of the Right to Information Act, 2005, the Central Information Commission is constituted with the Chief Information Commissioner and a maximum of ten Central Information Commissioners. These members are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a committee consisting of the Prime Minister as Chairperson, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
83History
Identify the incorrect pair :
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Answer: (C) January 25, 1950 - Adoption of National Calendar by the Government.
Explanation
The National Calendar of India, which is based on the Saka Era with Chaitra as its first month, was officially adopted by the Government of India on March 22, 1957 (corresponding to Chaitra 1, 1879 Saka) rather than January 25, 1950.
84Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the 'Bommai Case' in reference to the Emergency in the State ?
(A) The 'Bommai Case' Judgement was delivered by the Supreme Court in 1994.
(B) States can appeal to the Supreme Court when President's rule is introduced in the States.
(C) If President's Rule is imposed without valid reason/s the Supreme Court can quash the decision of the Central Government.
(D) An order to dissolve a State Assembly requires the approval of the Parliament.
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Answer: (B) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Explanation
The S. R. Bommai v. Union of India case (1994) is a landmark judgment of the Supreme Court of India that restricted the arbitrary misuse of Article 356 regarding the imposition of President's Rule.
The Supreme Court delivered this historic judgment on March 11, 1994, establishing that a proclamation of President's Rule is subject to judicial review. Consequently, affected state governments can appeal to the Supreme Court to challenge the validity of the proclamation.
If the Supreme Court finds that the President's Rule was imposed without valid reasons, or on mala fide or irrelevant grounds, it has the power to quash the decision of the Central Government. In such cases, the court can also restore the dismissed state government and reactivate the legislative assembly.
Furthermore, the judgment ruled that the President can only suspend the State Legislative Assembly initially. The assembly cannot be dissolved until both Houses of Parliament approve the proclamation of President's Rule.
85Polity and Governance
Which article empowers the High Courts to issue directions for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights ?
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Answer: (A) Article 226
Explanation
Article 226 of the Constitution of India empowers the High Courts to issue directions, orders, or writs, including writs in the nature of habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Part III of the Constitution, as well as for any other purpose. This constitutional provision vests the High Courts with a broad power of judicial review to protect the rights of citizens and ensure the accountability of state authorities within their respective territorial jurisdictions.
86Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Match the following pairs :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) Dr. Nitin Karmalkar Committee | (i) For implementation of National Education Policy - 2020 in Maharashtra |
| (b) Nitin Karir Committee | (ii) To enquire the incident which happened during the distribution of Maharashtra Bhushan Award |
| (c) Sunil Pawar Committee | (iii) To study why the rates of onion collapse. |
| (d) Dr. K. Kasturirangan Committee | (iv) To make the syllabus for pre-primary to degree according to National Education Policy - 2020 |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
The correct matching of the committees with their respective mandates is:
(a) Dr. Nitin Karmalkar Committee – (i) This steering committee/task force, headed by Dr. Nitin Karmalkar, was established to look into and streamline the implementation of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 across higher education institutions in Maharashtra.
(b) Nitin Karir Committee – (ii) This committee was appointed to investigate the tragic heatstroke incident that took place during the Maharashtra Bhushan Award distribution ceremony in Kharghar.
(c) Sunil Pawar Committee – (iii) This committee, led by the former Director of Marketing Sunil Pawar, was constituted to examine the sudden crash in onion prices and recommend solutions like e-auctions and export promotions to assist farmers.
(d) Dr. K. Kasturirangan Committee – (iv) Led by eminent scientist Dr. K. Kasturirangan, this committee drafted the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020, which restructured the entire educational syllabus framework from pre-primary (foundational stage) up to degree levels.
87Science and Technology
Identify the correct statements regarding M.S. Swaminathan.
(a) He was resident of Tamil Nadu.
(b) He was educated from Oxford University.
(c) He was Scientist of Agriculture department.
(d) He was Member of Rajya Sabha for some time.
(e) He was awarded by Raman Magsaysay award.
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Answer: (B) (a), (c), (d), (e)
Explanation
M. S. Swaminathan was born on 7 August 1925 in Kumbakonam, Tamil Nadu, making him a resident of Tamil Nadu (a).
He was educated at the University of Kerala, the University of Madras, and completed his PhD in genetics from the University of Cambridge, not Oxford University (b).
As a highly distinguished agricultural scientist, he made monumental contributions to Indian agriculture, leading the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) and the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), serving under the Department of Agricultural Research and Education (c).
He served as a nominated Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha from 2007 to 2013 (d).
In recognition of his community leadership and work during the early years of the Green Revolution, he was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1971 (e).
88Polity and Governance
Consider the correct statements given below :
(a) The interior design of Lok Sabha in the new Parliament is based on the theme of National Animal Lion.
(b) The design of Rajya Sabha is based on the theme of India's National Flower Lotus.
(c) The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28th May, 2023.
(d) The historic Ashok Chakra has been installed beside the speaker of Lok Sabha.
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Answer: (A) Statements (b), (c) are correct.
Explanation
The design of the Rajya Sabha in the new Parliament building is based on the theme of India's national flower, the lotus, incorporating its motifs and red/pink tones throughout the chamber.
The new Parliament building was inaugurated on 28th May, 2023 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
The Lok Sabha chamber is designed based on the theme of the national bird, the peacock, rather than the national animal. The historic golden sceptre known as the Sengol, rather than the Ashok Chakra, is installed next to the seat of the Lok Sabha Speaker.
89Polity and Governance
Recently, Odisha Chief Minister has launched Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana. What is/are the primary objective/s of the scheme ?
(a) To promote higher education for girls.
(b) Improve maternal and child nutrition in the State.
(c) To provide employment opportunities for adolescent girls.
(d) Boosting agricultural production in rural area.
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Answer: (B) Only (b) is correct.
Explanation
The Mukhyamantri Sampoorna Pushti Yojana is a flagship initiative of the Odisha government launched to transform nutritional outcomes in the state. The primary objective of the scheme is to improve maternal and child nutrition by comprehensively addressing malnutrition among vulnerable groups. It specifically targets adolescent girls aged 15 to 19 years, pregnant women, lactating mothers, and severely underweight children under six years of age. Through this program, beneficiaries receive supplementary nutrition, specialized take-home rations, and dietary counseling to ensure improved health and well-being.
90Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries are included in the Five Eyes Alliance ?
(a) America (b) Britain (c) New Zealand
(d) Australia (e) France (f) Germany
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (c), (d)
Explanation
The Five Eyes is an intelligence alliance comprising five English-speaking countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom (Britain), and the United States (America). It originated from the UKUSA Agreement signed after World War II to cooperate in sharing signals intelligence. Therefore, America, Britain, New Zealand, and Australia are all part of this multilateral alliance.
91Polity and Governance
Select the correct statements (Padma Awards 2024) :
(a) 30 of the awardees in it are women.
(b) 6 Padma Vibhushan award were declared.
(c) 17 Padma Bhushan and 110 Padma Shri awards were declared.
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Answer: (C) Only (a), (c)
Explanation
For the year 2024, the President of India approved the conferment of 132 Padma Awards, which includes 5 Padma Vibhushan, 17 Padma Bhushan, and 110 Padma Shri awards. This makes statement (c) correct. Among the 132 total awardees, 30 of the recipients are women, which makes statement (a) correct.
92Polity and Governance
Karpoori Thakur was recently in news. Which of the following is not true about him ?
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Answer: (B) He was First non-congress Chief Minister of Bihar.
Explanation
Mahamaya Prasad Sinha was the first non-Congress Chief Minister of Bihar, leading the state from March 1967 to January 1968. Karpoori Thakur served as the Deputy Chief Minister in that first non-Congress government and became the Chief Minister of the state for the first time later, from December 1970 to June 1971.
93Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Identify the correct statements regarding the Chief Minister Solar Agricultural Channel Scheme.
(a) This Scheme was started in June 2017, when Devendra Fadanvis was Chief Minister.
(b) The main purpose of this Scheme is to provide supply of electricity to farmers through the agricultural feeder.
(c) The government has decided to pay ₹ 50,000 per acre as rent to the farmers under this Scheme.
(d) Solar panels are set up on government land up to ten kilometres from the 33 kV substation.
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Answer: (B) (a), (b), (c) are correct
Explanation
PROPOSED:3
Statement (a) is correct because the Chief Minister Solar Agricultural Channel Scheme (Mukhyamantri Saur Krishi Vahini Yojana) was officially launched in Maharashtra on June 14, 2017, during the tenure of Chief Minister Devendra Fadnavis.
Statement (b) is correct because the primary purpose of this scheme is to ensure a reliable and uninterrupted supply of electricity during the day to farmers by solarizing agricultural feeders.
Statement (c) is incorrect because the official land lease rent determined by the government is ₹1,25,000 per hectare per year (or 6% of the ready reckoner rate, whichever is higher) under MSKVY 2.0, rather than ₹50,000 per acre.
Statement (d) is incorrect because the decentralized solar projects of 0.5 MW to 25 MW capacity are designed to be set up within a 5 to 10 km radius of 33/11 kV substations on both private and government lands, rather than exclusively on government land.
94Science and Technology
Which space agency helps India in tracking the Solar Mission Aditya - L1 ?
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Answer: (B) ESA
Explanation
The European Space Agency (ESA) provides crucial deep-space communication services and ground station support to assist India in tracking, commanding, and receiving data from the Aditya-L1 solar mission. This assistance is delivered via ESA's global network of ground stations (ESTRACK). Specifically, ESA utilizes its three 35-meter deep-space antennas located in New Norcia (Australia), Cebreros (Spain), and Malargüe (Argentina), as well as support from the Kourou station in French Guiana and the Goonhilly Earth Station in the UK, to maintain continuous communication with the spacecraft throughout its journey to and orbit around the Lagrangian point 1 (L1).
95History
Match the country and the Operations undertaken to protect Indian Nationals Abroad.
| List-I (Operations) | List-II (Country) |
|---|---|
| (a) Operation Ajay | (i) Ukraine |
| (b) Operation Ganga | (ii) Israel |
| (c) Operation Devishakti | (iii) Sudan |
| (d) Operation Kaveri | (iv) Afghanistan |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Explanation
Operation Ajay was launched by the Government of India in 2023 to facilitate the safe return of Indian citizens from Israel during the escalation of the conflict.
Operation Ganga was an evacuation mission conducted in 2022 to rescue Indian nationals, primarily students, from Ukraine following the Russian invasion.
Operation Devishakti was executed by the Indian Armed Forces in 2021 to evacuate Indian citizens and foreign nationals from Afghanistan after the takeover of Kabul by the Taliban.
Operation Kaveri was initiated in 2023 to safely rescue Indian citizens stranded in Sudan during the armed conflict between the Sudanese military and paramilitary forces.
96Polity and Governance
Women Reservation Bill - 2023, consider the following statements :
(a) Narishakti Vandan Adhiniyam officially the Constitutional (One hundred and twenty eight amendment) bill - 2023 is a bill introduced in the Parliament of India.
(b) The Women reservation bill was introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in Lok Sabha on 10th Sept. 2023.
(c) This legislation seeks to allocate 30 percent of the seats in Lok Sabha and State legislative assemblies for women.
(d) The bill was the first that was considered in the new Parliament building.
Select the correct statements from the above.
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Answer: (A) (a) and (d) are correct.
Explanation
The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill, 2023, officially titled the Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam, is a landmark bill introduced in the Parliament of India. It holds the historic distinction of being the first legislation to be introduced, considered, and passed in the newly inaugurated Parliament building during the special session of Parliament in September 2023.
97Science and Technology
Identify the correct statements regarding Asian Games - 2023.
(a) This competition was held in Hangzhou, China.
(b) Shooter Lovelina Borgohain played a role of flag bearer for India at the time of inauguration.
(c) India got 4th position with 28 gold medals.
(d) India got total 107 medals in this competition.
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Answer: (D) (a), (c), (d)
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct because the 19th Asian Games 2023 were hosted in Hangzhou, China, from September 23 to October 8, 2023.
Statement (b) is incorrect because Lovlina Borgohain is an Olympic medal-winning boxer, not a shooter. She and Indian men's hockey team captain Harmanpreet Singh served as the joint flag bearers for India during the opening ceremony.
Statement (c) is correct because India finished in the 4th position in the overall medal standings, securing 28 gold medals.
Statement (d) is correct because India won a historic total of 107 medals, which included 28 gold, 38 silver, and 41 bronze medals.
98Polity and Governance
Bar Council of India's 'International Lawyers Conference 2023' was inaugurated in which City ?
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Answer: (A) New Delhi
Explanation
The Bar Council of India's 'International Lawyers Conference 2023' was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi on September 23, 2023. The conference was organized under the theme 'Emerging Challenges in the Justice Delivery System' to discuss international legal solutions, technology in law, and cross-border disputes.
99Economy
Which is the India's rank in global hunger Index 2023 ?
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Answer: (B) 111
Explanation
In the 2023 Global Hunger Index, India ranked 111th out of 125 countries. India scored 28.7 on the index, which categorizes its hunger level as serious. The Global Hunger Index measures and tracks hunger globally, regionally, and nationally based on four key indicators: undernourishment, child wasting, child stunting, and child mortality.
100Polity and Governance
Select the correct statements : (a) The Nobel Peace Prize, 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi.
(b) Narges Mohammadi is a champion of equality and women's rights.
(c) In 2004, Narges Mohammadi joined the Defenders of Human Right Center founded by Shirin Ebadi.
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Statement (a) is correct because the Nobel Peace Prize for 2023 was awarded to Narges Mohammadi in recognition of her tireless fight against the oppression of women in Iran and her struggle to promote human rights and freedom for all.
Statement (b) is correct as she has spent decades advocating as a prominent champion of equality, civil liberties, and women's rights in Iran, which has resulted in her facing multiple arrests and continuous imprisonment.
Statement (c) is correct because she joined the Defenders of Human Rights Center (DHRC), an organization founded by fellow Nobel Peace Prize laureate Shirin Ebadi, and subsequently became its deputy director and spokesperson.