An astronaut in the satellite feels weightlessness because ________.
a. the force exerted by the satellite floor on the astronaut is equal to zero.
b. the astronaut and the satellite floor are attracted towards each other.
c. he is not attracted by any gravitational force.
d. None of the above
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Answer: (D) Only d
Explanation
An astronaut in a satellite experiences weightlessness because both the satellite and the astronaut are in a state of continuous free fall towards the Earth. They accelerate towards the Earth at the exact same rate. Consequently, there is no relative acceleration between them, meaning the satellite floor exerts zero normal reaction force on the astronaut. Because the sensation of weight arises from this normal reaction force, its absence leads to the feeling of weightlessness. Therefore, only statement a is correct, which makes Option 4 the correct choice.
2Science and Technology
In electronic communication system, digital signals
a. do not provide a continuous set of values.
b. represent values as discrete steps.
c. utilize binary system.
d. utilize decimal as well as binary systems.
Which of the above statements are true ?
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Answer: (C) a, b and c
Explanation
Digital signals are discrete-time signals whose amplitudes are represented by a finite set of values, meaning they do not provide a continuous set of values. Instead, they represent information as discrete steps or intervals. In digital electronic communication systems, information is encoded, processed, and transmitted using the binary system, which relies on two distinct states, represented by the binary digits 0 and 1, to represent high and low voltage levels. This makes statements a, b, and c accurate characterizations of digital signals in electronic communication.
3Science and Technology
Energy of the electron revolving around the nucleus in second orbit is -3·4 eV. What is its energy in third orbit ?
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Answer: (C) -1·51 eV
Explanation
The energy of an electron revolving in the n-th orbit of a hydrogen-like atom is inversely proportional to the square of the principal quantum number n, expressed as:
Eₙ = E₁ / n²
Given that the energy in the second orbit (n = 2) is E₂ = -3.4 eV, the ground state energy E₁ can be determined by substituting these values into the formula:
E₂ = E₁ / 2²
-3.4 = E₁ / 4
E₁ = -13.6 eV
To find the energy of the electron in the third orbit (n = 3), substitute n = 3 and E₁ = -13.6 eV into the relation:
E₃ = E₁ / 3²
E₃ = -13.6 / 9
E₃ = -1.51 eV
4Science and Technology
Optical fibre is based on which of the following principles ?
a. Principle of reflection of light
b. Principle of refraction of light
c. Principle of total internal reflection
d. Principle of dispersion of light
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Answer: (B) Only c
Explanation
An optical fiber is a thin, flexible strand of high-quality glass or plastic that acts as a waveguide to transmit light signals over long distances. The core of the fiber is surrounded by a cladding layer of lower refractive index. When light enters the core at an angle of incidence greater than the critical angle, it cannot escape into the cladding. Instead, it is reflected entirely back into the core. This continuous bouncing of light along the length of the fiber is known as total internal reflection, which ensures efficient transmission of optical signals with negligible energy loss.
5Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
a. Beta particles are negatively charged and are more penetrating than Alpha particles, which are positively charged.
b. Gamma particles are neutral and are more penetrating than Beta-particles.
c. In general neutral particles can be said to be having very high penetrating power.
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Answer: (D) c is not resultant statement of a and b.
Explanation
Statement a and statement b represent specific observations regarding alpha, beta, and gamma radiation. Alpha particles carry a positive charge (+2e), beta particles carry a negative charge (-1e), and gamma rays are neutral electromagnetic radiation. Gamma radiation exhibits higher penetrating power than beta, which in turn penetrates more than alpha.
Statement c makes a broad scientific generalization that neutral particles in general possess very high penetrating power. This general physical principle is due to the absence of Coulomb (electrostatic) interactions with the electrons and nuclei of the medium they traverse. However, this general rule cannot be logically deduced or derived as a direct consequence (resultant) of the specific empirical observations mentioned in statements a and b. Statements a and b merely provide specific examples of this phenomenon but do not logically prove the broad generalization for all neutral particles, such as neutrons or neutrinos. Therefore, c is not a resultant statement of a and b.
6Science and Technology
During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remains conserved ?
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Answer: (C) Total linear momentum
Explanation
In any collision, whether elastic or inelastic, the total linear momentum of the system always remains conserved as long as there is no net external force acting on the system. This fundamental conservation law arises directly from Newton's third law of motion. During the impact, the internal forces exerted by the two colliding bodies on each other are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction. Because these internal forces cancel out, the net external force on the system is zero, which ensures that the total linear momentum before the collision is exactly equal to the total linear momentum after the collision.
7Science and Technology
Name the transgenic crop in which three genes for synthesis of vitamin A are introduced through the technique of genetic engineering.
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Answer: (D) Golden rice
Explanation
Golden rice is a genetically modified variety of rice developed to biosynthesize beta-carotene, which is a precursor of vitamin A, in the edible endosperm of the grain. The pathway for beta-carotene synthesis was engineered into the rice genome by introducing three genes: two from the daffodil plant Narcissus pseudonarcissus (phytoene synthase and lycopene cyclase) and one from the soil bacterium Erwinia uredovora (phytoene desaturase). These three genes work together to complete the biosynthetic pathway for beta-carotene, giving the rice grains a distinctive yellow-golden color and addressing vitamin A deficiency in populations that rely on rice as a staple food.
8Science and Technology
How many linkage groups are present in the female and male grasshopper insect ?
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Answer: (C) 12 and 12
Explanation
The number of linkage groups in an organism is equal to the haploid number of chromosomes for that species, which represents the set of unique chromosomes. Grasshoppers possess an XX-XO sex-determination system.
Female grasshoppers have a diploid chromosome number of 24, consisting of 22 autosomes and two homomorphic sex chromosomes (XX). Because the homologous pairs of chromosomes are grouped together, this comprises 11 autosomal linkage groups and 1 sex chromosome linkage group, resulting in a total of 12 linkage groups.
Male grasshoppers have a diploid chromosome number of 23, consisting of 22 autosomes and a single sex chromosome (XO). This also comprises 11 autosomal linkage groups plus 1 linkage group for the single X chromosome, resulting in a total of 12 linkage groups.
9Science and Technology
Name the plant having H.S.K. or C₄ pathway of photosynthesis.
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Answer: (A) Sugarcane
Explanation
Sugarcane utilizes the Hatch-Slack-Kortschak (H.S.K.) or C₄ pathway of photosynthesis. This pathway is an efficient carbon-fixation mechanism evolved in certain tropical and subtropical plants to minimize photorespiration. In the mesophyll cells of sugarcane, carbon dioxide is first captured by the enzyme phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase (PEPCase) to form oxaloacetic acid, a four-carbon organic acid. This compound is then transported to the bundle sheath cells where it is decarboxylated to release carbon dioxide directly to the enzyme RuBisCO for the Calvin cycle. This specialized leaf anatomy and enzymatic system allow sugarcane to maintain high rates of photosynthesis and dry matter production even under high temperatures, intense light, and limited water availability.
10Science and Technology
Chemosynthetic bacteria obtain energy by oxidizing ________ chemical compounds.
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Answer: (B) Inorganic
Explanation
Chemosynthetic bacteria are autotrophic organisms that synthesize their food by utilizing energy released during the oxidation of various inorganic chemical substances. These bacteria oxidize inorganic compounds such as hydrogen sulfide, ammonia, nitrites, nitrates, and ferrous ions. The energy derived from these chemical reactions is then used to produce ATP, which drives the conversion of carbon dioxide into organic matter.
11Science and Technology
In the nephron of man, what is the correct sequence of urine formation ?
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Answer: (C) Ultrafiltration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion
Explanation
Urine formation in the human nephron occurs in three sequential stages. The first step is ultrafiltration, which takes place in the glomerulus under high hydrostatic pressure, filtering water and small solutes from the blood into the Bowman's capsule. The second step is selective reabsorption, where essential substances such as water, glucose, amino acids, and vital ions are reclaimed from the filtrate as it passes through the renal tubules and returned to the blood. The final step is tubular secretion, where metabolic wastes, excess ions, and drugs are actively transported from the surrounding capillaries into the tubular fluid to finalize the composition of urine.
12Science and Technology
Which of the following situations will be fatal to second foetus ?
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Answer: (A) Rh+ male marries Rh- woman
Explanation
When an Rh-negative woman marries an Rh-positive man, their offspring can inherit the Rh-positive blood group. During the delivery of the first Rh-positive child, there is a possibility of exposure of maternal blood to small amounts of Rh-positive blood from the fetus. This induces the maternal immune system to synthesize anti-Rh antibodies. During a subsequent pregnancy with another Rh-positive fetus, these maternal IgG antibodies can cross the placenta into the fetal bloodstream and destroy the fetal red blood cells. This condition, known as erythroblastosis foetalis or hemolytic disease of the newborn, causes severe anemia and jaundice, which can be fatal to the second fetus.
13Science and Technology
Match the following :
| Respiratory Pigment | Animal/Animal group |
|---|---|
| a. Haemoglobin | I. Annelida |
| b. Chlorocruorin | II. Vertebrates |
| c. Hemerythrin | III. Lingula |
| d. Haemocyanin | IV. Molluscs |
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (B) II I III IV
Explanation
Haemoglobin is the iron-containing respiratory pigment present in the red blood cells of all vertebrates.
Chlorocruorin is an oxygen-binding hemeprotein found in many annelids, particularly marine polychaetes.
Hemerythrin is a non-heme iron protein used for oxygen transport by brachiopods such as Lingula.
Haemocyanin is a copper-based respiratory protein found suspended in the hemolymph of molluscs and some arthropods.
14Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about sliding filament theory of muscle contraction :
a. This theory explains the modern concept of muscle contraction.
b. This theory was put forward by Huxley and Niedergerke.
Which of the above statements is/are true ?
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Answer: (C) Both a and b
Explanation
The sliding filament theory describes the accepted modern concept of muscle contraction at the molecular level. According to this theory, muscle contraction occurs when thin actin filaments slide past thick myosin filaments, pulling the Z-discs closer together and shortening the sarcomere without changing the actual length of the individual filaments. This physiological model was proposed in 1954 by Andrew Huxley and Rolf Niedergerke, who published their findings in the journal Nature, simultaneously with another independent team consisting of Hugh Huxley and Jean Hanson.
15Science and Technology
During calcination process
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Answer: (C) (1) or (2), depending on type of ore
Explanation
Calcination is a thermal treatment process in which an ore is heated strongly in the absence or limited supply of air. This process is typically used for carbonate ores and hydrated oxide ores to convert them into their respective metal oxides.
When a carbonate ore like zinc carbonate is calcinated, it decomposes to release carbon dioxide gas:
ZnCO₃ → ZnO + CO₂
When a hydrated ore like bauxite or limonite is calcinated, it loses its water of crystallization, which is driven off as water vapour:
Al₂O₃·2H₂O → Al₂O₃ + 2H₂O
Depending on whether the starting ore is a carbonate or a hydrate, either carbon dioxide or water is given out during the process.
16Science and Technology
By green chemistry, we mean
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Answer: (D) The use of non-toxic reagents and solvents to produce environmentally-friendly products
Explanation
Green chemistry, also known as sustainable chemistry, is an area of chemistry and chemical engineering focused on the design of products and processes that minimize or eliminate the use and generation of hazardous substances. It revolves around twelve core principles aimed at reducing environmental and health impacts. By replacing toxic synthetic reagents, harmful volatile organic solvents, and hazardous auxiliary substances with safer, non-toxic, and renewable alternatives, green chemistry prevents pollution at the source. This approach promotes highly efficient chemical processes, such as catalytic reactions with improved atom economy, leading to the creation of environmentally-friendly, sustainable products and safer working environments.
17Science and Technology
Which of the following is not a Lewis acid ?
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Answer: (A) Barium chloride (BaCl₂)
Explanation
Barium chloride (BaCl₂) is a highly ionic compound consisting of Ba²⁺ and Cl⁻ ions. The barium ion (Ba²⁺) possesses a stable, closed-shell noble gas electronic configuration. Due to its large ionic radius and low charge density, it has extremely weak polarizing power and lacks low-energy vacant orbitals to accommodate incoming electron pairs. Therefore, it does not function as an electron pair acceptor and is not classified as a Lewis acid.
18Science and Technology
The following are some of the properties of the colloidal sols :
a. Tyndall effect b. Brownian motion
c. Maxwell distribution d. van der Waals forces
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Answer: (B) a and b
Explanation
Colloidal sols exhibit unique physical and optical properties due to the size of their dispersed phase particles. Tyndall effect is the scattering of light by colloidal particles when a beam of light is passed through the sol, making the path of the light visible. Brownian motion is the continuous, rapid, and zig-zag motion of colloidal particles suspended in a dispersion medium, which arises from the unequal bombardment of the colloidal particles by the molecules of the medium. Both of these are fundamental, diagnostic characteristics of colloidal systems.
19Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct ?
a. HF and H₂O are polar molecules.
b. CH₄ and CO₂ are non-polar molecules.
c. CO₂ and SO₂ are non-polar molecules.
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Answer: (A) a and b
Explanation
HF and H₂O are polar molecules because of their asymmetrical structures and the significant electronegativity differences between their constituent atoms. HF is a diatomic molecule with highly electronegative fluorine, creating a permanent dipole. H₂O has a bent shape due to two lone pairs on the central oxygen atom, which prevents the polar O-H bond dipoles from cancelling each other, resulting in a net molecular dipole moment.
CH₄ and CO₂ are non-polar molecules because of their highly symmetrical geometries. CH₄ has a tetrahedral geometry where the four C-H bond dipoles cancel each other completely. CO₂ has a linear structure (O=C=O) where the two polar C=O bond dipoles point in directly opposite directions, cancelling each other out to yield a net dipole moment of zero.
20Science and Technology
Which of the following reactants can be used to prepare ammonia ?
a. NH₄Cl + Ca(OH)₂
b. N₂ + H₂
c. CaCN₂ + H₂O
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Answer: (D) a, b and c
Explanation
Ammonia can be prepared using all three reactions:
Reaction of ammonium chloride with calcium hydroxide (a): Heating ammonium chloride with calcium hydroxide is the standard laboratory method used to produce ammonia gas:
2NH₄Cl + Ca(OH)₂ → CaCl₂ + 2H₂O + 2NH₃
Haber's process (b): Direct synthesis from nitrogen and hydrogen gases under high pressure and temperature in the presence of an iron catalyst is the primary industrial method of manufacturing ammonia:
N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃
Hydrolysis of calcium cyanamide (c): Treating calcium cyanamide with superheated steam yields calcium carbonate and ammonia gas:
CaCN₂ + 3H₂O → CaCO₃ + 2NH₃
21Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding changes made by the Indian Independence Act of 1947 in the position of Constituent Assembly :
a. The Constituent Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
b. The Constituent Assembly became the first Parliament of free India.
c. When the Constituent Assembly met as the Legislative body it was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
d. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly came down to 299 as against 389.
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Answer: (C) Statements a, b and d are correct
Explanation
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 transformed the Constituent Assembly into a fully sovereign body, empowered to abrogate or alter any law made by the British Parliament in relation to India. It also became the first Parliament of free India, acting as a legislative body in addition to its constituent role. When functioning as a legislature, the Assembly was chaired by G. V. Mavalankar, while Dr. Rajendra Prasad chaired it when it met as a constituent body. Following the partition and the withdrawal of the Muslim League members from the areas that joined Pakistan, the total strength of the Constituent Assembly was reduced from 389 to 299.
22Polity and Governance
Which one of the following has not been provided by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 relating to National Emergency ?
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Answer: (D) The President must issue a proclamation of revocation any time if any House of Parliament passes a resolution disapproving of the continuance of the proclamation.
Explanation
Under the provisions introduced by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, the power to initiate the mandatory revocation of a proclamation of National Emergency by passing a disapproving resolution is vested exclusively in the Lok Sabha (the House of the People), rather than in either House of Parliament. The President is constitutionally bound to revoke the emergency only if the Lok Sabha passes such a resolution by a simple majority. The Rajya Sabha does not possess the power to pass a resolution for the disapproval of the continuance of a National Emergency.
23Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
a. The original Constitution provided that the Vice-President would be elected by the two Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting.
b. The 11th Constitutional Amendment, 1961 changed the procedure of election of the Vice-President.
c. The Vice-President is elected by the members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members only of both the Houses.
d. The election of the Vice-President cannot be challenged on the grounds that the electoral college was incomplete.
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Answer: (C) Statements a, b, d are correct and c is false
Explanation
Originally, Article 66 of the Constitution of India mandated that the Vice-President would be elected by the members of both Houses of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting. Since this joint meeting procedure was highly cumbersome, the 11th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1961 changed the procedure by establishing an electoral college instead.
The electoral college for the Vice-Presidential election includes both the elected and the nominated members of Parliament, unlike the Presidential election which excludes nominated members.
Additionally, the 11th Amendment of 1961 also amended Article 71 of the Constitution to ensure that the election of the President or Vice-President cannot be challenged on the grounds of any vacancy or incompleteness in the electoral college.
24Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Which one of the following statements about the Governor of Maharashtra is true ?
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Answer: (C) He has been given special responsibility under Article 371 (2).
Explanation
Article 371(2) of the Constitution of India contains special provisions with respect to the States of Maharashtra and Gujarat. Under this article, the President of India may authorize the Governor of Maharashtra to have a special responsibility. This responsibility includes establishing separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra. It also involves ensuring the equitable allocation of development funds for these areas, as well as providing adequate facilities for technical education, vocational training, and employment opportunities in services under the control of the State Government.
25Polity and Governance
Which of the following items is wrongly matched ?
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Answer: (A) 11th December, 1946 : Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly.
Explanation
The Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946, rather than December 11, 1946. This historic resolution outlined the defining principles and aims of the Constitution, which eventually shaped the Preamble. On December 11, 1946, the Constituent Assembly elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as its permanent President and H.C. Mukherjee as Vice-President.
26Polity and Governance
In the case of a bill passed by the State Legislature, Governor can reserve it for the consideration of the President.
a. The President may declare or withhold his assent to the bill.
b. The President may return the bill for reconsideration to the State Legislature.
c. State Legislature must reconsider the bill within three months and if passed again it is obligatory upon the President to give his assent.
d. In case of reconsidered bill which is passed again by State Legislature, President shall declare his assent within a period of six months.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (A) a and b
Explanation
Under Article 201 of the Constitution of India, when a Bill passed by a State Legislature is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, the President has the power to either declare his assent to the Bill or withhold his assent.
Additionally, if the Bill is not a Money Bill, the President may direct the Governor to return the Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration along with a message. The State Legislature must reconsider the Bill within six months. If the Bill is passed again by the State Legislature, it is presented once more to the President for consideration, but the Constitution does not impose any obligation or time limit on the President to grant assent to such a reconsidered Bill.
27Polity and Governance
In India, Judicial Review implies
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Answer: (A) The power of the judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
Explanation
Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and State governments. If any law or executive order violates the provisions of the Constitution, the judiciary can declare it unconstitutional, null, and void. In India, this power is primarily anchored in provisions like Article 13, which renders any law inconsistent with fundamental rights void, along with Articles 32 and 226, which empower the Supreme Court and High Courts respectively to safeguard the constitutional framework and fundamental rights.
28Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are included as provision of the Indian Constitution ?
a. The person to be appointed as Governor of a State should be a domicile of some other State of the Indian Union.
b. There should be at least one Muslim judge in the Supreme Court so as to ensure its secular character.
c. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament should belong to a party in the opposition.
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Answer: (C) None of the above
Explanation
None of the statements are included as provisions in the Constitution of India.
Under Article 157 and Article 158, the only constitutional qualifications for the appointment of a Governor are that the person must be a citizen of India and must have completed the age of 35 years. The practice of appointing a person from outside the state as its Governor is a political convention recommended by the Sarkaria Commission, rather than a constitutional requirement.
The Constitution does not prescribe any religious criteria or reservation for the appointment of judges to the Supreme Court under Article 124.
The Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary committee, and its structure and functioning are governed by the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha. The practice of appointing a member from the opposition party as the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is a parliamentary convention started in 1967, and is not mentioned in the Constitution.
29Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
a. Odisha Legislative Assembly passed resolution for creation of Legislative Council recently.
b. Currently, five States have Legislative Councils.
c. Proposals to create Legislative Councils in Kerala and Gujarat are pending in Parliament.
d. ¹⁄₁₂ members of Legislative Council are elected by registered graduates.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
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Answer: (D) a and d
Explanation
The Odisha Legislative Assembly passed a resolution on September 6, 2018, under Article 169 of the Constitution of India, seeking the creation of a Legislative Council in the state.
According to Article 171(3)(c) of the Constitution of India, which details the composition of a state Legislative Council, one-twelfth of the total members are elected by an electorate consisting of registered graduates residing in the state who have held their degree for at least three years.
30Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is/are not correct ?
a. In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based.
b. In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha procedures of admissibility have been laid down in Rule 198 of Lok Sabha.
c. A motion of no-confidence once admitted has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted.
d. In Italy, the government requires the support of both houses of Parliament.
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Answer: (A) Only a
Explanation
In the Lok Sabha, a motion of no-confidence does not need to specify or set out the grounds on which it is based. It is a general expression of a lack of confidence in the Council of Ministers as a whole and can be moved without assigning any specific reasons or charges. This distinguishes it from a censure motion, which must state the exact reasons or grounds for its introduction.
31Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about Election Commission of India is false ?
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Answer: (B) The Chief Election Commissioner holds the position or status of a judge of the Supreme Court.
Explanation
The Chief Election Commissioner does not hold the actual position or status of a judge of the Supreme Court. Although the conditions of service, salary, and the process of removal of the Chief Election Commissioner are equivalent to those of a Supreme Court judge, the Chief Election Commissioner is the head of an independent administrative constitutional body, which is entirely distinct from the judiciary. In the Indian Order of Precedence, judges of the Supreme Court are placed at Rank 9, whereas the Chief Election Commissioner is placed at Rank 9A, and decisions made by the Election Commission are subject to judicial review by the Supreme Court.
32Polity and Governance
Consider the following provisions :
a. According to Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to the 'due process of Law'.
b. According to Article 20 (2) of the Indian Constitution, no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
c. According to Article 14 of the Indian Constitution, the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.
Which of the provisions given above is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) a
Explanation
Article 21 of the Indian Constitution declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal liberty except according to procedure established by law. The expression used in the text of the Constitution is "procedure established by law", which is a concept borrowed from the Japanese Constitution, rather than "due process of law", which is an American constitutional concept. While the Supreme Court of India has practically imported the concept of "due process of law" through judicial interpretations in cases like the Maneka Gandhi case of 1978, the literal constitutional provision explicitly retains the term "procedure established by law".
33Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
a. Article 2 of the Indian Constitution relates to admission or establishment of new States which are not part of the Union of India.
b. Article 3 of the Indian Constitution provides for the formation of or changes in the existing States including Union territories.
c. A Bill under Article 3 of the Indian Constitution shall be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) a and b
Explanation
Article 2 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to admit into the Union of India, or establish, new states on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit, which refers to territory not already part of India. Article 3 deals with the internal readjustment of existing states and Union territories, allowing Parliament to create new states or alter the area, boundaries, or names of existing ones. Any bill under Article 3 requires the prior recommendation of the President but can be introduced in either House of Parliament, meaning its introduction is not restricted solely to the Lok Sabha.
34Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about 'Lok Adalat' is incorrect ?
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Answer: (B) Lok Adalats can be constituted of serving or retired judicial persons only.
Explanation
Under Section 19(2) of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, every Lok Adalat organized for an area consists of serving or retired judicial officers, alongside other persons such as advocates and social workers of the area. Since Lok Adalats are not restricted to serving or retired judicial officers alone, the statement asserting they can be constituted of judicial persons only is incorrect.
35Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about the States Reorganisation Commission and Act ?
a. The commission was appointed in December, 1953.
b. The commission was headed by Fazal Ali and two members of the commission were H.V. Kamath and Govind Ballabh Pant.
c. The commission submitted its report on September 30, 1954.
d. The States Re-organisation Act was enacted on August 31, 1956.
e. The States Re-organisation Act came into effect on January 1, 1957.
Which of the statements given above are correct ?
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Answer: (D) a and d only
Explanation
Statement a is correct as the States Reorganisation Commission was appointed by the Government of India via a resolution on December 29, 1953, under the chairmanship of Fazal Ali.
Statement d is correct because the States Reorganisation Act was passed by Parliament and received the assent of the President of India on August 31, 1956.
The other statements contain historical inaccuracies. The members of the commission besides Fazal Ali were K. M. Panikkar and H. N. Kunzru. The commission submitted its report on September 30, 1955. The States Reorganisation Act came into effect on November 1, 1956.
36Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements about 'Statue of Unity' is false ?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) October 31, 2018 marks the 145th birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
Explanation
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was born on October 31, 1875. Therefore, October 31, 2018 marked his 143rd birth anniversary, not his 145th birth anniversary. His 145th birth anniversary occurred later, on October 31, 2020.
37Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
a. There are five types of bones in the skeleton.
b. The function of the long bones is to support weight and facilitate movement.
c. The function of the flat bones is to protect tendons from stress.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) Statements a and b are correct
Explanation
Bones in the human skeleton are classified into five distinct types based on their shape and function: long bones, short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, and sesamoid bones.
Long bones are longer than they are wide and consist of a shaft with two ends. Their primary function is to support the weight of the body and facilitate movement by working as levers when muscles contract.
Flat bones function primarily to protect internal organs, such as the brain and heart, and provide large areas for muscle attachment. The role of protecting tendons from excessive stress and friction is performed by sesamoid bones, such as the patella, rather than flat bones.
38Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements about Nuclear Supplier's Group (NSG) is not correct ?
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Answer: (B) As of 2018, the NSG has 51 participating governments.
Explanation
As of 2018, the Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) has 48 participating governments, not 51. This multilateral export control regime consists of 48 member nations that work together to prevent nuclear proliferation by regulating the export of nuclear materials, equipment, and technology.
39Economy
Match the pairs about 'BRICS' summit :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| a. 2014 | I. Goa Summit |
| b. 2015 | II. Fortaleza Summit |
| c. 2016 | III. Xiamen Summit |
| d. 2017 | IV. Ufa Summit |
| e. 2018 | V. Johannesburg Summit |
Answer Options :
a b c d e
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Answer: (B) II IV I III V
Explanation
The 2014 BRICS summit in Fortaleza, Brazil, represents pair a-II because it was the sixth annual summit and led to the official establishment of the New Development Bank. The 2015 BRICS summit in Ufa, Russia, represents pair b-IV where the group adopted the Strategy for BRICS Economic Partnership to boost trade. The 2016 BRICS summit in Goa, India, represents pair c-I which focused strongly on counter-terrorism cooperation and regional connectivity. The 2017 BRICS summit in Xiamen, China, represents pair d-III where leaders conceptualized the BRICS Plus approach to include more developing nations. The 2018 BRICS summit in Johannesburg, South Africa, represents pair e-V which marked the tenth anniversary of BRICS summits and prioritized inclusive growth and shared prosperity in the Fourth Industrial Revolution.
40Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements is false with regard to Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018 ?
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Answer: (C) The Bill incorporates the recommendations given by the 21st Law Commission headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan.
Explanation
The Prevention of Corruption (Amendment) Bill, 2018 incorporates the recommendations of the 20th Law Commission of India, which was headed by Justice A.P. Shah, in its 254th Report submitted in February 2015. It did not incorporate recommendations of the 21st Law Commission headed by Justice B.S. Chauhan.
41Science and Technology
On January 31, 2018, a rare ‘Blue Moon’ event was experienced in large parts of the globe. In that context consider the following statements :
a. It was a rare moment as a blue moon, a super moon and a total lunar eclipse fell on the same day.
b. When two full moons appear in the same calendar month, the second is termed as ‘Super moon’.
c. When the full moon is at the closest point of its orbit to the Earth it is termed as ‘Blue moon’.
The correct statement/s is/are :
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) Only a
Explanation
On January 31, 2018, a rare celestial alignment occurred where a supermoon, a blue moon, and a total lunar eclipse all fell on the same day, an event often called a Super Blue Blood Moon.
A supermoon is defined as a full moon that occurs when the Moon is at perigee, which is the closest point in its orbit to Earth.
A blue moon is defined as the second full moon occurring within a single calendar month.
42Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Consider the following statements about ‘Swachh Survekshan Gramin Awards, 2018’ :
a. Haryana was ranked as best State in India.
b. Maharashtra was ranked as second best State in India.
c. Satara District of Maharashtra was ranked as best district.
d. Nashik District of Maharashtra was ranked first for maximum citizens participation.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) a, c and d
Explanation
In the Swachh Survekshan Grameen Awards 2018, Haryana was ranked as the best State in India, followed by Gujarat and Maharashtra. Among the districts, Satara district of Maharashtra achieved the first rank as the best-performing district in the country. Additionally, Nashik district of Maharashtra was ranked first in the category of districts with the maximum citizen participation.
43Economy
‘Tikka’ disease affects which one of the following crops ?
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Answer: (C) Groundnut
Explanation
Tikka disease, also known as leaf spot disease, is a highly destructive fungal disease that primarily affects the groundnut crop. It is caused by two species of fungi belonging to the genus Cercospora. Cercospora arachidicola causes early leaf spot, while Phaeoisariopsis personata causes late leaf spot. The disease leads to the formation of dark, circular necrotic spots on the leaves, which causes premature defoliation, severely reducing photosynthesis and lowering the overall yield of groundnut pods.
44HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Consider the following statements :
a. As of July 2018, a total of 1092 World Heritage sites exist across 167 countries.
b. Italy, with 54 World Heritage sites has the most of any country (up to July 2018).
c. India has 39 World Heritage sites (up to July 2018).
d. A collection of Victorian, Gothic and Art Deco buildings of Mumbai are declared as World Heritage sites in 2018.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) a, b and d
Explanation
As of July 2018, the UNESCO World Heritage List officially included 1092 sites distributed across 167 countries.
At that time, Italy held the distinction of having the highest number of designated World Heritage sites in the world, with a total of 54 sites.
During the 42nd session of the World Heritage Committee held in June 2018, the Victorian Gothic and Art Deco Ensembles of Mumbai were inscribed as a World Heritage Site. This inscription recognized the unique architectural heritage flanking the Oval Maidan, comprising 19th-century Victorian Neo-Gothic public buildings and 20th-century Art Deco structures. This inscription brought the total number of UNESCO World Heritage sites in India to 37, making the statement of India having 39 sites by July 2018 incorrect.
45Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
a. India was elected to the UN's top human rights body for a period of three years beginning January 1, 2019.
b. India got 188 votes in the Asia-Pacific category, the highest number of votes among all candidates in UNHRC election.
c. India had previously been elected to the Geneva based Human Rights Council for the 2010 - 2013 and 2013 - 2016 term.
Which of the above statements is/are true ?
Answer Options :
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Answer: (B) a and b
Explanation
India was elected to the United Nations Human Rights Council in October 2018 for a three-year term commencing on January 1, 2019. This secret ballot election was held in the 193-member UN General Assembly.
During this election, India secured 188 votes in the Asia-Pacific category. This was the highest number of votes received among all the candidates across the different regional categories. India has previously served on the Council for the terms 2006 to 2009, 2011 to 2014, and 2014 to 2017.
46Science and Technology
Which is the world's fastest super computer ? (Up to end of June 2018)
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Answer: (C) Summit (USA)
Explanation
Summit was built by IBM for the Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORNL) in the United States. In the June 2018 TOP500 list, Summit claimed the title of the world's fastest supercomputer, achieving a High Performance Linpack benchmark performance of 122.3 petaflops. This benchmark achievement allowed the United States to regain the number one position in global supercomputing.
47Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
a. India opens Zokhawthar immigration check-post in Mizoram along Myanmar border.
b. Zokhawthar is the second immigration check-post in Mizoram along Myanmar border after Zorinpui check-post.
c. India shares 1751 km long border with Myanmar which touches Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and Meghalaya.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) a and b
Explanation
In August 2018, the Government of India designated the Zokhawthar land check-post in the Champhai district of Mizoram as an authorized immigration check-post along the India-Myanmar border. This made Zokhawthar the second such authorized immigration check-post in Mizoram along the Myanmar border, following the opening of the Zorinpui check-post in the Lawngtlai district in September 2017.
48Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
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Answer: (A) India's first environment friendly bio-fuel powered flight flew between Chennai and Bengaluru.
Explanation
India's first environment-friendly biofuel-powered flight was successfully operated by SpiceJet on August 27, 2018, between Dehradun and Delhi. The test flight utilized a Bombardier Q400 aircraft, with one of its engines powered by a blend of 75% aviation turbine fuel and 25% biojet fuel derived from the seeds of the Jatropha plant. Therefore, the assertion that the flight operated between Chennai and Bengaluru is incorrect.
49Science and Technology
Recently 'Bonnethead Shark' was in the news. Consider the following statements regarding this :
a. It mainly eats the sea grass.
b. It is mainly found in Indian Ocean and Arabian Sea.
Choose the correct statement/s from the codes given below :
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Answer: (A) Only a
Explanation
The Bonnethead Shark (Sphyrna tiburo) was in the news following scientific research that identified it as the first known omnivorous shark species. Studies established that seagrass can constitute up to 60% of its diet, and the shark possesses specialized digestive enzymes that allow it to successfully digest and absorb nutrients from this plant material.
50Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
a. The Constitution does not include any provision for categorisation of any State in India as a Special Category Status (SCS) State.
b. The National Development Council first accorded SCS in 1969 to Jammu and Kashmir, Assam and Nagaland.
c. The Central Government pays 90% of the funds required in a centrally sponsored scheme to SCS category States as against 60% in case of normal States.
Which of the above statements is/are false ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
All three statements are factually correct, meaning none of the given statements are false.
Statement a is correct because the Constitution of India does not contain any provision for designating any state with Special Category Status. This status was an administrative classification introduced in 1969 based on the recommendations of the Fifth Finance Commission.
Statement b is correct because the National Development Council first accorded this status in 1969 to three states, which were Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, and Nagaland.
Statement c is correct because for Centrally Sponsored Schemes, the financial assistance from the Central Government is split in a 90:10 ratio for Special Category Status states, whereas for normal or general category states, the standard funding pattern is split in a 60:40 ratio. This means the Centre contributes 90% of the funds for Special Category Status states and 60% for normal states.
51History
Match the following governors of Muhammad Ghori and the territories where they ruled almost independently after the death of Muhammad Ghori.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Yaldoz | I. Delhi |
| b. Kubacha | II. Bengal |
| c. Muhammad-ibn-Bakhtyar | III. Indus |
| d. Aibak | IV. Afghan Mountains |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV III II I
Explanation
Taj-ud-din Yildoz succeeded Muhammad Ghori at Ghazni, establishing his authority over the Afghan Mountains.
Nasir-ud-din Kubacha established his independent rule in Multan and Sindh, which lies along the Indus River.
Ikhtiyar-ud-din Muhammad-ibn-Bakhtyar Khalji conquered and ruled over the territory of Bengal.
Qutb-ud-din Aibak took control of the Indian conquests of Ghori and established his authority over Delhi.
52History
In the Pre-Mauryan period India was known as ______ .
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Answer: (A) The Queen of the Eastern Seas
Explanation
During the pre-Mauryan period, India established extensive maritime trade networks across the Indian Ocean and surrounding regions. Due to its flourishing sea-borne trade, advanced shipbuilding capabilities, and prominent commercial relations with several ancient civilizations, India held a dominant position in maritime commerce. This dominant maritime status and control over trade routes led to India being referred to as the Queen of the Eastern Seas, a historical status documented in various ancient foreign and domestic texts detailing India's maritime heritage.
53History
Match the following dynasties and their kings :
| a. Rashtrakut | I. Gopal |
|---|---|
| b. Chola | II. Upendra |
| c. Palas | III. Dantidurga |
| d. Parmars | IV. Vijayalaya |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (D) III IV I II
Explanation
The Rashtrakuta dynasty was founded by Dantidurga in 753 AD, who established his capital at Manyakheta after defeating the Chalukyas of Badami.
The medieval Chola dynasty was revived by Vijayalaya in the 9th century, who captured Tanjore around 850 AD and made it his capital.
The Pala dynasty of Bengal was founded by Gopala around 750 AD, who was elected by the local elites to restore order and end political chaos.
The Paramara dynasty, which ruled the Malwa region in central India, was founded by Upendra (also known as Krishnaraja) in the early 9th century.
54History
It was the result of Achaemenid conquest that a new industry of ________ developed in Indian borderland, specially in Kamboj.
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Answer: (B) blanket making
Explanation
As a result of the Achaemenid (Persian) conquest of the northwestern borderlands of the Indian subcontinent, the region of Kamboj was brought into close economic contact with the Persian Empire. This interaction stimulated the development of a flourishing blanket making industry in the region. The cold climate of the northern highlands inhabited by the Kambojas was highly suitable for sheep rearing and the production of woolen textiles. Historically, the Kambojas were renowned for producing premium wool and high-quality blankets, referred to as kambalas in ancient Indian texts such as the Mahabharata and Yaska's Nirukta. The integration under the Achaemenid administrative and trade network helped transform this local craft into a prominent commercial industry.
55History
Match the following :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| a. The king of Kamarupa | I. Was already humbled by Prabhakarvardhna. |
| b. The ruler of Sind | II. Dared not detain a Chinese pilgrim at his capital against the wish of Harsha. |
| c. The ruler of Kashmir | III. Was compelled to surrender a tooth relic to Harsha. |
| d. The ruler of Valabhi | IV. Had once fled before the advancing arms of Kanauj Monarch but later married his daughter. |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) II I III IV
Explanation
Bhaskaravarman, the king of Kamarupa, was an ally of Harsha who initially hosted the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang but complied with Harsha's demand to send him to Kanauj because he dared not oppose Harsha's imperial authority.
The ruler of Sind was humbled by Harsha's father, Prabhakaravardhana, who is described in Banabhatta's Harshacharita as a burning fever to the king of Indus or Sind.
The ruler of Kashmir was forced by Harsha during a military campaign to surrender a sacred tooth relic of the Buddha, which Harsha subsequently carried to Kanauj and enshrined in a grand monastery.
Dhruvasena II, the ruler of Valabhi, initially fled to the neighboring Gurjara kingdom after facing the advancing forces of Harsha, but he was later reinstated as a feudatory and married Harsha's daughter.
56HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who from the following persons was not related to the State of Kolhapur ?
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Answer: (A) Kashinath Rao Vaidya
Explanation
Kashinath Rao Vaidya was a prominent lawyer, social reformer, and politician who belonged to the Hyderabad State rather than the State of Kolhapur. He was deeply involved in the socio-political movements and the freedom struggle within the Hyderabad region, serving as a key leader of the Hyderabad State Congress. Following India's independence, he was elected to the Hyderabad State Legislative Assembly in the 1952 elections and served as its first Speaker from 1952 to 1956.
57History
Match the following :
| | |
|---|---|
| a. C. Rajgopalachari | I. Was elected as the President of the Central Legislative Assembly. |
| b. Madan Mohan Malviya and Lala Lajpat Rai | II. Kept himself busy with constructive programmes such as upliftment of Harijans. |
| c. Vithalbhai Patel | III. Was elected Mayor of Calcutta. |
| d. C.R. Das | IV. Criticized the Swarajists. |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) II IV I III
Explanation
C. Rajgopalachari belonged to the No-changers faction of the Congress and dedicated himself to Gandhiji's constructive programmes such as popularising Khadi and the upliftment of Harijans.
Madan Mohan Malviya and Lala Lajpat Rai belonged to the Responsivist group and strongly criticized the orthodox Swarajists for their rigid policy of continuous obstruction in the legislature.
Vithalbhai Patel, a prominent Swarajist leader, was elected as the first Indian President of the Central Legislative Assembly in 1925.
C.R. Das, the co-founder of the Swaraj Party, was elected as the first Mayor of the Calcutta Municipal Corporation in 1924 following the Swarajists' victory in municipal elections.
58HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who is described in the following sentences ?
a. He was an author from Pune.
b. He used to go in the colonies of the untouchables and teach them.
c. In 1945 he was the president of the function arranged to celebrate 'Ambedkar Jayanti' at Kalyan.
d. He was a supporter of Hinduism from Pune.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) S.M. alias Bapusaheb Mate
Explanation
Shripad Mahadev Mate, popularly known as S.M. alias Bapusaheb Mate, was a prominent Marathi writer, academic, and social reformer from Pune. He worked extensively for the social upliftment of Dalit communities, frequently visiting their residential areas to educate them and establish schools. While being a staunch supporter of Hinduism, he advocated for radical internal reforms to eliminate caste discrimination. His active role in the social reform movement and his advocacy for social equality led to him being chosen to preside over the Ambedkar Jayanti celebration function organized at Kalyan in 1945.
59History
Match the following :
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| a. Pandit Ramkumar Vidyaratna | I. Wrote English articles for newspaper 'Bengalee' |
| b. Krishna Kumar Mitra | II. Was a Brahmo missionary |
| c. Pandit Shivnath Shastri | III. Editor of Bengali newspaper 'Sanjivani' |
| d. Dwarkanath Ganguly | IV. Wrote 'Kuli-Kahini' |
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV III II I
Explanation
Pandit Ramkumar Vidyaratna, a Brahmo reformer, wrote the landmark book Kuli-Kahini in 1888 to expose the harsh realities and brutal exploitation faced by indentured coolies in the tea gardens of Assam.
Krishna Kumar Mitra was a prominent Brahmo Samaj leader and nationalist journalist who served as the editor of the influential Bengali weekly newspaper Sanjivani, which he launched in 1883.
Pandit Shivnath Shastri was an eminent scholar, social reformer, and a highly active Brahmo missionary who played a leading role in the establishment of the Sadharan Brahmo Samaj in 1878.
Dwarkanath Ganguly was a radical social reformer who investigated the plight of tea plantation workers in Assam and wrote a series of detailed English articles for the newspaper Bengalee, bringing national attention to their slave-like working conditions.
60Art and Culture
Consider the following statements and choose the correct answer options.
a. Mughal architecture is of Indian style.
b. Mughal architecture was influenced by both, the Persian and Hindu arts.
c. There is an impact of foreigners on Mughal architecture.
d. Mughal architecture was influenced by no one.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) a, b and c are correct, but d is incorrect.
Explanation
Mughal architecture is a highly distinct school of Indo-Islamic architecture that developed and flourished in the Indian subcontinent. Statement a is correct because this architectural style developed indigenously over time into a uniquely Indian style. Statement b is correct because it blends Persian features like bulbous domes, symmetrical gardens, and high arches with traditional Hindu design components such as decorative brackets, chhatris, and balconies. Statement c is correct because the early Mughal rulers, hailing from Central Asia, brought foreign architects, builders, and stylistic elements that heavily impacted the structural designs in India. Consequently, statement d is incorrect as the architecture was deeply syncretic and influenced by several external and local artistic traditions.
61History
Arrange the following incidents in their chronological order.
a. Muslim League was formed in Dhaka.
b. Khudiram Bose was executed.
c. Bomb was thrown at Lord Hardinge.
d. Hindu Conference was held at Lahore, under the Presidentship of Sir Prafulchandra Chatterji.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) a, b, d, c
Explanation
The historic events took place in the following chronological sequence:
The Muslim League was founded in Dhaka on December 30, 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah, Aga Khan III, and other prominent leaders.
Khudiram Bose was executed on August 11, 1908, in connection with the Muzaffarpur bombing case targeting British magistrate Douglas Kingsford.
The Punjab Provincial Hindu Conference was held in Lahore on October 21 and 22, 1909, and was presided over by Sir Pratul Chandra Chatterjee, also referred to as Sir Prafulchandra Chatterji.
The bomb attack on Viceroy Lord Hardinge, also known as the Delhi Conspiracy Case, occurred on December 23, 1912, when a bomb was thrown at his carriage during his state entry into Delhi.
62History
Who from the following women scholars were related to the Rigvedic Period ?
a. Vishwavara b. Apala
c. Lopamudra d. Ghosha
Answer Options :
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
During the Rigvedic period, women enjoyed a high status in society and had equal access to education. Several highly intellectual women scholars and seers, known as Brahmavadinis or Rishikas, contributed directly to the composition of hymns in the Rigveda.
Vishwavara, belonging to the Atri family, composed hymns in the fifth Mandala of the Rigveda, specifically RV 5.28. Apala, also of the Atri family, is credited with composing hymns in the eighth Mandala of the Rigveda, RV 8.91, dedicated to the worship of Lord Indra. Lopamudra, the wife of the eminent sage Agastya, is a highly regarded scholar who composed hymns in the first Mandala of the Rigveda, RV 1.179. Ghosha, the daughter of Sage Kakshivat, composed two entire hymns in the tenth Mandala of the Rigveda, RV 10.39 and 10.40, dedicated to the Ashvins.
63Economy
In which of the following forms was India's capital and wealth transferred to Britain ?
a. Salaries and pensions of the British civil and military officials working in India.
b. Profits of the British capitalists in India.
c. Expenses of the Indian government in Britain.
d. Interests on loans by the Indian government.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The theory of the Drain of Wealth, formulated by Dadabhai Naoroji and other nationalist leaders, highlighted how a significant portion of India's revenue and capital was transferred to Britain without any corresponding material return. This drain took place through various mechanisms.
First, it included the salaries, pensions, and administrative expenses of British civil and military personnel working in India, which were remitted back to Britain. Second, it comprised the profits made by British capitalists, merchants, and planters who invested in Indian sectors like railways, shipping, and tea plantations. Third, the maintenance and expenses of the India Office and the Indian government in Britain (known as Home Charges) were paid out of Indian revenues. Fourth, interest payments on public loans raised by the Indian government in London to fund wars, railways, and other administrative projects were remitted to British creditors. Consequently, all these forms constituted the drain of India's capital to Britain.
64HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Pick out the odd person from the following :
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Bhaskar Vishnu Kale
Explanation
Gangadharrao Deshpande, Pundalikji Katgade, and Bhaskar Vishnu Kale were prominent social reformers and freedom fighters closely associated with the national movement and the promotion of the Khadi movement in the Karnataka region. Gangadharrao Deshpande, known as the Lion of Karnataka and Khadi Bhageeratha of Karnataka, established South India's first Khadi unit at the Kumari Ashram in Hudali, Belgaum. This constructive work was actively carried forward and supported by his close associates Pundalikji Katgade and Bhaskar Vishnu Kale.
In contrast, Shankarrao Deo was a prominent Gandhian leader whose primary area of political activity and social reform was centered in Maharashtra, where he served as the president of the Maharashtra Pradesh Congress Committee, founded the Satkaryottejak Sabha, and was later a member of the Constituent Assembly of India. This makes Shankarrao Deo the odd person out due to his different regional affiliation and primary sphere of influence compared to the other three individuals who formed a cohesive group dedicated to the Khadi movement in the Belgaum region.
65History
______ the generals of ______ conquered land upto Ganges, while his admirals established their authority over several overseas territories including Ceylon, Nicobar islands and parts of the Malaya Peninsula.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Rajendra Chola I
Explanation
Rajendra Chola I, the prominent Chola emperor, led a successful military expedition to northern India where his armies reached the banks of the Ganges River, defeating the Pala ruler Mahipala. To commemorate this victory, he assumed the title Gangaikonda Chola and founded the new capital Gangaikondacholapuram. Concurrently, his powerful naval fleet launched expeditions across the Bay of Bengal, establishing Chola influence and authority over Ceylon, the Nicobar Islands, and regions of the Malaya Peninsula and Sumatra under the Srivijaya Empire.
66Geography
Match the pairs of Column A and Column B :
| Column A (Origin of Solar System) | Column B (Inventor) |
|---|---|
| a. Nebular Hypothesis | I. James Jeans |
| b. Meteorite Hypothesis | II. Moulton |
| c. Planetesimal Hypothesis | III. Lockyer |
| d. Tidal Hypothesis | IV. Laplace |
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (C) IV III II I
Explanation
The Nebular Hypothesis was proposed by Pierre-Simon Laplace in 1796, suggesting that the solar system condensed from a rotating, hot gaseous nebula.
The Meteorite Hypothesis was formulated by J. Norman Lockyer, explaining the formation and evolution of cosmic bodies through the collision of meteorites.
The Planetesimal Hypothesis was developed by Thomas Chrowder Chamberlin and Forest Ray Moulton in 1905, stating that planets formed from the accretion of small solid particles.
The Tidal Hypothesis was proposed by Sir James Jeans in 1919, describing how a passing star pulled a filament of matter from the Sun to form the planets.
67Geography
What are the evidences in favour of the Continental Drift Theory ? Select the proper option ?
a. Jigsaw fit b. Trans-current faults
c. Fossils in different areas d. Convection in mantle
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) a and c
Explanation
Alfred Wegener proposed several key evidences to support his Continental Drift Theory. The jigsaw fit of the shorelines on opposite sides of the Atlantic Ocean, particularly between South America and Africa, serves as a major visual and physical evidence. Additionally, the distribution of identical fossils of plants and animals, such as Glossopteris and Mesosaurus, across widely separated landmasses that are currently divided by vast oceans, provides undeniable paleontological evidence that these continents were once joined together.
68Geography
Examine the following statements and select the proper option.
Statement 'A' : Inner core of the Earth is made up by Nickel and Ferrous.
Statement 'B' : The Earth's crust is made up of Silica, Aluminium and Magnesium.
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Answer: (A) Statement 'A' and 'B' are both correct.
Explanation
The Earth's core, which includes the inner core, is composed of heavy metallic substances, primarily iron (ferrous) and nickel. This region is commonly called the Nife layer, with Ni representing nickel and Fe representing ferrous iron.
The Earth's crust is geochemically categorized into two layers: the continental crust and the oceanic crust. The continental crust consists mainly of silica and aluminium, referred to as SIAL, while the oceanic crust consists mainly of silica and magnesium, referred to as SIMA. Consequently, the crust as a whole is composed of silica, aluminium, and magnesium.
69Geography
Examine and identify the correct statements of the following :
Statement 'A': Deccan Plateau is made up of Basalt Rock.
Statement 'B': The origin of Basalt Rock on the Deccan Plateau is due to the deposition of lava erupted from volcano.
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Answer: (A) Statement 'A' and 'B' are both correct.
Explanation
The Deccan Plateau, particularly the region known as the Deccan Traps, is predominantly composed of basalt rock, which is a fine-grained extrusive igneous rock. This extensive basaltic cover was formed during the late Cretaceous period, approximately 66 million years ago, due to massive volcanic activity. During this period, highly fluid basaltic lava erupted through deep fissures in the Earth's crust and spread over a vast area of west-central India. As this erupted lava cooled and solidified over successive eruption cycles, it deposited thick, step-like layers of basalt rock that characterize the Deccan Plateau today.
70Geography
Match the pairs of column A and column B :
| Column A (Type of Rock) | Column B (Rock) |
|---|---|
| a. Extrusive Igneous Rock | I. Dike |
| b. Intrusive Igneous Rock | II. Arenaceous Rock |
| c. Sedimentary Rock | III. Graphite |
| d. Metamorphic Rock | IV. Conglomerate |
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (B) IV I II III
Explanation
Intrusive Igneous Rock (b) corresponds to Dyke (I) because dykes are igneous intrusions formed when magma cools and solidifies in vertical fissures deep within the Earth's crust.
Metamorphic Rock (d) corresponds to Graphite (III) because graphite is a metamorphic form of carbonaceous material.
Sedimentary Rock (c) corresponds to Arenaceous Rock (II) since arenaceous rocks are clastic sedimentary rocks primarily consisting of sand-sized grains.
Extrusive Igneous Rock (a) is paired with Conglomerate (IV) due to a typographical confusion with agglomerate, which is a volcanic extrusive rock of pyroclastic origin.
71Geography
Examine the statement A and statement B.
Statement ‘A’: 35% solar energy is not useful for the heating of Earth’s surface as well as atmosphere, that heat is called “Albedo of the Earth’s surface”.
Statement ‘B’: Through Short Waves, Scattering and Reflection process of the air molecules, heat is transferred by the small dust particles, clouds and earth’s surface in the space.
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Answer: (A) Statements ‘A’ and ‘B’ are both true and ‘B’ is the correct explanation of ‘A’.
Explanation
Out of the total incoming solar radiation reaching the outer limit of the atmosphere, approximately 35% is reflected and scattered back into space before it can reach the Earth's surface or heat the atmosphere. This non-absorbed, reflected solar radiation represents the albedo of the Earth.
The mechanism through which this occurs involves shortwave solar radiation being scattered by air molecules and dust particles, reflected by cloud tops, and reflected by ice, snow, and other light-colored surfaces on the ground. Specifically, clouds reflect about 27%, atmospheric dust and molecules scatter about 6%, and the Earth's surface itself reflects about 2% of the incoming energy back into space. Because these reflection and scattering processes directly constitute the physical reasons why 35% of the solar energy is not absorbed for heating, the second statement is the correct explanation of the first statement.
72Geography
Match the pairs of column A and column B :
| Column A (Local winds) | Column B (Regions where they are found) |
|---|---|
| a. Chinook | I. Alps mountains in Europe |
| b. Föhn | II. From South Europe to Mediterranean Sea |
| c. Loo | III. Plain area of North India |
| d. Mistral | IV. Rocky Mountains in North America |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) IV I III II
Explanation
Chinook matches with the Rocky Mountains in North America as it is a warm, dry wind blowing down the eastern slopes of the Rockies.
Föhn matches with the Alps mountains in Europe because it is a warm, dry wind experienced on the leeward side of the Alps.
Loo matches with the Plain area of North India since it is a strong, hot, and dry summer wind blowing over the northern Indian plains.
Mistral matches with the region from South Europe to the Mediterranean Sea because it is a cold, dry wind blowing from southern Europe down into the Mediterranean basin.
73Geography
Match the pairs of column A and column B :
| Column A (Soil Type) | Column B (Crops) |
|---|---|
| a. Mountainous soil | I. Cereals |
| b. Black soil | II. Cashew |
| c. Desert soil | III. Apple |
| d. Laterite soil | IV. Cotton |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (D) III IV I II
Explanation
Mountainous soils, commonly found in the Himalayan region, are rich in organic matter and humus, which makes them highly suitable for the cultivation of temperate fruits such as apples.
Black soil, also known as regur soil, is highly clayey with excellent moisture-retention capacity and rich chemical composition, making it exceptionally well-suited for growing cotton.
Desert soil, found in arid and semi-arid regions, has a sandy structure and low organic content, which limits its agricultural utility to drought-resistant crops and coarse cereals like barley and millet.
Laterite soil is formed due to intense leaching in tropical regions with high rainfall. Though naturally low in fertility, it responds very well to manuring and agricultural inputs, making it ideal for plantation crops such as cashew nuts.
74GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Match the pairs and choose correct option :
| Rock | District |
|---|---|
| a. Gondwana series rocks | I. Yavatmal, Gadchiroli |
| b. Dharwar series rocks | II. Sawantwadi, Vengurla |
| c. Archean series rocks | III. Bhandara, Gondia |
| d. Vindhyan series rocks | IV. Chandrapur |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (C) I III II IV
Explanation
Gondwana series rocks correspond to Yavatmal and Gadchiroli because these regions contain extensive coal-bearing sedimentary deposits of the Gondwana system.
Dharwar series rocks correspond to Bhandara and Gondia since these eastern Vidarbha districts host highly metamorphosed pre-Cambrian rocks known for rich manganese and iron ore deposits.
Archean series rocks correspond to Sawantwadi and Vengurla because these southern Konkan areas contain the ancient basement complex of gneisses and schists.
Vindhyan series rocks correspond to Chandrapur where the sedimentary formations of this system, including limestone and sandstones, are well represented.
75GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Match the following and choose the correct option.
| Column A | Column B |
|---|---|
| a. 1st Satellite communication centre in Maharashtra. | I. Wardha |
| b. District having complete electrification in Maharashtra. | II. Gangapur (Nashik) |
| c. 1st earthen dam in Maharashtra. | III. Arvi |
| d. 1st hydroelectric project in Maharashtra. | IV. Khopoli (Raigad) |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) I III II IV
Explanation
The correct matching of the key geographical and industrial milestones of Maharashtra is a-III, b-I, c-II, d-IV.
The first satellite communication centre in Maharashtra was established at Arvi near Pune. Known as the Vikram Earth Station, it was commissioned in 1971 to handle international telecommunications.
The first district in Maharashtra to achieve complete electrification across all its rural and urban areas is Wardha.
The first earthen dam built in Maharashtra is Gangapur Dam, situated near Nashik on the Godavari River. Constructed using soil and clay, its work was completed to support regional irrigation and water supply.
The first hydroelectric project in Maharashtra was established at Khopoli in the Raigad district. Commissioned in 1915 by the Tata Hydroelectric Power Supply Company, it served as a major early source of clean energy for Mumbai.
76GeographyMaharashtra-specific
Match the appropriate pairs of Rivers and Cities on the river bank.
River
a. Panzara
b. Dham
c. Pravara
d. Tapi
Cities on river bank
I. Sangamner
II. Bhusawal
III. Dhule
IV. Pawnar
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (A) III IV I II
Explanation
Panzara River flows through the city of Dhule, which is a major administrative and educational hub in northern Maharashtra.
Dham River flows alongside the historic town of Pawnar, famous for the Paramdham Ashram established by Acharya Vinoba Bhave.
Pravara River, a major tributary of the Godavari River, has the city of Sangamner situated on its banks in the Ahmednagar district.
Tapi River, one of the major westward-flowing rivers of India, has the prominent railway city of Bhusawal situated on its banks in the Jalgaon district.
77Geography
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options.
Assertion (A) : Air transport is a very useful means of transport in mountainous and hilly regions for all.
Reason (B) : It is very costly and difficult to construct roads and railways in mountainous regions.
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Answer: (D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Explanation
The assertion is incorrect because air transport is highly expensive, making it inaccessible and unaffordable as a general means of transport for everyone. The reason is correct because the rugged topography, steep slopes, and geological instability of mountainous terrains make the construction of roads and railway lines exceptionally difficult and expensive.
78Geography
Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the following options.
Assertion (A) : Deforestation results in the increase of concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
Reason (B) : Forests utilise carbon dioxide during the process of photosynthesis for manufacturing of food.
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Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation
Deforestation leads to an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide because trees and forests act as major natural carbon sinks. During the process of photosynthesis, trees absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and use water and sunlight to manufacture organic compounds, releasing oxygen as a byproduct. When forests are cut down, the capacity of the terrestrial biosphere to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere is significantly reduced. This reduction in carbon sequestration directly explains why deforestation results in a higher concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
79Geography
Study the following statements about Greenhouse gases effect.
a. Our planet was heating at the rate of 1°C per 100 years, till 1970.
b. Since last 20 years, the planet has been warming at the rate of 10°C per 100 years.
c. Most of the glaciers in different parts of the world are retreating.
d. Frequency and effect of El Niño is increasing.
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) Only c and d are correct
Explanation
Global warming and the greenhouse gas effect have led to widespread environmental changes across the globe.
Observations by global scientific bodies confirm that the vast majority of glaciers in different parts of the world are retreating as a direct consequence of rising global surface temperatures.
Furthermore, greenhouse gas-induced warming of ocean surfaces, particularly in the tropical Pacific, has been linked to the increasing frequency and intensity of El Nino-Southern Oscillation (ENSO) events. These events have become more frequent, and their atmospheric and ecological effects have significantly intensified over recent decades.
80Economy
Match the following:
| Column I (Waste disposal method) | Column II (Meaning) |
|---|---|
| a. Landfill | I. Burning of waste |
| b. Incineration | II. Dumping and compacting with bulldozer |
| c. Pulverizing | III. Combustion in absence of oxygen |
| d. Pyrolysis | IV. Spreading waste on land |
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (A) II I IV III
Explanation
Landfill (a) matches with description II (Dumping and compacting with bulldozer). In a sanitary landfill, solid waste is dumped in thin layers and compacted using heavy equipment like bulldozers to minimize the volume before covering it with a layer of soil.
Incineration (b) matches with description I (Burning of waste). This is a waste disposal method that involves the highly controlled combustion of waste materials at high temperatures, turning organic matter into ash, flue gas, and heat.
Pulverizing (c) matches with description IV (Spreading waste on land). Pulverizing involves reducing the size of solid waste by crushing, grinding, or shredding. Once the waste is pulverized into smaller, more uniform particles, it can be easily spread onto fields or land for natural decomposition.
Pyrolysis (d) matches with description III (Combustion in absence of oxygen). Pyrolysis is a thermochemical decomposition process of organic materials at elevated temperatures in the complete absence of oxygen, producing char, bio-oil, and syngas.
81Geography
The effects of aerosols on climate is/are
a. They directly reflect sunlight back to space.
b. They indirectly make clouds brighter reflectors.
c. Aerosols have a net cooling effect on climate systems.
d. Human generated aerosols offset the impact of global warming to some extent.
Which of the above effects is/are true ?
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d are true
Explanation
Aerosols exert both direct and indirect effects on the climate system. Directly, most aerosols scatter and reflect incoming solar radiation back into space, which reduces the solar energy absorbed by the Earth. Indirectly, they serve as cloud condensation nuclei. An increase in aerosol concentration leads to a higher number of smaller water droplets within clouds, which increases cloud reflectivity, also known as cloud albedo, making clouds brighter reflectors.
Because these combined direct and indirect effects result in a negative net radiative forcing, aerosols overall have a net cooling effect on the global climate system. Consequently, human-generated aerosols, such as those from industrial activities and burning of fossil fuels, have partially offset the greenhouse gas-induced global warming to a significant extent. Therefore, all four statements are correct.
82Economy
Which of the following is the major cause of poor health in Indians ?
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Answer: (B) Water pollution
Explanation
Water pollution is a predominant driver of poor health and disease burden across India. A massive portion of the Indian population lacks access to clean, safe drinking water, primarily due to the widespread contamination of water bodies by untreated industrial effluents, domestic sewage, agricultural runoffs, and open defecation. This exposure to contaminated water results in high transmission rates of waterborne pathogens, leading to endemic outbreaks of gastrointestinal diseases such as cholera, typhoid, dysentery, hepatitis, and acute diarrheal diseases. Furthermore, geogenic contaminants such as arsenic and fluoride in groundwater cause severe long-term illnesses, including fluorosis and arsenicosis. Consequently, the high prevalence of these preventable infectious and systemic illnesses makes contaminated water the most widespread and severe environmental determinant of poor public health in the country.
83Geography
The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janeiro resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity, which came into force in which of the following date ?
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Answer: (D) 29th December 1993
Explanation
The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, also known as the Rio Earth Summit, on 5 June 1992. It officially entered into force on 29 December 1993, which was ninety days after the deposit of the thirtieth instrument of ratification. This legally binding international treaty aims to conserve biological diversity, ensure the sustainable use of its components, and promote the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic resources.
84Economy
To whom is the Nobel Prize in Economics in 2018 awarded for their contribution in sustainable and long term economic development ?
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Answer: (C) Prof. Willam Nordhaus and Prof. Paul Romer
Explanation
The Nobel Prize in Economics in 2018, officially known as the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel, was awarded to William D. Nordhaus and Paul M. Romer. They received the prestigious prize for designing methods that address some of our time most basic and pressing questions about how we create long-term sustained and sustainable economic growth. William Nordhaus was recognized for integrating climate change into long-run macroeconomic analysis, creating the first quantitative model that simulates the global interaction between the economy and the climate. Paul Romer was honored for integrating technological innovations into long-run macroeconomic analysis, which laid the foundation for endogenous growth theory by showing how market conditions govern the creation of new ideas and technologies.
85Economy
Match the author/committee and their poverty concept :
a. World Bank
b. Shri Gaurav Datt
c. Lakdawala Committee
d. Dr. Dandekar and Dr. Rath
I. Per capita per day, the availability of food in village 2400 calories, in city 2100 calories.
II. Poverty gap
III. Availability of food is less than 2250 calories per day
IV. According to 1973-74 prices, who do not get per capita per month in village रु 49-09 and in city रु 57 for food
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (B) II I IV III
Explanation
World Bank is associated with the Poverty Gap Index, which measures the depth and intensity of poverty. Shri Gaurav Datt is an economist whose extensive research on Indian poverty analyzed consumption patterns and the standard calorie-based poverty norms of 2,400 calories in rural areas and 2,100 calories in urban areas. Lakdawala Committee (1993) adopted the baseline poverty lines of ₹49.09 per capita per month for rural areas and ₹56.64 (approximately ₹57) for urban areas at 1973–74 prices, recommending state-specific adjustments. Dr. Dandekar and Dr. Rath (1971) conducted the first systematic calorie-based poverty assessment, proposing a uniform requirement of 2,250 calories per day for both rural and urban areas.
86Economy
Prices of which of the following commodities are considered in Wholesale Price Index (WPI) ?
a. Primary Goods
b. Oil
c. Manufactured Goods
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India tracks and measures the average change in the prices of goods traded in bulk at the wholesale level. The index basket of WPI is broadly classified into three major commodity categories: Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products.
Primary Goods (Primary Articles) comprise commodities like food articles, non-food agricultural items, and minerals, making up about 22.62% of the total weight in the 2011–12 base year series.
Oil is factored into the WPI in multiple ways. Crude petroleum (crude oil) is included under Primary Articles (consolidated under Fuel and Power in the 2022–23 series), mineral oils like petrol, diesel, and LPG are included under the Fuel and Power category, and edible oils are covered under Manufactured Products.
Manufactured Goods (Manufactured Products) form the largest group in the WPI basket, accounting for approximately 64.23% of the total index weight.
Thus, the prices of primary goods, oil, and manufactured goods are all considered in the compilation of the Wholesale Price Index.
87Economy
Which of the following criteria was considered by P.D. Ojha Committee (1960-61) for calculating poverty line ?
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Answer: (B) Per capita, per month consumption expenditure
Explanation
The P.D. Ojha Committee (1960-61) used monthly per capita consumption expenditure as the criterion to calculate and define the poverty line in India. The committee linked this expenditure to a minimum nutritional requirement of 2250 calories per capita per day. At 1960-61 prices, this calorie intake translated to a monthly per capita consumption expenditure of ₹8 to ₹11 for rural areas and ₹15 to ₹18 for urban areas.
88Economy
Which of the following are the indicators of the contribution of government in the process of Inclusive Growth ?
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Answer: (C) Both of the above
Explanation
The government plays a crucial role in fostering inclusive growth through both resource mobilization and strategic spending.
The Revenue-GDP ratio reflects the fiscal capacity of the government to raise resources from the economy. A robust revenue-GDP ratio enables the state to fund welfare schemes, redistributive policies, healthcare, and education, which directly target inequality and promote social inclusion.
The Public Investment-GDP ratio represents the portion of economic output channeled by the government into building capital assets, such as physical infrastructure, communication networks, and social infrastructure. Public investment stimulates economic opportunities, creates jobs, and integrates marginalized regions into the mainstream economy, facilitating sustainable and broad-based growth.
Therefore, both indicators are essential measures of state-led efforts toward inclusive development.
89Economy
In the context of planning era i.e. 1951 to 2011, take into consideration the following statements :
a. Food production increases fourfold, diversified industrial growth takes place.
b. Import substitution, diversified export promotion and science and technical educational expansion takes place.
c. Achievement in reducing poverty and unemployment ratio.
d. Reduction in concentration of economic power, decentralization of income and wealth takes place.
Which of the above statements are true ?
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Answer: (C) a and b
Explanation
During the planning era from 1951 to 2011, India achieved significant successes in structural and productive aspects of the economy, while falling short on several socio-economic fronts.
Statement a is true because foodgrain production in India rose more than fourfold, increasing from approximately 50.8 million tonnes in 1950–51 to over 250 million tonnes by 2011–12. Simultaneously, through successive Five-Year Plans, a strong and diversified industrial base was established, moving the country from a producer of basic consumer goods to an economy capable of manufacturing heavy machinery, chemicals, and advanced technology.
Statement b is true because early development strategies heavily emphasized import substitution to achieve self-reliance and protect domestic industries. In later plans, this shifted toward diversified export promotion. Additionally, the planned expansion of science and technical educational infrastructure, including the establishment of Indian Institutes of Technology (IITs), Indian Institutes of Management (IIMs), and various central research laboratories, created a massive pool of skilled technical manpower.
Statements c and d are not correct because the planning era did not achieve its objectives of eliminating unemployment, significantly eradicating poverty, or reducing the concentration of wealth and economic power. Despite progressive taxation and land reform policies, wealth and income inequalities intensified, and both unemployment and poverty remained massive challenges throughout the planning period.
90Economy
Which of the following is not a millenium development goal ?
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Answer: (D) Ensure agricultural sustainability
Explanation
Ensure agricultural sustainability is not a Millennium Development Goal. Under the eight Millennium Development Goals established by the United Nations in 2000 to be achieved by 2015, the target concerning sustainability was Goal 7, which was to ensure environmental sustainability. While agricultural practices are closely linked to hunger and the environment, a dedicated goal or target for agricultural sustainability was not part of the MDG framework. Instead, sustainable agriculture and sustainable food production systems were later specifically introduced under the Sustainable Development Goals as part of SDG 2.
91Economy
Which of the following factors are included in Gender Inequality Index (GII) ?
a. Reproductive Health
b. Empowerment
c. Labour market
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Answer: (D) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The Gender Inequality Index (GII) is a composite index introduced by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) in its 2010 Human Development Report to measure gender-based disadvantages. It assesses gender disparities across three key dimensions of human development.
The reproductive health dimension is evaluated using two indicators, which are the maternal mortality ratio and the adolescent birth rate.
The empowerment dimension is measured by the share of parliamentary seats held by each sex and the proportion of adult females and males aged 25 years and older with at least some secondary education.
The labour market dimension is assessed by the labour force participation rate of female and male populations aged 15 years and older.
Because reproductive health, empowerment, and labour market participation represent all three fundamental dimensions of the GII, they are all included in the index.
92Polity and Governance
Which of the following scheme/schemes is/are useful for socio-economic growth of minority communities ?
a. Nai Roshni
b. Padho Pardesh
c. Learn and Earn
d. Nai Manzil
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The schemes mentioned are key initiatives implemented by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, Government of India, to foster the socio-economic advancement and welfare of minority communities.
Nai Roshni is designed for the leadership development and empowerment of minority women, equipping them with knowledge and tools to interact with public institutions and banks.
Padho Pardesh provides interest subvention on educational loans for overseas studies, helping students from economically weaker sections of minority communities access global higher education opportunities.
Learn and Earn (Seekho aur Kamao) is a placement-linked skill development program aimed at upgrading the skills of minority youth to ensure sustainable employment or self-employment opportunities.
Nai Manzil targets school dropouts from minority communities, integrating formal education with skill training to enable them to obtain mainstream livelihoods.
Together, these initiatives address the education, skill development, employment, and leadership needs of minorities, facilitating their holistic socio-economic growth.
93Economy
In June 2012, according to Rio +20 declaration, Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) were decided. Which of the following features was/were not decided ?
a. Poverty eradication, fight against unequality, gender equality.
b. Health and educational reforms, ocean and forest protection.
c. World partnership for sustainable development and effective structure for follow-up and review.
d. Ban on terrorist organisations and attacks on other countries.
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Answer: (C) Only d
Explanation
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20), held in Rio de Janeiro in June 2012, adopted the outcome document "The Future We Want", which initiated the process to develop the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs).
The SDGs were designed as a universal framework targeting critical global development challenges across environmental, social, and economic dimensions. Issues concerning the banning of terrorist organizations and military attacks between nations are matters of international security and geopolitics, which fall under the purview of the United Nations Security Council rather than the development-focused mandate of the SDGs. Consequently, security measures against terrorism and interstate aggression were not decided as part of the SDG framework at the Rio+20 conference.
94Geography
As per the 2011 census, match the cities according to their population.
Cities Population (In millions)
a. Greater Bombay I. 8·7
b. Delhi II. 14·1
c. Kolkata III. 16·3
d. Chennai IV. 18·4
Answer Options :
a b c d
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Answer: (D) IV III II I
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census of India, the population figures for the major urban agglomerations/cities (in millions) are:
Greater Bombay (a) corresponds to 18.4 million (IV).
Delhi (b) corresponds to 16.3 million (III).
Kolkata (c) corresponds to 14.1 million (II).
Chennai (d) corresponds to 8.7 million (I).
This gives the correct matching sequence of IV, III, II, I.
95Economy
The LPG model of development was introduced in 1991 by then Finance Minister
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Answer: (C) Dr. Manmohan Singh
Explanation
The Liberalisation, Privatisation, and Globalisation (LPG) model of development, also known as the New Economic Policy, was introduced in India in 1991 to resolve a severe balance of payments crisis. Dr. Manmohan Singh served as the Union Finance Minister at the time and initiated these historic structural reforms through his landmark Union Budget presented on July 24, 1991, which dismantled the License Raj, reduced import tariffs, deregulated domestic industries, and opened the Indian economy to foreign investments.
96Economy
Under the Eleventh Plan, some of the monitorable targets reflecting inclusiveness include
a. infrastructure
b. environment
c. income and poverty
d. education and health
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Answer: (B) a, b, c and d
Explanation
The Eleventh Five-Year Plan (2007–2012) adopted twenty-seven monitorable national targets to reflect and measure the multi-dimensional aspects of its central theme of faster and more inclusive growth. These monitorable targets were classified under six major categories: income and poverty, education, health, women and children, infrastructure, and environment. Therefore, all the listed areas—infrastructure, environment, income and poverty, and education and health—are included as monitorable targets reflecting inclusiveness under this plan.
97Economy
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) for financial inclusion was launched on which date ?
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Answer: (C) 28th August 2014
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) is India's National Mission for Financial Inclusion, which was officially launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on 28 August 2014. The scheme was earlier announced during his Independence Day address on 15 August 2014 with the objective of ensuring comprehensive financial inclusion by providing affordable access to financial services such as bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions to all unbanked households.
98Economy
The scope of land reforms includes
a. Abolition of intermediaries
b. Tenancy Reforms
c. Ceiling on land holdings
d. Organisation of co-operative farming
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The scope of land reforms in India comprises several institutional measures designed to restructure agrarian relations, enhance agricultural productivity, and achieve social justice. The primary components of these reforms are the abolition of intermediaries, tenancy reforms, imposition of ceilings on land holdings, and the organisation of co-operative farming.
Abolition of intermediaries was aimed at removing rent-collecting middlemen like Zamindars, Jagirdars, and Inamdars, thereby establishing a direct relationship between the actual tillers and the state. Tenancy reforms were introduced to regulate agricultural rents, guarantee security of tenure to cultivators, and confer ownership rights upon tenants. The policy of ceiling on land holdings was implemented to limit the maximum size of agricultural land an individual or family could own, allowing the government to acquire surplus land and redistribute it among landless agricultural labourers. Finally, the organisation of co-operative farming and the consolidation of fragmented land holdings were promoted to encourage joint cultivation, leverage economies of scale, and modernise farming techniques.