Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new
energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity,
Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared.
Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. "Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city | Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
What was the main purpose of scientists behind the discovery of atomic energy ?
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Answer: (C) due to the limitation of minerals like coal and petrol new sources of energy have to be found.
Explanation
According to the text, the minerals like coal and petrol required for steam and electric energy are limited and non-creatable, meaning these stocks are projected to fall short by the end of the century. Scientists discovered and developed atomic energy as a remedy to find a new, alternative energy source to address this impending depletion of traditional fuel resources.
2Reading Comprehension
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new
energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity,
Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared.
Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. "Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city | Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Who is known as father of atomic energy ?
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Answer: (D) Rutherford
Explanation
Prof. Ernest Rutherford is considered the father of atomic energy due to his pioneering research in nuclear physics. He discovered the atomic nucleus, identified alpha and beta particles, and formulated the laws of radioactive decay. His landmark experiment in artificial nuclear transmutation, where he successfully split nitrogen nuclei using alpha particles, laid the foundational scientific principles that eventually enabled the release and utilization of atomic energy.
3Reading Comprehension
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new
energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity,
Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared.
Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. "Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city | Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Match the correct pair :
(a) Heavy water factory (i) Malabar
(b) Thorium reserves (ii) Jadugad
(c) Production of Uranium fuel (iii) Cyrus
(d) India's nuclear reactor (iv) Telcher
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
Heavy water factory matches with Telcher because the passage mentions that plants for density water, which refers to heavy water, are erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, and Kota.
Thorium reserves match with Malabar because the passage states that the stocks of Thorium have been found on the Malabar coast.
Production of Uranium fuel matches with Jadugad because the passage states that Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar.
India's nuclear reactor matches with Cyrus because the passage lists Cyrus as one of the atomic reactors established at Turbhe near Mumbai.
This matches the sequence of (iv), (i), (ii), and (iii) respectively.
4Reading Comprehension
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new
energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity,
Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared.
Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. "Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city | Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
In which year, India established the Atomic Energy Commission ?
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Answer: (B) A.D. 1948
Explanation
The Government of India established the Atomic Energy Commission in August 1948. This apex body was set up under the Department of Scientific Research to promote and develop atomic energy for peaceful purposes in India, with Dr. Homi Bhabha appointed as its first Chairman.
5Reading Comprehension
Prof. Rutherford is considered as the father of atomic energy. The means of atomic energy became known to man through the endless efforts of Einstein, Earnest, Walton, Fermi, Robert Oppenheimer, Neil Bohr, Otto Hahn etc. Man started machine age with the help of steam energy and electric energy. But the minerals like coal, petrol needed for it are limited. According to the scientists these stocks (as they are not creatable) will fall short in the end of this century. The scientists have found out the new
energy means in the form of atomic energy as a remedy. Atomic energy is the power created by the division of extremely minute atom. Heavy atoms like Uranium, Thorium are taken for the division of atom. Uses of atomic energy - Production of electricity,
Diagnosis and treatment of diseases, Development of Agricultural Industry, Aeroplanes run by atomic energy and nondetectable radar are made. The sea base is researched with the help of atomic submarines, destructive atomic weapons are prepared.
Dr. Homi Bhabha is the father of Indian atomic age. "Tata Institute of Fundamental Research' was founded in 1945 for the research in atomic science in India. The Government of India founded the Atomic Energy Commission in August, 1948. Dr. Bhabha was the director of both these Institutions. 'Atomic Research city' was erected at Turbhe near Mumbai under the guidance of Dr. Bhabha. Atomic reactors named Apsara, Cyrus, Zarlina and Purnima established in this city | Care has been taken for the safety of them while erecting. Atomic science is studied through the atomic reactors. Production of about 350 radioactive substances is made in the atomic center at Turbhe. They are used in Industrial, agricultural and Medical fields. Government of India honoured Dr. Bhabha by giving his name to the atomic research centre at Turbhe as "Bhabha Atomic Research Centre." For the production of atomic energy, Uranium and Thorium are available in large quantity in India. The stocks of uranium have been found in Himachal Pradesh, East Bihar and near west coast. The stocks of Thorium have been found on Malabar coast. Uranium fuel is prepared in the factory at Jadugad in Bihar. For the production of atomic energy there is a need of density water, Atomic energy plants have been erected at Nangal, Telcher, Tutikorin, Kota etc.
Where is Bhabha Atomic Research center located ?
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Answer: (C) Turbhe
Explanation
The Bhabha Atomic Research Centre is located at Turbhe near Mumbai. As stated in the provided text, an Atomic Research City was established at Turbhe under the guidance of Dr. Homi Bhabha, and the Government of India subsequently honoured him by renaming this atomic research centre at Turbhe as the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre.
6Reading Comprehension
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to South Asia’s GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011).
The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009).
Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate- change- related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35 - 38°C and for wheat is 30 - 35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model- based projections of future agricultural output.
The rice- wheat system of the Indo- Gangetic plains fulfills the staple food requirements of how many people ?
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Answer: (B) 400 million
Explanation
According to the provided passage, the rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people. This regional system covers an area of about 13.5 million hectares across India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, and Nepal, making it vital for the food security of the region.
7Reading Comprehension
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to South Asia’s GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011).
The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009).
Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate- change- related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35 - 38°C and for wheat is 30 - 35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model- based projections of future agricultural output.
Which countries in South Asia are experiencing the effects of climate change on agricultural production? Select the correct option.
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Answer: (C) India, Bangladesh, Pakistan and Nepal
Explanation
The provided text states that the highly vulnerable rice-wheat system covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal. This system contributes substantially to South Asia's food production but is threatened by declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, declining water availability, increased pest incidence, and salinity, making these specific countries highly vulnerable to the agricultural impacts of climate change.
8Reading Comprehension
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to South Asia’s GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011).
The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009).
Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate- change- related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35 - 38°C and for wheat is 30 - 35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model- based projections of future agricultural output.
Select the consequences of threats to sustainability and food security in South Asia.
(a) Low soil productivity and groundwater depletion.
(b) Declining water availability and increased pest incidence.
(c) Low literacy rate and lack of jobs.
(d) Social discrimination and racism.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) (a) and (b)
Explanation
According to the passage, the sustainability and food security of the agricultural system in South Asia, particularly the rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, are threatened by factors such as declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, declining water availability, and increased pest incidence. These factors directly correspond to statements (a) and (b).
9Reading Comprehension
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to South Asia’s GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011).
The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009).
Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate- change- related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35 - 38°C and for wheat is 30 - 35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model- based projections of future agricultural output.
What possible problems are climate change likely to create in the future for agricultural production in South Asia ?
(a) Food production may decrease and poverty may increase.
(b) Food production, especially rice and wheat will be adversely affected.
(c) It will be beneficial for achieving sustainability and food security in South Asia.
(d) Malnutrition and hunger rates may increase.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
Climate change poses significant risks to agricultural production in South Asia, leading to critical socio-economic and nutritional challenges. First, as agricultural productivity is a key driver of poverty reduction, the adverse impacts of climate change on crop yields will hinder poverty alleviation efforts and likely increase poverty levels. Second, staple crops are highly vulnerable, as future temperature extremes are projected to exceed the upper temperature sensitivity thresholds for rice (35 to 38°C) and wheat (30 to 35°C), thereby severely impacting their regional production. Finally, because the majority of the population relies heavily on this sector for food and livelihood, these disruptions to agricultural output and regional food security directly elevate the risks of hunger and malnutrition.
10Reading Comprehension
Agriculture contributes approximately 18 percent to South Asia’s GDP (2011 Data based on World Bank 2013); more than 50 percent of the population is employed in the sector (2010 data based on World Bank 2013 million); and directly dependent on it. In Bangladesh, for example, rural communities, representing large parts of the population, are expected to remain dependent on agriculture despite structural changes in the economy away from climate-sensitive sectors in the future. As a result, much of the population will remain vulnerable to these climate change impacts (World Bank 2009). Productivity growth in agriculture is thus an important driver of poverty reduction, and it is highly dependent on the hydrological cycle and freshwater availability (Jacoby, Mariano, and Skoufias 2011).
The rice-wheat system in the Indo-Gangetic Plain, which meets the staple food needs of more than 400 million people, is a highly vulnerable regional system. The system, which covers an area of around 13.5 million hectares in Pakistan, India, Bangladesh, and Nepal, provides highly productive land and contributes substantially to the region's food production. Declining soil productivity, groundwater depletion, and declining water availability, as well as increased pest incidence and salinity, already threaten sustainability and food security in the region (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009).
Climate change is projected to have a significant and often adverse impact on agricultural production in South Asia, the development of the sector, and the economic benefits derived from it (Nelson, et al. 2009) There are a significant number of risks arising from climate- change- related phenomena that need to be considered in assessing the future impacts on the sector. For example, the Upper Temperature Sensitivity threshold for current cultivars for rice is 35 - 38°C and for wheat is 30 - 35°C (Wassmann, Jagadish, Sumfleth, et al. 2009). Future heat extremes may thus pose a significant risk to regional production of these crops. This section will provide a short overview of the major risks to crop and agricultural production in the region before turning to model- based projections of future agricultural output.
What is the approximate percentage share of the agricultural sector in South Asia's (2011), Gross National Domestic Product (GDP) ?
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Answer: (A) 18 percent
Explanation
The agricultural sector contributed approximately 18 percent to South Asia's Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in 2011, according to the World Bank 2013 data cited in the passage. This sector remains a primary economic driver and a critical source of employment for over half of the region's population, making its productivity essential for poverty reduction and food security.
11Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15.
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human- caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine- based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO₂ .
The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea- level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year- twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low- lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia.
Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid- latitude weather- heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry- season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower.
Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black- carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Who lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes ecologically ?
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Answer: (C) Polar bears, Penguins, Seals
Explanation
According to the third paragraph of the passage, the ecological impact of vanishing sea ice includes the loss of critical habitats. The text explicitly states that ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes.
12Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15. World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human- caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine- based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO₂ .
The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea- level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year- twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low- lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia.
Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid- latitude weather- heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry- season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower.
Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black- carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
What happens due to permafrost ?
(a) Locks up carbon twicely.
(b) Turn solid ground into slush.
(c) Add oxygen in water.
(d) Release methane and NO₂.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (B) Only (b)
Explanation
According to the passage, when permafrost thaws across Siberia, Alaska, and Northern Canada, it turns solid ground into slush. This directly matches statement (b). Statement (a) refers to its storage capacity rather than an active event caused by its thawing, statement (c) is not mentioned, and statement (d) is incorrect because the thawing of permafrost releases methane and carbon dioxide (CO₂), not nitrogen dioxide (NO₂). Therefore, only statement (b) is correct.
13Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15. World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human- caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine- based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO₂ .
The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea- level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year- twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low- lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia.
Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid- latitude weather- heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry- season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower.
Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black- carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Observe the following statements.
(a) Since the 1990s, Earths ice sheets, glaciers and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass.
(b) Arctic ocean ice extent is now 40% smaller than in 1980.
(c) West Antarctica's marine based glaciers vulnerable because of melting of ice.
Answer Options :
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct
Explanation
The passage directly supports all three statements. Statement (a) matches the text which states that since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Statement (b) is supported by the text mentioning that the Arctic sea ice extent is now 40% smaller than in 1980. Statement (c) is correct because the passage explains that West Antarctica's marine-based glaciers are especially vulnerable due to warm ocean water eating at their undersides, which is a process of ice melting.
14Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15. World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human- caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine- based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO₂ .
The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea- level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year- twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low- lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia.
Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid- latitude weather- heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry- season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower.
Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black- carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Why the water security of 2 billion people is in endanger ?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) Glacier retreat
Explanation
According to the passage, glacier retreat directly endangers the water security of 2 billion people. These populations depend on seasonal meltwater from major mountain ranges like the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for both drinking water and agricultural irrigation. As the glaciers shrink and retreat, dry-season river flows decline, leading to severe strains on agriculture, freshwater availability, and hydropower generation.
15Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 11 to 15.
World ice is melting at an accelerating pace, driven mainly by human- caused warming. Since the 1990s, Earth's ice sheets, glaciers, and sea ice have lost more than 28 trillion tonnes of mass. Greenland's ice sheet alone sheds about 280 billion tonnes a year, while Antarctica loses roughly 150 billion tonnes, with West Antarctica's marine- based glaciers especially vulnerable because warm ocean water eats at their undersides. Mountain glaciers from the Himalayas to the Andes are retreating even faster in percentage terms; the Alps lost 10% of their remaining ice just between 2021 and 2023. Arctic sea ice extent in September is now 40% smaller than in 1980, and the remaining ice is younger and thinner, making it melt more easily each summer. Permafrost, which locks up twice the carbon currently in the atmosphere, is thawing across Siberia, Alaska and Northern Canada, turning solid ground into slush and releasing methane and CO₂ .
The effects ripple globally. Meltwater is the dominant driver of sea- level rise, now increasing about 4.6 mm per year- twice the 1990s rate. Even if emissions stopped today, the ice already lost commits the oceans to roughly 30 cm of rise by 2050, threatening coastal cities from Mumbai to Miami and low- lying nations like Bangladesh and the Maldives. Saltwater intrusion contaminates freshwater and farmland, while stronger storm surges ride on higher baseline seas. Ice loss also disrupts ocean circulation: massive freshwater pulses from Greenland weaken the Atlantic Meridional Overturning Circulation, which helps regulate weather patterns in Europe and monsoons in South Asia.
Ecologically, polar bears, seals, and penguins lose hunting and breeding platforms as sea ice vanishes. Arctic warming, happening nearly four times faster than the global average, shifts jet streams and has been linked to more extreme mid- latitude weather- heat domes, cold snaps, and erratic rainfall. Glacier retreat endangers water security for 2 billion people who depend on seasonal melt from the Himalayas, Andes, and Rockies for drinking and irrigation; as glaciers shrink, dry- season river flows drop, straining agriculture and hydropower.
Thawing permafrost damages roads, pipelines, and buildings in the Arctic, and the carbon it releases creates a feedback loop that accelerates warming. Economically, new Arctic shipping lanes open but come with spill risks, while insurance and infrastructure costs climb in coastal zones. Slowing the melt hinges on cutting greenhouse gases rapidly, protecting black- carbon sources that darken snow, and adapting coasts and water systems to the change already locked in.
Which of the following is the dominant driver of sea-level rise?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) Meltwater
Explanation
According to the provided passage, meltwater is the dominant driver of global sea-level rise, which is currently increasing at a rate of approximately 4.6 mm per year, twice the rate observed in the 1990s. This influx of fresh water is primarily driven by the melting of Earth's ice sheets and glaciers.
16Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question number 16 to question number 20 based upon the passage.
Maharashtra State Income
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro- economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development.
After COVID year 2020- 21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024- 25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019- 20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023- 24 and 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post- COVID era.
As per the advance estimates of 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023- 24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively.
As per the second advance estimates for 2024- 25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
Analysis of GDP helps ______.
(a) In understanding extent and direction of changes in international trade
(b) In identifying structural changes in an economy
(c) In formulation of policies by the government
Which of the above statement/s are correct?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Statements (b) and (c)
Explanation
According to the first paragraph of the passage, the analysis of Gross Domestic Product at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy. Furthermore, this analysis assists the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development. Statement (b) and statement (c) are directly supported by these facts. Statement (a) is incorrect because the passage mentions that GDP analysis reveals changes in the levels of economic development rather than international trade.
17Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question number 16 to question number 20 based upon the passage.
Maharashtra State Income
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro- economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development.
After COVID year 2020- 21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024- 25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019- 20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023- 24 and 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post- COVID era.
As per the advance estimates of 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023- 24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively.
As per the second advance estimates for 2024- 25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates of 2024-25, the Maharashtra state economy is expected to grow at ______ % whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at ______ %.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 7.3; 6.5
Explanation
According to the third paragraph of the provided passage, the advance estimates of 2024–25 project that the Maharashtra state economy is expected to grow at 7.3% over the previous year 2023–24. In the same paragraph, it is stated that the Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5% during this period. Therefore, the respective growth percentages are 7.3 and 6.5.
18Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question number 16 to question number 20 based upon the passage.
Maharashtra State Income
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro- economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development.
After COVID year 2020- 21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024- 25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019- 20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023- 24 and 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post- COVID era.
As per the advance estimates of 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023- 24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively.
As per the second advance estimates for 2024- 25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, real gross state value added of 'agriculture and allied activities' and 'services' sector is expected to grow at ______ % and ______ % respectively.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 8.7; 7.8
Explanation
According to the provided passage, the advance estimates of 2024-25 for Maharashtra state indicate that the real Gross State Value Added of the 'Agriculture and allied activities' sector is expected to grow at 8.7% and the 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 7.8%. This gives the respective growth rates as 8.7% and 7.8%.
19Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question number 16 to question number 20 based upon the passage.
Maharashtra State Income
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro- economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development.
After COVID year 2020- 21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024- 25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019- 20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023- 24 and 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post- COVID era.
As per the advance estimates of 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023- 24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively.
As per the second advance estimates for 2024- 25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
As per the advance estimates 2024-25, the real GVA of industry is expected to grow at ______ % while the real GSVA of industry is expected to grow at ______ % in 2024-25.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 5.6; 4.9
Explanation
According to the second advance estimates for 2024-25 released by the National Statistical Office, Government of India, the real Gross Value Added (GVA) of the industry sector is expected to grow at 5.6 percent. Meanwhile, as per the advance estimates for Maharashtra, the real Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of the industry sector is expected to grow at 4.9 percent in 2024-25. This yields the values of 5.6 percent and 4.9 percent respectively.
20Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question number 16 to question number 20 based upon the passage.
Maharashtra State Income
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is one of the most important macro- economic aggregates to measure the nation's total economic activity. Analysis of estimates of GDP over a period of time helps in revealing the extent and direction of the changes in the levels of economic development. Analysis of GDP at aggregate and disaggregated levels helps to identify structural changes taking place in the economy along with its growth drivers, which helps the government in formulating policies for overall economic growth and development.
After COVID year 2020- 21, a growth of over seven percent has been observed for four consecutive years in the economy of Maharashtra state. The State economy is expected to move swiftly in post pandemic era, with expected real GSDP in 2024- 25 being almost 25 percent higher than in 2019- 20. Along with expected increase in selected expected 'Net product taxes' and stable growth in 'Services' sector in financial year 2023- 24 and 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to be in a position to carry forward the momentum that was built in first two years of post- COVID era.
As per the advance estimates of 2024- 25, the State economy is expected to grow at 7.3 percent over 2023- 24 whereas Indian economy is expected to grow at 6.5 percent. The nominal GSDP is estimated at Rs. 45,31,518 crore and the real GSDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 26,12,263 crore. As per the advance estimates, real GSVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 8.7 percent, 4.9 percent and 7.8 percent respectively.
As per the second advance estimates for 2024- 25 released by National Statistical Office, GoI, the nominal GDP is estimated at Rs. 3,31,03,215 crore, whereas the real GDP (Base year 2011- 12) is estimated at Rs. 1,87,95,095 crore. The real GVA of 'Agriculture and allied activities', 'Industry' and 'Services' sector is expected to grow at 4.6 percent, 5.6 percent and 7.3 percent respectively.
The expected rise in gross state domestic product of Maharashtra in 2024-25, is due to which of the following factor/s ?
(a) Expected stable growth in services sector
(b) Expected increase in selected net product taxes
(c) Expected dynamic reforms in state economy
Answer Options :
● Correct
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Answer: (A) Options (a) and (b) only
Explanation
According to the provided passage, the momentum of the state economy of Maharashtra in the financial years 2023-24 and 2024-25 is expected to be carried forward due to the expected increase in selected expected Net product taxes and stable growth in the Services sector. This directly supports statements (a) and (b) as the key factors driving the expected rise in the gross state domestic product.
21Reading Comprehension
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light- emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light- emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light- emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward- biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light- emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine- tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Purple LEDs have a wavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following statement is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) When average distance of electrons changes from the nucleus, they emit light.
Explanation
According to the principles of Bohr's atomic model described in the passage, when an electron revolves in a specific orbit, its distance from the nucleus remains constant and no energy is emitted. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, meaning the electron jumps from one orbit to another, it releases the difference in energy in the form of light, which produces a spectral line.
22Reading Comprehension
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light- emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light- emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light- emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward- biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light- emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine- tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Purple LEDs have a wavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
The color of light emitting diode (LED) depends on which of the physical quantity?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) Band gap energy
Explanation
The color of a light-emitting diode (LED) is determined by the wavelength of the emitted light, which directly depends on the band gap energy of the semiconductor material. The relation between the energy of the emitted photon and its wavelength is given by the formula E = hc/λ, where E is the band gap energy, h is Planck's constant, c is the speed of light, and λ is the wavelength. Since different colors of light correspond to specific wavelengths, precisely engineering the band gap energy of the semiconductor material determines the specific color of the light emitted by the LED.
23Reading Comprehension
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light- emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light- emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light- emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward- biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light- emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine- tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Purple LEDs have a wavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following light emitting diode (LED) consume lower energy?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (A) Red light emitting diode (LED)
Explanation
The energy of the emitted photon is inversely proportional to its wavelength, according to the formula E = hc/λ, where h is Planck's constant and c is the speed of light. Red light-emitting diodes operate at the longest wavelength range of the visible spectrum, which is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. Because of this longer wavelength, the energy required for the electronic transition across the semiconductor band gap is the lowest, meaning red LEDs require the least amount of input energy to operate and thus consume the lowest energy.
24Reading Comprehension
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light- emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light- emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light- emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward- biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light- emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine- tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Purple LEDs have a wavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
Which of the following is an appropriate title for the above passage?
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Answer: (A) Light emitting diode (LED) technology: From Bohr's atomic model to coloured light emission
Explanation
The passage systematically traces the development and functionality of Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) by starting with Niels Bohr's atomic model, which explains how electrons jumping between energy levels emit energy. It then connects this fundamental physical principle directly to the working mechanism of LEDs. Finally, the text details how different semiconductor materials are engineered to manipulate band gap energies, resulting in various wavelengths that produce the entire spectrum of LED colours from red to purple. This title accurately reflects the entire narrative arc of the passage, bridging foundational quantum physics with modern optoelectronic technology and colour generation.
25Reading Comprehension
We can use Bohr's model of the atom to understand how spectral lines are formed. According to Bohr's research, when electrons revolve in specific orbits around the nucleus, the distance between the nucleus remains constant. However, when the distance of the electron from the nucleus changes, the electron emits energy. In other words, the electron jumps from one orbit to another. At that time, it produces a spectral line. Essentially, this principle is used in light- emitting diodes. When we apply excess energy to a light- emitting diode, the electron in that atom jumps from one orbital to another, releasing the excess energy in the form of light. Light Emitting Diodes (LEDs) are the most widely used semiconductor diodes among all the different types of semiconductor diodes available today. Light- emitting diodes emit either visible light or invisible infrared light when forward- biased. The LEDs that emit invisible infrared light are used in remote controls. A light- emitting diode (LED) is an optical semiconductor device that emits light when voltage is applied. The science behind LED colour controls the wavelengths of light through the precise engineering of semiconductor materials. Let's understand how different wavelengths create unique LED colours. Each LED's colour corresponds to a specific range of wavelengths. Red LEDs operate at the longer end of the visible spectrum. Their wavelength is approximately 620 to 750 nanometers. This colour is produced with using substances such as gallium arsenide phosphide. Red LEDs are highly efficient and generally consume relatively low energy. Orange LEDs fall in the wavelength range of 590 to 620 nanometers. By slightly reducing the band gap energy in the semiconductor structure, compared to red and orange colours can be produced. Yellow LEDs operate at wavelengths between 570 to 590 nanometers. Yellow LEDs require fine- tuning of gallium alloys to produce the correct band gap. Green LEDs emit light in wavelengths between 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the required energy levels for green light by using gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride, which can handle the energy requirements for blue light. Purple LEDs have a wavelength between 400 to 450 nanometers. These LEDs require the highest energy levels of the visible spectrum.
By using Indium Gallium Nitride, which color light emitting diode (LED) emit?
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Answer: (C) Green
Explanation
Green light-emitting diodes emit light within the wavelength range of 500 to 570 nanometers. These LEDs achieve the specific energy levels necessary to produce green light by utilizing gallium nitride or indium gallium nitride as the semiconductor material.
26Logical Reasoning
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal Kingdom and the human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum Chordata of Animal Kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belongs to the order Primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in the Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary period, even though the earliest human fossil was recovered only from the Pliocene, about 13 million years ago.
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3- 4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right.
Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650- 800 cc. They probably did not eat meat.
Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000- 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000- 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre- historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Arrange the following in correct chronological order (earliest to latest).
(a) Appearance of Homo erectus
(b) Existence of Dryopithecus
(c) Development of prehistoric cave art
(d) Rise of Australopithecines
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Answer: (A) (b), (d), (a), (c)
Explanation
The chronological order of the evolutionary events from earliest to latest is determined by the timelines provided in the text. Dryopithecus existed approximately 15 million years ago. Australopithecines arose later, living around 2 million years ago. Homo erectus appeared subsequent to Australopithecines, dating back to about 1.5 million years ago. Finally, prehistoric cave art developed much more recently, around 18,000 years ago. This establishes the sequence as (b), (d), (a), (c).
27Logical Reasoning
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal Kingdom and the human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum Chordata of Animal Kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belongs to the order Primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in the Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary period, even though the earliest human fossil was recovered only from the Pliocene, about 13 million years ago.
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3- 4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right.
Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650- 800 cc. They probably did not eat meat.
Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000- 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000- 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre- historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Why scientists believe that man like primates walked in Eastern Africa about 3-4 million years ago ?
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Answer: (D) Fossile evidence of man like bones with hominid features in Ethiopia and Tanzania
Explanation
The scientific belief that man-like primates walked in Eastern Africa about 3 to 4 million years ago is based on the discovery of fossilised man-like bones in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These fossil discoveries revealed distinct hominid features, providing concrete physical evidence of early hominids walking upright in the East African region during that period.
28Reading Comprehension
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal Kingdom and the human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum Chordata of Animal Kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belongs to the order Primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in the Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary period, even though the earliest human fossil was recovered only from the Pliocene, about 13 million years ago.
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3- 4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right.
Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650- 800 cc. They probably did not eat meat.
Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000- 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000- 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre- historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Which of the following events occurred latest in the evolutionary and cultural history of humans according to the passage ?
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Answer: (B) Development of prehistoric cave art
Explanation
The development of prehistoric cave art occurred about 18,000 years ago, which makes it the most recent or latest event in the human evolutionary and cultural timeline described in the passage. This activity took place well after the eras of earlier primates in the Paleocene epoch (63 million years ago), the emergence of Homo erectus (1.5 million years ago), and the presence of Neanderthal man (100,000 to 40,000 years ago).
29Reading Comprehension
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal Kingdom and the human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum Chordata of Animal Kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belongs to the order Primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in the Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary period, even though the earliest human fossil was recovered only from the Pliocene, about 13 million years ago.
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3- 4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right.
Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650- 800 cc. They probably did not eat meat.
Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000- 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000- 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre- historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
What is the central idea of the given paragraph?
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Answer: (C) Origin of humans and their evolution from primates
Explanation
The passage comprehensively traces the evolutionary timeline of humans from early primates to modern Homo sapiens. It details the chronological transition through various ancestral stages, including Dryopithecus, Ramapithecus, Australopithecines, Homo habilis, Homo erectus, Neanderthal man, and modern humans, highlighting their physical developments, brain capacities, and behavioral adaptations over millions of years. This chronological and anatomical progression establishes the origin of humans and their evolutionary journey from primates as the central theme of the text.
30Reading Comprehension
Man represents the climax of evolution in the Animal Kingdom and the human brain is considered to be the best achievement of evolution. Man belongs to the class Mammalia of the phylum Chordata of Animal Kingdom. In the class Mammalia man belongs to the order Primates, which is only one of the ten orders of subclass Eutheria. Evolution of these primates including man can be traced as far back as about 63 million years in the Paleocene epoch of the Tertiary period, even though the earliest human fossil was recovered only from the Pliocene, about 13 million years ago.
About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. They were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees. Ramapithecus was more man-like while Dryopithecus was more ape-like. Few fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in Ethiopia and Tanzania. These revealed hominid features leading to the belief that about 3- 4 mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa. They were probably not taller than 4 feet but walked up right.
Two mya, Australopithecines probably lived in East African grasslands. Evidence shows they hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit. Some of the bones among the bones discovered were different. This creature was called the first human-like being the hominid and was called Homo habilis. The brain capacities were between 650- 800 cc. They probably did not eat meat.
Fossils discovered in Java in 1891 revealed the next stage, i.e., Homo erectus about 1.5 mya. Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cc. Homo erectus probably ate meat.
The Neanderthal man with a brain size of 1400 cc lived in near east and central Asia between 1,00,000- 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents and developed into distinct races. During ice age between 75,000- 10,000 years ago modern Homo sapiens arose. Pre- historic cave art developed about 18,000 years ago. One such cave paintings by prehistoric humans can be seen at Bhimbetka rock shelter in Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh.
Agriculture came around 10,000 years back and human settlements started. The rest of what happened is part of human history of growth and decline of civilisations.
Consider the following statements:
A) Australopithecines hunted with stone weapons but mainly ate fruit.
B) Homo habilis probably did not eat meat.
C) Homo erectus had smaller brain than Neanderthal man.
D) Neanderthal man lived between 75,000 - 10,000 years ago.
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Answer: (A) a, b, and c only
Explanation
Statement A is correct because the text states that Australopithecines hunted with stone weapons but essentially ate fruit.
Statement B is correct as the passage notes that Homo habilis probably did not eat meat.
Statement C is correct because the text indicates that Homo erectus had a brain size of around 900 cc, which is smaller than the 1400 cc brain size of the Neanderthal man.
31Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35.
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil.
On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
On what basis it could be known that, whether defendant had taken the due care established by law ?
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Answer: (C) Fact
Explanation
The passage states that the question in every case of negligence is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought their conduct was sufficiently careful, but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. Therefore, the determination of whether the defendant took the due care established by law is based on the actual facts of the situation.
32Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35.
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil.
On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
According to the paragraph what is care ?
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Answer: (A) is matter of degree
Explanation
According to the very first sentence of the passage, care is a matter of degree. The author explicitly defines care in this manner to establish that it is not a fixed or absolute concept, meaning the law must determine the specific level and amount of care that is obligatory upon a person under different circumstances.
33Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35.
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil.
On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
According to the passage, what is the standard of care?
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Answer: (A) Fixed by law
Explanation
According to the passage, the law determines the degree and the amount of care obligatory upon a person, which means the law has fixed the standard of care. This is further supported by the text stating that the question in every case is whether the conduct of the defendant attained to the standard of due care established by law, rather than being determined by the individual's own judgment or belief.
34Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35.
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil.
On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Why driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The passage explicitly states that driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself because the risk of harm in such cases is very small. It further explains that because of this minimal risk, the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. Finally, the passage mentions that imposing stricter rules would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind. Since the small risk of harm, the allowance by law, and the preservation of beneficial activities are all directly cited in the text as reasons why this act is not considered negligent, all of the provided reasons are correct.
35Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions from 31 to 35.
Care is a matter of degree. It is not sufficient for law to say that it is the duty of a person to take care. It must go a step further and determine the degree and the amount of care which is obligatory upon a person. That it is to say that the law has fixed the standard of care. It does not require that a man should not do a work simply because a certain amount of danger maybe caused by it. It does not insist that a man should so anxiously consider the interest of their fellows as never to expose them to any risk of harm, however small. It has been seen that accidents happen by driving cars on crowded roads but driving a car on a crowded road is not a negligent act in itself. The risk of harm is so small in such cases that the law allows the danger to be knowingly created. To let down any other rule would unreasonably restrict the beneficial activities of mankind for the sake of avoiding a remote and unlikely evil.
On the other hand, it is not sufficient that the defendant has acted in good faith to the best of his judgment and believes and he used as much care as he himself believed to be required of him in the circumstances by reason and justice. The question in every case is not whether the defendant, however honest, thought is conduct sufficiently careful but whether in fact it attained to the standard of due care established by law. When by the negligent conduct of vehicle or foot passenger on the road, a collision with another person or vehicle is rendered eminent; the latter will not be liable in respect of collusion if in the stress and agitation of the moment he take unwise course in seeking to avoid it. Good sense and the policy of the law impose some limit upon the amount of care, skill and nerve which required of a person in a position of a duty, who has to encounter a sudden emergency.
Under what circumstances a person is not liable for collision?
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
According to the passage, a person is not held liable for a collision if, in the stress and agitation of the moment, they take an unwise course in seeking to avoid it. The passage further notes that the law imposes limits on the standard of care, skill, and nerve expected of a person when they have to encounter a sudden emergency. Consequently, sudden emergencies, the stress and agitation of the moment, and taking an unwise course of action to avoid harm all represent circumstances under which liability is not imposed.
36Reading Comprehension
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution.
Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system.
For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government.
The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant- Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the nature of the administrative structure under the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
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Answer: (B) Rigidly centralised with unitary control
Explanation
According to the provided text, the administration of the country under the Government of India Act, 1858, was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The entire territory was divided into provinces, each headed by a Governor or Lieutenant-Governor aided by an executive council, all functioning under the tight control of the centralized authority of the Governor-General and the Secretary of State for India.
37Reading Comprehension
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution.
Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system.
For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government.
The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant- Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who exercised the powers of the Crown in India according to the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
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Answer: (A) Secretary of State for India
Explanation
According to the Government of India Act, 1858, the powers of the British Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India. The Secretary of State was a member of the British Cabinet and was made responsible to the British Parliament, governing India through the Governor-General.
38Reading Comprehension
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution.
Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system.
For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government.
The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant- Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
What was the dominant principle of the Government of India Act, 1858 ?
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Answer: (B) Absolute Imperial Control
Explanation
The Government of India Act, 1858 was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country. Under this Act, the British Crown assumed direct sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and all governing powers were concentrated in the Secretary of State for India and the Governor-General, establishing a rigidly centralized and unitary administration.
39Reading Comprehension
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution.
Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system.
For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government.
The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant- Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
Who assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company in 1858 ?
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Answer: (B) British Crown
Explanation
According to the Government of India Act of 1858, the British Crown assumed direct sovereignty over India, bringing an end to the rule of the East India Company. Under this act, the governance of India, along with its territories and revenues, was transferred from the Company to the British Monarch, marking the beginning of direct British rule over the subcontinent.
40Reading Comprehension
Answer questions No. 36 to 40 after reading the following paragraphs.
The very fact that the Constitution of the Indian republic is the product not of a political revolution but of the research and deliberations of a body of eminent representatives of the people who sought to improve upon the existing system of administration, makes a retrospect of the constitutional development indispensable for a proper understanding of this Constitution.
Practically the only respect in which the Constitution of 1949 differs from the constitutional documents of the preceding two centuries is that while the latter had been imposed by an imperial power, the Republican Constitution was made by the people themselves, through representatives assembled in a sovereign constituent assembly. That explains the majesty and ethical value of this new instrument and also the significance of those of its provisions which have been engrafted upon the pre-existing system.
For our present purposes we need not go beyond the year 1858 when the British Crown assumed sovereignty over India from the East India Company, and Parliament enacted the first statute for the governance of India under the direct rule of the British government - The Government of India Act, 1858. This act serves as the starting point of our survey because it was dominated by the principle of absolute imperial control without any popular participation in the administration of the country, while the subsequent history up to the making of the constitution is one of gradual relaxation of imperial control and the evolution of responsible government. By this act, the powers of the Crown were to be exercised by the Secretary of State for India, assisted by a council of 15 members (known as the council of India). The council was composed exclusively of people from England, some of whom were nominees of the Crown while others were the representatives of the Directors of the East India Company. The Secretary of State, who was responsible to the British Parliament, governed India through the Governor-General, assisted by an Executive council which consisted of high officials of the government.
The administration of the country was not only unitary but rigidly centralised. The territory was divided into provinces with a Governor or Lieutenant- Governor aided by his executive council at the head of each of them.
40. परिच्छेदानुसार, 1858 च्या कायद्यानुसार भारताचा कारभार चालविणाऱ्या 'भारतीय परिषदे' चे (Council of India) स्वरूप काय होते ?
(1) केवळ भारतात राहणाऱ्या लोकांचा समावेश
(2) केवळ इंग्लंडमधील लोकांचा समावेश
(3) भारतीय आणि ब्रिटीश प्रतिनिधींचे समान मिश्रण
(4) ईस्ट इंडीया कंपनीच्या केवळ भारतीय संचालकांचा समावेश
According to the passage, what was the composition of the 'Council of India' that governed India under the Act of 1858 ?
(1) Composed exclusively of people living in India
(2) Composed exclusively of people from England
(3) Equal mix of Indian and British representatives
(4) Composed only of Indian directors of East India Company
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Answer: (B) Composed exclusively of people from England / केवळ इंग्लंडमधील लोकांचा समावेश
Explanation
According to the passage, under the Government of India Act of 1858, the powers of the Crown were exercised by the Secretary of State for India, who was assisted by a council of 15 members known as the Council of India. The passage explicitly states that this council was composed exclusively of people from England, consisting of both nominees of the Crown and representatives of the Directors of the East India Company.
41Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून त्याखालील प्रश्न क्र. ४१ ते ४५ या प्रश्नांची उत्तरे लिहा.
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून नियुक्त केले.
येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली, खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशित आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य.' आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........ दिक् आणि काल स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
41. आइन्स्टाइन यांना कोणत्या शाखेसाठी असणारे नोबेल पारितोषिक प्राप्त झाले ?
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Answer: (A) भौतिकशास्त्र
Explanation
उताऱ्यात स्पष्टपणे नमूद केले आहे की, १९२२ मध्ये आइन्स्टाइन पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठीच्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचे मानकरी ठरले. पदार्थविज्ञान म्हणजेच भौतिकशास्त्र होय.
42Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून त्याखालील प्रश्न क्र. ४१ ते ४५ या प्रश्नांची उत्तरे लिहा.
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून नियुक्त केले.
येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली, खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशित आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य.' आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........ दिक् आणि काल स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
42. आइन्स्टाइनच्या विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ केव्हापासून सुरू होतो ?
(अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलविल्यानंतर
(ब) पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयातील नोकरी सोडल्यानंतर
(क) आपले जगणे, आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे हे जीवनाचे सूत्र न कळल्यामुळे
(ड) शोधनिबंध आणि पीएच.डी. पदवी संपादनासाठी स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केल्यानंतर
पर्यायी उत्तरे :
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Answer: (B) (ब) आणि (ड) बरोबर
Explanation
उताऱ्यानुसार, अल्बर्ट आइन्स्टाइन यांनी बर्न येथील पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात काम करत असताना काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले आणि त्यानंतर झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. पदवी संपादन करण्यासाठी स्वतंत्र प्रबंध सादर केला. या प्रबंधामुळे त्यांना पीएच.डी. पदवी मिळाली आणि विद्यापीठात प्राध्यापक म्हणून त्यांची नियुक्ती झाली. या घटनांनंतर म्हणजेच पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयातील नोकरी सोडल्यानंतर आणि शोधनिबंध तसेच पीएच.डी. पदवीसाठी स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केल्यानंतर त्यांचा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ सुरू झाला. त्यामुळे विधान (ब) आणि (ड) दोन्ही बरोबर आहेत.
43Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून त्याखालील प्रश्न क्र. ४१ ते ४५ या प्रश्नांची उत्तरे लिहा.
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून नियुक्त केले.
येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली, खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशित आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य.' आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........ दिक् आणि काल स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
43. आइन्स्टाइन हा कोणत्या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता ?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) स्पिनोझा
Explanation
दिलेल्या उताऱ्यातील 'आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता.' या स्पष्ट उल्लेखावरून आइन्स्टाइन हे स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचे चाहते होते हे स्पष्ट होते.
44Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून त्याखालील प्रश्न क्र. ४१ ते ४५ या प्रश्नांची उत्तरे लिहा.
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून नियुक्त केले.
येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली, खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशित आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य.' आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........ दिक् आणि काल स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
44. बेल्जियमच्या राणीस आइन्स्टाइन भेटावयास गेला होता. याबाबतीत पुढील विधाने वाचून योग्य पर्याय निवडा.
(अ) बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटावयास बोलविले होते.
(ब) तो राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला.
(क) त्याच्या हातात सुटकेस व व्हायोलिन होते.
(ड) स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी फक्त वाहने होती.
पर्यायी उत्तरे :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) फक्त (अ), (ब) व (क) बरोबर
Explanation
उताऱ्यात स्पष्टपणे नमूद केले आहे की बेल्जियमच्या राणीने आइन्स्टाइनला भेटीसाठी बोलावले होते. तो स्थानकावरून राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला आणि त्यावेळी त्याच्या एका हातात सुटकेस व दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन होते. स्थानकावर केवळ वाहने नसून वाहने आणि अधिकारी दोन्ही स्वागतासाठी सज्ज असल्याने विधान ड चुकीचे आहे. त्यामुळे अ, ब आणि क ही विधाने बरोबर आहेत.
45Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून त्याखालील प्रश्न क्र. ४१ ते ४५ या प्रश्नांची उत्तरे लिहा.
शेवटी तेविसाव्या वर्षी बर्न येथील एका पेटंट तपासणी कार्यालयात त्याने एक दुय्यम नोकरी धरली. या कार्यालयात त्याला रोजचे काम उरकून बरीच उसंत मिळू लागली. सुमारे पाच वर्षांच्या काळात त्याने काही शोधनिबंध प्रसिद्ध केले. झुरिच विद्यापीठाची पीएच.डी. संपादन करण्यासाठी त्याने एक स्वतंत्र प्रबंध प्रसिद्ध केला. त्या प्रबंधामुळे त्याला पीएच.डी. ही उपाधी मिळाली. या विद्यापीठाने त्याला नंतर प्राध्यापक म्हणून नियुक्त केले.
येथून पुढे अनेक उपक्रमांनी संपन्न असा विचारसमृद्धीचा काळ आइन्स्टाइनने अनुभवला. प्रयोग केले. निष्कर्ष काढले. उपपत्तींचे आकृतिबंध उभे केले. ग्रंथ लिहिले, मते मांडली, खंडनमंडनही केले. 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला. 1905 ते 1909 या काळात त्याची 'क्वांटम थिअरी' प्रकाशित आली. 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला. बर्लिन येथे असलेल्या कैसर विलहेल्म इन्स्टिट्यूटचा तो 1913 मध्ये संचालक झाला. 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेसाठी असणाऱ्या नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा तो मानकरी ठरला. त्याच्या आसपास ब्रिटिश रॉयल सोसायटीचा तो फेलो झाला. त्याचा सापेक्षतावाद जगप्रसिद्ध झाला. तो साधा, सरळ पण महत्त्वाचा विचार असा, 'प्रत्येक व्यक्ती जगाकडे आपल्या जागेवरून पाहते. प्रत्येकाने रेखाटलेले जगाचे चित्र व्यक्तिसापेक्ष व भिन्न असते. जगातील सर्व व्यक्तींच्या संभाव्य आणि सापेक्ष अशा अनुभवांची बेरीज म्हणजे अंतिम सत्य.' आइन्स्टाइन हा स्पिनोझा या तत्त्ववेत्त्याचा चाहता होता. त्या दोघांची एक भूमिका अशी - सर्वज्ञ अशा देवाचे मन म्हणजे सर्व मानवी मनांची बेरीज होय. सम्यक आकलन म्हणजे अंशात्मक आणि सापेक्ष ज्ञानाचे विराट संकलन होय ........ दिक् आणि काल स्वतंत्र तत्त्वे नाहीत. ती परस्परसंलग्न आणि एकात्म आहेत, एकाच परिणामाची ती अंगे आहेत. विचाराची सधनता लाभलेल्या आइन्स्टाइनला संपत्तीचे आकर्षण नव्हते. तो कमालीचा साधा होता. एकदा बेल्जियमच्या राणीने त्याला भेटीसाठी बोलावले. स्थानकावर त्याच्या स्वागतासाठी वाहने आणि अधिकारी सज्ज होते. पण आइन्स्टाइन एका हातात सुटकेस आणि दुसऱ्या हातात व्हायोलिन घेऊन राजवाड्यापर्यंत चालत गेला. त्याला कोणी ओळखले नाही. या निगर्वी बुद्धिमंताला, लोक डामडौल का करतात ते कधीच कळले नाही. आपण जगतो ते केवळ आपल्यासाठी नाही, तर आपला आनंद ज्या अनेकांच्या सुखावर अवलंबून आहे त्या सर्वांसाठी, असे तो म्हणत असे.
45. योग्य जोड्या लावून पर्याय ओळखा.
(a) वयाच्या 23 व्या वर्षी (i) सापेक्षतावादावरील ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध
(b) 1905 मध्ये (ii) झुरिच विद्यापीठात प्रवेश
(c) 1922 मध्ये (iii) दुय्यम नोकरी प्राप्त
(d) 1909 मध्ये (iv) नोबेल पुरस्कार प्राप्त
पर्यायी उत्तरे :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation
उताऱ्यातील माहितीनुसार दिलेल्या घटकांच्या योग्य जोड्या खालीलप्रमाणे जुळतात.
वयाच्या 23 व्या वर्षी (a) या घटकाची जोडी दुय्यम नोकरी प्राप्त (iii) अशी जुळते, कारण उताऱ्यात पहिल्याच वाक्यात तेविसाव्या वर्षी पेटंट कार्यालयात दुय्यम नोकरी धरल्याचा उल्लेख आहे.
1905 मध्ये (b) या घटकाची जोडी सापेक्षतावादावरील ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध (i) अशी जुळते, कारण उताऱ्यात नमूद केले आहे की 1905 मध्ये त्याचा सापेक्षतावादाचा ग्रंथ प्रसिद्ध झाला.
1922 मध्ये (c) या घटकाची जोडी नोबेल पुरस्कार प्राप्त (iv) अशी जुळते, कारण तो 1922 मध्ये पदार्थविज्ञान शाखेतील नोबेल पारितोषिकाचा मानकरी ठरला होता.
1909 मध्ये (d) या घटकाची जोडी झुरिच विद्यापीठात प्रवेश (ii) अशी जुळते, कारण उताऱ्यात दिलेल्या माहितीनुसार तो 1909 मध्ये झुरिच विद्यापीठात दाखल झाला.
46Reading Comprehension
Often, as I wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race. I seldom did so in the cities, for there the audiences were more sophisticated and wanted stronger fare. But to the peasant, with his limited outlook, I spoke of this great country for whose freedom we were struggling, of how each part differed from the other and yet was India, of common problems of the peasants from north to south and east to west, of the Swaraj that could only be for all and every part and not for some. I told them of my journeying from the Khyber Pass in the far north- west to Kanya Kumari or Cape Comorin in the distant south, and how everywhere the peasants put me identical questions, for their troubles were the same- poverty, debt, vested interests, landlords, moneylenders, heavy rents and taxes, police harassment, and all these wrapped up in the structure that the foreign government had imposed upon us- and relief must also come for all. I tried to make them think of India as a whole, and even to some little extent of this wide world of which we were a part. I brought in the struggle in China, in Spain, in Abyssinia, in Central Europe, in Egypt and the countries of Western Asia. I told them of the wonderful changes in the Soviet Union and of the great progress made in America. The task was not easy; yet it was not so difficult as I had imagined, for our ancient epics and myths and legends, which they knew so well, had made them familiar with the conception of their country, and some there were always who had travelled far and wide to the great places of pilgrimage situated at the four corners of India. Or there were old soldiers who had served in foreign parts in World War I or other expeditions. Even my references to foreign countries were brought home to them by the consequences of the great depression of the 'thirties.
What rhetorical strategy does the speaker employ when addressing rural audiences, as opposed to urban ones?
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Answer: (C) He shifts from ideological abstractions to shared experiential realities.
Explanation
The speaker adapts his rhetorical strategy when addressing rural peasants by moving away from the sophisticated, abstract political and ideological discourses suited for urban audiences, focusing instead on the concrete, lived experiences of the peasantry. He connects the grand concept of a unified India and Swaraj to their everyday struggles, such as poverty, debt, heavy rents, land revenue, and police harassment. By linking these shared, material grievances across different regions of the country, the speaker makes the abstract notion of national unity and global struggles tangible and relevant to their immediate, experiential reality.
47Reading Comprehension
Often, as I wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race. I seldom did so in the cities, for there the audiences were more sophisticated and wanted stronger fare. But to the peasant, with his limited outlook, I spoke of this great country for whose freedom we were struggling, of how each part differed from the other and yet was India, of common problems of the peasants from north to south and east to west, of the Swaraj that could only be for all and every part and not for some. I told them of my journeying from the Khyber Pass in the far north- west to Kanya Kumari or Cape Comorin in the distant south, and how everywhere the peasants put me identical questions, for their troubles were the same- poverty, debt, vested interests, landlords, moneylenders, heavy rents and taxes, police harassment, and all these wrapped up in the structure that the foreign government had imposed upon us- and relief must also come for all. I tried to make them think of India as a whole, and even to some little extent of this wide world of which we were a part. I brought in the struggle in China, in Spain, in Abyssinia, in Central Europe, in Egypt and the countries of Western Asia. I told them of the wonderful changes in the Soviet Union and of the great progress made in America. The task was not easy; yet it was not so difficult as I had imagined, for our ancient epics and myths and legends, which they knew so well, had made them familiar with the conception of their country, and some there were always who had travelled far and wide to the great places of pilgrimage situated at the four corners of India. Or there were old soldiers who had served in foreign parts in World War I or other expeditions. Even my references to foreign countries were brought home to them by the consequences of the great depression of the 'thirties.
In the passage, the idiom "wrapped up in the structure" most likely conveys which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Inseparably entangled in the system
Explanation
The phrase "wrapped up in the structure" is used by Jawaharlal Nehru to describe how the various grievances of the peasants, such as poverty, debt, landlords, heavy rents, and police harassment, were not isolated occurrences. Instead, they were deeply integrated and inseparably entangled within the colonial administrative and economic system ("the structure") imposed by the foreign government. This system sustained and worsened these issues, meaning they could not be resolved individually without addressing the entire colonial framework.
48Reading Comprehension
Often, as I wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race. I seldom did so in the cities, for there the audiences were more sophisticated and wanted stronger fare. But to the peasant, with his limited outlook, I spoke of this great country for whose freedom we were struggling, of how each part differed from the other and yet was India, of common problems of the peasants from north to south and east to west, of the Swaraj that could only be for all and every part and not for some. I told them of my journeying from the Khyber Pass in the far north- west to Kanya Kumari or Cape Comorin in the distant south, and how everywhere the peasants put me identical questions, for their troubles were the same- poverty, debt, vested interests, landlords, moneylenders, heavy rents and taxes, police harassment, and all these wrapped up in the structure that the foreign government had imposed upon us- and relief must also come for all. I tried to make them think of India as a whole, and even to some little extent of this wide world of which we were a part. I brought in the struggle in China, in Spain, in Abyssinia, in Central Europe, in Egypt and the countries of Western Asia. I told them of the wonderful changes in the Soviet Union and of the great progress made in America. The task was not easy; yet it was not so difficult as I had imagined, for our ancient epics and myths and legends, which they knew so well, had made them familiar with the conception of their country, and some there were always who had travelled far and wide to the great places of pilgrimage situated at the four corners of India. Or there were old soldiers who had served in foreign parts in World War I or other expeditions. Even my references to foreign countries were brought home to them by the consequences of the great depression of the 'thirties.
In the sentence "each part differed from the other and yet was India," the word "yet" most closely conveys:
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Answer: (C) Paradoxical Unity
Explanation
The word "yet" functions as a coordinating conjunction that introduces a contrast or concession. In this context, it connects the statement that different parts of the country are distinct from one another with the assertion that they still constitute a single entity, India. This creates a juxtaposition of diversity and oneness, directly conveying the concept of a paradoxical unity where internal differences coexist within a singular national identity.
49Reading Comprehension
Often, as I wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race. I seldom did so in the cities, for there the audiences were more sophisticated and wanted stronger fare. But to the peasant, with his limited outlook, I spoke of this great country for whose freedom we were struggling, of how each part differed from the other and yet was India, of common problems of the peasants from north to south and east to west, of the Swaraj that could only be for all and every part and not for some. I told them of my journeying from the Khyber Pass in the far north- west to Kanya Kumari or Cape Comorin in the distant south, and how everywhere the peasants put me identical questions, for their troubles were the same- poverty, debt, vested interests, landlords, moneylenders, heavy rents and taxes, police harassment, and all these wrapped up in the structure that the foreign government had imposed upon us- and relief must also come for all. I tried to make them think of India as a whole, and even to some little extent of this wide world of which we were a part. I brought in the struggle in China, in Spain, in Abyssinia, in Central Europe, in Egypt and the countries of Western Asia. I told them of the wonderful changes in the Soviet Union and of the great progress made in America. The task was not easy; yet it was not so difficult as I had imagined, for our ancient epics and myths and legends, which they knew so well, had made them familiar with the conception of their country, and some there were always who had travelled far and wide to the great places of pilgrimage situated at the four corners of India. Or there were old soldiers who had served in foreign parts in World War I or other expeditions. Even my references to foreign countries were brought home to them by the consequences of the great depression of the 'thirties.
What does the Phrase "meeting to meeting" most strongly suggest in the opening sentence ?
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Answer: (B) A continuous, tireless effort to reach people across regions
Explanation
The phrase "meeting to meeting" signifies Jawaharlal Nehru's relentless journey and continuous campaign across the diverse landscape of India to engage directly with the masses, particularly the peasantry. This constant movement from one gathering to another reflects a tireless, dedicated effort to bridge regional differences, foster a sense of national unity, and build a collective consciousness for the freedom struggle, demonstrating a persistent endeavor to connect with people across various regions.
50Reading Comprehension
Often, as I wandered from meeting to meeting, I spoke to my audience of this India of ours, of Hindustan and of Bharata, the old Sanskrit name derived from the mythical founder of the race. I seldom did so in the cities, for there the audiences were more sophisticated and wanted stronger fare. But to the peasant, with his limited outlook, I spoke of this great country for whose freedom we were struggling, of how each part differed from the other and yet was India, of common problems of the peasants from north to south and east to west, of the Swaraj that could only be for all and every part and not for some. I told them of my journeying from the Khyber Pass in the far north- west to Kanya Kumari or Cape Comorin in the distant south, and how everywhere the peasants put me identical questions, for their troubles were the same- poverty, debt, vested interests, landlords, moneylenders, heavy rents and taxes, police harassment, and all these wrapped up in the structure that the foreign government had imposed upon us- and relief must also come for all. I tried to make them think of India as a whole, and even to some little extent of this wide world of which we were a part. I brought in the struggle in China, in Spain, in Abyssinia, in Central Europe, in Egypt and the countries of Western Asia. I told them of the wonderful changes in the Soviet Union and of the great progress made in America. The task was not easy; yet it was not so difficult as I had imagined, for our ancient epics and myths and legends, which they knew so well, had made them familiar with the conception of their country, and some there were always who had travelled far and wide to the great places of pilgrimage situated at the four corners of India. Or there were old soldiers who had served in foreign parts in World War I or other expeditions. Even my references to foreign countries were brought home to them by the consequences of the great depression of the 'thirties.
In the context of the passage, the phrase "Vested interests" most precisely denotes :
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Answer: (B) Involvement with a personal motive
Explanation
In the context of the passage, the phrase vested interests denotes an involvement with a personal motive, where individuals or groups have a strong financial, social, or political stake in maintaining the existing status quo. These groups, such as landlords and moneylenders, have private reasons and self-serving motives to protect the colonial structure because it directly benefits them, thereby securing their own advantages at the expense of the peasants.
51Quantitative Aptitude
The price of a computer is first increased by 5% and later decreased by 5%. What is change in the original price of the computer ? Select the correct option.
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Answer: (D) 0.25% decrease
Explanation
When a quantity is first increased by x% and then decreased by the same x%, the net change is always a decrease given by the formula:
Net change % = - x²/100 %
Substituting x = 5 into the formula:
Net change % = - 5²/100 % = - 25/100 % = - 0.25%
The negative sign represents a net decrease of 0.25%.
52Logical Reasoning
Five friends gather together for a reunion after 12 years of completion of their degree education. Each of them is engaged in different fields. There is a data scientist, an agriculturist, a farmer, a social worker and an educationist amongst them. The data scientist came from Bengaluru, the agriculturist and the farmer, both came from Pune, Jaya was last to arrive as her train delayed from Hyderabad and she is not a farmer. Vipul the data scientist arrived first. Gilbert is not from Pune. The other two friends are Dinu and Siraj and one friend has come from Mumbai.
Select the profession of Dinu.
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Answer: (D) Data insufficient
Explanation
By analyzing the given conditions, Vipul is the data scientist from Bengaluru. Jaya is from Hyderabad, which means she cannot be the agriculturist or the farmer since both came from Pune. Gilbert is not from Pune, and since Bengaluru and Hyderabad are already taken by Vipul and Jaya, Gilbert must be from Mumbai.
This leaves Pune as the place of origin for the remaining two friends, Dinu and Siraj. Since the agriculturist and the farmer both came from Pune, Dinu and Siraj must hold these two professions. However, there is no additional clue or information to determine which specific profession belongs to Dinu and which belongs to Siraj. Consequently, the profession of Dinu cannot be uniquely identified.
53Quantitative Aptitude
Manoj purchased 50 kg of rice at the rate of Rs. 70 per kg and another 30 kg rice at certain rate. He mixed the two and sold the entire quantity at the rate of Rs. 65 per kg. and made 20% overall profit. At what price per kg did he purchased a lot of another 30 kg rice ?
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Answer: (B) Rs. 27.78
Explanation
Overall Selling Price of the mixture is Rs. 65 per kg with a 20% profit.
Using the Cost Price formula:
Cost Price of mixture = Selling Price / (1 + Profit%)
Cost Price of mixture = 65 / 1.20 = 325/6 per kg
Using the weighted average formula for the cost price:
Cost Price of mixture = (Quantity₁ × Price₁ + Quantity₂ × Price₂) / (Quantity₁ + Quantity₂)
Substituting the values where x is the purchase price of the second lot:
325/6 = (50 × 70 + 30 × x) / (50 + 30)
325/6 = (3500 + 30x) / 80
325 × 80 = 6 × (3500 + 30x)
26000 = 21000 + 180x
180x = 5000
x = 500/18 = 27.78
The price of the second lot of rice is Rs. 27.78 per kg.
54Logical Reasoning
In a cupboard six books are kept. All of the books are labelled as L, M, N, O, P and Q. The books which are labelled as M, P, N and Q are wrapped with blue colour paper; while remaining are with red in colour. L, M, Q labelled books are new books while remaining are old books. L, M and N labelled books are law books, while remaining are engineering books. Then which law book is wrapped with different colour ?
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Answer: (C) L
Explanation
The law books are L, M, and N.
The books wrapped in blue paper are M, P, N, and Q. The remaining books, L and O, are wrapped in red paper.
Among the three law books (L, M, and N), M and N are wrapped in blue, while L is wrapped in red. Thus, L is the law book wrapped in a different color.
55Logical Reasoning
Given below are four arguments of three sentences each. Choose the set in which the last statement is a logically correct conclusion based on first two statements.
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Answer: (C) Some women are soldiers. All soldiers are patriotic. Some women are patriotic.
Explanation
The third argument is logically valid. Let W represent the set of women, S represent the set of soldiers, and P represent the set of patriotic people.
The first premise states that some women are soldiers, which means the intersection of set W and set S is non-empty (W ∩ S ≠ ∅). This implies there is at least one individual who belongs to both W and S.
The second premise states that all soldiers are patriotic, which means set S is a subset of set P (S ⊆ P).
Because any individual in the intersection of W and S belongs to S, and every member of S also belongs to P, that individual must also belong to P. Therefore, this individual belongs to both W and P, confirming that the intersection of set W and set P is non-empty (W ∩ P ≠ ∅). This establishes that some women are patriotic.
56Quantitative Aptitude
A circle and a rectangle have the same perimeter. The sides of the rectangle are 18 cm and 26 cm. What is the area of the circle ?
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Answer: (D) 616 sq. cm
Explanation
The perimeter of the rectangle is calculated using the formula P = 2(l + w), where l is the length and w is the width. Given the sides are 26 cm and 18 cm, the perimeter is:
P = 2 × (26 + 18) = 2 × 44 = 88 cm
Since the circle and the rectangle have the same perimeter, the circumference of the circle is also 88 cm. Using the circumference formula C = 2πr, we can find the radius r of the circle:
2 × (22/7) × r = 88
r = (88 × 7) / 44
r = 14 cm
The area of the circle is calculated using the formula A = πr²:
A = (22/7) × 14 × 14
A = 22 × 2 × 14
A = 616 sq. cm
57Logical Reasoning
In question below are given two statements followed by two Conclusions (I) and (II). You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and decide which of the following given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements : All artist are smoker.
Some smokers are drunkards.
Conclusions : (I) All smokers are artist.
(II) Some drunkards are not smokers.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) Either conclusion (I) or (II) do not follow.
Explanation
The first statement, all artists are smokers, means that the set of artists is entirely contained within the set of smokers. This represents a one-way relationship and does not mean that all smokers are artists. Therefore, conclusion I does not logically follow.
The second statement, some smokers are drunkards, establishes that there is an intersection between the set of smokers and the set of drunkards. This does not provide any information about the drunkards who may lie outside this intersection. Since it is entirely possible for all drunkards to be smokers, the assertion that some drunkards are not smokers cannot be definitively concluded. Therefore, conclusion II does not logically follow.
Since both conclusions fail to logically follow from the given statements, they both do not follow.
58Logical Reasoning
In the following statement which number will come in place of question mark ?
52 : 84 : : 124 : __?__
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Answer: (B) 172
Explanation
The relationship between the numbers in each pair follows the formula x = n² + 3, where n represents consecutive odd numbers starting from 7.
Applying this pattern to the given numbers:
52 = 7² + 3
84 = 9² + 3
124 = 11² + 3
Following this sequence of consecutive odd bases (7, 9, 11), the next base number is 13.
Select correct alternative in place of the question mark.
BLOCKED : YOLXPVW : : ? : OZFMXS
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Answer: (D) LAUNCH
Explanation
The relationship in the analogy is based on the reverse alphabetical positions of the letters, where the sum of the positions of the original letter and its coded letter is always 27.
For the first pair, BLOCKED is coded as YOLXPVW:
B (2) + Y (25) = 27
L (12) + O (15) = 27
O (15) + L (12) = 27
C (3) + X (24) = 27
K (11) + P (16) = 27
E (5) + V (22) = 27
D (4) + W (23) = 27
Applying the same reverse positional rule to find the word that corresponds to OZFMXS:
O (15) corresponds to L (12), since 27 - 15 = 12
Z (26) corresponds to A (1), since 27 - 26 = 1
F (6) corresponds to U (21), since 27 - 6 = 21
M (13) corresponds to N (14), since 27 - 13 = 14
X (24) corresponds to C (3), since 27 - 24 = 3
S (19) corresponds to H (8), since 27 - 19 = 8
Thus, the corresponding word is LAUNCH.
60Logical Reasoning
Swapnil, Anil, Deepak, Prashant and Sunil are standing around a circular table facing the centre. Only Prashant is between Anil and Sunil. Deepak is immediately to the right of Sunil. Who is to the right of Swapnil?
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Answer: (C) Anil
Explanation
To determine the arrangement of the five people around the circular table facing the centre, we can place them step-by-step:
Place Sunil at any position. Since Deepak is immediately to the right of Sunil, we place Deepak to the immediate right (counter-clockwise direction) of Sunil.
Since only Prashant is between Anil and Sunil, Prashant must be on the other side of Sunil (to Sunil's immediate left), and Anil must be next to Prashant.
This leaves only one vacant position for Swapnil, which is between Deepak and Anil.
Going in the counter-clockwise direction (which represents the right-hand side for everyone facing the centre), the order is Sunil, Deepak, Swapnil, Anil, and Prashant.
Thus, Anil is standing immediately to the right of Swapnil.
61Logical Reasoning
'P' is shorter than 'Q'; 'Q' is not taller than 'R'; 'S' is taller than 'T', but shorter than 'U'; 'U' is not taller than 'P'. Which of the following statement is not true?
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Answer: (A) Two are shorter than 'S'
Explanation
From the given information, we can establish the height relations using inequalities. The statement P is shorter than Q translates to P < Q, and Q is not taller than R translates to Q ≤ R. Combining these gives P < Q ≤ R.
The statement S is taller than T, but shorter than U translates to T < S < U, and U is not taller than P translates to U ≤ P. Combining these gives T < S < U ≤ P.
Merging both sets of inequalities yields the complete order: T < S < U ≤ P < Q ≤ R.
From this combined sequence, we can see that S is taller than only T. This means only one person is shorter than S, making the statement that two are shorter than S false.
62Quantitative Aptitude
Suresh, Ramesh and Ganesh started a business in partnership by investing certain amounts. After one year, they earned profits of Rs. 2,600, Rs. 3,900 and Rs. 6,500 respectively. Based on the information, Choose the correct statement.
(I) Their capital investments were in the ratio 2 : 3 : 5.
(II) Ganesh's investment was more than 60% of the total initial capital.
Answer options :
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Answer: (A) Only (I) is correct
Explanation
In a partnership, when the time period of investment is the same for all partners, the ratio of their capital investments is equal to the ratio of their profit shares.
Investment Ratio = Suresh : Ramesh : Ganesh
Investment Ratio = 2600 : 3900 : 6500
Dividing each term by their greatest common divisor, 1300:
Investment Ratio = 2 : 3 : 5
This confirms that Statement (I) is correct.
To evaluate Statement (II), Ganesh's share of the total capital is calculated as:
Ganesh's share = 5 / (2 + 3 + 5) = 5/10 = 50%
Since 50% is not more than 60%, Statement (II) is incorrect.
63Quantitative Aptitude
A sum of ₹ 1710 is divided in A, B and C such that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C, are equal. What is the difference between the amounts of 'A' and 'C'?
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Answer: (B) ₹ 450
Explanation
Given that 4 times of A, 6 times of B and 9 times of C are equal:
4A = 6B = 9C
To find the ratio of their shares, divide each term by the LCM of 4, 6, and 9, which is 36:
4A/36 = 6B/36 = 9C/36
A/9 = B/6 = C/4
This gives the ratio of the shares of A, B, and C as 9 : 6 : 4.
The sum of the ratio terms is 9 + 6 + 4 = 19.
The difference between the shares of A and C in ratio units is 9 - 4 = 5.
Given the total sum is ₹ 1710, the difference between the amounts of A and C is:
(5 / 19) × 1710 = 5 × 90 = 450
64Quantitative Aptitude
Two trains are moving towards each other on parallel tracks. Train A is 200 m long and moving at a speed of 50 km/h. Train B is 250 m long and moving at a speed of 40 km/h. How long will it take for the trains to cross each other ?
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Answer: (C) 18 seconds
Explanation
When two objects move towards each other, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds.
Relative speed = 50 km/h + 40 km/h = 90 km/h
To convert this speed into meters per second (m/s), multiply by 5/18:
Relative speed = 90 × 5/18 = 25 m/s
To completely cross each other, the trains must cover a total distance equal to the sum of their lengths:
Total distance = 200 m + 250 m = 450 m
Using the formula Time = Distance / Speed:
Time = 450 / 25 = 18 seconds
65Logical Reasoning
Select correct option in place of question mark.
ACE : 26 10 : : LOQ : ?
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Answer: (B) 24 30 34
Explanation
The alphabetical positions of the letters in ACE are A = 1, C = 3, and E = 5. Multiplying each position by 2 gives 2, 6, and 10, which represents the first code 26 10.
Similarly, for LOQ, the alphabetical positions are L = 12, O = 15, and Q = 17. Multiplying each position by 2 gives:
12 × 2 = 24
15 × 2 = 30
17 × 2 = 34
This results in the sequence 24 30 34.
66Quantitative Aptitude
In a survey of 425 students in a school, it was found that 115 drink Apple juice, 160 drink Orange juice and 80 drink both Apple as well as Orange juice. How many students drink neither Apple juice nor Orange juice ?
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Answer: (B) 230
Explanation
The total number of students who drink at least one of the two juices is calculated using the set theory formula:
n(A ∪ O) = n(A) + n(O) - n(A ∩ O)
In this formula, n(A) represents the number of students drinking Apple juice (115), n(O) represents the number of students drinking Orange juice (160), and n(A ∩ O) represents those drinking both (80).
n(A ∪ O) = 115 + 160 - 80 = 195
To find the number of students who drink neither juice, subtract this union from the total number of students surveyed (425):
Students drinking neither = Total students - n(A ∪ O)
Students drinking neither = 425 - 195 = 230
67Logical Reasoning
Three statements are given followed by two conclusions derived from them. Decide which of the conclusions logically follows.
Statements : (1) All pens are papers.
(2) Some papers are blades.
(3) All blades are knives.
Conclusions : (I) Some knives are papers.
(II) Some blades are pens.
Answer options :
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Answer: (A) Only conclusion (I) follows
Explanation
From statement 2, we have paper intersecting with blade. Since statement 3 states all blades are knives, any element in the intersection of paper and blade must also belong to knives. This guarantees that paper and knife have a non-empty intersection, making the conclusion that some knives are papers logically valid.
68Logical Reasoning
Some statements are followed by the conclusions, derived from them. Select correct option about conclusions.
Statements :
All laws are rules.
Some rules are flexible.
No flexible thing is permanent.
Conclusions :
(I) Some laws are not permanent.
(II) All laws are permanent.
Answer options :
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Answer: (D) Both are not correct definitely
Explanation
To analyze the relationship between laws and permanent things, we can evaluate the statements:
First, all laws are rules, and some rules are flexible. This does not establish any definite overlap or relation between laws and flexible things, as the flexible rules could be entirely distinct from the rules that are laws.
Second, no flexible thing is permanent. Since we have no definite relationship between laws and flexible things, we cannot determine any definite relationship between laws and permanent things.
Therefore, we cannot definitely conclude that some laws are not permanent, nor can we definitely conclude that all laws are permanent. Since neither conclusion is guaranteed to be true under all possible scenarios, both are not definitely correct.
69Logical Reasoning
In a competition, the ranking of five students Amit, Bina, Sita, Dinesh and Esha is as follows :
- Amit is ranked higher than Bina but lower than Sita.
- Dinesh is ranked lower than Esha but higher than Amit.
- Esha is not ranked first.
What is the ranking of Bina with reference to higher merit ?
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Answer: (C) 5th
Explanation
From the given conditions, the comparative merit rankings can be determined by analyzing the relative positions of the students.
According to the first statement, Amit is ranked higher than Bina but lower than Sita. This establishes the relation: Sita > Amit > Bina.
According to the second statement, Dinesh is ranked lower than Esha but higher than Amit. This establishes the relation: Esha > Dinesh > Amit.
By combining these two relations, it is clear that Sita, Esha, Dinesh, and Amit are all ranked higher than Bina. Since there are only five students in total and four of them are ranked higher than Bina, Bina must have the lowest ranking. Therefore, Bina is ranked 5th. This is consistent with the condition that Esha is not ranked first, which gives the complete ranking from highest to lowest as Sita, Esha, Dinesh, Amit, and Bina.
70Logical Reasoning
Ayush was born two years after his father's marriage. His mother is five years younger than his father but 20 years older than Ayush, who is 10 years old. At what age did the father get married ?
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Answer: (A) 23 years
Explanation
Ayush's current age is 10 years.
Since his mother is 20 years older than him, her current age is:
10 + 20 = 30 years
His father is 5 years older than his mother, so the father's current age is:
30 + 5 = 35 years
Ayush was born 10 years ago, so the father's age at Ayush's birth was:
35 - 10 = 25 years
Since Ayush was born 2 years after his father's marriage, the father's age at the time of marriage was:
25 - 2 = 23 years
71Logical Reasoning
In the following question, two Statements (A) and (B) are given. These statements may be either cause or may be effects of independent causes or common causes. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these statements.
Statements : (A) The departmental store owner put cameras for surveillance of the store.
(B) Many products were reported missing by the staff working in the departmental store.
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Answer: (B) Statement (B) is the cause and Statement (A) is its effect.
Explanation
The frequent reporting of missing products by the store staff created a clear security and financial concern for the departmental store owner. To address this issue, identify the culprits, and prevent further theft, the owner took the direct action of installing surveillance cameras. Thus, the occurrence of missing items acts as the cause, and the installation of the security cameras is its direct consequence or effect.
72Logical Reasoning
Kamal has scored more marks than Nayan but fewer marks than Aarti. Rekha has scored more marks than Neelam but fewer marks than Aarti. Neelam has scored more marks than Nayan but fewer marks than Kamal. Kamal has scored fewer marks than Rekha but more than Nayan. Who will be at second number in terms of higher marks ?
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Answer: (B) Rekha
Explanation
By representing the scores of Aarti, Rekha, Kamal, Neelam, and Nayan as A, R, K, L, and N respectively, we can translate the given statements into mathematical inequalities.
From the statement that Neelam scored more than Nayan but fewer than Kamal, we get N < L < K.
From the statement that Kamal scored fewer than Rekha, we get K < R. Combining this with the previous inequality gives N < L < K < R.
From the statement that Rekha scored fewer than Aarti, we get R < A. Combining this with our running sequence yields the final order of marks from lowest to highest:
N < L < K < R < A
Arranging this from highest to lowest marks gives:
A > R > K > L > N
Thus, Aarti has the highest marks and Rekha has the second highest marks.
73Logical Reasoning
A is the son of B. C is the wife of B. D is the sister of A. E is married with D. How is C related to E ?
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Answer: (B) Mother-in-law
Explanation
Since C is the wife of B and A is the son of B, C is the mother of A. D is the sister of A, which makes D the daughter of C. E is married to D, meaning E is the husband of C's daughter. Therefore, C is the mother-in-law of E.
74Decision Making
You have been working on a project with two co-workers for one month. They have always had trouble getting along, but lately it has become much worse. With two weeks left to complete the project, their differences are now affecting the quality of your shared project. There are many mistakes in their work and they have stopped communicating with each other. How should you cope with the situation ?
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Answer: (B) Have a meeting with your co-workers so that you can help them resolve their issues.
Explanation
Bringing both co-workers together for a joint meeting is the most constructive and collaborative way to address the conflict. Since the project has only two weeks left and their lack of communication is directly causing mistakes, facilitating a direct, open dialogue helps resolve the root issues transparently. This active mediation restores teamwork, re-establishes necessary communication channels, and ensures that the shared project can be completed successfully on time.
75Decision Making
You have sent a survey to multiple units in order to gauge level of job satisfaction as part of a wide internal survey across the organization. When the results arrive back, you see that by far the biggest cause of dissatisfaction seems to be the pay levels. However, your manager has suggested that in reality staff are contented with their pay. This survey is just seen as an opportunity to ask for more. There is no time or budget to repeat the survey, you need to decide how to proceed. What would be the most effective answer?
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Answer: (A) Conduct some online research into other surveys of this nature to see whether this is common pattern : include the observation in report and recommendations.
Explanation
Conducting external research into similar job satisfaction surveys allows you to objectively evaluate whether the tendency to express dissatisfaction with pay is a standard baseline bias in employee surveys. By integrating this context with the actual survey results and the manager's perspective, the final report remains evidence-based, balanced, and constructive, all while respecting the constraints of time and budget. This approach validates the data scientifically rather than making arbitrary assumptions or ignoring feedback.
76Decision Making
You have been working as a project head in a multinational company for several years. You discover that a project you have been leading for six months is unlikely to meet its core objectives due to shift in the market trends. What do you do?
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Answer: (C) I will present the data to leaders and recommend "pivoting" or terminating the project.
Explanation
As a responsible project head, acting in the best financial and strategic interest of the organization is paramount. When market trends shift and render the original objectives unviable, continuing the project leads to the sunk cost fallacy, which wastes further organizational resources. The most professional and ethical course of action is to gather and analyze the market data, transparently present these findings to senior leadership, and recommend either pivoting the project to align with the new market realities or terminating it entirely to minimize further losses. This demonstrates strong leadership, accountability, and data-driven decision-making.
77Decision Making
You and your friend Prashant had gone for shopping in nearby mall. You both enter a book shop and as you both were coming out after browsing, the shops anti-theft alarm goes on, making the security people to stop and frisk you both and much to your surprise, Prashant was hiding a book in his Jacket pocket. How will you handle the situation?
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Answer: (C) You will apologize on behalf of Prashant and will offer to pay for the book.
Explanation
Apologizing on behalf of your companion and offering to pay for the book is the most mature, responsible, and effective way to de-escalate an immediate crisis. It defuses the tension with the shop security, prevents legal escalation or public humiliation, and provides a constructive resolution to the conflict on the spot. This action demonstrates empathy, accountability, and problem-solving skills, while ensuring that the personal issue with your friend can be addressed privately and calmly afterward.
78Decision Making
Land acquisition is underway for a major government project that will bring development to the state. However, local farmers are refusing to give up their land as it is their only source of livelihood. As the land Acquisition officer, what will you do?
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Answer: (C) Hold a meeting with farmers to discuss a better compensation package, rehabilitation and job opportunities in the project to win their trust.
Explanation
The role of a Land Acquisition Officer requires balancing developmental goals with the welfare and livelihood security of the affected communities. Engaging in direct dialogue with the farmers to negotiate a comprehensive rehabilitation package, fair financial compensation, and long-term employment opportunities in the project aligns with the statutory spirit of the Right to Fair Compensation and Transparency in Land Acquisition, Rehabilitation and Resettlement Act. This participatory, empathetic approach directly addresses the farmers' anxieties regarding the loss of their primary livelihood, builds mutual trust, and facilitates peaceful, consent-based land acquisition for public welfare.
