The following leading British Parliamentarian and Politician admitted that the Revolt of 1857 was a National Revolt and not a Military Mutiny :
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Answer: (D) Benjamin Disraeli
Explanation
During a debate in the House of Commons on 27 July 1857, Benjamin Disraeli, the leader of the Opposition and a prominent Conservative politician, declared that the uprising in India was a national revolt rather than a mere military mutiny. He argued that the rebellion was the result of a systematic, long-term destruction of traditional native institutions, religions, and lands by the British administration, rather than a sudden mutiny triggered solely by greased cartridges.
2History
Which organization passed the following resolution in 1940 ? "India should not take part in a war which will neither bring freedom or democracy, nor will the workers benefit in any way from it."
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Answer: (C) All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)
Explanation
During the 18th session of the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC) held in Bombay from September 28 to 30, 1940, under the leadership of Narayan Malhar Joshi and V. R. Kalappa, the organization passed a resolution outlining its stance on the Second World War. The resolution asserted that India should not participate in a war that would neither result in the establishment of national freedom and democracy nor yield any direct benefits to the working class. The organization emphasized that cooperation in the war effort was unjustifiable without a prior guarantee of immediate democratic governance and liberty for India, as well as concrete measures to safeguard the interests of workers.
3Art and Culture
Gandhar art was influenced by ______ art.
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Answer: (B) Unani and Roman
Explanation
The Gandhara school of art, which flourished primarily in the northwestern frontiers of ancient India during the Kushana period, is uniquely characterized by its integration of foreign artistic styles with Indian Buddhist themes. It is prominently known as the Greco-Roman or Graeco-Buddhist style of art.
In this context, Unani represents the Greek (Hellenistic) influence, which combined with Roman elements to shape the visual representation of Buddhist deities. The classical Roman and Greek influences are visibly evident in the realistic depiction of human anatomy, the wavy hair of Lord Buddha resembling the Greek god Apollo, the halo around the head, and the heavy, realistic drapery of the garments that resembles Roman togas.
4Science and Technology
List of the species useful for the treatment of diseases :
(a) Willow plant
(b) Yew tree
(c) Dog fish
(d) Wine (Ancistrocladus korupenis)
(e) Frog (Epidobates tricolor)
Which species is/are used for the isolation of 'taxol' which is used for the treatment of cancer ?
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Answer: (B) (b)
Explanation
Taxol, chemically known as paclitaxel, is a chemotherapy medication widely used to treat various types of cancer, including ovarian, breast, and lung cancers. It was first isolated from the bark of the Pacific yew tree (Taxus brevifolia). Taxol works as a mitotic inhibitor by stabilizing microtubules and preventing cancer cells from dividing, making the yew tree a highly valuable species in oncological medicine.
5History
We find the following two specific trends at the beginning of the middle age in Indian History.
(a) Rise of philosophies like Advaita, Vedanta.
(b) Progress in sculpture as per Buddhism
(c) Development of temple towns like Chidambaram, Madurai
(d) Trade with Roman empire
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Answer: (C) (a), (c)
Explanation
The beginning of the medieval period (middle age) in Indian history, starting around the 6th to 8th centuries CE, was characterized by a transition from ancient to early medieval socio-cultural systems.
A defining trend of this period was the philosophical revival led by thinkers like Adi Shankaracharya, who lived in the early 8th century CE and consolidated the Advaita Vedanta school of philosophy. This marked a major shift towards orthodox philosophical systems.
Simultaneously, the period witnessed the emergence of temple urbanism, particularly in South India under dynasties like the Pallavas, Cholas, and Pandyas. Grand temples in towns like Chidambaram and Madurai grew into major centers of administrative, economic, educational, and religious life, turning these settlements into prosperous temple towns.
6History
What was the aim of the Civil Disobedience Movement ?
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Answer: (B) Make the government concede more demands.
Explanation
The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930), unlike the earlier Non-Cooperation Movement which sought self-government within or outside the empire, aimed to compel the British government to concede more substantive demands moving toward complete transfer of power to Indian hands. Launched with the Dandi Salt March, it involved deliberate defiance of unjust laws such as the salt tax, pressuring colonial authorities into greater concessions rather than merely disrupting administration through lawlessness.
7History
Which of the following was not a part of the Non-cooperation Movement ?
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Answer: (D) Non-payment of Tax
Explanation
The program of the Non-cooperation Movement did not include the non-payment of taxes as an active nationwide component. While a mass civil disobedience campaign involving the non-payment of taxes was planned to be launched in Bardoli in February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi suspended the entire movement following the violent Chauri Chaura incident before this phase could begin. Active no-tax campaigns were later formally adopted as a core component of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930.
8History
Match the rivers with their vedic names.
(a) Sarsuti (i) Chenab
(b) Parushni (ii) Jhelam
(c) Asikni (iii) Saraswati
(d) Vitasta (iv) Ravi
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Explanation
Sarsuti corresponds to Saraswati, which is the sacred, highly glorified river celebrated in the Rigvedic hymns.
Parushni corresponds to Ravi, which is famous in Rigvedic history as the river on whose banks the Battle of Ten Kings was fought.
Asikni corresponds to Chenab, a major river of the Indus system originating from the confluence of the Chandra and Bhaga rivers.
Vitasta corresponds to Jhelam, which is the westernmost of the five rivers of the Punjab region and was known to the ancient Greeks as the Hydaspes.
9History
North Indian powers were defeated at the hands of invaders from Central Asia because :
(a) Indian soldiers could not hope to get plunder.
(b) There was no unity among Indian soldiers due to casteism.
(c) Central Asian soldiers had more modern weapons.
(d) The invading army was led by slaves.
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Answer: (B) (b), (d)
Explanation
The rigid caste system in early medieval India restricted military participation primarily to the Kshatriya or Rajput class, creating deep social stratification and leaving the vast majority of the population detached from military affairs. This lack of a cohesive social fabric prevented mass mobilization and meant there was no broad sense of unity or national identity among the soldiers, leading to weak internal coordination.
In contrast, the invading Turkish armies utilized the highly organized military slavery system, known as the Mamluk system. Military slaves, or ghulams, were thoroughly trained from a young age in military tactics, administration, and leadership. Promoted strictly on the basis of merit, talent, and absolute loyalty, these exceptionally skilled slave commanders led highly disciplined, centralized, and professional armies. This organizational cohesion gave them a significant strategic and command advantage over the decentralized, fractured feudal armies of the North Indian rulers.
10History
Which of the following statements about Jawaharlal Nehru are true ?
(a) He chaired the Planning Commission before and after independence.
(b) He presided over many sessions of Indian Science Congress.
(c) Authoring the Nehru report, he drew an ideal outline for Indian government.
(d) "I feel like an exile in the West, but sometimes I feel I am an outsider even in my own country." He felt.
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (d)
Explanation
Statement (a) is true because Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the chairman of the National Planning Committee of the Indian National Congress in 1938 prior to independence. Following independence, he served as the first Chairman of the Planning Commission of India when it was established in 1950.
Statement (b) is true because he presided over the sessions of the Indian Science Congress, serving as its General President for the Delhi session in January 1947, and maintained a continuous association with its annual sessions to foster scientific temper across the nation.
Statement (d) is true because it is a renowned reflection of his dual-identity dilemma found in his autobiography, expressing how his Western education and Indian roots made him feel like an exile in the West and an outsider in his own country.
Statement (c) is incorrect because the Nehru Report of 1928 was authored and prepared by a committee chaired by Motilal Nehru, not Jawaharlal Nehru, who only served as the secretary of that committee.
11History
What was the outcome of the Gandhi - Irwin Pact ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above.
Explanation
The Gandhi-Irwin Pact, signed on March 5, 1931, between Mahatma Gandhi and the Viceroy Lord Irwin, did not grant the demand for Purna Swaraj, nor did it completely abolish the salt tax. Instead, the government only conceded the right to make salt for domestic consumption by people living in coastal villages. Furthermore, Mahatma Gandhi did not resign from the Congress party as a result of this pact, as his formal resignation occurred later in October 1934. Consequently, none of the specific outcomes described in the first three options are correct.
12History
Arrange in chronological order.
(a) Muslim League gave preference to the Fourteen Points of Jinnah rather than the Nehru Report.
(b) Congress asked the government to accept the Nehru Report within one year.
(c) Congress demanded 'Purna Swaraj' (Complete Independence) in the Lahore session.
(d) Gandhiji started Salt Satyagraha.
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Answer: (C) (b), (a), (c), (d)
Explanation
At the Calcutta session of the Indian National Congress in December 1928, the Congress approved the Nehru Report and gave the British government a one-year ultimatum to accept it, failing which the party would launch a mass movement for complete independence.
In March 1929, Mohammad Ali Jinnah presented his Fourteen Points as the Muslim League's official stance, preferring these demands over the recommendations of the Nehru Report.
When the one-year deadline expired without a positive response from the British government, the Congress held its historic Lahore session in December 1929, where it formally adopted the resolution for Purna Swaraj or complete independence.
Following the declaration of Purna Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi launched the Civil Disobedience Movement by beginning the Salt Satyagraha with the Dandi March on March 12, 1930.
13History
Simon Commission was appointed in 1927 because :
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
The Government of India Act 1919 contained a provision for a commission to review the constitutional reforms ten years after its implementation. However, the Simon Commission was appointed two years ahead of schedule, in 1927, due to several key political factors.
First, the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 failed to satisfy Indian nationalist aspirations, leading to widespread political discontent and demands for true self-government.
Second, the ruling Conservative Party in Britain feared defeat in the upcoming general elections of 1929. They did not want the Labour Party, which held more sympathetic and pro-India views, to handle the framing of the Indian constitution. By appointing the commission early, the Conservatives ensured they controlled the process.
Third, in India, the Swaraj Party had gained significant prominence and successfully disrupted legislative proceedings from within the councils. The British administration sought to undermine this growing nationalist influence and curb the party's momentum.
14HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Name the person described below :
(a) He is called the architect of Mumbai.
(b) Acharya Atre called him "Uncrowned Emperor of Mumbai".
(c) He was excellent in Marathi, English and Sanskrit.
(d) Elphinstone college owes a lot to him
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Answer: (C) Jagannath Shankar Sheth
Explanation
Jagannath Shankar Sheth, also known as Nana Shankarsheth, was an eminent 19th-century social reformer, educationist, and philanthropist who is widely regarded as the architect of Mumbai due to his profound influence on the city's early development and infrastructure. The prominent writer Acharya Atre praised his immense contribution and stature by calling him the Uncrowned Emperor of Mumbai. Highly educated and scholarly, he possessed excellent command over Marathi, English, and Sanskrit. Furthermore, he played an instrumental role in spreading Western education in Western India, donating land and funds that led to the establishment of the Bombay Native Education Society, from which the prestigious Elphinstone College subsequently evolved.
15HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Where was 'Khoti System' being implemented ?
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Answer: (D) Konkan
Explanation
The Khoti system was a traditional land tenure and revenue collection system implemented in the rugged Konkan region of Maharashtra, particularly in the districts of Ratnagiri, Kolaba (Raigad), and Thane.
Under this system, the 'Khot' acted as a powerful hereditary intermediary landlord. The government contracted with the Khots to collect agricultural taxes from the local tenant cultivators and pay a fixed sum to the treasury. Because the Khots were granted extensive authority over land administration, the system became highly exploitative, reducing the actual tillers of the land to tenant laborers. This oppressive structure sparked major peasant movements, famously led by Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, and was eventually abolished after independence under the Bombay Khoti Abolition Act of 1949.
16Science and Technology
Gun powder is a mixture which when ignited a number of chemical reactions take place producing explosion. It consists of :
(a) Potassium nitrate
(b) Powdered charcoal
(c) Sulphur
(d) Sodium Carbonate
(e) Calcium Sulphate
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (c)
Explanation
Gunpowder, also known as black powder, is a chemical mixture that functions as a propellant in firearms and fireworks. It is traditionally composed of a mixture of potassium nitrate, powdered charcoal, and sulphur. Potassium nitrate acts as the oxidizer, supplying oxygen for the rapid combustion process. Charcoal provides carbon, which serves as the primary fuel source. Sulphur acts as an additional fuel and lowers the ignition temperature required to initiate the reaction, thereby accelerating the combustion process to produce an explosion.
17Economy
Consider the following two statements :
(a) In India per capita availability of agricultural land has declined from 0.48 hectare in 1951 to 0.16 hectare in 1991 and is projected to slide down to 0.08 hectare in 2035
(b) The decline in the extent of agricultural land is mainly due to increase in population and diversion of agricultural land for non-agricultural purposes.
Now state whether :
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Answer: (C) Both are correct and (b) is a correct reasoning of (a)
Explanation
According to data from the Ministry of Agriculture, the per capita availability of agricultural land in India has witnessed a sharp decline due to demographic pressure. In 1951, the per capita availability of agricultural land was 0.48 hectare, which dropped to 0.16 hectare in 1991 as the population expanded from 361 million to 846 million. This is projected to decline further to 0.08 hectare by the year 2035.
Per capita land availability is calculated by dividing the total agricultural land area by the total population. The decline is driven by two main factors: the massive growth in population which increases the denominator, and the diversion of agricultural lands for non-agricultural purposes such as urbanization, housing, and industrialization, which reduces the numerator.
18Economy
Mumbai High accounts for 63% of petroleum production in India and produces about 80% of India's natural gas. The ONGC struck oil here in 1974. To which period does this oil belong:
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Answer: (B) Miocene
Explanation
The petroleum and natural gas reserves in Mumbai High are primarily found in the L-III unit, which is a major multi-layered carbonate reservoir. Geologically, these hydrocarbon-bearing limestone formations belong to the Miocene epoch (specifically, the Early Miocene period). The oil and gas accumulated within these Miocene marine sedimentary strata are trapped beneath post-middle Miocene shale cap rocks.
19Geography
Consider the following areas :
(a) Andese Mountain
(b) New Zealand
(c) Philippines
(d) Taiwan
Which of the above form a part of 'Ring of Fire' ?
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
The Pacific Ring of Fire is a 40,000 kilometer horseshoe-shaped region around the basin of the Pacific Ocean characterized by intense volcanic and seismic activity. This belt is formed by the active movement and collision of several tectonic plates. All four listed regions are located along these highly active plate boundaries. The Andes Mountains along the western coast of South America are formed by the subduction of the Nazca Plate beneath the South American Plate, resulting in active volcanism. New Zealand lies in the southwestern Pacific directly on the boundary of the Pacific and Indo-Australian plates, experiencing frequent earthquakes and geothermal activity. The Philippines is situated on the western edge of the ring, where the subduction of the Philippine Sea Plate creates an arc of active volcanoes. Taiwan is located further north on the western rim at the collision boundary between the Philippine Sea Plate and the Eurasian Plate, making it highly prone to seismic events. All of these areas are integral components of this tectonic belt.
20Geography
A river produces various landforms during its entire course. Which of the following landforms is not produced by a river in its upper course ?
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Answer: (D) Spur
Explanation
A spur is a projecting ridge of land extending from a mountain or hill. While a river in its upper course winds around these pre-existing topographical projections to create interlocking spurs, the spur itself is not actively produced by the river's erosion, but rather by larger tectonic and orographic mountain-building processes.
21Geography
Arrange the following rivers in descending order of their basin area :
(a) Brahmaputra (b) Krishna (c) Tapi (d) Kaveri
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Answer: (A) (b), (a), (d), (c)
Explanation
The correct arrangement of the given rivers in descending order of their basin area within India is:
Krishna River basin area: approximately 258,948 km²
Brahmaputra River basin area (within India): approximately 194,413 km²
Kaveri River basin area: approximately 81,155 km²
Tapi River basin area: approximately 65,145 km²
This yields the sequence (b), (a), (d), (c).
22Geography
In which areas settlement distribution will be decided by flood water level ?
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Answer: (B) Rohilkhand
Explanation
Rohilkhand is a low-lying alluvial plain located in northwestern Uttar Pradesh, forming part of the Upper Ganges Plain. This region is drained by the Ganges and its tributaries, such as the Ramganga, making it highly susceptible to seasonal monsoon flooding. Consequently, the spatial distribution of rural settlements is strictly dictated by the flood water level. To avoid seasonal inundation, villages and homesteads are predominantly situated on elevated grounds (bangar) or natural levees rather than the frequently flooded, low-lying plains (khadar). This geographic adaptation ensures safety from rising floodwaters, making hydrology the primary determinant of settlement patterns in the Rohilkhand region.
23Geography
If global temperature rises by 2°C, which of the following effects can be seen on the earth ?
(a) Annual flooding
(b) Insect born diseases like Malaria
(c) Shift of agricultural regions
(d) Several species of plants and animals will become extinct
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Answer: (A) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
A global temperature rise of 2°C will have profound and compounding consequences across various natural and human systems.
Increased global temperatures cause polar ice sheets and glaciers to melt, while also expanding ocean water volume through thermal expansion. This leads to rising sea levels and more frequent coastal inundation, resulting in severe annual flooding. Additionally, a warmer atmosphere holds more water vapor, leading to highly intense and erratic precipitation events that trigger river flooding.
Vector-borne diseases such as malaria will spread as warmer temperatures and altered rainfall patterns expand the geographical range, seasonal duration, and breeding viability of disease-carrying insects like mosquitoes.
Agricultural regions will shift significantly because changes in temperature and rainfall will make traditional farming areas unsuitable for current crops, forcing agricultural belts to migrate toward higher latitudes or higher altitudes.
Biodiversity will face severe threats, and several species of plants and animals will become extinct. The rapid pace of temperature rise outstrips the natural capacity of many species to adapt or migrate, leading to habitat loss and ecosystem collapse in fragile environments like coral reefs, alpine zones, and polar regions.
24Geography
Which of the following characteristics does not belong to the hot and wet equatorial type of climate ?
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Answer: (D) Orographic rain
Explanation
Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air is forced to rise over a physical barrier such as a mountain range, causing it to cool, condense, and precipitate on the windward side. This type of rainfall is driven by topography rather than latitudinal climatic mechanisms. In contrast, the predominant and characteristic precipitation of the hot and wet equatorial climate is convective rainfall, which is caused by the intense daily solar heating of the ground that generates strong upward convection currents of warm, moist air, resulting in regular afternoon showers.
25Economy
Fishing in India is poorly developed because :
(a) Dependence on food crops
(b) Facilities for preservation of fish are limited
(c) Government is not giving encouragement to develop fishing
(d) Market is not much favourable
Which of the above statements are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
The high dependence of India's population on traditional agricultural food crops historically limited the dietary demand and investment priority for fisheries. Furthermore, the development of the fishing industry is severely hampered by a lack of modern preservation infrastructure, such as cold storage facilities, ice plants, and specialized refrigerated transport, which leads to substantial post-harvest losses. The domestic market for fish is also highly disorganized and unfavorable due to price volatility, a lack of standardized pricing, and low per capita consumption in many inland and vegetarian-dominated regions. Conversely, the government has actively supported and encouraged the sector through targeted development schemes, specialized institutions like the National Fisheries Development Board, and five-year plan allocations.
26Geography
Soil'erosion has affected large tracts of our country. Which is a state with the largest area under soil erosion ?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan
Explanation
Rajasthan has the largest area affected by soil erosion in India. This is primarily due to its vast arid and semi-arid terrain, dominated by the Thar Desert, where sparse vegetation cover and sandy soils are highly vulnerable to severe wind erosion. Strong winds and frequent sandstorms in the western districts of the state displace millions of tonnes of fertile topsoil annually, leading to extensive desertification and land degradation.
27Economy
How much percent weight of sugarcane can be converted into sugar ?
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Answer: (D) 10 %
Explanation
On average, only about 10% of the total weight of harvested sugarcane is successfully converted into commercial crystallized sugar. This proportion is known as the sugar recovery rate, which in India typically ranges from 9% to 11.5% depending on the sugarcane variety, cultivation climate, and factory processing efficiency. For every 100 kg of sugarcane crushed in a sugar mill, approximately 10 kg of white sugar is obtained. The remaining 90% of the raw sugarcane weight is divided into water, which evaporates during boiling, and key industrial by-products such as fibrous bagasse, molasses, and press mud.
28Geography
Consider the following statements and state what is not true of the Alluvial Soils ?
(a) Alluvial soils are most widely spread soils.
(b) Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile.
(c) On the basis of their age they are classified into two - old : Bangar and new : Khadar.
(d) Khadar soils are more fertile than Bangar
(e) Alluvial soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime
(f) Alluvial soils are ideal for sugarcane, paddy, wheat and pulses
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Answer: (D) None
Explanation
Alluvial soils are the most widespread and productive soil group in India, covering about 40% of the total land area, primarily across the northern plains and river valleys. Deposited by major river systems, they are highly fertile and contain adequate proportions of essential nutrients like potash, phosphoric acid, and lime. Based on age, they are classified into old alluvium called Bangar, which contains more calcareous concretions (kankar) and is less fertile, and new alluvium called Khadar, which is fine-grained, renewed annually by floods, and highly fertile. These soils are exceptionally suitable for intensive cultivation of crops such as sugarcane, paddy, wheat, and pulses. Since all the given statements are correct, none of them is untrue.
29Geography
Some of the species from India are as follows :
(a) Tiger (b) Indian cheetah (c) Salemender
(d) Gibbon (e) Great Indian Bustard (f) Two horned Rhinoceros
Which is/are the extinct species from India ?
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Answer: (D) (b) and (f)
Explanation
The Indian cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) was officially declared extinct in India in 1952. Overhunting, bounty killing, and the loss of its grassland and scrub forest habitats led to its rapid decline.
The two-horned rhinoceros (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis), also known as the Sumatran rhinoceros, once inhabited the rainforests and foothills of Northeast India. It was driven to extinction in India by the early 20th century, around 1935, primarily due to habitat destruction and rampant poaching for its horns.
The other listed species, such as the tiger, salamander, gibbon, and Great Indian Bustard, are still extant in India, though several of them are highly endangered.
30Geography
Statements about Eutrophication :
(a) The eutrophication occurs in lotic water body primarily in hilly region.
(b) The eutrophication occurs in lentic water and there is gradual accumulation of organisms and their products.
(c) The eutrophication promotes fish growth as algal blooms serve as source of food to fishes.
(d) The eutrophicated water is oxygen rich and safe for human consumption without treatment.
Which is/are the correct statement(s) ?
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Answer: (C) (b) and (c)
Explanation
Eutrophication is primarily a characteristic of lentic (still or standing) water bodies, such as lakes and ponds, where slow water movement allows nutrients like phosphorus and nitrogen to accumulate. This nutrient enrichment leads to the growth and gradual accumulation of aquatic organisms, organic matter, and their decomposition products. In its early stages, this increase in nutrients promotes the growth of algae and phytoplankton, creating abundant algal blooms that serve as a direct and rich source of food for zooplankton and fish, thereby temporarily stimulating fish growth and productivity.
31Geography
Following are some theories of climate change given by scientists :
(a) Sir George Simpson theory.
(b) Theory based on sunspot cycle.
(c) Astronomical theory.
(d) Variation in the quantities of radiation absorbed by atmospheric gases selectively.
In which theory of climate change, the five principle effects are considered and mathematical model for expansion and contractions of ice sheets has been given ?
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Answer: (C) (c)
Explanation
The Astronomical Theory of climate change, widely known as the Milankovitch Theory, explains long-term climate variations and ice ages by linking them to predictable cyclical changes in Earth's orbit and orientation relative to the Sun.
This theory accounts for five principal effects involving three main orbital parameters:
Eccentricity (the shape of Earth's orbit around the Sun)
Obliquity (variations in the tilt of Earth's rotational axis)
Axial precession (the wobble of Earth's axis of rotation)
Precession of the perihelion (rotation of Earth's elliptical orbit)
The combined influence of these factors on the latitudinal and seasonal distribution of incoming solar radiation (insolation).
Using these elements, Milankovitch formulated a rigorous mathematical model to calculate historical variations in solar radiation. This model successfully explains the long-term changes in insolation that trigger the periodic growth, expansion, and contraction of continental ice sheets.
32Science and Technology
List of bioactive compounds obtained from plants :
(a) Nicotine - from tobacco plant
(b) Nibidine - from neem plant
(c) Rotenone - from derris elliptica
(d) Pyrethrum - from chrysanthemum cineratifolium
The bioactive compound extracted from plant was used by primitive people for paralysing the fish.
Which of the above options was resorted to by them ?
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Answer: (C) (c)
Explanation
Rotenone is a naturally occurring organic compound found in the roots of several tropical leguminous plants, such as Derris elliptica. Historically, primitive and indigenous peoples crushed the roots of these plants and introduced them into slow-moving water bodies. Rotenone acts as a natural piscicide by inhibiting cellular respiration, specifically blocking complex I of the mitochondrial electron transport chain. This disrupts the oxygen uptake mechanism across the gills of the fish, paralyzing and stunning them so that they float to the surface for easy harvesting.
33Geography
Aspects related to the loss of biodiversity :
(a) Habitat loss due to change in land use.
(b) Habitat loss due to pollution.
(c) Predation.
(d) Outbreak of diseases and epidemics.
(e) Excessive exploitation of species.
Which of the above is/are the major causative factor(s) for decreasing biodiversity from aquatic habitat ?
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Answer: (D) (b) and (e)
Explanation
Aquatic ecosystems are highly vulnerable to human-induced pressures. Among the given factors, habitat loss due to pollution and the excessive exploitation of species represent the primary drivers of biodiversity decline in water bodies. Pollution from agricultural runoff, industrial waste, and domestic sewage leads to eutrophication and toxic conditions that directly degrade aquatic habitats. Concurrently, overfishing and the unsustainable harvesting of fish and other marine organisms deplete species populations faster than they can reproduce, disrupting entire aquatic food webs. While land-use changes mostly impact terrestrial ecosystems, and predation or disease outbreaks are natural ecological interactions, pollution and overexploitation are the major causative factors for the loss of aquatic biodiversity.
34Economy
Which of the following was replaced by multi-dimensional poverty Index in 1997 ?
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Answer: (D) Human Poverty Index
Explanation
The Human Poverty Index (HPI) was introduced in 1997 by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure deprivation in the three basic dimensions of human development. In 2010, the Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) was launched to replace the HPI in the UNDP's Human Development Reports, offering a more refined methodology to measure acute multidimensional poverty across the dimensions of health, education, and living standards.
35Economy
Which of the following was not an objective of land reforms policy of India ?
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Answer: (C) Agricultural Finance
Explanation
Agricultural finance refers to the provision of credit, loans, and financial assistance to farmers for their agricultural activities. This falls under the domain of agricultural credit policies, banking, and rural development programs.
In contrast, the land reforms policy of India focused strictly on the institutional and structural reorganization of land ownership, tenure systems, and land management. The core components of these land reforms included changing the land ownership patterns, protecting the rights of actual tillers, and consolidating land holdings. Since agricultural finance is a financial support mechanism rather than a structural reform of land tenure or ownership, it was not an objective of the land reforms policy.
36Economy
Following statements are regarding Planning Commission's estimates of poverty.
(a) Poverty is showing high concentration in major states of India.
(b) Rate of fall in urban poverty is higher than that in rural poverty.
(c) Poverty ratio has increased in the states of Himachal Pradesh, Haryana and Bihar.
(d) Planning Commission has accepted Lakdawala Expert Group estimates of poverty.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
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Answer: (A) (a) and (c)
Explanation
According to the Planning Commission's poverty estimates:
Statement (a) is correct because poverty in India has shown a high concentration in a few major states. Highly populated states such as Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha have historically accounted for a disproportionately large share of the absolute poor population in India.
Statement (c) is correct because when the Planning Commission transitioned from the older Lakdawala Expert Group methodology to the newer Tendulkar Committee methodology, the revised poverty ratios for the year 2004–05 showed a significant increase in several states compared to earlier estimates. Specifically, the poverty headcount ratios in Himachal Pradesh (increased to 22.9%), Haryana (increased to 24.1%), and Bihar (increased to 54.4%) were substantially higher under the Tendulkar estimates.
37Economy
Which of the following methods of financing economic development can lead to inflation ?
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Answer: (C) Deficit Financing
Explanation
Deficit financing refers to the practice where the government spends more money than it receives as revenue, covering the gap by printing new currency or borrowing from the central bank. This process directly increases the money supply in the economy. When the volume of money in circulation rises without a corresponding increase in the output of goods and services, the purchasing power of money decreases. This leads to a rise in general price levels, causing demand-pull inflation.
38Economy
Poverty Gap is a better measure of absolute poverty than Head Count Ratio because :
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Answer: (C) It indicates total income shortfall that needs to be corrected to remove absolute poverty.
Explanation
The poverty gap measures the depth of poverty by calculating the average shortfall of the population's income from the poverty line. While the head count ratio simply counts the percentage of people living below the poverty line, it fails to show how far below the line they are. The poverty gap captures this severity by indicating the total income shortfall. This aggregate shortfall represents the minimum amount of direct financial resources that must be transferred to the poor to raise their incomes up to the poverty line and completely eliminate absolute poverty.
39Science and Technology
When we are considering evolution of species let us remember that :
(a) Evolution is progress.
(b) Evolution is generation of diversity.
(c) The older designs are not necessarily inefficient.
(d) More and more complex designs emerge.
Which one of the above four statements is incorrect ?
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Answer: (A) (a)
Explanation
In biological evolution, there is no inherent concept of progress. Evolution should not be equated with progress from lower or simpler life forms to higher or more advanced ones. Instead, evolution is fundamentally the generation of diversity and its shaping by environmental selection over generations. A newly emerged species is not inherently better or more advanced than its ancestors, but is simply better adapted to a specific ecological niche under current environmental conditions. Simple, older organism designs such as bacteria remain highly successful, resilient, and fully functional today, showing that evolutionary change does not follow a linear path toward teleological perfection or progress.
40Geography
In which of the fields Agenda 21 of Rio Earth summit promised to pursue action.
(a) Social and economic dimension such as combating poverty and sustainable urban planning.
(b) Strengthening the role of major groups such as women, local governments and NGO.
(c) Conservation and management of resources like combating deforestation.
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Answer: (B) All the above
Explanation
Agenda 21, adopted at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, is a comprehensive blueprint for global action on sustainable development. It is structured into 40 chapters divided into four main sections:
Section I addresses social and economic dimensions, focusing on combating poverty, changing consumption patterns, and promoting sustainable human settlement and urban planning.
Section II covers the conservation and management of resources for development, which includes actions like combating deforestation, preserving biodiversity, and managing land and water resources.
Section III emphasizes strengthening the role of major groups to ensure participatory development, specifically highlighting the involvement of women, youth, non-governmental organizations, and local authorities.
41Economy
Consider the following statements about the livestock resources of India :
(a) India has the largest number of cattle in the world.
(b) Indian cow is called tea-cup-cow as average yield of milk per cow is poor.
(c) About 50 percent of the worlds total population of buffaloes is in India.
(d) Buffaloes account for about 50 percent of milk production in India.
Which of the above statements is incorrect ?
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Answer: (A) (b)
Explanation
All four listed statements regarding India's livestock resources are factually correct.
India holds the largest cattle population in the world, representing a significant portion of the global total.
The average milk yield of an indigenous Indian cow is very low, often around 1 to 2 liters per day, which is why they are colloquially called tea-cup cows.
India dominates the global buffalo population by housing approximately 50% of the world's total buffaloes.
Buffaloes are highly productive and are responsible for around 50% of the total milk production in India.
42Polity and Governance
The immediate objective of National Population Policy 2000 is to :
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Answer: (A) Meet the needs of health infrastructure
Explanation
The immediate objective of the National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 is to address the unmet needs for contraception, health care infrastructure, and trained health personnel, and to provide integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child health care.
43Economy
Following statements relate to the definition of poverty in India :
(a) Poverty line is defined in terms of calories.
(b) Poverty and hunger are one and the same.
(c) Poverty Line Basket (PLB) goods and services have been changed over time.
(d) New methodology to include expenditure on education and health is recommended.
Which of the above statements is/are correct as per the definition of poverty given by S.D. Tendulkar Committee ?
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Answer: (D) (d)
Explanation
The Suresh Tendulkar Committee (established in 2005, which submitted its report in 2009) proposed a major shift in the methodology of poverty estimation in India. The committee moved away from the traditional calorie-anchored poverty estimation, arguing that calorie consumption does not strongly correlate with nutritional outcomes. Instead, it recommended a new methodology that explicitly incorporates private consumption expenditure on education and health in the Poverty Line Basket (PLB). Since these essential human development components were previously excluded from the calorie-anchored calculations, this addition made the poverty line much more realistic and comprehensive. Thus, statement (d) is correct.
44Polity and Governance
What are the socio-demographic goals of the National Population Policy to be achieved so as to have the population stabilized by 2045 ?
(a) Reduce infant - mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
(b) Promote delayed marriage in girls.
(c) Achieve 80% institutional deliveries.
(d) Achieve 100% deliveries by trained persons.
(e) Legislation to raise the age of marriage to reduce the birth rate.
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Answer: (A) (a) (b) (c) and (d)
Explanation
The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 formulated fourteen national socio-demographic goals to meet reproductive and child health needs and stabilize India's population by 2045. These specific targets include reducing the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births, promoting delayed marriage for girls to not earlier than age 18 and preferably after 20 years of age, achieving 80% institutional deliveries, and ensuring 100% deliveries by trained healthcare personnel. These goals emphasize voluntary participation, community health, and promotional incentives rather than legislative enforcement.
45Economy
Department of Agriculture and Cooperation has initiated a Saffron Mission to be implemented from 2010 to 2014. What does it involve ?
(a) Replanting
(b) Improving soil health
(c) Strengthening Irrigation
(d) Weather Station development
(e) Enhancing Research and Extension
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Answer: (B) (a), (b), (c), (e)
Explanation
The National Saffron Mission was launched by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation in 2010 as a sub-scheme under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana with the aim of reviving saffron cultivation in Jammu and Kashmir.
The core physical and field-level components of this mission include:
Replanting and rejuvenation of existing, senile saffron fields to boost crop productivity.
Improving soil health through the adoption of Integrated Nutrient Management, Integrated Pest Management, and Integrated Disease Management practices.
Strengthening the irrigation system by setting up community tube wells and sprinkler systems.
Establishing weather stations alongside e-trading platforms and quality control laboratories to help farmers adapt to changing weather patterns and secure fair pricing.
These key operational activities directly align with components (a), (b), (c), and (d).
46Polity and Governance
The National Policy for Empowerment of Women (2000) seeks to :
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Answer: (C) both (1) and (2) above
Explanation
The National Policy for Empowerment of Women, formulated in 2001, was introduced to bring about the advancement, development, and empowerment of women.
The policy explicitly outlines objectives to ensure the de-jure and de-facto enjoyment of all human rights and fundamental freedoms by women on an equal basis with men in all spheres, including equal access to participation and decision-making in the political, economic, and social life of the nation.
Additionally, it focuses heavily on the elimination of all forms of violence against women and discrimination against the girl child through legislative and executive action. Since both the eradication of discrimination/violence and the guarantee of human rights and equal opportunities in power sharing are core objectives, both statements are correct.
47Economy
The main objective of Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojna in 11th five year plan was :
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Answer: (A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors.
Explanation
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in August 2007 during the Eleventh Five-Year Plan as a State Plan Scheme. The primary objective of the scheme was to incentivize the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors. It was designed to provide states with autonomy and flexibility in planning and executing development programs for agriculture, aiming to achieve a 4% annual growth rate in this sector.
48Polity and Governance
Following statements relate to the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) :
(a) UN MDGs are to be achieved by 2015.
(b) One of the MDGs is to reduce the world's population suffering from lack of safe drinking water by 50%.
(c) Free and fair trade among all nations.
(d) There are eight MDGs.
Which of the above statements are true ?
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Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
The Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) were established during the United Nations Millennium Summit in 2000, comprising exactly eight goals. The target year set for the achievement of these goals was 2015. Under Goal 7, which focuses on environmental sustainability, Target 7.C specifically mandates halving, or reducing by 50%, the proportion of the population without sustainable access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.
49Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
If capillarity phenomenon did not exist :
(a) The blotting paper would fail to function
(b) It would be difficult to use kerosene lamp
(c) The trees that we see around would not have grown on earth
(d) The water cannot flow through pipes in cities
Which of the given statements are correct ?
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Answer: (A) (a), (b) and (c) only
Explanation
Capillarity is the phenomenon of rise or fall of a liquid in a narrow tube due to surface tension.
Blotting paper contains thousands of microscopic pores that act as capillary tubes, drawing ink or other liquids into the paper through capillary action.
The wick of a kerosene lamp is made of cotton threads with tiny spaces between them. These spaces act as capillaries, allowing the kerosene to rise continuously to feed the flame.
In plants and trees, capillary action, alongside cohesion-tension and transpiration pull, plays a critical role in transporting water and dissolved nutrients from the soil through the xylem vessels up to the topmost leaves to facilitate growth.
In contrast, the movement of water through municipal pipes in cities is driven by pressure differences created by gravity or mechanical pumps, rather than capillary forces.
50Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
(a) Penetrating power of a particle is inversely proportional to its mass.
(b) Penetrating power of α(alpha) particle is less than that of β(Beta) particle.
Which one of the following gives a correct picture about the above statements ?
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Answer: (A) Both the statements are true and statement one is an explanation of the statement two.
Explanation
The penetrating power of a radioactive particle is determined by its mass, charge, and velocity. Particles with a larger mass and charge, such as alpha particles (helium nuclei with a mass of approximately 4 amu), ionize the surrounding matter much more rapidly. This high ionization rate causes them to lose their kinetic energy quickly, resulting in a very low penetrating power. Conversely, lighter particles like beta particles (electrons with a mass of approximately 1/1836 amu) have much less ionizing interaction with the medium and can penetrate much further. Therefore, the penetrating power of a particle is inversely proportional to its mass, which directly explains why the heavier alpha particle has less penetrating power than the lighter beta particle.
51Science and Technology
Consider the following metals :
(a) Platinum (b) Gold (c) Copper (d) Lead
Their correct arrangement in the increasing order of density is :
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Answer: (A) (c), (d), (b), (a)
Explanation
The density of a substance is defined as its mass per unit volume. The standard densities of the given metals at room temperature are:
Copper (c) has a density of approximately 8.96 g/cm³
Lead (d) has a density of approximately 11.34 g/cm³
Gold (b) has a density of approximately 19.32 g/cm³
Platinum (a) has a density of approximately 21.45 g/cm³
Arranging these values in ascending order directly yields the sequence of Copper (c), Lead (d), Gold (b), and Platinum (a).
52Science and Technology
Dichlorodiphenyl Trichloro Ethane (DDT) is the first chlorinated organic insecticide for the discovery of its effectiveness as an insecticide Paul Muller was awarded Nobel Prize in Medicine and physiology in 1948.
(a) DDT is effective against mosquitoes that spread malaria.
(b) DDT is effective against lice that carry typhus.
(c) DDT has high toxicity towards fish.
(d) DDT is not metabolised easily by animals.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
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Answer: (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is a synthetic organochlorine insecticide. Statement (a) is correct because DDT was widely and successfully used to control Anopheles mosquitoes, which are vectors for malaria. Statement (b) is correct because during World War II, DDT was extensively used to dust soldiers and civilians to control body lice, effectively stopping epidemics of typhus. Statement (c) is correct because DDT is highly toxic to aquatic life, particularly fish, where it disrupts nervous system function. Statement (d) is correct because DDT is highly lipophilic (fat-soluble) and chemical bonds in its structure are highly stable, making it extremely resistant to metabolic degradation in animal tissues, which leads to bioaccumulation and biomagnification in food chains.
53Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is not true ?
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Answer: (D) SONAR technique is used to do gold plating on silver ornaments.
Explanation
SONAR stands for Sound Navigation and Ranging. It is a technique that utilizes sound propagation, typically underwater, to navigate, communicate, or detect vessels and other objects. It has no application in metallurgical or electrochemical processes; instead, gold plating on silver ornaments is performed using electroplating techniques.
54Science and Technology
Following are general statements about water drops.
(a) Surface tension is responsible for the spherical shape of the water drops.
(b) Even in the absence of gravitation, water drops have spherical shape.
(c) Formation of water drops occurs, if mass of the water is stretched.
Which of the above statement/statements is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) (a), (b) and (c)
Explanation
Surface tension is the cohesive force between liquid molecules at the surface that acts to minimize the surface area of the liquid. Since a sphere has the minimum surface area for a given volume, surface tension pulls water droplets into a spherical shape.
In the absence of gravity, no external gravitational forces act to distort or flatten the droplet. This allows surface tension to be the sole dominant force shaping the droplet, resulting in a perfectly spherical shape.
When a column or mass of water is stretched or elongated, it becomes unstable due to the Rayleigh-Plateau instability. Surface tension acts to minimize the increased surface area of the stretched liquid, causing the elongated water column to break apart into distinct, individual spherical droplets.
55Science and Technology
Botanically fibre plants gives best fibres. These are actually which of the following parts of the plants ?
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Answer: (A) Phloem
Explanation
Bast fibres, often referred to as best fibres, are obtained from the phloem tissue of dicotyledonous plant stems. These fibres are made of thick-walled sclerenchyma cells that provide structural support and mechanical strength to the plant. Phloem fibres are long, strong, and flexible, making them highly valuable for industrial and textile purposes. Highly utilized commercial fibres of this type include jute, hemp, flax, and ramie.
56Economy
What is not true of Dr. Verghese Kurien ?
(a) He is regarded as the father of White Revolution.
(b) He spent most of his life at Anand and was associated with Amul
(c) He used to say "I don't drink milk as I don't like it".
(d) He was a Keralite.
(e) He was awarded with Padma Vibhushan but not Magsaysay award.
(f) He was instrumental in converting buffaloes milk into powder.
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Answer: (C) (e)
Explanation
Dr. Verghese Kurien was awarded the prestigious Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community Leadership in 1963, in addition to receiving the Padma Vibhushan in 1999. This directly refutes statement (e), which claims he did not receive the Magsaysay Award.
57Science and Technology
Consider the following statements.
(a) Cholesterol packaged in High density lipoprotein is called bad cholesterol.
(b) High density lipoprotein builds up cholesterol and cause blockage of arteries. It can also lead to plaque formation and start atherosclerosis.
Now state whether.
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Answer: (B) Neither of the statements is correct.
Explanation
High-density lipoprotein (HDL) is referred to as good cholesterol because it absorbs cholesterol in the blood and carries it back to the liver, which then flushes it from the body. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) is known as bad cholesterol because high levels of LDL lead to plaque buildup in the arteries, causing narrowing of the arterial walls, atherosclerosis, and cardiovascular blockages. Since both statements misattribute the characteristics of LDL to HDL, neither of the statements is correct.
58Science and Technology
Which of the following hormones is odd ?
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Answer: (D) Insulin
Explanation
Insulin is a peptide hormone composed of amino acids, which is water-soluble and binds to cell-surface receptors, whereas the other hormones listed are lipid-soluble steroid hormones derived from cholesterol.
59Science and Technology
Which of the following may be called as co - factor of an enzyme ?
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Answer: (A) Iron
Explanation
Cofactors are non-protein chemical compounds or metallic ions that are required for an enzyme's biological activity. Many enzymes require inorganic metal ions to function as catalysts. Iron is a prominent inorganic cofactor that plays a crucial role in the activity of various enzymes, such as catalase, peroxidase, and cytochromes, where it participates in oxidation-reduction reactions by transitioning between its ferrous and ferric states.
60Science and Technology
Generally through kidney which of the following is not filtered ?
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Answer: (A) Ammonia
Explanation
Ammonia is not filtered from the blood at the glomerulus into the Bowman's capsule. Instead, the ammonia found in urine is synthesized de novo within the renal tubular epithelial cells (primarily through the deamination of the amino acid glutamine in the proximal convoluted tubule cells). It is then secreted directly into the tubular lumen, where it buffers hydrogen ions to assist in the regulation of the body's acid-base balance.
61Economy
Coal can be made more efficient and cleaner fuel by converting it into ______.
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Answer: (C) Gaseous form
Explanation
Coal can be converted into gaseous form (synthesis gas or syngas) through a process known as coal gasification. Syngas is primarily a mixture of carbon monoxide (CO), hydrogen (H₂), and carbon dioxide (CO₂). Converting coal to a gas allows for the removal of impurities such as sulfur, nitrogen compounds, mercury, and particulate matter before combustion, which significantly reduces emissions compared to burning raw coal. Additionally, syngas can be utilized in highly efficient Integrated Gasification Combined Cycle (IGCC) systems to generate electricity with higher thermodynamic efficiency and lower environmental impact.
62Science and Technology
__________ is a natural drug.
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Answer: (A) Morphine
Explanation
Morphine is a naturally occurring opioid alkaloid extracted directly from the latex of the unripe seed pods of the opium poppy plant, Papaver somniferum. It has been used for centuries as a highly effective analgesic to relieve severe pain. Because it is obtained from a natural biological source without undergoing major chemical synthesis, it is classified as a natural drug.
63Science and Technology
Atoms are held together in a molecule by __________ .
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Answer: (B) Intramolecular forces
Explanation
Intramolecular forces are the attractive forces that hold atoms together within a molecule. These forces include chemical bonds such as covalent, ionic, and metallic bonds, which involve the sharing, transfer, or pooling of valence electrons. They are much stronger than the forces acting between different molecules and are responsible for maintaining the chemical structure and stability of the molecule itself.
64Science and Technology
Potato Chips manufacturers usually flush bags of chips with some gas to prevent the chips from getting oxidised. Which of the following gases is used for the purpose :
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Answer: (C) Nitrogen
Explanation
Nitrogen is an unreactive gas that does not easily react with the fats and oils present in potato chips. By flushing the chip bags with nitrogen gas, oxygen is displaced from the packaging. This prevents the oxidation of the chips, thereby stopping them from turning rancid and preserving their freshness, flavor, and crispiness for a longer period.
65Science and Technology
A stain of curry on a white cloth becomes reddish brown when soap is scrubbed on it. It turns yellow again when the cloth is washed with plenty of water. It had turned reddish brown because :
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Answer: (A) Soap is basic in nature
Explanation
Curry contains turmeric, which acts as a natural pH indicator. Turmeric remains yellow in acidic and neutral mediums but turns reddish-brown in basic mediums. Soap is sodium or potassium salt of fatty acids, which is basic in nature due to its alkaline properties in aqueous solutions. When soap is scrubbed onto the curry stain, the basic nature of the soap reacts with the turmeric, turning the stain reddish-brown. Washing with plenty of water removes the basic soap, allowing the turmeric to return to its original yellow color.
66Science and Technology
If balloon is filled with dry air which contains mixture of 79% N₂ and 21% O₂ at 25°C then which component of the air will effuse out first ?
(a) O₂, because it has higher mass than N₂
(b) N₂, because it has lower mass than O₂
(c) O₂ and N₂ both will effuse out at the same time
(d) Whole air will effuse out and balloon will regain its original shape
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Answer: (D) (b) only
Explanation
According to Graham's law of effusion, the rate of effusion of a gas is inversely proportional to the square root of its molar mass, which is represented by the formula:
Rate ∝ 1 / √M
In this mixture, nitrogen (N₂) has a molar mass of 28 g/mol, and oxygen (O₂) has a molar mass of 32 g/mol. Because nitrogen has a lower molar mass than oxygen, its molecules have a higher average velocity at 25°C. As a result, nitrogen will effuse through the balloon pores at a faster rate and will effuse out first.
67Science and Technology
Indicate which of the following is a pure substance ?
(a) Iron (b) Gasoline (c) Cow's milk (d) Sea Water
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Answer: (B) (a) only
Explanation
Iron is a chemical element, which is a type of pure substance consisting entirely of a single kind of atom. A pure substance is characterized by a constant chemical composition and distinct, consistent physical and chemical properties throughout. Because iron cannot be broken down or separated into simpler substances by ordinary chemical or physical means, it meets the scientific definition of a pure substance.
68Science and Technology
Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
(a) Every living organism takes C - 14 through carbon.
(b) Every living being has the same proportion of carbon 14.
(c) After death every living organ throws same percentage of carbon.
(d) After 5568 yrs of death half of C - 14 will disappear - which is called as half life of carbon - 14.
(e) The method is used to get chronological evidence of archaeological remain.
(f) This method was invented by F.W. Liby.
(g) He got Nobel prize in physics for this work.
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Answer: (C) (g)
Explanation
Willard Frank Libby was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1960 for his method of using carbon-14 for age determination in archaeology, geology, geophysics, and other branches of science. He did not receive the Nobel Prize in Physics.
69History
Who is the first non - Indian recipient of the Bharat Ratna award ?
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Answer: (C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
Explanation
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a prominent freedom fighter and close associate of Mahatma Gandhi, was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1987. Popularly known as Frontier Gandhi, he led the non-violent Khudai Khidmatgar movement against British colonial rule in the North-West Frontier Province. Following the partition of India in 1947, he chose Pakistani citizenship. His outstanding contribution to the Indian independence struggle and his lifelong commitment to Gandhian principles of pacifism earned him the distinction of becoming the first non-Indian citizen to be honored with India's highest civilian award.
70Polity and Governance
Who can remove the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission ?
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Answer: (A) The President on the recommendation of the Supreme Court
Explanation
Under Article 317 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and other members of a State Public Service Commission, although appointed by the Governor of the state, can only be removed from office by the President of India. The removal can be initiated on the ground of misbehaviour after the Supreme Court, on a reference made to it by the President, conducts an inquiry and recommends the removal. The advice tendered by the Supreme Court following this inquiry is binding on the President.
71Polity and Governance
Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty ?
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Answer: (C) To cast vote in the election.
Explanation
To cast a vote in an election is a constitutional right under Article 326 of the Constitution of India, rather than a fundamental duty. The Fundamental Duties of citizens are enumerated in Article 51A, which was added to Part IV-A of the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. While the Swaran Singh Committee did recommend making the duty to vote a fundamental duty, this suggestion was not accepted by the Parliament and was excluded from the final list of duties.
72Polity and Governance
Which one of the following statements regarding the Association of South East Asian Nations (ASEAN) is not correct ?
(a) ASEAN was established in the year 1967 in Bangkok by five member countries.
(b) Singapore is one of the founder members of ASEAN.
(c) India is sectoral dialogue partner of ASEAN.
(d) ASEAN has ten members.
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Answer: (C) only (c)
Explanation
Statement (c) is incorrect because India is a full dialogue partner of ASEAN, rather than a sectoral dialogue partner. India started its engagement with ASEAN as a sectoral dialogue partner in 1992, but was upgraded to a full dialogue partner in December 1995. Subsequently, the relationship was elevated to summit-level interaction in 2002 and to a Strategic Partnership in 2012.
73Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) Tulsi Gabbard is the First Hindu woman ever to get elected to the US House of Representatives.
(b) She was awarded by Kuwait Army National Guard.
Which one of the above statements is correct ?
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Answer: (C) (a) and (b)
Explanation
Tulsi Gabbard made history in November 2012 when she was elected to represent Hawaii's 2nd congressional district in the US House of Representatives, taking office in January 2013 as the first-ever Hindu woman to be elected to the US Congress.
During her military service in the Hawaii Army National Guard, she was deployed to Kuwait from 2008 to 2009. There, she trained soldiers of the Kuwait National Guard, becoming one of the first women to enter a Kuwaiti military facility and the first woman to be honored with an award of appreciation by the Kuwait National Guard for her exceptional contribution to their training and readiness program.
74Polity and Governance
Why is Indian Secularism called as a mosaic frame ?
(a) Because in it various religions and languages flourish with freedom and dignity.
(b) Because in it all groups without losing their identity become a part of the composite culture.
(c) It unites common masses.
(d) There is no state religion in India.
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Answer: (B) (b)
Explanation
A mosaic is an artistic creation made by assembling small, distinct pieces of colored glass, stone, or other materials where each individual piece retains its unique color, shape, and identity, while contributing to a unified and beautiful composite picture. Similarly, the mosaic frame of Indian secularism allows diverse religious, linguistic, and cultural groups to coexist and integrate into the broader national identity and composite culture without being forced to assimilate or lose their distinct, individual characteristics.
75Art and Culture
James Bond is the most popular spy of the World! Who among the following has not played the role of James Bond so far?
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Answer: (D) Omar Sharief
Explanation
Omar Sharif was a highly acclaimed Egyptian actor who achieved international stardom with prominent roles in classic motion pictures such as Lawrence of Arabia and Doctor Zhivago. Although he was one of the most distinguished actors of his era and an international icon, he never portrayed the fictional British Secret Service agent James Bond in any film.
76Geography
Which city is called the 'Queen of Arabian Sea'?
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Answer: (B) Cochin
Explanation
Kochi, historically known as Cochin, is referred to as the Queen of the Arabian Sea due to its status as a premier port city on the west coast of India for many centuries. Starting from the 14th century, it served as a major center for the global spice trade, connecting India with merchants from the Arab world, China, and Europe. Its natural harbor and strategic location along the spice route made it an exceptionally busy and prosperous maritime hub, earning it this celebrated title.
77Art and Culture
Which one of the following languages of the world has the least number of words?
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Answer: (C) Hawaiyan
Explanation
Hawaiian is a Polynesian language belonging to the Austronesian language family. It is characterized by having a remarkably small phonetic inventory, featuring an alphabet of only 13 letters consisting of five vowels and eight consonants, including the glottal stop known as okina. Due to this highly restricted phoneme set and its simple syllable structure, which prohibits consonant clusters and syllable-final consonants, the Hawaiian language historically has a very small vocabulary of root words compared to other languages such as Tamil, Sanskrit, and Tirahi.
78Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Which one of the following statements is incorrect in respect of elections of Zilla Parishads in Maharashtra State ?
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Answer: (D) The term of office of President of the Zilla Parishad is of 5 years.
Explanation
Under Section 43 of the Maharashtra Zilla Parishads and Panchayat Samitis Act, 1961, the term of office of the President and Vice-President of a Zilla Parishad is two and a half years. Therefore, the statement stating that the term is five years is incorrect.
79Economy
Which one of the following states, is the first to scrap the "SEZ" policy in India ?
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Answer: (D) Goa
Explanation
Goa was the first state in India to scrap its Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy. This decision was taken following intense and widespread public protests led by civil society groups, including the SEZ Virodhi Manch (SVM) and Goa's Movement Against SEZs (GMAS). The citizens and political groups argued that the land-intensive SEZs would exert massive pressure on the state's fragile infrastructure, such as water and power, and threaten the local Goan identity through a large influx of migrant labor. Consequently, the Goa government decided to withdraw its state SEZ policy and requested the Union government to denotify and scrap all approved and pending SEZ proposals in the state.
80Polity and Governance
What is the main jurisdiction of the High Court ?
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Supervisory jurisdiction
(d) Advisory jurisdiction
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Answer: (C) (a), (b), (c)
Explanation
Under the Constitution of India, the High Court possesses original jurisdiction for the enforcement of fundamental rights and handling specific civil and election disputes, appellate jurisdiction to hear civil and criminal appeals from subordinate courts, and supervisory jurisdiction under Article 227 over all courts and tribunals within its territorial jurisdiction. Advisory jurisdiction is uniquely vested in the Supreme Court of India under Article 143, and High Courts do not have this power.
81Polity and Governance
Which one of the following extraordinary powers, the Indian Constitution provides to the Centre to deal with an emergency arising out war, external aggression or armed rebellion ? Select the correct answer using the following codes.
(a) Centre can modify the provisions relating to the distribution of revenue between the Centre and the states.
(b) Centre can give directions to any state as to the manner in which its executive powers are to be exercised.
(c) Parliament can make laws with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List.
(d) Centre can order the reduction of salaries of state employees, including the judges of High Court.
Code:
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Answer: (C) a, b, c
Explanation
During a National Emergency declared under Article 352 on the grounds of war, external aggression, or armed rebellion, the federal structure of the Constitution undergoes a significant transformation, granting extraordinary powers to the Centre.
Under Article 353(a), the executive power of the Union extends to giving directions to any state regarding the manner in which its executive power is to be exercised, placing the state administration under the direct control of the Centre.
Under Article 250, Parliament acquires the power to make laws for the entire country or any part of it with respect to any matter enumerated in the State List, which temporarily suspends the exclusive legislative autonomy of the states.
Under Article 354, the President can modify the constitutional provisions relating to the distribution of revenues between the Centre and the states, allowing the Centre to alter or reduce financial transfers to the states to mobilize resources for the emergency.
82Polity and Governance
Fill in the blank appropriately.
A trap laid for apprehending a Govt. employee taking bribe used phenophthelein powder coated currency notes. A solution of sodium carbonate sprinkled on the notes must turn ________ for lending proof for the crime.
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Answer: (C) red
Explanation
Sodium carbonate is a basic salt that dissolves in water to form an alkaline solution with a pH greater than 7. Phenolphthalein is a chemical compound commonly used as a pH indicator. It is colorless in acidic and neutral environments but turns a distinct pink or red color in basic or alkaline mediums with a pH above 8.2. In anti-corruption trap cases, bribe currency notes are dusted with phenolphthalein powder, which transfers to the hands of anyone who touches them. Washing the hands of the suspect or the notes with a sodium carbonate solution triggers this chemical reaction, turning the solution red to provide forensic evidence of contact with the bribe money.
83Polity and Governance
Match the features of Indian Constitution with the sources borrowed from different constitutions of the world. (use correct codes)
List 1 - Features
(a) Office of the Governor
(b) Judicial Review
(c) Directive Principles of State policy
(d) Parliamentary System of Government
List 2 - Sources
(i) Government of India Act 1935
(ii) British Constitution
(iii) Ireland Constitution
(iv) American Constitution
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
Explanation
The matching of the constitutional features with their respective sources is as follows:
The Office of the Governor is sourced from the Government of India Act 1935, which laid down the administrative framework for the office of the state executive head.
Judicial Review is adapted from the American Constitution, establishing the power of the judiciary to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.
Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from the Irish Constitution, providing constitutional guidelines for the state to establish social and economic democracy.
The Parliamentary System of Government is modeled after the British Constitution, establishing a system of executive responsibility to the legislature and a cabinet form of government.
84Polity and Governance
Oscar Pistorious was recently in the news. What is not true of him ?
(a) He is known as Olympic "Blade Runner".
(b) He shot dead his beloved on a Vatentinc day.
(c) He participated in London Olympics and won awards at Para Olympic Competitions.
(d) He is a runner from the United Kingdoms.
(e) He was born without bones in his lower legs and runs with carbon fibre race blades.
(f) He claims that he killed his beloved thinking her to be a burglar however it is charged that the murder is a predetermined plot.
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Answer: (B) (d)
Explanation
Oscar Pistorius is a professional sprint runner from South Africa, not the United Kingdom. He was born in Johannesburg, South Africa, and competed internationally representing the South African team in both Olympic and Paralympic events.
85Geography
What are the 5 most populous cities of India in the decreasing order of their population as per 2011 Census ?
According to the Census of India 2011, the top five most populous cities under their respective municipal corporation limits, arranged in decreasing order of population, are Mumbai with a population of 12,442,373, followed by Delhi with 11,034,555, Bangalore with 8,443,675, Hyderabad with 6,731,790, and Ahmedabad with 5,577,940. This sequence accurately reflects the decreasing order of population of the city proper areas.
86Polity and Governance
The Chief Minister of a state can be removed if :
(a) a resolution is passed by 2/3rd members of the Legislative Council or the Rajya Sabha.
(b) in the opinion of the Governor, there is a breakdown of the constitutional machinery in the state.
(c) a no - confidence motion is passed by the Legislative Assembly.
(d) a no - confidence motion is passed by both the houses of State Legislature.
Codes :
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Answer: (C) (b), (c)
Explanation
Under Article 164 of the Constitution of India, the Council of Ministers, headed by the Chief Minister, is collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State. Therefore, if a no-confidence motion is passed by the Legislative Assembly, the Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers must resign.
Additionally, under Article 356 of the Constitution, if the Governor of a state is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, representing a breakdown of the constitutional machinery, they can send a report to the President. This leads to the imposition of President's Rule and the dismissal of the Chief Minister and the state government.
87HistoryMaharashtra-specific
The year 2012 - 2013 was not a centenary year for which Personality/institution/Movement of the following ?
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Answer: (D) Maharashtra Public Service Commission
Explanation
The Maharashtra Public Service Commission was established on 1 April 1937 under the provisions of the Government of India Act, 1935, which created Provincial Public Service Commissions. Its centenary year will be celebrated in 2037, meaning the period 2012–2013 did not mark its 100th anniversary.
88Polity and Governance
According to the 73rd Amendment which of the following are optional provisions left to the state governments regarding organisation of Panchayati Institutions ?
(a) 2 - 3 tier structure
(b) Fixed tenure
(c) Role and scope of Gram Sabha
(d) District Planning Committees
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Answer: (D) (a) and (c)
Explanation
Under Article 243B of the Constitution, a three-tier system of Panchayati Raj is mandatory. However, states with a population not exceeding 20 lakhs have the option of not constituting panchayats at the intermediate level, allowing a two-tier structure. This makes the choice of a two-tier or three-tier structure based on demographic thresholds an optional provision left to the state governments.
Additionally, under Article 243A, the Gram Sabha can exercise only those powers and perform those functions at the village level as determined by the respective state legislature. Therefore, the role and scope of the Gram Sabha is also an optional provision left to the discretion of the state governments.
89Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding no confidence motion against the office bearers in Zilla Parishad under Maharashtra Zilla Parishad Panchayat Samiti Act ?
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Answer: (C) The Chief Executive Officer of Zilla Parishad can only preside over the meeting called for the passing of the no confidence motion.
Explanation
Under the Maharashtra Zilla Parishads and Panchayat Samitis Act, 1961, the special meeting convened for considering a motion of no confidence against the office bearers is presided over by the District Collector, or by an officer not below the rank of a Deputy Collector authorized by the Collector. The Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad does not preside over this meeting.
90Polity and Governance
The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission holds office for a period of :
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Answer: (C) For six years or till the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
Explanation
According to Article 316 of the Constitution of India, the Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission hold office for a term of six years from the date on which they enter upon their office or until they attain the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier.
91Polity and Governance
What are the main provisions of constitutional remedies available to Indian citizens under Indian Constitution ? Select the correct answer using the following codes :
(a) The citizens can move the courts for enforcement of their Fundamental Rights.
(b) The Supreme Court can issue necessary writs for enforcement of these rights.
(c) The Parliament can suspend the right to constitutional remedies by two - third majority, which must also be the majority of its total membership.
(d) The parliament can empower the courts, other than the Supreme Court, to exercise powers for enforcement of these rights without adversely affecting the powers of the Supreme Court.
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Answer: (B) (a), (b), (d)
Explanation
Article 32 of the Constitution of India guarantees the right to constitutional remedies. Under Article 32(1), citizens have the right to move the Supreme Court by appropriate proceedings for the enforcement of their Fundamental Rights. Article 32(2) empowers the Supreme Court to issue directions, orders, or writs, including habeas corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo warranto, and certiorari, for the enforcement of these rights. Furthermore, Article 32(3) states that Parliament may by law empower any other court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the powers exercisable by the Supreme Court for the enforcement of these rights, without prejudice to or adversely affecting the constitutional powers of the Supreme Court.
92Polity and Governance
The office of Lokpal and Lokayukta in India resemble which of the following ?
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Answer: (B) Ombudsman in Scandinavia
Explanation
The institution of Lokpal at the national level and Lokayukta at the state level in India is patterned after the institution of the Ombudsman in Scandinavian countries. First established in Sweden in 1809, the Ombudsman is an independent officer appointed to investigate citizens' complaints against administrative abuse of power, maladministration, and corruption. In India, the First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966–1970) recommended the setting up of Lokpal and Lokayukta to perform a similar role of addressing public grievances and investigating allegations of corruption against public functionaries.
93Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
It is illegal to drink and drive in Maharashtra and one also needs a permit :
(a) to buy liquor from an authorised shop.
(b) to consume liquor in a hotel or a bar.
(c) to possess it in your house.
(d) to carry it from one place to another.
Which of the above four statements is/are incorrect ?
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Answer: (D) None
Explanation
Under the Bombay Prohibition Act, 1949 (now known as the Maharashtra Prohibition Act), a permit system is enforced throughout Maharashtra. According to the provisions of this Act, an individual requires a legally issued permit for the purchase, possession, transport, use, and consumption of country liquor or foreign liquor in the state.
This means a permit is legally required to buy liquor from authorized shops, consume it in a licensed hotel or bar (where temporary one-day permits are often issued), possess it at home, and carry or transport it from one place to another. Since all four statements are legally correct, none of them are incorrect.
94Polity and Governance
What is not true of the Direct Cash Benefits Transfer Scheme launched by the Central Govt. ?
(a) It was launched on 1st January 2013.
(b) The pilot phase has been launched in 20 districts scaling down the number from 51.
(c) Herein cash will be directly transferred to the Aadhaar linked bank accounts of the intended beneficiaries.
(d) It is supposed to prevent corruption and leaky distribution.
(e) On the day of the launch the hurdle in Maharashtra was stated to be inadequate number of Aadhar - linked accounts.
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The Direct Benefit Transfer scheme was officially launched by the Central Government on 1st January 2013. The program aimed to transfer welfare subsidies directly into the Aadhaar-linked bank accounts of intended beneficiaries, minimizing leakages and reducing corruption in public distribution. Although 51 districts were initially chosen for the first phase, the launch was scaled down to 20 districts on the starting day. In states like Maharashtra, a key hurdle faced during the initial rollout was the insufficient number of bank accounts seeded with Aadhaar numbers among the target population. Since all the given statements are factually correct, none of them are untrue.
95Economy
Which one of the following statements is correct, regarding the International Monetary Fund ?
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Answer: (C) IMF grants loans only to member countries.
Explanation
The International Monetary Fund is an international organization established to foster global monetary cooperation, secure financial stability, and facilitate international trade. One of its core mandates is to provide financial assistance and loans exclusively to its member countries that are experiencing actual or potential balance of payments difficulties. This financial support enables member countries to rebuild their international reserves, stabilize their currencies, and restore conditions for stable economic growth while undertaking necessary policy reforms to correct their economic imbalances.
96Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) India was the first country to recognize the people's Republic of China on 1st January, 1950.
(b) India objected to China's permanent membership in the Security Council of UN.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) None of them
Explanation
India officially recognized the People's Republic of China on December 30, 1949, rather than January 1, 1950. India was not the first country to recognize the communist government; the Soviet Union was the first nation to do so on October 2, 1949, and Burma was the first non-communist nation to extend recognition on December 16, 1949.
India did not object to China's permanent membership in the United Nations Security Council. During the 1950s, India actively campaigned and advocated for the representation of the People's Republic of China in the United Nations, supporting its claim to the permanent seat in the Security Council which was then occupied by the Republic of China in Taiwan.
Since both statements are incorrect, the option representing neither is correct.
97Polity and Governance
If an election to the post of the President of India is set aside by the Supreme Court then the orders made by the incumbent until then :
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Answer: (B) Remain valid
Explanation
According to Article 71(2) of the Constitution of India, if the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts done by them in the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of the office of President on or before the date of the decision are not invalidated. This constitutional provision ensures stability and continuity in governance, meaning all executive actions, orders, and decisions made by the incumbent prior to the Supreme Court ruling remain fully valid and legally binding.
98Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(a) Nalinis death penalty for Rajiv Gandhi's assassination was commuted to life imprisonment on the basis of a recommendation of the state cabinet and an appeal by the Congress Chief Sonia Gandhi.
(b) Justice K.T. Thomas who headed the Supreme Court bench that confirmed the death rap now feels that it would be incorrect to hang the remaining three sentenced to death for Rajiv Gandhi's assassination as the antecedents, nature and character of the accused were not considered before.
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Answer: (A) Both (a) and (b) are correct
Explanation
Nalini Sriharan's death sentence was commuted to life imprisonment by the Governor of Tamil Nadu in April 2000. This decision was made on the basis of a recommendation by the state cabinet and a public appeal for clemency by the Congress Chief, Sonia Gandhi, who cited compassion for Nalini's young daughter.
In February 2013, retired Supreme Court Justice K.T. Thomas, who had presided over the three-judge bench that confirmed the death sentences of the convicts in 1999, publicly stated that executing the remaining three death-row convicts (Murugan, Santhan, and Perarivalan) would be constitutionally incorrect. He explained that the judicial bench at the time had erred by failing to evaluate the individual antecedents, character, and nature of the accused before confirming the capital punishment.