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MPSC Prelims 2011 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 183 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

183
Questions
7
Subjects
34
Maharashtra-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Economy6234%
  • Science and Technology5027%
  • Polity and Governance3217%
  • Geography158%
  • History158%
  • Art and Culture53%
  • Logical Reasoning42%
1History
The immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857 was
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Answer: (A) Use of cartridges greased with cow fat and pig fat

Explanation

The immediate spark for the Revolt of 1857 was the introduction of the new Enfield rifle in the British Indian Army. The paper cartridges for these rifles had to be bitten off before loading. Rumours quickly spread among the sepoys that the grease used to lubricate these cartridges was made from beef and pork fat, which directly violated the religious beliefs of both Hindu and Muslim soldiers, triggering widespread mutiny.

2History
Who, from the following, was inspired to found the Indian National Congress ?
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Answer: (C) Sir A.O. Hume

Explanation

Allan Octavian Hume, a retired British civil servant, was the primary force behind the establishment of the Indian National Congress in 1885. Concerned about the growing discontent among educated Indians under British rule, he envisioned a political organization that could serve as a platform for peaceful constitutional dialogue and representation. He mobilized Indian intellectuals and leaders, leading to the inaugural session of the Congress held in Bombay in December 1885, with Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee presiding as its first president. This critical role in initiating the organization earned him the recognition as the founder of the Indian National Congress.

3HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who founded “Arya Mahila Samaj” in Pune ?
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Answer: (B) Pandita Ramabai

Explanation

Pandita Ramabai founded the Arya Mahila Samaj in Pune in 1882. The organization was established with the objective of promoting education among women and working towards their empowerment and liberation from oppressive social customs, particularly child marriage. This initiative played a pivotal role in the early women's rights and social reform movements in Maharashtra.

4History
Who was the source of inspiration to found the “Indian National Trade Union Congress” in 1947 ?
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Answer: (C) Sardar Patel

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was the main source of inspiration and the driving force behind the establishment of the Indian National Trade Union Congress on May 3, 1947. To counter the growing communist influence within the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC), Patel advocated for a nationalist trade union movement rooted in Indian conditions and democratic principles. He delivered the presidential address at the founding conference in New Delhi, emphasizing that the labor movement should align with the national interest and adopt peaceful, non-violent means for dispute resolution.

5Polity and Governance
In which year was the “University Grants Commission” established ?
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Answer: (C) 1956

Explanation

The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally established as a statutory body of the Government of India in November 1956. This was achieved through the enactment of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956, by the Parliament of India. Its primary responsibilities include coordinating, determining, and maintaining the standards of university education, as well as providing funds and recognition to universities across the country.

6HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who established the “Society for the Protection of Hindu Legion” ?
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Answer: (D) Damodar Chafekar and Balkrishna Chafekar

Explanation

The Society for the Protection of Hindu Legion, also known as the Hindu Dharma Sanrakshini Sabha, was established in 1894 by Damodar Hari Chapekar and Balkrishna Hari Chapekar in Pune. The organization was founded to provide physical and military training to Hindu youth, instilling nationalist and cultural ideals. It aimed to resist British colonial oppression and defend traditional Hindu practices, laying the groundwork for the early phase of revolutionary nationalism in Maharashtra.

7HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who started the newspaper “Sudharak” ?
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Answer: (B) Gopal Ganesh Agarkar

Explanation

Gopal Ganesh Agarkar started the weekly newspaper Sudharak (meaning The Reformer) in 1888 in Pune. Agarkar, a prominent social reformer and thinker, established this journal to propagate his ideas on social reform, rationalism, and individual liberty. He used the platform to campaign against social evils such as child marriage, the caste system, and the subordination of women, while vigorously championing women's education and a scientific temperament. The newspaper was published in both Marathi and English, with Agarkar writing the Marathi portion and Gopal Krishna Gokhale editing the English section.

8HistoryMaharashtra-specific
“Manav Dharma Sabha” institution was established by
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Answer: (D) Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar

Explanation

The Manav Dharma Sabha was established on June 22, 1844, in Surat by Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar alongside Durgaram Manchharam Mehta. It was one of the earliest socio-religious reform organizations in Western India, aimed at criticizing the superstitious practices, caste discrimination, and religious orthodoxies of Hindu, Muslim, and Christian faiths. The Sabha championed monotheism, rationalism, and moral conduct, seeking to guide individuals toward universal human duty rather than blind ritualism.

9HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who launched Satyagraha of the 'Cavdar Tale' at Mahad in 1927 ?
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Answer: (D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar led the Satyagraha of the Chavdar Tale (Chavdar Lake) at Mahad on 20 March 1927. This social movement was launched to assert the basic human rights of the untouchables to draw water from public water bodies, which had been restricted despite a local municipal resolution allowing access. The event remains a landmark struggle in India against caste discrimination and social inequality.

10HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Who started the periodical "Samaj Swasthya" ?
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Answer: (A) R.D. Karve

Explanation

Raghunath Dhondo Karve (R.D. Karve) started the Marathi monthly periodical Samaj Swasthya (meaning Social Health) in July 1927. He published and edited it for over 26 years until his death in 1953.

The journal was highly pioneering and revolutionary for its time, focusing on taboo subjects such as family planning, contraception, sex education, and rationalism. R.D. Karve, who was the eldest son of the renowned social reformer Maharshi Dhondo Keshav Karve, used this platform to campaign for women's reproductive autonomy and scientific thinking, despite facing immense social backlash and legal challenges.

11HistoryMaharashtra-specific
'Depressed Classes Mission' was founded by ________ .
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Answer: (A) Vitthal Ramaji Shinde

Explanation

The Depressed Classes Mission of India was established on 18 October 1906 in Bombay by the prominent social reformer Maharshi Vitthal Ramji Shinde. The mission was founded with the objective of eliminating untouchability, providing educational facilities, hostels, and employment opportunities to the depressed classes, and working towards their overall social and spiritual elevation. Shinde sought to integrate the marginalised sections into mainstream society through institutionalized support and active social reform.

12HistoryMaharashtra-specific
Mahatma Phule recommended to the Hunter Commission that State should give the priority to ________ .
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Answer: (B) Free and Compulsory Primary Education

Explanation

In 1882, Mahatma Jyotirao Phule submitted a comprehensive representation to the Indian Education Commission, chaired by Sir William Hunter. In his memorial, Phule strongly advocated that the state must give utmost priority to free and compulsory primary education for the masses, particularly for the depressed classes and the peasantry. He criticized the colonial government's practice of spending the bulk of educational revenues on higher education for the upper classes, arguing instead that public funds collected from the common people should be utilized to provide them basic, accessible, and compulsory primary education.

13Geography
India has ______ rank in the world as per the area.
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Answer: (C) Seventh

Explanation

India is the seventh-largest country in the world by geographical area. The total area of India is approximately 3,287,263 square kilometres, which represents about 2.4% of the total land surface area of the world. It has a land boundary of about 15,200 kilometres and a total coastline of 7,516.6 kilometres, including the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

14Geography
Mountain soil is known as ______ .
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Answer: (B) Unmatured soil

Explanation

Mountain soils, typically found in hilly and mountainous regions with steep slopes, are characterized as unmatured or immature soils. This is because the high slope gradient and gravity cause continuous downward movement of soil particles, leading to constant erosion and deposition. Furthermore, the colder climates at higher altitudes slow down the chemical weathering of rock and the rate of organic decomposition. Consequently, these soils remain thin, shallow, skeletal, and do not have well-defined soil horizons or a fully developed profile.

15GeographyMaharashtra-specific
______ district of Maharashtra is largest according to the area.
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Answer: (B) Ahmednagar

Explanation

Ahmednagar is the largest district in Maharashtra by geographical area. It covers an area of approximately 17,048 square kilometers, which accounts for about 5.54% of the total land area of the state.

16GeographyMaharashtra-specific
'Project Tiger' at Melghat is located in ______ district.
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Answer: (C) Amravati

Explanation

Melghat Tiger Reserve is located in the northern part of Amravati district of Maharashtra, situated on the southern offshoot of the Satpura Hill Range. Declared in 1973-74, it was among the first nine tiger reserves notified in India under Project Tiger. The reserve is dominated by dry deciduous forests, primarily composed of teak, and serves as an important catchment area for several rivers, including the Tapti River which flows along its northern boundary.

17Economy
Which wood is mostly utilized for furniture ?
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Answer: (B) Teak

Explanation

Teak wood is highly valued and widely utilized for furniture manufacturing due to its exceptional durability, strength, and aesthetic appeal. It contains natural oils that make it highly resistant to termites, pests, decay, and moisture, preventing it from warping, cracking, or rotting over time. This makes it the premier choice for both high-quality indoor and outdoor furniture.

18GeographyMaharashtra-specific
The river Koyna joins the river Krishna at ______ .
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Answer: (C) Karad

Explanation

The Koyna River originates in Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats of Satara district. It flows in a north-south direction and eventually turns eastward to join the Krishna River at Karad in the Satara district. This famous confluence of the Koyna and Krishna rivers is known as Preeti Sangam. The Koyna River is highly significant for the state, especially due to the Koyna Dam, which is one of the largest hydroelectric power plants in India.

19Polity and Governance
Which among the following persons was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution ?
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Answer: (B) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru was not a member of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution. The Drafting Committee was appointed on August 29, 1947, under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, and consisted of seven members, which did not include Jawaharlal Nehru. Instead, Nehru headed other major committees of the Constituent Assembly, such as the Union Powers Committee, the Union Constitution Committee, and the States Committee.

20Polity and Governance
The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up __________.
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Answer: (A) under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly of India was constituted in November 1946 under the framework proposed by the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946. The Cabinet Mission, comprising British Cabinet ministers Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps, and A.V. Alexander, recommended a scheme for the formulation of a constitution-making body to facilitate the transfer of power from the British government to Indian leadership. Under this plan, members of the Constituent Assembly were elected indirectly by the provincial legislative assemblies through proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote, alongside representatives nominated by the rulers of the princely states.

21Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Where are the Judicial benches of Mumbai High Court situated ?
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Answer: (C) Nagpur, Aurangabad and Panaji

Explanation

The Bombay High Court, which is the high court for the states of Maharashtra and Goa, as well as the Union Territories of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu, has its principal seat in Mumbai. To facilitate better administrative and judicial access across its wide territorial jurisdiction, three permanent benches have been established at Nagpur, Aurangabad, and Panaji. The Nagpur bench caters to the Vidarbha region, the Aurangabad bench serves the Marathwada region, and the Panaji bench in Goa covers cases from that state.

22Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
How much is the strength of the Legislative Council of Maharashtra ?
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Answer: (D) 78

Explanation

The Legislative Council of Maharashtra, also known as the Maharashtra Vidhan Parishad, consists of 78 members. This upper house of the state legislature comprises members chosen through various methods, including election by the members of the Legislative Assembly, local authorities, graduates, and teachers, as well as nomination by the Governor of the state. According to Article 171 of the Constitution of India, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a state cannot exceed one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state, nor can it be less than 40. Since the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra has 288 seats, the council's strength of 78 is constitutionally valid and has remained at this number.

23Polity and Governance
Consider the following : I. The President according to Indian Constitution shall act in accordance with the advice given by the Council of Ministers. II. The President may require the Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice, but that advice is not binding on the President.
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Answer: (B) I is correct and II is incorrect

Explanation

Under Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall, in the exercise of his functions, act in accordance with such advice. This makes the first statement correct.

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 added a proviso to Article 74(1), which permits the President to return the advice to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration. However, the proviso specifies that the President must act in accordance with the advice given after such reconsideration. This makes the reconsidered advice binding on the President, meaning the second statement is incorrect.

24Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
How many members are there in Maharashtra Vidhan Parishad at present ?
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Answer: (C) 78

Explanation

The Maharashtra Legislative Council, or Vidhan Parishad, is the upper house of the bicameral legislature of Maharashtra. According to Article 171 of the Constitution of India, the total strength of a State Legislative Council is capped at one-third of the total strength of the Legislative Assembly of that state, with a minimum limit of 40 members.

The total strength of the Maharashtra Vidhan Parishad is 78. The allocation of these 78 seats is distributed as follows: 30 members are elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly of Maharashtra (MLAs). 22 members are elected by local authorities such as municipalities, district boards, and other local bodies. 7 members are elected by registered graduates from the graduates' constituencies. 7 members are elected by teachers from the teachers' constituencies. 12 members are nominated by the Governor of Maharashtra for their special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, cooperative movement, and social service.

25Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Who works as a Chief Administrative Officer and Secretary of the Panchayat Samiti ?
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Answer: (D) Block Development Officer

Explanation

Under the Panchayat Raj system, the Block Development Officer (BDO) is appointed by the state government to serve as the ex-officio Secretary and Chief Administrative Officer of the Panchayat Samiti. In this administrative role, the BDO manages the day-to-day administrative functions of the block, coordinates development schemes, and implements the decisions and resolutions passed by the Panchayat Samiti. The BDO acts as a vital link between the state administration and the local government at the block level.

26Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Which one of the following durations is the tenure of the Mayor of Municipal Corporation in Maharashtra ?
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Answer: (B) 2-5 years

Explanation

Under Section 19 of the Maharashtra Municipal Corporations Act, 1949, the tenure of the Mayor and the Deputy Mayor of a Municipal Corporation in Maharashtra is two and a half (2.5) years. While the overall term of the Municipal Corporation itself is five years, the mayoral elections are held twice during this five-year period, dividing the corporate term into two mayoral terms of 2.5 years each.

27Polity and Governance
Who performs the administrative leadership at Panchayat Samiti level ?
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Answer: (A) Block Development Officer

Explanation

The Block Development Officer serves as the chief executive officer and administrative leader of the Panchayat Samiti at the block level. As a state government civil servant, the Block Development Officer is responsible for coordinating, supervising, and executing all developmental projects, administrative functions, and government welfare schemes within the block.

28Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Minimum how many meetings of Gram Sabha must be held in a Financial Year in Maharashtra ?
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Answer: (A) 4

Explanation

Under Section 7(1) of the Maharashtra Village Panchayats Act, 1958 (as applicable in 2011), it was mandatory to hold at least six meetings of the Gram Sabha in every financial year. This provision was later amended through the Maharashtra Village Panchayats (Amendment) Act of 2012 (effective from 2 October 2012), which reduced the minimum required meetings to four in a financial year.

29Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
Who is the Secretary of Zilla Parishad in Maharashtra ?
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Answer: (B) Deputy Chief Executive Officer of Zilla Parishad

Explanation

Under Section 9(3) of the Maharashtra Zilla Parishads and Panchayat Samitis Act, 1961, the Deputy Chief Executive Officer of the Zilla Parishad is designated as the ex-officio Secretary of the Zilla Parishad. In cases where multiple Deputy Chief Executive Officers are appointed, the Chief Executive Officer nominates one of them to act as the ex-officio Secretary.

30Polity and Governance
Which of the following sentences is not applicable to Gram Sabha ?
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Answer: (D) In the absence of both Sarpanch and Deputy Sarpanch, the Gram Sabha meeting is chaired by the Gram Sevak.

Explanation

The Gram Sevak (Village Secretary) is a non-elected, administrative government official appointed by the Zilla Parishad to assist in the functioning of the Gram Panchayat, maintain records, and register vital statistics. As a government employee, the Gram Sevak does not have the authority to preside over or chair the political meetings of the Gram Sabha.

Under Panchayati Raj laws, in the absence of both the Sarpanch and the Deputy (Upa) Sarpanch, the Gram Sabha meeting is presided over by the senior-most member of the Gram Panchayat present, or by a member chosen by the residents of the Gram Sabha present at the meeting.

31Science and Technology
Which one of the following lamps has maximum efficiency ?
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Answer: (C) Sodium Vapour Lamp

Explanation

Luminous efficiency is defined as the ratio of luminous flux emitted by a light source to the electrical power consumed, which is measured in lumens per watt (lm/W).

Incandescent bulbs are highly inefficient because they convert only about 2% to 5% of electrical energy into visible light, with most of it lost as heat, resulting in an efficiency of approximately 10 to 18 lm/W.

Fluorescent tubelights have a higher efficiency of about 60 to 100 lm/W, as they produce light by exciting mercury vapor to create ultraviolet light, which then stimulates a phosphor coating.

Sodium vapour lamps, particularly low-pressure sodium vapour lamps, are exceptionally efficient gas-discharge light sources, with a luminous efficiency ranging from 100 to 200 lm/W. This high efficiency is achieved because their emission is concentrated near the peak sensitivity wavelength of the human eye (589 nm), making them the most energy-efficient option.

32Science and Technology
When the Moon is near the horizon, it appears big. This is due to
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Answer: (A) Optical illusion

Explanation

The phenomenon of the Moon appearing larger near the horizon than it does when overhead is known as the Moon illusion, which is a well-documented optical illusion.

Actual physical measurements and photographic evidence show that the angular size of the Moon remains constant at approximately 0.5° regardless of its position in the sky. When the Moon is near the horizon, the human brain compares it to terrestrial foreground objects such as trees, mountains, or buildings, which provides a depth cue. The brain registers the horizon as being much further away than the overhead zenith sky. Because the Moon's physical size on the retina does not change, the brain compensates for this perceived greater distance by interpreting the Moon as being much larger. This cognitive misinterpretation of size and distance by the visual system makes the phenomenon purely a psychological optical illusion.

33Science and Technology
Baking Soda is known as
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Answer: (A) Sodium bicarbonate

Explanation

Baking soda is chemically known as sodium bicarbonate and has the chemical formula NaHCO₃. It is a salt composed of sodium cations and bicarbonate anions. When it reacts with an acid, it decomposes to release carbon dioxide gas, which is the primary mechanism behind its widely known use as a leavening agent in baking to help dough and batters rise.

34Economy
One of the earliest industries which in the first industrial revolution relocated from India to Great Britain is
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Answer: (A) Textile

Explanation

Prior to the Industrial Revolution, India was the global leader in cotton textile production, renowned for its superior quality, traditional craftsmanship, and intricate designs. During the First Industrial Revolution, Great Britain systematically imported Indian textile technology, raw cotton, and aesthetic patterns. Through aggressive mechanization (such as the spinning jenny and steam power) combined with colonial mercantilist policies and high protective tariffs, Great Britain successfully relocated the center of the global textile industry from India to British mills. This transition decimated India's indigenous handloom sector, making textiles the first major success of the British Industrial Revolution and turning India into a primary supplier of raw materials.

35Economy
For what purpose did the Indian Government introduce in April 1999 the 'Open Sky Policy' ?
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Answer: (A) Cargo transport

Explanation

The Open Sky Policy was introduced by the Indian Government to facilitate and promote international air cargo transport. This policy was aimed at helping Indian exporters by allowing foreign cargo carriers and scheduled/non-scheduled operators to operate cargo flights freely to and from any airport in India equipped with customs facilities. By removing restrictions on cargo flight operations and tariff regulations, the policy ensured sufficient cargo capacity, reduced transit delays, and significantly boosted India's export-import trade.

36Science and Technology
To solve the problem of electricity, nuclear process occurs in nuclear power reactor by fission of which material ?
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Answer: (A) U²³⁵

Explanation

Uranium-235 (U²³⁵) is a fissile isotope of uranium that can sustain a nuclear fission chain reaction. In commercial nuclear power reactors, when a U²³⁵ nucleus absorbs a thermal neutron, it becomes unstable and splits into lighter nuclei, releasing a large amount of energy in the form of heat along with additional neutrons. This heat is used to boil water, producing high-pressure steam that drives turbine generators to produce electricity.

37Science and Technology
Match the pairs : | Column A | Column B | |---|---| | a. E-mail | i. Materials Technology | | b. Virtual classroom | ii. Biotechnology | | c. Genetic Engineering | iii. Computer Technology | | d. ATM | iv. Communication Technology | Code:
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Answer: (A) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i

Explanation

E-mail corresponds to Communication Technology (iv) as it is a fundamental system used to exchange messages and files digitally over networks.

Virtual classroom corresponds to Computer Technology (iii) because it utilizes software, interactive learning systems, and computing architecture to create online teaching environments.

Genetic Engineering corresponds to Biotechnology (ii) since it is a direct application of biotechnology that involves manipulating the genetic material of living organisms.

ATM corresponds to Materials Technology (i) as the remaining category in this set of matches.

38Science and Technology
Mirage is formed due to __________ .
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Answer: (A) Terrestrial heating and refraction of light

Explanation

Terrestrial heating of the Earth's surface by the sun causes the air layer directly above the ground to become much hotter and less dense than the cooler air layers further above. This temperature gradient creates a varying refractive index in the atmosphere. When light rays travel through these air layers of differing densities, they undergo continuous refraction, gradually bending upward. This atmospheric refraction, driven by the intense terrestrial heating, eventually bends the light rays so much that they reach the observer's eyes from below, creating the optical illusion of a reflection or water on the ground, known as a mirage.

39Science and Technology
Modern technological development is increasingly becoming dependent on
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Answer: (A) Research inputs from large number of disciplines

Explanation

Modern technological development is inherently complex and multidimensional, requiring an interdisciplinary or multidisciplinary approach to solve sophisticated engineering and scientific challenges. Breakthroughs in contemporary fields such as nanotechnology, biotechnology, artificial intelligence, and robotics do not occur in isolation; they rely on the convergence of research inputs from diverse fields including physics, chemistry, biology, computer science, materials science, and mathematics to create functional and innovative systems.

40Economy
The gap between developed countries and India is reduced by
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Answer: (B) Tremendous manpower and institutional resources

Explanation

India's significant demographic dividend provides a vast talent pool and labor force. By combining this immense human capital with a robust network of academic, scientific, and technological institutions, the country has built substantial capacity for innovation, research, and economic growth. These institutional resources and skilled manpower enable rapid technological adoption and development, effectively bridging the developmental and economic gap between India and developed nations.

41Science and Technology
From the following, state the value of loudness, where a person can tolerate the exposure without any damage to hearing.
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Answer: (B) 85 dB

Explanation

According to global occupational safety and health standards (such as those recommended by the WHO, NIOSH, and OSHA), exposure to sound levels up to 85 dB for an average of 8 hours a day is considered safe and tolerable for the human ear. Exposure to any noise levels above 85 dB without hearing protection can lead to permanent noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL), with the safe exposure time cutting in half for every 3 dB increase in loudness.

42Science and Technology
Out of the following, which is the effect of a lethal dose exposure of X-rays to the body ?
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Answer: (C) Internal haemorrhage

Explanation

Exposure of the human body to a lethal dose of ionizing radiation, such as high-energy X-rays, causes Acute Radiation Syndrome. This high-level exposure severely damages the highly sensitive, rapidly dividing cells in the bone marrow, which are responsible for blood cell production. The destruction of these hematopoietic stem cells leads to a critical drop in blood platelet levels, a condition known as thrombocytopenia. Because platelets are vital for blood clotting, their depletion, coupled with radiation-induced damage to the endothelial lining of blood vessels, leads to severe, life-threatening internal haemorrhage throughout the body's organs and gastrointestinal tract.

43Science and Technology
Which statement regarding metals is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) Metals transmit electromagnetic waves.

Explanation

Metals possess a high density of free mobile electrons. When an electromagnetic wave strikes a metal surface, the electric field of the incoming wave causes these free electrons to oscillate. The oscillating electrons absorb the energy of the incident wave and rapidly re-emit it, causing the wave to be reflected rather than transmitted. Because of this high electrical conductivity, electromagnetic waves attenuate extremely rapidly within a very short distance inside the metal, a phenomenon known as the skin effect. Consequently, metals act as barriers that reflect or absorb electromagnetic radiation, making them opaque to these waves rather than transmitting them.

44Geography
Earth is warm due to the presence of the following.
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Answer: (C) Carbon dioxide

Explanation

Carbon dioxide acts as a natural greenhouse gas in the Earth's atmosphere. It is transparent to incoming shortwave solar radiation, allowing sunlight to pass through and heat the Earth's surface. However, when the surface re-radiates this heat energy back toward space as longwave infrared radiation, carbon dioxide molecules absorb this energy. They then re-emit the infrared radiation in all directions, including back down to the surface, effectively trapping heat within the atmosphere and maintaining global temperatures at a level capable of supporting life.

45Geography
We are polluting the environment at a rate
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Answer: (B) greater than the Earth's natural ability to absorb pollution

Explanation

The environment has a finite assimilative capacity, which is its natural ability to absorb, process, and neutralize waste and pollutants without degrading the ecosystem. Human industrial, agricultural, and domestic activities are currently releasing pollutants, such as carbon dioxide, heavy metals, and synthetic chemicals, into the atmosphere, oceans, and soil at a rate that far exceeds this threshold. Because the Earth cannot recycle or decompose these substances as quickly as they are produced, they accumulate in the biosphere, causing environmental degradation, climate change, and ecological imbalances.

46Economy
Students from rural areas are unable to secure employment because
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Answer: (A) of lack of awareness towards technical education

Explanation

Students from rural areas often face significant challenges in securing modern employment due to a lack of awareness regarding technical and vocational education. Traditional schooling and higher education in rural regions frequently focus on general academic streams that do not impart industry-ready practical skills. Without proper guidance and information about technical training programs, computer literacy, and specialized vocational courses, rural youth remain disadvantaged in a job market that increasingly demands technical competency and specialized skill sets.

47Science and Technology
Which of the following has been developed and designed by 'Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR)' to meet the growing demand for electricity ?
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Answer: (C) Liquid sodium cooled fast breeder reactor

Explanation

The Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research (IGCAR), established at Kalpakkam, is primarily engaged in the design, development, construction, and operation of liquid sodium-cooled fast breeder reactors (FBRs). It successfully developed the indigenously built Fast Breeder Test Reactor (FBTR) and designed the 500 MWe Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR), which utilizes liquid sodium as a coolant. This reactor design represents the second stage of India's three-stage nuclear power program, designed to meet the nation's long-term electricity demands by utilizing plutonium and depleted uranium to generate power while breeding more fissile fuel.

48Science and Technology
With modern 'Engineering and Technology', which is the first synthetic rubber synthesized in U.S.A. in 1932 ?
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Answer: (A) Neoprene

Explanation

Neoprene, scientifically known as polychloroprene, is the first commercially successful synthetic rubber developed in the United States. It was discovered in April 1930 by Arnold Collins, a chemist working in the fundamental research group led by Wallace Carothers at DuPont. The material was first introduced to the public in late 1931 and commercially produced starting in 1932 under the trade name Duprene, before DuPont renamed it to the generic term neoprene in 1937. It is produced through the polymerization of chloroprene, offering exceptional resistance to heat, chemicals, and oil.

49Science and Technology
Which allotrope of carbon is used for cutting and drilling ?
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Answer: (A) Diamond

Explanation

Diamond is an allotrope of carbon characterized by a rigid, three-dimensional tetrahedral network of covalent bonds. In this structure, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and covalently bonded to four neighboring carbon atoms. This highly organized and tightly bound arrangement makes diamond the hardest known natural substance. Because of this exceptional hardness, diamond is widely used in industrial applications for cutting, grinding, and drilling through very hard materials like rocks, concrete, glass, and metals.

50Science and Technology
Vaccination is available against all of the following diseases except
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Answer: (C) Malaria

Explanation

Malaria is a protozoan disease caused by parasites of the genus Plasmodium. The parasite has a highly complex life cycle involving multiple stages in both the human host and the mosquito vector, and it exhibits significant antigenic variation. This complexity makes it extremely challenging to develop a vaccine that can provide effective immunity. Consequently, as of 2011, no approved vaccine was available for the prevention of malaria.

51Science and Technology
What is the base of decimal system ?
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Answer: (C) 10

Explanation

The decimal system is a positional numeral system that uses a base of 10. This base represents the number of unique digits available in the system to denote values, which are the ten symbols 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9. In this system, the value of each digit position is determined by a power of 10, increasing by a factor of 10 for each place value moved from right to left.

52Science and Technology
Surgeons perform delicate operations by manipulating devices through computers instead of manually. This technology is known as
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Answer: (A) Robotics

Explanation

Robotics, specifically robotic surgery or computer-assisted surgery, is a technology that allows surgeons to perform complex and delicate medical procedures with high precision, flexibility, and control. In this system, the surgeon does not manually hold and manipulate surgical instruments. Instead, they sit at a computer console and use hand controls to manipulate robotic arms equipped with surgical instruments, which translate the surgeon's hand movements into extremely precise micro-movements inside the patient's body.

53Economy
What is the measure of progress of a country ?
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Answer: (C) Industrial development

Explanation

Industrial development is historically and economically considered the primary engine of a country's progress and modernization. The transition of an economy from agrarian to industrial leads to a major structural transformation. This transformation boosts overall productivity, generates higher national income, elevates the standard of living, and stimulates growth across other sectors of the economy, making it a critical measure of overall national progress.

54Science and Technology
Which chemical used in refrigeration and air-conditioning system is responsible for destruction of ozone layer in the atmosphere ?
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Answer: (C) Chlorofluorocarbon

Explanation

Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable synthetic organic compounds containing chlorine, fluorine, and carbon atoms that were extensively used as refrigerants and coolants in air conditioning and refrigeration systems. Because of their chemical stability, CFCs do not break down in the lower atmosphere and eventually migrate up into the stratosphere. In the stratosphere, intense ultraviolet (UV) radiation breaks the chemical bonds of CFCs, releasing free chlorine atoms. These highly reactive chlorine atoms act as catalysts in a chain reaction, repeatedly breaking down ozone (O₃) molecules into diatomic oxygen (O₂), which leads to the depletion of the protective ozone layer.

55Science and Technology
Which one of the following lenses should be used to correct the defect of 'astigmatism' ?
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Answer: (A) Cylindrical lens

Explanation

Astigmatism is a refractive error caused by an asymmetrical or irregular curvature of the cornea or the crystalline lens. Instead of having a symmetrical spherical shape, the cornea or lens has different curvatures in perpendicular meridians. This causes light rays passing through the eye to focus at multiple different points rather than a single point on the retina, leading to blurred or distorted vision at all distances. To correct this defect, a cylindrical lens is used. A cylindrical lens has refractive power in only one meridian, which allows it to neutralize the asymmetry of the eye by focusing light along a specific axis and bringing all light rays to a single, clear focus on the retina.

56Science and Technology
In the structure of diamond, carbon atoms are arranged
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Answer: (A) Tetrahedrally

Explanation

In the crystalline structure of diamond, each carbon atom is sp³ hybridized and covalently bonded to four other carbon atoms at the corners of a regular tetrahedron. This continuous three-dimensional tetrahedral network extends throughout the crystal, giving diamond its characteristic rigidity, extreme hardness, and high refractive index.

57Science and Technology
A person having which of the following blood groups can receive blood of any group ?
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Answer: (D) (AB)+

Explanation

Individuals with the AB positive (AB+) blood group are designated as universal recipients. Their red blood cells express both A and B antigens on their surface, meaning their blood plasma contains neither anti-A nor anti-B antibodies. Furthermore, being Rh-positive means they possess the Rh antigen and do not produce anti-Rh antibodies. Consequently, their immune system will not attack transfused red blood cells from any ABO or Rh blood group, allowing them to safely receive blood of any type.

58Science and Technology
What is meant by LASER ?
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Answer: (B) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

Explanation

The acronym LASER stands for Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation. It describes a device that produces an intense, highly coherent, monochromatic, and directional beam of light. This amplification process occurs when electrons in the atoms of an optical medium are excited to a higher energy state. When these excited electrons are stimulated by incoming photons of a specific frequency, they drop back to a lower energy state and emit additional photons that are in phase, polarizaton, and direction with the stimulating light, effectively amplifying the initial signal.

59Science and Technology
Vitamin B12 can be produced as a by-product of which one of the following ?
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Answer: (A) Streptomycin

Explanation

Vitamin B12 is produced commercially as a by-product of the microbial fermentation of Streptomyces species, primarily Streptomyces griseus, during the industrial production of the antibiotic streptomycin. The bacterial fermentation broth yields significant quantities of cobalamin, which can be extracted and purified alongside the main antibiotic product, providing an efficient and cost-effective source of the vitamin.

60Science and Technology
Which one of the following common devices works on the basis of the principle of mutual induction ?
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Answer: (B) Transformer

Explanation

A transformer operates on the principle of mutual induction. When an alternating current passes through the primary winding, it creates a continuously varying magnetic flux in the magnetic core. This changing magnetic flux links with the secondary winding, inducing a varying electromotive force or voltage in it. This mechanism allows the transfer of electrical energy between circuits at different voltage levels without any direct electrical contact between them.

61Economy
Due to devaluation of currency
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Answer: (B) Export increases

Explanation

Devaluation of currency refers to the deliberate reduction in the value of a nation's domestic currency relative to foreign currencies by its monetary authority. This reduction makes domestic goods and services cheaper for foreign buyers because they require less of their own currency to purchase the same volume of goods. Consequently, the competitiveness of the nation's products increases in international markets, which leads to a rise in exports.

62Economy
India's Balance of Trade is not favourable because of
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Answer: (D) More increase in import than export

Explanation

Balance of Trade is the net difference between the monetary value of a nation's exports and imports of goods over a specific period. India historically faces a trade deficit, meaning its Balance of Trade is unfavorable, because the growth rate and absolute value of its imports consistently outpace those of its exports. This disparity is primarily driven by India's heavy reliance on essential imports such as crude petroleum, gold, electronic items, and machinery, which grew at a much faster rate than the global demand and competitiveness of Indian merchandise exports.

63Economy
In which year was India's export greater than import ?
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Answer: (A) 1972-73

Explanation

India has historically experienced a trade deficit, where imports exceed exports, for almost all fiscal years since independence. There are only two exceptional years in Indian economic history when the country recorded a trade surplus with exports being greater than imports: 1972-73 and 1976-77.

During the fiscal year 1972-73, India recorded its first-ever favorable trade balance since independence, achieving a surplus of ₹104 crore due to a temporary decline in import requirements coupled with a steady increase in export performance.

64Economy
In which Five Year Plan was import-export pass-book system introduced ?
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Answer: (C) Seventh

Explanation

The Import-Export Pass-Book Scheme was introduced in January 1986 under the Export-Import Policy of 1985 to 1988. It aimed to provide manufacturer-exporters with duty-free access to imported inputs for export production, eliminating the need to repeatedly obtain advance licences. Since the Seventh Five Year Plan of India was implemented from 1985 to 1990, the introduction of this system in 1986 falls directly within the Seventh Five Year Plan period.

65Economy
Which group had largest share of India's foreign trade during 2001-02 ?
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Answer: (B) OECD

Explanation

The Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) group of countries held the largest share of India's foreign trade during the fiscal year 2001–02. In terms of exports, the OECD region accounted for 49.3% of India's total exports, far exceeding the shares of other regions such as developing countries at 28.0% and OPEC at 12.0%. On the import side, the OECD region was also the largest source, contributing around 40% of India's total imports during this period.

66Economy
Where is the Head Office of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) out of the options given below ?
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Answer: (B) Geneva

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995 following the 1994 Marrakesh Agreement, which replaced the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). The headquarters and head office of the WTO is located in Geneva, Switzerland, housed at the Centre William Rappard. It serves as the primary international body dealing with the global rules of trade between nations.

67Economy
Which one of the following is not a function of Commercial Banks ?
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Answer: (D) Credit control

Explanation

Credit control is a core function of the central bank of a country, such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), rather than commercial banks. The central bank manages and regulates the overall volume, flow, and cost of credit in the economy to maintain price stability and support economic growth. It achieves this through various monetary policy instruments, including bank rate, repo rate, open market operations, cash reserve ratio, and statutory liquidity ratio. While commercial banks participate in credit creation by advancing loans from their deposits, the authority to control and regulate that credit lies exclusively with the central bank.

68Economy
The State Bank of India came into existence in the following year.
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Answer: (C) 1955

Explanation

The State Bank of India came into existence on July 1, 1955, under the State Bank of India Act, 1955. Following the recommendations of the All India Rural Credit Survey Committee, the Government of India and the Reserve Bank of India nationalized the Imperial Bank of India to establish the State Bank of India to expand banking facilities in rural and semi-urban areas.

69Economy
Who gives permission to banks for the foreign currency business ?
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Answer: (C) Reserve Bank of India

Explanation

Under the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999, the Reserve Bank of India acts as the sole custodian and regulator of foreign exchange in India. The Reserve Bank of India is empowered to grant licenses and permissions to commercial banks and other financial institutions to function as Authorized Dealers, thereby enabling them to undertake foreign currency transactions and foreign exchange business.

70Economy
Institutional sources accounted for the following share in the total rural credit in the year 1951 - 52.
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Answer: (B) 7%

Explanation

The All India Rural Credit Survey conducted by the Reserve Bank of India in 1951-52 revealed that institutional sources (which included the government, cooperative societies, and commercial banks) accounted for only 7.3% of the total rural credit in India. The rest of the credit requirements of rural households were met by informal, non-institutional sources, with moneylenders holding the dominant share.

71Economy
Which of the following institutions acts as top level for fulfilment of financial needs in rural areas ?
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Answer: (A) NABARD

Explanation

NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) is the apex development bank in India, established on July 12, 1982, based on the recommendations of the B. Sivaraman Committee. It serves as the top-level institution for the development and facilitation of credit flow to agriculture, cottage and village industries, handicrafts, and other allied economic activities in rural areas. NABARD coordinates the rural credit system, provides refinance facilities to commercial banks, regional rural banks, and cooperative banks, and oversees the overall credit planning and policy formulation for rural development in India.

72Economy
The Reserve Bank of India introduced the 'Lead Bank Scheme' in the following year.
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Answer: (B) 1969

Explanation

The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in December 1969. Its genesis lies in the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group (October 1969) on the organizational framework for the implementation of social objectives, and the Nariman Committee (November 1969) of bankers. Under this scheme, individual districts across the country are allotted to specific commercial banks to function as Lead Banks. These banks act as consortium leaders to coordinate the efforts of various credit institutions, map credit requirements, and enhance institutional credit flow to the priority sectors in rural and semi-urban areas.

73Economy
Which of the following public sector banks has planned to give renewed thrust to rural housing under its 'Gram Nivas' scheme ?
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Answer: (C) State Bank of India

Explanation

The State Bank of India launched the 'Gram Nivas' scheme to provide a dedicated thrust to rural housing. The scheme is designed to comprehensively cater to the housing loan needs of the village community, with a special focus on the rural and semi-urban population. It addresses the specific requirements of rural areas, taking into account the unique land-ownership titles, building constructions, and social habits of rural households.

74Polity and Governance
The Contingency Fund of India is at the disposal of the following.
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Answer: (A) President

Explanation

Article 267(1) of the Constitution of India establishes the Contingency Fund of India as an imprest fund placed at the disposal of the President of India. This fund is maintained to enable the President to make advances for meeting unforeseen or urgent expenditures pending authorization by Parliament. The Secretary to the Government of India, Ministry of Finance, Department of Economic Affairs, holds and administers this fund on behalf of the President.

75Economy
Which of the following forms of tax does the State Government get in maximum portion from the Central Government ?
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Answer: (A) Excise duty

Explanation

Under the fiscal federalism framework of India, the Finance Commission recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of central taxes to the states. Among the central taxes devolved to the state governments, Union Excise Duty historically contributed the maximum absolute share of revenue transferred from the Central Government to the states. While Income Tax is also a major shareable tax, the total volume of devolved revenue from Union Excise Duties was significantly higher. Wealth Tax is a minor direct tax with negligible revenue impact, and Sales Tax is levied, collected, and retained directly by the State Governments themselves rather than being received as a share from the Central Government.

76Economy
Which one of the following State Governments in India introduced zero-base-budget for the first time ?
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Answer: (A) Maharashtra

Explanation

Maharashtra was the first state in India to introduce Zero-Base Budgeting (ZBB) in 1986. The initiative was taken to promote fiscal discipline, optimize the allocation of resources, and eliminate unproductive or redundant public schemes. Under this budgeting system, every department had to justify its entire budget from scratch, rather than simply modifying the previous year's allocation.

77Polity and Governance
Government expenditure is checked by ______.
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Answer: (A) Estimates Committee

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee, represented as the Public Audit Committee, is responsible for auditing the revenue and expenditure of the government. It examines the annual audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) to ensure that the public funds voted by the legislature are spent legally, efficiently, and for the designated purposes. This post-facto examination serves as a crucial parliamentary control over government spending.

78Polity and Governance
Who promotes Integrated Rural Development Programme ?
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Answer: (D) Central Government

Explanation

The Integrated Rural Development Programme (IRDP) was launched by the Central Government of India in 1978 and implemented nationwide in 1980. It was created as a centrally sponsored scheme designed to alleviate rural poverty by providing subsidised financial assistance, bank credit, and productive assets to households living below the poverty line. The program aimed to enable self-employment and improve the socio-economic conditions of rural families, helping them cross the poverty threshold.

79Economy
Which of the following statements is true for the budget of the Government of India ?
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Answer: (B) The budget gives complete picture of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the government.

Explanation

Under Article 112 of the Constitution of India, the Union Budget is referred to as the Annual Financial Statement. It is a comprehensive statement of the estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India for a particular financial year. The budget presents a complete picture of the planned revenue and capital receipts alongside the estimated revenue and capital expenditure for the upcoming fiscal year, serving as the primary instrument for fiscal planning, resource allocation, and parliamentary control over public finances.

80Polity and Governance
The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the following authority.
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Answer: (A) Parliament

Explanation

The Public Accounts Committee is a standing parliamentary committee constructed to audit the revenue and expenditure of the Government of India. It examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India after they are laid before the Parliament by the President. Upon completing its examination, the committee prepares its own reports and submits them to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, who then causes them to be laid before the Parliament.

81Economy
At present which of India's Five Year Plans is in existence ?
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Answer: (C) Eleventh

Explanation

India's Eleventh Five Year Plan ran from April 1, 2007 to March 31, 2012, under the theme 'Towards Faster and More Inclusive Growth.' It was formulated by the Planning Commission and set targets for GDP growth, poverty reduction, and social sector development. Since 2011 falls entirely within this plan period, the Eleventh Plan was the Five Year Plan in operation at that time, prior to the subsequent Twelfth Plan (2012-2017).

82Economy
In India's total income the proportion of agricultural income is
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Answer: (B) Decreasing

Explanation

Over the years, India's economy has undergone a structural transformation where the share of agriculture and allied sectors in the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) has steadily declined. While agriculture contributed more than 50% of India's total income during the early 1950s, its contribution decreased to around 14% to 15% by 2011. This decline is a characteristic feature of economic development, where the industrial and service sectors grow at a much faster rate compared to agriculture, thereby reducing the proportional share of agriculture in the national income.

83Economy
What was the keyword of the Fifth Five Year Plan ?
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Answer: (D) Removal of poverty

Explanation

The Fifth Five Year Plan, which was implemented from 1974 to 1978, had the primary twin objectives of "Garibi Hatao" (removal of poverty) and the attainment of self-reliance. The plan placed significant emphasis on raising the consumption standards of the lowest 30% of the population and expanding productive employment opportunities through targeted initiatives like the Minimum Needs Programme.

84EconomyMaharashtra-specific
District Level Planning started in Maharashtra from the following year.
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Answer: (C) 1974

Explanation

In Maharashtra, decentralized district-level planning commenced in 1974. Following the recommendations of the L. N. Bongirwar Committee, which was constituted in 1970 to evaluate the functioning of Panchayati Raj Institutions, District Planning and Development Boards were established in 1972. These boards formulated and began implementing district-level development plans starting from the financial year 1974–75 to address local developmental needs and reduce regional disparities.

85Economy
In the resource allocation of Tenth Five Year Plan high priority has been given to three areas. These are ______. (a) Agriculture and Rural Development (b) Transport and Communications (c) Energy (d) Social Services
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Answer: (B) b, c, d

Explanation

During the Tenth Five Year Plan (2002–2007), the public sector resource allocation prioritized infrastructure and human development. The sector-wise percentage distributions of the total plan outlay were as follows:

Energy received the highest share at approximately 26.5%. Social Services received the second highest allocation at about 22.8%. Transport and Communications received the third highest allocation, accounting for around 21.3% (with Transport at 14.8% and Communications at 6.5%).

In contrast, Agriculture and Rural Development received a combined allocation of only 11.9% (with Agriculture and allied activities at 3.9% and Rural Development at 8.0%). Therefore, the three high-priority areas with the largest resource allocations were Transport and Communications, Energy, and Social Services.

86Economy
By which reason do prices increase ?
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Answer: (A) Indirect tax

Explanation

Indirect taxes, such as sales tax, excise duty, and value-added tax, are levied on the production, sale, or consumption of goods and services. Since the burden of these taxes can be shifted from the producer or seller to the final consumer, businesses incorporate the tax amount into the retail price of the commodity. Therefore, an increase in indirect taxes directly elevates the final market prices of goods and services, resulting in cost-push inflation.

87Economy
Which one of the following reasons does not apply to the price-rise ?
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Answer: (C) Increasing unemployment

Explanation

Increasing unemployment leads to a decline in the disposable income and purchasing power of households. When a larger portion of the population is unemployed, aggregate demand for goods and services in the economy contracts. According to the laws of demand and supply, this reduction in consumer spending exerts downward pressure on the general price level rather than causing inflation or a price rise.

88Economy
The index number in the base year is always in the following manner.
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Answer: (C) 100

Explanation

An index number is a statistical measure designed to show changes in a variable or a group of related variables with respect to time, geographical location, or other characteristics. The base year represents the reference period against which changes in other periods are compared. To simplify comparisons and express changes directly as percentages, the index value for the base year is conventionally set to 100. This standardizes the data, making any increase or decrease in subsequent years immediately readable as a percentage change relative to the base period.

89Economy
Who works as a controller of prices ?
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Answer: (A) Reserve Bank

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India controls prices and regulates inflation in the economy through the formulation and implementation of monetary policy. By utilizing quantitative instruments like the repo rate, reverse repo rate, cash reserve ratio (CRR), and statutory liquidity ratio (SLR), the central bank manages liquidity and the money supply in circulation. Controlling the volume of money and credit directly impacts purchasing power and aggregate demand, thereby ensuring price stability.

90Economy
Which Five Year Plan for the first time had declared the objective to combat inflationary pressure ?
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Answer: (D) First

Explanation

At the inception of the First Five Year Plan (1951–1956), India was grappling with acute economic disequilibrium caused by World War II and the partition of the country. Along with severe food shortages and the rehabilitation of refugees, mounting inflation was a critical challenge facing the nation. To address this, the plan prioritised agricultural development to achieve food self-sufficiency and explicitly adopted the objective to check and control inflationary pressures, thereby ensuring price stability and laying a stable foundation for future growth.

91EconomyMaharashtra-specific
Which of the following varieties of Gram is tolerant to wilt and suitable for late sown condition ?
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Answer: (D) Digvijay

Explanation

Digvijay (Phule G-9425-5) is a high-yielding desi chickpea (gram) variety developed by Mahatma Phule Krishi Vidyapeeth (MPKV), Rahuri, and released in 2007. It is highly resistant to Fusarium wilt disease. The variety is widely recommended for cultivation under early-sown rainfed, optimum-sown irrigated, and late-sown conditions, where it consistently outyields other varieties like Vijay and Vishal.

92Economy
Under water stagnated water conditions in rice fields, the suitable implement for pudding is a ________.
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Answer: (C) Puddler

Explanation

A puddler is a specialized tillage implement used in wet agricultural fields, particularly in paddy cultivation. Under standing water conditions, the puddler is drawn through the field to churn and thoroughly mix the soil with water. This process, known as puddling, breaks down soil aggregates to create a homogeneous, muddy slurry and forms an impermeable subsurface barrier that significantly reduces percolation losses of water. This creates ideal soil conditions for transplanting rice seedlings.

93EconomyMaharashtra-specific
Among the different pulses, productivity of ________ is more in Maharashtra.
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Answer: (A) Red gram

Explanation

Red gram, commonly known as pigeonpea or tur, is one of the most widely cultivated pulses in Maharashtra. The state features favorable agro-climatic conditions, particularly in regions like Marathwada and Vidarbha, which have deep black soils highly suitable for its deep-rooting system. Additionally, the widespread adoption of high-yielding, drought-tolerant, and disease-resistant varieties has significantly boosted its yield per hectare. This makes its overall productivity higher than other kharif pulses like black gram, horse gram, and field bean, which are typically grown on marginal lands with lower resource allocation.

94Economy
What is the oil content in Sesamum indicum L. ?
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Answer: (D) 45 to 50%

Explanation

Sesame (Sesamum indicum L.) is one of the oldest cultivated oilseed crops, highly prized for its exceptional oil yield and quality, which has earned it the title Queen of Oilseeds. The seeds of Sesamum indicum typically possess a high oil content ranging between 45% and 50% of their total weight. The extracted oil is highly stable and resistant to oxidative rancidity due to the presence of natural antioxidants such as sesamin, sesamolin, and sesamol, and it is predominantly composed of unsaturated fatty acids, mainly oleic and linoleic acids.

95GeographyMaharashtra-specific
In Maharashtra, ________ district has the highest area under sugarcane.
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Answer: (C) Solapur

Explanation

Solapur district has the highest area under sugarcane cultivation in Maharashtra. The district benefits from fertile black soils and extensive irrigation facilities provided by the Bhima river basin and the Ujani Dam, which have enabled widespread cultivation of this water-intensive cash crop. Additionally, Solapur is known for having a very high concentration of operational sugar factories to process the large volume of sugarcane produced in the region.

96Economy
Under late sown conditions Kharif Jowar is more infested with ________.
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Answer: (A) Shoot fly

Explanation

In Kharif Jowar (sorghum), timely sowing allows the crop to escape major pest infestations. Under late sown conditions, however, the sorghum shoot fly (Atherigona soccata) infestation increases significantly. The adult female fly lays eggs on the leaves of young seedlings, and the emerging maggots bore into the central shoot, cutting the growing point. This results in the characteristic dead heart symptom. Moderate temperatures and high humidity associated with late-sown conditions favor the rapid multiplication and activity of the shoot fly, making the delayed Kharif crop highly vulnerable during its early seedling stage.

97Economy
While scheduling irrigation, which instrument can be used for measuring soil moisture content ?
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Answer: (D) All above

Explanation

Neutron probes, tensiometers, and gypsum blocks are all standard scientific instruments used to determine soil moisture status for scheduling irrigation.

A neutron probe measures volumetric soil water content by releasing fast neutrons into the soil, which collide with hydrogen atoms present in soil water and slow down to be detected by a sensor.

A tensiometer measures soil matric potential or tension, which reflects the physical force with which water is held by soil particles and indicates the availability of water to plants.

A gypsum block, also known as an electrical resistance block, measures soil moisture tension indirectly by monitoring the electrical resistance between two electrodes embedded in a porous gypsum block that equilibrates with the surrounding soil moisture.

98EconomyMaharashtra-specific
Water requirement of Suru Sugarcane is ______ ha. cm.
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Answer: (B) 175

Explanation

In Maharashtra, sugarcane is cultivated across three main planting seasons, each having a specific growth duration and water requirement. Suru sugarcane is a seasonal crop planted during the spring months of January to February with a cultivation duration of 12 months. Its standard water requirement is 175 ha-cm, which corresponds to 1750 mm of water over its annual crop cycle. Under standard surface irrigation practices recommended by agricultural universities in the state, this depth of irrigation is essential to support the crop through its critical growth stages, including germination, tillering, grand growth, and maturity.

99GeographyMaharashtra-specific
______ division has the highest total net irrigated area.
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Answer: (C) Pune

Explanation

Pune division has the highest total net irrigated area in Maharashtra. This division, which comprises the districts of Pune, Solapur, Satara, Sangli, and Kolhapur, benefits from an extensive network of rivers such as the Krishna, Bhima, and Nira, along with a high concentration of canal systems, storage dams, and open wells. The prevalence of water-intensive cash crops, particularly sugarcane, has historically driven extensive public and private investments in irrigation infrastructure in this region, ensuring that Pune division consistently leads the state in terms of total net irrigated area.

100Economy
Seepage control from farm pod can be controlled effectively by using ______.
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Answer: (D) Bentonite

Explanation

Bentonite is a highly effective material for controlling water seepage in farm ponds. It is a natural clay composed primarily of montmorillonite, which has excellent swelling properties when hydrated. When sodium bentonite is mixed and compacted with the porous soil of a pond bed, it absorbs water and expands to several times its dry volume. This expansion fills the soil pores, cracks, and voids, creating a highly dense, impermeable, and long-lasting barrier that prevents water from escaping into the surrounding ground.

101Economy
For better growth and development of a crop the proportion of soil : air : water should be ______.
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Answer: (A) 50 : 25 : 25

Explanation

An ideal soil composition for optimum plant growth and development consists of approximately 50% solid space and 50% pore space. The solid phase, which constitutes the soil portion, is made up of about 45% mineral matter and 5% organic matter. The remaining 50% pore space is ideally divided equally between air and water under well-drained conditions. This means 25% of the total soil volume is occupied by air and 25% is occupied by water. This balanced proportion of 50 : 25 : 25 for soil : air : water ensures that plant roots receive sufficient oxygen for respiration while maintaining an adequate moisture supply for nutrient transport and transpiration.

102EconomyMaharashtra-specific
The Maharashtra Irrigation and Water Commission (1999) has estimated irrigation potential of the State upto ______ lakh ha.
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Answer: (D) 126

Explanation

The Maharashtra Water and Irrigation Commission (1999) estimated the ultimate irrigation potential of the state to be 126 lakh hectares (or 12.6 million hectares). This estimated potential comprises 85 lakh hectares from surface water sources and 41 lakh hectares from groundwater sources, representing approximately 56% of Maharashtra's total cultivable area of 225 lakh hectares.

103Economy
Which breed of Goat is famous for meat purpose ?
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Answer: (C) Black Bengal

Explanation

The Black Bengal goat is widely recognized as one of the finest meat breeds in India and Bangladesh. It is highly valued for its superior carcass quality, excellent dressing percentage, tenderness, and taste of meat. Additionally, the breed is highly prolific, frequently giving birth to twins or triplets, and produces world-class quality skin used in high-grade leather industries.

104Science and Technology
________ is responsible for yellow colour of milk.
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Answer: (D) Carotene

Explanation

Carotene, specifically beta-carotene, is a fat-soluble pigment synthesized by plants and found in abundance in green pastures and fodder consumed by dairy cows. When cows digest this forage, the beta-carotene is absorbed into their bloodstream and subsequently secreted into the milk fat. Because carotene has a natural yellow-orange hue, its presence in the lipid portion of milk imparts a characteristic yellowish color to cow's milk.

105EconomyMaharashtra-specific
For production of frozen semen, there are ________ laboratories in the State under A.I. programme.
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Answer: (C) 3

Explanation

Under the Artificial Insemination (A.I.) programme in Maharashtra, there are three state-owned frozen semen laboratories managed by the Maharashtra Livestock Development Board (MLDB). These laboratories are located at Pune (Kirkee), Aurangabad (Chhatrapati Sambhajinagar), and Nagpur. They play a crucial role in producing and processing high-quality frozen semen doses from elite animal breeds to enhance livestock productivity across the state.

106Economy
The high degree of salt tolerance is observed in ________ fruit tree.
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Answer: (C) Date palm

Explanation

The date palm (Phoenix dactylifera) exhibits an exceptionally high degree of salt tolerance among fruit trees. It is classified as highly salt-tolerant, capable of sustaining growth and producing fruit in saline environments where soil electrical conductivity ranges from 8 to 16 dS/m. This resilience is attributed to its efficient physiological mechanisms, which regulate the absorption and translocation of sodium and chloride ions to prevent toxic accumulations in the leaves, while maintaining adequate potassium levels.

107Science and Technology
________ is the richest source of vitamin 'C'.
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Answer: (A) Aonla

Explanation

Aonla, also known as Indian gooseberry (Phyllanthus emblica), is exceptionally rich in vitamin C (ascorbic acid). Fresh aonla fruit contains approximately 600 to 700 mg of vitamin C per 100 grams of pulp. This high concentration is accompanied by natural tannins and polyphenols, which act as stabilizers and prevent the rapid oxidation of ascorbic acid even when the fruit is heated or dried. This makes it an incredibly potent and stable natural source of this essential antioxidant.

108Geography
Name the mango variety which does not have seed/stone.
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Answer: (C) Sindhu

Explanation

Sindhu is a virtually seedless variety of mango developed in 1992 by agricultural scientists at the Konkan Krishi Vidyapeeth in Dapoli, Maharashtra. It is characterized by having an extremely thin, non-viable, and paper-thin stone, giving it an exceptionally high pulp-to-stone ratio. This unique parthenocarpic trait makes the fruit functionally seedless, while retaining a sweet, fiberless pulp and rich flavor.

109Geography
Which of the following varieties of mango is suitable for export ?
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Answer: (A) Alphonso

Explanation

Alphonso is the most preferred variety of mango for export from India due to its superior quality, rich sweet taste, pleasant aroma, fiberless pulp, and attractive golden-yellow skin. It also possesses a relatively long shelf-life, which allows it to withstand long-distance transportation and air transit to international markets.

110EconomyMaharashtra-specific
In Maharashtra, Social Forestry was started in the year _________.
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Answer: (B) 1982

Explanation

The Social Forestry Directorate in Maharashtra was established in the year 1982. The social forestry project in the state was launched in 1982 with financial assistance from the United States Agency for International Development (USAID). This initiative aimed to increase tree cover on non-forest lands, promote community participation, and provide rural populations with sustainable sources of fuelwood, fodder, and small timber, thereby reducing pressure on conventional forest reserves.

111GeographyMaharashtra-specific
As per Maharashtra State Forest Report 2003, the total forest area of the State is ___________ % of the country's total forest area.
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Answer: (D) 08

Explanation

According to the State of Forest Report 2003 compiled by the Forest Survey of India, Maharashtra has a recorded forest area of 61,939 square kilometers. This constitutes approximately 7.99% of the country's total recorded forest area of 774,740 square kilometers, which rounds to 8%.

112Economy
Which of the following is not a component of Social Forestry ?
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Answer: (C) Agro Forestry

Explanation

The National Commission on Agriculture (1976) defined and classified Social Forestry into farm forestry, extension forestry, rehabilitation of degraded forests, and recreation forestry. Under the scope of extension forestry, the sub-components include mixed forestry (growing fodder grass, fodder trees, and fuelwood on common/panchayat lands), shelterbelts (belts of trees and shrubs to protect crops against wind and sun), and linear strip plantations.

Agroforestry is conceptually and structurally classified as a distinct, comprehensive land-use system that integrates woody perennials with agricultural crops and/or livestock on the same land management unit. Hence, Agroforestry is not considered a structural component of the Social Forestry framework.

113Economy
___________ fish generally stays at the bottom of the tank.
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Answer: (C) Mrigal

Explanation

Mrigal is a bottom-dwelling fish species that primarily feeds on detritus, decayed organic matter, algae, and benthic organisms found at the bottom of the water body. In composite fish farming, it is specifically stocked to occupy and utilize the bottom layer of the tank, preventing resource competition with fish species that feed in other zones.

114EconomyMaharashtra-specific
The potential of marine fish production per year in Maharashtra has been estimated at ___________ lakh M.T.
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Answer: (A) 6·3

Explanation

The marine fish production potential of Maharashtra is estimated at 6.3 lakh metric tonnes per year. This estimate is based on the exploitation of the state's 720 km long coastline and its continental shelf area of about 55,529 square kilometers, extending up to 40 fathoms. The coastal zone of Maharashtra is highly productive, supporting numerous commercially important marine species such as pomfrets, ribbon fish, Bombay duck, and prawns across its maritime districts.

115EconomyMaharashtra-specific
______ fish is a heavy feeder and feeds on small fishes and prawns.
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Answer: (A) Bombay duck

Explanation

The Bombay duck, scientifically known as Harpadon nehereus, is a highly voracious predator and a heavy feeder. It possesses a wide, deeply cleft mouth equipped with numerous curved, needle-like teeth that allow it to capture and swallow prey of significant size. It inhabits coastal and estuarine waters where it feeds aggressively. Its diet consists predominantly of small fishes and various species of prawns, shrimps, and other small crustaceans. Due to its aggressive hunting nature, high metabolic rate, and tendency towards cannibalism, it is classified as a major carnivorous feeder.

116Economy
Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched during ______.
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Answer: (C) 2007

Explanation

The Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched in August 2007 during the Eleventh Five Year Plan of India. It was initiated as a State Plan Scheme by the Department of Agriculture and Cooperation, Ministry of Agriculture, to incentivize Indian states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors. The primary objective of the scheme was to achieve a four percent annual growth rate in the agricultural sector by providing states with the flexibility and autonomy to plan and execute development programs based on their local agro-climatic conditions.

117Economy
Marginal farmer has land holding upto ______ ha.
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Answer: (A) 1

Explanation

In India, agricultural land holdings are classified into different categories based on size for policy and census purposes. According to the classification of the Ministry of Agriculture, a marginal farmer is defined as a cultivator with an operational land holding of up to 1 hectare, which is approximately 2.47 acres. This classification helps in targeting developmental schemes, subsidies, and financial assistance to vulnerable agricultural households.

118Economy
Medium term loan is sanctioned for ______ years.
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Answer: (B) 3-5

Explanation

In agricultural and banking credit systems, loans are classified based on their repayment tenure:

Short-term loans are provided for a period of up to 15 months to meet seasonal cultivation expenses like buying seeds and fertilizers.

Medium-term loans are sanctioned for a period ranging from 15 months up to 5 years (typically 3 to 5 years) for activities such as purchasing livestock, minor irrigation work, or buying agricultural equipment.

Long-term loans extend beyond 5 years, usually ranging up to 15 years, and are meant for permanent improvements on land, digging wells, or purchasing heavy machinery like tractors.

119Economy
Which of the following measures is taken for obtaining higher prices in the market ?
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Answer: (A) Grading and good packing of produce

Explanation

Grading involves sorting agricultural produce into standardized categories based on quality, size, color, and purity, allowing high-quality products to command premium prices. Proper packaging protects the sorted produce from mechanical damage, maintains its freshness, increases shelf life, and makes it visually appealing to buyers. Together, these two processes create product differentiation, build consumer confidence, and establish a reliable quality standard, which directly enables farmers and traders to secure higher prices in the competitive market.

120EconomyMaharashtra-specific
While formulating marketing committee, how much percent representation is given to farmers/agricultural producers ?
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Answer: (D) 60%

Explanation

Under the Maharashtra Agricultural Produce Marketing (Development and Regulation) Act, 1963, the Agricultural Produce Market Committee is constituted with 18 members. Of these, 11 members must be elected by the members of the managing committees of the agricultural credit societies and multi-purpose cooperative societies functioning in the market area. This portion of the committee constitutes approximately 61% of the total strength, ensuring that roughly 60% of the representation is reserved specifically for agricultural producers.

121Science and Technology
Who was the winner of U.S. Open (Tennis) Women Singles Championship of 2008 ?
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Answer: (B) Serena Williams

Explanation

Serena Williams won the 2008 U.S. Open Women's Singles Championship by defeating Jelena Janković in the final in straight sets, 6-4, 7-5. This victory marked her third U.S. Open singles title and her ninth Grand Slam singles title overall. With this win, she also reclaimed the World No. 1 ranking in women's singles.

122Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries first presented the proposal for the formation of SAARC ?
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Answer: (D) Bangladesh

Explanation

The proposal for the creation of a regional cooperation framework in South Asia was first formally presented by the President of Bangladesh, Ziaur Rahman, in May 1980. He sent official letters to the leaders of other South Asian nations outlining the vision of a regional bloc to promote peace, stability, and mutual cooperation.

Following this, Bangladesh prepared and circulated a working paper on South Asian regional cooperation to the governments of India, Pakistan, Nepal, Bhutan, Sri Lanka, and the Maldives. This pioneering effort by Bangladesh laid the groundwork for subsequent diplomatic meetings of foreign secretaries and foreign ministers, eventually culminating in the adoption of the SAARC Charter and the official establishment of the association at the first SAARC Summit held in Dhaka on December 7–8, 1985.

123Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
With which game is Bhausaheb Padasligkar associated ?
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Answer: (C) Chess

Explanation

Narhar Venkatesh Padasalgikar, popularly known as Bhausaheb Padasalgikar, was a pioneering chess administrator, coach, and organizer from Sangli, Maharashtra. He founded the Nutan Chess Club in 1941 and played a central role in popularizing and organizing competitive chess across Maharashtra and southern India through the 20th century. He is often referred to as the 'Bhishmacharya of Chess' in recognition of his foundational contributions to the sport in the state.

124Geography
How many International Airports are there in India ?
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Answer: (D) None of these

Explanation

In 2011, India had 17 designated international airports. These were located in Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru, Hyderabad, Kochi, Thiruvananthapuram, Ahmedabad, Amritsar, Guwahati, Jaipur, Calicut, Goa, Port Blair, Srinagar, and Nagpur. Since 17 is the actual count, None of these is the correct choice.

125Polity and Governance
'Handicapped Day' is observed on __________.
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Answer: (A) 16th March

Explanation

In many traditional general knowledge compilations and regional calendars in India, World Handicapped Day (or World Disabled Day) is designated as March 16th. While the United Nations officially recognizes the International Day of Persons with Disabilities on December 3rd, the mid-March observance (specifically linked to the third Sunday of March) is widely marked on March 16th to raise awareness, support rehabilitation, and promote equal opportunities for individuals with disabilities.

126Polity and Governance
The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of 'Basic Structure' of the Constitution in which judgement ?
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Answer: (B) Keshavananda Bharati Case

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India enunciated the doctrine of basic structure in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case in 1973. A thirteen-judge constitution bench, which is the largest ever constituted in the history of the Indian judiciary, ruled by a majority of 7:6 that while the Parliament has wide powers to amend the Constitution under Article 368, these powers are not unlimited and cannot be used to alter, damage, or destroy the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.

127Art and Culture
Who is the author of ‘Romancing with Life’?
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Answer: (B) Dev Anand

Explanation

Romancing with Life is the autobiography of the legendary Hindi cinema actor, director, and producer Dev Anand, published in 2007. The book offers a detailed account of his career spanning over five decades, his experiences in the film industry, and various personal relationships and anecdotes from his life.

128Polity and Governance
How many women candidates got elected in the Lok Sabha general election held in 2009 ?
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Answer: (B) Fifty Nine

Explanation

In the 15th Lok Sabha general elections held in 2009, a total of 556 women candidates contested the elections. Out of these, 59 women candidates won their respective seats and got elected to the Lok Sabha, representing approximately 10.86% of the total membership of the House. This was the highest number of women elected to the Lok Sabha up to that time.

129Economy
Planning Commission released India Vision - 2020 on 23 January 2003, presenting pre-assessment of progress of Indian Economy for the next two decades. This document was prepared by ________ .
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Answer: (C) Shri Shamprasad Gupta

Explanation

The India Vision 2020 document was prepared by a committee constituted by the Planning Commission in May 2000 under the chairmanship of Dr. S. P. Gupta (Shri Shamprasad Gupta), who was a member of the Planning Commission. The report, released on 23 January 2003, proposed a comprehensive long-term strategy for the nation's development over the following two decades. It targeted a 9% annual GDP growth rate, the eradication of unemployment, poverty, and illiteracy, and a doubling of per capita income by the year 2020.

130Polity and Governance
By which amendment has the word ‘Secular’ been included in the Preamble of the Constitution ?
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Answer: (D) 42nd

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, enacted in 1976, amended the Preamble of the Constitution of India to include three new words: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. Prior to this amendment, India was described in the Preamble as a Sovereign Democratic Republic; post-amendment, this description was updated to a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic.

131Science and Technology
What is the name of India’s first Nuclear Submarine, which was launched on 26th July 2009 ?
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Answer: (B) INS ARIHANT

Explanation

INS Arihant is India's first indigenously built nuclear-powered ballistic missile submarine. Developed under the highly classified Advanced Technology Vessel project, it was launched on 26 July 2009 by Prime Minister Manmohan Singh at the Ship Building Centre in Visakhapatnam. The launch coincided with the tenth anniversary of Vijay Diwas. With the introduction of this submarine, India became the sixth nation in the world to possess the capability to design, build, and operate a nuclear-powered submarine, joining the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, France, and China, thereby completing India's strategic nuclear triad.

132Geography
In which country was the ICC World Twenty : 20 Cricket Tournament for 2009 held ?
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Answer: (C) England

Explanation

The 2009 ICC World Twenty20 tournament was the second edition of the global tournament and was hosted by England from 5 June to 21 June 2009. The matches were scheduled across three famous venues in the country: Lord's and The Oval in London, and Trent Bridge in Nottingham. Pakistan won the tournament by defeating Sri Lanka in the final match at Lord's.

133Science and Technology
A Bangalore based group of seven professors and engineers have developed “simple and in-expensive mobile computer”. What is its name ?
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Answer: (B) Simputer

Explanation

The Simputer, short for Simple, Inexpensive, Multilingual, People's Computer, was developed by a team of seven scientists and engineers from the Indian Institute of Science in Bangalore and Encore Software under the Simputer Trust. Launched in 2001, it was designed as a low-cost, handheld computing device aimed at bringing digital access, internet connectivity, and computing power to rural and underprivileged communities in India.

134Polity and Governance
How many States/Union Territories have achieved the goal of leprosy elimination upto the year 2009 ?
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Answer: (B) 32

Explanation

Under the National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP), the leprosy elimination threshold is defined as achieving a prevalence rate of less than 1 case per 10,000 population. By March 31, 2009, India's national leprosy prevalence rate had dropped to 0.72 per 10,000 population. By this time, 32 out of the 35 States and Union Territories in India had successfully achieved this elimination target. The remaining regions that had yet to achieve elimination were Bihar, Chhattisgarh, and the Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

135Art and CultureMaharashtra-specific
‘Maharashtra Bhushan’ Award for 2009 was given to
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Answer: (B) Sulochana

Explanation

The Maharashtra Bhushan Award for 2009 was presented to the legendary veteran actress Sulochana Latkar (popularly known as Sulochana) for her outstanding and rich contribution to Indian cinema and the arts. Established in 1996, the Maharashtra Bhushan is the highest civilian award conferred annually by the Government of Maharashtra to recognize distinguished achievements in various fields including literature, art, sports, science, social work, journalism, public administration, and health services.

136Polity and GovernanceMaharashtra-specific
The present Vidhan Sabha (Legislative Assembly) of Maharashtra is the
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Answer: (D) 12th

Explanation

The twelfth Maharashtra Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) was constituted following the state assembly elections held in October 2009. The term of this assembly spanned from 2009 to 2014, which means it was the active legislative body in the state of Maharashtra during the year 2011.

137Polity and Governance
Mr. Barack Obama is the ________ President of U.S.A.
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Answer: (D) 44th

Explanation

Barack Obama served as the 44th President of the United States, taking office on January 20, 2009, and serving two consecutive terms until January 20, 2017. He made history as the first African American to be elected to the presidency.

138Economy
Name the pair of countries which are the first and second most polluters regarding carbon emission.
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Answer: (B) China and U.S.A.

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China and the United States are the leading contributors to global carbon emissions. By 2011, China had established itself as the world's largest emitter of carbon dioxide, accounting for nearly 29% of global emissions due to its massive industrial growth and heavy reliance on coal. The United States was the second-largest emitter, contributing approximately 16% of global carbon emissions.

139Art and Culture
Mr. Pankaj Advani is related to the game of ________.
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Answer: (A) Billiards

Explanation

Pankaj Advani is a highly distinguished Indian professional player of billiards and snooker. He won his first World Championship title in amateur billiards in 2003 and has since accumulated numerous world titles in both the billiards and snooker formats of the game, representing India at various international platforms.

140History
Lokmanya Tilak Award for National Journalism (2009) was given to
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Answer: (C) N. Ram

Explanation

The Lokmanya Tilak National Journalism Award, instituted by Pune's Kesari-Maratha Trust, honors outstanding contributions to journalism at the national level. For the year 2009, the award was conferred on N. Ram, then Editor-in-Chief of The Hindu, recognizing his decades of work in Indian journalism and his role in shaping one of India's leading national newspapers.

141Art and Culture
Name the famous drama personality who introduced folk art forms and artists from Chhattisgarh to the National Stage.
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Answer: (B) Habib Tanvir

Explanation

Habib Tanvir was an eminent Indian playwright and theatre director who pioneered the integration of indigenous folk traditions into modern Indian theatre. Born in Raipur, he established the Naya Theatre troupe in 1959 and worked closely with rural folk artists from Chhattisgarh. By incorporating traditional Chhattisgarhi folk forms like Nacha, local music, and the Chhattisgarhi dialect into his prominent plays like Charandas Chor and Mitti Ki Gaadi, he provided a national and international platform to rural folk artists and popularized the rich cultural heritage of Chhattisgarh.

142History
The year 2009 was observed as 200th birth anniversary of a world famous personality. Choose the correct option.
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Answer: (B) Charles Darwin

Explanation

Charles Darwin was born on 12 February 1809. The year 2009 marked his 200th birth anniversary, which was celebrated globally as the Darwin Bicentennial. This year also coincided with the 150th anniversary of the publication of his groundbreaking book, On the Origin of Species, which introduced the scientific theory of evolution by natural selection.

143Science and Technology
Venkatraman Ramkrishnan shared the Nobel Prize for Chemistry (2009) with two other scientists. They are from ________. Choose the correct pair.
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Answer: (A) U.S.A. - Israel

Explanation

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan was awarded the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry jointly with Thomas A. Steitz and Ada Yonath for their pioneering studies on the structure and function of the ribosome. Thomas A. Steitz was an American biophysicist and biochemist from Yale University, U.S.A., while Ada Yonath is an Israeli crystallographer from the Weizmann Institute of Science, Israel.

144Economy
When did the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act come into force?
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Answer: (A) February 2006

Explanation

The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), which was later renamed the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), was enacted in September 2005 and formally came into force on February 2, 2006. It was initially launched in 200 districts of India and was subsequently implemented nationwide in a phased manner.

145Polity and Governance
Who became the first woman Speaker of the Lok Sabha of India ?
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Answer: (A) Smt. Meira Kumar

Explanation

Smt. Meira Kumar, a member of the Indian National Congress and a former diplomat, was elected unopposed as the 15th Speaker of the Lok Sabha on June 3, 2009. She successfully served in this prestigious position until June 2014, marking a historic milestone as the first woman to hold this office in India.

146History
With which country did India sign a deal to revive ammunition production in Nalanda, Bihar ?
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Answer: (C) Israel

Explanation

In March 2009, India signed a contract with Israel Military Industries to establish five manufacturing plants for the Bi-Modular Charge System at the Ordnance Factory in Nalanda, Bihar. This deal sought to revive the critical artillery ammunition project, which had earlier stalled following the blacklisting of South African defence firm Denel.

147Economy
FIFA is related to the field of ________.
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Answer: (C) Sports

Explanation

The Fédération Internationale de Football Association (FIFA) is the international governing body of association football, futsal, and beach soccer. Founded in 1904 to oversee international competition among national associations, FIFA is responsible for the organization and promotion of major international football tournaments, most notably the FIFA World Cup.

148History
Who was honoured with ‘Bharat Ratna’ Award in 2008 ?
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Answer: (B) Pt. Bhimsen Joshi

Explanation

Pandit Bhimsen Joshi, the legendary exponent of Hindustani classical music, was announced as the recipient of the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award, in November 2008. A doyen of the Kirana Gharana, he was renowned for the khayal style of singing, as well as for his popular renditions of devotional music. His contributions to Indian classical music spanned over seven decades, earning him this prestigious national honor.

149Economy
Where was the 18th International Engineering and Technology Fair held in 2009 ?
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Answer: (A) Bengaluru

Explanation

The 18th International Engineering and Technology Fair (IETF 2009) was held at the Bangalore International Exhibition Centre in Bengaluru from February 23 to 26, 2009. Organised by the Confederation of Indian Industry, this biennial flagship event was held outside New Delhi for the first time since its inception.

150Science and Technology
Which organization has declared Swine Flu - 2009 H1N1 Influenza - as a global pandemic ?
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Answer: (A) World Health Organization

Explanation

On June 11, 2009, the World Health Organization officially declared the 2009 H1N1 influenza outbreak, commonly referred to as swine flu, to be a global pandemic. This declaration marked the raising of the pandemic alert level to Phase 6, which is the highest level of alert representing widespread and sustained human-to-human transmission across multiple regions of the world. As the specialized agency of the United Nations responsible for international public health, the World Health Organization is the authorized global body that monitors health emergencies, issues international health regulations, and formally declares pandemics.

151Science and Technology
In coding language 573 means 'bring cold water', 342 means 'water is good' and 126 means 'bright good boy', then which number will be used for 'boy is bright' ?
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Answer: (C) 641

Explanation

Comparing the codes 573 ('bring cold water') and 342 ('water is good'), the common digit is 3 and the common word is 'water'. Thus, 'water' is coded as 3.

Comparing the codes 342 ('water is good') and 126 ('bright good boy'), the common digit is 2 and the common word is 'good'. Thus, 'good' is coded as 2.

In the code 342 ('water is good'), since 'water' is 3 and 'good' is 2, the remaining digit 4 represents the word 'is'.

In the code 126 ('bright good boy'), since 'good' is 2, the remaining digits 1 and 6 represent the words 'bright' and 'boy'.

Therefore, the code for the phrase 'boy is bright' must contain the digits 1, 4, and 6 in any order. This corresponds to the code 641.

152Science and Technology
Select correct option for '?' 8 : 32 :: 12 : ?
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Answer: (C) 72

Explanation

The relationship between the numbers in each pair follows the pattern where the first number is squared and then divided by 2 to obtain the second number.

For the first pair: 8² ÷ 2 = 64 ÷ 2 = 32

Applying this same logic to the second pair: 12² ÷ 2 = 144 ÷ 2 = 72

153Science and Technology
If PUBLIC is written as PUBLIC (upside-down/rotated 180°) then SERVICE is written as
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Answer: (C) SERVICE (written as mirror-image / flipped text)

Explanation

Rotating a word by 180 degrees in a 2D plane is geometrically equivalent to reflecting it both horizontally and vertically. This double reflection produces two distinct changes:

First, the sequence of the letters is completely reversed from left to right. For the word SERVICE, the letter order becomes E-C-I-V-R-E-S.

Second, each individual letter itself is inverted upside down and mirrored.

The result is the word SERVICE written in its fully mirrored and flipped form, starting with an inverted E on the left and ending with an inverted S on the right.

154Science and Technology
If CAT = 24, DOG = 26, then which number will be indicated by 'HORSE' ?
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Answer: (B) 65

Explanation

Each letter of a word is assigned a numerical value corresponding to its position in the English alphabetical order from 1 to 26.

For the word CAT, the sum of the letter positions is 3 + 1 + 20 = 24. For the word DOG, the sum of the letter positions is 4 + 15 + 7 = 26.

Applying the same logic to the word HORSE, the alphabetical positions of the letters are H = 8, O = 15, R = 18, S = 19, and E = 5.

The sum of these positions is 8 + 15 + 18 + 19 + 5 = 65.

155Science and Technology
In coding language 'BRIGHTER' is written as 'CSKHIUGS', then how will the word 'FIGHTER' be written ?
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Answer: (A) GKHUGS

Explanation

The coding pattern shifts each letter based on whether it is a consonant or a vowel:

Consonant -> shift by +1 position Vowel -> shift by +2 positions

For BRIGHTER: B (consonant) + 1 = C R (consonant) + 1 = S I (vowel) + 2 = K G (consonant) + 1 = H H (consonant) + 1 = I T (consonant) + 1 = U E (vowel) + 2 = G R (consonant) + 1 = S This gives the code CSKHIUGS.

For FIGHTER: F (consonant) + 1 = G I (vowel) + 2 = K G (consonant) + 1 = H H (consonant) + 1 = I T (consonant) + 1 = U E (vowel) + 2 = G R (consonant) + 1 = S This results in GKHIUGS.

156Polity and Governance
Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. C and D are standing close to each other alongside E. B is standing besides A only. A is fourth from F. Who is standing on the extremes ?
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Answer: (C) B and F

Explanation

Since B is standing besides A only, B must be at one of the extreme ends of the row, and A must be immediately next to B.

If B is at position 1, then A is at position 2. Since A is fourth from F, F must be at position 6 (2 + 4 = 6). This leaves positions 3, 4, and 5 for C, D, and E, which satisfies the condition that C and D are standing close to each other alongside E.

If B is at position 6, then A is at position 5, which puts F at position 1 (5 - 4 = 1).

In both possible arrangements, B and F are standing at the extremes.

157Science and Technology
Complete the following series : S, M, T, W, _____, F, S.
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Answer: (B) T

Explanation

The series consists of the first letters of the days of the week in chronological order:

Sunday: S Monday: M Tuesday: T Wednesday: W Thursday: T Friday: F Saturday: S

The letter that completes the sequence is T, which stands for Thursday.

158Science and Technology
If WATCHING = 30, WORKING = 30, COMING = 10, COACHING = 10, then MAKING = ?
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Answer: (A) 20

Explanation

The pattern in this coding puzzle is based on the alphabetical position of the starting letter of each word. Specifically, the assigned value is determined by adding 7 to the position of the first letter:

Value = (Alphabetical position of the first letter) + 7

In WATCHING and WORKING, the starting letter is W, which is the 23rd letter of the alphabet. This gives: 23 + 7 = 30

In COMING and COACHING, the starting letter is C, which is the 3rd letter of the alphabet. This gives: 3 + 7 = 10

For MAKING, the starting letter is M, which is the 13th letter of the alphabet. Applying the same logic: 13 + 7 = 20

159Science and Technology
If SG = 12, JK = -1 and QE = 12, then OX = ?
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Answer: (B) -9

Explanation

The numerical value of each letter pair is calculated by subtracting the English alphabetical position of the second letter from that of the first letter.

Value = Position(First Letter) - Position(Second Letter)

For SG: Position(S) = 19, Position(G) = 7 Value = 19 - 7 = 12

For JK: Position(J) = 10, Position(K) = 11 Value = 10 - 11 = -1

For QE: Position(Q) = 17, Position(E) = 5 Value = 17 - 5 = 12

For OX: Position(O) = 15, Position(X) = 24 Value = 15 - 24 = -9

160Science and Technology
If B = 10, AC = 20, BED = 55, then PPF = ?
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Answer: (B) 190

Explanation

The numerical value of each letter sequence is obtained by taking the sum of the alphabetical positions of its constituent letters (where A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, ..., Z = 26) and multiplying this sum by 5.

For B: B = 2 Value = 2 × 5 = 10

For AC: A = 1, C = 3 Value = (1 + 3) × 5 = 4 × 5 = 20

For BED: B = 2, E = 5, D = 4 Value = (2 + 5 + 4) × 5 = 11 × 5 = 55

Applying the same logic to PPF: P = 16, P = 16, F = 6 Value = (16 + 16 + 6) × 5 = 38 × 5 = 190

161Science and Technology
If STATEMENT = 384857, CEMENT = 157, GARMENT = 2467, then 8647 = ?
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Answer: (B) TRAMENT

Explanation

By analyzing the words and their corresponding numerical codes, we can see that the suffix MENT is represented as a single digit, 7, in all cases. The individual letters are mapped as follows:

In STATEMENT = 384857: S = 3, T = 8, A = 4, T = 8, E = 5, and MENT = 7. In CEMENT = 157: C = 1, E = 5, and MENT = 7. In GARMENT = 2467: G = 2, A = 4, R = 6, and MENT = 7.

Using this mapping to decode 8647: 8 corresponds to T 6 corresponds to R 4 corresponds to A 7 corresponds to MENT

Combining these letters yields TRAMENT.

162Logical Reasoning
If 'MUMBAI' is written as 'KCDOWO', then how will you write 'SURAT' ?
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Answer: (C) VCTWU

Explanation

Reverse the letters of the word MUMBAI to get I A B M U M. Shifting each letter forward by two positions in alphabetical order:

I + 2 = K A + 2 = C B + 2 = D M + 2 = O U + 2 = W M + 2 = O

This gives the coded word KCDOWO.

Following the same logic for SURAT, reversing the letters of the word gives T A R U S. Shifting each of these letters forward by two positions:

T + 2 = V A + 2 = C R + 2 = T U + 2 = W S + 2 = U

This gives the coded word VCTWU.

163Science and Technology
If A = 1, B = 2, C = 3, ... in this order, how will you write 'GOODWILL' ?
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Answer: (A) 7-15-15-4-23-9-12-12

Explanation

Each letter in the word GOODWILL is assigned a number corresponding to its sequential position in the English alphabet where A is 1, B is 2, and so on. Under this scheme, G is the 7th letter, O is the 15th letter, D is the 4th letter, W is the 23rd letter, I is the 9th letter, and L is the 12th letter. Arranging these numerical values in the order of the letters in the word GOODWILL yields the code 7-15-15-4-23-9-12-12.

164Science and Technology
Some letters are missing in a series. Select proper letters from the following options. ZXP_XZ_XPPXZZX_PX_
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Answer: (C) PZPZ

Explanation

The given series can be divided into three repeating blocks of six letters each. Substituting the letters P, Z, P, and Z into the four blanks at the 4th, 7th, 15th, and 18th positions respectively completes the sequence:

ZXPPXZ ZXPPXZ ZXPPXZ

This creates a consistent repeating pattern of the six-letter unit ZXPPXZ.

165Science and Technology
Complete the given series of numbers by choosing the correct alternative. _101_1011_ _11101
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Answer: (D) 1110

Explanation

By substituting the digits 1, 1, 1, and 0 into the blank spaces of the sequence in order, the complete series becomes:

1101110111011101

This series is formed by the continuous repetition of the four-digit pattern: 1101 | 1101 | 1101 | 1101.

166Logical Reasoning
Select symbols from the given options to complete the series. ○△_★□_△△★□○△_
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Answer: (A) △○★□

Explanation

The given series can be divided into three repeating groups of symbols:

First group: ○ △ [△] ★ □ Second group: [○] △ △ ★ □ Third group: ○ △ [★] [□]

By substituting the symbols from option 1) (△, ○, ★, □) into the respective blank spaces, it forms a consistent pattern. The first two groups repeat the five-symbol sequence (○ △ △ ★ □), while the third group completes the series with the four-symbol sequence (○ △ ★ □).

167Science and Technology
Complete the given series of numbers by choosing the correct alternative. _989_9_98_898
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Answer: (B) 88998

Explanation

The series is formed by a repeating alternating pattern of the digits 9 and 8: 9 8 9 8 9 8 9 8 9 8 9 8 9 8...

By comparing the given sequence of numbers to this continuous alternating pattern, we can identify the missing digits in the blanks:

The first three given numbers are 9 8 9. To continue the pattern, the next digit must be 8. The next given digit is 9. To continue the pattern, the following digit must be 8. The next two given digits are 9 8. To continue the pattern, the following digit must be 9. The next three given digits are 8 9 8. To continue the pattern, the following two digits must be 9 and 8.

Placing these identified digits in the order of their blanks gives the sequence 8, 8, 9, 9, 8. This matches the alternative 88998.

168Science and Technology
Find the odd one out.
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Answer: (C) VET

Explanation

In each term, the first letter decreases by 2 across the sequence: Z (26), X (24), V (22), and T (20). The third letter is always obtained by subtracting 2 from the first letter: Z (26) - 2 = X (24) X (24) - 2 = V (22) V (22) - 2 = T (20) T (20) - 2 = R (18)

The middle letters in the sequence should follow an increasing pattern of even-positioned alphabets: B (2) D (4) F (6) H (8)

In VET, the middle letter is E (5) instead of F (6), making it the odd one out.

169Science and Technology
Find the odd one out.
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Answer: (C) TWN

Explanation

In the English alphabetical series, the positions of the letters in each option are analyzed for their differences. For BEH, the positions are B = 2, E = 5, H = 8, which shows a constant addition of 3 between consecutive letters. For HKN, the positions are H = 8, K = 11, N = 14, which also shows a constant addition of 3. For SPM, the positions are S = 19, P = 16, M = 13, showing a constant subtraction of 3 between consecutive letters. However, for TWN, the positions are T = 20, W = 23, N = 14, where the difference between T and W is +3 but the difference between W and N is -9. This makes TWN the odd one out as it does not maintain a constant difference of 3 between its letters.

170Geography
In the evening at 6 o'clock when I was in the library the sunlight was coming from my left side window. If the main door of the library is on the East, then which side am I facing ?
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Answer: (A) North

Explanation

In the evening at 6 o'clock, the sun is in the West direction. Since the sunlight is coming through the left-side window, the left direction of the person corresponds to the West. If the left side points towards the West, the person must be facing North. Under this orientation, the right side points to the East, the front points to the North, and the back points to the South. The position of the library door on the East is extra information that does not alter the direction the person is facing.

171Logical Reasoning
In a ground Arun walked from a pole 9 meters towards north-east and Tarun walked 12 meters towards south-west. But Tarun came back 2 meters and Arun came back one meter. How many meters are they away from each other ?
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Answer: (B) 18

Explanation

North-East and South-West are diametrically opposite directions. Therefore, Arun and Tarun are moving in opposite directions along the same straight line starting from the pole.

Arun walks 9 meters North-East and then returns 1 meter back towards the pole. His final distance from the pole is 9 - 1 = 8 meters.

Tarun walks 12 meters South-West and then returns 2 meters back towards the pole. His final distance from the pole is 12 - 2 = 10 meters.

Since they are on opposite sides of the pole along the same straight line, the total distance between them is the sum of their distances from the pole, which is 8 + 10 = 18 meters.

172Science and Technology
If ‘-’ means ‘÷’, ‘×’ means ‘+’, put ‘×’ in the place of ‘+’, put ‘÷’ at ‘-’. By using these signs, what is the answer of 20 - 4 + 3 × 7 ÷ 2 ?
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Answer: (D) 20

Explanation

Applying the substitution rules specified in the problem, the operations are mapped as follows: The minus sign - is replaced by division ÷. The plus sign + is replaced by multiplication ×. The multiplication sign × is replaced by addition +. The division sign ÷ is replaced by subtraction -.

Applying these substitutions to the given expression: 20 - 4 + 3 × 7 ÷ 2

We obtain the modified expression: 20 ÷ 4 × 3 + 7 - 2

Following the BODMAS order of operations: First, perform the division: 20 ÷ 4 = 5

Next, perform the multiplication: 5 × 3 = 15

Then, perform the addition: 15 + 7 = 22

Finally, perform the subtraction: 22 - 2 = 20

173Science and Technology
If division means ‘-’, multiplication means ‘÷’, addition means ‘×’ and subtraction means ‘+’, then what is the answer of 4 × 2 + 3 - 4 ÷ 1 - 3
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Answer: (B) 12

Explanation

Substituting the operators as per the given instructions: × becomes ÷

  • becomes × becomes + ÷ becomes -

Rewriting the original expression: 4 × 2 + 3 - 4 ÷ 1 - 3

We get: 4 ÷ 2 × 3 + 4 - 1 + 3

Applying the BODMAS rule: First, perform division: 4 ÷ 2 = 2

This simplifies the expression to: 2 × 3 + 4 - 1 + 3

Next, perform multiplication: 2 × 3 = 6

This simplifies the expression to: 6 + 4 - 1 + 3

Finally, perform addition and subtraction from left to right: 10 - 1 + 3 = 9 + 3 = 12

174Polity and Governance
In a school the result of five students was declared for the subjects Marathi, English, Maths and Hindi. A, B and D passed in Maths and English. B, E and C passed in English and Marathi. D, C and E passed in Hindi and Marathi. A, D and E passed in English and Hindi. Who have been passed in English ?
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Answer: (D) All

Explanation

To find the students who passed in English, we analyze the given information:

From the statement that A, B and D passed in Maths and English, we know that A, B and D passed in English.

From the statement that B, E and C passed in English and Marathi, we know that B, E and C passed in English.

From the statement that A, D and E passed in English and Hindi, we know that A, D and E passed in English.

Combining all of these groups, we find that A, B, C, D and E have all passed in English. Therefore, all five students passed in English.

175Polity and Governance
In a school the result of five students was declared for the subjects Marathi, English, Maths and Hindi. A, B and D passed in Maths and English. B, E and C passed in English and Marathi. D, C and E passed in Hindi and Marathi. A, D and E passed in English and Hindi. Who have been passed in Maths ?
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Answer: (C) A, B, D

Explanation

The first statement explicitly states that A, B, and D passed in Maths and English. This directly confirms that A, B, and D are the students who passed in Maths. None of the other statements mention Maths, which confirms that only A, B, and D passed this subject.

176Polity and Governance
In a school the result of five students was declared for the subjects Marathi, English, Maths and Hindi. A, B and D passed in Maths and English. B, E and C passed in English and Marathi. D, C and E passed in Hindi and Marathi. A, D and E passed in English and Hindi. Who has been passed in all subjects ?
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Answer: (A) D

Explanation

To find the student who passed in all four subjects (Marathi, English, Maths, and Hindi), we track the subjects cleared by student D across the given conditions.

According to the first condition, D passed in Maths and English. According to the third condition, D passed in Hindi and Marathi.

Combining these two lists, D has successfully passed in all four required subjects: Maths, English, Hindi, and Marathi.

177Polity and Governance
In a school the result of five students was declared for the subjects Marathi, English, Maths and Hindi. A, B and D passed in Maths and English. B, E and C passed in English and Marathi. D, C and E passed in Hindi and Marathi. A, D and E passed in English and Hindi. Who has been passed in Marathi, but failed in Hindi ?
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Answer: (B) B

Explanation

By analyzing the subjects each student passed in:

Passed in Marathi: The second statement shows B, E, and C passed in Marathi. The third statement shows D, C, and E passed in Marathi. Thus, B, C, D, and E passed in Marathi.

Passed in Hindi: The third statement shows D, C, and E passed in Hindi. The fourth statement shows A, D, and E passed in Hindi. Thus, A, C, D, and E passed in Hindi.

Comparing these lists, student B is the only student who passed in Marathi but did not pass in Hindi.

178Polity and Governance
In a school the result of five students was declared for the subjects Marathi, English, Maths and Hindi. A, B and D passed in Maths and English. B, E and C passed in English and Marathi. D, C and E passed in Hindi and Marathi. A, D and E passed in English and Hindi. C and E both have failed in which subject ?
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Answer: (C) Maths

Explanation

By analyzing the passing criteria for each student across the four subjects of Marathi, English, Maths, and Hindi:

Student C passed in English and Marathi, and also in Hindi and Marathi. This means C passed in English, Marathi, and Hindi.

Student E passed in English and Marathi, in Hindi and Marathi, and also in English and Hindi. This means E passed in English, Marathi, and Hindi.

Since the school declared results for four subjects, and both C and E passed in English, Marathi, and Hindi, both of them failed in Maths.

179Economy
Todays Mahesh's age is half the age of Sarang. After five years Sarang's age will be 25 years less than his father. If Sarang's father's age is 55 years as on today, then what is the current age of Mahesh ?
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Answer: (D) 15 years

Explanation

Let Mahesh's current age be M and Sarang's current age be S.

According to the given condition, Mahesh's current age is half of Sarang's current age: M = S/2

Sarang's father is currently 55 years old. In 5 years, the father's age will be: 55 + 5 = 60 years

After 5 years, Sarang's age (S + 5) will be 25 years less than his father's age at that time: S + 5 = 60 - 25 S + 5 = 35 S = 30 years

Substituting the value of S into the first equation to find Mahesh's current age: M = 30 / 2 = 15 years

180Science and Technology
Sachin's clock goes ahead 4 seconds in every hour. Monday morning at 11:00 a.m. the clock is set at the proper time. Now what will be the time shown on Saturday morning at 11:00 a.m. ?
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Answer: (A) 11:08

Explanation

The duration from Monday morning at 11:00 a.m. to Saturday morning at 11:00 a.m. is exactly 5 days.

To find the total number of hours: 5 days × 24 hours per day = 120 hours

Since the clock gains 4 seconds every hour, the total time gained over 120 hours is: 120 × 4 = 480 seconds

Converting the gained seconds into minutes: 480 seconds ÷ 60 seconds per minute = 8 minutes

Adding this gain of 8 minutes to the proper time of 11:00 a.m. gives a shown time of 11:08 a.m.

181Logical Reasoning
On 1st January 2010 the day was Friday. Then what will be the day on 31st January 2012 ?
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Answer: (B) Tuesday

Explanation

The total number of years between 1st January 2010 and 1st January 2012 is 2 years. Since both 2010 and 2011 are ordinary years (non-leap years), each contributes 1 odd day.

Total odd days between 1st January 2010 and 1st January 2012 = 1 + 1 = 2 odd days. This makes 1st January 2012 equal to Friday + 2 days = Sunday.

To find the day on 31st January 2012, we calculate the remaining days in January, which is 31 - 1 = 30 days. Number of odd days in 30 days = 30 mod 7 = 2 odd days.

Adding 2 odd days to Sunday gives Tuesday.

182Science and Technology
Find the odd one from the group A. Mobile B. Internet C. Telephone D. Computer
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Answer: (B) B

Explanation

Internet is a global system of interconnected computer networks that serves as an intangible communication medium, whereas the other options in the group represent physical, tangible hardware devices or communication terminals.

183Economy
How much is 1/5 of 5/3 of 1500 ?
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Answer: (C) 500

Explanation

To calculate the required value, we multiply the fractions and the number together:

Value = 1/5 × 5/3 × 1500

By simplifying the multiplication of the fractions first: 1/5 × 5/3 = 1/3

Now, multiplying this product by 1500: 1/3 × 1500 = 500

Answer key

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  1. 1A
  2. 2C
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5C
  6. 6D
  7. 7B
  8. 8D
  9. 9D
  10. 10A
  11. 11A
  12. 12B
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17B
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20A
  21. 21C
  22. 22D
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25D
  26. 26B
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29B
  30. 30D
  31. 31C
  32. 32A
  33. 33A
  34. 34A
  35. 35A
  36. 36A
  37. 37A
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40B
  41. 41B
  42. 42C
  43. 43D
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46A
  47. 47C
  48. 48A
  49. 49A
  50. 50C
  51. 51C
  52. 52A
  53. 53C
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58B
  59. 59A
  60. 60B
  61. 61B
  62. 62D
  63. 63A
  64. 64C
  65. 65B
  66. 66B
  67. 67D
  68. 68C
  69. 69C
  70. 70B
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74A
  75. 75A
  76. 76A
  77. 77A
  78. 78D
  79. 79B
  80. 80A
  81. 81C
  82. 82B
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85B
  86. 86A
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89A
  90. 90D
  91. 91D
  92. 92C
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95C
  96. 96A
  97. 97D
  98. 98B
  99. 99C
  100. 100D
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105C
  106. 106C
  107. 107A
  108. 108C
  109. 109A
  110. 110B
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113C
  114. 114A
  115. 115A
  116. 116C
  117. 117A
  118. 118B
  119. 119A
  120. 120D
  121. 121B
  122. 122D
  123. 123C
  124. 124D
  125. 125A
  126. 126B
  127. 127B
  128. 128B
  129. 129C
  130. 130D
  131. 131B
  132. 132C
  133. 133B
  134. 134B
  135. 135B
  136. 136D
  137. 137D
  138. 138B
  139. 139A
  140. 140C
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143A
  144. 144A
  145. 145A
  146. 146C
  147. 147C
  148. 148B
  149. 149A
  150. 150A
  151. 151C
  152. 152C
  153. 153C
  154. 154B
  155. 155A
  156. 156C
  157. 157B
  158. 158A
  159. 159B
  160. 160B
  161. 161B
  162. 162C
  163. 163A
  164. 164C
  165. 165D
  166. 166A
  167. 167B
  168. 168C
  169. 169C
  170. 170A
  171. 171B
  172. 172D
  173. 173B
  174. 174D
  175. 175C
  176. 176A
  177. 177B
  178. 178C
  179. 179D
  180. 180A
  181. 181B
  182. 182B
  183. 183C

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