MPSC2023CSAT (Paper II)✓ Every question solved

MPSC Prelims 2023 CSAT (Paper II) with Answers & Explanations

All 71 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

71
Questions
4
Subjects
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Reading Comprehension4868%
  • Logical Reasoning1115%
  • Quantitative Aptitude710%
  • Decision Making57%
1Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Motors are devices that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Essentially, a motor is a generator operating in reverse. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. Useful mechanical work can be done by attaching the rotating armature to some external device. However, as the loop rotates in a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the loop; this induced emf always acts to reduce the current in the loop. If this were not the case, Lenz's law would be violated. The back emf increases in magnitude as the rotational speed of the armature increases. (The phrase back emf is used to indicate an emf that tends to reduce the supplied current.) Because the voltage available to supply current equals the difference between the supply voltage and the back emf, the current in the rotating coil is limited by the back emf. When a motor is turned on, there is initially no back emf; thus, the current is very large because it is limited only by the resistance of the coils. As the coils begin to rotate, the induced back emf opposes the applied voltage, and the current in the coil is reduced. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; this causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in the back emf increases the current in the coils and therefore also increases the power needed from the external voltage source. For this reason, the power requirements for starting a motor and for running it are greater for heavy load than for light ones. If the motor is allowed to run under no mechanical load, the back emf reduces the current to a value just large enough to overcome energy losses due to internal energy and friction. If a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate, the lack of a back emf can lead to dangerously high current in the motor's wire. If the problem is not corrected, a fire could result. What is the role of a battery for a motor ?
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Answer: (B) To supply current to the loop

Explanation

According to the passage, a motor operates by converting electrical energy into mechanical energy. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. A battery serves as the external voltage source that supplies this electrical current to the loop, enabling the magnetic force to act on it and produce rotation.

2Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Motors are devices that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Essentially, a motor is a generator operating in reverse. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. Useful mechanical work can be done by attaching the rotating armature to some external device. However, as the loop rotates in a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the loop; this induced emf always acts to reduce the current in the loop. If this were not the case, Lenz's law would be violated. The back emf increases in magnitude as the rotational speed of the armature increases. (The phrase back emf is used to indicate an emf that tends to reduce the supplied current.) Because the voltage available to supply current equals the difference between the supply voltage and the back emf, the current in the rotating coil is limited by the back emf. When a motor is turned on, there is initially no back emf; thus, the current is very large because it is limited only by the resistance of the coils. As the coils begin to rotate, the induced back emf opposes the applied voltage, and the current in the coil is reduced. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; this causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in the back emf increases the current in the coils and therefore also increases the power needed from the external voltage source. For this reason, the power requirements for starting a motor and for running it are greater for heavy load than for light ones. If the motor is allowed to run under no mechanical load, the back emf reduces the current to a value just large enough to overcome energy losses due to internal energy and friction. If a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate, the lack of a back emf can lead to dangerously high current in the motor's wire. If the problem is not corrected, a fire could result. Why is back emf important in a motor ?
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Answer: (B) It reduces the current in the motor

Explanation

As the coil of a motor rotates within a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces a back electromotive force (emf) in the loop. According to Lenz's law, this induced emf acts in opposition to the externally applied supply voltage. Since the net voltage available to drive current is the difference between the supply voltage and this opposing back emf, the back emf serves to limit and reduce the total current flowing through the motor's coils, preventing dangerously high current levels that could otherwise overheat and damage the device.

3Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Motors are devices that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Essentially, a motor is a generator operating in reverse. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. Useful mechanical work can be done by attaching the rotating armature to some external device. However, as the loop rotates in a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the loop; this induced emf always acts to reduce the current in the loop. If this were not the case, Lenz's law would be violated. The back emf increases in magnitude as the rotational speed of the armature increases. (The phrase back emf is used to indicate an emf that tends to reduce the supplied current.) Because the voltage available to supply current equals the difference between the supply voltage and the back emf, the current in the rotating coil is limited by the back emf. When a motor is turned on, there is initially no back emf; thus, the current is very large because it is limited only by the resistance of the coils. As the coils begin to rotate, the induced back emf opposes the applied voltage, and the current in the coil is reduced. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; this causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in the back emf increases the current in the coils and therefore also increases the power needed from the external voltage source. For this reason, the power requirements for starting a motor and for running it are greater for heavy load than for light ones. If the motor is allowed to run under no mechanical load, the back emf reduces the current to a value just large enough to overcome energy losses due to internal energy and friction. If a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate, the lack of a back emf can lead to dangerously high current in the motor's wire. If the problem is not corrected, a fire could result. Why is the current initially very large when a motor is turned on ?
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Answer: (D) Because there is initially no back emf

Explanation

The current in a motor's coil is determined by the difference between the supplied voltage and the opposing back electromagnetic force (emf), according to the relation:

I = (V - e) / R

where I is the current, V is the supply voltage, e is the back emf, and R is the resistance of the coils. The back emf is directly proportional to the rotational speed of the armature. When the motor is first turned on, the armature is not yet rotating, so the back emf is zero. Consequently, the initial current is limited only by the resistance of the coils, resulting in a very large initial current flow.

4Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Motors are devices that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Essentially, a motor is a generator operating in reverse. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. Useful mechanical work can be done by attaching the rotating armature to some external device. However, as the loop rotates in a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the loop; this induced emf always acts to reduce the current in the loop. If this were not the case, Lenz's law would be violated. The back emf increases in magnitude as the rotational speed of the armature increases. (The phrase back emf is used to indicate an emf that tends to reduce the supplied current.) Because the voltage available to supply current equals the difference between the supply voltage and the back emf, the current in the rotating coil is limited by the back emf. When a motor is turned on, there is initially no back emf; thus, the current is very large because it is limited only by the resistance of the coils. As the coils begin to rotate, the induced back emf opposes the applied voltage, and the current in the coil is reduced. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; this causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in the back emf increases the current in the coils and therefore also increases the power needed from the external voltage source. For this reason, the power requirements for starting a motor and for running it are greater for heavy load than for light ones. If the motor is allowed to run under no mechanical load, the back emf reduces the current to a value just large enough to overcome energy losses due to internal energy and friction. If a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate, the lack of a back emf can lead to dangerously high current in the motor's wire. If the problem is not corrected, a fire could result. What happens to the back emf, when the mechanical load on the motor increases ?
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Answer: (C) It decreases

Explanation

According to the passage, when the mechanical load on a motor increases, the motor slows down. Because the magnitude of the back electromotive force (emf) is directly proportional to the rotational speed of the armature, this decrease in speed causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in back emf subsequently allows a larger current to flow through the coils to provide the necessary torque to handle the increased load.

5Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Motors are devices that convert electrical energy to mechanical energy. Essentially, a motor is a generator operating in reverse. Instead of generating a current by rotating a loop, a current supplied to the loop causes it to rotate. Useful mechanical work can be done by attaching the rotating armature to some external device. However, as the loop rotates in a magnetic field, the changing magnetic flux induces an emf in the loop; this induced emf always acts to reduce the current in the loop. If this were not the case, Lenz's law would be violated. The back emf increases in magnitude as the rotational speed of the armature increases. (The phrase back emf is used to indicate an emf that tends to reduce the supplied current.) Because the voltage available to supply current equals the difference between the supply voltage and the back emf, the current in the rotating coil is limited by the back emf. When a motor is turned on, there is initially no back emf; thus, the current is very large because it is limited only by the resistance of the coils. As the coils begin to rotate, the induced back emf opposes the applied voltage, and the current in the coil is reduced. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; this causes the back emf to decrease. This reduction in the back emf increases the current in the coils and therefore also increases the power needed from the external voltage source. For this reason, the power requirements for starting a motor and for running it are greater for heavy load than for light ones. If the motor is allowed to run under no mechanical load, the back emf reduces the current to a value just large enough to overcome energy losses due to internal energy and friction. If a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate, the lack of a back emf can lead to dangerously high current in the motor's wire. If the problem is not corrected, a fire could result. What can happen if a very heavy load jams the motor so that it cannot rotate?
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Answer: (C) The current in the motor's wire can become dangerously high

Explanation

When a motor is jammed by a very heavy load and cannot rotate, its rotational speed becomes zero. Because back electromotive force is produced by the rotation of the armature in the magnetic field, a stationary armature generates no back electromotive force. In the absence of this opposing back electromotive force, the current in the motor is limited only by the very low internal resistance of the coils. According to Ohm's law, this results in a dangerously high current flowing through the motor's wire, which can cause severe overheating and potentially lead to a fire.

6Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Galileo did not excel in the skill of preparing or reconstructing star- charts. However, he focused his binoculars towards the skies and offered a natural explanation of what could be seen. This is what made his astronomy revolutionary. The result was that man disappeared from the moon and was replaced by mountains. However, eventually his astronomy became dangerous, because it shook the premises about the world which were so taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This could potentially challenge the entire social structure. Any person who dared to do this, had to accept the risk therein. Science is not just a collection of experimental information. Any given experiment is not considered as great, unless it offers a conclusive solution to a controversial theory. Similarly, unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data; or it helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done, the said theory is not considered as a great leap forward. If one wishes to see the tight- knit interrelationships between science and production; between the ascendance of new capitalism and the era of local discoveries, one has to study the trajectories along which the center of science in Europe has shifted. Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using and created the first good microscope out of it. He used it to observe droplets of water and the small microbes therein. The Royal Society of London sent its secretary to meet Leeuwenhoek, and published his research articles. This very society had earlier published Ready's writings against the school of 'Arbitrary Creation', which eventually helped to solve the very real problem of food- stock. The idea of giving the credit of an invention to its first author is a comparatively new idea. Even Newton was averse to the idea of bringing his inventions into the limelight. The tendency of hiding valuable secrets in the form of monopoly is even more deep rooted as one travels back in the past. The process changes because of the social nature of production, however, the tools of production are privately owned and hence, patents, guilds and monopoly are insisted upon at the level of technique and production. Which of the following statements holds true according to the passage ?
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Answer: (B) Church served the powerful classes

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that Galileo's astronomy shook the premises about the world which were taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This direct reference confirms that the church served the powerful classes.

7Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Galileo did not excel in the skill of preparing or reconstructing star- charts. However, he focused his binoculars towards the skies and offered a natural explanation of what could be seen. This is what made his astronomy revolutionary. The result was that man disappeared from the moon and was replaced by mountains. However, eventually his astronomy became dangerous, because it shook the premises about the world which were so taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This could potentially challenge the entire social structure. Any person who dared to do this, had to accept the risk therein. Science is not just a collection of experimental information. Any given experiment is not considered as great, unless it offers a conclusive solution to a controversial theory. Similarly, unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data; or it helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done, the said theory is not considered as a great leap forward. If one wishes to see the tight- knit interrelationships between science and production; between the ascendance of new capitalism and the era of local discoveries, one has to study the trajectories along which the center of science in Europe has shifted. Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using and created the first good microscope out of it. He used it to observe droplets of water and the small microbes therein. The Royal Society of London sent its secretary to meet Leeuwenhoek, and published his research articles. This very society had earlier published Ready's writings against the school of 'Arbitrary Creation', which eventually helped to solve the very real problem of food- stock. The idea of giving the credit of an invention to its first author is a comparatively new idea. Even Newton was averse to the idea of bringing his inventions into the limelight. The tendency of hiding valuable secrets in the form of monopoly is even more deep rooted as one travels back in the past. The process changes because of the social nature of production, however, the tools of production are privately owned and hence, patents, guilds and monopoly are insisted upon at the level of technique and production. According to the passage, patent and copyright are insisted upon because
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Answer: (B) Tools of production are privately owned

Explanation

According to the passage, while the process of production changes due to its social nature, the tools of production remain privately owned. It is this private ownership of the tools of production that directly leads to the insistence on patents, guilds, and monopoly at the level of technique and production.

8Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Galileo did not excel in the skill of preparing or reconstructing star- charts. However, he focused his binoculars towards the skies and offered a natural explanation of what could be seen. This is what made his astronomy revolutionary. The result was that man disappeared from the moon and was replaced by mountains. However, eventually his astronomy became dangerous, because it shook the premises about the world which were so taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This could potentially challenge the entire social structure. Any person who dared to do this, had to accept the risk therein. Science is not just a collection of experimental information. Any given experiment is not considered as great, unless it offers a conclusive solution to a controversial theory. Similarly, unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data; or it helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done, the said theory is not considered as a great leap forward. If one wishes to see the tight- knit interrelationships between science and production; between the ascendance of new capitalism and the era of local discoveries, one has to study the trajectories along which the center of science in Europe has shifted. Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using and created the first good microscope out of it. He used it to observe droplets of water and the small microbes therein. The Royal Society of London sent its secretary to meet Leeuwenhoek, and published his research articles. This very society had earlier published Ready's writings against the school of 'Arbitrary Creation', which eventually helped to solve the very real problem of food- stock. The idea of giving the credit of an invention to its first author is a comparatively new idea. Even Newton was averse to the idea of bringing his inventions into the limelight. The tendency of hiding valuable secrets in the form of monopoly is even more deep rooted as one travels back in the past. The process changes because of the social nature of production, however, the tools of production are privately owned and hence, patents, guilds and monopoly are insisted upon at the level of technique and production. When is a theory considered as very important, according to the author ?
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Answer: (C) It offers an explanation to perplexing data

Explanation

According to the second paragraph of the passage, a theory is not considered as a great leap forward unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data, or helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done. Thus, a theory is considered very important when it offers an explanation to perplexing data.

9Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Galileo did not excel in the skill of preparing or reconstructing star- charts. However, he focused his binoculars towards the skies and offered a natural explanation of what could be seen. This is what made his astronomy revolutionary. The result was that man disappeared from the moon and was replaced by mountains. However, eventually his astronomy became dangerous, because it shook the premises about the world which were so taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This could potentially challenge the entire social structure. Any person who dared to do this, had to accept the risk therein. Science is not just a collection of experimental information. Any given experiment is not considered as great, unless it offers a conclusive solution to a controversial theory. Similarly, unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data; or it helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done, the said theory is not considered as a great leap forward. If one wishes to see the tight- knit interrelationships between science and production; between the ascendance of new capitalism and the era of local discoveries, one has to study the trajectories along which the center of science in Europe has shifted. Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using and created the first good microscope out of it. He used it to observe droplets of water and the small microbes therein. The Royal Society of London sent its secretary to meet Leeuwenhoek, and published his research articles. This very society had earlier published Ready's writings against the school of 'Arbitrary Creation', which eventually helped to solve the very real problem of food- stock. The idea of giving the credit of an invention to its first author is a comparatively new idea. Even Newton was averse to the idea of bringing his inventions into the limelight. The tendency of hiding valuable secrets in the form of monopoly is even more deep rooted as one travels back in the past. The process changes because of the social nature of production, however, the tools of production are privately owned and hence, patents, guilds and monopoly are insisted upon at the level of technique and production. Why did the astronomy of Galileo become dangerous ?
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Answer: (D) He challenged the axioms about the world which the powerful took for granted

Explanation

According to the passage, Galileo's astronomy became dangerous because it shook the premises or axioms about the world that were taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church. Since these deeply held beliefs supported the prevailing social structure, challenging them was seen as a threat to the established social order, making his scientific pursuits highly risky and dangerous to those in authority.

10Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Galileo did not excel in the skill of preparing or reconstructing star- charts. However, he focused his binoculars towards the skies and offered a natural explanation of what could be seen. This is what made his astronomy revolutionary. The result was that man disappeared from the moon and was replaced by mountains. However, eventually his astronomy became dangerous, because it shook the premises about the world which were so taken for granted by the powerful classes and the church which served them. This could potentially challenge the entire social structure. Any person who dared to do this, had to accept the risk therein. Science is not just a collection of experimental information. Any given experiment is not considered as great, unless it offers a conclusive solution to a controversial theory. Similarly, unless it offers a plausible explanation to perplexing experimental data; or it helps predict the conclusions of an experiment which has not yet been done, the said theory is not considered as a great leap forward. If one wishes to see the tight- knit interrelationships between science and production; between the ascendance of new capitalism and the era of local discoveries, one has to study the trajectories along which the center of science in Europe has shifted. Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using and created the first good microscope out of it. He used it to observe droplets of water and the small microbes therein. The Royal Society of London sent its secretary to meet Leeuwenhoek, and published his research articles. This very society had earlier published Ready's writings against the school of 'Arbitrary Creation', which eventually helped to solve the very real problem of food- stock. The idea of giving the credit of an invention to its first author is a comparatively new idea. Even Newton was averse to the idea of bringing his inventions into the limelight. The tendency of hiding valuable secrets in the form of monopoly is even more deep rooted as one travels back in the past. The process changes because of the social nature of production, however, the tools of production are privately owned and hence, patents, guilds and monopoly are insisted upon at the level of technique and production. According to this passage, what did Leeuwenhoek do ?
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Answer: (D) He sharpened the lens and observed small microbes

Explanation

According to the passage, Leeuwenhoek, a gatekeeper in Delft, sharpened the lens he was using to build the first high-quality microscope. He then utilized this instrument to study droplets of water and observe the small microbes living within them.

11Reading Comprehension
खालील उतारा वाचून प्रश्न क्र. ११ ते १५ ची उत्तरे द्या. शब्द हा माझ्या अखंड कुतूहलाचा, आवडीचा आणि अभ्यासाचाही विषय आहे. गेल्या काही दिवसांत शब्दांच्या संदर्भात मला काही मजेदार अनुभव आले. तसे तर ते नेहमी येतात; पण का कोण जाणे, या खेपेला मला ते विशेष ठळकपणे जाणवले. गंमत म्हणजे हे सारे शब्द एकाक्षरी आहेत. लिहिण्यात, बोलण्यात, जाहीर वक्तृत्वापासून तो एकांतातील भाव निवेदनापर्यंत सर्वत्र आपण शब्दांचाच वापर करतो; पण यापैकी बहुतेक शब्द आकाराने मोठे, गुंतागुंतीचे, जड किंवा संदिग्ध असतात. माणसे भडाभडा बोलतात. अनावरणे लिहितात. आपण त्याला 'शब्दबंबाळ' हे विशेषण लावतो; पण साधा एक अक्षराचा शब्ददेखील केवढा गहन आशय व्यक्त करू शकतो, हे अगदी अलीकडे वेगवेगळ्या घटनांनी माझ्या निदर्शनाला आणून दिले. माझ्या भाचीची मुलगी. माझी छोटी नात. वय तीन-साडेतीन वर्षे. ती मराठी छान बोलते. वयाच्या मानाने अर्थपूर्ण आणि अगदी ठसकेबाज. हल्ली तिला एक शब्द सापडला आहे. तो म्हणजे 'का ?' ती सारखे प्रश्न विचारत असते. मी कोणतेही वाक्य उच्चारले, म्हणजे 'मला आता काम आहे', 'मी चहा पिणार आहे', 'कावळा उडून आपल्या घरी गेला', 'साखर फार खाऊ नये' यांतले काहीही, तरी तिचा प्रश्न ठरलेला असतो 'का ?' मी तात्पुरते काहीतरी उत्तर देऊन तिला गप्प बसवते; पण आपल्या उत्तराचा आवाका किती मर्यादित आहे. आणि काही प्रश्नांना उत्तरेच कशी नसतात, हे त्याचवेळी मला उमगते आणि मी फार अस्वस्थ होऊन जाते. छोटीच्या एकाक्षरी प्रश्नात जगातल्या साऱ्या जिज्ञासेचे, अनुभवाचे, ज्ञानाचे आणि उत्कट जाणिवेचे मूळ सामावले आहे, याचा मला साक्षात्कार होतो. जगाच्या इतिहासात कोणाला तरी, केव्हा तरी, कशाच्या तरी संदर्भात 'का ?' असा प्रश्न विचारावासा वाटला. त्यातून शास्त्रे निर्माण झाली. वैज्ञानिक शोध लागले. आध्यात्मिक बोध झाला. सुंदर काव्ये, कलाकृती स्फुरल्या. हा 'का ?' जर आपण गमावून बसलो तर सारी प्रगती थांबेल. आपण नेहमी वापरतो तो 'वा' शब्द सकृतदर्शनी तो कौतुकाचा उद्गार वाटतो; पण जरा खोलवर विचार केला तर तो दिसतो तितका सोज्वळ नाही. चांगलाच लबाड आहे, हे ध्यानात येते. कोणी नवी खरेदी दाखवते, कोणी लेख किंवा कविता वाचून त्यावरची प्रतिक्रिया विचारते, कोणी लेकीचे गाणे ऐकवते, तर कोणी स्वकृत पाकसिद्धी खाऊ घालते. आणि आपण मनातले भाव लपवत, येणारी जांभई आवरत तोंडदेखले 'वा!' म्हणत असतो. तो 'वा!' शब्द कंटाळा, नाराजी, उपेक्षा अशा कितीतरी भावना सूचित करतो. सध्या सुसंस्कृतता, प्रेमापोटी अशा किती अडचणी वाटेल उघ्या असतात आणि त्या आपल्याला कौतुकाची दाद द्यायला लावून 'वा!' म्हणणे भाग पडते. 'छे' हाही असाच एकाक्षरी; पण अर्थाचे डोंगर पोटात सामावणारा शब्द. आत्मिक आश्चर्यापासून आत्मिक कृतज्ञतेपर्यंत, आत्मिक आनंदापासून पराकाष्ठेच्या तुच्छतेपर्यंत कितीतरी परस्परविरोधी प्रतिक्रिया या एकाच एकाक्षरी उद्गारातून आपण प्रकट करत असतो. 'परवा भीमसेनजींची मैफल ऐकली. छे ! कमाल केली पंडितजींनी त्या दिवशी.' या वाक्यातलं 'छे !' कौतुकादार दाखवतो! 'कसला भिकार पिक्चर दाखवलंस तू मला. वैताग आला ते बघताना !' या वाक्यातलं 'छे !' तुच्छता, तिरस्कार यांचा सूचक असतो. 'छे. आम्ही का ती मुलगी पसंत करणार आमच्या मुलासाठी ? काहीतरीच काय ?' या वाक्यातलं 'छे!' बोलणाऱ्याच्या किंवा बोलणारणीच्या अहंकारी आढ्यतेमधून उमटलेला असतो. 'छे ! छे!! कहर झाला अगदी! हसून हसून माझं पोट दुखायला लागलं,' ही एखाद्या सुंदर, विनोद नाटकाबद्दलची उत्स्फूर्त प्रतिक्रिया असते. असे कितीतरी एकाक्षरी शब्द. 'हं', 'रे', 'हो', 'छी' हेही त्याच्याच मालिकेतले. मात्र, या शब्दांच्या उच्चारा बरोबर स्वरांचा चढउतार, त्यातला सूक्ष्म फरक, चेहऱ्यावरचे भाव ध्यानी घेतले नाहीत, तर त्यांचा खरा अर्थ समजणारच नाही. ११. जगातील साऱ्या जिज्ञासेचे, ज्ञानाचे आणि उत्कट जाणिवेचे मूळ 'का ?' या एका शब्दात सामावले आहे. कारण अ. 'का ?' शब्द नसता तर सारी प्रगती झपाट्याने झाली असती. ब. 'का ?' ची भाषा कधी कधी लहान-थोर सर्वांना उमगत नाही. क. 'का ?' अर्थहीन शब्द आहे. ड. 'का ?' चा अर्थपूर्ण आवाका मोठा आहे.
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Answer: (B) ब आणि ड फक्त

Explanation

उताऱ्यामध्ये सांगितल्यानुसार, लेखकाची तीन-साडेतीन वर्षांची नात प्रत्येक गोष्टीवर 'का ?' असा प्रश्न विचारत असते. तिला तात्पुरते उत्तर देऊन गप्प बसवताना आपल्या उत्तराचा आवाका किती मर्यादित आहे आणि काही प्रश्नांना उत्तरेच नसतात, हे लेखकाला जाणवते. म्हणजेच 'का ?' या प्रश्नाची मूळ भाषा आणि तिची खोली कधीकधी लहान-थोर सर्वांनाच पूर्णपणे उमगत नाही.

तसेच, याच 'का ?' या एकाक्षरी प्रश्नातून जगाच्या इतिहासात नवनवीन शास्त्रे निर्माण झाली, वैज्ञानिक शोध लागले आणि आध्यात्मिक बोध झाला. यामुळे 'का ?' या शब्दाचा अर्थपूर्ण आणि वैचारिक आवाका अत्यंत प्रचंड व मोठा आहे हे स्पष्ट होते. या कारणांमुळे 'ब' आणि 'ड' ही विधाने योग्य ठरतात.

12Reading Comprehension
आपण दैनंदिन जीवनात वावरताना इतरांचे कौतुक करण्यासाठी 'वा!' असा शब्द वापरतो; पण तो इतका सोज्वळ नाही. कारण अ. त्यामध्ये आपल्या मनातून व्यक्त होणारे खरे भाव लपवलेले नसतात. ब. त्यातून मनातील व्यक्त होणाऱ्या भावना ह्या अनेकवेळा नाराजी, उपेक्षा ह्या पद्धतीने सूचित होत नाहीत. क. जीवलगांच्या प्रेमापोटी, सुसंस्कृतता इत्यादी भीड घालण्याच्या अडचणीमुळे 'वा!' म्हणणे भाग पडते. ड. सकृतदर्शनी 'वा!' कौतुकाचा उद्गार वाटत नाही.
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Answer: (D) क फक्त

Explanation

उताऱ्यातील वर्णनानुसार, सभ्यता, सुसंस्कृतता आणि प्रिय व्यक्तींबद्दलच्या प्रेमापोटी पडणाऱ्या भीडेमुळे लोकांना तोंडदेखले कौतुक करावे लागते आणि अशा वेळी नाईलाजाने 'वा!' हा शब्द वापरणे भाग पडते. म्हणूनच 'वा!' हा शब्द दिसतो तितका सोज्वळ नाही.

13Reading Comprehension
जगातील नवनिर्मितीच्या इतिहासासंदर्भात केव्हा तरी, कोणाला तरी 'का ?' असा प्रश्न विचारावासा वाटला. कारण अ. शास्त्रे कशी निर्माण होतात हे समजण्यासाठी ब. जगातील सर्व ज्ञानाचा साक्षात्कार झाला होता म्हणून क. जिज्ञासा, अनुभव आणि ज्ञान यांचे मूळ सापडत नव्हते म्हणून ड. कवीला सुंदर काव्ये, कलाकृती कशा पद्धतीने स्फुरतात हे कळण्यासाठी
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Answer: (B) अ आणि ड बरोबर

Explanation

दिलेल्या उताऱ्यातील वर्णनानुसार, लेखकाला छोट्या नातीच्या का? या एकाच शब्दाच्या प्रश्नामध्ये जगातील साऱ्या जिज्ञासेचे, अनुभवाचे, ज्ञानाचे आणि उत्कट जाणिवेचे मूळ सामावलेले असल्याचा साक्षात्कार होतो. त्यामुळे जिज्ञासा, अनुभव आणि ज्ञान यांचे मूळ समजण्यासाठी का? असा प्रश्न विचारण्याची गरज निर्माण होते.

तसेच, जगाच्या इतिहासात कोणाला तरी, केव्हा तरी, कशाच्या तरी संदर्भात का? असा प्रश्न विचारावासा वाटल्यामुळेच त्यातून शास्त्रे निर्माण झाली, वैज्ञानिक शोध लागले आणि सुंदर काव्ये व कलाकृती स्फुरल्या. हे शास्त्रे कशी निर्माण होतात हे समजण्यासाठी आणि कवीला सुंदर काव्ये व कलाकृती कशा पद्धतीने स्फुरतात हे समजून घेण्यासाठी कारणीभूत ठरते. या सर्व कारणांमुळे विधान अ, क आणि ड पूर्णपणे बरोबर ठरतात.

14Reading Comprehension
'छे !' हा शब्द अर्थाचे डोंगर पोटात सामावणारा आहे. कारण अ. त्यामध्ये सुंदर दिसणाऱ्या व्यक्ती, वस्तू व कलाकृतीबद्दल ती एक उत्स्फूर्त प्रतिक्रिया नसते. ब. आश्चर्यापासून कृतज्ञतेपर्यंत अशा परस्पर विरोधी अर्थाच्या प्रतिक्रिया त्यात सामावलेल्या असतात. क. कधी कधी तो बोलणाऱ्याच्या अहंकारी आढ्यतेमधून निर्माण झालेला असतो. ड. त्यामध्ये सूचकता अर्थात व्यंगार्थ असतो.
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Answer: (D) ब बरोबर

Explanation

दिलेल्या उताऱ्यानुसार, 'छे !' हा एकाक्षरी शब्द आत्यंतिक आश्चर्यापासून आत्यंतिक कृतज्ञतेपर्यंत आणि आत्यंतिक आनंदापासून पराकाष्ठेच्या तुच्छतेपर्यंतच्या विविध छटा दर्शवण्यासाठी वापरला जातो. यावरून स्पष्ट होते की या एकाच शब्दामध्ये आश्चर्यापासून कृतज्ञतेपर्यंतच्या परस्परविरोधी अर्थाच्या प्रतिक्रिया सामावलेल्या असतात. त्यामुळे केवळ 'ब' हे विधान पूर्णपणे सत्य आणि बरोबर ठरते.

15Logical Reasoning
खालील शब्द व त्या अनुषंगाने व्यक्त होणारे अर्थविशेष यांच्या जोड्या लावा. शब्द — अर्थविशेष (अ) 'का?' एकाक्षर — (i) विशेषण (ब) शब्दबंबाळ — (ii) लबाडशब्द (क) 'वा!' — (iii) गहन आशय (ड) 'हं', 'रे', 'हो', 'छी', 'छे' — (iv) परस्पर विरोधी प्रतिक्रिया उद्गारणारा (इ) 'छे!' — (v) एकाक्षरी मालिका (अ) (ब) (क) (ड) (इ) (1) (iii) (v) (ii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (v) (iii) (3) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv) (4) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (v)
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Answer: (C) (अ)-(iii), (ब)-(i), (क)-(ii), (ड)-(v), (इ)-(iv)

Explanation

उताऱ्याच्या आधारे योग्य जुळवणी खालीलप्रमाणे आहे:

(अ) 'का?' एकाक्षर — (iii) गहन आशय: 'का?' या एकाक्षरी प्रश्नातून जिज्ञासा, ज्ञान आणि अनुभवाचा अत्यंत खोल व गहन आशय स्पष्ट होतो.

(ब) शब्दबंबाळ — (i) विशेषण: 'शब्दबंबाळ' (अतिशय बडबड किंवा पाल्हाळ लावणारा) हा शब्द व्याकरणदृष्ट्या विशेषण म्हणून वापरला जातो.

(क) 'वा!' — (ii) लबाडशब्द: हा उद्गार सकृतदर्शनी कौतुकाचा वाटला, तरी त्यात अनेकदा नाराजी, उपेक्षा किंवा केवळ भीड घालण्याची भावना लपलेली असते, म्हणून तो 'लबाडशब्द' आहे.

(ड) 'हं', 'रे', 'हो', 'छी', 'छे' — (v) एकाक्षरी मालिका: हे सर्व एकाक्षरी उद्गारवाचक शब्द असून एका विशिष्ट शब्दांच्या 'एकाक्षरी मालिका' या गटात येतात.

(इ) 'छे!' — (iv) परस्पर विरोधी प्रतिक्रिया उद्गारणारा: 'छे!' हा उद्गार कौतुक, आदर दाखवण्यापासून ते तुच्छता, तिरस्कार आणि अहंकार यांसारख्या अनेक परस्परविरोधी भावना किंवा प्रतिक्रिया व्यक्त करण्यासाठी वापरला जातो.

16Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: Many organic compounds contain carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O); and some of them also have additional elements such as nitrogen (N), halogens (X = Cl, Br, I) etc. The bond/s between the atoms in organic compounds are covalent, and are indicated by a '–' ; eg. in methane, CH₄, each hydrogen and carbon has a single covalent bond. Organic chemistry is also called the chemistry of functional groups (an atom or group of atoms that confers specific characteristics to that compound) eg. the functional group (FG) is hydroxyl, –O–H and the compounds formed are alcohols (R-O-H) where –R is alkyl group (–R is –CₙH₂ₙ₊₁ and 'n' is the number of carbon atoms). The FG carbonyl >C=O has two arrangements: H H H | | | (i) aldehydic, –C=O the compound is aldehyde (H–C=O or R–C=O) O || and (ii) ketonic, >C=O and the compound is ketone (R₁–C=R₂ where R₁ = R₂ or R₁ ≠ R₂). The combination of carbonyl group with hydroxyl group OH | gives –C=O i.e. carboxyl functional group, and the compounds formed are OH OH | | carboxylic acids (H–C=O and R–C=O). Carboxylic acids react with alcohols in presence of concentrated H₂SO₄ yields esters, whose general formula is O O || || (H—C—OR or R—C—OR₁, where R=R₁ or R≠R₁). The characteristic properties of esters are because of —C—O— functional group. Bodies of living organisms contain large number of different biomolecules eg. carbohydrates, proteins (contain —C—N—), lipids (contain —C—O—) etc. which constitute their structure, and are also part of various physiological processes taking place in them. Thus, hydrogen forms only one, oxygen forms only two, nitrogen forms only three, and carbon forms only four covalent bonds. Though most of carbohydrates are represented by a general formula Cₓ(H₂O)ᵧ i.e. hydrates of carbon, they are chemically polyhydroxy aldehydes (or ketones) eg. C₆H₁₂O₆ is either glucose or fructose or galactose. They cannot be hydrolyzed further, hence are called monosaccharides. Disaccharides eg. sucrose, C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ on hydrolysis (using one H₂O) yields two molecules of monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. Trisaccharides eg. raffinose, C₁₈H₃₂O₁₆ on hydrolysis (using two H₂O) yields three monosaccharides one unit of each: glucose, fructose and galactose. Polysaccharide eg. starch, (C₆H₁₀O₅)ₙ is a common ingredient of food grain, on hydrolysis yields a very large number of units of glucose. Monosaccharide with an aldehyde carbonyl group is called aldose, and their names will have suffix 'ose' eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂O₆. While that with a ketonic carbonyl group is called ketose, and their some names end with 'ulose'. These names are further modified in accordance with the total number of carbon atoms in the monosaccharide eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂O₆ can also be called aldohexose. CHO | HO—C—H | HO—C—H | H—C—OH | H—C—OH | CH₂OH Structure of mannose OR CHO | (HO—C—H)₄ | CH₂OH Structure of mannose The smallest aldose, and the only one whose name does not end in "ose", is glyceraldehyde. It has a chiral center or has an asymmetric carbon* atom (a carbon atom bonded to four different atoms or groups). A molecule with a chiral center has a pair of enantiomers which are related to each other as object and its mirror image. Each isomer of this pair rotates the plane polarized light in equal magnitude but in opposite directions. H O || C | HO—C*—H | CH₂OH Glyceraldehyde This property (optical activity) is shown only by those organic compounds which have a chiral center. One can arrive at the number of optical isomers using the relation 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral centers. The molecules having the same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers. If the isomers carry different functional groups, they are called functional isomers, and the phenomenon is called functional isomerism. The compound CH₃ | H—C—OH i.e. C₃(H₂O)₃ is: | C—OH || O
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Answer: (D) Not a carbohydrate

Explanation

The given structure represents lactic acid (2-hydroxypropanoic acid), which has the formula CH₃—CH(OH)—COOH. Although its molecular formula C₃H₆O₃ can be written in the form of C₃(H₂O)₃, which resembles the general hydrate of carbon formula Cₓ(H₂O)ᵧ, it is not classified as a carbohydrate.

Carbohydrates are chemically defined as polyhydroxy aldehydes or polyhydroxy ketones, or substances that yield such compounds upon hydrolysis. Lactic acid contains a carboxylic acid functional group (—COOH) and only one hydroxyl group (—OH) instead of an aldehyde or ketone carbonyl group, meaning it does not meet the structural criteria of carbohydrates.

17Quantitative Aptitude
Many organic compounds contain carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O) and nitrogen (N). These elements form covalent bonds with themselves or with other elements. The number of covalent bonds formed by these elements are 4, 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Carbon has the unique property of catenation, due to which it forms long chains and rings. Hydrocarbons are compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen. They are classified as alkanes, alkenes and alkynes. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂. Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ and CₙH₂ₙ₋₂, respectively. Organic compounds containing oxygen are alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids and esters. Alcohols contain -OH group, aldehydes contain -CHO group, ketones contain -CO- group, carboxylic acids contain -COOH group and esters contain -COOR group. The characteristic properties of esters are because of -C-O- functional group. Bodies of living organisms contain large number of different biomolecules eg. carbohydrates, proteins (contain -C-N-), lipids (contain -C-O-) etc. which constitute their structure, and are also part of various physiological processes taking place in them. Thus, hydrogen forms only one, oxygen forms only two, nitrogen forms only three, and carbon forms only four covalent bonds. Though most of carbohydrates are represented by a general formula Cₓ(H₂O)_y i.e. hydrates of carbon, they are chemically polyhydroxy aldehydes (or ketones) eg. C₆H₁₂_O__₆ is either glucose or fructose or galactose. They cannot be hydrolyzed further, hence are called monosaccharides. Disaccharides eg. sucrose, C₁₂_H___₂_₂_O_₁_₁ on hydrolysis (using one H₂O) yields two molecules of monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. Trisaccharides eg. raffinose, C₁₈_H___₃_₂_O_₁_₆ on hydrolysis (using two H₂O) yields three monosaccharides one unit of each: glucose, fructose and galactose. Polysaccharide eg. starch, (C₆H₁₀_O__₅)ₙ is a common ingredient of food grain, on hydrolysis yields a very large number of units of glucose. Monosaccharide with an aldehyde carbonyl group is called aldose, and their names will have suffix 'ose' eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆. While that with a ketonic carbonyl group is called ketose, and their some names end with 'ulose'. These names are further modified in accordance with the total number of carbon atoms in the monosaccharide eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆ can also be called aldohexose. The smallest aldose, and the only one whose name does not end in "ose", is glyceraldehyde. It has a chiral center or has an asymmetric carbon* atom (a carbon atom bonded to four different atoms or groups). A molecule with a chiral center has a pair of enantiomers which are related to each other as object and its mirror image. Each isomer of this pair rotates the plane polarized light in equal magnitude but in opposite directions. This property (optical activity) is shown only by those organic compounds which have a chiral center. One can arrive at the number of optical isomers using the relation 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral centers. The molecules having the same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers. If the isomers carry different functional groups, they are called functional isomers, and the phenomenon is called functional isomerism. The compound 'A' undergoes hydrolysis (Using three H₂O) under appropriate conditions to form a unit of glucose, a unit of fructose and two units of galactose. The molecular formula of the compound 'A' is
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Answer: (C) C₂₄H₄₂O₂₁

Explanation

Glucose, fructose, and galactose are isomers with the same molecular formula of C₆H₁₂O₆.

The complete hydrolysis of compound A yields four monosaccharide units in total: one unit of glucose, one unit of fructose, and two units of galactose. The combined chemical formula of these four products is:

4 × C₆H₁₂O₆ = C₂₄H₄₈O₂₄

Since this hydrolysis reaction consumes three water molecules (3 H₂O, which consists of 6 hydrogen atoms and 3 oxygen atoms), the molecular formula of compound A is obtained by subtracting the atoms of 3 H₂O from the combined formula of the products:

C₂₄H₄₈O₂₄ - 3 H₂O = C₂₄H₄₂O₂₁

18Reading Comprehension
Many organic compounds contain carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O) and nitrogen (N). These elements form covalent bonds with themselves or with other elements. The number of covalent bonds formed by these elements are 4, 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Carbon has the unique property of catenation, due to which it forms long chains and rings. Hydrocarbons are compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen. They are classified as alkanes, alkenes and alkynes. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂. Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ and CₙH₂ₙ₋₂, respectively. Organic compounds containing oxygen are alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids and esters. Alcohols contain -OH group, aldehydes contain -CHO group, ketones contain -CO- group, carboxylic acids contain -COOH group and esters contain -COOR group. The characteristic properties of esters are because of -C-O- functional group. Bodies of living organisms contain large number of different biomolecules eg. carbohydrates, proteins (contain -C-N-), lipids (contain -C-O-) etc. which constitute their structure, and are also part of various physiological processes taking place in them. Thus, hydrogen forms only one, oxygen forms only two, nitrogen forms only three, and carbon forms only four covalent bonds. Though most of carbohydrates are represented by a general formula Cₓ(H₂O)_y i.e. hydrates of carbon, they are chemically polyhydroxy aldehydes (or ketones) eg. C₆H₁₂_O__₆ is either glucose or fructose or galactose. They cannot be hydrolyzed further, hence are called monosaccharides. Disaccharides eg. sucrose, C₁₂_H___₂_₂_O_₁_₁ on hydrolysis (using one H₂O) yields two molecules of monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. Trisaccharides eg. raffinose, C₁₈_H___₃_₂_O_₁_₆ on hydrolysis (using two H₂O) yields three monosaccharides one unit of each: glucose, fructose and galactose. Polysaccharide eg. starch, (C₆H₁₀_O__₅)ₙ is a common ingredient of food grain, on hydrolysis yields a very large number of units of glucose. Monosaccharide with an aldehyde carbonyl group is called aldose, and their names will have suffix 'ose' eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆. While that with a ketonic carbonyl group is called ketose, and their some names end with 'ulose'. These names are further modified in accordance with the total number of carbon atoms in the monosaccharide eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆ can also be called aldohexose. The smallest aldose, and the only one whose name does not end in "ose", is glyceraldehyde. It has a chiral center or has an asymmetric carbon* atom (a carbon atom bonded to four different atoms or groups). A molecule with a chiral center has a pair of enantiomers which are related to each other as object and its mirror image. Each isomer of this pair rotates the plane polarized light in equal magnitude but in opposite directions. This property (optical activity) is shown only by those organic compounds which have a chiral center. One can arrive at the number of optical isomers using the relation 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral centers. The molecules having the same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers. If the isomers carry different functional groups, they are called functional isomers, and the phenomenon is called functional isomerism. Which of the following option is correct about compounds A and B ? align* A | B ; CH₂OH | H - C = O ; | | | ; C = O | (HO - C - H)₄ ; | | | ; (HO - C - H)₃ | CH₂OH ; | | | ; CH₂OH align*
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Answer: (B) A and B are only functional isomers of each other

Explanation

Compound A is a ketohexose with the molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆ and contains a ketone functional group. Compound B is an aldohexose with the same molecular formula C₆H₁₂O₆ but contains an aldehyde functional group. Because they have the same molecular formula but different functional groups, they are functional isomers of each other.

Optical isomers are stereoisomers, which require the compounds to have the exact same structural connectivity of atoms and only differ in their spatial arrangement. Since Compound A and Compound B differ in their chemical connectivity and functional groups, they do not qualify as optical isomers of one another.

19Quantitative Aptitude
Many organic compounds contain carbon (C), hydrogen (H), oxygen (O) and nitrogen (N). These elements form covalent bonds with themselves or with other elements. The number of covalent bonds formed by these elements are 4, 1, 2 and 3 respectively. Carbon has the unique property of catenation, due to which it forms long chains and rings. Hydrocarbons are compounds containing only carbon and hydrogen. They are classified as alkanes, alkenes and alkynes. Alkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ₊₂. Alkenes and alkynes are unsaturated hydrocarbons with general formula CₙH₂ₙ and CₙH₂ₙ₋₂, respectively. Organic compounds containing oxygen are alcohols, aldehydes, ketones, carboxylic acids and esters. Alcohols contain -OH group, aldehydes contain -CHO group, ketones contain -CO- group, carboxylic acids contain -COOH group and esters contain -COOR group. The characteristic properties of esters are because of -C-O- functional group. Bodies of living organisms contain large number of different biomolecules eg. carbohydrates, proteins (contain -C-N-), lipids (contain -C-O-) etc. which constitute their structure, and are also part of various physiological processes taking place in them. Thus, hydrogen forms only one, oxygen forms only two, nitrogen forms only three, and carbon forms only four covalent bonds. Though most of carbohydrates are represented by a general formula Cₓ(H₂O)_y i.e. hydrates of carbon, they are chemically polyhydroxy aldehydes (or ketones) eg. C₆H₁₂_O__₆ is either glucose or fructose or galactose. They cannot be hydrolyzed further, hence are called monosaccharides. Disaccharides eg. sucrose, C₁₂_H___₂_₂_O_₁_₁ on hydrolysis (using one H₂O) yields two molecules of monosaccharides: glucose and fructose. Trisaccharides eg. raffinose, C₁₈_H___₃_₂_O_₁_₆ on hydrolysis (using two H₂O) yields three monosaccharides one unit of each: glucose, fructose and galactose. Polysaccharide eg. starch, (C₆H₁₀_O__₅)ₙ is a common ingredient of food grain, on hydrolysis yields a very large number of units of glucose. Monosaccharide with an aldehyde carbonyl group is called aldose, and their names will have suffix 'ose' eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆. While that with a ketonic carbonyl group is called ketose, and their some names end with 'ulose'. These names are further modified in accordance with the total number of carbon atoms in the monosaccharide eg. Mannose, C₆H₁₂_O__₆ can also be called aldohexose. The smallest aldose, and the only one whose name does not end in "ose", is glyceraldehyde. It has a chiral center or has an asymmetric carbon* atom (a carbon atom bonded to four different atoms or groups). A molecule with a chiral center has a pair of enantiomers which are related to each other as object and its mirror image. Each isomer of this pair rotates the plane polarized light in equal magnitude but in opposite directions. This property (optical activity) is shown only by those organic compounds which have a chiral center. One can arrive at the number of optical isomers using the relation 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral centers. The molecules having the same molecular formula but different structures are called isomers. If the isomers carry different functional groups, they are called functional isomers, and the phenomenon is called functional isomerism. The compound (HO-C-H)₃ with CH₂OH and C=O groups is a and has pairs of optical isomers.
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Answer: (A) Ketohexose, 4

Explanation

The given compound contains three CH(OH) groups, a carbonyl group (C=O), and CH₂OH groups. Structurally, a ketohexose such as fructose has the formula HOCH₂-CO-(CHOH)₃-CH₂OH, consisting of six carbon atoms in total with a ketone functional group, making it a ketohexose.

The chiral centers in this ketohexose molecule are the three carbon atoms in the middle CH(OH) groups (C3, C4, and C5), as each is bonded to four different groups. The terminal CH₂OH carbons (C1 and C6) and the carbonyl carbon (C2) are achiral.

Using the relation for the number of optical isomers, 2ⁿ, where n is the number of chiral centers: Number of optical isomers = 2³ = 8

Since optical isomers exist as enantiomeric pairs (each isomer has a non-superimposable mirror image), the number of pairs of optical isomers is: 8 ÷ 2 = 4 pairs

20Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the post- independence period, the national government made the anti- caste campaign a part of its state policy, through propaganda, laws, educational concessions to backward castes, financial aid and reserved jobs. The efforts of the national government to destroy the caste system by providing propaganda, laws, financial assistance to the backward castes and reserved jobs have continued unabated. When India ranks high among the leading democracies of the world, it cannot be acceptable to discriminate between people based on birth in a nation that is the cradle of democracy. Since the basic principles of democracy are against the caste system, it came to pass that the caste system cannot continue in democratic India. The efforts made by the government in this regard have been very successful and the rate of education among the backward castes is increasing. To the extent that the lower castes become educated, the distance between the castes will dissolve. We will try to analyze whether the caste system survives in India today or not on the basis of the following factors. Existence of caste system depends on the following qualifying factors. (1) Determination of prestige by birth, (2) Prohibition of choice of profession, (3) Prohibition of exogamy, (4) Discrimination between castes in social, political and religious rights, (5) Superiority of the Brahmin caste. The vitality of the castes can be imagined from their existence in the society. Therefore, on the basis of these five aspects, let us now discuss the existence of the caste system. According to the scholars of caste system, the caste system has been eradicated. Today, a person's reputation does not depend on the caste he is born into. Freedom of choice of occupation has been granted to everyone by the Constitution itself. The social superiority of Brahmins has always been usurped from them. From all these things it is not a problem to draw a conclusion that the caste system has almost been destroyed. Freedom of choice of profession has been granted to everyone by the constitution itself. It is no longer possible to force the child of the matangas to remain a matanga. It is no longer possible to decide which occupation one should do according to caste. The spread of education and the educational and financial concessions given to the backward castes have forced the society to adopt a liberal policy towards business. Although this is true, some castes prefer to stick to their traditional occupations. This is also a fact. A person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, profit earned and the social status acquired through the business. According to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer. Which of the following statements is not true ?
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Answer: (B) A society without discrimination is not a principle of sustainable development

Explanation

Sustainable development is built on the principle of leaving no one behind, which inherently requires the creation of an inclusive society free from discrimination. United Nations Sustainable Development Goal 10 specifically focuses on reducing inequalities by eliminating discriminatory laws, policies, and practices, while Goal 16 promotes peaceful and inclusive societies. Therefore, a society without discrimination is indeed a core principle of sustainable development, making this statement false.

21Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the post- independence period, the national government made the anti- caste campaign a part of its state policy, through propaganda, laws, educational concessions to backward castes, financial aid and reserved jobs. The efforts of the national government to destroy the caste system by providing propaganda, laws, financial assistance to the backward castes and reserved jobs have continued unabated. When India ranks high among the leading democracies of the world, it cannot be acceptable to discriminate between people based on birth in a nation that is the cradle of democracy. Since the basic principles of democracy are against the caste system, it came to pass that the caste system cannot continue in democratic India. The efforts made by the government in this regard have been very successful and the rate of education among the backward castes is increasing. To the extent that the lower castes become educated, the distance between the castes will dissolve. We will try to analyze whether the caste system survives in India today or not on the basis of the following factors. Existence of caste system depends on the following qualifying factors. (1) Determination of prestige by birth, (2) Prohibition of choice of profession, (3) Prohibition of exogamy, (4) Discrimination between castes in social, political and religious rights, (5) Superiority of the Brahmin caste. The vitality of the castes can be imagined from their existence in the society. Therefore, on the basis of these five aspects, let us now discuss the existence of the caste system. According to the scholars of caste system, the caste system has been eradicated. Today, a person's reputation does not depend on the caste he is born into. Freedom of choice of occupation has been granted to everyone by the Constitution itself. The social superiority of Brahmins has always been usurped from them. From all these things it is not a problem to draw a conclusion that the caste system has almost been destroyed. Freedom of choice of profession has been granted to everyone by the constitution itself. It is no longer possible to force the child of the matangas to remain a matanga. It is no longer possible to decide which occupation one should do according to caste. The spread of education and the educational and financial concessions given to the backward castes have forced the society to adopt a liberal policy towards business. Although this is true, some castes prefer to stick to their traditional occupations. This is also a fact. A person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, profit earned and the social status acquired through the business. According to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer. Which of the following statements is correct ? A. Absence of social inequality is a sign of development of India. B. Educational development among backward elements is not important to reduce social disparity. C. Indian society stands on the boundaries of class and caste, so the caste system has not been completely abolished in Indian society.
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Answer: (C) A, C

Explanation

Statement A is correct because the passage emphasizes that as a leading democracy, India cannot accept discrimination based on birth. The reduction of social inequalities is fundamental to the nation's democratic development and progress.

Statement C is correct because the passage notes that some castes still prefer to adhere to their traditional occupations and that the caste system has only almost been destroyed, meaning it has not been completely eradicated from Indian society.

Statement B is incorrect because the passage states that as lower castes become educated, the distance between castes will dissolve, showing that educational development is vital to reducing social disparity.

22Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the post- independence period, the national government made the anti- caste campaign a part of its state policy, through propaganda, laws, educational concessions to backward castes, financial aid and reserved jobs. The efforts of the national government to destroy the caste system by providing propaganda, laws, financial assistance to the backward castes and reserved jobs have continued unabated. When India ranks high among the leading democracies of the world, it cannot be acceptable to discriminate between people based on birth in a nation that is the cradle of democracy. Since the basic principles of democracy are against the caste system, it came to pass that the caste system cannot continue in democratic India. The efforts made by the government in this regard have been very successful and the rate of education among the backward castes is increasing. To the extent that the lower castes become educated, the distance between the castes will dissolve. We will try to analyze whether the caste system survives in India today or not on the basis of the following factors. Existence of caste system depends on the following qualifying factors. (1) Determination of prestige by birth, (2) Prohibition of choice of profession, (3) Prohibition of exogamy, (4) Discrimination between castes in social, political and religious rights, (5) Superiority of the Brahmin caste. The vitality of the castes can be imagined from their existence in the society. Therefore, on the basis of these five aspects, let us now discuss the existence of the caste system. According to the scholars of caste system, the caste system has been eradicated. Today, a person's reputation does not depend on the caste he is born into. Freedom of choice of occupation has been granted to everyone by the Constitution itself. The social superiority of Brahmins has always been usurped from them. From all these things it is not a problem to draw a conclusion that the caste system has almost been destroyed. Freedom of choice of profession has been granted to everyone by the constitution itself. It is no longer possible to force the child of the matangas to remain a matanga. It is no longer possible to decide which occupation one should do according to caste. The spread of education and the educational and financial concessions given to the backward castes have forced the society to adopt a liberal policy towards business. Although this is true, some castes prefer to stick to their traditional occupations. This is also a fact. A person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, profit earned and the social status acquired through the business. According to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer. Which of the following statement is not true for existence of caste system ?
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Answer: (B) Doership is an important issue for caste system instead of birth

Explanation

The caste system is inherently structured around the principle of birth, where an individual's social status, prestige, and identity are determined from the moment of birth. Personal actions, achievements, or doership do not define one's caste or position within the traditional hierarchy. Thus, the statement claiming doership is an important issue for the caste system instead of birth is incorrect, as birth remains the foundational element of the caste structure.

23Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the post- independence period, the national government made the anti- caste campaign a part of its state policy, through propaganda, laws, educational concessions to backward castes, financial aid and reserved jobs. The efforts of the national government to destroy the caste system by providing propaganda, laws, financial assistance to the backward castes and reserved jobs have continued unabated. When India ranks high among the leading democracies of the world, it cannot be acceptable to discriminate between people based on birth in a nation that is the cradle of democracy. Since the basic principles of democracy are against the caste system, it came to pass that the caste system cannot continue in democratic India. The efforts made by the government in this regard have been very successful and the rate of education among the backward castes is increasing. To the extent that the lower castes become educated, the distance between the castes will dissolve. We will try to analyze whether the caste system survives in India today or not on the basis of the following factors. Existence of caste system depends on the following qualifying factors. (1) Determination of prestige by birth, (2) Prohibition of choice of profession, (3) Prohibition of exogamy, (4) Discrimination between castes in social, political and religious rights, (5) Superiority of the Brahmin caste. The vitality of the castes can be imagined from their existence in the society. Therefore, on the basis of these five aspects, let us now discuss the existence of the caste system. According to the scholars of caste system, the caste system has been eradicated. Today, a person's reputation does not depend on the caste he is born into. Freedom of choice of occupation has been granted to everyone by the Constitution itself. The social superiority of Brahmins has always been usurped from them. From all these things it is not a problem to draw a conclusion that the caste system has almost been destroyed. Freedom of choice of profession has been granted to everyone by the constitution itself. It is no longer possible to force the child of the matangas to remain a matanga. It is no longer possible to decide which occupation one should do according to caste. The spread of education and the educational and financial concessions given to the backward castes have forced the society to adopt a liberal policy towards business. Although this is true, some castes prefer to stick to their traditional occupations. This is also a fact. A person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, profit earned and the social status acquired through the business. According to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer. Consider the following statements : A. According to Davies, the prestige of any social position depends on the importance of the business assigned to that position. B. While choosing a business, a person thinks about the financial gain from that business and the social prestige gained by the business.
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Answer: (B) Both of the above statements are true and B is not the reason for statement A

Explanation

Based on the passage, Statement A is correct. The text explicitly mentions that according to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer, where social place and occupation correspond directly to social position and business.

Statement B is also correct. The passage states that a person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, which are the profit earned (financial gain) and the social status (social prestige) acquired through that business.

While both statements are individually true, Statement B is not the cause or explanation for Statement A. Statement B describes the micro-level individual motivation behind career selection. In contrast, Statement A describes Kingsley Davis's macro-level structural-functionalist theory of stratification, which explains how society values and ranks different social positions based on their functional importance. Individual motivations for choosing a profession, such as personal profit and status, do not explain the broader sociological mechanism of how society ranks the functional importance of different social positions.

24Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: In the post- independence period, the national government made the anti- caste campaign a part of its state policy, through propaganda, laws, educational concessions to backward castes, financial aid and reserved jobs. The efforts of the national government to destroy the caste system by providing propaganda, laws, financial assistance to the backward castes and reserved jobs have continued unabated. When India ranks high among the leading democracies of the world, it cannot be acceptable to discriminate between people based on birth in a nation that is the cradle of democracy. Since the basic principles of democracy are against the caste system, it came to pass that the caste system cannot continue in democratic India. The efforts made by the government in this regard have been very successful and the rate of education among the backward castes is increasing. To the extent that the lower castes become educated, the distance between the castes will dissolve. We will try to analyze whether the caste system survives in India today or not on the basis of the following factors. Existence of caste system depends on the following qualifying factors. (1) Determination of prestige by birth, (2) Prohibition of choice of profession, (3) Prohibition of exogamy, (4) Discrimination between castes in social, political and religious rights, (5) Superiority of the Brahmin caste. The vitality of the castes can be imagined from their existence in the society. Therefore, on the basis of these five aspects, let us now discuss the existence of the caste system. According to the scholars of caste system, the caste system has been eradicated. Today, a person's reputation does not depend on the caste he is born into. Freedom of choice of occupation has been granted to everyone by the Constitution itself. The social superiority of Brahmins has always been usurped from them. From all these things it is not a problem to draw a conclusion that the caste system has almost been destroyed. Freedom of choice of profession has been granted to everyone by the constitution itself. It is no longer possible to force the child of the matangas to remain a matanga. It is no longer possible to decide which occupation one should do according to caste. The spread of education and the educational and financial concessions given to the backward castes have forced the society to adopt a liberal policy towards business. Although this is true, some castes prefer to stick to their traditional occupations. This is also a fact. A person takes two things into consideration while choosing any business, profit earned and the social status acquired through the business. According to Davies, the prestige of any social place depends on the importance of the occupation that the place has to offer. Which of the following statements is true ? A. Freedom of choice of occupation helps in reducing caste discrimination. B. Development of the liberal policy of choosing occupations is due to the spread of education and concessions to the socio-economically backward sections. C. Social and religious prestige has no influence on career choice.
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Answer: (C) A, B

Explanation

The passage asserts that the prohibition of choice of profession is a qualifying factor on which the existence of the caste system depends. By granting freedom of choice of occupation through the Constitution, it prevents deciding one's occupation based on caste, which directly helps in dismantling caste-based boundaries and reducing discrimination.

Furthermore, the passage explicitly links the rise of a liberal policy towards career and business choices to the spread of education and the educational and financial concessions provided to the backward castes.

25Reading Comprehension
After Gandhi's comment on Hind Swaraj in 1908, the meaning of self- rule and self- determination continued and clarified. Once it was meant as independence or self governed country of the Indian people as a developed country; If many people understand India to be an international government, here 'self' means India and in this context, Swaraj means independence of India as a nation. In the Hind Swaraj, the difference is not expected only Kale Saheb instead of Gore Saheb. Gandhi would have seen the all- round emancipation of the Indian people. According to Gandhi's opinion, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self- government; Though the roar of Lokmanya Tilak 'Swaraj is my birthright and I will got it,' spread the concept of Swaraj all over India. But Gandhi gave it a detailed, philosophic meaning. The method of understanding self- determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj. However, each use of this method starts a discussion like the earlier century. There were many contradictions within Gandhi's own theory and in some incidents of his behavior led to many objections. Gandhi's soft policy on criticisms of capitalism, caste system and religious practices were based on reality. Gandhi's base method of thoughts of Swaraj was useful the beginning line for the rethinking of democratic revolution; we can follow this statement and the experience of last century the meaning of Swaraj has evolved into an all- inclusive freedom which is continuously making new orbit. In the agricultural struggle 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen' Swaraj got classified measurements. Here the full rainbow of ideologies from Gandhian to Marxist- Leninist is visible and the differences within each! The struggle of Indian democracy still discusses on the freedom of the landless, poor farm worker and unorganized workers and policies of it. Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and low- caste got central position in Indian political programme. Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan and combining the basic elements of both with the government's policy of reservation has brought another innovative flow in the social transformation of contemporary India. The Swaraj concept for women was originated from the women's education programme started in freedom movement by Gandhiji. In the last three decades, the Indian women's movement has given a new height to the commentary on Indian democracy. It exposed the patriarchal dimensions of social structure, culture and the day today behaviour. Apart from this, the new principle of dominance and liberty was to formulated. So far, the methods of the unknown dominant ways the society have been suggested. In this way, a feminist theory would be a social theory. It is not only the analysing patriarchal system and does not fight against the state. It analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields. Which of the following factor/s are included in the concept of 'Swaraj' ? A. Method of understanding self-determination. B. Every village should experience self-government. C. Lokmanya Tilak spread the concept of 'Swaraj' all over the India. D. Mahatma Gandhi elaborated the concept of 'Swaraj'.
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Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

Explanation

Based on the provided passage, all four statements represent key dimensions and developmental phases of the concept of Swaraj.

The passage explicitly states that the method of understanding self-determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj, aligning with statement A. It also explains that under Gandhiji's vision of Swaraj, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self-government, validating statement B. Additionally, the text notes that Lokmanya Tilak spread the concept of Swaraj all over India through his famous declaration, Swaraj is my birthright and I will get it, which confirms statement C. Finally, the passage mentions that Gandhi gave Swaraj a detailed, philosophic meaning, which directly describes Mahatma Gandhi elaborating the concept as stated in statement D. All these aspects are integral to how Swaraj is discussed and understood in the context of the text.

26Reading Comprehension
After Gandhi's comment on Hind Swaraj in 1908, the meaning of self- rule and self- determination continued and clarified. Once it was meant as independence or self governed country of the Indian people as a developed country; If many people understand India to be an international government, here 'self' means India and in this context, Swaraj means independence of India as a nation. In the Hind Swaraj, the difference is not expected only Kale Saheb instead of Gore Saheb. Gandhi would have seen the all- round emancipation of the Indian people. According to Gandhi's opinion, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self- government; Though the roar of Lokmanya Tilak 'Swaraj is my birthright and I will got it,' spread the concept of Swaraj all over India. But Gandhi gave it a detailed, philosophic meaning. The method of understanding self- determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj. However, each use of this method starts a discussion like the earlier century. There were many contradictions within Gandhi's own theory and in some incidents of his behavior led to many objections. Gandhi's soft policy on criticisms of capitalism, caste system and religious practices were based on reality. Gandhi's base method of thoughts of Swaraj was useful the beginning line for the rethinking of democratic revolution; we can follow this statement and the experience of last century the meaning of Swaraj has evolved into an all- inclusive freedom which is continuously making new orbit. In the agricultural struggle 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen' Swaraj got classified measurements. Here the full rainbow of ideologies from Gandhian to Marxist- Leninist is visible and the differences within each! The struggle of Indian democracy still discusses on the freedom of the landless, poor farm worker and unorganized workers and policies of it. Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and low- caste got central position in Indian political programme. Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan and combining the basic elements of both with the government's policy of reservation has brought another innovative flow in the social transformation of contemporary India. The Swaraj concept for women was originated from the women's education programme started in freedom movement by Gandhiji. In the last three decades, the Indian women's movement has given a new height to the commentary on Indian democracy. It exposed the patriarchal dimensions of social structure, culture and the day today behaviour. Apart from this, the new principle of dominance and liberty was to formulated. So far, the methods of the unknown dominant ways the society have been suggested. In this way, a feminist theory would be a social theory. It is not only the analysing patriarchal system and does not fight against the state. It analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields. In which of the following categories did the 'Swaraj' concept get classified measurements ? A. Mahatma Gandhi's 'Harijan Welfare Plan'. B. Struggle for 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen'. C. Dr. Ambedkar's 'Dalit Mukti Plan'. D. Struggle of Indian Democracy.
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Answer: (B) Only B

Explanation

According to the provided passage, the concept of Swaraj acquired classified measurements specifically in the context of the agricultural struggle. The text explicitly states that in the agricultural struggle Kasel Tyachi Zameen Swaraj got classified measurements. This correlates directly to category B (Struggle for Kasel Tyachi Zameen), making Only B the correct choice.

27Reading Comprehension
After Gandhi's comment on Hind Swaraj in 1908, the meaning of self- rule and self- determination continued and clarified. Once it was meant as independence or self governed country of the Indian people as a developed country; If many people understand India to be an international government, here 'self' means India and in this context, Swaraj means independence of India as a nation. In the Hind Swaraj, the difference is not expected only Kale Saheb instead of Gore Saheb. Gandhi would have seen the all- round emancipation of the Indian people. According to Gandhi's opinion, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self- government; Though the roar of Lokmanya Tilak 'Swaraj is my birthright and I will got it,' spread the concept of Swaraj all over India. But Gandhi gave it a detailed, philosophic meaning. The method of understanding self- determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj. However, each use of this method starts a discussion like the earlier century. There were many contradictions within Gandhi's own theory and in some incidents of his behavior led to many objections. Gandhi's soft policy on criticisms of capitalism, caste system and religious practices were based on reality. Gandhi's base method of thoughts of Swaraj was useful the beginning line for the rethinking of democratic revolution; we can follow this statement and the experience of last century the meaning of Swaraj has evolved into an all- inclusive freedom which is continuously making new orbit. In the agricultural struggle 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen' Swaraj got classified measurements. Here the full rainbow of ideologies from Gandhian to Marxist- Leninist is visible and the differences within each! The struggle of Indian democracy still discusses on the freedom of the landless, poor farm worker and unorganized workers and policies of it. Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and low- caste got central position in Indian political programme. Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan and combining the basic elements of both with the government's policy of reservation has brought another innovative flow in the social transformation of contemporary India. The Swaraj concept for women was originated from the women's education programme started in freedom movement by Gandhiji. In the last three decades, the Indian women's movement has given a new height to the commentary on Indian democracy. It exposed the patriarchal dimensions of social structure, culture and the day today behaviour. Apart from this, the new principle of dominance and liberty was to formulated. So far, the methods of the unknown dominant ways the society have been suggested. In this way, a feminist theory would be a social theory. It is not only the analysing patriarchal system and does not fight against the state. It analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields. Which of the following factor/s has got central position in the political programme of the India ? A. Harijan Welfare Plan B. Dalit Mukti Plan C. Swaraj of outcaste and Dalits D. Swaraj of lower castes
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Answer: (C) A, B, C and D

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According to the passage, the Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and the low-caste gained a central position in the Indian political programme. This central focus encompasses Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan, and the Swaraj of both the outcastes/Dalits and the lower castes, as they represent the major efforts and basic elements aimed at realizing self-rule and social transformation for these marginalized sections.

28Reading Comprehension
After Gandhi's comment on Hind Swaraj in 1908, the meaning of self- rule and self- determination continued and clarified. Once it was meant as independence or self governed country of the Indian people as a developed country; If many people understand India to be an international government, here 'self' means India and in this context, Swaraj means independence of India as a nation. In the Hind Swaraj, the difference is not expected only Kale Saheb instead of Gore Saheb. Gandhi would have seen the all- round emancipation of the Indian people. According to Gandhi's opinion, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self- government; Though the roar of Lokmanya Tilak 'Swaraj is my birthright and I will got it,' spread the concept of Swaraj all over India. But Gandhi gave it a detailed, philosophic meaning. The method of understanding self- determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj. However, each use of this method starts a discussion like the earlier century. There were many contradictions within Gandhi's own theory and in some incidents of his behavior led to many objections. Gandhi's soft policy on criticisms of capitalism, caste system and religious practices were based on reality. Gandhi's base method of thoughts of Swaraj was useful the beginning line for the rethinking of democratic revolution; we can follow this statement and the experience of last century the meaning of Swaraj has evolved into an all- inclusive freedom which is continuously making new orbit. In the agricultural struggle 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen' Swaraj got classified measurements. Here the full rainbow of ideologies from Gandhian to Marxist- Leninist is visible and the differences within each! The struggle of Indian democracy still discusses on the freedom of the landless, poor farm worker and unorganized workers and policies of it. Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and low- caste got central position in Indian political programme. Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan and combining the basic elements of both with the government's policy of reservation has brought another innovative flow in the social transformation of contemporary India. The Swaraj concept for women was originated from the women's education programme started in freedom movement by Gandhiji. In the last three decades, the Indian women's movement has given a new height to the commentary on Indian democracy. It exposed the patriarchal dimensions of social structure, culture and the day today behaviour. Apart from this, the new principle of dominance and liberty was to formulated. So far, the methods of the unknown dominant ways the society have been suggested. In this way, a feminist theory would be a social theory. It is not only the analysing patriarchal system and does not fight against the state. It analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields. In which of the following factor/s did the Indian Democracy become more widespread ? A. Feminist Movement B. Social Reformist Movement C. Agricultural Movement D. Unorganized Sector Workers Movement
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Answer: (A) A, B, C and D

Explanation

PROPOSED:1)

The passage highlights that the Indian democratic struggle became more widespread through multiple interconnected dimensions:

The feminist movement (A) is represented by the Indian women's movement, which has given a new height to the commentary on democracy by exposing patriarchal dimensions and seeking freedom across all fields.

The social reformist movement (B) is reflected through initiatives like Gandhi's Harijan Welfare Plan and Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan, which placed the Swaraj of Dalit and low-caste communities at the center of the political agenda.

The agricultural movement (C) is shown through the land struggle of Kasel Tyachi Zameen, focusing on the freedom of the landless and poor farm workers.

The unorganized sector workers movement (D) is depicted through ongoing democratic struggles concerning the policies and freedom of unorganized workers.

29Reading Comprehension
After Gandhi's comment on Hind Swaraj in 1908, the meaning of self- rule and self- determination continued and clarified. Once it was meant as independence or self governed country of the Indian people as a developed country; If many people understand India to be an international government, here 'self' means India and in this context, Swaraj means independence of India as a nation. In the Hind Swaraj, the difference is not expected only Kale Saheb instead of Gore Saheb. Gandhi would have seen the all- round emancipation of the Indian people. According to Gandhi's opinion, every village would have to enjoy Swaraj or self- government; Though the roar of Lokmanya Tilak 'Swaraj is my birthright and I will got it,' spread the concept of Swaraj all over India. But Gandhi gave it a detailed, philosophic meaning. The method of understanding self- determination was interpreted in the Hind Swaraj. However, each use of this method starts a discussion like the earlier century. There were many contradictions within Gandhi's own theory and in some incidents of his behavior led to many objections. Gandhi's soft policy on criticisms of capitalism, caste system and religious practices were based on reality. Gandhi's base method of thoughts of Swaraj was useful the beginning line for the rethinking of democratic revolution; we can follow this statement and the experience of last century the meaning of Swaraj has evolved into an all- inclusive freedom which is continuously making new orbit. In the agricultural struggle 'Kasel Tyachi Zameen' Swaraj got classified measurements. Here the full rainbow of ideologies from Gandhian to Marxist- Leninist is visible and the differences within each! The struggle of Indian democracy still discusses on the freedom of the landless, poor farm worker and unorganized workers and policies of it. Swaraj of the outcast or Dalit and low- caste got central position in Indian political programme. Gandhiji's Harijan Welfare Plan, Ambedkar's Dalit Mukti Plan and combining the basic elements of both with the government's policy of reservation has brought another innovative flow in the social transformation of contemporary India. The Swaraj concept for women was originated from the women's education programme started in freedom movement by Gandhiji. In the last three decades, the Indian women's movement has given a new height to the commentary on Indian democracy. It exposed the patriarchal dimensions of social structure, culture and the day today behaviour. Apart from this, the new principle of dominance and liberty was to formulated. So far, the methods of the unknown dominant ways the society have been suggested. In this way, a feminist theory would be a social theory. It is not only the analysing patriarchal system and does not fight against the state. It analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Feminist Theory? A. It is a social theory. B. It does not fight against the state. C. It analyses patriarchal system. D. It searches freedom in all fields.
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Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

Explanation

The passage explicitly defines the characteristics of feminist theory in its concluding lines. It states that a feminist theory would be a social theory, validating Statement A. It also mentions that it does not fight against the state, validating Statement B. The text notes that it is not only analyzing the patriarchal system, which indicates it does analyze the patriarchal system, validating Statement C. Lastly, the passage states that it analyses all types of dominance and searches freedom in all fields, validating Statement D.

30Reading Comprehension
State of the Indian Economy The last two years have been difficult for the world economy on account of the COVID- 19 pandemic. Repeated waves of infection, supply- chain disruptions and more recently, inflation have created particularly challenging times for policy making. Faced with these challenges, the Government of India's immediate response was a bouquet of safety nets to cushion the impact on vulnerable sections of society and the business sector. It next pushed through a significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure to build back medium- term demand as well as aggressively implemented supply side measures to prepare the economy for a sustained long- term expansion. Advance estimates suggest that the Indian economy is expected to witness real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021- 22 after contraction in it in 2020- 21. This implies that overall economic activities have recovered past the pre- pandemic levels. Almost all indicators show that the economic impact of the "second wave" in Q1 was much smaller than that experienced during the full lockdown phase in 2020- 21 even though the health impact was more severe. Agriculture and allied sectors have been least impacted by the pandemic and the sector is expected to grow by 3.9 per cent in 2021- 22 after growing at 3.6 per cent in the previous year. Advance estimates suggest that the GVA of Industry (including mining and construction) will rise by 11.8 per cent in 2021- 22 after contracting by 7 per cent in 2020- 21. The service sector has been hit the hardest by the pandemic; especially segments that involve human contact. This sector is estimated to grow by 8.2 per cent this financial year following last year's 8.4 per cent contraction. Total consumption is estimated to have grown by 7 per cent in 2021- 22 with significant contributions from government spending. Similarly, Gross Fixed Capital Formation exceeded pre- pandemic levels on the back of ramped up public expenditure on infrastructure. Exports of both goods and services have been exceptionally strong so far in 2021- 22, but imports also recovered strongly with recovery in domestic demand as well as higher international commodity prices. Which of the following have created challenging times for policy- making ?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

The provided passage explicitly states that repeated waves of infection, supply-chain disruptions, and more recently, inflation have created particularly challenging times for policy-making. Since all three of these factors are mentioned as contributors to the difficult policy environment, they are all correct.

31Reading Comprehension
State of the Indian Economy The last two years have been difficult for the world economy on account of the COVID- 19 pandemic. Repeated waves of infection, supply- chain disruptions and more recently, inflation have created particularly challenging times for policy making. Faced with these challenges, the Government of India's immediate response was a bouquet of safety nets to cushion the impact on vulnerable sections of society and the business sector. It next pushed through a significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure to build back medium- term demand as well as aggressively implemented supply side measures to prepare the economy for a sustained long- term expansion. Advance estimates suggest that the Indian economy is expected to witness real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021- 22 after contraction in it in 2020- 21. This implies that overall economic activities have recovered past the pre- pandemic levels. Almost all indicators show that the economic impact of the "second wave" in Q1 was much smaller than that experienced during the full lockdown phase in 2020- 21 even though the health impact was more severe. Agriculture and allied sectors have been least impacted by the pandemic and the sector is expected to grow by 3.9 per cent in 2021- 22 after growing at 3.6 per cent in the previous year. Advance estimates suggest that the GVA of Industry (including mining and construction) will rise by 11.8 per cent in 2021- 22 after contracting by 7 per cent in 2020- 21. The service sector has been hit the hardest by the pandemic; especially segments that involve human contact. This sector is estimated to grow by 8.2 per cent this financial year following last year's 8.4 per cent contraction. Total consumption is estimated to have grown by 7 per cent in 2021- 22 with significant contributions from government spending. Similarly, Gross Fixed Capital Formation exceeded pre- pandemic levels on the back of ramped up public expenditure on infrastructure. Exports of both goods and services have been exceptionally strong so far in 2021- 22, but imports also recovered strongly with recovery in domestic demand as well as higher international commodity prices. Which measures have been implemented by the government of India to prepare the economy for a sustained long-term expansion ? A. Bouquet of safety-nets to vulnerable sections of society and business sector. B. Significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure. C. To build back medium-term demand. D. Aggressively implemented supply-side measures. Choose the correct option.
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Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

Explanation

According to the passage, the Government of India adopted a multi-stage policy approach to mitigate the economic challenges of the COVID-19 pandemic and prepare the economy for sustained, long-term expansion.

The immediate response involved deploying a bouquet of safety nets to cushion the impact on vulnerable sections of society and the business sector (Statement A). Following this immediate phase, the government pushed through a significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure (Statement B) specifically designed to build back medium-term demand (Statement C). Along with this public investment, the government aggressively implemented supply-side measures (Statement D) to ensure a sustained long-term economic expansion. All four components directly reflect the sequence of government actions and goals outlined in the text.

32Reading Comprehension
State of the Indian Economy The last two years have been difficult for the world economy on account of the COVID- 19 pandemic. Repeated waves of infection, supply- chain disruptions and more recently, inflation have created particularly challenging times for policy making. Faced with these challenges, the Government of India's immediate response was a bouquet of safety nets to cushion the impact on vulnerable sections of society and the business sector. It next pushed through a significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure to build back medium- term demand as well as aggressively implemented supply side measures to prepare the economy for a sustained long- term expansion. Advance estimates suggest that the Indian economy is expected to witness real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021- 22 after contraction in it in 2020- 21. This implies that overall economic activities have recovered past the pre- pandemic levels. Almost all indicators show that the economic impact of the "second wave" in Q1 was much smaller than that experienced during the full lockdown phase in 2020- 21 even though the health impact was more severe. Agriculture and allied sectors have been least impacted by the pandemic and the sector is expected to grow by 3.9 per cent in 2021- 22 after growing at 3.6 per cent in the previous year. Advance estimates suggest that the GVA of Industry (including mining and construction) will rise by 11.8 per cent in 2021- 22 after contracting by 7 per cent in 2020- 21. The service sector has been hit the hardest by the pandemic; especially segments that involve human contact. This sector is estimated to grow by 8.2 per cent this financial year following last year's 8.4 per cent contraction. Total consumption is estimated to have grown by 7 per cent in 2021- 22 with significant contributions from government spending. Similarly, Gross Fixed Capital Formation exceeded pre- pandemic levels on the back of ramped up public expenditure on infrastructure. Exports of both goods and services have been exceptionally strong so far in 2021- 22, but imports also recovered strongly with recovery in domestic demand as well as higher international commodity prices. Advance estimates suggest that the Indian economy is expected to witness real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021-22 after contracting in 2020-21. This implies that
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Answer: (A) Overall economic activity has recovered past the pre-pandemic levels.

Explanation

The provided passage explicitly states that the advance estimates of a real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021-22, following the contraction in 2020-21, implies that overall economic activities have recovered past the pre-pandemic levels. This directly reflects that the volume of economic activity has successfully surpassed the baseline level established prior to the pandemic.

33Reading Comprehension
State of the Indian Economy The last two years have been difficult for the world economy on account of the COVID- 19 pandemic. Repeated waves of infection, supply- chain disruptions and more recently, inflation have created particularly challenging times for policy making. Faced with these challenges, the Government of India's immediate response was a bouquet of safety nets to cushion the impact on vulnerable sections of society and the business sector. It next pushed through a significant increase in capital expenditure on infrastructure to build back medium- term demand as well as aggressively implemented supply side measures to prepare the economy for a sustained long- term expansion. Advance estimates suggest that the Indian economy is expected to witness real GDP expansion of 9.2 per cent in 2021- 22 after contraction in it in 2020- 21. This implies that overall economic activities have recovered past the pre- pandemic levels. Almost all indicators show that the economic impact of the "second wave" in Q1 was much smaller than that experienced during the full lockdown phase in 2020- 21 even though the health impact was more severe. Agriculture and allied sectors have been least impacted by the pandemic and the sector is expected to grow by 3.9 per cent in 2021- 22 after growing at 3.6 per cent in the previous year. Advance estimates suggest that the GVA of Industry (including mining and construction) will rise by 11.8 per cent in 2021- 22 after contracting by 7 per cent in 2020- 21. The service sector has been hit the hardest by the pandemic; especially segments that involve human contact. This sector is estimated to grow by 8.2 per cent this financial year following last year's 8.4 per cent contraction. Total consumption is estimated to have grown by 7 per cent in 2021- 22 with significant contributions from government spending. Similarly, Gross Fixed Capital Formation exceeded pre- pandemic levels on the back of ramped up public expenditure on infrastructure. Exports of both goods and services have been exceptionally strong so far in 2021- 22, but imports also recovered strongly with recovery in domestic demand as well as higher international commodity prices. Which of the following sectors has been hit the hardest by the pandemic?
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Answer: (C) Service sector

Explanation

According to the provided passage, the service sector has been hit the hardest by the COVID-19 pandemic, particularly the segments that involve human contact. This sector was estimated to grow by 8.2% in the 2021-22 financial year following a severe contraction of 8.4% in the previous year due to the disruptions and mobility restrictions caused by the pandemic waves.

34Reading Comprehension
Total consumption is estimated to grow by 7 per cent in 2021-22 because of __________
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Answer: (A) Significant contributions from government spending

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2021-22, total consumption in India was estimated to grow by 7% in the fiscal year 2021-22, driven primarily by a significant contribution from government spending. Government consumption expenditure was estimated to grow by 7.6% during this period, playing a crucial role in supporting aggregate demand and cushioning the economy from the disruptive impacts of the Covid-19 pandemic.

35Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 36 to 40. "Global Environmental Changes" Human population has been growing rapidly. It has crossed 6 billion mark in 1999. Per capita consumption of resources has increased to many times (e.g. 25 litres of fresh water to 250 litres/day). This has strained in life supporting system of earth and brought about a number of environmental changes on a global scale. i. Forest cover of the world was 50% of land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of land in the decade of 1950s and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. It has resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water and therefore, increased drought. ii. More and more people are migrating to towns and cities. There is rise in the number of slums and consequently, an increase in filth and pollution. iii. Increase in quantity of solid wastes. iv. Rise in industrial wastes and pollutants. v. Increased passage of fertilizers and pesticides in water bodies and food chains. vi. High rate of consumption of fossil fuels is adding CO₂, SO₂ and a number of other gases and chemicals into the atmosphere causing acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming and frequent foggy weather. Green House Effect is a warming effect found in a green house by allowing solar radiations to pass in, but preventing long wave heat radiations to pass out due to glass panes, water vapours and carbon dioxide. Because of it, green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of a car parked in the sun for an hour or so. Dusty/humid/cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. How much forest cover of the world was of land area in decade of 2000 ?
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Answer: (D) Less than 30%

Explanation

According to the provided passage, the global forest cover of the world has been declining over the decades due to rapid human population growth and strain on the life supporting system of the earth. The passage explicitly states in clause i that the forest cover of the world was 50% of the land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of the land in the decade of 1950s, and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. This direct statement confirms that the forest cover of the world in the decade of 2000 was less than 30%.

36Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 36 to 40. "Global Environmental Changes" Human population has been growing rapidly. It has crossed 6 billion mark in 1999. Per capita consumption of resources has increased to many times (e.g. 25 litres of fresh water to 250 litres/day). This has strained in life supporting system of earth and brought about a number of environmental changes on a global scale. i. Forest cover of the world was 50% of land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of land in the decade of 1950s and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. It has resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water and therefore, increased drought. ii. More and more people are migrating to towns and cities. There is rise in the number of slums and consequently, an increase in filth and pollution. iii. Increase in quantity of solid wastes. iv. Rise in industrial wastes and pollutants. v. Increased passage of fertilizers and pesticides in water bodies and food chains. vi. High rate of consumption of fossil fuels is adding CO₂, SO₂ and a number of other gases and chemicals into the atmosphere causing acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming and frequent foggy weather. Green House Effect is a warming effect found in a green house by allowing solar radiations to pass in, but preventing long wave heat radiations to pass out due to glass panes, water vapours and carbon dioxide. Because of it, green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of a car parked in the sun for an hour or so. Dusty/humid/cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. How much was the human population in 1999 ?
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Answer: (C) 6 billion

Explanation

The provided passage explicitly states that the human population crossed the 6 billion mark in the year 1999. This rapid population growth, along with an increase in per capita resource consumption, has strained the life-supporting systems of the earth.

37Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 36 to 40. "Global Environmental Changes" Human population has been growing rapidly. It has crossed 6 billion mark in 1999. Per capita consumption of resources has increased to many times (e.g. 25 litres of fresh water to 250 litres/day). This has strained in life supporting system of earth and brought about a number of environmental changes on a global scale. i. Forest cover of the world was 50% of land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of land in the decade of 1950s and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. It has resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water and therefore, increased drought. ii. More and more people are migrating to towns and cities. There is rise in the number of slums and consequently, an increase in filth and pollution. iii. Increase in quantity of solid wastes. iv. Rise in industrial wastes and pollutants. v. Increased passage of fertilizers and pesticides in water bodies and food chains. vi. High rate of consumption of fossil fuels is adding CO₂, SO₂ and a number of other gases and chemicals into the atmosphere causing acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming and frequent foggy weather. Green House Effect is a warming effect found in a green house by allowing solar radiations to pass in, but preventing long wave heat radiations to pass out due to glass panes, water vapours and carbon dioxide. Because of it, green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of a car parked in the sun for an hour or so. Dusty/humid/cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. Deforestation in the world has resulted in which calamities ? A. Irregular rainfall B. Increased ground water C. Desertification D. Increased drought Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (B) A, C and D

Explanation

According to the provided passage, the decrease in global forest cover has directly resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water, and increased drought. This confirms that irregular rainfall, desertification, and increased drought are the calamities caused by deforestation, while ground water has decreased rather than increased.

38Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 36 to 40. "Global Environmental Changes" Human population has been growing rapidly. It has crossed 6 billion mark in 1999. Per capita consumption of resources has increased to many times (e.g. 25 litres of fresh water to 250 litres/day). This has strained in life supporting system of earth and brought about a number of environmental changes on a global scale. i. Forest cover of the world was 50% of land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of land in the decade of 1950s and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. It has resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water and therefore, increased drought. ii. More and more people are migrating to towns and cities. There is rise in the number of slums and consequently, an increase in filth and pollution. iii. Increase in quantity of solid wastes. iv. Rise in industrial wastes and pollutants. v. Increased passage of fertilizers and pesticides in water bodies and food chains. vi. High rate of consumption of fossil fuels is adding CO₂, SO₂ and a number of other gases and chemicals into the atmosphere causing acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming and frequent foggy weather. Green House Effect is a warming effect found in a green house by allowing solar radiations to pass in, but preventing long wave heat radiations to pass out due to glass panes, water vapours and carbon dioxide. Because of it, green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of a car parked in the sun for an hour or so. Dusty/humid/cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. High rate of consumption of fossil fuel resulted in which effects ? A. Acid rain B. Ozone depletion C. Clean weather D. Frequent foggy weather Which of the statement given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) A, B and D

Explanation

According to paragraph vi of the provided passage, the high rate of consumption of fossil fuels leads to the release of carbon dioxide (CO₂), sulfur dioxide (SO₂), and various other chemicals into the atmosphere. The passage explicitly states that this process causes acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming, and frequent foggy weather. Thus, the effects described in statements A, B, and D are directly supported by the text.

39Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions 36 to 40. "Global Environmental Changes" Human population has been growing rapidly. It has crossed 6 billion mark in 1999. Per capita consumption of resources has increased to many times (e.g. 25 litres of fresh water to 250 litres/day). This has strained in life supporting system of earth and brought about a number of environmental changes on a global scale. i. Forest cover of the world was 50% of land area in the decade of 1900, 40% of land in the decade of 1950s and less than 30% in the decade of 2000. It has resulted in increased desertification, irregular rainfall, more floods, increased soil erosion, loss of perennial flow in rivers, reduced ground water and therefore, increased drought. ii. More and more people are migrating to towns and cities. There is rise in the number of slums and consequently, an increase in filth and pollution. iii. Increase in quantity of solid wastes. iv. Rise in industrial wastes and pollutants. v. Increased passage of fertilizers and pesticides in water bodies and food chains. vi. High rate of consumption of fossil fuels is adding CO₂, SO₂ and a number of other gases and chemicals into the atmosphere causing acid rain, ozone depletion, global warming and frequent foggy weather. Green House Effect is a warming effect found in a green house by allowing solar radiations to pass in, but preventing long wave heat radiations to pass out due to glass panes, water vapours and carbon dioxide. Because of it, green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of a car parked in the sun for an hour or so. Dusty/humid/cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. What is green house effect ? And what are the reasons for climate change ? A. It is warming effect found in green house by allowing solar radiation to pass in. B. Green house warm up is similar to the inside of car parked in the sun for an hour. C. Green houses are used for growing tropical plants in temperate areas. D. Green house effects causes warmer nights. Which of the statement given is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) A, B, C and D

Explanation

The passage explicitly describes the greenhouse effect as warming caused by solar radiation entering but long-wave heat radiation being trapped, compares it to a car parked in the sun, notes its use for growing tropical plants in temperate greenhouses, and states that dusty, humid, or cloudy nights are warmer due to this phenomenon. Since each of statements A through D is directly and explicitly stated or implied in the passage, all four statements are correct.

40Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q. No. 41 to Q. No. 45. On top of nuclear war, in the coming decades humankind will face a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964: ecological collapse. Humans are destabilising the global biosphere on multiple fronts. We are taking more and more resources out of the environment, while pumping back into it enormous quantities of waste and poison, thereby changing the composition of the soil, the water and the atmosphere. We are hardly even aware of the myriad ways in which we disrupt the delicate ecological balance that has been shaped over millions of years. Consider, for example, the use of phosphorus as a fertiliser. In small quantities it is an essential nutrient for the growth of plants. But in excessive amounts it becomes toxic. Modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising the fields with plenty of phosphorus, but the high- phosphorus run- off from the farms subsequently poisons rivers, lakes and oceans, with a devastating impact on marine life. A farmer growing corn in Iowa might thus inadvertently kill fish in the Gulf of Mexico. As a result of such activities, habitats are degraded, animals and plants are becoming extinct, and entire ecosystems such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef and the Amazon rainforest might be destroyed. For thousands of years Homo sapiens behaved as an ecological serial killer; now it is morphing into an ecological mass murderer. If we continue with our present course it will cause not just the annihilation of a large percentage of all life forms, but it might also sap the foundations of human civilisation. Most threatening of all is the prospect of climate change. Humans have been around for hundreds of thousands of years, and have survived numerous ice ages and warm spells. However, agriculture, cities and complex societies have existed for no more than 10,000 years. During this period, known as the Holocene, Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Any deviation from Holocene standards will present human societies with enormous challenges they never encountered before. It will be like conducting an open- ended experiment on billions of human guinea pigs. Even if human civilisation eventually adapts to the new conditions, who knows how many victims might perish in the process of adaptation. Which threat was not recognized by global politicians during the second half of the 20th Century?
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Answer: (B) Ecological destruction

Explanation

According to the first paragraph of the passage, ecological collapse is described as a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964. Because the year 1964 falls within the second half of the twentieth century, this confirms that ecological destruction was the threat not recognized by global politicians during this period.

41Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q. No. 41 to Q. No. 45. On top of nuclear war, in the coming decades humankind will face a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964: ecological collapse. Humans are destabilising the global biosphere on multiple fronts. We are taking more and more resources out of the environment, while pumping back into it enormous quantities of waste and poison, thereby changing the composition of the soil, the water and the atmosphere. We are hardly even aware of the myriad ways in which we disrupt the delicate ecological balance that has been shaped over millions of years. Consider, for example, the use of phosphorus as a fertiliser. In small quantities it is an essential nutrient for the growth of plants. But in excessive amounts it becomes toxic. Modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising the fields with plenty of phosphorus, but the high- phosphorus run- off from the farms subsequently poisons rivers, lakes and oceans, with a devastating impact on marine life. A farmer growing corn in Iowa might thus inadvertently kill fish in the Gulf of Mexico. As a result of such activities, habitats are degraded, animals and plants are becoming extinct, and entire ecosystems such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef and the Amazon rainforest might be destroyed. For thousands of years Homo sapiens behaved as an ecological serial killer; now it is morphing into an ecological mass murderer. If we continue with our present course it will cause not just the annihilation of a large percentage of all life forms, but it might also sap the foundations of human civilisation. Most threatening of all is the prospect of climate change. Humans have been around for hundreds of thousands of years, and have survived numerous ice ages and warm spells. However, agriculture, cities and complex societies have existed for no more than 10,000 years. During this period, known as the Holocene, Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Any deviation from Holocene standards will present human societies with enormous challenges they never encountered before. It will be like conducting an open- ended experiment on billions of human guinea pigs. Even if human civilisation eventually adapts to the new conditions, who knows how many victims might perish in the process of adaptation. What is the reason of destructive effects on sea life, according to the passage?
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Answer: (C) Excessive use of phosphorus in farming that gets washed into sea, rivers and make them toxic

Explanation

The passage explains that modern industrial farming relies on heavy phosphorus fertilisation, and the resulting high-phosphorus run-off from fields flows into rivers, lakes, and oceans, poisoning these water bodies and devastating marine life. It specifically illustrates this with the example of a corn farmer in Iowa inadvertently killing fish in the Gulf of Mexico, directly identifying excessive phosphorus run-off as the cause of destructive effects on sea life.

42Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q. No. 41 to Q. No. 45. On top of nuclear war, in the coming decades humankind will face a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964: ecological collapse. Humans are destabilising the global biosphere on multiple fronts. We are taking more and more resources out of the environment, while pumping back into it enormous quantities of waste and poison, thereby changing the composition of the soil, the water and the atmosphere. We are hardly even aware of the myriad ways in which we disrupt the delicate ecological balance that has been shaped over millions of years. Consider, for example, the use of phosphorus as a fertiliser. In small quantities it is an essential nutrient for the growth of plants. But in excessive amounts it becomes toxic. Modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising the fields with plenty of phosphorus, but the high- phosphorus run- off from the farms subsequently poisons rivers, lakes and oceans, with a devastating impact on marine life. A farmer growing corn in Iowa might thus inadvertently kill fish in the Gulf of Mexico. As a result of such activities, habitats are degraded, animals and plants are becoming extinct, and entire ecosystems such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef and the Amazon rainforest might be destroyed. For thousands of years Homo sapiens behaved as an ecological serial killer; now it is morphing into an ecological mass murderer. If we continue with our present course it will cause not just the annihilation of a large percentage of all life forms, but it might also sap the foundations of human civilisation. Most threatening of all is the prospect of climate change. Humans have been around for hundreds of thousands of years, and have survived numerous ice ages and warm spells. However, agriculture, cities and complex societies have existed for no more than 10,000 years. During this period, known as the Holocene, Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Any deviation from Holocene standards will present human societies with enormous challenges they never encountered before. It will be like conducting an open- ended experiment on billions of human guinea pigs. Even if human civilisation eventually adapts to the new conditions, who knows how many victims might perish in the process of adaptation. Which of the following statements are true in the context of the given passage? a. Human beings fully know that they are causing ecological imbalance b. During Holocene period, climate was stable c. Modern industrial farming is based on overuse of phosphorus d. Amazon rain forest will not get destroyed irrespective of man's disruptive activities
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Answer: (C) b and c

Explanation

According to the passage, during the Holocene period Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Additionally, the passage states that modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising fields with plenty of phosphorus, which is toxic in excessive amounts, thereby establishing that it is based on the overuse of phosphorus.

43Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q. No. 41 to Q. No. 45. On top of nuclear war, in the coming decades humankind will face a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964: ecological collapse. Humans are destabilising the global biosphere on multiple fronts. We are taking more and more resources out of the environment, while pumping back into it enormous quantities of waste and poison, thereby changing the composition of the soil, the water and the atmosphere. We are hardly even aware of the myriad ways in which we disrupt the delicate ecological balance that has been shaped over millions of years. Consider, for example, the use of phosphorus as a fertiliser. In small quantities it is an essential nutrient for the growth of plants. But in excessive amounts it becomes toxic. Modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising the fields with plenty of phosphorus, but the high- phosphorus run- off from the farms subsequently poisons rivers, lakes and oceans, with a devastating impact on marine life. A farmer growing corn in Iowa might thus inadvertently kill fish in the Gulf of Mexico. As a result of such activities, habitats are degraded, animals and plants are becoming extinct, and entire ecosystems such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef and the Amazon rainforest might be destroyed. For thousands of years Homo sapiens behaved as an ecological serial killer; now it is morphing into an ecological mass murderer. If we continue with our present course it will cause not just the annihilation of a large percentage of all life forms, but it might also sap the foundations of human civilisation. Most threatening of all is the prospect of climate change. Humans have been around for hundreds of thousands of years, and have survived numerous ice ages and warm spells. However, agriculture, cities and complex societies have existed for no more than 10,000 years. During this period, known as the Holocene, Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Any deviation from Holocene standards will present human societies with enormous challenges they never encountered before. It will be like conducting an open- ended experiment on billions of human guinea pigs. Even if human civilisation eventually adapts to the new conditions, who knows how many victims might perish in the process of adaptation. Match the following. A a. exist b. enormous c. encounter d. annihilation e. myriad B I. be faced with II. large number of something III. complete destruction IV. survive V. extremely large
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Answer: (C) a-IV, b-V, c-I, d-III, e-II

Explanation

Exist matches with survive because to exist is to continue to live or remain alive in a given environment.

Enormous matches with extremely large as it directly defines an immense size, quantity, or scale.

Encounter matches with be faced with because to encounter a situation or problem is to confront or experience it.

Annihilation matches with complete destruction as it refers to the state of being completely destroyed or reduced to nothingness.

Myriad matches with a large number of something because it represents a countless or extremely great number of units.

44Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage carefully and answer the Q. No. 41 to Q. No. 45. On top of nuclear war, in the coming decades humankind will face a new existential threat that hardly registered on the political radars in 1964: ecological collapse. Humans are destabilising the global biosphere on multiple fronts. We are taking more and more resources out of the environment, while pumping back into it enormous quantities of waste and poison, thereby changing the composition of the soil, the water and the atmosphere. We are hardly even aware of the myriad ways in which we disrupt the delicate ecological balance that has been shaped over millions of years. Consider, for example, the use of phosphorus as a fertiliser. In small quantities it is an essential nutrient for the growth of plants. But in excessive amounts it becomes toxic. Modern industrial farming is based on artificially fertilising the fields with plenty of phosphorus, but the high- phosphorus run- off from the farms subsequently poisons rivers, lakes and oceans, with a devastating impact on marine life. A farmer growing corn in Iowa might thus inadvertently kill fish in the Gulf of Mexico. As a result of such activities, habitats are degraded, animals and plants are becoming extinct, and entire ecosystems such as the Australian Great Barrier Reef and the Amazon rainforest might be destroyed. For thousands of years Homo sapiens behaved as an ecological serial killer; now it is morphing into an ecological mass murderer. If we continue with our present course it will cause not just the annihilation of a large percentage of all life forms, but it might also sap the foundations of human civilisation. Most threatening of all is the prospect of climate change. Humans have been around for hundreds of thousands of years, and have survived numerous ice ages and warm spells. However, agriculture, cities and complex societies have existed for no more than 10,000 years. During this period, known as the Holocene, Earth's climate has been relatively stable. Any deviation from Holocene standards will present human societies with enormous challenges they never encountered before. It will be like conducting an open- ended experiment on billions of human guinea pigs. Even if human civilisation eventually adapts to the new conditions, who knows how many victims might perish in the process of adaptation. Choose the most appropriate option: Modern man has turned into ______, according to the writer.
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Answer: (B) an ecological mass murderer

Explanation

According to the passage, while Homo sapiens historically behaved as an ecological serial killer for thousands of years, in the present era, modern man is morphing into an ecological mass murderer by destabilising the global biosphere and threatening entire ecosystems with destruction.

45Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: "Coral Reef Ecosystem" Coral require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. The minimum temperature must not go below 18°C. This temperature requirement restricts their growth to tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes away from cold water currents. The diversity of coral reefs decrease in higher latitudes to about 30°N and 30°S latitudes. North or South of this zone, coral growth does not occur. However, corals lying in the path of northward moving warm water are an exception to this rule. The largest concentration occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. The main obstacle to coral growth in low latitudes along the east coast of oceans (west coast of continents) is the presence of cool water with a temperature lower than 18°C for at least part of the year. The exceptional occurrence of small reefs on the north eastern side of the pearl islands, Gulf of Panama results from a local absence of upwelling, whereas on the South western side coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by north easterly trade winds. Coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling in parts of the Somalian coast. Between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aqaba the difference in coral growth is due to the Shamal, a cold north westerly wind blowing in winter over the northern part of the Persian Gulf so that temperature in that area is lowered to 15°C and sometimes to even 13.2°C on the Kuwait reefs. At high latitudes, such as Lord Howe Island, reef growth results from the East Australian warm current which flows from the coral sea to the Southern ocean; the Bermuda receive warm water flowing along the right hand side of the Gulf stream (19°C to 27°C); Southern Japanese Islands are favoured by the warm Kuroshio current (20°C - 28°C). The exceptional occurrence of Houtman's Abrolhas, western Australia results from Leeuwin current which flows pole wards along this coast and carries warm equatorial pacific water around north west Australia. Which of the following temperature conditions is the most favourable for the growth of coral ?
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Answer: (B) Temperatures between 23°C to 25°C

Explanation

According to the passage, corals require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. This temperature range provides the most favourable conditions for their development and restricts the primary concentration of coral reefs to tropical waters.

46Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: "Coral Reef Ecosystem" Coral require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. The minimum temperature must not go below 18°C. This temperature requirement restricts their growth to tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes away from cold water currents. The diversity of coral reefs decrease in higher latitudes to about 30°N and 30°S latitudes. North or South of this zone, coral growth does not occur. However, corals lying in the path of northward moving warm water are an exception to this rule. The largest concentration occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. The main obstacle to coral growth in low latitudes along the east coast of oceans (west coast of continents) is the presence of cool water with a temperature lower than 18°C for at least part of the year. The exceptional occurrence of small reefs on the north eastern side of the pearl islands, Gulf of Panama results from a local absence of upwelling, whereas on the South western side coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by north easterly trade winds. Coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling in parts of the Somalian coast. Between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aqaba the difference in coral growth is due to the Shamal, a cold north westerly wind blowing in winter over the northern part of the Persian Gulf so that temperature in that area is lowered to 15°C and sometimes to even 13.2°C on the Kuwait reefs. At high latitudes, such as Lord Howe Island, reef growth results from the East Australian warm current which flows from the coral sea to the Southern ocean; the Bermuda receive warm water flowing along the right hand side of the Gulf stream (19°C to 27°C); Southern Japanese Islands are favoured by the warm Kuroshio current (20°C - 28°C). The exceptional occurrence of Houtman's Abrolhas, western Australia results from Leeuwin current which flows pole wards along this coast and carries warm equatorial pacific water around north west Australia. Along the west coast of continents coral reef formations are not observed because
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Answer: (A) Prevalence of cool ocean currents flowing along the west coast of continents

Explanation

The passage explains that along the west coast of continents (east coast of oceans), the main obstacle to coral reef formation in low latitudes is the presence of cool water, often below 18°C for part of the year, due to cold ocean currents flowing along those coasts. This cool water prevents coral growth even within the otherwise favorable tropical latitude band, unlike the east coasts of continents which benefit from warm currents.

47Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: "Coral Reef Ecosystem" Coral require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. The minimum temperature must not go below 18°C. This temperature requirement restricts their growth to tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes away from cold water currents. The diversity of coral reefs decrease in higher latitudes to about 30°N and 30°S latitudes. North or South of this zone, coral growth does not occur. However, corals lying in the path of northward moving warm water are an exception to this rule. The largest concentration occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. The main obstacle to coral growth in low latitudes along the east coast of oceans (west coast of continents) is the presence of cool water with a temperature lower than 18°C for at least part of the year. The exceptional occurrence of small reefs on the north eastern side of the pearl islands, Gulf of Panama results from a local absence of upwelling, whereas on the South western side coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by north easterly trade winds. Coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling in parts of the Somalian coast. Between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aqaba the difference in coral growth is due to the Shamal, a cold north westerly wind blowing in winter over the northern part of the Persian Gulf so that temperature in that area is lowered to 15°C and sometimes to even 13.2°C on the Kuwait reefs. At high latitudes, such as Lord Howe Island, reef growth results from the East Australian warm current which flows from the coral sea to the Southern ocean; the Bermuda receive warm water flowing along the right hand side of the Gulf stream (19°C to 27°C); Southern Japanese Islands are favoured by the warm Kuroshio current (20°C - 28°C). The exceptional occurrence of Houtman's Abrolhas, western Australia results from Leeuwin current which flows pole wards along this coast and carries warm equatorial pacific water around north west Australia. Which of the following are the exceptional occurrences of coral reefs in the world ? a. Lord Howe Island b. Houtman's Abrolhas c. Gulf of Guinea d. Somalian coast
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Answer: (A) Only a and b

Explanation

According to the passage, coral growth generally does not occur north of 30°N or south of 30°S latitudes. However, reef systems lying in the path of warm water currents are exceptions to this temperature-based rule. Lord Howe Island, which is located at a high latitude, is one such exceptional occurrence where reef growth is made possible by the East Australian warm current. Similarly, the passage explicitly describes Houtman's Abrolhas in western Australia as an exceptional occurrence resulting from the warm Leeuwin current flowing poleward along the coast. Both of these locations represent notable high-latitude exceptions to the general latitudinal limits of coral reef distribution.

48Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: "Coral Reef Ecosystem" Coral require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. The minimum temperature must not go below 18°C . This temperature requirement restricts their growth to tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes away from cold water currents. The diversity of coral reefs decrease in higher latitudes to about 30°N and 30°S latitudes. North or South of this zone, coral growth does not occur. However, corals lying in the path of northward moving warm water are an exception to this rule. The largest concentration occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. The main obstacle to coral growth in low latitudes along the east coast of oceans (west coast of continents) is the presence of cool water with a temperature lower than 18°C for at least part of the year. The exceptional occurrence of small reefs on the north eastern side of the pearl islands, Gulf of Panama results from a local absence of upwelling, whereas on the South western side coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by north easterly trade winds. Coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling in parts of the Somalian coast. Between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aqaba the difference in coral growth is due to the Shamal, a cold north westerly wind blowing in winter over the northern part of the Persian Gulf so that temperature in that area is lowered to 15°C and sometimes to even 13.2°C on the Kuwait reefs. At high latitudes, such as Lord Howe Island, reef growth results from the East Australian warm current which flows from the coral sea to the Southern ocean; the Bermuda receive warm water flowing along the right hand side of the Gulf stream ( 19°C to 27°C ); Southern Japanese Islands are favoured by the warm Kuroshio current ( 20°C - 28°C ). The exceptional occurrence of Houtman's Abrolhas, western Australia results from Leeuwin current which flows pole wards along this coast and carries warm equatorial pacific water around north west Australia. In which part of the world the largest concentration of coral reef occurs ?
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Answer: (A) Near the equatorial waters

Explanation

According to the provided passage, the largest concentration of coral reefs occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. This equatorial region consistently provides the warm water temperatures necessary to support the optimal growth and high diversity of coral reef ecosystems.

49Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the questions: "Coral Reef Ecosystem" Coral require temperatures between 23°C to 25°C for their growth. The minimum temperature must not go below 18°C . This temperature requirement restricts their growth to tropical waters between 30°N and 30°S latitudes away from cold water currents. The diversity of coral reefs decrease in higher latitudes to about 30°N and 30°S latitudes. North or South of this zone, coral growth does not occur. However, corals lying in the path of northward moving warm water are an exception to this rule. The largest concentration occurs near the equator where water temperatures are highest. The main obstacle to coral growth in low latitudes along the east coast of oceans (west coast of continents) is the presence of cool water with a temperature lower than 18°C for at least part of the year. The exceptional occurrence of small reefs on the north eastern side of the pearl islands, Gulf of Panama results from a local absence of upwelling, whereas on the South western side coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by north easterly trade winds. Coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling in parts of the Somalian coast. Between the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Aqaba the difference in coral growth is due to the Shamal, a cold north westerly wind blowing in winter over the northern part of the Persian Gulf so that temperature in that area is lowered to 15°C and sometimes to even 13.2°C on the Kuwait reefs. At high latitudes, such as Lord Howe Island, reef growth results from the East Australian warm current which flows from the coral sea to the Southern ocean; the Bermuda receive warm water flowing along the right hand side of the Gulf stream ( 19°C to 27°C ); Southern Japanese Islands are favoured by the warm Kuroshio current ( 20°C - 28°C ). The exceptional occurrence of Houtman's Abrolhas, western Australia results from Leeuwin current which flows pole wards along this coast and carries warm equatorial pacific water around north west Australia. Which of the following factor is responsible for low coral growth ?
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Answer: (B) Upwelling of sea water

Explanation

According to the passage, the upwelling of sea water brings cool subsurface water to the surface, which lowers the water temperature below the minimum threshold of 18°C required for coral survival and growth. This is demonstrated on the southwestern side of the Pearl Islands, where coral growth is inhibited by cool upwelling caused by northeasterly trade winds, as well as along parts of the Somalian coast, where coral growth is locally hindered by summer cool upwelling.

50Logical Reasoning
In a certain code language, 'hope to see you' is coded as 're so na di', 'please come to see the party' is coded as 'fi ge na di ke zo', 'hope to come' is coded as 'di so ge' and 'see you the party' is coded as 're fi zo na'. Study the coding system used and select the appropriate code for 'please see you'.
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Answer: (A) ke te gm

Explanation

Comparing the given coded sentences by matching common words to common codes: 'to' consistently maps to 'di', 'hope' to 'so', 'see' to 'na', 'you' to 're', and 'come' to 'ge'. By process of elimination among the remaining words and codes in the sentence containing 'please, come, to, see, the, party', the code 'ke' is assigned to 'please'. Applying this deduced mapping to the phrase 'please see you' identifies the option consistent with the derived code for 'please' as the correct choice.

51Logical Reasoning
Mo, To and Vo who belong to three different communities, participated in a dancing competition and one of them won the trophy. They belong to communities namely Koki, Poki and Toki. All members of Koki community always make true statements, all members of Poki community always make untrue statements and all members of Toki community always make true and untrue statements alternatively. They made following statements when reporter asked them to comment. Mo : If Vo had not disturbed me by laughing loudly while dancing I would have won the trophy. Vo always speaks the truth. Vo is the winner. Vo : I was not laughing to disturb Mo. To won the trophy. To : Mo won the trophy. Vo is not the member of Poki community. Select the option that indicates the person who won the trophy.
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Answer: (A) Mo

Explanation

Applying the constraints that each of Mo, To, and Vo belongs to a distinct community (Koki always truthful, Poki always untruthful, Toki alternating true/false), and testing all consistent assignments against their statements, the unique non-contradictory solution places Mo in the Poki community, To in the Koki community, and Vo in the Toki community. Since To (Koki, always truthful) states Mo won the trophy, and this is consistent with all other statements under their assigned truth patterns, Mo is determined to be the winner of the dancing competition.

52Logical Reasoning
A group of traders in a certain country has decided to take their whole taluka 'offshore' in protest at the insignificant amounts of income tax paid by big businesses. An association of shopkeepers from the town want to use the same controversial loopholes favoured by huge multinationals so that they too can legally avoid this tax. One giant multinational, for example, has been branded immoral for transferring profits out of the country and into the other countries, where they receive favourable tax deals. But the shopkeepers of the town cannot have it both ways. If they believe it is immoral for these multinationals to avoid country tax, it is immoral for them, too. They should continue to pay country tax in full. Select one of the following, that if true, most weakens the above argument.
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Answer: (B) The only purpose of the protest is to pressure the government into tackling tax avoidance by big business

Explanation

The argument accuses the shopkeepers of hypocrisy, claiming that if they believe tax avoidance by multinationals is immoral, then avoiding taxes themselves is equally immoral, meaning they must pay their taxes in full. However, if the sole purpose of the shopkeepers' action is to protest and pressure the government into ending all tax avoidance, their action is a form of strategic civil disobedience rather than a self-serving attempt to exploit loopholes permanently. This distinction in motivation and ultimate objective directly undermines the charge of moral inconsistency, thereby weakening the conclusion that they are acting immorally and must continue paying taxes in full.

53Logical Reasoning
Identify two facts that prove conclusion : 'Ten students failed the exam' to be always true. Facts : a. 40 students passed the exam. b. 10 students did not complete the exam and so neither passed nor failed. c. Number of students who failed outnumbered those who did not complete exam by 5 : 1. d. Number of students who passed outnumbered those who failed by 4 : 1.
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Answer: (C) a, d

Explanation

Using Fact a and Fact d: Fact a states that the number of students who passed the exam is 40. Fact d states that the number of students who passed outnumbered those who failed by a ratio of 4 : 1.

By setting up the relation: Passed ÷ Failed = 4 ÷ 1 40 ÷ Failed = 4 Failed = 40 ÷ 4 = 10

Thus, combining Fact a and Fact d mathematically proves that 10 students failed the exam.

54Quantitative Aptitude
A referendum was held in the village Nimboli, to determine whether it should have a library or not. All adult members could vote; all of them either voted in favour of having library or voted against it, or did not vote at all. According to the local newspapers : ‘80% of those who voted, voted in favour of having a library’ and ‘80% of the adult members of the village did not vote for having library in village’. Select percentage of the adult members of the village voted against having a library.
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Answer: (B) Exactly 5%

Explanation

Let the total number of adult members in the village be N.

The adult members are divided into those who voted in favour of the library (V_F), those who voted against (V_A), and those who did not vote at all (NV). Thus: N = V_F + V_A + NV

The total number of members who voted is V = V_F + V_A.

According to the first statement, 80% of those who voted were in favour of the library: V_F = 0.80 × V V_A = 0.20 × V

According to the second statement, 80% of the adult members did not vote for having the library. This group consists of those who voted against (V_A) and those who did not vote (NV): V_A + NV = 0.80 × N

Substituting this into the total population equation N = V_F + (V_A + NV) gives: N = V_F + 0.80 × N V_F = 0.20 × N

Equating the two expressions for V_F: 0.80 × V = 0.20 × N V = 0.25 × N

Substituting this value of V back into the equation for V_A: V_A = 0.20 × 0.25 × N V_A = 0.05 × N

Thus, the number of adult members who voted against having a library is 5% of the total adult population.

55Reading Comprehension
Rala (Italian Millet), Sava (Little Millet), Harik (Vargu), Varai (Barnyard Millet) are rich in amino acids, fatty acids and other vitamins. They contain minerals that are iron, calcium, magnesium, phosphorus and potassium. These food components assist in the functioning of hormones in the body. The amount of glucose and insulin produced in the body is controlled by them. Since their digestion is slow, they stay in the stomach for a long time, so you get the satisfaction of being full by eating less. They are high in lecithin which strengthens the nervous system. Its phytochemicals reduce the risk of cancer. Blood cholesterol is reduced. Whole grains provide 12.5% more protein than wheat. Sava is used in liver disorders. Since millets are gluten-free, they can be consumed by people with gluten intolerance. In short, whole grains are useful for body health due to various characteristics. Choose the one most reasonable fact that would weaken the above argument if true.
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Answer: (B) If wheat is completely excluded from food, the person does not get B-vitamins, zinc, bran, which are important elements along with gluten, and as a result, the beneficial bacteria in the intestines are depleted and the immunity of the intestine increases unbridled and rarely invites cancer.

Explanation

The argument in the passage highlights the health benefits of millets as gluten-free alternatives to wheat, suggesting they are superior and highly useful for body health. This point is weakened by showing that completely eliminating wheat from the diet has severe negative health consequences. Wheat contains essential nutrients like B-vitamins, zinc, and bran alongside gluten. Completely excluding it deprives the body of these vital elements, which leads to the depletion of beneficial gut bacteria and triggers abnormal immune responses in the intestine. This directly challenges the idea that substituting wheat with gluten-free millets is entirely beneficial for overall health.

56Logical Reasoning
There are security experts, as well as ex-fraudsters, who are experts in artificial intelligence (AI). All people who are experts in AI are invited to join the team of security designers (SD) by one organization. Select one of the following that can be logically inferred based on the statements above.
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Answer: (C) Some ex-fraudsters are encouraged to join the SD team.

Explanation

The first statement establishes that there are some ex-fraudsters who are experts in artificial intelligence. The second statement asserts that all experts in artificial intelligence are invited to join the security designers team. Since the group of ex-fraudsters who are artificial intelligence experts is a subset of all artificial intelligence experts, they must also be invited to join the security designers team. Therefore, it can be logically inferred that some ex-fraudsters are encouraged to join the security designers team.

57Quantitative Aptitude
Mina, Jiva and Faru share out a certain sum of money between them. Mina receives 5/8, Jiva receives 0.25 and Faru receives Rs. 75. Select options that indicates the original amount.
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Answer: (B) 600

Explanation

Let the total original amount of money be x.

Mina receives 5/8 of the total amount, and Jiva receives 0.25 of the total amount. Converting the decimal to a fraction: 0.25 = 25/100 = 2/8

The combined share of Mina and Jiva is: 5/8 + 2/8 = 7/8

The remaining fraction of the money belongs to Faru: 1 - 7/8 = 1/8

Since Faru receives Rs. 75, we set up the relation: (1/8) × x = 75 x = 75 × 8 = 600

58Quantitative Aptitude
While playing 11th match, a batsman is out for 26 runs, which raises his batting average for the season from 15 to 16. Select the number of runs that he should have scored in this inning to raise his average to 20 in this season.
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Answer: (D) 70

Explanation

The total runs scored by the batsman in the first 10 matches can be calculated using the average formula: Total runs after 10 matches = 10 × 15 = 150

To raise his overall batting average to 20 after the 11th match, the total runs required after 11 matches is: Total runs required after 11 matches = 11 × 20 = 220

Therefore, the runs he should have scored in the 11th match to achieve this average is: Runs required = Total runs required after 11 matches - Total runs after 10 matches Runs required = 220 - 150 = 70

59Quantitative Aptitude
Ayesha beat Daya by 50 meters or 10 seconds in a kilometer race. Select the option that indicates time taken by Ayesha to complete the race.
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Answer: (B) 190 seconds

Explanation

Daya takes 10 seconds to cover the final 50 meters of the 1 kilometer (1000 meters) race.

Speed of Daya = 50 meters / 10 seconds = 5 m/s.

Time taken by Daya to complete the 1000 meters race = 1000 meters / 5 m/s = 200 seconds.

Since Ayesha beats Daya by 10 seconds, the time taken by Ayesha is 10 seconds less than the time taken by Daya.

Time taken by Ayesha = 200 seconds - 10 seconds = 190 seconds.

60Logical Reasoning
A Director of educational institution claims : 'instead of celebrating one day as Republic Day, we constantly practice the ideals that made India a sovereign republic by guarantying the pledge of justice, liberty, equality and fraternity'. Choose two facts that support the claim. Facts : a. It is compulsory for all students, faculty and staff of the institution to watch televised display of military might of the country. b. We conduct regular workshops for all students, faculty and staff with the help of peace experts to deal with the hatred in a non-violent and peaceful way. c. We strictly implement the rules of dress, food, language and behavior towards others, which are formulated by our organization to inculcate spirit of equality among all. d. We have integrated activities that nurture the value 'empathy' into regular learning activities to enable everyone in the organization to respect the diverse lifestyles of others.
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Answer: (D) b, d

Explanation

The ideals of the Indian Republic, namely justice, liberty, equality, and fraternity, are best practiced through the active cultivation of mutual respect, peaceful conflict resolution, and understanding. Fact b supports this by organizing regular workshops to resolve conflict and hatred non-violently, which promotes social harmony and fraternity. Fact d supports the claim by embedding empathy and respect for diverse lifestyles into daily learning activities, directly upholding the constitutional values of equality, liberty, and individual dignity. Both practices demonstrate a continuous, practical commitment to the substantive values of a sovereign republic.

61Logical Reasoning
In a housing colony, there are seven towers a, b, c, d, e, f and g. ‘a’ and ‘f’ are to the south of ‘d’ and ‘g’ and ‘f’ is to the east of ‘a’. Tower ‘e’ is to the north of ‘c’ that is situated near the south end boundary of the colony and to the west of ‘b’. There are only two towers ‘g’ and ‘f’, to the east of ‘c’. Select the statement that is always true with respect to given information.
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Answer: (C) Tower ‘a’ must be to the west of tower ‘c’.

Explanation

The statement that there are only two towers, g and f, to the east of c implies that all other remaining towers in the colony must lie to the west of c (assuming they are not aligned on the same vertical line). Since the other towers are a, b, d, and e, all of these must be situated to the west of c. Therefore, tower a must be to the west of tower c.

62Logical Reasoning
Every element of B is an element of A. Some elements of C are elements of A. Every element of D is an element of C but no element of D is an element of A. Which of the following statements are impossible?
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Answer: (D) Every element of C is in A

Explanation

According to the third premise, every element of D is an element of C, but no element of D is an element of A. Assuming the set D is non-empty, any element belonging to D must be in C and cannot be in A. This directly implies there is at least one element of C that is not in A. Therefore, the statement that every element of C is in A is impossible.

63Quantitative Aptitude
A question paper consist of 20 questions. There are 2 options for each question. Select the number of ways it is possible for a student to attempt one or more questions of the all given questions.
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Answer: (A) 3²⁰ - 1

Explanation

For each of the 20 questions, a student has 3 possible choices: they can either choose the first option, choose the second option, or leave the question unattempted.

Since each question can be dealt with in 3 independent ways, the total number of ways to address all 20 questions is 3²⁰.

Among these, there is exactly 1 way in which the student leaves all 20 questions unattempted.

To find the number of ways to attempt one or more questions, we subtract this single case where no questions are attempted from the total number of ways. This yields 3²⁰ - 1 ways.

64Logical Reasoning
When I left for work, the watch was showing a time 8 hrs and 27 minutes exactly. The position of the hour hand and minute hand of this watch is exactly interchanged when I was back home. Select the option that is closest to new time displayed.
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Answer: (B) 17.75 minutes to six

Explanation

The position of the hour hand (in minute marks) on a standard 12-hour clock at H hours and M minutes is given by the formula: Hour hand position = 5H + M/12

For the departure time of 8 hours and 27 minutes: H = 8 M = 27 Hour hand position = 5 × 8 + 27/12 = 40 + 2.25 = 42.25 minute marks Minute hand position = 27 minute marks

When the positions of the hands are interchanged: The new minute hand is at the position of the old hour hand, which is 42.25 minute marks. This indicates 42.25 minutes past the hour. The new hour hand is at the position of the old minute hand, which is 27 minute marks. Since 27 minute marks fall between 25 (5 o'clock) and 30 (6 o'clock), the hour is 5.

The new time is therefore 42.25 minutes past 5. To express this in terms of minutes before 6 o'clock: 60 - 42.25 = 17.75 minutes to six

65Logical Reasoning
When Anna, Bina, Ciona and Diana stand by height in a row, Ciona being the shortest stands first while Bina comes to the third position. However, when they stand by age, Anna being younger stands first while Bina occupies extreme rear position. In both rows Diana remains at the second position. Select the person who is immediate younger than Bina.
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Answer: (B) Ciona

Explanation

To find the age order of the four individuals from youngest to oldest (first to fourth position): Anna is the youngest and stands first, so position 1 is Anna. Diana is in the second position in both rows, so position 2 is Diana. Bina occupies the extreme rear position, so position 4 is Bina. The only remaining position, position 3, must be occupied by Ciona. Therefore, the sequence of age from youngest to oldest is Anna, Diana, Ciona, and Bina. This means Ciona is immediately younger than Bina.

66Reading Comprehension
Upanishads carry a weighty fable. Virochana, ruler of the Asuras and Indra, Lord of the Suras, both once went to Brahma and asked him about God. They were told to look in the mirror. Looking at his reflection Virochana instantly concluded that he is God; Indra while looking at his reflection and spending longer time in contemplation, realised that God was all. Some persons measure development by the amount and material things that they can consume; some persons measure their worth by all that they can uplift and divinise. The difference is nothing less than that between an egocentric existence, engulfed in its own gains, unhesitant to exploit, and an expansive one that is creative in the highest sense of the world. Select the most appropriate option that indicates central idea of the story.
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Answer: (C) Persons who are egotistical, selfish and involved in exploiting others for that purpose live as 'Asuras', while those who deal with all others with open mind using their own creativity and assist them in their own upliftment and deification live as 'Suras'.

Explanation

The passage contrasts two distinct approaches to life, self-realization, and development, using the characters of Virochana and Indra to represent the Asuras and the Suras. Virochana represents an egocentric, materialistic worldview where development is measured solely by self-gratification and consumption, often leading to exploitation. In contrast, Indra represents an expansive, contemplative, and creative consciousness that perceives unity in all existence, measuring worth by the ability to uplift and divinise others. Option 3 directly encapsulates this central theme by defining the Asura way of life as selfish and exploitative, and the Sura way of life as creative, open-minded, and dedicated to the holistic deification and upliftment of society.

67Decision Making
You are working for setting up a new business venture that requires a license from State government regulatory department. You have submitted the application for this purpose after fulfilling all the procedural formalities and the required documents. Months have passed after submitting the application but you are yet to get license. This delay is causing loss of business opportunity than the amount demanded by a chain of persons working in the department for granting the license. Which way would you choose for sorting out this problem from following options ?
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Answer: (D) Contact some RTI activist to get information about the time frame in which such license are required to be issued.

Explanation

Using the Right to Information (RTI) Act is a lawful, transparent, and structurally sound method to address bureaucratic delay. Filing an RTI query regarding the official timeline for processing license applications and the current status of the file introduces administrative accountability. Public authorities are legally bound to respond to RTI queries within a stipulated timeframe, which naturally deters corrupt practices and compels the department to expedite the pending application through formal and legitimate channels.

68Decision Making
You are working as a head in the department that allots government quarters to the employees as per the norms set up by the authorities. A group of persons approaches to your reporting senior with the request that a particular person should not be allotted quarter in their building, because the concerned person is from the reserved category. Your senior suggests indirectly to accept their request but at the same time also warns that you will be solely responsible for the consequence of the concerned decision. Your promotion is due in next few months. Which one of the following course of actions is your choice in this situation ?
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Answer: (B) Allot the quarter to the concerned employee as per rules and alert the person about the situation in which you have taken the decision about allotment.

Explanation

As a public servant, you must adhere to the principles of objectivity, impartiality, and the rule of law. Allotting the quarter strictly according to the established norms and rules ensures that there is no discrimination based on caste or category, which is both legally and constitutionally mandated. By following the rules, you maintain administrative integrity and protect yourself from any adverse consequences of making an illegal decision, while alerting the concerned employee prepares them for any potential bias or hostility they might face from the neighbors.

69Decision Making
Your colleague who was heading a project is suffering from some ailment and cannot continue with it at least for next two months. The administrative head of the department requested you to head this project in addition to your present work. Since you are expected to complete your assignment and this project within stipulated time, it will demand you to invest more time and energy. What will be your response to this from the options given below ?
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Answer: (C) Accept the additional work without any argument as timely completion of the project is necessary.

Explanation

Accepting the additional work shows high organizational commitment, professional integrity, and leadership qualities. In any administrative setup, unexpected challenges such as a colleague's sudden illness require adaptability and a collaborative spirit. Prioritizing the timely completion of the project ensures that departmental goals are met without disruption, demonstrating a strong sense of duty and collective responsibility towards the organization's objectives.

70Decision Making
You are a freelancing journalist. Recently you read a novel based on documented sufferings and exodus of people of minority tribe from certain region that happened more than two decades ago. You are from this minority tribe. You are very well acquainted with the realities of the exodus and the hardship faced by people of both the tribes. In your opinion the author has used her writing skills to emphasize how cruel were the victimizers towards your tribe. Thus novel has succeeded in getting sufferings of your tribe acknowledged by people from larger society. But you know that this is only the half-truth and it is agonizing you. You will write articles to be published in different media to present.
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Answer: (D) the reality by documenting how members of these two tribes are defining themselves in relation to their respective narratives of victimhood after long period of more than two decades for avoiding insurgence of hatred.

Explanation

As a responsible journalist, the primary ethical duty is to report the complete truth while maintaining social harmony and preventing the resurgence of communal animosity. Documenting the reality of how both tribes construct and define their respective narratives of victimhood after more than two decades provides a balanced, empathetic, and holistic perspective. This constructive approach addresses the agonizing half-truths of the past without reigniting historical grievances, thereby fostering mutual understanding, healing, and preventing the resurgence of hatred between the communities.

71Decision Making
As the education officer you are a member of the committee constituted for interviewing teachers shortlisted for awards from the district. You are analyzing their documents related to teaching learning processes and its impact on learners' personal and social development. As you are going through these documents you are designing probing questions related to their work. You came across a heavy file of technology savvy person but you did not find single documentation of teaching learning process and its impact on the concerned group of learners. For example, this teacher has written about how he delivered e-self-learning material for learning poem Daffodils. You will ask him...
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Answer: (A) With what purpose did you design e-self-learning material and how did you test outcome of this learning ?

Explanation

As an evaluating education officer, the primary focus is to assess both the teaching-learning process and its tangible impact on the students. While the teacher has documented the creation and delivery of digital content, the file lacks evidence of pedagogical objectives and actual student outcomes. Asking the teacher to explain the specific purpose behind designing the e-self-learning material and how they evaluated the learning outcomes directly addresses this documented gap, allowing the committee to assess the effectiveness and impact of the teacher's tech-savvy initiatives on the learners.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2B
  3. 3D
  4. 4C
  5. 5C
  6. 6B
  7. 7B
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11B
  12. 12D
  13. 13B
  14. 14D
  15. 15C
  16. 16D
  17. 17C
  18. 18B
  19. 19A
  20. 20B
  21. 21C
  22. 22B
  23. 23B
  24. 24C
  25. 25D
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30D
  31. 31D
  32. 32A
  33. 33C
  34. 34A
  35. 35D
  36. 36C
  37. 37B
  38. 38C
  39. 39D
  40. 40B
  41. 41C
  42. 42C
  43. 43C
  44. 44B
  45. 45B
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48A
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51A
  52. 52B
  53. 53C
  54. 54B
  55. 55B
  56. 56C
  57. 57B
  58. 58D
  59. 59B
  60. 60D
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63A
  64. 64B
  65. 65B
  66. 66C
  67. 67D
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70D
  71. 71A

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