Later half of the twentieth century witnessed emergence of new trends in Archaeology. New discoveries in physical sciences and their application in archaeology resulted in an inclination towards sciences. American archaeologist Lewis Binford pioneered the use of the methodology of Scientific Philosophy in archaeological research. While in England, David Clarke proved that the New Archaeological method of using concepts from disciplines such as anthropology, geography and environmental sciences in furnishing archaeological evidences can extract much more information.
New Archaeology can be termed as scientific archaeology. The main aim of the old school archaeologists was to establish the chronology of human culture with the help of excavations. New Archaeology considers this a mistake; as archaeology is not just about chronology. It considers that it is the duty of the archaeologists to delve deep so as to establish with reliable evidence, the cause and effect relationship behind every historical event. A simple example of this can be the report of the Mohenjodaro excavation. There were seven successive layers of habitation before the Indus civilisation finally perished. It was believed that the Aryans invaded India and destroyed the Indus civilisation under the leadership of Indra, their chief deity. This was a Rigvedic evidence of literary nature and how could it be completely relied upon? There is no physical evidence of the Aryan Invasion. It can be seen that the Indus civilisation died away because of climatic changes. Scientific evidences conclusively proving this have been found. New Archaeology focuses on the relationship between cause and effects.
New Archaeology has recently invited some criticism. Professor Ian Hodder from the Cambridge University is a major critic. According to him, it is not enough to depend only on scientific evidences for an explanation of cultural changes, but the context of excavated remains is very important for their proper interpretation. This ideology, has therefore been called as Contextual Archaeology.
Now some Archaeologists have moved ahead of this ideology. Socio- economic conditions of man have always been studied, and now a study of the mentalities of ancient humans is gaining momentum. How did religion and philosophy emerge, what were the thoughts in the minds of the ancient painters - such and other things are being studied. Archaeology in the twenty- first century is indeed going to be very different.
Choose the correct option after carefully reading the sentences:
(a) It is unscientific to believe only the literary evidence from the Rigveda.
(b) There is no material evidence available of an Aryan Invasion.
(c) There are evidences proving that the Indus Civilisation ended as a result of climatic changes.
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Answer: (A) (a), (b) and (c) all are correct.
Explanation
The passage explains that relying solely on Rigvedic literary evidence for historical events is unreliable, making statement (a) correct. It explicitly states that there is no physical or material evidence supporting the Aryan invasion theory, which confirms statement (b). Lastly, the text notes that scientific evidence has conclusively proven that the Indus civilisation perished due to climatic changes, establishing the correctness of statement (c).
2Reading Comprehension
Later half of the twentieth century witnessed emergence of new trends in Archaeology. New discoveries in physical sciences and their application in archaeology resulted in an inclination towards sciences. American archaeologist Lewis Binford pioneered the use of the methodology of Scientific Philosophy in archaeological research. While in England, David Clarke proved that the New Archaeological method of using concepts from disciplines such as anthropology, geography and environmental sciences in furnishing archaeological evidences can extract much more information.
New Archaeology can be termed as scientific archaeology. The main aim of the old school archaeologists was to establish the chronology of human culture with the help of excavations. New Archaeology considers this a mistake; as archaeology is not just about chronology. It considers that it is the duty of the archaeologists to delve deep so as to establish with reliable evidence, the cause and effect relationship behind every historical event. A simple example of this can be the report of the Mohenjodaro excavation. There were seven successive layers of habitation before the Indus civilisation finally perished. It was believed that the Aryans invaded India and destroyed the Indus civilisation under the leadership of Indra, their chief deity. This was a Rigvedic evidence of literary nature and how could it be completely relied upon? There is no physical evidence of the Aryan Invasion. It can be seen that the Indus civilisation died away because of climatic changes. Scientific evidences conclusively proving this have been found. New Archaeology focuses on the relationship between cause and effects.
New Archaeology has recently invited some criticism. Professor Ian Hodder from the Cambridge University is a major critic. According to him, it is not enough to depend only on scientific evidences for an explanation of cultural changes, but the context of excavated remains is very important for their proper interpretation. This ideology, has therefore been called as Contextual Archaeology.
Now some Archaeologists have moved ahead of this ideology. Socio- economic conditions of man have always been studied, and now a study of the mentalities of ancient humans is gaining momentum. How did religion and philosophy emerge, what were the thoughts in the minds of the ancient painters - such and other things are being studied. Archaeology in the twenty- first century is indeed going to be very different.
Match the pairs :
| (a) | (b) |
|---|---|
| (a) Ian Hodder | (i) Relationship between Cause and Effects |
| (b) Lewis Binford | (ii) Contextual Archaeology |
| (c) David Clarke | (iii) Interdisciplinary evidences |
| (d) New Archaeology | (iv) Method of Scientific Philosophy |
Answer Options :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Explanation
Ian Hodder is matched with Contextual Archaeology as he proposed that the context of excavated remains is crucial for their proper interpretation, rejecting complete reliance on purely scientific evidence.
Lewis Binford is matched with Method of Scientific Philosophy because he was the pioneering American archaeologist who introduced the methodology of scientific philosophy into archaeological research.
David Clarke is matched with Interdisciplinary evidences because he demonstrated that incorporating methods and concepts from diverse fields such as anthropology, geography, and environmental sciences yields far richer archaeological evidence.
New Archaeology is matched with Relationship between Cause and Effects because this school of thought emphasizes examining the underlying cause-and-effect relationships behind historical events rather than merely establishing chronology.
3Reading Comprehension
Later half of the twentieth century witnessed emergence of new trends in Archaeology. New discoveries in physical sciences and their application in archaeology resulted in an inclination towards sciences. American archaeologist Lewis Binford pioneered the use of the methodology of Scientific Philosophy in archaeological research. While in England, David Clarke proved that the New Archaeological method of using concepts from disciplines such as anthropology, geography and environmental sciences in furnishing archaeological evidences can extract much more information.
New Archaeology can be termed as scientific archaeology. The main aim of the old school archaeologists was to establish the chronology of human culture with the help of excavations. New Archaeology considers this a mistake; as archaeology is not just about chronology. It considers that it is the duty of the archaeologists to delve deep so as to establish with reliable evidence, the cause and effect relationship behind every historical event. A simple example of this can be the report of the Mohenjodaro excavation. There were seven successive layers of habitation before the Indus civilisation finally perished. It was believed that the Aryans invaded India and destroyed the Indus civilisation under the leadership of Indra, their chief deity. This was a Rigvedic evidence of literary nature and how could it be completely relied upon? There is no physical evidence of the Aryan Invasion. It can be seen that the Indus civilisation died away because of climatic changes. Scientific evidences conclusively proving this have been found. New Archaeology focuses on the relationship between cause and effects.
New Archaeology has recently invited some criticism. Professor Ian Hodder from the Cambridge University is a major critic. According to him, it is not enough to depend only on scientific evidences for an explanation of cultural changes, but the context of excavated remains is very important for their proper interpretation. This ideology, has therefore been called as Contextual Archaeology.
Now some Archaeologists have moved ahead of this ideology. Socio- economic conditions of man have always been studied, and now a study of the mentalities of ancient humans is gaining momentum. How did religion and philosophy emerge, what were the thoughts in the minds of the ancient painters - such and other things are being studied. Archaeology in the twenty- first century is indeed going to be very different.
Archaeology in the twenty-first century will be very different because :
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Answer: (D) The mentalities of ancient humans are also being studied along with their social and economic conditions.
Explanation
According to the last paragraph of the passage, while the socio-economic conditions of humans have historically been studied, contemporary archaeological research has expanded to include the study of the mentalities of ancient humans. This new research trend explores how complex ideas like religion and philosophy emerged, as well as the active thoughts in the minds of ancient painters. This transition from studying only material and structural remains to analyzing the cognitive, intellectual, and psychological processes of past human societies is what makes twenty-first-century archaeology fundamentally different.
4Reading Comprehension
Later half of the twentieth century witnessed emergence of new trends in Archaeology. New discoveries in physical sciences and their application in archaeology resulted in an inclination towards sciences. American archaeologist Lewis Binford pioneered the use of the methodology of Scientific Philosophy in archaeological research. While in England, David Clarke proved that the New Archaeological method of using concepts from disciplines such as anthropology, geography and environmental sciences in furnishing archaeological evidences can extract much more information.
New Archaeology can be termed as scientific archaeology. The main aim of the old school archaeologists was to establish the chronology of human culture with the help of excavations. New Archaeology considers this a mistake; as archaeology is not just about chronology. It considers that it is the duty of the archaeologists to delve deep so as to establish with reliable evidence, the cause and effect relationship behind every historical event. A simple example of this can be the report of the Mohenjodaro excavation. There were seven successive layers of habitation before the Indus civilisation finally perished. It was believed that the Aryans invaded India and destroyed the Indus civilisation under the leadership of Indra, their chief deity. This was a Rigvedic evidence of literary nature and how could it be completely relied upon? There is no physical evidence of the Aryan Invasion. It can be seen that the Indus civilisation died away because of climatic changes. Scientific evidences conclusively proving this have been found. New Archaeology focuses on the relationship between cause and effects.
New Archaeology has recently invited some criticism. Professor Ian Hodder from the Cambridge University is a major critic. According to him, it is not enough to depend only on scientific evidences for an explanation of cultural changes, but the context of excavated remains is very important for their proper interpretation. This ideology, has therefore been called as Contextual Archaeology.
Now some Archaeologists have moved ahead of this ideology. Socio- economic conditions of man have always been studied, and now a study of the mentalities of ancient humans is gaining momentum. How did religion and philosophy emerge, what were the thoughts in the minds of the ancient painters - such and other things are being studied. Archaeology in the twenty- first century is indeed going to be very different.
According to Contextual Archaeology :
(a) It is not right to depend only on scientific evidences while studying a culture.
(b) It is necessary to understand the context of an excavated material for understanding its function.
(c) Mohenjodaro was destroyed seven times because of the Aryans.
(d) The main aim of Archaeology is to record the chronology of human culture.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (B) (a) and (b)
Explanation
According to the passage, Contextual Archaeology was introduced as a critique of New Archaeology by Professor Ian Hodder. This school of thought emphasizes that relying solely on scientific evidence is insufficient to explain cultural changes. Instead, it posits that the specific archaeological context of excavated remains is essential for their proper interpretation and for understanding their function. Therefore, both statements (a) and (b) accurately reflect the core tenets of Contextual Archaeology.
5Reading Comprehension
Later half of the twentieth century witnessed emergence of new trends in Archaeology. New discoveries in physical sciences and their application in archaeology resulted in an inclination towards sciences. American archaeologist Lewis Binford pioneered the use of the methodology of Scientific Philosophy in archaeological research. While in England, David Clarke proved that the New Archaeological method of using concepts from disciplines such as anthropology, geography and environmental sciences in furnishing archaeological evidences can extract much more information.
New Archaeology can be termed as scientific archaeology. The main aim of the old school archaeologists was to establish the chronology of human culture with the help of excavations. New Archaeology considers this a mistake; as archaeology is not just about chronology. It considers that it is the duty of the archaeologists to delve deep so as to establish with reliable evidence, the cause and effect relationship behind every historical event. A simple example of this can be the report of the Mohenjodaro excavation. There were seven successive layers of habitation before the Indus civilisation finally perished. It was believed that the Aryans invaded India and destroyed the Indus civilisation under the leadership of Indra, their chief deity. This was a Rigvedic evidence of literary nature and how could it be completely relied upon? There is no physical evidence of the Aryan Invasion. It can be seen that the Indus civilisation died away because of climatic changes. Scientific evidences conclusively proving this have been found. New Archaeology focuses on the relationship between cause and effects.
New Archaeology has recently invited some criticism. Professor Ian Hodder from the Cambridge University is a major critic. According to him, it is not enough to depend only on scientific evidences for an explanation of cultural changes, but the context of excavated remains is very important for their proper interpretation. This ideology, has therefore been called as Contextual Archaeology.
Now some Archaeologists have moved ahead of this ideology. Socio- economic conditions of man have always been studied, and now a study of the mentalities of ancient humans is gaining momentum. How did religion and philosophy emerge, what were the thoughts in the minds of the ancient painters - such and other things are being studied. Archaeology in the twenty- first century is indeed going to be very different.
Which new ideology took roots in Archaeology in the second half of the twentieth century ?
(a) Opinions of English and American experts in Archaeology gained acceptance.
(b) There was resistance to Contextual Archaeology.
(c) Mentalities of the ancient humans began to be studied.
(d) Archaeology began using scientific methods and concepts of sciences.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (A) Only (d)
Explanation
The later half of the twentieth century witnessed the emergence of New Archaeology, which is also termed as scientific archaeology. As described in the passage, this period was characterized by an inclination towards physical sciences and the application of scientific philosophy and methods in archaeological research. Archaeologists like Lewis Binford and David Clarke pioneered the use of scientific methodologies and concepts from disciplines such as geography, anthropology, and environmental sciences to extract detailed information and establish cause-and-effect relationships. Meanwhile, the study of the mentalities of ancient humans is a more recent development gaining momentum in the twenty-first century. Therefore, the new ideology that took root in the second half of the twentieth century is the use of scientific methods and concepts of sciences in archaeology, as stated in statement d.
6Reading Comprehension
40% water shortage by 2030
The world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic and energy sector; said the United Nations. Ahead of World Water Day on March 22, the UN released its World Water Report 2015 in New Delhi and stressed that the 'water crisis was one of governance and not of due to the lack of resource availability'. Even today, 748 million people do not have access to improved and safe source of drinking water and the worst affected are the poor, the disadvantaged and women.
In India, the report analysed, the groundwater or tube well revolution has largely contributed to relieving poverty, but the increase in demand for irrigation has also caused severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan. In fact, the total number of mechanized wells and tube wells rose from less than one million in 1960 to 19 million in 2000. Groundwater stress is also a larger South Asia problem the report said. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh alone account for half the world's total groundwater use, the report said.
"By 2050, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% , mainly due to growing demands from manufacturing, thermal electricity generation and domestic use and the world will have to produce 60 percent more food and the global water demand for industry is predicted to increase by 400 percent," said the report.
Increasing urbanisation is causing specific and often highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. More than 50% of people on the planet now live in cities, with 30% of all city dwellers residing in slums. Urban dwellers are projected to increase to a total of 6.3 billion by 2050. The growing population across urban and rural areas will need 70 percent more energy and water is required to produce almost forms of it. The report recommends a host of measures to limit water insecurity.
Which of the following states suffered from severe groundwater stress ?
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Answer: (B) South and Eastern Maharashtra - Rajasthan
Explanation
According to the United Nations World Water Report 2015 cited in the passage, the rapid expansion of mechanized wells and tube wells for agricultural irrigation has led to severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan.
7Reading Comprehension
40% water shortage by 2030
The world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic and energy sector; said the United Nations. Ahead of World Water Day on March 22, the UN released its World Water Report 2015 in New Delhi and stressed that the 'water crisis was one of governance and not of due to the lack of resource availability'. Even today, 748 million people do not have access to improved and safe source of drinking water and the worst affected are the poor, the disadvantaged and women.
In India, the report analysed, the groundwater or tube well revolution has largely contributed to relieving poverty, but the increase in demand for irrigation has also caused severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan. In fact, the total number of mechanized wells and tube wells rose from less than one million in 1960 to 19 million in 2000. Groundwater stress is also a larger South Asia problem the report said. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh alone account for half the world's total groundwater use, the report said.
"By 2050, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% , mainly due to growing demands from manufacturing, thermal electricity generation and domestic use and the world will have to produce 60 percent more food and the global water demand for industry is predicted to increase by 400 percent," said the report.
Increasing urbanisation is causing specific and often highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. More than 50% of people on the planet now live in cities, with 30% of all city dwellers residing in slums. Urban dwellers are projected to increase to a total of 6.3 billion by 2050. The growing population across urban and rural areas will need 70 percent more energy and water is required to produce almost forms of it. The report recommends a host of measures to limit water insecurity.
The following are some of the factors responsible for 40% shortfall of water by 2030 :
(a) Pressure of food production (b) Urbanisation
(c) Development of water transport (d) Population growth
Which of the above factor/s is/are responsible for this shortfall ?
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Answer: (D) Only (a), (b) and (d)
Explanation
According to the passage, the United Nations World Water Report 2015 states that the world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth, and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic, and energy sectors. This directly identifies pressure of food production, urbanisation, and population growth as the factors responsible for the projected shortfall.
8Reading Comprehension
40% water shortage by 2030
The world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic and energy sector; said the United Nations. Ahead of World Water Day on March 22, the UN released its World Water Report 2015 in New Delhi and stressed that the 'water crisis was one of governance and not of due to the lack of resource availability'. Even today, 748 million people do not have access to improved and safe source of drinking water and the worst affected are the poor, the disadvantaged and women.
In India, the report analysed, the groundwater or tube well revolution has largely contributed to relieving poverty, but the increase in demand for irrigation has also caused severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan. In fact, the total number of mechanized wells and tube wells rose from less than one million in 1960 to 19 million in 2000. Groundwater stress is also a larger South Asia problem the report said. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh alone account for half the world's total groundwater use, the report said.
"By 2050, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% , mainly due to growing demands from manufacturing, thermal electricity generation and domestic use and the world will have to produce 60 percent more food and the global water demand for industry is predicted to increase by 400 percent," said the report.
Increasing urbanisation is causing specific and often highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. More than 50% of people on the planet now live in cities, with 30% of all city dwellers residing in slums. Urban dwellers are projected to increase to a total of 6.3 billion by 2050. The growing population across urban and rural areas will need 70 percent more energy and water is required to produce almost forms of it. The report recommends a host of measures to limit water insecurity.
The following are some of the group of people who do not have access to safe water :
(a) Poor people (b) Disadvantaged people (c) Women
Which of the above group of people is/are correct ?
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Answer: (D) All the above
Explanation
According to the provided text, 748 million people do not have access to an improved and safe source of drinking water. The report explicitly highlights that the worst affected among these are the poor, the disadvantaged, and women. Therefore, all three groups listed—poor people, disadvantaged people, and women—correctly represent the populations who lack access to safe water.
9Reading Comprehension
40% water shortage by 2030
The world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic and energy sector; said the United Nations. Ahead of World Water Day on March 22, the UN released its World Water Report 2015 in New Delhi and stressed that the 'water crisis was one of governance and not of due to the lack of resource availability'. Even today, 748 million people do not have access to improved and safe source of drinking water and the worst affected are the poor, the disadvantaged and women.
In India, the report analysed, the groundwater or tube well revolution has largely contributed to relieving poverty, but the increase in demand for irrigation has also caused severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan. In fact, the total number of mechanized wells and tube wells rose from less than one million in 1960 to 19 million in 2000. Groundwater stress is also a larger South Asia problem the report said. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh alone account for half the world's total groundwater use, the report said.
"By 2050, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% , mainly due to growing demands from manufacturing, thermal electricity generation and domestic use and the world will have to produce 60 percent more food and the global water demand for industry is predicted to increase by 400 percent," said the report.
Increasing urbanisation is causing specific and often highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. More than 50% of people on the planet now live in cities, with 30% of all city dwellers residing in slums. Urban dwellers are projected to increase to a total of 6.3 billion by 2050. The growing population across urban and rural areas will need 70 percent more energy and water is required to produce almost forms of it. The report recommends a host of measures to limit water insecurity.
Which of the following factor is/are responsible for highly localised pressure on freshwater resources especially in drought prone areas ?
● Correct
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Answer: (C) Increasing Urbanisation
Explanation
According to the provided passage, increasing urbanisation is the factor directly responsible for causing specific and highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. With more than 50% of the global population now living in cities, this rapid urban growth concentrates water demand in specific geographic regions, thereby intensifying local freshwater stress.
10Reading Comprehension
40% water shortage by 2030
The world is set to face a 40% shortfall in water supplies by 2030 due to urbanisation, pressures of food production, population growth and the increasing demand from the manufacturing, domestic and energy sector; said the United Nations. Ahead of World Water Day on March 22, the UN released its World Water Report 2015 in New Delhi and stressed that the 'water crisis was one of governance and not of due to the lack of resource availability'. Even today, 748 million people do not have access to improved and safe source of drinking water and the worst affected are the poor, the disadvantaged and women.
In India, the report analysed, the groundwater or tube well revolution has largely contributed to relieving poverty, but the increase in demand for irrigation has also caused severe groundwater stress in areas such as southern and eastern Maharashtra and Rajasthan. In fact, the total number of mechanized wells and tube wells rose from less than one million in 1960 to 19 million in 2000. Groundwater stress is also a larger South Asia problem the report said. India, China, Pakistan, Nepal and Bangladesh alone account for half the world's total groundwater use, the report said.
"By 2050, global water demand is projected to increase by 55% , mainly due to growing demands from manufacturing, thermal electricity generation and domestic use and the world will have to produce 60 percent more food and the global water demand for industry is predicted to increase by 400 percent," said the report.
Increasing urbanisation is causing specific and often highly localised pressures on freshwater resource availability, especially in drought-prone areas. More than 50% of people on the planet now live in cities, with 30% of all city dwellers residing in slums. Urban dwellers are projected to increase to a total of 6.3 billion by 2050. The growing population across urban and rural areas will need 70 percent more energy and water is required to produce almost forms of it. The report recommends a host of measures to limit water insecurity.
Which of the following is the World Water Day ?
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 22nd March
Explanation
World Water Day is celebrated annually on 22 March to highlight the importance of freshwater and advocate for the sustainable management of freshwater resources. The initiative was formally proposed during the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development in Rio de Janeiro, leading the United Nations General Assembly to designate 22 March as the official day starting in 1993. The provided text also explicitly states that the United Nations released its World Water Report ahead of World Water Day on March 22.
11Reading Comprehension
Population Growth
Population growth is a serious issue not only in India but all over the World. India is second largest country after China. It is estimated by 2035 India is going to surpass China and becoming number one, if population growth goes unchecked.
Demography is the science of population. It includes mortality, fertility and migration as three decisive components of population growth. Its main concerns are the measurements and discovery of uniformities in the basic processes of human birth, death, population movement and population growth.
Prof. Melthus well known thinker on the issue of population suggested two basic postulates (i) Food is necessary for the existence of man and (ii) Passion between the sexes is necessary. According to him, population if goes unchecked increases in a geometric ratio (1, 2, 4, 8, .....) while the subsistence increases only in an arithmetic ratio (1, 2, 3, 4, .....). He advocated two checks on population i.e. positive checks and preventive checks.
Population variables are of two kinds - stock and flow. The important source of information is national censuses which is carried out in India after every ten years. Population enumeration is due in 2021. This document is considered as primary which reflects on the trends of growth, rate of fertility, rate of mortality, migration, rural - urban population, sex ratio, population of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes etc. Needless to say, it helps to the policy planners and demographers to adopt appropriate policy measures to handle the population growth.
Taking into account the unchecked growth of the population the policy instituted by the government of India to influence atleast one of the demographic components of population change. Population policy seek to enhance the welfare of the society collectively. An effective population policy rests upon knowledge about the demographic trends, its likely future course, and its causes and consequences.
In short population policy promote small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control the spread of communicable diseases, reduce infant mortality rate, immunization programmes for children etc.
All these measures, if implemented properly, will definitely bring down the growth of population.
What do you understand by reading the above passage ?
(a) It is a discussion on kinship.
(b) It is brief discussion about the population growth.
(c) It is a description of an ancient history.
(d) Got insight about three factors which are decisive to and for population growth.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) (b) and (d) correct
Explanation
The passage focuses on the global and national challenges of population growth, demographic concepts, Malthusian theory, census data, and government policy initiatives to promote small families, directly aligning with statement (b). Additionally, the text explicitly specifies that demography includes mortality, fertility, and migration as the three decisive components of population growth, which validates statement (d).
12Reading Comprehension
Population Growth
Population growth is a serious issue not only in India but all over the World. India is second largest country after China. It is estimated by 2035 India is going to surpass China and becoming number one, if population growth goes unchecked.
Demography is the science of population. It includes mortality, fertility and migration as three decisive components of population growth. Its main concerns are the measurements and discovery of uniformities in the basic processes of human birth, death, population movement and population growth.
Prof. Melthus well known thinker on the issue of population suggested two basic postulates (i) Food is necessary for the existence of man and (ii) Passion between the sexes is necessary. According to him, population if goes unchecked increases in a geometric ratio (1, 2, 4, 8, .....) while the subsistence increases only in an arithmetic ratio (1, 2, 3, 4, .....). He advocated two checks on population i.e. positive checks and preventive checks.
Population variables are of two kinds - stock and flow. The important source of information is national censuses which is carried out in India after every ten years. Population enumeration is due in 2021. This document is considered as primary which reflects on the trends of growth, rate of fertility, rate of mortality, migration, rural - urban population, sex ratio, population of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes etc. Needless to say, it helps to the policy planners and demographers to adopt appropriate policy measures to handle the population growth.
Taking into account the unchecked growth of the population the policy instituted by the government of India to influence atleast one of the demographic components of population change. Population policy seek to enhance the welfare of the society collectively. An effective population policy rests upon knowledge about the demographic trends, its likely future course, and its causes and consequences.
In short population policy promote small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control the spread of communicable diseases, reduce infant mortality rate, immunization programmes for children etc.
All these measures, if implemented properly, will definitely bring down the growth of population.
In order to control the population growth in India which of the following measure/s is/are important ?
(a) Increase in infant mortality rate
(b) Employment to men
(c) To promote late marriages of the girls
(d) To promote fertility rate
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) Only (c) is correct
Explanation
According to the passage, promoting delayed marriage for girls is a key measure of the population policy in India to control population growth. Delaying the age of marriage for girls effectively reduces their reproductive span, which leads to a decline in the birth rate and helps in controlling the overall growth of the population.
13Logical Reasoning
Population Growth
Population growth is a serious issue not only in India but all over the World. India is second largest country after China. It is estimated by 2035 India is going to surpass China and becoming number one, if population growth goes unchecked.
Demography is the science of population. It includes mortality, fertility and migration as three decisive components of population growth. Its main concerns are the measurements and discovery of uniformities in the basic processes of human birth, death, population movement and population growth.
Prof. Melthus well known thinker on the issue of population suggested two basic postulates (i) Food is necessary for the existence of man and (ii) Passion between the sexes is necessary. According to him, population if goes unchecked increases in a geometric ratio (1, 2, 4, 8, .....) while the subsistence increases only in an arithmetic ratio (1, 2, 3, 4, .....). He advocated two checks on population i.e. positive checks and preventive checks.
Population variables are of two kinds - stock and flow. The important source of information is national censuses which is carried out in India after every ten years. Population enumeration is due in 2021. This document is considered as primary which reflects on the trends of growth, rate of fertility, rate of mortality, migration, rural - urban population, sex ratio, population of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes etc. Needless to say, it helps to the policy planners and demographers to adopt appropriate policy measures to handle the population growth.
Taking into account the unchecked growth of the population the policy instituted by the government of India to influence atleast one of the demographic components of population change. Population policy seek to enhance the welfare of the society collectively. An effective population policy rests upon knowledge about the demographic trends, its likely future course, and its causes and consequences.
In short population policy promote small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control the spread of communicable diseases, reduce infant mortality rate, immunization programmes for children etc.
All these measures, if implemented properly, will definitely bring down the growth of population.
According to Malthus population if goes unchecked increase population in ________ ratio.
(a) Arithmetic
(b) Geometric
(c) Multiplicative
(d) Zero
Answer Options :
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Answer: (B) Only (b) correct
Explanation
According to Thomas Malthus' theory of population growth, human population, if left unchecked, grows at a geometric rate (such as 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, and so on) because of the natural passion between the sexes and the biological capacity for reproduction. This means population has a tendency to double at regular intervals, whereas food production and subsistence only increase in an arithmetic ratio (such as 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and so on) due to the limits of agricultural productivity. Thus, the unchecked growth of population occurs in a geometric ratio.
14Reading Comprehension
Population Growth
Population growth is a serious issue not only in India but all over the World. India is second largest country after China. It is estimated by 2035 India is going to surpass China and becoming number one, if population growth goes unchecked.
Demography is the science of population. It includes mortality, fertility and migration as three decisive components of population growth. Its main concerns are the measurements and discovery of uniformities in the basic processes of human birth, death, population movement and population growth.
Prof. Melthus well known thinker on the issue of population suggested two basic postulates (i) Food is necessary for the existence of man and (ii) Passion between the sexes is necessary. According to him, population if goes unchecked increases in a geometric ratio (1, 2, 4, 8, .....) while the subsistence increases only in an arithmetic ratio (1, 2, 3, 4, .....). He advocated two checks on population i.e. positive checks and preventive checks.
Population variables are of two kinds - stock and flow. The important source of information is national censuses which is carried out in India after every ten years. Population enumeration is due in 2021. This document is considered as primary which reflects on the trends of growth, rate of fertility, rate of mortality, migration, rural - urban population, sex ratio, population of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes etc. Needless to say, it helps to the policy planners and demographers to adopt appropriate policy measures to handle the population growth.
Taking into account the unchecked growth of the population the policy instituted by the government of India to influence atleast one of the demographic components of population change. Population policy seek to enhance the welfare of the society collectively. An effective population policy rests upon knowledge about the demographic trends, its likely future course, and its causes and consequences.
In short population policy promote small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control the spread of communicable diseases, reduce infant mortality rate, immunization programmes for children etc.
All these measures, if implemented properly, will definitely bring down the growth of population.
Indian population policy promote which of the following ?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Small family size
Explanation
According to the provided passage, the Indian population policy actively promotes small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control of the spread of communicable diseases, reduction of the infant mortality rate, and child immunization programmes. Encouraging a small family size is a key measure of the policy designed to check rapid population growth and enhance collective social welfare.
15Reading Comprehension
Population Growth
Population growth is a serious issue not only in India but all over the World. India is second largest country after China. It is estimated by 2035 India is going to surpass China and becoming number one, if population growth goes unchecked.
Demography is the science of population. It includes mortality, fertility and migration as three decisive components of population growth. Its main concerns are the measurements and discovery of uniformities in the basic processes of human birth, death, population movement and population growth.
Prof. Melthus well known thinker on the issue of population suggested two basic postulates (i) Food is necessary for the existence of man and (ii) Passion between the sexes is necessary. According to him, population if goes unchecked increases in a geometric ratio (1, 2, 4, 8, .....) while the subsistence increases only in an arithmetic ratio (1, 2, 3, 4, .....). He advocated two checks on population i.e. positive checks and preventive checks.
Population variables are of two kinds - stock and flow. The important source of information is national censuses which is carried out in India after every ten years. Population enumeration is due in 2021. This document is considered as primary which reflects on the trends of growth, rate of fertility, rate of mortality, migration, rural - urban population, sex ratio, population of the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes etc. Needless to say, it helps to the policy planners and demographers to adopt appropriate policy measures to handle the population growth.
Taking into account the unchecked growth of the population the policy instituted by the government of India to influence atleast one of the demographic components of population change. Population policy seek to enhance the welfare of the society collectively. An effective population policy rests upon knowledge about the demographic trends, its likely future course, and its causes and consequences.
In short population policy promote small family norms, delayed marriage for girls, control the spread of communicable diseases, reduce infant mortality rate, immunization programmes for children etc.
All these measures, if implemented properly, will definitely bring down the growth of population.
Which of the following is/are the primary source of information on population in India?
(a) National Censuses
(b) Sample Registration System
(c) National Family Health Survey
(d) Civil Registration System
Answer Options:
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
According to the provided text, the national census, which is conducted in India every ten years, is the primary source of demographic information. The census document is considered primary because it reflects essential population parameters and trends, including growth rates, fertility, mortality, migration patterns, sex ratios, and rural-urban distribution, which are vital for policy planners and demographers.
16Reading Comprehension
Federal Finance in India
Governments may be classified into unitary and federal depending upon the concentration and distribution of power and the relation between the central and local authorities. Under the unitary system, whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ and local governments derive whatever authority they possess from this central organ. This system of government is prevalent in the UK, France, Germany, Austria and most of the countries of Asia. As against the unitary system, federal system provides for a distribution and division of the individual states of which the federation is composed. The general principle of division of power is such that affairs of common interest to the federation as a whole and thus requiring uniformity of regulation are placed under the Central Government, while all local affairs are left to the state governments. The two classic examples of federal system are the USA and Canada. After Independence, India also opted for a federal system of government on the lines of the USA and Canada.
The distribution of powers in countries adopting the federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. However, there are some special problems that have to be grappled within federal financial system. These are : (i) The sources of revenue assigned to the centre and the states should be adequate to enable them to fulfil the functions allotted to them. However, in modern states, it is frequently not possible to ensure this and it is highly unlikely that the needs and resources of each government will be exactly balanced. Therefore, it becomes necessary to evolve a mechanism of adjustments so that shortages and surpluses are evened out; (ii) Each government should have independent financial authority, i.e., each government should have separate sources of revenue, powers to levy taxes and borrow, and to incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively; and (iii) A certain uniformity should be ensured in all areas of the federation so that no preference is given to one state over the other as regards payment of federal taxes.
Which of the following countries have adopted a federal system of government finance ?
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Answer: (C) USA, Canada and India only
Explanation
According to the provided text, the USA and Canada serve as classic examples of a federal system of government. Following its independence, India also opted for a federal system of government based on the models of the USA and Canada. Since the adoption of a federal system of government involves a distribution of powers that defines the financial relations between the central and state governments, all three countries—the USA, Canada, and India—have established a federal system of government finance.
17Reading Comprehension
Federal Finance in India
Governments may be classified into unitary and federal depending upon the concentration and distribution of power and the relation between the central and local authorities. Under the unitary system, whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ and local governments derive whatever authority they possess from this central organ. This system of government is prevalent in the UK, France, Germany, Austria and most of the countries of Asia. As against the unitary system, federal system provides for a distribution and division of the individual states of which the federation is composed. The general principle of division of power is such that affairs of common interest to the federation as a whole and thus requiring uniformity of regulation are placed under the Central Government, while all local affairs are left to the state governments. The two classic examples of federal system are the USA and Canada. After Independence, India also opted for a federal system of government on the lines of the USA and Canada.
The distribution of powers in countries adopting the federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. However, there are some special problems that have to be grappled within federal financial system. These are : (i) The sources of revenue assigned to the centre and the states should be adequate to enable them to fulfil the functions allotted to them. However, in modern states, it is frequently not possible to ensure this and it is highly unlikely that the needs and resources of each government will be exactly balanced. Therefore, it becomes necessary to evolve a mechanism of adjustments so that shortages and surpluses are evened out; (ii) Each government should have independent financial authority, i.e., each government should have separate sources of revenue, powers to levy taxes and borrow, and to incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively; and (iii) A certain uniformity should be ensured in all areas of the federation so that no preference is given to one state over the other as regards payment of federal taxes.
The present passage recommends this :
(a) Independent financial authority in a federal system
(b) Separate/Independent sources of revenue for each government
(c) Powers to levy taxes
(d) Equal distribution of federal revenue between central and state government
Answer Options :
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Answer: (C) (a), (b) and (c) only
Explanation
The passage explicitly states in the second paragraph that in a federal financial system, each government should have independent financial authority. This authority is described as each government having separate sources of revenue and powers to levy taxes, borrow, and incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively. These specific recommendations align directly with statements (a), (b), and (c).
18Quantitative Aptitude
Federal Finance in India
Governments may be classified into unitary and federal depending upon the concentration and distribution of power and the relation between the central and local authorities. Under the unitary system, whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ and local governments derive whatever authority they possess from this central organ. This system of government is prevalent in the UK, France, Germany, Austria and most of the countries of Asia. As against the unitary system, federal system provides for a distribution and division of the individual states of which the federation is composed. The general principle of division of power is such that affairs of common interest to the federation as a whole and thus requiring uniformity of regulation are placed under the Central Government, while all local affairs are left to the state governments. The two classic examples of federal system are the USA and Canada. After Independence, India also opted for a federal system of government on the lines of the USA and Canada.
The distribution of powers in countries adopting the federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. However, there are some special problems that have to be grappled within federal financial system. These are : (i) The sources of revenue assigned to the centre and the states should be adequate to enable them to fulfil the functions allotted to them. However, in modern states, it is frequently not possible to ensure this and it is highly unlikely that the needs and resources of each government will be exactly balanced. Therefore, it becomes necessary to evolve a mechanism of adjustments so that shortages and surpluses are evened out; (ii) Each government should have independent financial authority, i.e., each government should have separate sources of revenue, powers to levy taxes and borrow, and to incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively; and (iii) A certain uniformity should be ensured in all areas of the federation so that no preference is given to one state over the other as regards payment of federal taxes.
What is/are a determinant/determinants of financial relations between the central and state government ?
● Correct
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Answer: (D) Distribution of powers
Explanation
According to the passage, the distribution of powers in countries adopting a federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. This division of power delineates the respective jurisdictions of the center and the states, establishing the framework within which financial responsibilities, revenues, and expenditures are allocated and managed between the two levels of government.
19Reading Comprehension
Federal Finance in India
Governments may be classified into unitary and federal depending upon the concentration and distribution of power and the relation between the central and local authorities. Under the unitary system, whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ and local governments derive whatever authority they possess from this central organ. This system of government is prevalent in the UK, France, Germany, Austria and most of the countries of Asia. As against the unitary system, federal system provides for a distribution and division of the individual states of which the federation is composed. The general principle of division of power is such that affairs of common interest to the federation as a whole and thus requiring uniformity of regulation are placed under the Central Government, while all local affairs are left to the state governments. The two classic examples of federal system are the USA and Canada. After Independence, India also opted for a federal system of government on the lines of the USA and Canada.
The distribution of powers in countries adopting the federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. However, there are some special problems that have to be grappled within federal financial system. These are : (i) The sources of revenue assigned to the centre and the states should be adequate to enable them to fulfil the functions allotted to them. However, in modern states, it is frequently not possible to ensure this and it is highly unlikely that the needs and resources of each government will be exactly balanced. Therefore, it becomes necessary to evolve a mechanism of adjustments so that shortages and surpluses are evened out; (ii) Each government should have independent financial authority, i.e., each government should have separate sources of revenue, powers to levy taxes and borrow, and to incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively; and (iii) A certain uniformity should be ensured in all areas of the federation so that no preference is given to one state over the other as regards payment of federal taxes.
Match the following :
| List - I | List - II |
|---|---|
| (a) Unitary Government | (i) Germany, Austria |
| (b) Federal Government | (ii) India |
| (c) UK, France | (iii) Division of power between Central and State Governments |
| (d) USA, Canada | (iv) Whole power upon Central Government |
Answer Options :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Explanation
Unitary Government matches with (iv) Whole power upon Central Government because, as per the passage, under the unitary system, the whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ.
Federal Government matches with (iii) Division of power between Central and State Governments because the federal system provides for a distribution and division of power between the central government and the individual states.
UK, France matches with (i) Germany, Austria because all these countries are listed in the passage as examples where the unitary system of government is prevalent.
USA, Canada matches with (ii) India because the passage highlights the USA and Canada as the classic examples of federal systems, and notes that India also opted for a federal system on their lines.
20Reading Comprehension
Federal Finance in India
Governments may be classified into unitary and federal depending upon the concentration and distribution of power and the relation between the central and local authorities. Under the unitary system, whole power of government is conferred by the constitution upon a single central organ and local governments derive whatever authority they possess from this central organ. This system of government is prevalent in the UK, France, Germany, Austria and most of the countries of Asia. As against the unitary system, federal system provides for a distribution and division of the individual states of which the federation is composed. The general principle of division of power is such that affairs of common interest to the federation as a whole and thus requiring uniformity of regulation are placed under the Central Government, while all local affairs are left to the state governments. The two classic examples of federal system are the USA and Canada. After Independence, India also opted for a federal system of government on the lines of the USA and Canada.
The distribution of powers in countries adopting the federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments. However, there are some special problems that have to be grappled within federal financial system. These are : (i) The sources of revenue assigned to the centre and the states should be adequate to enable them to fulfil the functions allotted to them. However, in modern states, it is frequently not possible to ensure this and it is highly unlikely that the needs and resources of each government will be exactly balanced. Therefore, it becomes necessary to evolve a mechanism of adjustments so that shortages and surpluses are evened out; (ii) Each government should have independent financial authority, i.e., each government should have separate sources of revenue, powers to levy taxes and borrow, and to incur expenditure to carry out its functions effectively; and (iii) A certain uniformity should be ensured in all areas of the federation so that no preference is given to one state over the other as regards payment of federal taxes.
Identify the correct statement/statements.
(a) Federal system of government does not define the financial relations between the central and state governments.
(b) Federal system of government defines the financial relations among the state governments.
(c) Federal system of government defines the financial relations between the central and the state governments.
(d) Federal system of government defines the financial relations between the local governments.
Answer Options :
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Answer: (D) only (c) is correct
Explanation
Under a federal system of government, there is a clear division of powers between the central authority and the constituent state governments. As described in the passage, this distribution of powers defines the financial relations specifically between the central and the state governments, ensuring each level of government can manage its respective financial resources and expenditures. Therefore, only statement (c) accurately reflects the definition of financial relations in a federal system.
21Reading Comprehension
The Spectrum of Light
The light is kind of electromagnetic spectrum. Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature. Any electromagnetic wave is made up of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space from one place to another. The basic characteristics of the electromagnetic radiation are its frequency and wavelength. To put light waves into perspective with lower radio and other frequencies. The left end of the spectrum is very low frequency electrical signals such as AC power 50Hz and audio or sound frequencies in 20Hz to 20kHz range. These are the lower frequencies that have long wavelengths. Higher up frequency scale to right is wide range of radio frequencies.
Radio frequencies range from 10kHz to 300GHz. Microwaves extends from 1 to 300GHz. Even further up the scale we find visible light. The frequency of Optical spectrum is in the range of 3× 10¹¹ to 3× 10¹⁶Hz. This includes infrared and ultraviolet as well as visible parts of the spectrum. The visible spectrum is 4.3× 10¹⁴ to 7.5× 10¹⁴Hz. But we are rarely referred to the frequency of light. Instead we state light in a distance measured in terms of the meters between peaks of wave. Light waves are very short and are usually expressed in Nanometers or microns (one millionth of a meter). Visible light is in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers (nm) or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers (μm) depending upon colour of light. Short wavelength light is violet and long wavelength light is red colour respectively. Right below the visible light is region of infrared rays cannot be seen. The source of most infrared is heat. Right above visible spectrum is ultraviolet range. Infrared and ultraviolet are included in what we call as optical spectrum. Beyond that are x- rays, gamma rays and cosmic rays.
Light travels in a straight line. Light rays emitted by a candle or a light bulb, move out in the straight line in all directions. Light travels at the speed of 300,000,000 meter/second. i.e. 1,86,000 miles/s. The speed of the light depends upon the medium through which light passes. The above speed of light is in the free space means light travelling in air or vacuum. When light travels through glass medium its speed lowers.
Light can be manipulated in many ways. Lenses are widely used to focus, enlarge or to decrease the size of the light waves from same source. Lenses permit useful devices such as cameras, binoculars, microscopes, and telescopes. Reflection and refraction are the important characteristics of light. The law of reflection state that angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. Refraction is another characteristic of light states that it's bending of the light when light rays passes through one medium to another. There is relation between wavelength, frequency and speed of the light. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Unit of the light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers.
Optical spectrum consist of ________.
● Correct
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
According to the text, the optical spectrum spans the frequency range of 3 × 10¹¹ to 3 × 10¹⁶ Hz. The passage explicitly states that this range includes infrared and ultraviolet light as well as visible parts of the spectrum. It also specifies that infrared and ultraviolet are part of the optical spectrum. Since infrared and ultraviolet light are invisible to the human eye, the optical spectrum comprises both visible light and invisible light (including ultraviolet and infrared). Consequently, all the provided descriptions of what the optical spectrum consists of are correct.
22Quantitative Aptitude
The Spectrum of Light
The light is kind of electromagnetic spectrum. Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature. Any electromagnetic wave is made up of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space from one place to another. The basic characteristics of the electromagnetic radiation are its frequency and wavelength. To put light waves into perspective with lower radio and other frequencies. The left end of the spectrum is very low frequency electrical signals such as AC power 50Hz and audio or sound frequencies in 20Hz to 20kHz range. These are the lower frequencies that have long wavelengths. Higher up frequency scale to right is wide range of radio frequencies.
Radio frequencies range from 10kHz to 300GHz. Microwaves extends from 1 to 300GHz. Even further up the scale we find visible light. The frequency of Optical spectrum is in the range of 3× 10¹¹ to 3× 10¹⁶Hz. This includes infrared and ultraviolet as well as visible parts of the spectrum. The visible spectrum is 4.3× 10¹⁴ to 7.5× 10¹⁴Hz. But we are rarely referred to the frequency of light. Instead we state light in a distance measured in terms of the meters between peaks of wave. Light waves are very short and are usually expressed in Nanometers or microns (one millionth of a meter). Visible light is in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers (nm) or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers (μm) depending upon colour of light. Short wavelength light is violet and long wavelength light is red colour respectively. Right below the visible light is region of infrared rays cannot be seen. The source of most infrared is heat. Right above visible spectrum is ultraviolet range. Infrared and ultraviolet are included in what we call as optical spectrum. Beyond that are x- rays, gamma rays and cosmic rays.
Light travels in a straight line. Light rays emitted by a candle or a light bulb, move out in the straight line in all directions. Light travels at the speed of 300,000,000 meter/second. i.e. 1,86,000 miles/s. The speed of the light depends upon the medium through which light passes. The above speed of light is in the free space means light travelling in air or vacuum. When light travels through glass medium its speed lowers.
Light can be manipulated in many ways. Lenses are widely used to focus, enlarge or to decrease the size of the light waves from same source. Lenses permit useful devices such as cameras, binoculars, microscopes, and telescopes. Reflection and refraction are the important characteristics of light. The law of reflection state that angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. Refraction is another characteristic of light states that it's bending of the light when light rays passes through one medium to another. There is relation between wavelength, frequency and speed of the light. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Unit of the light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers.
Speed of light is ________.
● Correct
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Answer: (A) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
Explanation
According to the passage, light travels at a speed of 300,000,000 meters per second in free space, such as air or vacuum. In scientific notation, this number is written as 3 × 10⁸, which represents 3 multiplied by 100,000,000. Therefore, the speed of light in SI units is 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
23Reading Comprehension
The Spectrum of Light
The light is kind of electromagnetic spectrum. Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature. Any electromagnetic wave is made up of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space from one place to another. The basic characteristics of the electromagnetic radiation are its frequency and wavelength. To put light waves into perspective with lower radio and other frequencies. The left end of the spectrum is very low frequency electrical signals such as AC power 50Hz and audio or sound frequencies in 20Hz to 20kHz range. These are the lower frequencies that have long wavelengths. Higher up frequency scale to right is wide range of radio frequencies.
Radio frequencies range from 10kHz to 300GHz. Microwaves extends from 1 to 300GHz. Even further up the scale we find visible light. The frequency of Optical spectrum is in the range of 3× 10¹¹ to 3× 10¹⁶Hz. This includes infrared and ultraviolet as well as visible parts of the spectrum. The visible spectrum is 4.3× 10¹⁴ to 7.5× 10¹⁴Hz. But we are rarely referred to the frequency of light. Instead we state light in a distance measured in terms of the meters between peaks of wave. Light waves are very short and are usually expressed in Nanometers or microns (one millionth of a meter). Visible light is in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers (nm) or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers (μm) depending upon colour of light. Short wavelength light is violet and long wavelength light is red colour respectively. Right below the visible light is region of infrared rays cannot be seen. The source of most infrared is heat. Right above visible spectrum is ultraviolet range. Infrared and ultraviolet are included in what we call as optical spectrum. Beyond that are x- rays, gamma rays and cosmic rays.
Light travels in a straight line. Light rays emitted by a candle or a light bulb, move out in the straight line in all directions. Light travels at the speed of 300,000,000 meter/second. i.e. 1,86,000 miles/s. The speed of the light depends upon the medium through which light passes. The above speed of light is in the free space means light travelling in air or vacuum. When light travels through glass medium its speed lowers.
Light can be manipulated in many ways. Lenses are widely used to focus, enlarge or to decrease the size of the light waves from same source. Lenses permit useful devices such as cameras, binoculars, microscopes, and telescopes. Reflection and refraction are the important characteristics of light. The law of reflection state that angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. Refraction is another characteristic of light states that it's bending of the light when light rays passes through one medium to another. There is relation between wavelength, frequency and speed of the light. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Unit of the light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers.
Light unit is generally expressed in ________.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
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Answer: (D) Nano - Micrometer
Explanation
According to the passage, light waves are very short and are usually expressed in nanometers or microns, which is one millionth of a meter. The text explicitly states that the unit of light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers, which correspond to the range of 400 to 700 nanometers or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers for visible light depending on its color.
24Quantitative Aptitude
The Spectrum of Light
The light is kind of electromagnetic spectrum. Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature. Any electromagnetic wave is made up of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space from one place to another. The basic characteristics of the electromagnetic radiation are its frequency and wavelength. To put light waves into perspective with lower radio and other frequencies. The left end of the spectrum is very low frequency electrical signals such as AC power 50Hz and audio or sound frequencies in 20Hz to 20kHz range. These are the lower frequencies that have long wavelengths. Higher up frequency scale to right is wide range of radio frequencies.
Radio frequencies range from 10kHz to 300GHz. Microwaves extends from 1 to 300GHz. Even further up the scale we find visible light. The frequency of Optical spectrum is in the range of 3× 10¹¹ to 3× 10¹⁶Hz. This includes infrared and ultraviolet as well as visible parts of the spectrum. The visible spectrum is 4.3× 10¹⁴ to 7.5× 10¹⁴Hz. But we are rarely referred to the frequency of light. Instead we state light in a distance measured in terms of the meters between peaks of wave. Light waves are very short and are usually expressed in Nanometers or microns (one millionth of a meter). Visible light is in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers (nm) or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers (μm) depending upon colour of light. Short wavelength light is violet and long wavelength light is red colour respectively. Right below the visible light is region of infrared rays cannot be seen. The source of most infrared is heat. Right above visible spectrum is ultraviolet range. Infrared and ultraviolet are included in what we call as optical spectrum. Beyond that are x- rays, gamma rays and cosmic rays.
Light travels in a straight line. Light rays emitted by a candle or a light bulb, move out in the straight line in all directions. Light travels at the speed of 300,000,000 meter/second. i.e. 1,86,000 miles/s. The speed of the light depends upon the medium through which light passes. The above speed of light is in the free space means light travelling in air or vacuum. When light travels through glass medium its speed lowers.
Light can be manipulated in many ways. Lenses are widely used to focus, enlarge or to decrease the size of the light waves from same source. Lenses permit useful devices such as cameras, binoculars, microscopes, and telescopes. Reflection and refraction are the important characteristics of light. The law of reflection state that angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. Refraction is another characteristic of light states that it's bending of the light when light rays passes through one medium to another. There is relation between wavelength, frequency and speed of the light. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Unit of the light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers.
Light is generally in the form of :
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Electromagnetic Waves
Explanation
Based on the provided passage, light is a component of the electromagnetic spectrum. Electromagnetic waves are composed of oscillating electric and magnetic fields that propagate through space. Since visible light, infrared radiation, and ultraviolet radiation are all parts of the optical and broader electromagnetic spectrum, light is fundamentally a form of electromagnetic waves.
25Reading Comprehension
The Spectrum of Light
The light is kind of electromagnetic spectrum. Radio waves are electromagnetic in nature. Any electromagnetic wave is made up of electric and magnetic fields that travel through space from one place to another. The basic characteristics of the electromagnetic radiation are its frequency and wavelength. To put light waves into perspective with lower radio and other frequencies. The left end of the spectrum is very low frequency electrical signals such as AC power 50Hz and audio or sound frequencies in 20Hz to 20kHz range. These are the lower frequencies that have long wavelengths. Higher up frequency scale to right is wide range of radio frequencies.
Radio frequencies range from 10kHz to 300GHz. Microwaves extends from 1 to 300GHz. Even further up the scale we find visible light. The frequency of Optical spectrum is in the range of 3× 10¹¹ to 3× 10¹⁶Hz. This includes infrared and ultraviolet as well as visible parts of the spectrum. The visible spectrum is 4.3× 10¹⁴ to 7.5× 10¹⁴Hz. But we are rarely referred to the frequency of light. Instead we state light in a distance measured in terms of the meters between peaks of wave. Light waves are very short and are usually expressed in Nanometers or microns (one millionth of a meter). Visible light is in the range of 400 to 700 nanometers (nm) or 0.4 to 0.7 micrometers (μm) depending upon colour of light. Short wavelength light is violet and long wavelength light is red colour respectively. Right below the visible light is region of infrared rays cannot be seen. The source of most infrared is heat. Right above visible spectrum is ultraviolet range. Infrared and ultraviolet are included in what we call as optical spectrum. Beyond that are x- rays, gamma rays and cosmic rays.
Light travels in a straight line. Light rays emitted by a candle or a light bulb, move out in the straight line in all directions. Light travels at the speed of 300,000,000 meter/second. i.e. 1,86,000 miles/s. The speed of the light depends upon the medium through which light passes. The above speed of light is in the free space means light travelling in air or vacuum. When light travels through glass medium its speed lowers.
Light can be manipulated in many ways. Lenses are widely used to focus, enlarge or to decrease the size of the light waves from same source. Lenses permit useful devices such as cameras, binoculars, microscopes, and telescopes. Reflection and refraction are the important characteristics of light. The law of reflection state that angle of reflection is equal to angle of incidence. Refraction is another characteristic of light states that it's bending of the light when light rays passes through one medium to another. There is relation between wavelength, frequency and speed of the light. Wavelength is inversely proportional to frequency. Unit of the light is generally expressed in terms of nanometers or micrometers.
Frequency of infrared light is ________ than violet light.
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Answer: (A) Less than
Explanation
The frequency of an electromagnetic wave is inversely proportional to its wavelength, as expressed by the formula f = c/λ, where f is the frequency, c is the speed of light, and λ is the wavelength. Violet light lies at the high-frequency, short-wavelength end of the visible spectrum with a wavelength of approximately 400 nanometers. Infrared light lies beyond the red end of the visible spectrum and has much longer wavelengths, typically starting above 700 nanometers. Because frequency decreases as wavelength increases, the longer wavelength of infrared light results in a frequency that is less than that of violet light.
26Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question no. 26 to 30.
Vitamins
Vitamins are organic substances present in small amount in many foods. They are required for carrying out many vital functions of the body and many of them are involved in the utilization of the major nutrients like proteins, fat and carbohydrates. Although they are needed in small amounts, they are essential for health and well- being of the body. When these vitamins are discovered on the basis of their function and before their chemical nature fully elucidated, they used to be designated by affixing the letter A, B, C, D or in terms of their major functions, viz Antixerophthalmic, Antineuritic, Antiscorbutic and Antirachatic Vitamins. After establishing the chemical nature of these Vitamins, they are now referred to by their chemical names such as Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Ascorbic Acid and Chole- calciferol.
Vitamins can be broadly classify as water soluble and fat soluble vitamins. B- complex Vitamins and Ascorbic Acid belong to the former group while Vitamin A, D, E, K are the fat soluble Vitamins. Water soluble Vitamins are not accumulated in the body, but are readily excreted while fat soluble Vitamins are stored in the body. For this reason, excessive intake of fat soluble Vitamins, Vitamin A and D can prove toxic.
Retinol or Vitamin A is necessary for clear vision in dim light. Lack of Vitamin A thus leads to night blindness. Another function of vitamin A is to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue. Retinol or vitamin A is present in some foods like butter and ghee, whole milk, curd, egg yolk, liver etc. In vegetables food Vitamin A is not present as Retinol. These food contain yellow pigment called Carotene which is converted into Vitamin A in the body. So they are termed as Provitamin A.
Vitamin D is required for bone growth and calcium metabolism. It plays an important role in the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine and its deposition in bone.
Vitamin D is formed in the skin by Ultraviolet rays present in sunlight which convert a cholesterol derivative present in the skin to Vit. D. Lack of Vitamin D leads to rickets and osteomalacia. The Vitamin D requirement of child is placed between 200 - 400 IU; which may be obtained in great measures in tropical countries through exposure to sunlight.
Which of the following statement regarding Vitamin 'D' is false ?
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Answer: (B) Excess of Vitamin 'D' is not harmful.
Explanation
According to the provided passage, fat-soluble vitamins are stored in the body rather than being readily excreted. For this reason, an excessive intake of fat-soluble vitamins, specifically Vitamin A and Vitamin D, can accumulate in the body and prove toxic. Therefore, the statement claiming that an excess of Vitamin D is not harmful is false.
27Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question no. 26 to 30.
Vitamins
Vitamins are organic substances present in small amount in many foods. They are required for carrying out many vital functions of the body and many of them are involved in the utilization of the major nutrients like proteins, fat and carbohydrates. Although they are needed in small amounts, they are essential for health and well- being of the body. When these vitamins are discovered on the basis of their function and before their chemical nature fully elucidated, they used to be designated by affixing the letter A, B, C, D or in terms of their major functions, viz Antixerophthalmic, Antineuritic, Antiscorbutic and Antirachatic Vitamins. After establishing the chemical nature of these Vitamins, they are now referred to by their chemical names such as Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Ascorbic Acid and Chole- calciferol.
Vitamins can be broadly classify as water soluble and fat soluble vitamins. B- complex Vitamins and Ascorbic Acid belong to the former group while Vitamin A, D, E, K are the fat soluble Vitamins. Water soluble Vitamins are not accumulated in the body, but are readily excreted while fat soluble Vitamins are stored in the body. For this reason, excessive intake of fat soluble Vitamins, Vitamin A and D can prove toxic.
Retinol or Vitamin A is necessary for clear vision in dim light. Lack of Vitamin A thus leads to night blindness. Another function of vitamin A is to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue. Retinol or vitamin A is present in some foods like butter and ghee, whole milk, curd, egg yolk, liver etc. In vegetables food Vitamin A is not present as Retinol. These food contain yellow pigment called Carotene which is converted into Vitamin A in the body. So they are termed as Provitamin A.
Vitamin D is required for bone growth and calcium metabolism. It plays an important role in the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine and its deposition in bone.
Vitamin D is formed in the skin by Ultraviolet rays present in sunlight which convert a cholesterol derivative present in the skin to Vit. D. Lack of Vitamin D leads to rickets and osteomalacia. The Vitamin D requirement of child is placed between 200 - 400 IU; which may be obtained in great measures in tropical countries through exposure to sunlight.
Requirement of Vitamin 'D' in child is ________.
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Answer: (C) 200 - 400 IU
Explanation
Based on the provided passage, the daily requirement of Vitamin D for a child is explicitly stated to be between 200 and 400 IU. This requirement is easily met in tropical regions through regular exposure to sunlight, which triggers the conversion of a cholesterol derivative in the skin into active Vitamin D.
28Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question no. 26 to 30.
Vitamins
Vitamins are organic substances present in small amount in many foods. They are required for carrying out many vital functions of the body and many of them are involved in the utilization of the major nutrients like proteins, fat and carbohydrates. Although they are needed in small amounts, they are essential for health and well- being of the body. When these vitamins are discovered on the basis of their function and before their chemical nature fully elucidated, they used to be designated by affixing the letter A, B, C, D or in terms of their major functions, viz Antixerophthalmic, Antineuritic, Antiscorbutic and Antirachatic Vitamins. After establishing the chemical nature of these Vitamins, they are now referred to by their chemical names such as Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Ascorbic Acid and Chole- calciferol.
Vitamins can be broadly classify as water soluble and fat soluble vitamins. B- complex Vitamins and Ascorbic Acid belong to the former group while Vitamin A, D, E, K are the fat soluble Vitamins. Water soluble Vitamins are not accumulated in the body, but are readily excreted while fat soluble Vitamins are stored in the body. For this reason, excessive intake of fat soluble Vitamins, Vitamin A and D can prove toxic.
Retinol or Vitamin A is necessary for clear vision in dim light. Lack of Vitamin A thus leads to night blindness. Another function of vitamin A is to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue. Retinol or vitamin A is present in some foods like butter and ghee, whole milk, curd, egg yolk, liver etc. In vegetables food Vitamin A is not present as Retinol. These food contain yellow pigment called Carotene which is converted into Vitamin A in the body. So they are termed as Provitamin A.
Vitamin D is required for bone growth and calcium metabolism. It plays an important role in the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine and its deposition in bone.
Vitamin D is formed in the skin by Ultraviolet rays present in sunlight which convert a cholesterol derivative present in the skin to Vit. D. Lack of Vitamin D leads to rickets and osteomalacia. The Vitamin D requirement of child is placed between 200 - 400 IU; which may be obtained in great measures in tropical countries through exposure to sunlight.
In vegetable foods, instead of Retinol following chemical is present :
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Answer: (C) Carotene
Explanation
According to the provided passage, vitamin A is not present as retinol in vegetable foods. Instead, these foods contain a yellow pigment called carotene, which the body converts into vitamin A, making it a precursor known as provitamin A.
29Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question no. 26 to 30.
Vitamins
Vitamins are organic substances present in small amount in many foods. They are required for carrying out many vital functions of the body and many of them are involved in the utilization of the major nutrients like proteins, fat and carbohydrates. Although they are needed in small amounts, they are essential for health and well- being of the body. When these vitamins are discovered on the basis of their function and before their chemical nature fully elucidated, they used to be designated by affixing the letter A, B, C, D or in terms of their major functions, viz Antixerophthalmic, Antineuritic, Antiscorbutic and Antirachatic Vitamins. After establishing the chemical nature of these Vitamins, they are now referred to by their chemical names such as Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Ascorbic Acid and Chole- calciferol.
Vitamins can be broadly classify as water soluble and fat soluble vitamins. B- complex Vitamins and Ascorbic Acid belong to the former group while Vitamin A, D, E, K are the fat soluble Vitamins. Water soluble Vitamins are not accumulated in the body, but are readily excreted while fat soluble Vitamins are stored in the body. For this reason, excessive intake of fat soluble Vitamins, Vitamin A and D can prove toxic.
Retinol or Vitamin A is necessary for clear vision in dim light. Lack of Vitamin A thus leads to night blindness. Another function of vitamin A is to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue. Retinol or vitamin A is present in some foods like butter and ghee, whole milk, curd, egg yolk, liver etc. In vegetables food Vitamin A is not present as Retinol. These food contain yellow pigment called Carotene which is converted into Vitamin A in the body. So they are termed as Provitamin A.
Vitamin D is required for bone growth and calcium metabolism. It plays an important role in the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine and its deposition in bone.
Vitamin D is formed in the skin by Ultraviolet rays present in sunlight which convert a cholesterol derivative present in the skin to Vit. D. Lack of Vitamin D leads to rickets and osteomalacia. The Vitamin D requirement of child is placed between 200 - 400 IU; which may be obtained in great measures in tropical countries through exposure to sunlight.
Vitamins are classified as ______.
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Answer: (B) Fat and Water soluble
Explanation
According to the provided passage, vitamins are broadly classified as water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins. The water-soluble group includes B-complex vitamins and ascorbic acid, which are not accumulated in the body but are readily excreted. The fat-soluble group includes vitamins A, D, E, and K, which are stored in the body and can prove toxic if consumed in excessive amounts.
30Reading Comprehension
Read the following passage and answer the question no. 26 to 30.
Vitamins
Vitamins are organic substances present in small amount in many foods. They are required for carrying out many vital functions of the body and many of them are involved in the utilization of the major nutrients like proteins, fat and carbohydrates. Although they are needed in small amounts, they are essential for health and well- being of the body. When these vitamins are discovered on the basis of their function and before their chemical nature fully elucidated, they used to be designated by affixing the letter A, B, C, D or in terms of their major functions, viz Antixerophthalmic, Antineuritic, Antiscorbutic and Antirachatic Vitamins. After establishing the chemical nature of these Vitamins, they are now referred to by their chemical names such as Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin, Ascorbic Acid and Chole- calciferol.
Vitamins can be broadly classify as water soluble and fat soluble vitamins. B- complex Vitamins and Ascorbic Acid belong to the former group while Vitamin A, D, E, K are the fat soluble Vitamins. Water soluble Vitamins are not accumulated in the body, but are readily excreted while fat soluble Vitamins are stored in the body. For this reason, excessive intake of fat soluble Vitamins, Vitamin A and D can prove toxic.
Retinol or Vitamin A is necessary for clear vision in dim light. Lack of Vitamin A thus leads to night blindness. Another function of vitamin A is to maintain the integrity of epithelial tissue. Retinol or vitamin A is present in some foods like butter and ghee, whole milk, curd, egg yolk, liver etc. In vegetables food Vitamin A is not present as Retinol. These food contain yellow pigment called Carotene which is converted into Vitamin A in the body. So they are termed as Provitamin A.
Vitamin D is required for bone growth and calcium metabolism. It plays an important role in the absorption of dietary calcium from the intestine and its deposition in bone.
Vitamin D is formed in the skin by Ultraviolet rays present in sunlight which convert a cholesterol derivative present in the skin to Vit. D. Lack of Vitamin D leads to rickets and osteomalacia. The Vitamin D requirement of child is placed between 200 - 400 IU; which may be obtained in great measures in tropical countries through exposure to sunlight.
Read the following statements :
(a) Retinol, Thiamin, Riboflavin and Chole-calciferol are Vitamins
(b) Vitamins are needed in small quantities
(c) Ascorbic acid, Retinol and Chlorofin are Vitamins
(d) Excessive intake of vitamin 'A' can lead to night blindness
Which of the option given above is/are correct ?
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Answer: (C) (c) and (d) are false
Explanation
Statement (c) is false because chlorofin is not classified as a vitamin.
Statement (d) is false because night blindness is caused by a lack or deficiency of Vitamin A, whereas excessive intake of Vitamin A can instead lead to toxicity.
31Quantitative Aptitude
The mol is a SI unit of the amount of a chemical species/substance. It is always associated with the formula and contains 6.022 × 10²³ , Avogadro's number of particles of the species represented by that formula. The molar mass of any chemical substance is the mass in gram of one mol of that substance, this can be obtained by adding the atomic weights of the component elements present in the formula of the substance (eg. molar mass of HCl is obtained by adding atomic weight of H ie 1 and Cl ie 35.5 = 36.5 ~g ). The molar volume, ie 22.4 dm³ is the volume of one mol of any gas (assumed to behave ideally) at 273 K and 1 atm = 101.325 kPa pressure (STP). This volume can be converted to the volume under any condition of temperature and pressure by using general
gas~equation~(P₁V₁)/(T₁) = (P₂V₂)/(T₂).
Chemists express the concentration of chemical species on the basis of volume (temperature dependent) ie molarity (M), normality (N), formality (F) etc. as well as mass (temperature independent) ie molality (m), mole fraction (x) etc. The molar concentration, M, of a solution of any chemical species is the number of mol of that species present per dm³ of the solution. Normality, N, is a more convenient unit of concentration as the number of equivalents of an analyte (unknown concentration) present = the number of equivalents of the standard reagent (known concentration) added. As a consequence, the stoichiometry of the reaction need not be derived every time a titrimetric analysis is performed. Normality is the number of equivalents of the solute present per dm³ of the solution. The number of equivalents is the ratio of weight in gram of the solute to the equivalent weight of that solute. The equivalent weight of the solute then needs to be known which is defined as "the weight which contains, combines with or displaces one part by weight of hydrogen".
Commercially available reagents ie acids and bases are highly concentrated. To use them in laboratory for routine experiments, one needs to dilute the solutions with definite quantity of water. The total number of equivalents or mol in both, concentrated and dilute solution, must be the same is the basis of this dilution.
The mass based concentration units are molality, m, ie the number of mol of solute dissolved in a kg of solvent and mole fraction, χ , ie the fraction of the total number of mol of that component present in the given solution.
(Atomic weights : H = 1 , He = 4 , Ne = 20 , N = 14 , O = 16 , S = 32 , Cl = 35.5 , Ar = 40 , Ag = 108 )
Which of the following contains maximum number of atoms?
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Answer: (C) 1 g of N₂
Explanation
The total number of atoms in a given mass of a chemical species can be determined using the formula:
Number of atoms = (Mass / Molar mass) × Atomicity × N_A
Where N_A is Avogadro's number (6.022 × 10²³) and atomicity is the number of atoms in one molecule of the species.
For 1 g of N₂, the molecular weight of diatomic nitrogen is 28 g/mol (since the atomic weight of N = 14) and its atomicity is 2. Substituting these values:
Number of atoms = (1 / 28) × 2 × N_A = (1 / 14) × N_A ≈ 0.0714 N_A
Comparing the ratio of (Atomicity / Molar mass) for all the given species, we get 1/108 ≈ 0.0093 for Ag, 1/20 = 0.05 for Ne, 2/28 = 1/14 ≈ 0.0714 for N₂, and 2/32 = 1/16 ≈ 0.0625 for O₂. The value of 1/14 is the largest among all the ratios, which means 1 g of N₂ contains the maximum number of atoms.
32Quantitative Aptitude
The mol is a SI unit of the amount of a chemical species/substance. It is always associated with the formula and contains 6.022 × 10²³ , Avogadro's number of particles of the species represented by that formula. The molar mass of any chemical substance is the mass in gram of one mol of that substance, this can be obtained by adding the atomic weights of the component elements present in the formula of the substance (eg. molar mass of HCl is obtained by adding atomic weight of H ie 1 and Cl ie 35.5 = 36.5 ~g ). The molar volume, ie 22.4 dm³ is the volume of one mol of any gas (assumed to behave ideally) at 273 K and 1 atm = 101.325 kPa pressure (STP). This volume can be converted to the volume under any condition of temperature and pressure by using general
gas~equation~(P₁V₁)/(T₁) = (P₂V₂)/(T₂).
Chemists express the concentration of chemical species on the basis of volume (temperature dependent) ie molarity (M), normality (N), formality (F) etc. as well as mass (temperature independent) ie molality (m), mole fraction (x) etc. The molar concentration, M, of a solution of any chemical species is the number of mol of that species present per dm³ of the solution. Normality, N, is a more convenient unit of concentration as the number of equivalents of an analyte (unknown concentration) present = the number of equivalents of the standard reagent (known concentration) added. As a consequence, the stoichiometry of the reaction need not be derived every time a titrimetric analysis is performed. Normality is the number of equivalents of the solute present per dm³ of the solution. The number of equivalents is the ratio of weight in gram of the solute to the equivalent weight of that solute. The equivalent weight of the solute then needs to be known which is defined as "the weight which contains, combines with or displaces one part by weight of hydrogen".
Commercially available reagents ie acids and bases are highly concentrated. To use them in laboratory for routine experiments, one needs to dilute the solutions with definite quantity of water. The total number of equivalents or mol in both, concentrated and dilute solution, must be the same is the basis of this dilution.
The mass based concentration units are molality, m, ie the number of mol of solute dissolved in a kg of solvent and mole fraction, χ , ie the fraction of the total number of mol of that component present in the given solution.
(Atomic weights : H = 1 , He = 4 , Ne = 20 , N = 14 , O = 16 , S = 32 , Cl = 35.5 , Ar = 40 , Ag = 108 )
What is the volume of 1 g of Helium gas at STP?
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Answer: (C) 5.6 dm³
Explanation
The molar mass of Helium is 4 g/mol. At standard temperature and pressure, the molar volume of one mole of any ideal gas is 22.4 dm³/mol.
The number of moles in 1 g of Helium gas is calculated as:
n = mass / molar mass = 1 g / 4 g/mol = 0.25 mol
The volume occupied by 1 g of Helium gas at STP is:
V = n × molar volume = 0.25 mol × 22.4 dm³/mol = 5.6 dm³
33Quantitative Aptitude
The mol is a SI unit of the amount of a chemical species/substance. It is always associated with the formula and contains 6.022 × 10²³ , Avogadro's number of particles of the species represented by that formula. The molar mass of any chemical substance is the mass in gram of one mol of that substance, this can be obtained by adding the atomic weights of the component elements present in the formula of the substance (eg. molar mass of HCl is obtained by adding atomic weight of H ie 1 and Cl ie 35.5 = 36.5 ~g ). The molar volume, ie 22.4 dm³ is the volume of one mol of any gas (assumed to behave ideally) at 273 K and 1 atm = 101.325 kPa pressure (STP). This volume can be converted to the volume under any condition of temperature and pressure by using general
gas~equation~(P₁V₁)/(T₁) = (P₂V₂)/(T₂).
Chemists express the concentration of chemical species on the basis of volume (temperature dependent) ie molarity (M), normality (N), formality (F) etc. as well as mass (temperature independent) ie molality (m), mole fraction (x) etc. The molar concentration, M, of a solution of any chemical species is the number of mol of that species present per dm³ of the solution. Normality, N, is a more convenient unit of concentration as the number of equivalents of an analyte (unknown concentration) present = the number of equivalents of the standard reagent (known concentration) added. As a consequence, the stoichiometry of the reaction need not be derived every time a titrimetric analysis is performed. Normality is the number of equivalents of the solute present per dm³ of the solution. The number of equivalents is the ratio of weight in gram of the solute to the equivalent weight of that solute. The equivalent weight of the solute then needs to be known which is defined as "the weight which contains, combines with or displaces one part by weight of hydrogen".
Commercially available reagents ie acids and bases are highly concentrated. To use them in laboratory for routine experiments, one needs to dilute the solutions with definite quantity of water. The total number of equivalents or mol in both, concentrated and dilute solution, must be the same is the basis of this dilution.
The mass based concentration units are molality, m, ie the number of mol of solute dissolved in a kg of solvent and mole fraction, χ , ie the fraction of the total number of mol of that component present in the given solution.
(Atomic weights : H = 1 , He = 4 , Ne = 20 , N = 14 , O = 16 , S = 32 , Cl = 35.5 , Ar = 40 , Ag = 108 )
What is the molarity of pure water? (Density of water = 1 g/cm³)
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Answer: (B) 55.5 M
Explanation
Molarity of a substance is defined as the number of moles of the substance per liter of solution:
Molarity = Mass / (Molar mass × Volume)
For pure water, the density is 1 g/cm³, which is equivalent to 1000 g/L. This means 1 liter of water has a mass of 1000 grams.
The molar mass of water (H₂O) is calculated from the atomic weights of hydrogen and oxygen:
Molar mass of H₂O = (2 × 1) + 16 = 18 g/mol
Substituting the mass of 1000 g and the molar mass of 18 g/mol into the formula for 1 liter of water:
Molarity = 1000 / (18 × 1) = 55.56 M
This concentration is approximately 55.5 M.
34Quantitative Aptitude
The mol is a SI unit of the amount of a chemical species/substance. It is always associated with the formula and contains 6.022 × 10²³ , Avogadro's number of particles of the species represented by that formula. The molar mass of any chemical substance is the mass in gram of one mol of that substance, this can be obtained by adding the atomic weights of the component elements present in the formula of the substance (eg. molar mass of HCl is obtained by adding atomic weight of H ie 1 and Cl ie 35.5 = 36.5 ~g ). The molar volume, ie 22.4 dm³ is the volume of one mol of any gas (assumed to behave ideally) at 273 K and 1 atm = 101.325 kPa pressure (STP). This volume can be converted to the volume under any condition of temperature and pressure by using general
gas~equation~(P₁V₁)/(T₁) = (P₂V₂)/(T₂).
Chemists express the concentration of chemical species on the basis of volume (temperature dependent) ie molarity (M), normality (N), formality (F) etc. as well as mass (temperature independent) ie molality (m), mole fraction (x) etc. The molar concentration, M, of a solution of any chemical species is the number of mol of that species present per dm³ of the solution. Normality, N, is a more convenient unit of concentration as the number of equivalents of an analyte (unknown concentration) present = the number of equivalents of the standard reagent (known concentration) added. As a consequence, the stoichiometry of the reaction need not be derived every time a titrimetric analysis is performed. Normality is the number of equivalents of the solute present per dm³ of the solution. The number of equivalents is the ratio of weight in gram of the solute to the equivalent weight of that solute. The equivalent weight of the solute then needs to be known which is defined as "the weight which contains, combines with or displaces one part by weight of hydrogen".
Commercially available reagents ie acids and bases are highly concentrated. To use them in laboratory for routine experiments, one needs to dilute the solutions with definite quantity of water. The total number of equivalents or mol in both, concentrated and dilute solution, must be the same is the basis of this dilution.
The mass based concentration units are molality, m, ie the number of mol of solute dissolved in a kg of solvent and mole fraction, χ , ie the fraction of the total number of mol of that component present in the given solution.
(Atomic weights : H = 1 , He = 4 , Ne = 20 , N = 14 , O = 16 , S = 32 , Cl = 35.5 , Ar = 40 , Ag = 108 )
How much volume of 10 M HCl is required to prepare 2.0 dm³ of 5 M HCl?
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Answer: (A) 1.0 dm³
Explanation
To prepare a dilute solution from a concentrated solution, the dilution formula based on the conservation of moles of solute is used:
M₁V₁ = M₂V₂
Here:
M₁ = 10 M (molarity of the concentrated HCl)
V₁ = volume of the concentrated HCl needed
M₂ = 5 M (molarity of the diluted HCl)
V₂ = 2.0 dm³ (volume of the diluted HCl)
Substituting these values into the formula:
10 × V₁ = 5 × 2.0
10 × V₁ = 10
V₁ = 1.0 dm³
35Quantitative Aptitude
The mol is a SI unit of the amount of a chemical species/substance. It is always associated with the formula and contains 6.022 × 10²³ , Avogadro's number of particles of the species represented by that formula. The molar mass of any chemical substance is the mass in gram of one mol of that substance, this can be obtained by adding the atomic weights of the component elements present in the formula of the substance (eg. molar mass of HCl is obtained by adding atomic weight of H ie 1 and Cl ie 35.5 = 36.5 ~g ). The molar volume, ie 22.4 dm³ is the volume of one mol of any gas (assumed to behave ideally) at 273 K and 1 atm = 101.325 kPa pressure (STP). This volume can be converted to the volume under any condition of temperature and pressure by using general
gas~equation~(P₁V₁)/(T₁) = (P₂V₂)/(T₂).
Chemists express the concentration of chemical species on the basis of volume (temperature dependent) ie molarity (M), normality (N), formality (F) etc. as well as mass (temperature independent) ie molality (m), mole fraction (x) etc. The molar concentration, M, of a solution of any chemical species is the number of mol of that species present per dm³ of the solution. Normality, N, is a more convenient unit of concentration as the number of equivalents of an analyte (unknown concentration) present = the number of equivalents of the standard reagent (known concentration) added. As a consequence, the stoichiometry of the reaction need not be derived every time a titrimetric analysis is performed. Normality is the number of equivalents of the solute present per dm³ of the solution. The number of equivalents is the ratio of weight in gram of the solute to the equivalent weight of that solute. The equivalent weight of the solute then needs to be known which is defined as "the weight which contains, combines with or displaces one part by weight of hydrogen".
Commercially available reagents ie acids and bases are highly concentrated. To use them in laboratory for routine experiments, one needs to dilute the solutions with definite quantity of water. The total number of equivalents or mol in both, concentrated and dilute solution, must be the same is the basis of this dilution.
The mass based concentration units are molality, m, ie the number of mol of solute dissolved in a kg of solvent and mole fraction, χ , ie the fraction of the total number of mol of that component present in the given solution.
(Atomic weights : H = 1 , He = 4 , Ne = 20 , N = 14 , O = 16 , S = 32 , Cl = 35.5 , Ar = 40 , Ag = 108 )
Which of the following concentration units is temperature independent?
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Answer: (D) Molality
Explanation
Molality is defined as the number of moles of solute dissolved per kilogram of solvent. Since both mass of the solvent and the number of moles of the solute are quantities based purely on mass, they do not change with changes in temperature. Volume-based concentration terms expand or contract as temperature changes, whereas mass remains constant under varying temperatures, making molality independent of temperature.
36Reading Comprehension
Conceptually, the idea of basic structure is not sacrosanct, but is not amenable to change if circumstances so require. An example will suffice here. The federalism that the founding fathers prefered was articulated as a scheme of distribution of power between two layers of government - one at the Union Level and other at the Provincial Levels. The Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts, in fact, altered the basic structure of the constitution by introducing ‘a third tier’ besides the Union and States and was therefore ‘Violative’ of the basic structure. The introduction of a third tier is a striking distortion in the prevalent two - tier structure of governance because this change is in the direction of greater federalism than what exists. However, these amendments were appreciated for having translated the notion of ‘democratic decentralization’ into practice and are thus reflective of the organic nature of the Constitution. Similarly, the introduction of the terms, like ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ (though the former considerably cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy) did not disrupt the basic structure simply because these changes evidently commanded ‘general assent’. What is thus critical is the fact that the values of the Constitutional structure that are considered ‘basic’ or ‘fundamental’ are not entirely sacrosanct, but are amenable to change if it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with the Social, Political and Economic milieu. Although the basic structure doctrine creates a contentious space, it none the less has struck ‘a balance, if an uneasy one,... between the responsibilities of Parliament and the Supreme Court for protection of integrity of the seamless web [of Constitutional Democracy in India].’
What was introduced by the 73rd and the 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts ?
(a) third tier of government
(b) democratic decentralisation
(c) reduced the age of voting from 21 to 18
(d) rules regarding union territories
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Answer: (B) (a) and (b)
Explanation
The 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts, enacted in 1992, officially introduced a third tier of governance in India by establishing rural local bodies (Panchayats) and urban local bodies (Municipalities). By giving constitutional status to these local self-governments, these amendments successfully translated the principles of democratic decentralization into practical reality across the country.
37Reading Comprehension
Conceptually, the idea of basic structure is not sacrosanct, but is not amenable to change if circumstances so require. An example will suffice here. The federalism that the founding fathers prefered was articulated as a scheme of distribution of power between two layers of government - one at the Union Level and other at the Provincial Levels. The Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts, in fact, altered the basic structure of the constitution by introducing ‘a third tier’ besides the Union and States and was therefore ‘Violative’ of the basic structure. The introduction of a third tier is a striking distortion in the prevalent two - tier structure of governance because this change is in the direction of greater federalism than what exists. However, these amendments were appreciated for having translated the notion of ‘democratic decentralization’ into practice and are thus reflective of the organic nature of the Constitution. Similarly, the introduction of the terms, like ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ (though the former considerably cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy) did not disrupt the basic structure simply because these changes evidently commanded ‘general assent’. What is thus critical is the fact that the values of the Constitutional structure that are considered ‘basic’ or ‘fundamental’ are not entirely sacrosanct, but are amenable to change if it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with the Social, Political and Economic milieu. Although the basic structure doctrine creates a contentious space, it none the less has struck ‘a balance, if an uneasy one,... between the responsibilities of Parliament and the Supreme Court for protection of integrity of the seamless web [of Constitutional Democracy in India].’
Which value cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy ?
(a) Socialism
(b) Secularism
(c) Democracy
(d) Federalism
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Answer: (A) Only (a)
Explanation
According to the passage, the introduction of the terms Socialism and Secularism did not disrupt the basic structure of the Constitution. The passage explicitly notes in parentheses that the former, referring to Socialism as it is the first of the two terms mentioned, considerably lost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy.
38Reading Comprehension
Conceptually, the idea of basic structure is not sacrosanct, but is not amenable to change if circumstances so require. An example will suffice here. The federalism that the founding fathers prefered was articulated as a scheme of distribution of power between two layers of government - one at the Union Level and other at the Provincial Levels. The Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts, in fact, altered the basic structure of the constitution by introducing ‘a third tier’ besides the Union and States and was therefore ‘Violative’ of the basic structure. The introduction of a third tier is a striking distortion in the prevalent two - tier structure of governance because this change is in the direction of greater federalism than what exists. However, these amendments were appreciated for having translated the notion of ‘democratic decentralization’ into practice and are thus reflective of the organic nature of the Constitution. Similarly, the introduction of the terms, like ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ (though the former considerably cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy) did not disrupt the basic structure simply because these changes evidently commanded ‘general assent’. What is thus critical is the fact that the values of the Constitutional structure that are considered ‘basic’ or ‘fundamental’ are not entirely sacrosanct, but are amenable to change if it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with the Social, Political and Economic milieu. Although the basic structure doctrine creates a contentious space, it none the less has struck ‘a balance, if an uneasy one,... between the responsibilities of Parliament and the Supreme Court for protection of integrity of the seamless web [of Constitutional Democracy in India].’
Which of the following statements imply 'general consent' ?
(a) support among the people.
(b) general rise or growth of a concept with agreement from all.
(c) acceptance among the electorate and their representatives in Parliament about a policy.
(d) doctrine about the general collective intellect of common people.
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Answer: (B) (a) and (c)
Explanation
In the context of the passage, the term general consent refers to the widespread democratic approval and acceptance of constitutional changes.
Statement (a), denoting support among the people, captures the essential democratic principle that foundational values or amendments must command the backing of the general population.
Statement (c), denoting acceptance among the electorate and their representatives in Parliament, describes the formal mechanism through which this popular support is articulated. In a representative democracy, the mandate of the electorate and the legislative actions of their elected representatives in Parliament serve as the concrete manifestation of general consent.
39Reading Comprehension
Conceptually, the idea of basic structure is not sacrosanct, but is not amenable to change if circumstances so require. An example will suffice here. The federalism that the founding fathers prefered was articulated as a scheme of distribution of power between two layers of government - one at the Union Level and other at the Provincial Levels. The Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts, in fact, altered the basic structure of the constitution by introducing ‘a third tier’ besides the Union and States and was therefore ‘Violative’ of the basic structure. The introduction of a third tier is a striking distortion in the prevalent two - tier structure of governance because this change is in the direction of greater federalism than what exists. However, these amendments were appreciated for having translated the notion of ‘democratic decentralization’ into practice and are thus reflective of the organic nature of the Constitution. Similarly, the introduction of the terms, like ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ (though the former considerably cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy) did not disrupt the basic structure simply because these changes evidently commanded ‘general assent’. What is thus critical is the fact that the values of the Constitutional structure that are considered ‘basic’ or ‘fundamental’ are not entirely sacrosanct, but are amenable to change if it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with the Social, Political and Economic milieu. Although the basic structure doctrine creates a contentious space, it none the less has struck ‘a balance, if an uneasy one,... between the responsibilities of Parliament and the Supreme Court for protection of integrity of the seamless web [of Constitutional Democracy in India].’
The New Economic Policy adopted in 1991 was ______.
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Answer: (C) indifferent to the concept of Socialism
Explanation
The passage states that the term Socialism considerably lost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy. Salience refers to the quality of being prominent or particularly important. Under the 1991 New Economic Policy, India introduced liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation reforms, shifting the focus from state planning to market forces. This policy framework was unconcerned with adhering to socialist ideology, meaning it was indifferent to the concept of Socialism and caused the term to lose its previous prominence.
40Reading Comprehension
Conceptually, the idea of basic structure is not sacrosanct, but is not amenable to change if circumstances so require. An example will suffice here. The federalism that the founding fathers prefered was articulated as a scheme of distribution of power between two layers of government - one at the Union Level and other at the Provincial Levels. The Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts, in fact, altered the basic structure of the constitution by introducing ‘a third tier’ besides the Union and States and was therefore ‘Violative’ of the basic structure. The introduction of a third tier is a striking distortion in the prevalent two - tier structure of governance because this change is in the direction of greater federalism than what exists. However, these amendments were appreciated for having translated the notion of ‘democratic decentralization’ into practice and are thus reflective of the organic nature of the Constitution. Similarly, the introduction of the terms, like ‘Socialism’ and ‘Secularism’ (though the former considerably cost its salience with the adoption of the 1991 New Economic Policy) did not disrupt the basic structure simply because these changes evidently commanded ‘general assent’. What is thus critical is the fact that the values of the Constitutional structure that are considered ‘basic’ or ‘fundamental’ are not entirely sacrosanct, but are amenable to change if it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with the Social, Political and Economic milieu. Although the basic structure doctrine creates a contentious space, it none the less has struck ‘a balance, if an uneasy one,... between the responsibilities of Parliament and the Supreme Court for protection of integrity of the seamless web [of Constitutional Democracy in India].’
On what grounds are changes in aspects of the basic structure of the Constitution Justified ?
(a) Because it is the wish of the majority party in Parliament.
(b) Because it is absolutely necessary in order to keep pace with changing times.
(c) If the change is necessary in the context of Social, Economic and Political Milieux.
(d) If the change is in the form of value addition to existing rights.
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Answer: (C) (b), (c) and (d)
Explanation
Based on the passage, modifications to the aspects of the basic structure of the Constitution are justified on several grounds. The text states that the values considered basic or fundamental are not entirely sacrosanct but are amenable to change when it is absolutely necessary to keep pace with changing times. Specifically, these changes are justified if they are necessary to keep pace with the evolving social, political, and economic milieu of the nation. Furthermore, the passage supports changes that serve as value additions to existing rights and structures, citing examples like the Seventy-Third and Seventy-Fourth Amendment Acts which introduced a third tier of governance to translate democratic decentralization into practice, as well as the inclusion of concepts like socialism and secularism that command general assent. These progressive changes reflect and respect the organic nature of the Constitution.
41Reading Comprehension
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित प्रश्न क्रमांक 41 ते 45 ची उत्तरे द्या.
जे आहे त्याचा स्वीकार करून त्यातून सौंदर्य निर्माण्यासाठी प्रयत्नपूर्वक झटणे म्हणजेच नैतिक प्रगती. एखादी व्यक्ती घ्या. किती भिन्न-भिन्न वृत्ती, प्रवृत्ती त्या व्यक्तीच्या ठायी असतात! किती राग-द्वेष, किती वासना-विकार, किती चंचलता, किती लहरीपणा! परंतु अशातूनच सौंदर्य निर्माणाचे आहे. या मातीतूनच मांगल्याचा साक्षात्कार करून घ्यावयाचा आहे. हीच आपली समृध्दी, हेच साहित्य. एखादा नीतिशास्त्रज्ञ जर ही मिळालेली पुंजी भिरकावून देईल किंवा तिचा नाश करील तर ते योग्य नाही होणार. जे मिळालेले आहे ते स्वीकारले पाहिजे आणि त्याच्या आधारावर उच्च इमारत बांधावयास हिंमतीने उभे राहिले पाहिजे. जे आहे त्याचा स्वीकार करणे व त्याचीच नीट व्यवस्था लावणे एवढ्याने मनुष्याला कधीही समाधान नसते. त्याला पुढे नेऊ पाहणारी, उच्चतर जीवनाकडे नेणारी एक अमर, प्रबळ प्रेरणा त्याच्या अंतरंगात असते. ही प्रेरणा, ही आतोल ऊर्मी मनुष्याला स्वस्थ बसू देत नाही. जे आहे ते सांभाळणे एवढेच जीवनाचे साध्य नाही. जे आहे ते उदात्त करणे हा जीवनाचा अंतिम हेतू आहे. ही जीवनाची उदात्तता आहे. प्रत्येकाला अधिकाधिक अर्थ समजून घ्यावयाचा असतो. अधिकाधिक पूर्णपणे जगावे असे त्याला वाटत असते. तो वाढत असतो, स्वत:च्या पलीकडे जातो. बीजाचा विशाल वृक्ष होतो. तो काही तरी होत जातो, बनत जातो, हेच त्याचे व्यक्तित्व; हेच त्याचे विशेष अस्तित्व; हेच विकासन. परिस्थितीशी जमवून घेणे म्हणजे नैतिक जीवन असा जर आपण अर्थ केला, तर जोपर्यंत परिस्थिती बदलत आहे तोपर्यंत ते नैतिक जीवनही थांबणार नाही. तेही बदल राहील आणि म्हणूनच जीवनाची जी बाह्य रूपे प्राचीन काळात दिसत ती आज नाही दिसणार. जीवनाच्या त्या स्वरूपाची पुनरावृत्ती नाही होणार. तसेच तसे भूतकालीन जीवन आजही आम्ही जगू असे म्हटले व समजू या की ते शक्य झाले, तरी ते इष्ट होणार नाही. आजच्या काळी पूर्वीचे राजपूत योद्धे किंवा मध्ययुगीतील वीर पुरुष शक्य नाहीत. ते नमुने आजच्या परिस्थितीत असंभाव्य आहेत. आणि परिस्थिती बदलतच नसेल तर? सदा सर्वदा तीच परिस्थिती सभोवती सर्वत्र असेल तर? तरीही प्रश्न सुटत नाही कारण आपली ध्येये नेहमी बदलत असतात. केवळ परिस्थितीशी जुळवून घेण्यात खरे नैतिक जीवन नाही. आपल्या ध्येयांना परिस्थिती अधिकाधिक अनुकूल करणे यातच खरोखर नैतिक जीवनाचा आत्मा आहे. परिस्थितीला असा आकार द्यायचा, की तिच्यातून आपली नम्रपणे उतरोत्तर अधिक प्रकट व्हावी. जे आहे त्याचा नम्रपणे स्वीकार करणे, जी परिस्थिती आहे तिच्याशी जुळून घेणे यात एक प्रकारची शांती आहे, हीही एक प्रकारची पूर्णता आहे; परंतु ही मानवी जीवनाची परिपूर्णता नव्हे, हा मनुष्यत्वाचा विकास नव्हे. ही शांती खरी आध्यात्मिक नव्हे. जे आहे ते घेऊन त्यातून हिंमतीने नवीन निर्मिले पाहिजे. जी परिस्थिती आहे, तिला आपल्या हेतूच्या पूर्तीसाठी अनुकूल करून घेतले पाहिजे. हा पुरुषार्थ आहे. एखाद्या गोगलगायीप्रमाणे कठीण कवच अंगावर घेत परिस्थितीशरण असे राहणे हे वीराचे काम नाही. जो जगला वर उचलतो तो खरा वीर. जग ज्या तऱ्हेचे असावे असे आपणास वाटले, त्या तऱ्हेचे ते थोडेफार करण्यासाठी खटपट करणे हे मनुष्याचे खरे काम. जग आहे त्यापेक्षा अधिक चांगले करणे, अधिक उच्च पातळीकडे ते नेणे हे खरे भूषण. परिस्थितीशी सम्यक् मेळ घालणे यात सौंदर्य नाही असे नाही. परंतु बदलत्व व विविधतेने नटलेल्या बहुरूपी जगात अशी सुंदरता फार वेळ टिकू शकणार नाही. ती तडजोडही टिकणार नाही. बालकाचे निष्पाप सौंदर्य तडफदार तारुण्याला जागा देते. हे कर्मोत्सुक उत्साही तारुण्य पोक्त पावन वृद्धत्वाला वाव देते आणि असे हे सर्वत्र चालले आहे. जीवनाच्या मार्गावर मुक्काम नाही. येथे विश्रांती नाही. एक संपले की त्यातूनच नवीनाचा आरंभ होतो. मरणातून जीवनाची कळी वर येते.
उताऱ्यास योग्य 'शीर्षक' द्या.
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Answer: (B) खरी नैतिक प्रगती.
Explanation
उताऱ्याची सुरुवातच नैतिक प्रगती या संकल्पनेने होते. जे आहे त्याचा स्वीकार करून त्यातून सौंदर्य निर्माण करणे म्हणजे नैतिक प्रगती, असे सांगून लेखक संपूर्ण उताऱ्यात याच संकल्पनेचा विस्तार करतात. केवळ परिस्थितीशी जुळवून घेणे म्हणजे नैतिक जीवन नसून, आपल्या ध्येयांना अनुकूल परिस्थिती निर्माण करणे आणि जग आहे त्यापेक्षा अधिक चांगले व उच्च पातळीवर नेण्यासाठी प्रयत्न करणे यातच खरी नैतिक प्रगती सामावलेली आहे, हा या उताऱ्याचा मुख्य गाभा आहे. संपूर्ण उतारा मानवी जीवनातील याच खऱ्या नैतिक प्रगतीभोवती फिरत असल्यामुळे खरी नैतिक प्रगती हे या उताऱ्यासाठी सर्वात समर्पक शीर्षक ठरते.
42Reading Comprehension
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित प्रश्न क्रमांक 41 ते 45 ची उत्तरे द्या. (उतारा प्रश्न क्र. 41 प्रमाणे)
लेखकाच्या मते 'खरा पुरुषार्थ' कोणता ?
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Answer: (B) आपल्या ध्येय पूर्तीसाठी वाटेला आलेली परिस्थिती प्रयत्नांनी अनुकूल करून घेणे.
Explanation
उताऱ्यामध्ये लेखकाने स्पष्ट केले आहे की, केवळ आहे त्या परिस्थितीशी जुळवून घेण्यात किंवा जे आहे त्याचा नम्रपणे स्वीकार करण्यात मानवी जीवनाची परिपूर्णता किंवा खरा पुरुषार्थ नाही. लेखकाच्या मते, जे समोर आहे त्यातून धैर्याने व हिंमतीने नवीन काहीतरी निर्मिले पाहिजे. आपल्या वाट्याला आलेली जी परिस्थिती आहे, तिला आपल्या हेतूंच्या अथवा ध्येयपूर्तीसाठी प्रयत्नांच्या साहाय्याने अनुकूल करून घेणे म्हणजेच 'खरा पुरुषार्थ' होय. यामुळे पर्याय २ हे योग्य उत्तर ठरते.
43Reading Comprehension
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित प्रश्न क्रमांक 41 ते 45 ची उत्तरे द्या. (उतारा प्रश्न क्र. 41 प्रमाणे)
उच्चतर जीवनाकडे नेणारी अंतरंगातील प्रबळ प्रेरणा कोणती ?
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Answer: (C) जे आहे ते उदात्त करणे व जीवनाचा अधिकाधिक अर्थ समजून घेणे.
Explanation
उताऱ्यात नमूद केल्याप्रमाणे, केवळ मिळालेल्या परिस्थितीचा स्वीकार करणे आणि त्याची व्यवस्था लावणे याने मनुष्याचे समाधान होत नाही. त्याच्या अंतरंगात एक अमर आणि प्रबळ प्रेरणा असते, जी त्याला उच्चतर जीवनाकडे नेते. ही अंतःप्रेरणा मनुष्याला स्वस्थ बसू देत नाही. केवळ आहे ते सांभाळणे हे जीवनाचे साध्य नसून, जे आहे ते उदात्त करणे आणि जीवनाचा अधिकाधिक अर्थ समजून घेणे हाच या प्रबळ अंतःप्रेरणेचा मुख्य गाभा आहे.
44Reading Comprehension
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित प्रश्न क्रमांक 41 ते 45 ची उत्तरे द्या. (उतारा प्रश्न क्र. 41 प्रमाणे)
आपल्या नैतिक जीवनाचा 'आत्मा' कोणता ?
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Answer: (D) आपल्या ध्येयांना परिस्थिती अधिकाधिक अनुकूल करणे.
Explanation
दिलेल्या उताऱ्यानुसार, केवळ परिस्थितीशी जुळवून घेण्यात खरे नैतिक जीवन नसते. मानवी प्रगतीसाठी आणि मनुष्यत्वाच्या विकासासाठी स्वतःच्या ध्येयानुसार परिस्थिती बदलणे आवश्यक असते. उताऱ्यातील "आपल्या ध्येयांना परिस्थिती अधिकाधिक अनुकूल करणे यातच खरोखर नैतिक जीवनाचा आत्मा आहे" हे विधान याला स्पष्टपणे अधोरेखित करते. आपल्या हेतूंच्या पूर्ततेसाठी परिस्थितीला अनुकूल व उदात्त करणे हाच नैतिक जीवनाचा खरा गाभा आहे.
45Reading Comprehension
पुढील उतारा वाचून त्यावर आधारित प्रश्न क्रमांक 41 ते 45 ची उत्तरे द्या. (उतारा प्रश्न क्र. 41 प्रमाणे)
'नैतिक प्रगती' म्हणजे काय ?
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Answer: (D) जे आहे त्याचा स्वीकार करून त्यातून सौंदर्य निर्माण करण्याचा प्रयत्न करणे.
Explanation
प्रस्तुत उताऱ्यात लेखकाने स्पष्टपणे नमूद केले आहे की, जे आहे त्याचा स्वीकार करून त्यातून सौंदर्य निर्माण करण्यासाठी प्रयत्नपूर्वक झटणे म्हणजेच खरी नैतिक प्रगती होय. माणसाच्या ठायी असणाऱ्या विविध भिन्न-भिन्न वृत्ती, प्रवृत्ती, राग-द्वेष आणि वासना-विकार या सर्वांचा स्वीकार करून त्यातूनच सौंदर्य आणि मांगल्य निर्माण करणे हाच नैतिक प्रगतीचा खरा अर्थ आहे.
46Reading Comprehension
So Tiziano continued to draw. But one thing troubled him greatly- - all the pictures he made were black, drawn with his piece of black charcoal. Yet all round him glowed a perfect glory of colour- - the beautiful blue of the sky; the delicate, changing pink of the great jagged peaks above him; the red, blue and yellow wild flowers; the golden brilliance of sunshine; and the rich, soft, mellowed tints in the old houses of the town. Colour! Tiziano loved it more than anything else in the world. Yet how was he to reproduce it and get it into his pictures? He had no money to buy paints, and paints were expensive in those days. His father, who was a mountaineer, would never listen to anything so foolish as buying paints for a boy when the family needed food, clothing and fuel to keep them warm.
Let Tiziano make shoes! There was a trade for a man! All the same, Tiziano continued to dream of painting and to wonder if there was not some way he could make a picture in colours.
The day before the festival of flowers, Tiziano chanced to pass the spot where the garlands had been woven the evening before. Suddenly, he noticed stains on the stones of the walk before the inn. They were stains from flowers that had been dropped and crushed, and those stains were coloured! They were every colour that a painter needed! In a moment the feast and the fun went out of Tiziano's mind. Catarina saw her brother heading away from the merriment and hastening out of the village. She ran to bring him back and found him in a meadow like a variegated quilt from the brilliance of the wild flowers. "Tiziano!" she called, "Why are you running away from the feast?" The boy did not answer for a moment. Too often he had been teased by his family and the villagers for the crazy dreams in his head. At last he answered bluntly, "I have found that the stains of flowers make colours, and I am going to paint a picture."
In the third paragraph the word "Variegated" means :
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Answer: (A) marked with patches of different colours
Explanation
The word variegated is derived from the Latin word variegatus, which means to make of different colours. In English, it refers to something that exhibits different colours, especially in irregular patches, streaks, or spots. In the context of the passage, the meadow is compared to a variegated quilt due to the brilliance of the wild flowers of various hues scattered across it, indicating that it is marked with patches of different colours.
47Reading Comprehension
So Tiziano continued to draw. But one thing troubled him greatly- - all the pictures he made were black, drawn with his piece of black charcoal. Yet all round him glowed a perfect glory of colour- - the beautiful blue of the sky; the delicate, changing pink of the great jagged peaks above him; the red, blue and yellow wild flowers; the golden brilliance of sunshine; and the rich, soft, mellowed tints in the old houses of the town. Colour! Tiziano loved it more than anything else in the world. Yet how was he to reproduce it and get it into his pictures? He had no money to buy paints, and paints were expensive in those days. His father, who was a mountaineer, would never listen to anything so foolish as buying paints for a boy when the family needed food, clothing and fuel to keep them warm.
Let Tiziano make shoes! There was a trade for a man! All the same, Tiziano continued to dream of painting and to wonder if there was not some way he could make a picture in colours.
The day before the festival of flowers, Tiziano chanced to pass the spot where the garlands had been woven the evening before. Suddenly, he noticed stains on the stones of the walk before the inn. They were stains from flowers that had been dropped and crushed, and those stains were coloured! They were every colour that a painter needed! In a moment the feast and the fun went out of Tiziano's mind. Catarina saw her brother heading away from the merriment and hastening out of the village. She ran to bring him back and found him in a meadow like a variegated quilt from the brilliance of the wild flowers. "Tiziano!" she called, "Why are you running away from the feast?" The boy did not answer for a moment. Too often he had been teased by his family and the villagers for the crazy dreams in his head. At last he answered bluntly, "I have found that the stains of flowers make colours, and I am going to paint a picture."
At the end of the passage it is clear that Tiziano had discovered :
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Answer: (A) that he could fulfil his dream of painting with colours obtained from crushed petals.
Explanation
The passage describes Tiziano's deep longing to paint in color and his inability to afford expensive commercial paints. His breakthrough occurs when he notices colored stains on the pavement left by crushed flowers from a festival garland. Realizing that these vibrant stains provide all the colors a painter needs, he runs to a meadow to gather wild flowers and confidently tells his sister that he has found a way to make colors from flowers to paint his picture. This demonstrates his discovery that he could achieve his dream of painting by extracting colors from crushed flower petals.
48Reading Comprehension
So Tiziano continued to draw. But one thing troubled him greatly- - all the pictures he made were black, drawn with his piece of black charcoal. Yet all round him glowed a perfect glory of colour- - the beautiful blue of the sky; the delicate, changing pink of the great jagged peaks above him; the red, blue and yellow wild flowers; the golden brilliance of sunshine; and the rich, soft, mellowed tints in the old houses of the town. Colour! Tiziano loved it more than anything else in the world. Yet how was he to reproduce it and get it into his pictures? He had no money to buy paints, and paints were expensive in those days. His father, who was a mountaineer, would never listen to anything so foolish as buying paints for a boy when the family needed food, clothing and fuel to keep them warm.
Let Tiziano make shoes! There was a trade for a man! All the same, Tiziano continued to dream of painting and to wonder if there was not some way he could make a picture in colours.
The day before the festival of flowers, Tiziano chanced to pass the spot where the garlands had been woven the evening before. Suddenly, he noticed stains on the stones of the walk before the inn. They were stains from flowers that had been dropped and crushed, and those stains were coloured! They were every colour that a painter needed! In a moment the feast and the fun went out of Tiziano's mind. Catarina saw her brother heading away from the merriment and hastening out of the village. She ran to bring him back and found him in a meadow like a variegated quilt from the brilliance of the wild flowers. "Tiziano!" she called, "Why are you running away from the feast?" The boy did not answer for a moment. Too often he had been teased by his family and the villagers for the crazy dreams in his head. At last he answered bluntly, "I have found that the stains of flowers make colours, and I am going to paint a picture."
Tiziano's father wanted his son to be a
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Answer: (B) Cobbler
Explanation
According to the passage, Tiziano's father would not buy paints for him and instead believed he should make shoes, referring to it as a trade for a man. Making shoes is the profession of a cobbler, which is why his father wanted him to become a cobbler.
49Reading Comprehension
So Tiziano continued to draw. But one thing troubled him greatly- - all the pictures he made were black, drawn with his piece of black charcoal. Yet all round him glowed a perfect glory of colour- - the beautiful blue of the sky; the delicate, changing pink of the great jagged peaks above him; the red, blue and yellow wild flowers; the golden brilliance of sunshine; and the rich, soft, mellowed tints in the old houses of the town. Colour! Tiziano loved it more than anything else in the world. Yet how was he to reproduce it and get it into his pictures? He had no money to buy paints, and paints were expensive in those days. His father, who was a mountaineer, would never listen to anything so foolish as buying paints for a boy when the family needed food, clothing and fuel to keep them warm.
Let Tiziano make shoes! There was a trade for a man! All the same, Tiziano continued to dream of painting and to wonder if there was not some way he could make a picture in colours.
The day before the festival of flowers, Tiziano chanced to pass the spot where the garlands had been woven the evening before. Suddenly, he noticed stains on the stones of the walk before the inn. They were stains from flowers that had been dropped and crushed, and those stains were coloured! They were every colour that a painter needed! In a moment the feast and the fun went out of Tiziano's mind. Catarina saw her brother heading away from the merriment and hastening out of the village. She ran to bring him back and found him in a meadow like a variegated quilt from the brilliance of the wild flowers. "Tiziano!" she called, "Why are you running away from the feast?" The boy did not answer for a moment. Too often he had been teased by his family and the villagers for the crazy dreams in his head. At last he answered bluntly, "I have found that the stains of flowers make colours, and I am going to paint a picture."
Tiziano's 'crazy dreams' that are mentioned in the second paragraph refer to his desire to :
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Answer: (D) Paint pictures in colour.
Explanation
The passage highlights Tiziano's deep passion for colour and his intense desire to reproduce the vibrant hues of nature in his drawings, which were otherwise limited to black charcoal. Despite his father's insistence on a practical trade like shoemaking and the lack of money to buy expensive paints, Tiziano constantly thought of ways to paint in colour. The crazy dreams mentioned in the text represent this persistent ambition of finding a way to make pictures in colours, which eventually led him to experiment with the stains of crushed flowers.
50Reading Comprehension
So Tiziano continued to draw. But one thing troubled him greatly- - all the pictures he made were black, drawn with his piece of black charcoal. Yet all round him glowed a perfect glory of colour- - the beautiful blue of the sky; the delicate, changing pink of the great jagged peaks above him; the red, blue and yellow wild flowers; the golden brilliance of sunshine; and the rich, soft, mellowed tints in the old houses of the town. Colour! Tiziano loved it more than anything else in the world. Yet how was he to reproduce it and get it into his pictures? He had no money to buy paints, and paints were expensive in those days. His father, who was a mountaineer, would never listen to anything so foolish as buying paints for a boy when the family needed food, clothing and fuel to keep them warm.
Let Tiziano make shoes! There was a trade for a man! All the same, Tiziano continued to dream of painting and to wonder if there was not some way he could make a picture in colours.
The day before the festival of flowers, Tiziano chanced to pass the spot where the garlands had been woven the evening before. Suddenly, he noticed stains on the stones of the walk before the inn. They were stains from flowers that had been dropped and crushed, and those stains were coloured! They were every colour that a painter needed! In a moment the feast and the fun went out of Tiziano's mind. Catarina saw her brother heading away from the merriment and hastening out of the village. She ran to bring him back and found him in a meadow like a variegated quilt from the brilliance of the wild flowers. "Tiziano!" she called, "Why are you running away from the feast?" The boy did not answer for a moment. Too often he had been teased by his family and the villagers for the crazy dreams in his head. At last he answered bluntly, "I have found that the stains of flowers make colours, and I am going to paint a picture."
Which of the following word best describes Tiziano's father ?
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Answer: (C) insensitive
Explanation
Tiziano's father is best described as insensitive because he completely dismisses his son's deep passion and dreams of painting, calling them foolish. Instead of showing empathy or supporting his creative spirit, he disregards Tiziano's emotional and artistic desires, insisting that he pursue shoemaking as a practical trade.
51Quantitative Aptitude
B has ₹ 5 more than C. A has ₹ 14 more than B. Select the transaction that makes equal money to all the three.
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Answer: (C) A gives ₹ 8 to C and B receives ₹ 3 from A.
Explanation
Let the money C has be represented by x. According to the given information, B has x + 5, and A has (x + 5) + 14 = x + 19.
The total money among all three is (x + 19) + (x + 5) + x = 3x + 24. For each person to have equal money, the total amount must be divided equally among them, which gives (3x + 24) ÷ 3 = x + 8.
This means A needs to reduce their share by (x + 19) - (x + 8) = 11, B needs to increase their share by (x + 8) - (x + 5) = 3, and C needs to increase their share by (x + 8) - x = 8.
When A gives ₹ 8 to C and B receives ₹ 3 from A, A gives away a total of 8 + 3 = 11. Consequently, A is left with (x + 19) - 11 = x + 8. B receives ₹ 3, so B now has (x + 5) + 3 = x + 8. C receives ₹ 8, so C now has x + 8. This transaction leaves A, B, and C with equal amounts of money.
52Reading Comprehension
The intake pipes of nuclear plants and water plants along Great lakes are clogged by a certain variety of mussels that proved to be causing nuisance to the working systems. But it is found that the bags of these calms when suspended in the effluent streams of chemical plants, not only improves quality of water significantly but also remove some hazardous wastes from effluents just by feeding voraciously on the algae that they filter from water that passes by it.
Which one of the inferences given below, if true, is most strongly supported on the basis of information given in the above paragraph ?
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Answer: (C) If the wastes from the effluents are not transformed into non-hazardous chemicals by these mussels themselves will become hazardous pollutants.
Explanation
The paragraph states that suspending these mussels in the effluent streams of chemical plants significantly improves water quality and removes hazardous wastes from the effluents. If the hazardous wastes present in the effluents are not broken down or transformed into non-hazardous chemicals during this filtration process, the toxic substances will merely accumulate within the mussels themselves. Consequently, without this transformation, the mussels would retain these accumulated toxins and eventually become hazardous pollutants in the aquatic environment.
53Quantitative Aptitude
When a plot is sold for ₹ 18,700, the owner loses 15%. At what price must that plot be sold in order to gain 15% ?
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Answer: (C) ₹ 25,300
Explanation
The direct formula relating two selling prices under loss and gain conditions is:
SP₂ = SP₁ × (100 + Gain%) / (100 - Loss%)
Study the reasoning used in the argument given below and select the option that most closely follows the same reasoning.
If heat or light is emitted by a body, then its energy decreases. It follows that, if a body's energy remains constant, it has emitted neither heat nor light.
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Answer: (A) When either freedom of speech or freedom of assembly is present in society, democratic government inevitably results. If you live under a dictatorship, you must therefore lack both of these key liberties.
Explanation
The original argument follows the logical form of contraposition combined with De Morgan's Law.
Let H represent heat is emitted, L represent light is emitted, and E represent energy decreases.
The premise states: If H or L, then E.
The conclusion states: If not E, then not H and not L.
Symbolically, this is: (H ∨ L) → E, which logically implies ¬E → ¬(H ∨ L). By De Morgan's Law, ¬(H ∨ L) is equivalent to (¬H ∧ ¬L).
Option 1 follows this exact logical structure.
Let S represent freedom of speech is present, A represent freedom of assembly is present, and D represent democratic government results.
The premise states: If S or A, then D.
The conclusion states: If not D (dictatorship), then not S and not A.
Symbolically, this is: (S ∨ A) → D, which logically implies ¬D → (¬S ∧ ¬A).
Both arguments correctly apply the contrapositive of a conditional statement where the antecedent is a disjunction.
55Quantitative Aptitude
A pipe can fill the tank in 4½ hours. But due to leakage at the bottom, it takes 1½ hours more to fill it. If the tank is full select the time that it will require to get emptied due to leak.
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Answer: (A) 18 hr.
Explanation
Let the filling pipe be A and the leak at the bottom be B.
The time taken by pipe A to fill the tank is 4½ hours, which is equal to 9/2 hours. Therefore, the filling rate of pipe A is 2/9 of the tank per hour.
Due to the leak, the combined time taken to fill the tank increases by 1½ hours. The total time taken by pipe A and leak B working together is 4½ + 1½ = 6 hours. Thus, the combined rate of pipe A and leak B is 1/6 of the tank per hour.
To find the rate at which the leak empties the tank, subtract the combined rate from the rate of pipe A:
Leak rate = Rate of A - Combined rate
Leak rate = 2/9 - 1/6
Leak rate = 4/18 - 3/18 = 1/18 of the tank per hour.
The time required for the leak to empty the full tank is the reciprocal of the leak rate:
Time = 1 / (1/18) = 18 hours.
56Logical Reasoning
Children A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting in a circle facing each other not necessarily in order given here and playing game Chinese-whisper. A is sitting opposite to F and to the left of C. E is not adjacent to either D or B. B is not adjacent to A. If B is the first child to say the message and whispers in ear of child on its left then select the child who will not get the chance to whisper message at end of the first round.
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Answer: (A) Only D
Explanation
To find the seating arrangement, place the six children around a circular table facing the center. Assign positions 1 to 6 in a clockwise direction.
Place A at position 1. Since F is opposite A, F is at position 4. A is to the left of C. For a person facing the center, their left is in the clockwise direction. Thus, C must be at position 6 so that A is clockwise to C.
Positions 2, 3, and 5 are vacant. Since B is not adjacent to A, B cannot be at position 2. This leaves position 3 or 5 for B.
If B is at position 5, the remaining positions 2 and 3 must be occupied by D and E, making them adjacent to each other. Since E cannot be adjacent to D, B cannot be at position 5.
Therefore, B is at position 3. The remaining positions 2 and 5 are occupied by D and E. To ensure E is not adjacent to B at position 3 or to D, E must be at position 5 and D at position 2.
The resulting clockwise seating arrangement is: A at position 1, D at position 2, B at position 3, F at position 4, E at position 5, and C at position 6.
In the game of Chinese Whispers, B starts the message and whispers to the child on its left (clockwise), which is F. The message then passes from F to E, E to C, C to A, and finally A to D. Since D is the last child to receive the message, D does not get a chance to whisper it to anyone else.
57Logical Reasoning
For an examination, there were FIVE subjects. Examination starts on Monday. Mathematics paper was previous to History. Science paper was after Geography and Marathi paper was in between Geography and History. Examination starts from which subject ?
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Answer: (C) Geography
Explanation
To determine the schedule of the five subjects from Monday to Friday, we analyze the given conditions.
First, the Mathematics paper was previous to History, meaning Mathematics immediately precedes History, creating the consecutive block of Mathematics followed by History.
Second, the Marathi paper was in between Geography and History. For Marathi to be scheduled between Geography and History, and since Mathematics is already placed immediately before History, the chronological order of these subjects must be Geography followed by Marathi, then Mathematics, and finally History.
Third, the Science paper was after Geography. This allows Science to be scheduled at the end of the week.
Combining these pieces of information, the complete chronological order from Monday to Friday is:
Monday: Geography
Tuesday: Marathi
Wednesday: Mathematics
Thursday: History
Friday: Science
In this sequence, Mathematics is immediately before History, Science is after Geography, and Marathi (Tuesday) is scheduled in between Geography (Monday) and History (Thursday). Therefore, the examination starts with Geography on Monday.
58Logical Reasoning
Select the appropriate pair of words from given options for filling the space and make two sentences with equivalent meanings.
Many senior faculty members who were accustomed to being addressed in a more collegial and egalitarian manner were alienated by the ________ tone of the new department chair's introductory remarks.
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Answer: (D) Imperious and Peremptory
Explanation
The sentence contrasts a collegial and egalitarian style of communication with a domineering, authoritative, and dictatorial tone. Many senior faculty members were accustomed to being treated as equals (egalitarian) and collaborators (collegial), but were alienated by the new chair's commanding and haughty approach.
The words imperious and peremptory both describe an arrogant, domineering, and dictatorial attitude that insists on immediate obedience and asserts authority over others. Placing either of these words in the blank creates two sentences with equivalent meanings, conveying the contrast between the expected collaborative environment and the chair's authoritarian tone.
59Logical Reasoning
In following question, the symbols @, , Φ and # are used as follows.
A Φ B means A is not greater than B
A B means A is neither smaller than or equal to B
A @ B means A is neither greater than or equal to B
A # B means A is not smaller than B
Statement : H Φ D, T D, F H
Conclusions : (I) F Φ D (II) T # F (III) D $ F
Which conclusion/conclusions are true ?
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Answer: (A) None of true
Explanation
The legend defines each symbol as an inequality: A Φ B means A is not greater than B, so A ≤ B; A @ B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B, so A < B; A # B means A is not smaller than B, so A ≥ B; and the remaining symbol means A > B. The statements therefore give H ≤ D, T > D and F > H. F and D cannot be ordered, because F lies above H while H lies below D, so conclusion (I) is unestablished. T and F share no common chain, so conclusion (II) does not follow either. Conclusion (III) uses a symbol absent from the legend. Hence none of the conclusions follows.
60Logical Reasoning
The number code for three words from among REST, MITE, STIR and TRIM are listed here in a random order as 1456, 3154 and 4231. Select the code for word SEMI.
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Answer: (C) 3265
Explanation
By analyzing the words STIR and TRIM, we observe that both have the letter I at the third position. Comparing the given codes 1456, 3154, and 4231, we see that 1456 and 3154 both have the digit 5 at the third position. Therefore, the letter I corresponds to 5.
Using this, we can match the words STIR and TRIM with their codes:
If TRIM is 1456, then T = 1, R = 4, I = 5, and M = 6.
If STIR is 3154, then S = 3, T = 1, I = 5, and R = 4.
This mapping is consistent for all letters.
Next, we map the third code 4231 to the word REST:
R = 4
E = 2
S = 3
T = 1
This is also fully consistent.
Now, we can find the code for the word SEMI by substituting the determined values:
S = 3
E = 2
M = 6
I = 5
Thus, the code for SEMI is 3265.
61Logical Reasoning
Five friends wanted to go on holiday together to one nearby village, but they found it difficult to decide where to go. Jai and Mano both wanted to go to Pane, with Fene as their second choice. Kali wanted to go to Make, while Lily's first choice was Gute and Naz's was Tembe. Naz and Kali both put Fene as their second choice, while Lily gave it as her third choice, preferring Tembe as her second choice. Kali and Mano put Tembe as their third choice. Jai's third choice was Gute and Naz's was Make. They agreed to allocate three points for a 1st choice, two points for a 2nd choice and one point for a 3rd choice. The friends decided that they would not go anywhere which was not someone's first choice. Select the place they did go for holiday.
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Answer: (A) Only Tembe
Explanation
The friends decided not to go to any place that was not someone's first choice. Since Fene was not the first choice of any friend, it is excluded.
Calculating the points for the remaining eligible destinations:
Pane receives 3 points from Jai and 3 points from Mano, totaling 6 points.
Make receives 3 points from Kali and 1 point from Naz, totaling 4 points.
Gute receives 3 points from Lily and 1 point from Jai, totaling 4 points.
Tembe receives 3 points from Naz, 2 points from Lily, 1 point from Mano, and 1 point from Kali, totaling 7 points.
Among the allowed destinations, Tembe receives the highest score of 7 points.
62Quantitative Aptitude
If a bag contains 2 red, 3 green and 2 blue balls. Two balls are drawn at random. What is the probability that none of the balls drawn is blue?
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Answer: (C) ¹⁰⁄₂₁
Explanation
The probability of an event is calculated as the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes.
The total number of balls in the bag is 2 + 3 + 2 = 7.
The number of non-blue balls (red and green) is 2 + 3 = 5.
The total number of ways to draw 2 balls from 7 is ⁷C₂.
⁷C₂ = (7 × 6) ÷ (2 × 1) = 21
The number of favorable ways to draw 2 balls such that none is blue, meaning both are drawn from the 5 non-blue balls, is ⁵C₂.
⁵C₂ = (5 × 4) ÷ (2 × 1) = 10
The probability that none of the balls drawn is blue is calculated as:
P = ⁵C₂ ÷ ⁷C₂ = 10/21
63Logical Reasoning
In an aviary there are a certain number of birds. Nine are crested birds and ten are spotted birds. Some of these have crests as well as spots. Of the seven yellow birds in the aviary, each one only has either crest or spots. Of the four red birds in the aviary all have spots only. Select the minimum possible number of birds that are there in the aviary.
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Answer: (C) 15
Explanation
Let x be the number of birds with crests only (C - S).
Let y be the number of birds with both crests and spots (C ∩ S).
Let z be the number of birds with spots only (S - C).
The given information about crested and spotted birds gives the following equations:
x + y = 9
y + z = 10
Subtracting the first equation from the second yields:
z - x = 1
z = x + 1
Let c_y be the number of yellow birds with crests only, and s_y be the number of yellow birds with spots only. Since yellow birds only have either crests or spots, we have:
c_y + s_y = 7
c_y ≤ x
The 4 red birds in the aviary have spots only. Since red and yellow are mutually exclusive colors, the spots-only region must contain at least these 4 red birds and the s_y yellow birds:
z ≥ s_y + 4
Substituting s_y = 7 - c_y into the inequality:
z ≥ 11 - c_y
Using z = x + 1:
x + 1 ≥ 11 - c_y
x + c_y ≥ 10
Since c_y ≤ x, we have:
x + x ≥ x + c_y ≥ 10
2x ≥ 10
x ≥ 5
The minimum total number of birds in the aviary is the sum of the three regions:
Total = x + y + z
Total = x + (9 - x) + (x + 1) = x + 10
Substituting the minimum value of x (which is 5):
Total ≥ 5 + 10 = 15
64Logical Reasoning
Read the information carefully and using it select the answer to question.
(a) X is a brother of Y
(b) Z is a sister of X
(c) M is a brother of N
(d) N is a daughter of Y
Who is a uncle of M ?
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Answer: (A) X
Explanation
From the given statements, N is the daughter of Y and M is the brother of N. This establishes that M and N are siblings, making Y the parent of both M and N. Since X is the brother of Y, X is the maternal or paternal uncle of Y's children. Therefore, X is the uncle of M.
65Logical Reasoning
P, Q, R, S, T and U are green activists. One is a teacher, one is a health worker, one runs a tea stall, one is a librarian and two ladies are farmers. There are two married couples in this group. The librarian is married to S who is a farmer. None of the women in the groups runs a tea stall or a nurse. R runs the tea stall and is married to U who is a teacher. P is married to S and T is not a farmer. Select the statement that is false from given options.
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Answer: (A) It is not possible to ascertain total number of women members of the group.
Explanation
We can determine the gender and occupation of each member of the group using the given clues.
S is a farmer, and since the two farmers are ladies, S is female.
P is married to S, meaning P is male. Since the librarian is married to S, P is the librarian.
R runs the tea stall and is married to U, who is a teacher. Since no woman runs a tea stall, R must be male, which means his wife U is female.
T is not a farmer. Since the only remaining occupations are farmer and health worker, T must be the health worker, and Q must be the second farmer (female). Since no woman is a health worker, T must be male.
Thus, the group consists of three males (P, R, T) and three females (S, U, Q). Since we can precisely determine that there are exactly three women in the group, the statement claiming it is not possible to ascertain the total number of women is false.
66Reading Comprehension
Read carefully following passage and select the statement that best describes focus of argument.
Using technologically advanced manned and unmanned undersea vehicles it is possible for oceanographers to observe sea floors. Direct observations of the ocean floor are made by deep- diving submarines and some of these submarines can dive to depths of more than several miles and cruise at depths of 15 thousand feet. Radio equipped buoys can be operated by remote control in order to transmit information back to land based laboratory including data about water temperature, current and weather. Some of mankind’s serious problems especially those concerning energy and food may be solved with the observations made by possible with these underwater vehicles.
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Answer: (C) Advanced underwater vehicles collect information about sea floor which can be used for solving problems related to energy and food shortage.
Explanation
The passage describes how technologically advanced undersea vehicles, such as deep-diving submarines and remote-controlled buoys, are used to observe and collect information from the ocean floor. It concludes by explaining the ultimate purpose and benefit of these observations: they can help solve major human challenges, specifically energy and food shortages. Option 3 accurately synthesizes these points by combining the capabilities of advanced underwater vehicles with the final goal of addressing global resource challenges.
67Logical Reasoning
A man is facing towards West and turns through 45° clockwise, again 180° clockwise and then turns through 270° anticlockwise. In which direction is he facing now ?
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Answer: (D) South-West
Explanation
The net angular displacement is calculated by taking the difference between the total anticlockwise turns and the total clockwise turns.
Total clockwise rotation = 45° + 180° = 225°
Total anticlockwise rotation = 270°
Starting from the West direction and turning 45° in the anticlockwise direction points directly to the South-West.
68Quantitative Aptitude
How many of the following numbers are not divisible by 273 ?
546, 1156, 3003, 3564, 5733, 3822, 9605, 8736
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Answer: (B) 3
Explanation
To find how many of the given numbers are not divisible by 273, we divide each number by 273:
546 ÷ 273 = 2 (divisible)
1156 ÷ 273 = 4 with a remainder of 64 (not divisible)
3003 ÷ 273 = 11 (divisible)
3564 ÷ 273 = 13 with a remainder of 15 (not divisible)
5733 ÷ 273 = 21 (divisible)
3822 ÷ 273 = 14 (divisible)
9605 ÷ 273 = 35 with a remainder of 50 (not divisible)
8736 ÷ 273 = 32 (divisible)
The numbers 1156, 3564, and 9605 are not divisible by 273, which gives a total of 3 numbers.
69Logical Reasoning
Study the statements given below and conclusions that follow these. Select the appropriate conclusion that is based on given statements.
(a) All hockey players playing on the ground wear T-shirts with blue emblem.
(b) All players who are on the ground don't play hockey.
(c) Some hockey players also wear blue caps.
(d) Hockey players who are below 16 years always wear a cap.
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Answer: (D) None of the above.
Explanation
The given premises do not support any of the specific conclusions. Statement (a) establishes that hockey players on the ground wear T-shirts with a blue emblem. This is a one-way implication and does not mean that everyone wearing a blue emblem T-shirt is a hockey player. Statement (c) states that some hockey players wear blue caps, which does not restrict the wearing of blue caps exclusively to hockey players. Statement (d) requires hockey players under 16 to wear a cap, but it does not prevent older hockey players from wearing a cap. Since none of these conditional relations can be logically deduced, none of the specific assertions follow.
70Quantitative Aptitude
400 persons, working 9 hours a day complete ¼ th of the work in 10 days. How many of additional persons, working 8 hours a day, required to complete the remaining work in 20 days?
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Answer: (A) 275
Explanation
The relation between the number of workers, days, working hours, and work completed is given by the formula:
(M₁ × D₁ × H₁) / W₁ = (M₂ × D₂ × H₂) / W₂
Here, M₁ represents the initial number of persons, D₁ is the number of initial days, H₁ is the initial working hours per day, and W₁ is the fraction of work completed initially. Similarly, M₂, D₂, H₂, and W₂ represent the corresponding values for the remaining work.
From the given data:
M₁ = 400
D₁ = 10 days
H₁ = 9 hours per day
W₁ = ¼
For the remaining work:
D₂ = 20 days
H₂ = 8 hours per day
W₂ = 1 - ¼ = ¾
M₂ = total number of persons required for the remaining work
Substituting these values into the formula:
(400 × 10 × 9) / (¼) = (M₂ × 20 × 8) / (¾)
400 × 10 × 9 × 4 = M₂ × 20 × 8 × 4/3
400 × 10 × 9 = M₂ × 20 × 8/3
36000 = M₂ × 160/3
M₂ = (36000 × 3) / 160
M₂ = 675
The total number of persons required to complete the remaining work is 675.
The number of additional persons required is obtained by subtracting the initial number of persons from the total required persons:
Additional persons = M₂ - M₁ = 675 - 400 = 275
71Quantitative Aptitude
The average age of persons A, B, C and D is 30 years. Determine the age of D.
Data statements :
I. The sum of ages of A and C is 60 years.
II. D is 10 years younger than A.
Select the correct option with respect to getting solution to stated problem.
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Answer: (D) Data provided in the statement I and II is not sufficient.
Explanation
The average age of A, B, C, and D is 30 years, which gives the sum of their ages:
A + B + C + D = 4 × 30 = 120
According to Statement I:
A + C = 60
Substituting this in the first equation gives:
B + D = 120 - 60 = 60
This equation alone does not give a unique value for D.
According to Statement II:
A - D = 10, or A = D + 10
This statement alone is also insufficient as we cannot eliminate B and C.
Combining both statements:
We have three equations:
A + B + C + D = 120
A + C = 60
A - D = 10
Subtracting the second equation from the first gives B + D = 60.
Using the third equation, we can write A = D + 10. Substituting this into the second equation gives C + D = 50.
This leaves us with two relations: B = 60 - D and C = 50 - D.
Since we have three variables (B, C, and D) and only two independent equations, we cannot determine a unique numerical value for D. Thus, the data provided in both statements together is not sufficient.
72Quantitative Aptitude
Some amount is to be distributed among A, B, C, D in the proportion of 5 : 2 : 4 : 3 respectively. If C gets ₹ 1000 more than D, what is the share of B ?
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Answer: (C) ₹ 2000
Explanation
Let the shares of A, B, C, and D be 5x, 2x, 4x, and 3x respectively.
According to the given information, C gets ₹ 1000 more than D:
4x - 3x = 1000
x = 1000
The share of B is represented by 2x:
Share of B = 2 × 1000 = ₹ 2000
73Logical Reasoning
Read the following argument carefully and select the most appropriate option that if true, indicates that their decision is not aimed at decreasing team member's risk of heart disease. A team of researchers studying effect of drinking coffee have found that persons drinking more than four cups of coffee have a risk of heart disease 2.5 times than the average after correcting it for age and smoking habits. It is important to note that the members of this team declared that they have started limiting their own daily coffee intake to two cups as a result of above finding.
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Answer: (A) It is well established fact that the stress is major causal factor related to heart disease but it is not clear whether this team has collected information about variations in coffee consumption are directly related to the variations in stress levels.
Explanation
The team's decision to limit their coffee intake to two cups is based on their finding of a link between heavy coffee consumption and a higher risk of heart disease. For this decision to be logically aimed at decreasing their risk of heart disease, coffee consumption itself must be a direct causal factor. Option 1 introduces stress as a major causal factor for heart disease. If variations in coffee consumption are directly related to stress levels, then stress acts as an uncontrolled confounding variable. Without controlling for stress, the observed correlation between coffee and heart disease could be entirely explained by stress rather than coffee. Therefore, merely reducing coffee intake without addressing stress would fail to decrease their risk of heart disease, indicating that their decision does not effectively target the actual risk factor.
74Decision Making
You are a medical practitioner and appointed by the prestigious educational institute for allotting fitness certificates to all persons before they are employed in the institution. A highly qualified person X is interviewed along with many other candidates and was selected for the teaching post by the head of one of the department as the panel of interviewers found him to be very competent. Two members belonging to your community who are faculty members of this department approached you and pressurize you to give negative certificate about X's fitness. They are interested in creating trouble for the X and the head of the department who belong to the same community. These persons might use their connections and cancel your assignment with the institution in the future. You will....
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Answer: (D) ..... request them not to interfere with your work and allow you to execute your duties scrupulously and righteously without any kind of biases.
Explanation
Professional integrity, objectivity, and adherence to ethical standards are the core values of any medical practitioner. Option 4 demonstrates a high degree of moral courage, professional responsibility, and commitment to duty. By firmly requesting the individuals not to interfere and resolving to perform the duties scrupulously, righteously, and without bias, you uphold the principles of fairness and meritocracy. This approach ensures that personal prejudices, communal affiliations, and external threats of losing the assignment do not compromise the professional assessment of a candidate's physical fitness.
75Decision Making
You are a farmer by profession and own a few acres of land. Many other farmers from nearby places, those own insufficient land and landless people, work as labourers on your farm. They do all sort of work including spraying insecticides and herbicides. Many farmers in your district committed suicides and continued to do so including some of your workers. You came across the newspaper article that informs that many studies all over the world claim that insecticides play major role in motivating persons to commit suicides. It is not limited to commit suicide by drinking insecticides. While handling and spraying, molecules of insecticides are inhaled and get accumulated in the body over the years. This affects human brain and neuro system and attitudes like frustration, depression and self-destruction are developed among these persons. What will be your response to this information?
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Answer: (A) I will provide all quality safety equipment to my labourers and train them to handle and spray insecticides with necessary care.
Explanation
The information highlights that the primary pathway of toxicity during the application of insecticides is the inhalation and long-term accumulation of chemical molecules in the body, which severely impacts the nervous system and brain health.
Providing high-quality safety equipment, such as respiratory masks, protective gloves, and specialized suits, directly prevents the physical contact and inhalation of insecticide molecules while spraying. Combining this protective gear with proper training ensures that labourers are fully aware of safety protocols and handle the chemicals with the utmost caution. As an employer and landowner, taking immediate, practical, and on-site measures to safeguard the health of your workers is the most responsible and empathetic action to eliminate exposure risk and protect their lives.
76Decision Making
You are director of private educational institution that caters for the learners from KG to PG. You are concerned about unfettered information flooding social media and about the effect of such information can have those most impressionable. You will......
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Answer: (D) assist learners to get empowered to identify fake news by making news analysis a mandatory part of curriculum.
Explanation
Empowering learners by making news analysis a mandatory part of the curriculum is a proactive, systemic, and sustainable educational intervention. As the director of an institution spanning from kindergarten to post-graduation, incorporating media literacy and critical news analysis directly into the academic framework equips students of all age groups with the necessary analytical tools to evaluate source credibility, recognize biases, and identify misinformation independently. This institutional approach fosters critical thinking, building a long-term, self-reliant defense against the influence of digital misinformation.
77Decision Making
You are the head of the "social cell" of district police department. You are approached by the group of women and among them some are married and some are unmarried. They claim that they are pressurized and in some cases threatened by their families to participate in 'Guru-Seva' programme of certain holy sadhu during last fortnight of next month, for earning his blessings for the prosperity of the family. The members of this group don't believe in this kind of devotion. You met this holy person on many occasions but never heard anything wrong about him. You would........
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Answer: (B) .... seek a written complaint from each woman and send appropriately worded notices to the concerned families for forcing any member of the family to participate in such programme against his or her will is illegal.
Explanation
As the head of the social cell of the district police department, your primary responsibility is to uphold the law and protect the individual liberty of citizens, especially when they face pressure or threats. Forcing or threatening family members to participate in any religious or devotional activity against their free will is a violation of their individual rights. By asking for a written complaint, you initiate a formal and legally sound procedure. Sending appropriately worded notices to the families serves as an official warning, legally clarifying that coercion is unlawful and ensuring the safety and autonomy of the women through proper administrative channels.
78Decision Making
You are working as a fourth grade worker in the solid waste management department of a municipal corporation. You joined the corporation after you father's untimely death. Though failed in 10th class you are a voracious reader. Observing your interest in reading, chief supervisor in the department encouraged you to continue education and change your fate. With your personal efforts you have completed graduation in commerce and post-graduation in social work. Now for continuing research in social science institute, you have received a foreign fellowship abroad and have applied for a study leave. As per the rules of corporation, employee gets two year salary protected leave for continuing education. But the head of the corporation rejected your application and discouraged you by asking question, "Who will do cleaning work if you get higher education ?" Which way would you choose for sorting out this problem from the following list ?
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Answer: (D) Concentrate on the rejection of leave application and make aware all concerned higher authorities including national authority that looks into these types of problems.
Explanation
Addressing the unfair rejection of the study leave application through official and legal channels is the most appropriate, mature, and systematic approach. Since the rules of the corporation clearly entitle employees to a two-year salary-protected leave for continuing education, the head's rejection of the application based on discriminatory bias is a clear violation of service rules as well as constitutional principles of equality and non-discrimination. Escalating the matter systematically to higher administrative authorities and national oversight bodies ensures that the issue is resolved on merit and through institutional justice. This approach upholds the rule of law, directly addresses the administrative grievance, and holds the biased official accountable while securing the candidate's rightful opportunity for higher education.
