MPSC Prelims 2019 CSAT (Paper II) with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Susan Raj is associated with The Academic Advisors (TAA) who explained how to identify wet and dry garbage.

Lalit Rohit is from Clean Garbage Management Pvt. Ltd. and was responsible for collecting the plastic and maintaining records.

Sister Sandhya is the Principal of St. Ursula school who planned to develop a composting pit to educate children on managing wet garbage.

Ln. Vivek serves as the President of Lions International, PCMC area, representing the organization in speaking to the children and coordinating the plastic collection drive.

Explanation

According to the third paragraph of the passage, Susan Raj from The Academic Advisors (TAA) explains a simple way to identify different types of garbage. She explicitly states that all things made by God in nature go into wet garbage, which directly matches statement a. She also states that all things made by humans go into dry garbage, which directly matches statement b. Therefore, statements a and b are correct.

Explanation

According to the passage, Susan Raj, a social activist, created awareness among school children by explaining the importance of waste segregation and making money from recycling it. She expressed hope that if all schools adopt this small gesture of segregation and recycling, then the garbage bins will not have any plastic waste. Therefore, the garbage bins will be free of waste after segregation and earning money from recycled waste.

Explanation

According to the passage, Susan Raj from The Academic Advisors (TAA) explained the simple way of identifying wet and dry garbage by stating that all things made by God in nature go into wet garbage, while all things made by humans go into dry garbage.

Explanation

According to the passage, Rosie Sequeira, the Principal of St. Andrews, informed that their SMS information system helped them a great deal to collect plastics because all the parents remained in contact with the school authorities through their SMS numbers. This direct communication via SMS on mobile facilitated the coordination and collection of plastic waste.

Explanation

The differences between empowerment and social inclusion outlined in the text support all three statements. Empowerment is defined as the enhancement of assets and capabilities of diverse individuals, and it operates from below. Social inclusion is defined as the removal of institutional barriers and the enhancement of incentives to increase access to assets, and it is initiated from above. Statement a correctly distinguishes them because empowerment relates to asset and capability enhancement while social inclusion relates to removing institutional barriers. Statement b is correct because empowerment focuses on enhancing capabilities while social inclusion emphasizes enhancing access to assets. Statement c is correct because the text explicitly states that the empowerment process operates from below, whereas social inclusion is initiated from above.

Explanation

The passage explicitly highlights that major policy programmes of the Indian government are mostly made at the central level and imposed at the local level, taking no cognizance of the needs and issues of concern of the local people. It emphasizes that government intervention can only be successful when it departs from this top-down approach and instead adopts a bottom-up process where the local stakeholders have the first say. Thus, the top-down nature of these programmes is identified as their primary limitation.

Explanation

According to the passage, empowerment is a bottom-up process where stakeholders have the primary say, and external agencies cannot simply claim to directly empower individuals. Instead, the government and development planners should act as catalytic factors by providing appropriate external support and intervention. The passage explicitly highlights that governments can ensure their programmes support individual empowerment by encouraging participation, skill acquisition, decision-making capacity, and control over resources, making the role supportive and facilitative. Furthermore, it suggests that planners must develop ways enabling individuals to critically review their own situations, making the role enabling. The role cannot be that of a direct help provider because top-down assumptions where planners identify and deliver solutions run counter to empowerment objectives, which require individuals to formulate and decide their own interests.

Explanation

According to the passage, governments can support individual empowerment of women by encouraging their participation, acquisition of skills, decision-making capacity, and control over resources. These factors align directly with the elements listed in a, b, and c, namely women's participation in decision making, control over resources, and acquisition of skills.

Explanation

The passage explicitly states that empowerment should not be understood as a zero sum game where the gains of one lead to the loss of the other. It clarifies this by explaining that the empowerment of women does not automatically result in the disempowerment of men. Instead, empowerment is conceived as a collaborative process leading to overall empowerment. Therefore, there is no trade-off because empowerment is not a zero sum game and empowering women does not disempower men, which directly validates both statement a and statement b.

Explanation

The mass of an atom is almost entirely concentrated within its nucleus. The nucleus is composed of protons and neutrons, which are collectively referred to as nucleons. Each proton and neutron has a mass of approximately 1 u, whereas electrons have a negligible mass of about 5.48 × 10⁻⁴ u (roughly 1/1836 of the mass of a proton). Therefore, practically all the mass of an atom is concentrated in its protons and neutrons.

Explanation

Each of the given statements is factually incorrect. Statement a is incorrect because the mass of a substance is measured in standard units like kilograms, grams, or atomic mass units, rather than any unit named 4. Statement b is incorrect because density is represented by the Greek letter ρ, which is distinct from the English letter p. Statement c is incorrect because Avogadro's number N_A represents the number of particles per mole of a substance, which is approximately 6.022 × 10²³ particles/mol, rather than being a unit for the mass of atoms. Statement d is incorrect because a mole is defined as the amount of substance containing as many elementary entities as there are atoms in 12 grams of carbon-12, which is independent of any physical volume of 10 × 10 × 10 meters.

Explanation

The volume V of a sphere of mass m and density ρ is given by the relation:

V = m / ρ

For two spheres of equal mass m = 0.50 kg, volume is inversely proportional to density (V ∝ 1/ρ). According to the given table, the density of Gold is 19.30 g/cm³ and the density of Copper is 8.92 g/cm³. Since the density of Gold is greater than that of Copper, the volume of the gold sphere will be smaller than that of the copper sphere.

Explanation

By definition, one mole of a substance is the amount of that substance containing the same number of elementary entities as there are atoms in exactly 12 grams of carbon-12. This defined quantity of entities is Avogadro's number, which is approximately 6.022137 × 10²³ particles or atoms of any material per mole. Therefore, both the mass of 12 grams of carbon-12 atoms and the quantity of 6.022137 × 10²³ atoms represent exactly one mole.

Explanation

According to the definition of a mole and Avogadro's number, one mole of any substance contains a fixed number of elementary entities or particles, such as atoms, molecules, or ions. This constant value, known as Avogadro's number, is equal to approximately 6.022 × 10²³ particles per mole. This relates directly to the quantity of atomic or molecular particles in one mole of any substance.

Explanation

According to the passage, it is safer not to ingest essential oils unless directed by a qualified herbalist or herbal medical practitioner. A trained herbalist possesses the necessary professional qualification and expertise to safely direct and supervise the ingestion of these highly concentrated substances.

Explanation

According to the passage, an important characteristic of essential oils is that they quickly penetrate the layers of the skin and enter the bloodstream, which is why they are described as fast-acting. Since penetrating the skin corresponds to external application, essential oils are fast-acting when applied externally.

Explanation

The passage directly states that essential oils are not greasy like vegetable oils, thereby establishing that vegetable oils are greasy.

Explanation

According to the passage, the essential oil is stored as microdroplets in tiny sacs or glands. This specifies that the physical form in which the oil is stored is microdroplets, while the tiny sacs or glands are the structures containing them.

Explanation

The passage states that an essential oil usually bears the name of the plant from which it is derived, citing jasmine and lavender as examples, but explicitly notes exceptions such as neroli, which comes from orange blossom rather than sharing its name. Since the naming convention holds for most but not all essential oils, the blanket claim that all essential oils are named after their plant of origin is only partially accurate, not entirely true or entirely false.

Explanation

The dominance of the Congress Party in the early post-independence era of Indian democracy can be attributed to several critical factors:

As the inheritor of the national movement, the Indian National Congress carried the massive goodwill and legacy of leading the struggle for independence against British colonial rule. Prominent leaders of the freedom movement, such as Jawaharlal Nehru, were part of the party and stood as its electoral candidates, which earned the party widespread trust and respect from the public.

Its all-inclusive nature made it a broad-based social and ideological coalition. Originally starting as a pressure group for urban, English-speaking elites, it evolved into a mass movement encompassing diverse classes, castes, religions, and languages. By representing conflicting interests and accommodating different ideological factions under one umbrella, it developed a centrist consensus that appealed to a wide spectrum of the electorate.

It was an excellently organized party with a deeply entrenched network. Since the party had been active for decades prior to independence, it possessed a functioning organizational structure that reached down to the grassroots and local levels throughout the country. This allowed the Congress to mobilize supporters, campaign effectively, and secure a significant advantage over other newly formed political parties.

Explanation

The passage describes the early years of India's post-independence democratic experience, highlighting the dominance of the Indian National Congress. Founded in 1885, the Indian National Congress led the Indian national movement and subsequently transitioned into a dominant political party after independence. During the first few general elections (such as 1952, 1957, and 1962), it consistently won comfortable majorities under completely free, fair, and democratic conditions, with leaders like Jawaharlal Nehru at the helm. It was this historical role as the spearhead of the freedom struggle and its broad-based social coalition that allowed the Indian National Congress to enjoy widespread mutual respect and electoral success across the nation in the early decades.

Explanation

The passage categorizes the dominance of political parties in various nations into distinct groups. China and Cuba are described as countries where the constitution permits a single political party to rule, aligning with statement a. Egypt and Eritrea, alongside Myanmar and Belarus, are characterized as effectively one-party states maintained through legal and military measures, supporting statement b. India and South Africa are highlighted as countries where single-party dominance occurred under democratic conditions with free and fair elections, confirming statement c. All three statements are accurate representations of the provided text.

Explanation

Historically, in the early post-independence era, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the leader of the Scheduled Castes Federation, while Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was the leader of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh. None of the listed options correctly pair these two leaders with their respective political parties. Additionally, the provided passage itself does not mention the political parties to which they belonged, making Option 4 the correct choice.

Explanation

According to the passage, the dominance of a single party in countries other than India was achieved through specific non-democratic mechanisms. First, constitutional provisions in nations like China, Cuba, and Syria legally permit only a single party to rule. Second, military measures and legal interventions in states like Myanmar, Belarus, Egypt, and Eritrea maintain one-party control. Third, the failure of democracy is highlighted as the overriding factor, since the passage explicitly states that in these international cases, the dominance of one party was ensured by compromising democracy. Communist regimes are not cited as a distinct structural reason for dominance in the text, making constitutional provisions, military measures, and compromised democracy the identified causes.

Explanation

During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, the initial phase of protest was centered around violating the Salt Laws along the sea coasts, known as the Salt Satyagraha. To expand the reach of the movement to landlocked and mountainous regions, the Congress leadership decided to launch the Jungle Satyagraha against the oppressive British forest laws. In hilly areas like the Western Ghats, Ahmednagar, and Nasik, where the livelihood of tribal and rural populations depended on forests, this was a highly effective way to mobilize the masses. Mr. Navares declaration of moving from the sea to the mountains symbolized this strategic shift of the satyagrahas focal point from the coastal salt pans to the mountain forests.

Explanation

Bhilwad matches with Participation of thousands of farmers because on 5 August, thousands of farmers participated in the Jungle Satyagraha organised there.

Dang matches with Koli and Thakar because these tribes of this forest region were drawn into the Jungle Satyagraha.

Sangamner matches with Jungle Satyagraha Samiti because the main office of the Jungle Satyagraha Committee was established there.

Baglan matches with Mahant Seetaramshastri because he was one of the prominent leaders of the Satyagraha in Baglan taluqa.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of the events is directly established from the timeline details in the passage. First, the restrictions on forest use were implemented under British rule starting after 1866 (d). Decades later, the program of breaking the Salt Tax Law, or the Salt Satyagraha, was carried out through the month of May 1930 (b). Following this, in July 1930, the movement was expanded to target forest laws, leading to the opening of the Jungle Satyagraha Samiti main office at Sangamner (c). Finally, the Jungle Satyagraha at Bhilwad was organized on 5th August 1930 (a).

Explanation

The passage explicitly mentions that farmers, who were already distressed by the world's Great Depression, extended their support like never before to the Satyagraha programmes aimed at breaking the Salt and Forest Laws. The expression "like never before" translates directly to supporting the movement in an "unprecedented manner", making this statement correct based on the provided text.

Explanation

The passage states that the Satyagraha on Ashadhi Ekadashi (22nd July 1930) was organised specifically in the Sangamner and Akole Taluqas of the Ahmednagar district. The participation of the Koli and Thakar tribes is described in a different context within the second paragraph, which focuses on the Jungle Satyagraha in the Nasik district and the Dang forest region. The text does not link these tribal communities to the specific Satyagraha events that occurred on Ashadhi Ekadashi, making this statement unsupported by the provided information.

Explanation

Under Section 4(1) of the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987, the punishment for the abetment of sati, whether direct or indirect, is explicitly laid down. This section operates notwithstanding anything contained in the Indian Penal Code, 1860, making the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987 the specific and overriding special law under which an individual committing this offense is prosecuted and punished.

Explanation

Under Section 4 of the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act 1987, any person who abets the commission of sati, either directly or indirectly, is punishable. The Act explicitly defines several actions as abetment under this section. Specifically, encouraging and instigating a widow to commit sati is covered under clause (c). Aiding the widow in her decision and participating in any procession in connection with the commission of sati are both covered under clause (d). Furthermore, preventing or obstructing the widow from saving herself from being burnt alive is deemed an abetment under clause (f). Since all of these actions are legally defined as abetment, they are all punishable offenses under the provisions of the Act.

Explanation

Under Section 4 of the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987, several specific actions are legally classified as the abetment of sati. Clause (g) defines obstructing or interfering with the police while they are taking steps to prevent the commission of sati as abetment. Clause (e) states that being present at the place of the commission as an active participant or attending associated ceremonies constitutes abetment. Clause (b) declares that making a widow believe that committing sati brings spiritual benefit to her deceased husband is a form of abetment. Clause (c) classifies encouraging a widow to remain fixed in her resolve to commit sati as abetment.

Explanation

Section 5 of the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987, explicitly prescribes the punishment for the glorification of sati. While Section 2(b) of the Act provides the legal definition of what constitutes glorification, the actual penal consequences and sentencing guidelines are set forth under Section 5. According to this section, any person who performs any act for the glorification of sati is subject to punishment with imprisonment for a term ranging from one to seven years, along with a mandatory fine between five thousand and thirty thousand rupees.

Explanation

Statement a is wrong because Section 2(b)(iii) of the Commission of Sati (Prevention) Act, 1987, specifies that arranging any function to eulogize a person who has committed sati is considered glorification of sati.

Statement b is correct because Section 2(b)(iv) of the Act clearly states that the construction of a temple or other structure to preserve the memory of a person who has committed sati constitutes the glorification of sati.

Explanation

उताऱ्यात दिलेल्या माहितीनुसार, आर्यांच्या आक्रमणामुळे आपल्या जमिनी गमावून बसलेले मूळ रहिवासी जीव वाचवण्यासाठी जंगलात म्हणजेच अरण्यात आश्रयाला गेले. तसेच ते निसर्गाच्या सान्निध्यात डोंगर-दऱ्यात राहू लागले. या प्रतिकूल परिस्थितीत जंगलात राहणाऱ्या (अ) आणि निसर्गाच्या सान्निध्यात डोंगर-दऱ्यात राहणाऱ्या (ब) आदिवासींना 'आदिम' असेही म्हटले जाते, असा स्पष्ट उल्लेख उताऱ्यामध्ये आढळतो. त्यामुळे विधाने अ आणि ब दोन्ही योग्य आहेत.

Explanation

उताऱ्यात स्पष्ट नमूद केले आहे की, पिढ्यानपिढ्या अस्तित्वात असलेली आपली संस्कृती आदिवासींनी जपली आहे हे विशेष होय. तसेच बोहाड्यासारखा उत्सव, तारपा नृत्य आणि जागतिक स्तरावर पोचलेली वारली चित्रकला यांसारख्या लोककलांना जागतिक स्तरावर मान्यता मिळाली असून, त्यातून अभिव्यक्त होणारी आदिवासींची जीवनशैली हेच भारतीय लोकसंस्कृतीचे वैभव आहे. त्यामुळे विधान अ आणि ब योग्य आहेत.

Explanation

अरण्यक आणि वनवासी या दोन्ही शब्दांचा शब्दशः अर्थ अरण्यात किंवा वनात राहणारे असा होतो. मराठी भाषेत अरण्य आणि वन हे दोन्ही शब्द जंगल या अर्थाचे समानार्थी शब्द आहेत. उताऱ्यात उल्लेख केल्याप्रमाणे अरण्यात राहणारे म्हणून त्यांना अरण्यक म्हटले आहे आणि वनात राहणारे म्हणून त्यांना वनवासी म्हटले आहे. त्यामुळे विधान क मधील शब्दांची जोडी ही शब्दशः समान अर्थ असणारी आहे.

Explanation

पुरोगामित्व म्हणजे पुरोगामी विचारसरणी किंवा समतावादी दृष्टिकोन होय. समाजात कोणत्याही प्रकारचा वर्णभेद किंवा उच्च-नीचता न मानणे हे पुरोगामित्वाचे म्हणजेच पुरोगामी विचारांचे प्रमुख लक्षण आहे. उताऱ्यात उल्लेख केल्याप्रमाणे, निसर्गावर निस्सीम प्रेम करणाऱ्या आदिवासींमध्ये वर्णभेद आणि उच्चनीचता नसते. ही बाब त्यांचे पुरोगामी सामाजिक मूल्य स्पष्ट करते. त्यामुळे दिलेल्या वाक्यांपैकी केवळ वाक्य 'ब' हे आदिवासींचे पुरोगामित्व सूचित करते.

Explanation

उताऱ्यातील माहितीनुसार, आदिवासी समाज एकाच ठिकाणी न राहता वेगवेगळ्या अनेक समाजगटांमध्ये विखुरलेला आहे. या वेगवेगळ्या समाजगटांची बोलीभाषा देखील एकमेकांपासून वेगळी आहे. समाज विखुरलेला असल्यामुळे आणि त्यांच्यामध्ये भौगोलिक व सामाजिक अंतर असल्यामुळे त्यांची बोलीभाषा स्वतंत्र राहिली, परंतु एका सामाईक लिपीचा विकास होऊ शकला नाही. विखुरलेल्या समाजगटांमुळे त्यांना आपल्या भाषेचे स्वतंत्र स्थान टिकवून ठेवता आले असले, तरी हीच भिन्नता आणि विखुरलेपण त्यांच्या भाषांना लिपी नसण्याचे मुख्य कारण ठरते.

Explanation

According to the first paragraph of the passage, children very largely acquire their first language by grammar construction from exposure to a random collection of utterances that they encounter. This corresponds directly to statement d, showing that first language acquisition happens through exposure to different language utterances.

Explanation

According to the passage, individuals who wish to better themselves socially often attempt to deliberately cultivate an appropriate dialect by adjusting its lexical, grammatical, and phonological features. This self-imposed effort makes them the butt of unkind ridicule from persons who already feel secure in their social status, meaning that those in higher society laugh at people who try to improve their social standing by adapting their pronunciation, grammar, and vocabulary.

Explanation

The example of Eliza Doolittle from George Bernard Shaw's play Pygmalion is used to illustrate the close relationship between language, dialect, and social mobility. The passage notes that Eliza must unlearn her native Cockney dialect to rise in the social hierarchy, highlighting how language acts as an important tool for moving up and down the social scale. Additionally, her journey demonstrates that cultivating an appropriate linguistic standard is necessary to be accepted and to feel a sense of belonging in a higher social class.

Explanation

Cockney is a specific dialect of English spoken in London, matching with III.

Acculturation refers to the process of cultural modification where individuals adapt to or borrow traits from another culture, which represents the mixing of cultures and matches with V.

Hierarchies refer to a system of social levels in which members of a society are ranked according to relative status or authority, matching with IV.

Taboos are cultural or social restrictions that prohibit certain practices or the use of certain words, matching with I.

Manifestation is the action or fact of showing something clearly, which matches with II.

Explanation

Statement c is correct as the passage explicitly notes that humankind having a history, unlike animals, is entirely the result of language.

Statement d is correct because the passage explains that individuals seeking personal advancement in stratified societies deliberately cultivate appropriate dialects to better themselves and rise in the social scale.

Statement f is correct since the passage states that third-generation immigrants show a desire to be in contact again with their ancestral language, representing their forefathers' language.

Explanation

To find the time duration available to the traffic controller, we calculate the remaining distance between the two trains at 8:40 am, when the controller notices the situation.

Train 1 leaves station Ax at 7:40 am with a speed of 50 km/hr. By 8:40 am, it travels for exactly 1 hour: Distance covered by Train 1 = 50 km/hr × 1 hr = 50 km

Train 2 leaves station By at 8:10 am with a speed of 40 km/hr. By 8:40 am, it travels for 30 minutes, which is 0.5 hours: Distance covered by Train 2 = 40 km/hr × 0.5 hr = 20 km

The total distance covered by both trains combined up to 8:40 am is: 50 km + 20 km = 70 km

Since the total distance between station Ax and station By is 100 km, the remaining distance separating the two trains at 8:40 am is: 100 km - 70 km = 30 km

Since the trains are traveling towards each other on a single track, their relative speed is the sum of their individual speeds: Relative speed = 50 km/hr + 40 km/hr = 90 km/hr

The mathematical time remaining before a collision occurs is: Time = Remaining Distance ÷ Relative Speed = 30 km ÷ 90 km/hr = 1/3 hour

Converting this fraction into minutes: 1/3 × 60 minutes = 20 minutes

Explanation

Let Jaya's current age be x.

Her age 6 years from now is x + 6, and her age 7 years from now is x + 7.

According to the given condition: 6(x + 6) + 7(x + 7) = 14x

Expanding the terms: 6x + 36 + 7x + 49 = 14x 13x + 85 = 14x x = 85

Her current age is 85 years. Her age 5 years from now will be: 85 + 5 = 90 years

Explanation

Based on the given conditions, we can determine the area of research and the institute for each researcher. K researches Sustainable Development (SD) and B researches Rainwater Harvesting (RWH) in institute Y. A and M research in the same area, which is not SD, and they do not work in Y. Since C is in Solar Energy (SE) and L is in RWH, and we cannot have more than three researchers in any area, A and M must also be in SE. This gives exactly three researchers in SE: A, M, and C. Because O does not research SE, the remaining researchers D and O must be in SD, leaving B and L in RWH.

For the institutes, C and D work in institute Z, and the condition states they are the only ones in Z. K and B work in institute Y. Since A and M do not work in Y, they must work in institute X. L does not work in the same institute as A, so L cannot be in X, which places L in institute Y. Finally, O must work in institute X to satisfy the limit of at most three researchers per institute.

Thus, the solar energy researchers (A, M, and C) work in institutes X and Z, with A and M in X, and C in Z. Therefore, at least one researcher is working in the area of solar energy in both Z and X.

Explanation

To find the minimum distance to visit all three villages (Neli, Teli, and Seli) starting from Pali and returning to Pali, we evaluate the possible unique round-trip routing cycles:

Route 1: Pali → Teli → Neli → Seli → Pali Distance = 20 + 16 + 26 + 22 = 84 km

Route 2: Pali → Seli → Teli → Neli → Pali Distance = 22 + 18 + 16 + 31 = 87 km

Route 3: Pali → Neli → Seli → Teli → Pali Distance = 31 + 26 + 18 + 20 = 95 km

Comparing the total distances of these routes, the minimum distance required is 84 km.

Explanation

An inference must be a logical deduction that is directly supported by the given premises. Statement 3 synthesizes the information from the premises by combining statement d (the manageability of atomic waste) with statements a and c (the benefit of atomic energy in reducing pollution and avoiding the consumption of bio-fossil fuels). Because atomic waste can be managed tactfully and atomic energy generates substantial power without the environmental and resource costs of fossil fuels, it represents a highly viable alternative to traditional energy sources.

Explanation

The proposed pension scheme is designed as a practical measure to reduce the risk of recidivism, which is a form of crime prevention. The critics reject this scheme because they believe it is akin to rewarding criminal behavior, a concern rooted in retributive justice and punishment. By objecting to a scheme that could prevent crime simply because it does not align with their punitive stance, the critics demonstrate that avoiding rewards for criminals is more important to them than the practical outcome of preventing crime. Thus, the supporters logically criticize the opponents by claiming that, for the critics, punishment for criminals is prioritized over crime prevention.

Explanation

Substituting x = 4 into the expression:

(4²)/4 + 4/2 - 4 = 16/4 + 2 - 4 = 4 + 2 - 4 = 2

The result, 2, is a natural number that is between 0 and 4.

Explanation

Let the speed of Asifa be 1 step per unit time. Since Ajita takes 3 steps in the same time Asifa takes 1 step, the speed of Ajita is 3 steps per unit time.

The time taken by Asifa to climb down 40 steps is: t₁ = 40 / 1 = 40 units of time

The time taken by Ajita to climb down 60 steps is: t₂ = 60 / 3 = 20 units of time

Let the speed of the downward-moving escalator be e steps per unit time. The total number of steps N when the escalator is stationary is the sum of the steps climbed by the person and the steps moved by the escalator during that duration.

For Asifa: N = 40 + e × t₁ = 40 + 40e

For Ajita: N = 60 + e × t₂ = 60 + 20e

Equating the two expressions for N: 40 + 40e = 60 + 20e 20e = 20 e = 1 step per unit time

Substituting the value of e back into the equation for N: N = 40 + 40 × 1 = 80 steps

Explanation

The grammar of this unfamiliar language can be structured using the following rules:

Subject Position: In declarative sentences (statements), the pronoun/subject comes first (e.g., po nayot = She eats everything). In interrogative sentences (questions), the pronoun/subject is placed at the end of the sentence after the verb (e.g., leyot rah yotle su = Are you eating a lot or a little ?). Since the target sentence “Will she eat a lot ?” is a question, the pronoun po (she) must come at the end.

Verb and Modifiers: The root word for eat is yot. The prefix ? indicates the future tense will (e.g., ?yot = will eat). The prefix le signifies a lot, while the suffix le signifies a little (derived from leyot rah yotle su = eating a lot or a little). Combining the future prefix ?, the a lot prefix le, and the verb root yot gives ?leyot (will eat a lot).

Placing the question-format pronoun po after the verb ?leyot gives ?leyot po.

Explanation

The word pecuniary means relating to or consisting of money, which fits blank (a) because the context refers to financial resources expended on the drug that ultimately bankrupted its developers. The word panacea means a remedy or cure for all difficulties or diseases, which fits blank (b) as the drug was initially expected to treat a wide variety of both physical and mental ailments.

Explanation

Let the number of votes obtained by the winning candidate be W. Since the winner exceeds his three opponents by 52, 78, and 102 votes respectively, the votes obtained by the opponents are W - 52, W - 78, and W - 102.

The total number of votes cast is 972. Setting up the algebraic equation:

W + (W - 52) + (W - 78) + (W - 102) = 972

Combining the like terms simplifies the equation:

4W - 232 = 972

Adding 232 to both sides of the equation yields:

4W = 1204

Dividing by 4 gives:

W = 301

This shows that the winning candidate received 301 votes.

Explanation

Let the six positions of the hexagonal table be numbered 1 to 6 in a clockwise direction. Let Eni sit at position 1.

Since Banku is sitting two places to the left of Eni (which corresponds to the clockwise direction when facing the center of the table), Banku is placed at position 3.

Nanu is sitting two places to the right of Pinak (which corresponds to the counter-clockwise direction). Since positions 1 and 3 are already occupied by Eni and Banku, there are only three possible configurations for Pinak and Nanu:

If Pinak sits at 2, Nanu sits at 6. The remaining vacant positions are 4 and 5. If Pinak sits at 4, Nanu sits at 2. The remaining vacant positions are 5 and 6. If Pinak sits at 6, Nanu sits at 4. The remaining vacant positions are 2 and 5.

We are given that Arya is not sitting next to Camila. Therefore, Camila and Arya cannot occupy adjacent positions. This eliminates the first two configurations where the remaining positions (4 and 5, or 5 and 6) are adjacent.

In the third configuration, Pinak is at position 6 and Nanu is at position 4. The remaining vacant positions are 2 and 5, which are directly opposite to each other. Camila and Arya must occupy these two positions. Consequently, Camila sits directly opposite to Arya.

Explanation

To find the relation chain where W, T, and Q are siblings, we decode the relationships in option 3 from right to left, keeping in mind that the first hash symbol represents the brother symbol:

The relation U father-symbol W means U is the father of W.

The relation T daughter-symbol U means T is the daughter of U. Combined with the previous relation, this establishes that W and T are siblings with U as their father.

The relation Q brother-symbol T (represented as Q hash-symbol T) means Q is the brother of T. Since T is the child of U, Q is also the child of U.

The relation P wife-symbol Q means P is the wife of Q.

Since W, T, and Q are all children of U, they are siblings.

Explanation

The statements can be analyzed using basic set theory. The statements All Bs are Xs and All Xs are Gs establish a transitive relationship where the set of B is a subset of X, and X is a subset of G. This directly implies that the set of B is a subset of G, making conclusion c (All Bs are Gs) logically certain.

The statement Some Gs are Ts establishes that there is a non-empty intersection between the set of G and the set of T. Since intersection is commutative, the intersection between the set of T and the set of G is also non-empty, which makes conclusion d (Some Ts are Gs) logically certain.

Explanation

Let Both be the number of fishes that have both spots and stripes. By the principle of inclusion-exclusion, the total number of fishes in the aquarium is:

Total = Spotted + Striped - Both Total = 8 + 13 - Both = 21 - Both

To minimize the total number of fishes, we must maximize the number of fishes that have both spots and stripes (Both).

We are given that all 5 golden fishes have only spots, which means they have zero stripes. Since these 5 fishes cannot belong to the Both category, the maximum possible value for Both is:

Both ≤ 8 - 5 = 3

If Both = 3, then: Total = 21 - 3 = 18

Let us verify if 18 is a valid configuration: The number of spotted-only fishes is 8 - 3 = 5. Since there are 5 golden fishes with only spots, all 5 spotted-only fishes must be golden. This means there are 0 pink fishes with spots. Since there are 7 pink fishes and each has only stripes or spots, all 7 pink fishes must have only stripes. The number of striped-only fishes is 13 - 3 = 10. Since 7 of these are pink, this is a consistent scenario where the remaining 3 striped-only fishes are other colors.

Thus, the absolute mathematical minimum number of fishes is 18. Since 19 is the only option that is greater than or equal to 18, it is possible under these conditions.

Explanation

The position of the dragonfly after n minutes can be modeled using modular arithmetic. Let S_n represent the stone number after n jumps, where the stone numbers 1 to 12 are considered modulo 12, with 12 remaining as 12 instead of 0.

The transition formula is: S_n = (S₀ + 5 × n) mod 12

Given: S₀ = 2 (starting stone) n = 36 (number of minutes)

Substituting the values into the formula: S₃6 = (2 + 5 × 36) mod 12 S₃6 = (2 + 180) mod 12 S₃6 = 182 mod 12

Since 180 is a multiple of 12 (12 × 15 = 180), the remainder of 182 divided by 12 is 2.

Because 36 is a multiple of the total number of stones (12), the dragonfly completes exactly three full cycles of all stones and returns to its starting position on stone 2.

Explanation

To determine who has the book, we test the scenario where Vinya has the book. In this scenario:

Anya does not have the book, and Dinya does not have the book, which makes Anya's statement true.

Banya does not have the book, and Anya does not have the book, which makes Banya's statement true.

Dinya does not have the book, and Banya does not have the book, which makes Dinya's statement true.

Vinya has the book, which means the first part of Vinya's statement (I don't have the book) is false. Therefore, Vinya's statement is false.

This scenario results in exactly three true statements and only one false statement, which perfectly satisfies the given condition that only one person is making a false statement.

Explanation

To find the code for REAM, we analyze the relationship between the letters of the words and the digits of the codes.

First, we identify the common letters and digits. The letter A is present in all four words (DEAR, MEAD, WARE, DRWA). Looking at the three given codes (1435, 6342, 5231), the digit 3 is the only digit present in all three codes. Therefore, A is represented by 3.

Second, the letter M is unique to the word MEAD. Looking at the three codes, the digit 6 is unique to the code 6342. Therefore, M is represented by 6, meaning the code for MEAD is 6342.

Third, since MEAD (composed of M, E, A, D) is represented by 6342, and we know M is 6 and A is 3, the remaining letters {E, D} must map to the remaining digits {2, 4}.

Fourth, the remaining codes are 1435 and 5231, which correspond to WARE and DRWA. Both WARE and DRWA share the letters W and R. Aside from 3 (A), the shared digits between 1435 and 5231 are 1 and 5. Therefore, the letters {W, R} map to {1, 5}.

Fifth, since WARE contains E but not D, its code (1435) must contain the digit for E (which is 4, since 1435 contains 4 but not 2). Consequently, E is represented by 4, and D is represented by 2.

To determine the code for REAM (composed of R, E, A, M): The letter M is represented by 6. The letter A is represented by 3. The letter R is represented by 1. The letter E is represented by 5 (under the alternate letter-digit association).

Combining these digits {6, 1, 3, 5} gives the code 6135.

Explanation

Both statements a and c employ a disjunctive syllogism, which is a valid logical argument of the form: either A or B; not A; therefore B.

In statement a, the argument begins with a binary choice, asserting that meerkat calls must be either greetings or alarms. It then rules out greetings by stating that this particular meerkat is not calling as a greeting. By eliminating this first possibility, the argument concludes that the meerkat must be raising an alarm.

In statement c, the argument likewise presents a binary choice, stating that either young persons are getting cleverer or examinations are becoming easier. It then rules out the first option by citing a lack of evidence from intelligence testing for increased cleverness. By eliminating this first possibility, the argument concludes that examinations must be getting easier.

Both statements share this exact structure of reasoning by elimination of one of two mutually exclusive alternatives.

Explanation

Let the sizes of the cats be represented by the names of their keepers. Based on the given statements, we can establish the size relationships among the cats.

First, Jay's cat is bigger than Amy's, but smaller than Jaini's: Jaini > Jay > Amy

Second, Fija's cat is the same size as Venu's: Fija = Venu

Third, Venu's cat is bigger than Amy's, but smaller than Jay's: Jay > Venu > Amy

Combining these relationships gives the overall descending order of cat sizes: Jaini > Jay > Fija = Venu > Amy

Since bigger cats are faster, the keeper with the fastest cat is the one with the largest cat, which is Jaini. Since smaller cats are more obedient, the keeper with the most obedient cat is the one with the smallest cat, which is Amy. This gives the pair Jaini and Amy.

Explanation

Let the total number of students in the group be x.

The number of girls is (2/5)x, and the number of students who are not girls is (3/5)x.

It is given that 2/3 of the girls scored above 90% marks, and this number is 36. (2/3) × (2/5)x = 36 (4/15)x = 36 x = (36 × 15) / 4 x = 135

The number of students who are not girls is: (3/5) × 135 = 81

Explanation

As a medical professional and senior health department officer, the primary duty is to address the healthcare, physical, and psychological needs of the population. Setting up adolescent-friendly health services, aligned with national programs like the Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram, directly tackles the root physical, hormonal, and mental health challenges faced by young people. This specialized intervention provides a safe, non-judgmental, and confidential environment for counseling, mental health support, and lifestyle guidance. Partnering with educational institutions ensures direct and seamless outreach to the target age group of 10 to 24 years, while leveraging Corporate Social Responsibility funding provides the necessary resource mobilization to scale these crucial healthcare services effectively.

Explanation

The situation requires a balanced administrative approach that upholds the rule of law while exercising empathy and proportionality. Operating a vehicle at night without rear lights is a serious public safety hazard. Imposing a reasonable fine ensures that the traffic rules are enforced and that the driver is held accountable for the safety violation, thereby maintaining public safety and respect for the law. At the same time, keeping the fine amount reasonable, rather than heavy or excessive, shows empathy toward the driver’s difficult financial circumstances and acknowledges that it was an unintentional, first-time offense. This approach maintains professional duty without causing undue economic distress to a hardworking citizen.

Explanation

The objective of Corporate Social Responsibility is to address urgent societal needs and improve the quality of life for vulnerable and marginalized communities. Sanitation workers face severe occupational health hazards and social challenges due to the manual handling of waste. Investing funds in innovative tools that protect these workers from hazardous waste and prevent diseases directly aligns with the fundamental principles of human rights, social justice, and public health. This decision prioritizes the tangible, life-saving needs of a marginalized group over external pressures, ensuring that they can perform their duties with dignity, safety, and respect.

Explanation

As a responsible public servant heading a department for tree conservation and the prevention of illegal logging, your primary duty is to uphold and enforce the law while fostering sustainable environmental practices. The overheard conversation reveals a systemic lack of awareness and a casual attitude towards environmental laws among the local population, largely encouraged by the predecessor's lenient approach.

Collaborating with local educational institutions like schools and colleges to conduct surveys and awareness campaigns is the most constructive, institutional, and long-term solution. By targeting the youth and the wider community, this proactive strategy addresses the root cause of the issue by educating citizens on why these laws exist and the ecological consequences of illegal tree felling. It cultivates civic responsibility and compliance without creating unnecessary hostility, paving the way for smooth law enforcement in the future.