GPSC Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The Bamiyan Valley, nestled in the high mountains of the Hindu Kush in central Afghanistan, served as a vital trade hub and caravan stop along the ancient Silk Routes. It played a crucial role in connecting China and India with the Western world, facilitating not only trade but also the transmission of religious ideas, particularly Buddhism.

The monumental Buddha statues of Bamiyan, dating back to the 5th and 6th centuries CE, are classic examples of the Gandhara school of art. They reflect a grand synthesis of multiple artistic traditions. The Hellenistic influence is clearly visible in the flowing, Roman-style drapery of their robes. Sassanian artistic styles are evident in the elaborate decorative motifs, painted details, and crowns found in the surrounding cave paintings, while the physical proportions and serene expressions show a clear connection to the Gupta art of India.

The Minaret and Archaeological Remains of Jam, inscribed in 2002, was the first site in Afghanistan to be designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, whereas the Bamiyan Valley was inscribed in 2003 as the second site.

Explanation

Magadha was one of the sixteen Mahajanapadas of ancient India that grew to become the most powerful empire, largely due to its strategic geographic location, fertile agricultural land in the Ganga plains, and abundance of iron ore resources. The first major historical king of the Magadhan empire was Bimbisara of the Haryanka dynasty, who expanded its territories, whereas Ajatasatru was his son and successor. The first capital of Magadha was Rajagriha (also known as Girivraja), which was fortified and surrounded by hills, while the capital was shifted to Pataliputra later during the reign of King Udayin.

Explanation

Rajagriha, also known as Girivraja, was the ancient capital of the Magadha Mahajanapada, surrounded by hills which made it a formidable fortress, before the capital was later shifted to Pataliputra. Avanti, a highly powerful kingdom of central India, was divided into northern and southern parts by the Vindhya range, with Ujjain serving as the capital of the northern region and Mahishmati as the capital of the southern region. These matches make pairs 1 and 3 correct.

Explanation

Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were two major taxes conceived and collected during the reign of Shivaji Maharaj in the seventeenth century. Chauth was an annual tax equivalent to one-fourth (25%) of the revenue of a district, levied on non-Maratha territories as a tribute in exchange for protection against Maratha raids and external aggression. Sardeshmukhi was an additional ten percent levy imposed over and above the Chauth, which Shivaji Maharaj claimed by virtue of being the hereditary head chief (Sardeshmukh) of the region. These taxation systems formed the financial foundation of the Maratha administration and supported its military campaigns.

Explanation

The reign of Chandragupta-I began in 320 A.D., marking the initiation of the Gupta Era. Upon ascending the throne, he assumed the imperial title of Maharajadhiraja (King of Kings) to establish his sovereignty, distinguishing himself from his predecessors Sri Gupta and Ghatotkacha, who only held the title of Maharaja. His coronation in 319-320 A.D. laid the foundation of the Gupta Empire, which expanded significantly across northern India through political alliances, including his marriage to the Licchavi princess Kumaradevi, and set the stage for the classical age of Indian history.

Explanation

The Elephanta Caves, located on Gharapuri Island in Maharashtra, are a collection of cave temples predominantly dedicated to the Hindu god Shiva. These rock-cut cave temples were constructed between the 5th and 8th centuries CE, which is much later than the Maurya Era that lasted from 322 BCE to 185 BCE. The creation of these caves is primarily attributed to the patronage of the Kalachuri dynasty, with later contributions and patronages from the Rashtrakuta rulers.

Explanation

Adi Shankaracharya was an influential philosopher of the late 8th and early 9th century AD who consolidated the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta, a school of orthodox Hindu philosophy also known as Uttar Mimansa. He wrote foundational commentaries, known as Bhashyas, on the Prasthanatrayi, which consists of the Upanishads, the Bhagavad Gita, and the Brahma Sutras of Badarayana. His commentary on the Brahma Sutras, called the Brahmasutrabhashya, is the oldest surviving commentary on this text and serves as the cornerstone of the Uttar Mimansa system, establishing the non-dualistic philosophy of the oneness of Atman and Brahman.

Explanation

Harshavardhana, who ruled from 606 to 647 AD with Kannauj as his capital, is traditionally regarded by historians as the last great Hindu emperor of northern India. He succeeded in unifying a vast territory stretching from Punjab in the west to Bengal in the east, and up to the Narmada River in the south, under a single centralized authority. His reign brought a brief period of political unity, stability, and cultural renaissance to northern India before the region fractured into various smaller, competing regional kingdoms.

Explanation

The Swadeshi Movement was formally proclaimed on August 7, 1905, at a massive meeting held at the Calcutta Town Hall to protest against the partition of Bengal. Lord Curzon, who served as the Viceroy and Governor-General of India from 1899 to 1905, issued the partition order in July 1905. The decision to divide the Bengal province on religious lines aimed to curb the rising tide of Indian nationalism, which directly triggered the launch of the Swadeshi and Boycott movements during the final months of his administration.

Explanation

Ashwini Kumar Dutt, a prominent nationalist leader, philanthropist, and educator from Bengal, founded the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti in Barisal in August 1905. Established in the wake of the Partition of Bengal, this volunteer organization served as a powerful instrument to propagate the message of the Swadeshi movement and boycott foreign goods. It achieved remarkable mass mobilization at the grassroots level by setting up over one hundred and fifty branches across the Barisal district. The samiti focused on promoting indigenous industries, establishing independent arbitration courts to resolve local disputes, imparting physical training, and organizing humanitarian relief during famines and epidemics. This extensive social and political work made it one of the most influential voluntary organizations of the Swadeshi era.

Explanation

The Battle of Khanwa, fought in 1527 between Babur and the Rajput ruler Rana Sanga of Mewar, is widely considered by historians to be more decisive than the First Battle of Panipat. While the victory at Panipat in 1526 defeated the weakened Lodi dynasty and gave Babur a foothold in Delhi, it did not secure his empire. The Rajputs under Rana Sanga posed a much more formidable and unified threat to the establishment of Mughal rule. Babur's victory at Khanwa crushed this powerful Rajput confederacy, eliminated the most potent challenge to his authority, and firmly consolidated Mughal supremacy in Northern India.

Explanation

The Doctrine of Lapse was an annexation policy applied by Lord Dalhousie, the Governor-General of India, between 1848 and 1856. Under this policy, any princely state under the paramountcy of the British East India Company would be annexed if its ruler died without a natural-born male heir, as the British refused to recognize adopted heirs for the purpose of governance. Following the death of Maharaja Gangadhar Rao in 1853, the British rejected his adopted son, Damodar Rao, as the successor and annexed the state of Jhansi in 1854 under this doctrine.

Explanation

Gulbadan Begum was a Mughal princess, the daughter of Emperor Babur and the sister of Emperor Humayun. She is renowned for writing the Humayun-nama, which provides a detailed, first-hand account of the reign and personal life of Humayun. Emperor Akbar commissioned her to write this chronicle to help record the history of his father's reign. Her work makes her the only female historian of the Mughal Empire to have authored a contemporary historical account of that period.

Explanation

Karl Marx, in collaboration with Friedrich Engels, authored the work titled "The First Indian War of Independence 1857-1859". This book compiled a series of articles they wrote for the New-York Daily Tribune between 1857 and 1859, portraying the Indian rebellion as a national revolt against British imperialism rather than a mere mutiny. In contrast, the Indian nationalist leader Vinayak Damodar Savarkar wrote the book titled "The Indian War of Independence 1857".

Explanation

Rani Laxmi Bai of Jhansi was a prominent leader of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. During the siege of Jhansi and the subsequent battles in central India, she demonstrated exceptional bravery, tactical acumen, and leadership. Sir Hugh Rose, the British commander of the Central India Field Force who fought against her, was deeply impressed by her valor and military skills. Following her death in battle at Kotah-ki-Serai near Gwalior, he paid tribute to her in his reports, describing her as the bravest and best military leader of the rebels.

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Chandragupta Maurya appointed Pushyagupta Vaishya as the provincial governor of Saurashtra (Junagadh), who constructed the famous Sudarshana Lake. Pushyamitra Sunga was the commander-in-chief of the Mauryan army who assassinated the last Maurya emperor Brihadratha to establish the Shunga dynasty in 185 BC.

Statement 2 is correct because Emperor Ashoka left a significant historical record in Gujarat by inscribing fourteen of his Major Rock Edicts on a large granite boulder located at the foothills of Mount Girnar near Junagadh during the Mauryan period. These inscriptions are written in the Brahmi script and Prakrit language, spreading his message of Dhamma.

Explanation

The introduction and use of the Kharosthi script in ancient India, especially on monumental rock edicts in the northwestern frontier, was a direct consequence of contact with the Achaemenid Empire of ancient Iran.

During the late 6th century BCE, the Persian king Darius I conquered the Indus Valley and Gandhara region, making it a province of the Persian Empire. The Persian administration used Aramaic as its official language and script. Over time, the local scribes in Gandhara adapted this Aramaic script to write the local Prakrit language, which led to the development of the Kharosthi script, written from right to left.

This cultural exchange is evident in Mauryan architecture and epigraphy, such as the rock edicts of Ashoka at Mansehra and Shahbazgarhi, which were inscribed in Kharosthi under the influence of Persian monumental and administrative traditions.

Explanation

Agriculture was the primary mainstay of the Mauryan economy, and the state actively took steps to expand cultivation. According to Kautilyas Arthashastra, the state established new agricultural settlements by clearing wasteland and settling people, including Shudra cultivators and laborers, to bring unused fertile land under cultivation.

The officer designated as Sitadhyaksha was the superintendent of agriculture, responsible for managing crown lands and supervising cultivation. The responsibility of looking after inland navigation and shipping lay with the Navadhyaksha, the superintendent of ships and ports. Therefore, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

Maratha commanders Damaji Gaekwad and Kanthaji Kadam Bande divided the territory of Gujarat in the early eighteenth century, with Damaji Gaekwad establishing the authority of the Gaekwad dynasty and making Baroda his capital. Additionally, during their colonial expansion, the Portuguese established strong footholds along the Gujarat coast and surrounding areas, including Daman, Diu, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli. Meanwhile, the British assumed control over Gujarat in 1818 following the defeat of the Peshwa in the Third Anglo-Maratha War, making the starting year of 1850 AD incorrect.

Explanation

The state of Gujarat was officially established on May 1, 1960, following the passage of the Bombay Reorganisation Act of 1960. This landmark act partitioned the bilingual Bombay State into two distinct linguistic states: Gujarat for Gujarati-speaking populations and Maharashtra for Marathi-speaking populations. The statement incorrectly identifies the year of establishment as 1961.

Explanation

Afonso de Albuquerque, who served as the Portuguese governor in India from 1509 to 1515, is regarded as the real founder of the Portuguese colonial empire in India. He secured Portuguese strategic domination over the Indian Ocean by establishing military bases at key sea routes. His major achievements included the conquest of Goa from the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510, which became the headquarters of the Portuguese State of India. He also established fortresses at Cochin, Malacca, and Ormuz. Albuquerque strengthened Portuguese influence by encouraging his soldiers to marry local Indian women to secure a permanent Portuguese population and administration in the region.

Explanation

Under the Regulating Act of 1773, the office of the Governor of Bengal was redesignated as the Governor-General of Bengal, and Warren Hastings became the first to hold this position. Under the Charter Act of 1833, the post was redesignated as the Governor-General of India, and Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. Robert Clive was the first Governor of Bengal, while Lord Amherst served as Governor-General of Bengal much later from 1823 to 1828.

Explanation

Hindu College in Calcutta was established on January 20, 1817. The institution was founded by a group of reform-minded individuals, including Raja Ram Mohan Roy, David Hare, Radhakanta Deb, and Sir Edward Hyde East, the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court of Fort William. Its primary objective was to provide systematic western-style liberal education in European literature and science to the youth of Bengal. The college subsequently evolved and was renamed Presidency College in 1855.

Explanation

The Prarthana Samaj was founded in Bombay on 31 March 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang. The establishment of this reform society was highly inspired by the visit and lectures of the prominent Brahmo Samaj leader Keshab Chandra Sen to Maharashtra, who encouraged local intellectuals to form an organization dedicated to rational worship and social reform. The society focused on religious reforms like monotheism and social reforms including widow remarriage, the abolition of child marriage, and the spread of women's education.

Explanation

Gopal Hari Deshmukh was a prominent social reformer, thinker, and writer from Maharashtra. He actively advocated for female education, the eradication of caste discrimination, and the elimination of harmful social customs. He wrote numerous articles on these critical issues in the weekly Marathi newspaper Prabhakar under the pen name Lokhitwadi, which translates to the well-wisher of the people. His collection of weekly essays, collectively known as Shatapatre, remains a landmark in modern Indian social reform history.

Explanation

Swami Dayanand Saraswati, a prominent social reformer and the founder of the Arya Samaj in 1875, gave the call Go back to the Vedas. He believed that the Vedas were the source of all true knowledge, infallible, and the ultimate authority in Hinduism. Through this slogan, he advocated for a return to the pure, original teachings of the Vedic period, rejecting later degenerations, idol worship, ritualism, and the rigid caste system that had entered Hindu society.

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy strongly opposed the Jury Act of 1826 because it introduced blatant religious discrimination into the colonial judicial system. Under the provisions of this Act, any Hindu or Muslim accused of an offence could be tried by a jury composed of Europeans or native Christians. However, a Christian accused of any crime could not be tried by a jury containing Hindu or Muslim members.

Viewing this as a direct insult to the legal equality and dignity of Indians, Raja Ram Mohan Roy drafted and sent petitions signed by both Hindus and Muslims to the British Parliament to protest against this discriminatory legislation. He argued that the judiciary should treat all citizens equally regardless of their faith, making this one of the earliest organized constitutional agitations in colonial India.

Explanation

In the Muzaffarpur Conspiracy Case of 1908, young revolutionaries Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki threw a bomb at a carriage in Muzaffarpur to assassinate the unpopular British magistrate Douglas Kingsford, mistakenly killing two British women instead.

In the Nasik Conspiracy Case of 1909, Anant Laxman Kanhere, a prominent member of the Abhinav Bharat Society, assassinated Arthur Jackson, the District Magistrate of Nasik, as revenge for the arrest of Babarao Savarkar.

In the Lahore Conspiracy Case of 1929, Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev, and Rajguru were prosecuted and subsequently hanged for the assassination of British police officer John Saunders in December 1928, which they carried out to avenge the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

In the Chittagong Armoury Raid Case of 1930, Surya Sen, popularly known as Masterda, led a group of revolutionaries including Ganesh Ghosh and Lokenath Bal to raid the police and auxiliary forces armouries in Chittagong, declaring a provisional revolutionary government.

Explanation

The Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) was initially established as the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) in October 1924 in Kanpur by revolutionaries like Ram Prasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee, and Sachindranath Sanyal. Bhagat Singh joined the HRA in 1924.

Following the setback of the Kakori conspiracy trial, younger leaders in the movement pushed for a shift toward socialist principles. In September 1928, a historic meeting of these revolutionaries was held at the ruins of Feroz Shah Kotla in Delhi under the leadership of Chandrashekhar Azad, Bhagat Singh, and Sukhdev. At Bhagat Singh's insistence, the organization officially adopted socialism as its goal and changed its name to the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), establishing a collective leadership to work towards an independent socialist republic in India.

Explanation

Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak passed away in Mumbai on August 1, 1920, which was the exact day Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement. To commemorate his contributions to the freedom struggle and finance the newly launched movement, the Indian National Congress established the Tilak Swaraj Fund, which successfully raised over one crore rupees.

Explanation

The Kakori Train Action was a train robbery that took place near Lucknow on August 9, 1925, organized by the Hindustan Republican Association to fund revolutionary activities against British colonial rule. Following a trial, the British administration sentenced four revolutionaries to death. Among those hanged in December 1927 were Ram Prasad Bismil at Gorakhpur Jail, Ashfaqulla Khan at Faizabad Jail, and Thakur Roshan Singh at Naini Jail in Allahabad.

Explanation

Sir Michael Francis O'Dwyer was the Lieutenant Governor of Punjab during the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in 1919. Udham Singh, a revolutionary deeply affected by the tragedy, assassinated him on March 13, 1940, at Caxton Hall in London. Udham Singh shot O'Dwyer to avenge the massacre, as O'Dwyer had actively endorsed the brutal military actions taken against the peaceful gathering in Amritsar and was the key administrator responsible for the province at that time.

Explanation

Bal Gangadhar Tilak, widely known as Lokmanya Tilak, was a prominent leader of the Indian independence movement who advocated for Swaraj (self-rule). The British journalist Valentine Chirol, in his book Indian Unrest, bestowed the title Father of Indian Unrest upon Tilak due to his fierce nationalism and his ability to mobilize the masses against colonial rule. Tilak used public festivals like Ganeshotsav and Shivaji Jayanti, along with his nationalistic writings in newspapers like Kesari and Maratha, to instill a sense of pride and resistance among the Indian public.

Explanation

Annie Besant launched the Home Rule League in September 1916, inspired by the Irish Home Rule Movement. Her initiative aimed to obtain self-government for India within the British Empire using constitutional means. She mobilized public opinion through extensive tours and her two newspapers, New India and Commonweal. Her leadership of the Home Rule Movement significantly energized the Indian national struggle and led to her election as the first woman President of the Indian National Congress in 1917.

Explanation

Fort Saint George was founded in 1644 by the British East India Company at Madras, which is modern-day Chennai. It represents the first English fortress constructed in India. The establishment of this fortified trading post on the Coromandel Coast provided the British with a secure base to expand their commercial and political influence, eventually serving as the administrative headquarters of the Madras Presidency.

Explanation

The Indian National Congress held its annual session at Nagpur in December 1920. While the Non-Cooperation resolution had been initially approved during a special session in Calcutta in September 1920, it faced opposition from several leaders. At the Nagpur session, a compromise was successfully worked out among the leaders, leading to the formal and unanimous adoption of the Non-Cooperation programme.

Explanation

The Dandi March was an act of non-violent civil disobedience led by Mahatma Gandhi against the British salt monopoly in colonial India. The 24-day march began from Sabarmati Ashram on March 12, 1930, and culminated at the coastal village of Dandi, where Gandhiji broke the Salt Law on the morning of April 6, 1930, by picking up natural salt from the seashore. This event marked the official commencement of the nationwide Civil Disobedience Movement.

Explanation

Operation Polo was the code name of the military and police action initiated by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel in September 1948 to integrate the princely state of Hyderabad into the Dominion of India. Following India's independence in 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan, refused to accede to India, hoping to maintain an independent state or join Pakistan. The situation escalated due to the violent activities of the Razakars, a private militia supporting the Nizam. To prevent further instability and secure the southern region of the country, India launched a five-day military campaign on September 13, 1948. The operation concluded successfully on September 17, 1948, with the surrender of the Hyderabad forces, leading to the formal integration of Hyderabad State into the Indian Union.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel presided over the Karachi session of the Indian National Congress in March 1931, marking his first and only appointment as the Congress President. This landmark session was held shortly after the Gandhi-Irwin Pact and is highly significant in Indian history for adopting the resolutions on Fundamental Rights and the National Economic Programme.

Explanation

National Unity Day, also known as Rashtriya Ekta Diwas, is celebrated annually on 31 October to commemorate the birth anniversary of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, the Iron Man of India. Introduced in 2014, the day honors his pivotal role in the political integration of the country, where he successfully persuaded over 500 princely states to join the Indian Union.

Explanation

The State Reorganisation Commission (SRC) was constituted by the Central Government of India in December 1953 under the chairmanship of retired Supreme Court Justice Fazal Ali. Often referred to as the Fazal Ali Commission, it was tasked with examining the demands for reorganising state boundaries on a linguistic basis while ensuring the preservation of national unity, security, and administrative efficiency.

Explanation

In the Mughal military administration, the Dakhili represented a class of auxiliary or supplementary soldiers. These troops were recruited directly by the central government on behalf of the emperor, but they were placed under the service and charge of individual mansabdars to help them fulfill their required military quotas. Since these soldiers were assigned to serve under the mansabdars, the state did not pay them directly; instead, their payments were routed through the mansabdars under whose command they were placed.

Explanation

The Non-cooperation Movement had a profound economic impact as the boycott of foreign goods gained massive traction across India. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, with its value dropping from ₹102 crore to ₹57 crore. This dramatic reduction was driven by merchants and traders across the country who refused to trade in foreign items or finance foreign trade transactions. As a direct result of the widespread boycott of imported clothes and the growing preference for indigenous garments, the production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up significantly to meet the rising domestic demand.

Explanation

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab. On this day, which coincided with the spring festival of Baisakhi, a large peaceful crowd gathered at the Jallianwala Bagh ground to protest the arrest of two prominent nationalist leaders, Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Dr. Satyapal, under the repressive Rowlatt Act. Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered British troops to block the only exit of the walled ground and open fire on the unarmed gathering, resulting in hundreds of deaths and injuries. This tragic event served as a major turning point in the Indian national movement, leading Mahatma Gandhi to initiate the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Explanation

Swami Dayanand Saraswati is known as the Martin Luther of India due to his profound role in reforming Hinduism. In 1875, he founded the Arya Samaj, which sought to purge Hindu society of dogmatic rituals, idol worship, and social evils like the rigid caste system and untouchability. Much like Martin Luther during the Protestant Reformation in Europe, Swami Dayanand Saraswati advocated for a return to the original, pure authority of the primary scriptures with his call Go back to the Vedas, emphasizing monotheism, rationalism, and social equality.

Explanation

The Upanishads, also known as Vedanta, constitute the concluding portion of the Vedic literature. They are foundational texts of Indian philosophy, shifting the focus from the ritualistic practices of the earlier Vedas to profound metaphysical inquiries. They explore the nature of ultimate reality (Brahman), the individual self (Atman), the origin of the universe, the concept of karma, and the path to spiritual liberation (moksha) through knowledge and self-realization.

Explanation

The main male deity worshipped by the Indus Valley people was a prototype of Lord Shiva, famously identified as Pashupati Mahadeva. This is evidenced by the discovery of the Pashupati seal at Mohenjo-daro, which depicts a three-faced male figure sitting in a yogic posture. He wears a horned headdress and is surrounded by wild animals, including an elephant, a tiger, a rhinoceros, and a buffalo, with two deer beneath his throne. This representation strongly correlates with the later Hindu deity Shiva, who is also worshipped as Pashupati, the Lord of Animals.

Explanation

The British Raj, or Crown rule in India, refers to the period of direct rule by the British Crown over the Indian subcontinent. This period commenced in 1858 with the passage of the Government of India Act 1858, which transferred the governance of India from the British East India Company to the British Crown in the aftermath of the Indian Rebellion of 1857. This direct administration by the British government continued for nearly nine decades, culminating in the partition and independence of India on 15 August 1947.

Explanation

The term for horse, asva, is mentioned 215 times in the Rig Veda, which is more than any other animal. By comparison, the term for cow, gau or go, is mentioned 176 times. Thus, the horse holds the distinction of being the most frequently mentioned animal in the Rig Veda.

Rig Vedic prayers and sacrifices were primarily utilitarian, aimed at securing material benefits rather than spiritual salvation. In their hymns, the Vedic people frequently petitioned the gods for praja (children, especially sons) and pasu (cattle/livestock), which served as key markers of wealth and sustenance in their pastoral-agrarian society.

Explanation

The First Battle of Tarain was fought in 1191 CE near Tarain in modern-day Haryana between the Ghurid ruler Muhammad Ghori and a coalition of Hindu Rajput princes of northern India led by the Chahamana ruler Prithviraj Chauhan. The northern Indian coalition successfully defeated the invading Ghurid forces, injuring Muhammad Ghori and forcing his army to retreat.

Explanation

Pandit Bhimsen Joshi, the legendary Hindustani classical vocalist of the Kirana gharana, established the annual Sawai Gandharva Music Festival in Pune in 1953. He started this festival to pay homage to his guru, Rambhau Kundgolkar, who was popularly known as Sawai Gandharva.

Gangubai Hangal was also an eminent exponent of the Kirana gharana and a fellow disciple of Sawai Gandharva. Having trained under the same guru and performed during the same golden era of Indian classical music, she was a close contemporary of Pandit Bhimsen Joshi.

Explanation

The Grandmaster title is the highest lifetime title or ranking a chess player can achieve. It is officially awarded by the International Chess Federation (FIDE), which is the international governing body for the sport of chess. Once conferred, the title remains valid for the recipient's entire life, though FIDE retains the authority to strip a player of the title in cases of proven serious offenses, such as cheating.

Explanation

Amir Khusrau was a legendary Sufi musician, poet, and scholar of the Delhi Sultanate. He is credited with introducing several new musical ragas, including ghor, sanam, aiman, and sazgari, which enriched the classical music tradition of the subcontinent. By blending elements of Persian/Iranian music with the Indian/Hindu classical system, he developed a new style of devotional light music known as qawwali. Additionally, Khusrau was a prolific writer who documented contemporary political history, and his last historical masnavi, Tughlaq Nama, recounts the rise of Ghiyath al-Din Tughlaq and his victory over Khusrau Khan to establish the Tughlaq dynasty.

Explanation

Mural paintings are large-scale artworks executed directly on a permanent wall, ceiling, or other solid structures. In India, a rich tradition of mural painting is found across both natural caves, such as the Armamalai Cave in Tamil Nadu, and man-made rock-cut chambers, such as the Ajanta, Ellora, and Bagh caves.

Explanation

Jaapi, Xorai, and Gamosa are three of the most significant cultural symbols of Assam. The Jaapi is a traditional conical hat crafted from bamboo, cane, and large tokou palm leaves, historically used by farmers for protection against rain and sun, and now used as a symbol of respect in ceremonies. The Xorai is an elegant bell-metal tray on a stand, often topped with a lid, used to offer betel nuts to guests, hold offerings in prayer rooms, or present gifts during auspicious occasions. The Gamosa is a uniquely woven rectangular white cloth with red borders and intricate motifs, representing Assamese identity, used to honor guests, perform prayers, and celebrate festivals like Bihu.

Explanation

Rakhigarhi is a major Indus Valley Civilization site located in the Hisar district of Haryana, India, and is recognized as one of the largest metropolitan centers of this ancient culture. Dholavira is another prominent Harappan city situated on the Khadir Bet island in the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, India, celebrated for its unique tripartite city design and highly advanced water conservation and harvesting system. Both of these significant archaeological sites are located within the geographic boundaries of modern India.

Explanation

Wanshuwa is a major socio-religious festival of the Tiwa (Lalung) tribe, predominantly celebrated by the Hill Tiwa community residing in villages like Amkha and Marjong in the Karbi Anglong district of Assam. This post-harvest agricultural festival is typically celebrated once every five or six years between June and August to express gratitude for a bountiful harvest and to pray for protection against natural calamities. During the festival, the tribesmen perform rituals involving the pounding of wet rice into powder using traditional wooden mortars, which is then used to prepare steamed rice cakes offered to their deities, Sodonga Raja and Maldewa Raja.

Explanation

The Mangarh massacre took place on 17 November 1913, which is six years prior to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre of 13 April 1919.

The event is widely referred to as the Adivasi Jallianwala due to the scale of the tragedy, which saw British forces and troops from local princely states open fire on a gathering of Bhil tribals led by social reformer Govind Guru, killing more than 1,500 people.

The hills of Mangarh are located on the border of Banswara district in Rajasthan and Panchmahal district in Gujarat.

Explanation

Sanjhi art is a traditional paper-stenciling craft that originated in Mathura, Uttar Pradesh, where it is traditionally used to create beautiful patterns depicting scenes from Lord Krishna's life.

Gond painting is a famous folk art practiced by the Gond tribal community, which is primarily concentrated in Madhya Pradesh. This art form is known for its intricate lines, dots, and vibrant colors depicting nature and myths.

Rogan painting is a unique, ancient textile art form that involves applying a thick paste made from boiled castor oil and natural pigments onto fabric. This rare craft is traditionally practiced in the Kutch district of Gujarat, not Rajasthan.

Explanation

The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy, and military strategy written in Sanskrit by Kautilya, who was the chief advisor and prime minister to the Mauryan emperor Chandragupta Maurya.

This text is widely recognized as the most important and comprehensive literary source for reconstructing the administrative, political, and socio-economic history of the Mauryan Empire.

The manuscript of the Arthashastra was discovered in 1905 by librarian Rudrapatna Shamasastry, who subsequently published it in 1909. James Prinsep, on the other hand, is renowned for deciphering the Brahmi and Kharosthi scripts of the Ashokan edicts in 1837.

Explanation

In Kathak dance recitals, jugalbandi is one of the main highlights. It features a lively, competitive, and interactive duet between the dancer and the percussionist, typically a tabla or pakhawaj player. During this performance, the dancer translates the intricate, fast-paced rhythmic beats produced by the instrument into matching footwork and spins, culminating in a synchronized, high-energy climax. This displays the high degree of rhythmic mastery and spontaneous synchronization between the musician and the performer.

Explanation

Kathi Samu is an ancient and historical martial art native to the state of Andhra Pradesh. The term Kathi means sword and Samu means combat or fight in the Telugu language. Historically, this martial art was mastered and practiced by the royal armies of the Telugu kingdoms for warfare and self-defense. The training for Kathi Samu is traditionally conducted in a specialized arena or training hall known as a garidi. The art involves complex sword-fighting techniques, swift footwork, and precise defensive maneuvers. A closely related variation of this martial art is Karra Samu, which utilizes bamboo sticks instead of swords.

Explanation

Hozagiri dance is a traditional folk dance performed in the state of Tripura by the Reang community, characterized by acrobatic movements where dancers balance props like earthen pitchers, bottles, and lamps. Bijhu dance is the popular folk dance of the Chakma community, performed during the Bizu festival to mark the end of the Bengali calendar year. Cheraw dance is a traditional bamboo dance of the Mizo community in Mizoram, where dancers step in and out of crossing bamboo staves held close to the ground.

Explanation

The Panchasiddhantika is a foundational treatise on mathematical astronomy written by Varahamihira in the 6th century CE. The title translates to the Five Astronomical Canons, as it compiles and summarizes five earlier astronomical treatises: the Surya Siddhanta, Romaka Siddhanta, Paulisa Siddhanta, Vasishtha Siddhanta, and Paitamaha Siddhanta. Varahamihira was a prominent scholar and astrologer in the court of the Gupta Empire, and this work remains a vital source for understanding ancient Indian astronomy and its interactions with contemporary Hellenistic and Roman astronomical traditions.

Explanation

Vijayanagara temple architecture is characterised by the construction of magnificent tall entrance gateways known as Raya Gopurams (statement 1, correct). Another distinct feature is the inclusion of a Kalyanamandapam, a highly decorated pillared hall used for celebrating the symbolic marriage of deities (statement 2, correct). However, statement 3 is incorrect: far from being devoid of sculptures, the pillars of Vijayanagara structures are renowned for their intricate and exquisite carvings, typically depicting rearing horses, mythical beasts like the Yali, and various deities. Since only statements 1 and 2 are correct, the answer is 1, 2.

Explanation

Warli painting derives its name from the Warli tribe, which primarily resides in the mountainous and coastal regions along the Maharashtra-Gujarat border, specifically in districts like Palghar, Thane, and Nashik in Maharashtra, as well as Valsad in Gujarat.

These paintings are traditionally made by women, particularly married women known as Suhasinis, on the mud walls of their houses during auspicious celebrations such as harvests and weddings.

Marriage is the most recurring and central theme of these paintings. The ritual paintings feature a sacred square known as chauk, which houses Palghat, the goddess of fertility and marriage. A wedding ceremony in the Warli community is considered incomplete without this sacred drawing.

Explanation

Yampuri is a traditional rod puppetry style from Bihar, featuring puppets made of wood without joints, typically depicting stories centered around Yama, the god of death.

Pavakoothu is a traditional glove puppet theatre from Kerala that originated around the 18th century, drawing heavy influence from Kathakali dance-drama to perform stories from the Ramayana.

Tholu bommalata is a famous shadow puppet theatre tradition from Andhra Pradesh, which utilizes large, intricately painted translucent leather puppets to enact episodes from the Hindu epics.

Explanation

In the seventh and eighth centuries in early medieval South India, particularly during the Pallava period, ghatikas were important educational institutions of higher learning. These institutions were generally attached to temples and served as centers for advanced study in subjects like the Vedas, grammar, logic, and other religious and philosophical texts. Supported by royal patronage, wealthy donors, and the local community, they played a significant role in fostering learning, with the ghatika at Kanchipuram being one of the most prominent and prestigious centers of education in the region.

Explanation

Dokra art is a non-ferrous metal casting technique that uses copper-based alloys, such as brass and bronze, rather than iron. The lost-wax casting process, known as cire perdue, has a continuous history of over 4,000 years in India and remains a living tradition practiced by tribal artisans in central and eastern states, including Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. The bronze figurine of the Dancing Girl from the Indus Valley Civilization site of Mohenjo-Daro, dating back to approximately 2500 BCE, stands as the earliest known specimen of this metal-casting technique.

Explanation

Mamangam, also known as Mamankam, was a major 28-day-long medieval festival celebrated once every twelve years on the banks of the Bharathapuzha River at Thirunavaya in present-day Kerala. It originally began as a temple festival and evolved into a grand socio-political and economic assembly presided over by the Zamorin of Calicut.

The festival served as a massive trade fair that attracted merchants from far-off regions, including Arabia, Greece, and China. Alongside mercantile activities, Mamangam was renowned for cultural celebrations, intellectual contests, and a historic display of martial arts, where suicide squads of warriors from the kingdom of Valluvanad would attempt to fight their way through the Zamorin's army to assassinate the ruler.

Explanation

Subhas Chandra Bose was the first person to address Mahatma Gandhi as the Father of the Nation. He did so during a historic radio broadcast from Singapore on July 6, 1944, on the Azad Hind Radio. In this address, Bose sought Gandhi's blessings and good wishes for the armed struggle of the Indian National Army against British colonial rule, referring to him as the Father of our Nation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Bhavnath Mahadev Mela is held annually during Maha Shivratri at the Bhavnath Mahadev Temple located at the foothills of Mount Girnar in Junagadh, Gujarat.

Statement 2 is correct because the Chitra-Vichitra Fair is a major tribal festival held at Gunbhakhari village (also known as Gubhakhari) in the Sabarkantha district of Gujarat near the Rajasthan border. It is celebrated a fortnight after the festival of Holi.

Statement 3 is correct because the Vautha Fair is an annual cultural and livestock fair held at Vautha village, located at the confluence of the Sabarmati and Vatrak rivers. This site is known as Saptasangam as five other tributaries also join these rivers nearby. The fair takes place on Kartika Purnima, which is the full moon night of the Hindu month of Kartik.

Explanation

The book Anchalo is a collection of short stories written by the Gujarati author Mohan Parmar, which won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Gujarati in 2011. It was not authored by Manubhai Pancholi.

Explanation

Ramdhari Singh Dinkar wrote Rashmirathi, which is a highly acclaimed epic poem centered on the life and struggles of Karna from the Mahabharata.

Maithili Sharan Gupt authored Bharat-Bharati, a landmark patriotic work in Hindi literature that played a significant role in inspiring the masses during the Indian independence movement.

Suryakant Tripathi Nirala composed Ram Ki Shakti Puja, a profound and celebrated Hindi poem depicting Lord Rama's intense devotion and worship of Goddess Durga.

Mahadevi Verma penned Neelkanth, an elegant prose sketch capturing her personal experience of raising a beautiful peacock.

Explanation

The English Teacher is a renowned novel written by R. K. Narayan, published in 1945. It is a deeply semi-autobiographical work dedicated to his wife Rajam and forms the final part of his famous trilogy, which also includes Swami and Friends and The Bachelor of Arts. Mulk Raj Anand, while also a pioneer of Anglo-Indian fiction, is instead famous for novels such as Untouchable and Coolie, and did not write The English Teacher.

Explanation

Panihari is a popular folk music form from Rajasthan, usually sung by women while fetching water from distant wells, portraying themes of daily chores, love, and water scarcity. Wanawan refers to the traditional wedding songs sung by women in Jammu and Kashmir to celebrate matrimonial ceremonies and festive occasions. Powada is a traditional ballad genre from Maharashtra that narrates historical events and extols the bravery and heroic deeds of legendary figures, particularly Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. Pai song is a prominent folk music style of Madhya Pradesh, widely sung during the monsoon season in the Bundelkhand region to celebrate agricultural prosperity and festivals.

Explanation

Dhrupad is the oldest surviving style of Hindustani classical vocal music, tracing its roots back to the ancient chanting of the Sama Veda. Historically and traditionally, this rigorous art form has been performed by male singers in royal courts, traditionally accompanied by instruments like the pakhawaj and the veena.

Tappa is a form of semi-classical Hindustani vocal music that originated from the folk songs of camel riders in the Punjab region, rather than being adopted from medieval Persian music. It was later developed and refined into a classical style by the late eighteenth-century composer Shori Mian, characterized by rapid, complex, and decorative tan patterns.

Explanation

Begum Parveen Sultana is a prominent Hindustani classical singer born in Nagaon, Assam, making her an Assamese classical vocalist (Statement 1 correct). She belongs to the Patiala Gharana of Hindustani classical music, having trained under her father Ikramul Majid, grandfather Mohammed Najeef Khan, and later under Pandit Chinmoy Lahiri and Ustad Dilshad Khan of the Patiala Gharana (Statement 2 correct). However, she is not called the 'Queen of Thumri' — that title is popularly associated with Girija Devi, not Begum Parveen Sultana (Statement 3 incorrect). Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The Gujarat Library Association was founded in 1939 to promote library services and development in the state. Within the public library system of Gujarat, there are two recognized Cultural Libraries. The first is the Gujarat Vidyapith library in Ahmedabad, which is recognized as a State Library and operates as an autonomous, non-governmental institution. The second cultural library is the Baroda Central Library, situated in Baroda, which is renowned for its rich heritage and was originally developed under the patronage of Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III. This makes all three statements correct.

Explanation

Dadasaheb Phalke, widely recognized as the Father of Indian Cinema, directed and produced Raja Harishchandra, which was released in 1913 as the first fully indigenous silent feature film in India. He handled the casting, scripting, direction, filming, and editing himself, establishing the foundations of the Indian film industry.

Explanation

The Gujarati action-drama film Pahelo Divas, released in 2018 and directed by Mahesh Babu, stars Aashika Ranganath and Dilip Prakash in the lead roles. Actress Alisha Prajapati is not part of the cast of this movie, making this an incorrect pair.

Explanation

Rameshwaram Temple is situated on Rameswaram island in Tamil Nadu and is dedicated to Lord Shiva as one of the twelve sacred Jyotirlinga shrines.

The Jagannath Puri Temple is a famous Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Jagannath, a form of Lord Sri Krishna, located in the coastal city of Puri in Odisha.

The Tirumala Venkateswara Temple is a highly revered shrine dedicated to Lord Venkateswara, situated in the hill town of Tirumala near Tirupati in Andhra Pradesh.

Badrinath Temple is a prominent temple dedicated to Lord Vishnu, located in the town of Badrinath in Uttarakhand along the Alaknanda River.

Explanation

Kalbelia is a traditional folk dance and song form of the Kalbelia community of Rajasthan. The dance is performed by women who wear flowing black skirts and replicate the movements of a serpent, while the men play various traditional instruments. Among these, the been, a traditional woodwind instrument used by snake charmers, is the most prominent musical instrument played during the performance. In 2010, UNESCO recognized the cultural value of this art form by inscribing Kalbelia folk songs and dances on the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity.

Explanation

Nagdhara no Melo is associated with the famous Shamlaji Fair, which is celebrated at Shamlaji in the Aravalli district (formerly part of Sabarkantha district). The fair is characterized by the tradition of taking a holy bath in the sacred Nagdhara Kund located near the Shamlaji temple on the banks of the Meshwo River. Therefore, pairing Nagdhara no Melo with Junagadh District is incorrect.

Explanation

Sattriya is a major Indian classical dance form that originated in the state of Assam. It was introduced in the 15th century CE by the great Vaishnavite saint and reformer Srimanta Sankardev. Originally performed by male monks, known as Bhokots, in the Sattras (monasteries) of Assam as a part of their religious rituals and for the propagation of the Neo-Vaishnavite movement, the dance form was officially recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in the year 2000.

Explanation

Gopuras are monumental, elaborately decorated entrance gateways that are a defining characteristic of South Indian or Dravidian temple architecture. Unlike North Indian temples of the Nagara style, which generally lack massive boundary walls and gateway structures, South Indian temple complexes feature these towering, ornate gateways at their entrances to mark the transition into the sacred precinct.

Explanation

The Kheer Bhawani Temple is a highly revered Hindu shrine located in Tulmulla village of the Ganderbal district in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir. Dedicated to the goddess Ragnya Devi, the temple is constructed over a sacred natural spring whose water is believed to change colors, which local devotees view as an indicator of future events. It serves as a major spiritual center for the Kashmiri Pandit community, who congregate there in large numbers annually during the auspicious festival of Jyeshtha Ashtami, traditionally celebrated as Mela Kheer Bhawani.

Explanation

The Kalachakra ceremony is an important sacred ritual and initiation in Vajrayana Buddhism, primarily associated with Tibetan Buddhism. The term Kalachakra translates to the Wheel of Time, representing the cycle of existence, time, and cosmos. The ceremony is traditionally conferred by high-ranking Buddhist lamas, most notably His Holiness the Dalai Lama, to promote world peace, compassion, and spiritual transformation among practitioners.

Explanation

Historic Chandragiri Fort is located in the Tirupati district of Andhra Pradesh. Originally built in the 11th century by the Yadava Naidus, the fort is closely associated with the Vijayanagara Empire. After the fall of Penukonda under attacks from the Golconda sultans, Chandragiri served as the fourth and final capital of the Vijayanagara Empire. The fort complex is renowned for its Indo-Saracenic architecture, featuring key historic structures such as the Raja Mahal and the Rani Mahal.

Explanation

The Kala Ghoda Arts Festival is India's largest multicultural street festival, held annually in the historic Kala Ghoda art district of South Mumbai. Established in 1999 by the Kala Ghoda Association, this nine-day festival begins on the first Saturday of February and features a diverse range of events encompassing visual arts, dance, music, theatre, cinema, literature, heritage walks, and street acts.

Explanation

Kharchi Puja is a traditional Hindu festival celebrated annually in the state of Tripura, not Mizoram. It is held in July or August in Agartala and involves the ritual worship of fourteen deities who are the royal family patrons of Tripura. The festival attracts thousands of devotees and symbolizes the purification of the earth and the people. Therefore, the pairing of Kharchi Puja with Mizoram is incorrect.

Explanation

The traditional folk dance Rauf, also spelled Rouf, originates from Jammu | Kashmir. It is primarily performed by women of the Kashmiri community to celebrate the arrival of the spring season and to mark festive occasions such as Eid-ul-Fitr and Ramzan. During the performance, women form two facing rows, holding each other by the shoulders, and sway forward and backward in synchronization to the rhythm of traditional folk songs.

Explanation

The patriotic song Sare Jahan Se Achha, formally known as Tarana-e-Hindi, was written by the poet Mohammad Iqbal in 1904. It was first published in the weekly journal Ittehad on 16 August 1904 and was publicly recited by him the following year at Government College, Lahore. The poem celebrates the land of Hindustan and became an influential anthem of patriotic sentiment during the Indian independence movement.

Explanation

Suchitra Sen was a legendary actress of Bengali and Hindi cinema, widely referred to as Bengal's Greta Garbo. She earned this moniker due to her immense talent, commanding screen presence, and her decision to withdraw completely from public life and live in strict seclusion after her retirement from films in 1978, mirroring the reclusive lifestyle of the famous Hollywood star Greta Garbo.

Explanation

In 2007, a collection of 30 manuscripts of the Rig Veda, dating from 1800 to 1500 BCE, was inscribed into UNESCO's Memory of the World Register. Preserved at the Bhandarkar Oriental Research Institute in Pune, Maharashtra, these manuscripts represent some of the oldest Vedic Sanskrit texts and are critical to understanding the ancient cultural, intellectual, and religious foundations of India and humanity. The nomination was submitted by the National Mission for Manuscripts to recognize the outstanding universal value of these documents, which showcase unique calligraphic features, distinct scripts, and ancient phonetic accentuation systems.

Explanation

Tamil is recognized as an official language in both Sri Lanka and Singapore. In Sri Lanka, Tamil holds official status alongside Sinhala under the nation's constitution. In Singapore, it is designated as one of the four official languages alongside English, Malay, and Mandarin, representing the country's multicultural population and historically significant Tamil-speaking community.

Explanation

Fresco is a traditional mural painting technique where water-based pigments are applied directly onto freshly laid, wet lime plaster. The word fresco is derived from the Italian adjective meaning fresh. As the plaster dries, a chemical reaction occurs in which the calcium hydroxide in the wet plaster reacts with carbon dioxide in the air to form calcium carbonate. This process molecularly binds the pigments into the structural matrix of the wall itself, making the artwork highly durable and an integral part of the surface.

Explanation

Amer Fort is located in Jaipur, Rajasthan, rather than Assam. It is a famous sixteenth-century fort constructed by Raja Man Singh I, renowned for its artistic Hindu style elements, overlooking Maota Lake, and designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the Hill Forts of Rajasthan.

Explanation

The Chalukyas of Badami ruled parts of the Deccan region between the sixth and eighth centuries. They pioneered the development of the Vesara style of architecture, which is a hybrid model merging elements of the northern Nagara style and the southern Dravida style.

Their outstanding structural temple achievements are concentrated in historic Karnataka sites such as Aihole, Badami, and Pattadakal. These locations feature iconic structures like the Durga Temple at Aihole and the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal.

Administratively, the Chalukya government was highly centralized under a strong monarch. Unlike some of their contemporaries who promoted village autonomy, the Chalukyas kept administration closely managed from the center, leaving little to no room for village self-governance.

Explanation

Giddha, Ghoomar, and Garba are traditional folk dances of India, satisfying the first statement. Giddha is a vibrant folk dance performed exclusively by women in Punjab. Ghoomar is a traditional dance performed by women in Rajasthan on special occasions. Garba is a ritualistic folk dance from Gujarat, traditionally performed by women around a centrally lit lamp or an image of the Goddess Durga during the Navratri festival. Since all three are folk dances performed by women, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. Only Ghoomar belongs to Rajasthan, while Giddha belongs to Punjab and Garba belongs to Gujarat, making statement 3 incorrect.

Explanation

Article 12 of the Constitution of India defines the term State for the purpose of Part III, which deals with Fundamental Rights. It explicitly includes the Government and Parliament of India, comprising the executive and legislative organs of the Union. It also covers all local authorities within the territory of India, which includes municipalities, panchayats, and district boards. Furthermore, the Supreme Court of India has ruled in various landmark judgments that even a private body or agency working as an instrumentality of the State falls under the definition of State. Under the instrumentality or agency test, if a private entity is financially, functionally, and administratively dominated by or under the control of the government, it is considered an instrument of the State, making all three statements correct.

Explanation

Under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, any bill proposing to alter the boundaries of a state can be introduced in either House of Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President. Before recommending the bill, the President must refer it to the concerned state legislature to express its views within a specified period of time. The Parliament is not bound by the views of the state legislature and can proceed with the bill regardless of whether the state legislature agrees or disagrees, meaning the President is not bound by the views of the state legislature.

Explanation

Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees both equality before the law and the equal protection of the laws.

The concept of equality before law, which is of British origin, is a negative concept. It denotes the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual, and the equal subjection of all individuals to the ordinary law of the land administered by the ordinary law courts. This implies that the law is for everyone, whoever they might be, without any distinction of birth, wealth, or status.

The concept of equal protection of the laws, which is of American origin, is a positive concept. It denotes the right to equal treatment in similar circumstances, both in terms of the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws. This implies that like should be treated alike, meaning a law will apply equally to equally situated people.

Explanation

Under Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India, which is located in Part III, protection against double jeopardy is guaranteed as a Fundamental Right. It specifies that no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once. This protection safeguards individuals from the burden of multiple trials and punishments for a single criminal act.

Explanation

Under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has significantly expanded the scope of the freedom of speech and expression through liberal interpretations. The right to know about government activities is recognized as an integral part of this freedom, as citizens cannot meaningfully exercise their speech and expression without access to information. The freedom of silence, which includes the right not to speak, was recognized as a fundamental right under Article 19(1)(a) by the Supreme Court in the landmark Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala case. The right against the imposition of pre-censorship on newspapers was established early on in cases such as Brij Bhushan v. State of Delhi, ensuring the freedom of the press. Conversely, the right to strike is not a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution, as confirmed by the Supreme Court in the T.K. Rangarajan case, where it was held that there is no fundamental or statutory right to strike. Thus, only 1, 2, and 4 are part of the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.

Explanation

Article 22 of the Constitution of India provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases.

Article 22(1) guarantees that any person arrested must be informed, as soon as possible, of the grounds for such arrest. The same clause also establishes the right of the arrested individual to consult and be defended by a legal practitioner of their choice.

Article 22(2) mandates that every person arrested and detained in custody must be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of twenty-four hours of such arrest, excluding the time necessary for the journey. It further secures the right that no such person shall be detained in custody beyond this twenty-four-hour period without the explicit authority of a magistrate.

Explanation

Article 42 of the Constitution of India, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy, directs the State to make provisions for securing just and humane conditions of work and for maternity relief.

Article 43A of the Constitution, inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, directs the State to take steps, by suitable legislation or in any other way, to secure the participation of workers in the management of undertakings, establishments, or other organisations engaged in any industry.

Explanation

Article 37 of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Directive Principles of State Policy are non-justiciable. This means they are not legally enforceable by any court of law. If the state fails to implement these principles, or even violates them in its policies, a citizen does not have the right to approach the judiciary to compel the government to enforce them. While these principles are fundamental to the governance of the country and the state is expected to apply them in making laws, their non-justiciable nature ensures that the courts cannot issue writs or legal directives for their execution.

Explanation

The Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties of Citizens (1999) identified several legal provisions existing for the implementation of Fundamental Duties.

The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955, provides for punishments for offences related to caste and religion, which aids in promoting harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood under Article 51A(e).

The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967, provides for the declaration of communal organisations as unlawful associations, protecting the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India under Article 51A(c).

The Representation of the People Act, 1951, disqualifies members of Parliament or state legislatures for corrupt practices like promoting enmity on grounds of religion, race, caste, community, or language, supporting the duty to promote harmony under Article 51A(e).

The Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, prohibits trade in rare and endangered species and protects wild animals, birds, and plants, directly implementing the fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment under Article 51A(g).

Explanation

An amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament, meaning it can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member of Parliament, and it does not require the prior permission of the President.

Each House must pass the bill separately by a special majority. In case of a disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses to deliberate and pass the bill.

Explanation

The electoral college for the election of the President of India consists of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States, including the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry. In contrast, the electoral college for the election of the Vice-President consists of members of both Houses of Parliament, both elected and nominated, and does not include the members of State Legislative Assemblies.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, not the Rajya Sabha alone. Statement 2 is correct because State Legislative Assemblies participate in the presidential election but have no role in the election of the Vice-President.

Explanation

The term amicus curiae literally translates to friend of the court. An amicus curiae is a neutral legal professional or expert appointed by a court to assist it in a case, particularly when the matter involves complex questions of law, public interest, or highly specialized expertise. This individual is not a party to the lawsuit and has no personal interest in the outcome. Instead, they provide unbiased assistance, legal analysis, or factual information to help the court make a well-informed and just decision.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of the committees appointed to study and recommend reforms for the Panchayati Raj system in India is determined by their respective years of formation.

The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was constituted in January 1957 to examine the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service.

The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed in December 1977 by the Janata Party government to suggest measures to strengthen the Panchayati Raj Institutions.

The G V K Rao Committee was appointed by the Planning Commission in 1985 to review the administrative arrangements for rural development and poverty alleviation programmes.

The L M Singhvi Committee was set up in 1986 by the Rajiv Gandhi government to prepare a concept paper on revitalising Panchayati Raj Institutions for democracy and development.

The chronological order from the earliest is Balwant Rai Mehta Committee (1957), Ashok Mehta Committee (1977), G V K Rao Committee (1985), and L M Singhvi Committee (1986).

Explanation

The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added Part IX to the Constitution of India, titled The Panchayats, thereby granting constitutional status to Panchayati raj institutions. This act gives a practical shape to Article 40 of the Constitution, which is a Directive Principle of State Policy directing the State to organize village panchayats and endow them with necessary powers of self-government. By constitutionalizing these provisions, the act makes the establishment of panchayats and the conduct of regular elections a mandatory obligation for state governments. This brings the Panchayati raj institutions under the justiciable part of the Constitution, making the provisions legally binding and enforceable through the courts of law.

Explanation

The Central Bureau of Investigation falls under Entry 8 of the Union List (List I) in the Seventh Schedule, which covers the Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation.

Posts and Telegraphs is covered under Entry 31 of the Union List (List I), which encompasses posts and telegraphs, telephones, wireless, broadcasting, and other similar forms of communication.

Lotteries organised by the Government of a State are covered under Entry 40 of the Union List (List I), which governs lotteries organised by the Government of India or the Government of a State.

Pilgrimages to places inside India are part of the State List (List II) under Entry 7, which covers pilgrimages other than pilgrimages to places outside India. Only pilgrimages to places outside India fall under the Union List (List I, Entry 20).

Explanation

The Constitution of India incorporates several provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and impartial functioning of key constitutional bodies such as the Supreme Court, High Courts, Comptroller and Auditor General of India, Union Public Service Commission, and Election Commission of India.

Security of tenure ensures that the heads and members of these bodies cannot be removed arbitrarily by the executive before their term expires, except through specific constitutional procedures.

Fixed service conditions prevent the government from altering their salaries, allowances, and other privileges to their disadvantage after appointment, protecting them from executive pressure.

Charging their administrative expenses, salaries, and pensions on the Consolidated Fund of India makes these funds non-votable by Parliament, securing their financial independence and preventing executive interference through budgetary cuts.

Explanation

The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, to protect and promote the interests of women. Under this Act, the Commission is mandated to review the Constitutional and legal safeguards provided for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate the redressal of grievances, and advise the Government on all policy matters affecting women. While investigating matters or complaints, the Commission has the powers of a Civil Court trying a suit, such as summoning witnesses and requiring the production of documents, rather than the powers of a High Court. Additionally, the Commission is a recommendatory and advisory body and does not possess judicial powers to impose or order punishments directly.

Explanation

Access to justice for the weaker sections of society is a constitutional mandate under the Indian legal system. Article 39A of the Constitution directs the State to ensure equal justice and free legal aid, ensuring that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to economic or other disabilities. Additionally, the Supreme Court of India has held that access to justice is a fundamental right implicit under Article 14 and Article 21.

The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was enacted to give statutory backing to Lok Adalats (People's Courts) as an Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism. They function outside the formal adjudicatory court system to settle disputes through compromise and conciliation, helping to mitigate the burden of a high volume of pending cases in traditional courts.

Equal justice and free legal aid is a Directive Principle of State Policy (DPSP) enshrined in Article 39A of the Constitution, which was inserted by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976. This establishes the responsibility of the State to provide free legal services to the weaker and marginalized sections of society.

Explanation

Under Article 243K of the Constitution of India, the State Election Commissioner is appointed by the Governor of the state, who also determines the conditions of service and tenure of office.

To ensure the independence of the office, Article 243K(2) provides that the State Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except in the like manner and on the like grounds as a Judge of a High Court.

The State Election Commissions are independent constitutional bodies. They are not mandated by the Constitution to adopt the electoral rolls prepared by the Election Commission of India for assembly polls. Although several states choose to use the assembly rolls for convenience and cost-efficiency, some states prepare their own independent electoral rolls for local body elections.

Explanation

Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees the freedom of conscience and the free profession, practice, and propagation of religion, explicitly subjecting this right to public order, morality, and health.

Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, Entry 1 of the State List (List II) is public order, which vests the legislative power over public order with the State Legislatures.

Public order is also established as a constitutional ground to impose reasonable restrictions on several fundamental rights, such as the freedom of speech and expression, the right to assemble peaceably, the right to form associations or unions, and the freedom of religion.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Article 123 empowers the President (Union) to promulgate ordinances when either House of Parliament is not in session, and such ordinances have the force of an Act of Parliament. Statement 2 is incorrect: in D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar (1987), the Supreme Court held that repeated re-promulgation of ordinances without placing them before the legislature is a fraud on the Constitution and is not permissible; an ordinance cannot be re-promulgated any number of times as a matter of right. Statement 3 is incorrect: under Article 213, the Governor can ordinarily promulgate ordinances on the aid and advice of the State Council of Ministers without needing the President's prior approval; only in specific situations (e.g., where a similar Bill would have required the President's assent, or where the Governor acts on instructions from the President for certain matters) is the President's involvement required, and this is not a general rule. Hence, only statement 1 is correct, making option A the answer.

Explanation

Under Article 324 of the Constitution of India, the Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority vested with the power of superintendence, direction, and control of elections. It is responsible for conducting elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and Councils, and the offices of the President and Vice-President of India.

The Election Commission of India itself determines and announces the election schedule, including the dates and phases for both general elections and by-elections, rather than the Union Cabinet.

Under Paragraph 15 of the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission of India is the authorized body to resolve disputes arising from splits or mergers of recognized political parties, a power that has been upheld by the Supreme Court of India.

Explanation

The term Gram Sabha is defined in Article 243(b) of the Constitution of India as a body consisting of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village level.

The Gram Sabha is a permanent body because it is not subject to dissolution. While individual Panchayats are elected for a five-year term and can be dissolved, the Gram Sabha continues to exist permanently as the foundational, self-governing assembly of the village.

The power to annul a decision of the Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha itself, rather than with the State Government. While the state legislature may provide for functions and powers of the Gram Sabha by law, the state administration does not possess the authority to unilaterally annul its decisions.

Explanation

Article 13(2) of the Constitution of India explicitly mandates that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights conferred by Part III, and any law made in contravention of this clause shall be void to the extent of the contravention. Since Parliament is part of the legislative organ of the State, it cannot enact any law violating these rights.

Article 20(3) of the Constitution provides a fundamental right guaranteeing that no person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself, which constitutes the right against self-incrimination.

In the K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India judgment, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of the Aadhaar Act, ruling that the State can collect biometric data such as fingerprints and iris scans for the targeted delivery of public subsidies, benefits, and welfare schemes under Section 7 of the Aadhaar Act, as it meets the test of proportionality and serves a legitimate state interest.

Explanation

Under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney-General for India is appointed by the President of India and acts as the chief legal advisor to the Union Government. As the highest law officer in the country, the Attorney-General performs duties such as giving advice to the Government of India upon legal matters, performing other duties of a legal character assigned by the President, and representing the government in the Supreme Court and high courts. This makes the Attorney-General the first Law Officer of the Government of India.

Explanation

The liberty of belief, faith, and worship is a core value enshrined in the Preamble of the Constitution of India. This forms the foundation of Articles 25 and 26, which guarantee the freedom of conscience, the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion, and the freedom to manage religious affairs.

Article 142 of the Constitution grants the Supreme Court the unique power to pass any decree or order necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it. This power is exercised in the public interest, provided that the orders remain within the constitutional framework and uphold the Constitution of India.

Since both statements are correct, neither of them is incorrect.

Explanation

Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India safeguards the tenure of the Election Commission of India. The Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed from office except in a manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, which involves a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament with a special majority on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. The other Election Commissioners can also be removed before the expiry of their term of six years or the age of 65 years, but only upon the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner to the President of India.

The Constitution has not debarred the retiring Election Commissioners from further appointments by the government after their tenure.

Explanation

Under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, the Scheduled Areas are defined as such areas as the President may by order declare to be Scheduled Areas. Although these criteria are not explicitly spelt out in the Constitution itself, they have become well-established based on the Dhebar Commission Report of 1960-61.

The established criteria for declaring any area as a Scheduled Area include: Preponderance of tribal population Compactness and reasonable size of the area A viable administrative entity such as a district, block, or taluk Economic backwardness of the area as compared to neighbouring areas

Thus, all three statements—preponderance of tribal population, compactness and reasonable size of the area, and economic backwardness of the area as compared to neighbouring areas—constitute the criteria used for the declaration of Scheduled Areas in India.

Explanation

Part IX of the Constitution of India contains provisions related to Panchayats. Article 243A provides for the Gram Sabha, which forms the foundation of the Panchayati Raj system. Article 243B mandates the constitution of Panchayats at the village, intermediate, and district levels across the states. Article 243C lays down guidelines for the composition of these Panchayats, ensuring uniform representation. Article 243E governs the duration of Panchayats, establishing a standard term of five years from the date of their first meeting unless dissolved earlier.

Explanation

Pluralist theory of the state posits that political power is distributed among a wide and diverse range of interest groups rather than being concentrated in the hands of a single elite or class. In this framework, the government acts as a neutral arbiter or referee that mediates the competing demands of these various associations, such as trade unions, business groups, and civic organizations. The state remains open to pressure from all sides and does not maintain any systematic bias for or against any particular group, leading to public policies that represent a compromise among the competing interests in society.

Explanation

The National Heritage City Development and Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) was launched on 21 January 2015 by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (then Ministry of Urban Development) to preserve and revitalize the soul and unique character of heritage cities in India. The scheme focused on the development of core heritage infrastructure. It was implemented in 12 selected heritage cities across the country: Ajmer, Amaravati, Amritsar, Badami, Dwarka, Gaya, Kanchipuram, Mathura, Puri, Varanasi, Velankanni, and Warangal. The mission was officially completed on 31 March 2019.

Explanation

The National Environmental Policy Act of 1969 mandates that all federal agencies in the United States prepare a detailed Environmental Impact Statement prior to undertaking any major federal action significantly affecting the quality of the human environment. This document serves as an analytical tool to ensure that agencies integrate environmental values and potential ecological consequences into their decision-making processes, alongside technical and economic considerations.

Explanation

Public Administration is fundamentally defined as the art and science of management as applied to the affairs of the State, with its core focus being the execution and implementation of government policies. Scholars like Woodrow Wilson, often regarded as the father of Public Administration, emphasized that administration is the detailed and systematic execution of public law. The discipline focuses on how government decisions and policies are translated into action to achieve societal goals, making public policy implementation its primary area of study.

Explanation

Woodrow Wilson, in his seminal 1887 essay titled The Study of Administration published in the Political Science Quarterly, first propounded the politics-administration dichotomy. He argued that politics and public administration are distinct spheres, where politics is concerned with policy-making and setting tasks for the state, while administration is concerned with the detailed and systematic execution of those public laws and policies. This essay laid the foundational basis for public administration as an independent academic discipline separate from political science.

Explanation

Satyendranath Tagore became the first Indian to clear the Indian Civil Service examination in 1863. Following the Charter Act of 1853, which introduced an open competitive system for recruitment into the civil services, he traveled to England to appear for the examination. After successfully completing his probationary training, he was appointed to the service in 1864 and was posted to the Bombay Presidency, where he served in various administrative and judicial roles over his career.

Explanation

The internal environment of an organization consists of the internal conditions, forces, and stakeholders that exist within its boundaries and directly influence its strategic decisions, daily operations, and performance.

The owners hold legal property rights to the business and provide the capital. The board of directors is a governing body elected by stockholders to oversee the management and represent the interests of the owners. The employees constitute the actual workforce responsible for carrying out tasks and operations. The organizational culture comprises the shared values, beliefs, expectations, and norms of behavior that shape the social and psychological climate of the workplace. Since all of these elements operate inside the organization and are directly manageable by the leadership, they collectively make up the internal environment.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is a constitutional authority established directly under Article 148 of the Constitution of India, rather than being created through an Act of Parliament. The Constitution guarantees the CAG absolute independence to act as the guardian of the public purse, with specific provisions governing its appointment, oath, conditions of service, and removal detailed under Articles 148 to 151.

Explanation

The United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) is a specialized agency of the United Nations dedicated to advocating for the protection of children's rights, helping meet their basic needs, and expanding their opportunities to reach their full potential. Established in 1946 as the United Nations International Children's Emergency Fund to provide emergency food and healthcare to children affected by World War II, its mandate has expanded globally to focus on child survival, development, nutrition, immunization, safe water, basic education, and protection from violence and exploitation.

Explanation

Article 24 of the Constitution of India provides for the prohibition of employment of children in factories, mines, and other hazardous occupations. It states that no child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment. This constitutional mandate serves as a fundamental safeguard under the Right against Exploitation to protect the physical well-being, growth, and educational opportunities of children.

Explanation

The National Commission for Women is a statutory body established to protect and promote the interests of women. While it is vested with the powers of a civil court to investigate matters, summon witnesses, and receive evidence on affidavit, it does not possess judicial or penal authority. It cannot prosecute, sentence, or punish any guilty individual. Its role is strictly advisory and recommendatory, allowing it to report findings and suggest remedial actions to the government or law enforcement agencies rather than enforcing punishments directly.

Explanation

The fundamental guiding principle of India's foreign policy is the preservation and promotion of its national interest, which includes safeguarding national security, territorial integrity, and fostering economic development.

The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) was established with the signing of the SAARC Charter in Dhaka on December 8, 1985. Article I of the SAARC Charter explicitly lists its core objectives, which include promoting the welfare of the peoples of South Asia, improving their quality of life, accelerating economic growth, social progress, and cultural development, and ensuring that all individuals can live in dignity and realize their full potential.

Explanation

Article 127 of the Constitution of India provides that if at any time there is a lack of quorum of the Judges of the Supreme Court to hold or continue any session of the Court, the Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President and after consultation with the Chief Chief Justice of the High Court concerned, may request a High Court Judge who is duly qualified for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court to attend the sittings of the Court as an ad hoc Judge for a temporary period.

Additionally, Article 128 of the Constitution enables the Chief Justice of India, with the previous consent of the President, to request a retired Judge of the Supreme Court or the Federal Court, or a retired Judge of a High Court who is duly qualified, to sit and act as a Judge of the Supreme Court for a temporary period. Therefore, retired Supreme Court Judges can indeed act as Judges of the Supreme Court temporarily, making the first statement incorrect and the second statement correct.

Explanation

Article 130 of the Constitution of India specifies that the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint. This makes statement 2 correct and statement 1 incorrect.

Article 140 of the Constitution of India provides that the Parliament may by law make provision for conferring upon the Supreme Court such supplemental powers not inconsistent with any of the provisions of the Constitution as may appear to be necessary or desirable for the purpose of enabling the Court more effectively to exercise the jurisdiction conferred upon it by or under the Constitution. This makes statement 3 correct.

Explanation

Under Article 131 of the Constitution of India, the Supreme Court has exclusive original jurisdiction in disputes of a federal nature. This jurisdiction strictly covers disputes between the Government of India and one or more States, between the Union and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the other side, or between two or more States. A dispute between individual residents of different States, or between a private citizen and a State or the Union Government, does not fall under this federal dispute mechanism and is excluded from the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

Explanation

In Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980), the Supreme Court ruled that the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368 is limited by the Constitution itself, and this limited power is a basic feature of the Constitution.

In Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum (1985), the Supreme Court held that Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, which deals with maintenance, is a secular provision applicable to all women irrespective of religion, thereby extending it to provide maintenance to a divorced Muslim woman.

In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India (2015), the Supreme Court struck down Section 66A of the Information Technology Act, 2000, declaring it unconstitutional as it violated the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India.

Explanation

The Speaker of the Lok Sabha functions in a quasi-judicial capacity when deciding questions of disqualification of members under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution regarding anti-defection, as well as when determining matters related to breach of parliamentary privilege. Within the precincts of the House, the Speaker is the ultimate interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and parliamentary precedents. Furthermore, the Speaker represents the collective voice of the House and acts as its sole representative in the international arena, leading parliamentary delegations to various global forums and conferences.

Explanation

The union territory was officially renamed Lakshadweep by the Laccadive, Minicoy and Amindivi Islands (Alteration of Name) Act, 1973, which was passed by the Parliament of India and came into effect on November 1, 1973.

Explanation

The statement to do right to all manner of people in accordance with the Constitution and the law, without fear or favour, affection or ill-will is not included in the oath of office for the President of India. Article 60 of the Constitution of India specifically details the Presidential oath, which comprises executing the office faithfully, preserving, protecting, and defending the Constitution and the law, and devoting oneself to the service and well-being of the people of India. The excluded statement is part of the oath of office prescribed in the Third Schedule of the Constitution for other high dignitaries, including Union Ministers, Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts, and the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India.

Explanation

The 17th Lok Sabha was constituted on 24 May 2019 following the conclusion of the 2019 Indian general elections. It served its full five-year term until its dissolution in June 2024, making it the active Lok Sabha during the period leading up to the 2024 general elections.

Explanation

Article 84(b) of the Constitution of India prescribes that the minimum age for a citizen to qualify for election to the Lok Sabha, the lower house of Parliament, is 25 years. This constitutional provision ensures that candidates have reached a certain level of maturity before contesting elections to represent their constituencies in the legislature.

Explanation

The series consists of groups of three letters where each letter position is incremented by 4 in the alphabetical sequence to obtain the corresponding letter of the next group.

For the first letter of each group, the sequence is: A (1) + 4 = E (5) E (5) + 4 = I (9) I (9) + 4 = M (13) M (13) + 4 = Q (17) Q (17) + 4 = U (21)

For the second letter of each group, the sequence is: B (2) + 4 = F (6) F (6) + 4 = J (10) J (10) + 4 = N (14) N (14) + 4 = R (18) R (18) + 4 = V (22)

For the third letter of each group, the sequence is: D (4) + 4 = H (8) H (8) + 4 = L (12) L (12) + 4 = P (16) P (16) + 4 = T (20) T (20) + 4 = X (24)

Combining the letters U, V, and X yields the next element, UVX.

Explanation

The pattern in the series is obtained by multiplying each term by consecutive integers starting from 2, and then subtracting consecutive integers starting from 3:

First term = 23 Second term = 23 × 2 - 3 = 43 Third term = 43 × 3 - 4 = 125 Fourth term = 125 × 4 - 5 = 495 Fifth term = 495 × 5 - 6 = 2469

Explanation

The given series consists of 18 characters in total, which can be divided into three repeating groups of six letters each following the pattern:

aabbcc aabbcc aabbcc

By filling the blanks with the letters a, c, b, and a respectively, the series becomes:

aabbccaabbccaabbcc

This perfectly completes the repeating pattern of aabbcc.

Explanation

Comparing the statement '754' meaning 'lake is sea' and '582' meaning 'ocean is river', the common word is 'is' and the common digit is 5. Therefore, 'is' is coded as 5.

Comparing the statement '582' meaning 'ocean is river' and '809' meaning 'ocean and pond', the common word is 'ocean' and the common digit is 8. Therefore, 'ocean' is coded as 8.

In the second statement '582' representing 'ocean is river', the codes for 'is' and 'ocean' are 5 and 8 respectively. The remaining word 'river' must correspond to the remaining digit 2.

Explanation

The clue directly states that L has an Oppo phone and the colour of her phone is neither Brown nor Black. Therefore, L is the one who owns the Oppo mobile phone.

Explanation

By analyzing the clues, the unique distribution of friends, mobile brands, and colors is determined as follows:

Since F, M, R, and P do not have an Apple phone, while L has Oppo and O has Samsung, N must have the Apple phone.

F has a Red phone, so F cannot have Intex (Blue) or Moto (Yellow). Since F does not have Nokia, Apple, Oppo (L), or Samsung (O), F must have the One Plus phone.

M has a Grey phone, so M cannot have Intex (Blue) or Moto (Yellow). Since M does not have Apple, Oppo (L), Samsung (O), or One Plus (F), M must have the Nokia phone.

The remaining brands are Samsung, Moto, and Intex for friends O, P, and R. O has Samsung. Since R does not have a Blue phone, R cannot have Intex (Blue) and must have the Moto phone (Yellow). This leaves P with the Intex phone (Blue).

Consequently, the correct combinations are L-Oppo (White), M-Nokia (Grey), N-Apple (Brown), O-Samsung (Black), P-Intex (Blue), F-One Plus (Red), and R-Moto (Yellow). None of the combinations given in options a, b, or c are correct.

Explanation

According to the given clues, it is directly stated that the colour of F's phone is Red. Therefore, F is the person who owns the red colour phone.

Explanation

By analyzing the given clues, we can determine the phone brand and color for each person:

First, since F has a Red phone, and Intex is Blue and Moto is Yellow, F does not own Intex or Moto. F also does not own Oppo (L has it), Samsung (O has it), Nokia, or Apple. Thus, F owns the One Plus phone, which is Red.

Since L has Oppo and it is neither Brown nor Black, and Red, Grey, Blue, and Yellow are assigned to other brands, L's phone color must be White.

Since M has a Grey phone and does not own Apple, and Oppo, One Plus, Moto, Intex, and Samsung are taken, M owns Nokia.

The Apple phone must be owned by N, as everyone else is ruled out. Since Apple is not Black, and all other colors except Brown and Black are assigned, N's Apple phone must be Brown.

This leaves Black as the only remaining color for O's Samsung phone. Since Black is not listed in the options, the correct choice is None of the above.

Explanation

By analyzing the given clues, we can systematically determine each person's phone and color:

Since L has an Oppo phone and O has a Samsung phone, and F, M, R, and P do not have an Apple phone, N must be the one who owns the Apple phone.

Next, L's phone color is not Brown, Black, Red (F's phone), or Grey (M's phone). Since the Intex phone is Blue and the Moto phone is Yellow, L's Oppo phone cannot be Blue or Yellow either. Thus, L's phone color must be White.

Since the Intex phone is Blue, it cannot belong to L (Oppo), M (Grey), N (Apple), O (Samsung), F (Red), or R (whose phone is not Blue). Therefore, P must own the Intex phone, and its color is Blue.

Similarly, the Moto phone is Yellow. The only remaining friends without assigned phones who can have a Yellow phone are M, F, and R. Since M is Grey and F is Red, R must own the Moto phone of Yellow color.

This leaves Nokia and One Plus to be distributed between M and F. Since F does not have a Nokia phone, M must own the Nokia phone, leaving F with the One Plus phone.

Explanation

Let the original prices of the two houses be 16x and 23x.

An increase of 10% on the first house's price makes its new price: 1.1 × 16x = 17.6x

An increase of Rs. 477 on the second house's price makes its new price: 23x + 477

Since the ratio of the new prices is 11:20, we can set up the equation: 17.6x / (23x + 477) = 11 / 20

Cross-multiplying to solve for x: 20 × 17.6x = 11 × (23x + 477) 352x = 253x + 5247 99x = 5247 x = 53

Substituting x = 53 back into the original expressions: Original price of the first house = 16 × 53 = Rs. 848 Original price of the second house = 23 × 53 = Rs. 1219

Explanation

The present sum of the ages of the husband, wife, and child can be calculated from their average age 3 years ago. Since the average age of the three family members 3 years ago was 27 years, the sum of their ages at that time was 27 × 3 = 81 years. To find their present sum of ages, we add 3 years for each of the three members: Present sum of ages = 81 + (3 × 3) = 90 years

Similarly, the sum of the ages of the wife and child 5 years ago was 20 × 2 = 40 years. To find their present sum of ages, we add 5 years for each of the two members: Present sum of ages of wife and child = 40 + (2 × 5) = 50 years

Subtracting the present sum of the wife and child's ages from the total present sum of all three family members gives the husband's present age: Husband's present age = 90 - 50 = 40 years

Explanation

To find the smallest fraction that is exactly divisible by each of the given fractions, we need to determine their Least Common Multiple (LCM).

The formula for the LCM of a group of fractions is: LCM of fractions = LCM of numerators / HCF of denominators

The given fractions are 6/7, 5/14, and 10/21.

Calculating the LCM of the numerators (6, 5, 10): LCM(6, 5, 10) = 30

Calculating the HCF of the denominators (7, 14, 21): HCF(7, 14, 21) = 7

Substituting these values into the formula yields: LCM = 30/7

Explanation

Let the original salaries of P, Q, and R be 2x, 3x, and 5x respectively.

Applying the respective percentage increments of 15%, 10%, and 20% to their salaries:

New salary of P = 2x × (1 + 15/100) = 2x × 1.15 = 2.3x New salary of Q = 3x × (1 + 10/100) = 3x × 1.10 = 3.3x New salary of R = 5x × (1 + 20/100) = 5x × 1.20 = 6x

The new ratio of their salaries is: 2.3x : 3.3x : 6x

To simplify this ratio into whole numbers, multiply each term by 10 and divide by x: 23 : 33 : 60

Explanation

The hire charges of the car are shared in proportion to the time for which it was used by P, Q, and R.

Ratio of usage of the car by P, Q, and R = 7 : 8 : 11

Total ratio units = 7 + 8 + 11 = 26

Total hire charges = Rs. 520

Hire charges paid by Q = (8 / 26) × 520 = 8 × 20 = Rs. 160

Explanation

Let the present ages of P and Q be 5x and 7x respectively.

According to the given condition, the difference between Q's present age and P's age after 6 years is 2:

7x - (5x + 6) = 2

Solving the equation:

2x - 6 = 2 2x = 8 x = 4

The sum of P's and Q's present ages is:

5x + 7x = 12x

Substituting the value of x:

12 × 4 = 48 years

Explanation

In February, the customer made 150 calls, which is below the free call limit of 200. Total bill in February = Fixed rental = ₹350 Average cost per call in February = 350 ÷ 150 = ₹7/3

In March, the customer made 250 calls, which exceeds the free call limit by 50 calls. Total bill in March = Fixed rental + (Extra calls × Rate per extra call) = 350 + (50 × 1.4) = 350 + 70 = ₹420 Average cost per call in March = 420 ÷ 250 = ₹42/25

The percentage by which each call is cheaper in March than in February is: Percentage decrease = ((Average cost in February - Average cost in March) ÷ Average cost in February) × 100 Percentage decrease = ((7/3 - 42/25) ÷ (7/3)) × 100 Percentage decrease = (49/75 ÷ 7/3) × 100 Percentage decrease = (49/75 × 3/7) × 100 = 7/25 × 100 = 28%

Explanation

The given series is an alternating series of consecutive natural numbers starting from 1: S = 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + ...

To find the sum of the first 100 terms of this series, we can group the terms in pairs: S = (1 - 2) + (3 - 4) + (5 - 6) + ... + (99 - 100)

Since there are 100 terms in total, grouping them in pairs of two consecutive terms gives exactly 50 pairs: Number of pairs = 100 / 2 = 50

Each pair has a constant sum: 1 - 2 = -1 3 - 4 = -1 5 - 6 = -1 99 - 100 = -1

Therefore, the total sum of the first 100 terms is the sum of these 50 pairs: S = 50 × (-1) = -50

Explanation

Let the speed of the goods train be G kmph.

The express train starts 6 hours after the goods train and takes 4 hours to catch up to it. This means the goods train travels for a total of 10 hours (6 hours + 4 hours) before it is overtaken.

During this time, the express train travels at a uniform speed of 90 kmph for 4 hours.

Since both trains start from the same station and meet at the same point, the distance covered by both trains is equal:

Distance = Speed × Time

Distance covered by the express train = 90 kmph × 4 hours = 360 km

Distance covered by the goods train = G kmph × 10 hours = 10G km

Equating the two distances:

10G = 360

G = 36 kmph

Explanation

Let N be the total number of steps on the escalator, and e be the speed of the escalator in steps per second.

When M walks in the direction of the escalator, the speeds add up: N = (5 + e) × 10

When M walks against the direction of the escalator on the return journey, the net speed is the difference: N = (5 - e) × 40

Equating both expressions for N: (5 + e) × 10 = (5 - e) × 40 50 + 10e = 200 - 40e 50e = 150 e = 3

Substituting the value of e back into the first equation: N = (5 + 3) × 10 = 80

Explanation

Using the work-rate formula, the combined time T taken by both punctures together to make the tyre flat is given by:

1/T = 1/T₁ + 1/T₂

Here, T₁ = 9 minutes and T₂ = 6 minutes. Substituting these values into the formula:

1/T = 1/9 + 1/6

1/T = (2 + 3) / 18 = 5/18

T = 18/5 minutes = 3.6 minutes

To convert this time into seconds, multiply by 60:

3.6 × 60 = 216 seconds

Since 216 seconds is the actual time required, the correct option is d).

Explanation

Paradeep is a major deep-water seaport located on the east coast of India in Odisha, while all the other locations are prominent sites of nuclear power plants in India.

Explanation

Germanium is a metalloid chemical element with the symbol Ge and atomic number 32, whereas all the other substances listed in the group are metallic alloys composed of two or more elements.

Explanation

The coding pattern follows an alternating series of operations on the positional values of the letters. The letters at odd positions are shifted one step backward (-1) in the English alphabetical order, while the letters at even positions are shifted three steps forward (+3) in the English alphabetical order.

Applying this pattern to the word BLEMISH: B (-1) = A L (+3) = O E (-1) = D M (+3) = P I (-1) = H S (+3) = V H (-1) = G

Applying the exact same pattern to the word CHAPTER: C (-1) = B H (+3) = K A (-1) = Z (wrapping around the alphabet backward from A) P (+3) = S T (-1) = S E (+3) = H R (-1) = Q

This yields the coded sequence BKZSSHQ.

Explanation

Let the starting point of K be the origin (0, 0) on a Cartesian coordinate plane, where the positive y-axis represents North and the positive x-axis represents East.

K starts facing South. Turning right from South means he faces West. Walking 20m West puts his position at (-20, 0).

From facing West, turning right means he faces North. Walking 10m North puts his position at (-20, 10).

From facing North, turning left means he faces West. Walking 10m West puts his position at (-30, 10).

From facing West, turning right means he faces North. Walking 20m North puts his position at (-30, 30).

From facing North, turning right means he faces East. Walking 60m East adds 60 to his x-coordinate, putting his final position at (30, 30).

Comparing the final position (30, 30) with the starting point (0, 0), he has a positive displacement along both the North (y-axis) and East (x-axis) directions, which points directly in the North-East direction.

Explanation

Let the five positions around the circular table facing inwards be numbered 1 to 5 in a counter-clockwise direction. Placing P at position 1, R must be at position 2 since R is to the right of P. Because R is second to the left of S, S must be placed at position 4 (with position 3 being first to the left of S, and position 2 being second to the left). This leaves positions 3 and 5 vacant. Since T is not between P (position 1) and S (position 4), T cannot be at position 5. Thus, T must be at position 3, which leaves position 5 for Q. Moving clockwise (left) from R at position 2, the first to the left is P at position 1, and the second to the left is Q at position 5.

Explanation

To find the person who is good in Physics, Dramatics, and Computer Science, we analyze the subjects associated with M. According to the given statements, M and S are good in Dramatics and Computer Science, which establishes that M is good in both Dramatics and Computer Science. Furthermore, the statement that Z and M are good in Computer Science and Physics establishes that M is also good in Physics. Combining these, M is the person who is good in Physics, Dramatics, and Computer Science.

Explanation

To find when 16 January falls on a Wednesday again, we calculate the number of odd days accumulated from 16 January 1991. An ordinary year of 365 days has 1 odd day (365 ÷ 7 leaves a remainder of 1), while a leap year of 366 days has 2 odd days (366 ÷ 7 leaves a remainder of 2).

The transition from 16 January of one year to 16 January of the next adds odd days based on whether 29 February falls within that 12-month period:

From 1991 to 1992 is 1 odd day (the leap day of 29 February 1992 occurs after 16 January). From 1992 to 1993 is 2 odd days (includes 29 February 1992). From 1993 to 1994 is 1 odd day. From 1994 to 1995 is 1 odd day. From 1995 to 1996 is 1 odd day. From 1996 to 1997 is 2 odd days (includes 29 February 1996). From 1997 to 1998 is 1 odd day. From 1998 to 1999 is 1 odd day. From 1999 to 2000 is 1 odd day. From 2000 to 2001 is 2 odd days (includes 29 February 2000). From 2001 to 2002 is 1 odd day.

Summing these values: 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 14 odd days.

Since 14 is a multiple of 7, the net shift is 0 odd days. This means 16 January 2002 falls on the exact same day of the week as 16 January 1991, which is Wednesday.