GPSC Prelims 2022 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The main cradles of civilization refer to the regions where early human societies independently developed complex organized structures, agriculture, urbanization, and written language, profoundly shaping human history. Ancient China along the Yellow and Yangtze Rivers, the Indian Sub-continent with the Indus Valley Civilization, and the Fertile Crescent encompassing Mesopotamia and ancient Egypt represent the primary river valley cradles of the ancient world. Additionally, the Mediterranean basin, through the classical legacies of Greece and Rome, is universally recognized as the cradle of Western civilization, pioneering fundamental systems of governance, philosophy, law, and science. Together, these four regions laid the cultural, political, and technological foundations of modern mankind.

Explanation

The Great Bath is the most prominent and important public structure found in Mohenjodaro, suggesting that ritual bathing or purification rites held a significant place in the religious and social life of the Indus Valley Civilization. The engineering of the tank was highly advanced, featuring a floor constructed of finely fitted burnt bricks set on edge. To ensure the structure was completely watertight, the builders applied a thick layer of natural tar or bitumen along the floor and sides, which represents one of the earliest known examples of waterproofing in ancient history.

Explanation

According to the Svetambara tradition, the original doctrines and teachings of Lord Mahavira were contained in fourteen ancient texts known as the Purvas (referred to as Parvas in the options). These oral discourses predated the formal compilation of the Jain canon. Over time, the knowledge of these texts became increasingly difficult to preserve, and they were eventually summarized and incorporated into the twelfth Anga, called the Drishtivada.

Explanation

Sushruta is a legendary figure in ancient Indian medicine whose contributions laid the foundation of surgical sciences.

Statement 1 is correct because, while the historical Sushruta is traditionally placed around the 6th century BCE, the text of the Sushruta Samhita underwent major revisions and was systematically consolidated and widely disseminated during the Gupta period (4th to 6th century CE), a period often celebrated as a golden age for advancements in Indian sciences and medicine.

Statement 2 is correct because the Sushruta Samhita is indeed a foundational Sanskrit treatise of Ayurveda, focusing extensively on the field of medicine and surgery.

Statement 3 is correct as Sushruta is historically recognized as the first Indian surgeon, widely celebrated as the Father of Surgery and the Father of Plastic Surgery.

Statement 4 is correct because he pioneered Shalya Tantra (the branch of Ayurveda dedicated to surgical procedures) and described sophisticated operations, most notably rhinoplasty (nasal reconstruction using a flap of forehead skin), cataract surgery, and the management of fractures.

Explanation

The Pallava dynasty ruled a significant portion of southern India from the 4th to the 9th century CE with their capital located at Kanchipuram. Situated on the banks of the Vegavathi River in present-day Tamil Nadu, Kanchipuram was a highly prominent center of administration, commerce, education, and art. It was famously known as a major seat of Sanskrit learning and housed renowned ghatikas (educational institutions). The city reached the zenith of its architectural and cultural glory under rulers like Mahendravarman I and Narasimhavarman I, who commissioned spectacular stone-cut and structural temples that established Kanchipuram as a legendary temple town.

Explanation

The Seven Rathas Temple complex, along with the other monolithic rock-cut monuments at Mahabalipuram, was built by the Pallava dynasty. These structures were commissioned during the reign of the Pallava king Narasimhavarman I, who ruled in the 7th century and was also known as Mamalla, after whom the town Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram) is named. These monolithic temples are carved out of single pieces of granite and represent a crucial phase in the development of Dravidian temple architecture.

Explanation

The Battle of Plassey was fought on 23 June 1757 between the forces of the British East India Company, commanded by Robert Clive, and the Nawab of Bengal, Siraj-ud-Daulah. The decisive British victory, achieved largely through the defection of the Nawab's commander-in-chief Mir Jafar, allowed the Company to establish a puppet regime in Bengal, the wealthiest province of India. This victory transformed a commercial entity into a formidable political and military power, marking the official beginning of British political dominance and territorial empire in India.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy was an exceptionally well-read scholar and polyglot with command of Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic, English, Greek, and Hebrew, and he founded the Brahmo Samaj (initially the Brahmo Sabha) in Calcutta to reform Hindu society, oppose social evils like Sati, and promote monotheistic worship. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Brahmo Samaj was established on 20 August 1828, not April 1828. Since only statement 1 is correct, option A is the right answer.

Explanation

The Swadeshi Movement was formally launched on August 7, 1905, at the Calcutta Town Hall in response to the decision of the British colonial government, led by Viceroy Lord Curzon, to partition the province of Bengal. The partition was officially announced in July 1905 under the pretext of administrative convenience, but its primary political motive was to weaken the nerve center of Indian nationalism by dividing the Bengali population on communal and linguistic lines. This administrative action provoked massive public outrage and protests, directly triggering the boycott of British goods and the promotion of indigenous (Swadeshi) alternatives.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel served as the first Deputy Prime Minister of India in the cabinet of Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru, holding the office from August 15, 1947, until his death on December 15, 1950. Alongside this role, he also served as the Minister of Home Affairs and Minister of Information and Broadcasting, during which he played a monumental role in the political integration and consolidation of over five hundred princely states into the Indian Union.

Explanation

Sucheta Kriplani became the first woman Chief Minister in independent India when she assumed the office of Chief Minister of Uttar Pradesh in October 1963. She successfully led the state government until March 1967. Prior to this landmark achievement, she was a prominent freedom fighter, worked closely with Mahatma Gandhi, and served as a key member of the Constituent Assembly of India, where she was part of the subcommittee that drafted the Indian Constitution. Her tenure was marked by administrative efficiency and strong leadership in managing the state administration.

Explanation

The Maha Gujarat Movement was a popular linguistic agitation aimed at securing a separate state for Gujarati-speaking people by carving it out of the bilingual Bombay State.

The movement was actively led by students and prominent citizens. On August 8, 1956, college students in Ahmedabad initiated a protest march to the Congress House to express their dissent against the bilingual state proposal. Prominent civic leaders, most notably Indulal Yagnik, joined the cause and founded the Mahagujarat Janata Parishad to provide structured leadership to the struggle.

August 1956 was the turning point of the entire movement. Following the police firing on student demonstrators outside the Congress House on August 8, which claimed several young lives, public anger escalated. This event catalyzed widespread civil disobedience, strikes, and demonstrations across the region, turning the movement into a massive, unstoppable public crusade.

Chief Minister Morarji Desai vehemently opposed the partition of Bombay State and went on a fast-unto-death to counter the public protests rather than responding positively to their demands, which makes statement 4 incorrect.

Explanation

The Pashupati seal, discovered at Mohenjo-daro, depicts a male deity seated in a meditative yogic posture. The figure wears a three-horned headgear and is surrounded by animals, including an elephant, a tiger, a rhinoceros, and a buffalo, with two deer shown under his seat. Sir John Marshall identified this figure as a prototype of the Hindu god Siva, specifically in his aspect as Pashupati, which translates to the Lord of Beasts, and as Mahayogi, the great yogi. This association is drawn from the deity's yogic stance, the trident-like shape of his headgear, and his companionship with wild animals, which are all classic attributes of Siva in later Hindu iconographic traditions.

Explanation

The archaeological site of Surkotada was discovered and excavated by Jagat Pati Joshi of the Archaeological Survey of India in 1964. Located in the Rapar Taluka of Kutch district, Gujarat, this fortified Harappan settlement is notable for yielding the remains of horse bones and unique pot burials.

Explanation

Gautam Buddha delivered his first sermon at the Deer Park in Sarnath, located near Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh. This historic event is known in Buddhist tradition as the Dharmachakrapravartana, which translates to the Turning of the Wheel of Law or Dharma. During this sermon, delivered to his five former companion ascetics, Buddha expounded the core tenets of Buddhism, which include the Four Noble Truths and the Noble Eightfold Path, marking the foundation of the Buddhist Sangha.

Explanation

The three jewels (Triratnas) of Jainism constitute the path to liberation (moksha) from the cycle of rebirth. These three essential pillars are Samyak Darshana, which translates to Right Faith; Samyak Jnana, which refers to Right Knowledge; and Samyak Charitra, which represents Right Conduct. Together, these principles guide a practitioner's spiritual development, ethical life, and self-purification, forming the core ethical code of Jain philosophy.

Explanation

The founder of the Chola dynasty was Vijayalaya, who established the kingdom in the 9th century (around 850 CE) by capturing Thanjavur.

The royal emblem of the Chola rulers was the Tiger, while the Lion was the royal emblem of the Pallava dynasty.

The magnificent Brihadeeswara Temple at Thanjavur was built by the great Chola king Rajaraja I and was completed around 1010 CE.

Under Rajendra I, the Cholas became the first South Indian dynasty to successfully march to the Gangetic plains. He defeated the Pala ruler Mahipala I and brought sacred water from the Ganges to his new capital, earning him the title of Gangaikonda Chola.

Explanation

In 1178 CE, the Ghurid ruler Muhammad Ghori invaded Gujarat but was decisively defeated at the Battle of Kayadara (also known as the Battle of Kasahrada), situated near Mount Abu. The Solanki (Chaulukya) forces of Gujarat were led by the ruler Bhimdev II (also known as Bhima II). During this conflict, his mother Queen Naikidevi acted as regent and played a major role in organizing the defense and commanding the forces that routed the invading Ghurid army, forcing Muhammad Ghori to retreat.

Explanation

Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi, a prominent Sufi saint of the Naqshbandi order, was imprisoned by Emperor Jahangir in 1619. He was held in the Gwalior Fort for about a year. Jahangir ordered his arrest primarily because Sirhindi refused to perform the customary court prostration, known as sajda, before the emperor, which Sirhindi believed was due only to God. Additionally, Jahangir was wary of Sirhindi's rapidly growing religious influence and his orthodox views, which the emperor perceived as a potential threat to the stability of the state.

Explanation

Lord Dalhousie, who served as the Governor-General of India from 1848 to 1856, introduced the aggressive annexation policy known as the Doctrine of Lapse. Under this doctrine, any Indian princely state under the paramountcy of the British East India Company would automatically be annexed into British territory if its ruler died without a natural male heir, as the British refused to recognize adopted heirs for the purpose of succession. This policy led to the rapid annexation of several major states, including Satara, Sambalpur, Jhansi, and Nagpur. The widespread discontent, loss of sovereignty, and socio-political disruption caused by these annexations deeply alienated the Indian nobility and their subjects, acting as a major catalyst for the Indian Revolt of 1857.

Explanation

The Subsidiary Alliance system, introduced by Governor-General Lord Wellesley in 1798, served as a primary diplomatic tool to eliminate French influence and secure British hegemony in India. Under the terms of this treaty, any Indian ruler who entered into the alliance was prohibited from employing any European, particularly French nationals, in their service or court without the prior consent of the British East India Company. Existing French personnel and military advisors in the service of native states had to be dismissed immediately. This effectively prevented French officers from training Indian troops and neutralized the threat of any potential French alliance with Indian states during the Napoleonic Wars.

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Movement was officially launched on 1 August 1920 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi. It was organized as a peaceful campaign of non-violent resistance to protest against British colonial policies, specifically the Jallianwala Bagh massacre, the Rowlatt Act, and the Khilafat wrongs, by boycotting government-run schools, colleges, courts, and foreign-made goods.

Explanation

Abhinav Bharat Society (Young India Society) was a secret society founded by Vinayak Damodar Savarkar (V. D. Savarkar) and his brother Ganesh Damodar Savarkar in 1904. It originally started as Mitra Mela in Nashik in 1899 and was later renamed Abhinav Bharat. The organization carried out several revolutionary activities and believed in armed struggle to overthrow British colonial rule in India.

Explanation

Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III enacted comprehensive social, administrative, and educational reforms during his rule of Baroda State. He legalized the remarriage of widows by passing the Hindu Widows Remarriage Act in 1901. To address the issue of child marriage, he introduced the Infant Marriage Prevention Act in 1904, which set minimum age limits for marriage and penalized offenders. He decentralized administrative power by introducing the Local Self Government Act (Sthanik Panchayat Sambandhi Nibandh) in 1904 to reorganize village, taluka, and district panchayats. Furthermore, he was a pioneer in education, making primary schooling free and compulsory for all children in Baroda State in 1906.

Explanation

The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 was organized in the Kheda district of Gujarat, where crop failure due to drought and a cholera epidemic left the peasantry unable to pay the land revenue taxes. Despite the famine conditions and the revenue code rules allowing for tax suspension, the colonial administration insisted on full tax collection. Under Mahatma Gandhi's guidance, Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel took the lead in organizing the farmers to launch a non-violent tax-strike, refusing to pay the taxes despite the confiscation of their property and land, which eventually compelled the government to suspend the revenue assessment for that year.

Explanation

The reorganization of Punjab and the creation of Haryana on November 1, 1966, was initiated based on the recommendations of the Parliamentary Committee on the Demand for Punjabi Suba. This committee was established in September 1965 under the chairmanship of Sardar Hukam Singh, the then Speaker of the Lok Sabha. The committee recommended the partition of the bilingual state of Punjab to satisfy the long-standing linguistic demands of the region. This recommendation led to the setting up of the Shah Commission to demarcate the boundaries, which culminated in the passage of the Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966, and the creation of Haryana as the seventeenth state of India.

Explanation

The Hunter Commission, officially known as the Disorders Inquiry Committee, was set up by the Government of India on October 14, 1919. Presided over by Lord William Hunter, the committee was established to investigate the series of disturbances in Punjab, Delhi, and Bombay, and most notably to inquire into the tragic events of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre that occurred in Amritsar on April 13, 1919, where British troops fired upon a gathering of unarmed civilians.

Explanation

The devotional song Vaishnava Jan To was composed by the 15th-century poet-saint Narsinh Mehta, who is celebrated as the Adi Kavi or pioneering poet of Gujarati literature. Written in the Gujarati language, the bhajan describes the ideal qualities of a true Vaishnava (devotee of Vishnu), focusing on compassion, selflessness, truth, and humility. It was deeply cherished by Mahatma Gandhi, who included it in his daily prayers at the Sabarmati Ashram, helping it gain nationwide and global recognition.

Explanation

Lord Mountbatten was appointed as the last Viceroy of India in March 1947 with the specific task of overseeing the speedy transfer of power. He formulated the June 3 Plan, which laid down the procedure for the partition of British India into two independent dominions, India and Pakistan, and supervised the entire transition process leading to independence on August 15, 1947.

Explanation

The Konark Sun Temple, located in Odisha, was built in the 13th century by King Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga Dynasty. The entire temple is designed in the shape of a colossal chariot dedicated to the Sun God, Surya. This architectural marvel features twenty-four elaborately carved stone wheels, representing the hours of the day or the fortnights of the year, and is depicted as being pulled by seven horses, which symbolize the seven days of the week.

Explanation

Gol Gumbaz is the magnificent mausoleum of Mohammad Adil Shah, who ruled the Sultanate of Bijapur from 1627 to 1657. Located in Vijayapura (formerly Bijapur), Karnataka, this monument was completed in 1656. It is celebrated for its imposing circular dome, which stands as one of the largest pre-modern domes in the world, built entirely unsupported by pillars. Inside the mausoleum, a notable acoustic feature is the whispering gallery, located high up inside the drum of the dome, where even a soft whisper is magnified and echoes multiple times.

Explanation

Maharaja Ranjit Singh, the founder of the Sikh Empire, captured Lahore in 1799 from the Bhangi chiefs. He subsequently consolidated his control over Punjab, united the various Sikh misls, and established Lahore as the administrative and political capital of his kingdom.

Explanation

During ancient times, the Malabar coast of India was the global hub for the spice trade. Black pepper was the most dominant and valuable export from this region, particularly to the Roman Empire and other parts of the West. It was so highly valued that Roman traders referred to it as black gold, and in Sanskrit literature, it was termed Yavanapriya, meaning beloved of the Greeks and Romans, because of its immense popularity among them. Large quantities of Roman gold and silver coins have been excavated at ancient South Indian ports, demonstrating the scale of the trade in black pepper from Malabar.

Explanation

During the Quit India Movement in 1942, several parallel governments (Prati Sarkars) emerged across India as a strong expression of local resistance against British rule. The most notable and longest-lasting among these was the Satara Prati Sarkar in Maharashtra, established in 1943 under the leadership of Nana Patil. This parallel government successfully functioned until 1946 by setting up its own administrative machinery, including peoples courts (Nyayadan Mandals), cooperative societies, food grain shops, and a volunteer corps (Toofan Sena), effectively dismantling British authority in the region.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, as the first Deputy Prime Minister and Home Minister of independent India, played a pivotal role in the political integration of the nation by merging over 560 princely states. While most states signed the Instrument of Accession voluntarily, the integration of Junagadh and Hyderabad required Patel's decisive diplomacy and strategic intervention. In Junagadh, the Nawab desired accession to Pakistan against the wishes of the overwhelmingly Hindu majority population, prompting Patel to send troops and conduct a plebiscite in February 1948, in which the citizens voted overwhelmingly to join India. In Hyderabad, the Nizam refused to accede to India and patronized a violent private militia known as the Razakars. To resolve the security crisis and integrate the state, Patel initiated a swift military operation code-named Operation Polo in September 1948, resulting in Hyderabad's successful merger into the Indian Union.

Explanation

The Lucknow Pact was a historic agreement reached between the Indian National Congress and the All India Muslim League at a joint session of both parties held in Lucknow in December 1916. Through this pact, the two organizations agreed to cooperate on a common political platform and present a joint set of constitutional demands to the British government. Key leaders like Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Muhammad Ali Jinnah played instrumental roles in negotiating this alliance, which aimed to foster Hindu-Muslim unity and demand self-government for India.

Explanation

The Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act of 1919 was popularly known as the Rowlatt Act. It was named after Sir Sidney Rowlatt, the president of the Rowlatt Committee, which recommended the enactment of this legislation to control nationalist and revolutionary activities. The act granted the colonial administration enormous powers to suppress political activities, including the authority to detain individuals suspected of terrorism for up to two years without trial, and to conduct in-camera trials without juries. This legislative measure provoked intense resentment across the country and led to the launch of the Rowlatt Satyagraha by Mahatma Gandhi.

Explanation

The Indian Home Rule movement was launched in 1916 under the leadership of Bal Gangadhar Tilak, popularly known as Lokmanya Tilak, and the Irish socialist Annie Besant. They established two separate leagues to avoid any friction while working towards the common goal of self-government or Home Rule for India within the British Empire. Tilak set up his Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum, which operated in Maharashtra (excluding Bombay), Karnataka, Central Provinces, and Berar. Annie Besant launched her Home Rule League in September 1916 at Madras, which covered the rest of India. Both leaders worked in coordination to mobilize public opinion, promote political education, and demand self-rule.

Explanation

Bhagat Singh, Chandra Sekhar Azad, and Khudiram Bose were key figures in the revolutionary nationalist phase of the Indian independence movement who advocated and utilized armed struggle against British rule. Bhagat Singh and Chandra Sekhar Azad were central leaders of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA), leading actions like the Lahore conspiracy and the Central Legislative Assembly bombing. Khudiram Bose, one of the youngest revolutionary nationalists, carried out the 1908 Muzaffarpur bombing targeting a British magistrate. Their actions and direct affiliation with active revolutionary organizations categorize them as revolutionary nationalists, making statements 1 and 4 correct.

Explanation

Surendranath Banerjee and Gopal Krishna Gokhale were prominent leaders of the moderate phase of the Indian National Congress, which spanned from 1885 to 1905. The moderates believed in constitutional and peaceful methods to achieve their political goals, utilizing petitions, resolutions, and speeches to present their demands to the British administration. Surendranath Banerjee established the Indian National Association and later merged it with the Congress, working extensively for civil service reforms and political awareness. Gopal Krishna Gokhale advocated for economic and educational reforms, founding the Servants of India Society in 1905 to promote social and humanitarian work. Both leaders championed the early constitutional struggle for Indian self-governance.

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi wrote Hind Swaraj in 1909, expressing his views on Swaraj, modern civilization, and mechanization. He also authored his autobiography, The Story of My Experiments with Truth, which covers his life from early childhood through to 1921, detailing his spiritual and practical journeys. Both of these classic works were originally written in Gujarati and later translated into English and other languages.

Explanation

Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer was the military officer who directed and executed the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab. On the day of Baisakhi, a peaceful crowd gathered at Jallianwala Bagh to protest the arrest of pro-independence leaders Saifuddin Kitchlew and Satyapal under the Rowlatt Act. General Dyer arrived at the venue with his troops, blocked the main entrance, which was the only viable exit, and ordered his soldiers to open fire on the unarmed gathering without warning. The firing continued for about ten minutes until the troops ran out of ammunition, causing hundreds of deaths and leaving over a thousand injured. General Dyer later defended his actions before the Hunter Commission, stating his objective was to produce a moral effect and strike terror in Punjab.

Explanation

The Brihadeeswara temple at Thanjavur was built by the Chola emperor Rajaraja I between 1003 and 1010 CE, standing as a supreme example of Dravidian architecture. Furthermore, the Cholas were prolific patrons of art and commissioned the highly celebrated bronze Nataraja idols, which achieved artistic perfection during this period using the lost-wax casting technique.

Explanation

Desinamamala is a highly significant Prakrit lexicon compiled by the 12th-century Jain scholar, philosopher, and polymath Acharya Hemachandra. Also known as Rayanavali, this treatise serves as a dictionary of Desi words, which are indigenous terms used in various regional Prakrit dialects that do not have direct Sanskrit etymological roots. Hemachandra, who enjoyed the patronage of the Solanki rulers of Gujarat, wrote this work to document and preserve the vernacular vocabulary of his era, making it an invaluable resource for the study of historical linguistics and the evolution of modern Indo-Aryan languages.

Explanation

Balakot, located in Balochistan, Pakistan, was a prominent coastal settlement of the Indus Valley Civilization that functioned as a port town on the Arabian Sea, renowned for its extensive shell-working and craft industries.

Khirasa, situated in the Kutch district of Gujarat, was a fortified Harappan settlement and port town featuring warehouses, heavy fortifications, and evidence of active trade and industrial activities.

Kuntasi, situated along the Phulki River in the Morbi district of Gujarat, is well-documented as an ancient port-cum-industrial complex from the Mature Harappan phase. It had a jetty and functioned as a maritime trade emporium facilitating trade with West Asian regions.

Explanation

The Social Service League was actually founded by Narayan Malhar Joshi in Bombay in 1911, not by Gopal Krishna Gokhale as stated in the question — so match 1 is incorrect. The Servants of India Society was actually founded by Gopal Krishna Gokhale in Pune in 1905, not by N M Joshi as stated in the question — so match 2 is incorrect. The Indian National Social Conference was indeed founded by Mahadev Govind Ranade in 1887 to advocate for social reforms such as inter-caste marriage and opposition to child marriage — so match 3 is correct. Since only match 3 is correctly paired, the answer is '3 only'.

Explanation

The Ryotwari System of land revenue was formulated and introduced by Sir Thomas Munro, along with Captain Alexander Read, in the Madras Presidency in 1820. Under this system, the British government recognized the peasants (ryots) as the direct owners of the land, giving them individual ownership and transfer rights without any intermediaries like zamindars. This system was majorly implemented in Madras, Bombay, and parts of Assam and Coorg, covering about 51% of the territory of British India.

Explanation

Lord Hardinge, who served as the Viceroy of India from 1910 to 1916, annulled the Partition of Bengal in December 1911. This decision was announced during the grand Delhi Durbar in the presence of King George V. The revocation was aimed at placating the Swadeshi and nationalist sentiments that had intensified following the partition of 1905, and it coincided with the administrative decision to shift the capital of British India from Calcutta to Delhi.

Explanation

The tomb of Itmad-ud-Daulah, located in Agra, was built between 1622 and 1628 by Nur Jahan for her father, Mirza Ghiyas Beg. It represents a major transitional phase in Mughal architecture, marking the shift from the monumental red sandstone structures of the Akbar era to the refined white marble buildings of the Shah Jahan era. It is the first Mughal structure to be clad entirely in white marble and is also highly celebrated for its extensive and pioneering use of the pietra dura inlay technique with precious and semi-precious stones.

Explanation

During the Civil Disobedience Movement in April 1930, C. Rajgopalachari led the Salt Satyagraha on the Tanjore coast. He organised a march of about one hundred Congress volunteers from Trichinopoly to the coastal town of Vedaranyam in Tanjore district to break the salt law by manufacturing salt. This march began on April 13, 1930, and concluded on April 28, 1930, mirroring Mahatma Gandhi's Dandi March on the west coast and significantly mobilizing public support for the national movement in southern India.

Explanation

Kitab-ul-Hind is a comprehensive text detailing Indian society, culture, religion, and sciences written by the Persian scholar Al-Biruni in the eleventh century. Al-Masudi, an Arab historian and geographer from Baghdad who visited India in the tenth century, is famous for his work Muruj adh-Dhahab.

Explanation

Kuchipudi is a classical dance drama that originated in Kuchipudi, a village in the Krishna district of Andhra Pradesh, and not in Tamil Nadu. It is characterized by its dynamic and fast-paced footwork, expressive hand gestures (mudras), and the synthesis of both song and dance to narrate mythological stories.

Explanation

The Airavatesvara Temple is a Hindu temple of Dravidian architecture located in Darasuram, near Kumbakonam in the state of Tamil Nadu. It was built by the Chola emperor Rajaraja II in the 12th century CE and is dedicated to Lord Shiva. Along with the Brihadisvara Temple at Thanjavur and the Gangaikondacholisvaram Temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram, it is inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site under the group designation of the Great Living Chola Temples.

Explanation

Tyagaraja was a legendary composer of Carnatic music who composed thousands of devotional compositions (kritis) and is credited with creating several new ragas (such as Kharaharapriya and Chakravakam), introducing innovative structural variations into Carnatic music.

Tallapaka Annamacharya, recognized as the Padakavitha Pitamaha, was a 15th-century saint-composer whose vast body of sankirtanas (devotional songs) is dedicated specifically to the praise of Lord Venkateshwara of Tirumala Tirupati.

Explanation

Daskathia is a traditional folk theatre and ballad singing art form from the state of Odisha, particularly popular in the Ganjam district. The term is derived from das, meaning devotee, and kathi, referring to the wooden sticks or clappers used during the performance. The play is performed by a pair of narrators: the chief singer and leader called the Gayaka, and the assistant or co-narrator called the Palia. Together, they narrate stories while playing the wooden instruments to create a rhythmic beat. The themes of Daskathia primarily revolve around the worship and mythology of Lord Shiva.

Explanation

The Government of India has declared six languages as classical languages based on their high antiquity, valuable ancient literature, and original literary tradition. Tamil was designated as a classical language in 2004, followed by Sanskrit in 2005. Both Kannada and Telugu were accorded this status in 2008. Malayalam was declared a classical language in 2013, while Odia was added to the list in 2014. Thus, Sanskrit, Malayalam, Kannada, Telugu, and Tamil are all recognized classical languages.

Explanation

The Sanskrit phrase Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam, which translates to "the world is one family", is originally found in the Maha Upanishad (Chapter VI, Verses 71 to 73). This minor Upanishad belongs to the Samaveda tradition. The verse highlights the philosophy of universal brotherhood and magnanimity, emphasizing that while narrow-minded individuals distinguish between their own and others, those of noble character treat the entire earth as their single home.

Explanation

Panch Siddhantika is a major Sanskrit treatise on mathematical astronomy written by the ancient Indian polymath, astronomer, and mathematician Varahamihira. Composed in the sixth century, it summarizes five earlier astronomical systems: the Surya, Romaka, Paulisa, Vasishtha, and Pitamaha Siddhantas. It is not a work on grammar.

Explanation

Under the traditional Hindu calendar system, a complete day and night is divided into 30 equal time segments called Muhurtas. Since a full day contains 24 hours, the total duration is 1440 minutes (24 × 60). Dividing this total duration by 30 yields the exact length of one Muhurta:

1440 ÷ 30 = 48 minutes

Explanation

Ashtadhyayi is an ancient Sanskrit treatise on grammar composed by the revered scholar Panini, likely dating back to around the 4th to 6th century BCE. The name translates to "eight chapters", which together contain nearly 4,000 highly structured rules or sutras that systematically define the morphology, syntax, and phonology of Classical Sanskrit. This monumental work is considered a foundational text of the Vyakarana Vedanga and is celebrated globally as one of the earliest and most sophisticated examples of formal grammar and generative linguistic theory.

Explanation

Lord Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana at Kushinagar in present-day Uttar Pradesh at the age of eighty. He passed away under a Sal tree near the Hiranyavati River, which was then the capital of the Malla Republic, marking his final release from the cycle of birth and death.

Explanation

Siddi Dhamal is a highly energetic folk dance performed by the Siddi community, who are of African descent and primarily reside in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.

Kaksar Nritya is a traditional festival dance of the Abujhmaria tribe in the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh, performed during the monsoon season to seek the blessings of the deity Kaksar for a rich harvest.

Janapada Nritya refers to the traditional folk dances of Karnataka, with Janapada translating to "folk" in Kannada. This encompassing term highlights the rich rural dance forms of the state, such as Dollu Kunitha and Puja Kunitha.

Explanation

The Somnath Temple, located in Prabhas Patan, Veraval on the western coast of Gujarat, is historically known as Deo Patan or Dev Patan. It is highly revered as the first among the twelve sacred Jyotirlinga shrines dedicated to Lord Shiva. The temple is situated near the holy confluence of three rivers—Saraswati, Hiranya, and Kapila—known as the Triveni Sangam, before they meet the Arabian Sea. Throughout history, the temple was destroyed and rebuilt multiple times. The present-day grand structure was reconstructed in the traditional Maru-Gurjara style of architecture after India gained independence, with the project initiated under the leadership of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.

Explanation

Gujarat Vidyapith was founded by Mahatma Gandhi on October 18, 1920, in Ahmedabad during the Non-Cooperation Movement. He served as the institution's first Chancellor (Kulpati) and held this position throughout his lifetime to guide its educational philosophy of self-reliance, swadeshi, and national service.

Explanation

Hon'ble Mr. Justice Sunderlal Trikamlal Desai (S. T. Desai) was the first Chief Justice of the Gujarat High Court. He assumed office on May 1, 1960, upon the creation of the State of Gujarat and its High Court following the bifurcation of the former State of Bombay. He served as the Chief Justice until his retirement on January 25, 1961.

Explanation

Lauria Nandangarh, located in the West Champaran district of Bihar, is renowned for possessing one of the best-preserved Pillars of Ashoka. Erected in the third century BCE during the Mauryan Empire, this monolithic sandstone pillar stands over twelve meters tall and is crowned with a single lion capital. It contains six pillar edicts inscribed in Brahmi script, which remain remarkably legible. The pillar is highly significant as it is one of the few Ashokan pillars that remains standing in its original position.

Explanation

Ponung is a traditional folk dance of the Adi tribe of Arunachal Pradesh, performed exclusively by women before the harvest season to pray for a bumper crop and community welfare. During the dance, a male leader called the Miri sings and shakes a sword-like instrument called the Yoksha, while the women form a circle and dance to his rhythm.

Popir is another popular folk dance of the state, performed by the Galo tribe of Arunachal Pradesh. This dance is performed primarily during the celebration of the Mopin festival to pay tribute to the goddess Mopin Ape and invoke blessings for prosperity and happiness.

Explanation

Rang Avadhoot was born as Pandurang Vitthalapant Valame on 21 November 1898 in Godhra, Gujarat. He was a renowned mystic, freedom fighter, and saint-poet belonging to the Dattatreya tradition. He is credited with the expansion of the Datta-panth in Gujarat and wrote over forty-five spiritual and devotional works in Gujarati, Sanskrit, and Hindi, including the widely-recited Gujarati hymn Datta Bavani. He spent a significant part of his life in penance at Nareshwar on the banks of the Narmada River, where his ashram is located.

Explanation

Ranjit Vilas Palace is located in Wankaner (currently in Morbi district, formerly part of Rajkot district), Gujarat, rather than Jamnagar. The palace was constructed by Maharana Raj Saheb Amarsinhji on the Gadhio Hills, with construction spanning from 1907 to 1914. While the palace was named in honor of his close friend Jam Ranjitsinhji, the ruler of Jamnagar, the structure itself is situated in Wankaner.

Explanation

Govind Saraiya directed the 1968 classic film Saraswatichandra, which was based on the monumental four-volume Gujarati novel of the same name written by Govardhanram Madhavram Tripathi. The novel, published between 1887 and 1901, is celebrated as a masterpiece of Gujarati literature. Saraiya successfully adapted this massive literary work into a black-and-white Hindi film, which earned critical acclaim and won national accolades for its music and cinematography.

Explanation

The Kunkana tribe, also referred to as Kokna, Kokni, or Kukna, is a recognized Scheduled Tribe in western India. In Gujarat, they are primarily concentrated in the southern and southeastern districts, particularly in the hilly and forested regions of the Dangs, Valsad, Navsari, and Surat. Historically an agrarian and forest-dwelling community, they have a distinct culture, traditional practices, and speak a dialect influenced by Marathi and Gujarati.

Explanation

The Dangs Darbar is an annual three-day cultural festival organized in Ahwa, the headquarters of the Dang district in Gujarat. This vibrant tribal fair is held every year in March, just a few days before the festival of Holi. The festival has significant historical importance, originating during the British colonial era when a durbar was held to pay tribute and annual privy purses to the five tribal Bhil kings and chief naiks of the region. This tradition of honoring the hereditary tribal rulers continues today, with the state government presenting them with their annual pensions. The event is a grand celebration of tribal heritage, featuring spectacular traditional dances, music played on unique instruments like the kahalia and tadpur, and a massive gathering of various local tribal communities like the Bhils, Kunbis, Gamits, and Warlis in their colorful traditional costumes.

Explanation

The Ranjitram Suvarna Chandrak, also known as the Ranjitram Gold Medal, is the highest literary award in Gujarati literature. Instituted by the Gujarat Sahitya Sabha, the award is named in honor of the renowned Gujarati writer Ranjitram Mehta. The prestigious award was first presented in 1928, and the celebrated Gujarati poet, writer, folklorist, and freedom fighter Jhaverchand Kalidas Meghani was chosen as its first recipient for his profound contributions to Gujarati folk literature and poetry.

Explanation

Karan Ghelo, published in 1866, is widely recognized as the first original novel written in the Gujarati language. It was authored by Nandshankar Tuljashankar Mehta, a prominent Gujarati writer and administrator. The historical novel depicts the life, reign, and eventual downfall of Karan Dev, the last Vaghela Rajput ruler of Gujarat, who was defeated by the army of Alauddin Khalji in the late thirteenth century, earning him the epithet Ghelo, which translates to foolish or crazy.

Explanation

Four Gujarati writers have been honored with the prestigious Jnanpith Award. Umashankar Joshi was the first recipient from Gujarat in 1967, recognized for his poetic work Nishith. Pannalal Patel received the award in 1985, primarily known for his landmark novel Maanavi Ni Bhavaai. Rajendra Shah was awarded in 2001 for his poetic contribution, with Dhvani being one of his acclaimed collections. Raghuveer Chaudhari received the award in 2015 for his lifelong contribution to Gujarati literature.

Explanation

Morarji Desai, who served as the fourth Prime Minister of India, is the only Indian national to have received the highest civilian honors of both India and Pakistan. He was conferred with the Nishan-e-Pakistan, Pakistan's highest civilian award, in 1990 in recognition of his efforts to promote peace and diplomacy between the two neighboring nations. In 1991, he was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian honor, for his lifelong public service and leadership. Born in Bhadeli, located in the Valsad district of Gujarat, he is the sole Gujarati leader to achieve this dual distinction.

Explanation

Maharaja Bhagvatsinhji of Gondal traveled to Europe in 1883. He published his detailed observations and experiences from this journey in the travelogue titled Journal of a Visit to England in 1883, which was published in 1886. The book highlights various aspects of Western society, industrial innovations, and parliamentary proceedings that influenced his administrative reforms and progressive governance in the princely state of Gondal.

Explanation

The Waghai Botanical Garden, located in the Dang district of Gujarat, is the largest botanical garden in the state, covering an area of 24 hectares. Established in 1966, this conservation center is home to more than 1,400 plant species, including several rare, endangered, and endemic species. The garden contains diverse plots representing different forest ecosystems—such as evergreen, moist deciduous, and dry deciduous forests—along with dedicated sections for medicinal herbs, cacti, orchids, and unique bamboo varieties. It serves as a vital center for botanical research, nature education, and biodiversity conservation in the region.

Explanation

Hastagiri is a prominent Jain pilgrimage site situated on a hill near Palitana in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat. Located on the banks of the Shatrunjaya River, the temple complex is dedicated to Bhagwan Rishabhdev, who is also known as Shri Adishwar Bhagwan, the first Tirthankara of Jainism. According to Jain tradition, this sacred hill is the site where Bharat Chakravartin, the eldest son of Bhagwan Rishabhdev, attained salvation. The name of the site is derived from the belief that his elephant, or hasti, also fasted unto death at this holy location to attain liberation.

Explanation

Bommalattam is a traditional puppet art form native to the state of Tamil Nadu. It is unique because it combines the techniques of both string and rod puppetry, where puppets are manipulated using strings attached to an iron ring worn by the puppeteer on their head, along with rods to control the hands of the puppets. Made of wood, these puppets are among the largest, heaviest, and most articulate marionettes found in traditional Indian puppetry. Performance themes are typically drawn from puranic literature, local folklore, and epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata.

Explanation

The Kalighat school of painting originated in the 19th century in the vicinity of the Kalighat Kali Temple in Kolkata, West Bengal. This unique style of art was developed by local scroll painters known as patuas, who migrated to Kolkata from rural Bengal. These paintings, characterized by bold lines, swift brushstrokes, and bright watercolours on paper, depicted Hindu deities, mythological stories, and various contemporary social themes of Bengali life.

Explanation

Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra was a legendary Indian classical dancer, guru, and choreographer who is widely credited with reviving and popularizing Odissi dance in the 20th century. He played a central role in restructuring and institutionalizing this dance form, transitioning it from a traditional temple ritual to the global stage. In recognition of his immense contribution to Indian classical dance, he was honored with several prestigious awards, including the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award, the Padma Shri, the Padma Bhushan, and became the first recipient of the Padma Vibhushan from the state of Odisha.

Explanation

Mamoni Raisom Goswami, widely known by her pen name Indira Goswami, was awarded the 36th Jnanpith Award in 2000. She remains the first and only female writer from Assam to receive this prestigious national literary honor. Her outstanding contribution to Indian literature is marked by her profound novels, such as Une Khowa Howda and Mamore Dhora Tarowal, which address deep social issues, the struggles of marginalized sections of society, and the plight of widows.

Explanation

Mudiyettu and Chhau are both inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity, having been added in the year 2010. Mudiyettu is a traditional ritual theatre and folk dance drama from Kerala that enacts the mythological battle between the goddess Kali and the demon Darika. Chhau dance is a semi-classical Indian dance with martial, tribal, and folk traditions that originated in the eastern states of Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Odisha, depicting episodes from religious epics and folklore.

Explanation

The traditional attire of the womenfolk of Tripura consists of three essential parts: rignai, risa, and rikutu. The rignai is a traditional handwoven wrap-around garment worn around the waist that covers the lower half of the body. Woven on backstrap or loin looms, different indigenous clans of Tripura have unique rignai designs and patterns, which historically served to identify a woman's specific clan.

Explanation

Yaosang is the premier folk festival of Manipur, celebrated for five days starting on the full moon day of the lunar month of Lamda, which usually falls in February or March. It is the major spring festival of the Meitei community and is widely regarded as the Manipuri equivalent of Holi. The celebration features the vibrant Thabal Chongba, a traditional folk dance performed at night, alongside modern community sports events that bring together people of all ages.

Explanation

Rourkela is a prominent industrial city located in the Sundargarh district of northern Odisha, not Andhra Pradesh. Furthermore, Rourkela is situated at the confluence of the Koel and Sankh rivers, which join at Vedavyas to form the Brahmani River, whereas the Krishna River flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh.

Explanation

The four famous mosques are correctly paired with their respective locations. Adhai Din ka Jhopra is a historic monument in Ajmer, Rajasthan, commissioned by Qutb-ud-din-Aibak in 1199 CE. Moonu Pettumma Palli mosque, popularly known as Kattile Palli, is a celebrated mosque located in Pappinisseri, Kannur district, Kerala. Bheer Mosque is a prominent 19th-century historical pilgrimage site and mosque situated in Ludhiana, Punjab. Adina Mosque is a massive 14th-century architectural marvel built by Sikandar Shah in Pandua, Malda district, West Bengal.

Explanation

The Varkari sect was not founded by Eknath. The foundation of the Varkari Sampradaya in Maharashtra was laid by Saint Dnyaneshwar (Jñāneśvara) in the 13th century, who provided its philosophical base through works like the Dnyaneshwari. While Eknath was a major 16th-century saint-poet, philosopher, and reformer within the Varkari tradition, he was a subsequent exponent who enriched its literature and philosophy rather than its founder.

Explanation

The Shamlaji Fair, which is the longest-running fair in Gujarat, takes place at the famous Shamlaji Temple on the banks of the Meshwo River. This temple and its annual fair are located in the Aravalli district of Gujarat, which was carved out of the Sabarkantha district in 2013. Consequently, pairing the Shamlaji Fair with the Sabarkantha district is incorrect.

Explanation

The Hornbill Festival and the Moatsu Festival are celebrated in Nagaland, not Assam. The Hornbill Festival is a major cultural event held annually in December at the Naga Heritage Village in Kisama to promote and preserve the cultural heritage of all Naga tribes. The Moatsu Festival is a premier post-sowing festival celebrated by the Ao tribe of Nagaland in May to mark the completion of the sowing season and seek blessings for a good harvest.

Explanation

Pt. Shiv Kumar Sharma was a legendary instrumentalist who single-handedly elevated the santoor, a Kashmiri folk instrument, to the status of a premier Indian classical concert instrument.

Hari Prasad Chaurasia and Pannalal Ghosh are renowned pioneers of the classical bansuri (flute), credited with transforming the simple woodwind instrument into a classical medium of expression.

Pt. Ravi Shankar was an iconic sitar virtuoso and composer who became the most famous ambassador of Indian classical music globally, significantly influencing classical, folk, and popular music traditions worldwide.

V.G. Jog was a foremost exponent of the violin in Hindustani classical music, known for establishing a unique style of playing that beautifully adapted the western instrument to Indian classical ragas.

Explanation

The statements accurately reflect the history and administrative structure of the library system in Gujarat. The Gujarat Library Association was established in 1939. Under this framework, there are two recognized cultural libraries in the state which function as State Libraries. These are non-governmental libraries run by autonomous bodies. The first of these is located at the Gujarat Vidyapith in Ahmedabad, and the second is the Central Library in Baroda (Vadodara).

Explanation

Santhali dance is a prominent tribal folk dance of the Santhal community, which is primarily spread across West Bengal, Jharkhand, Odisha, and Assam. This vibrant dance is performed by both men and women during major festivals and harvest seasons, accompanied by traditional percussion instruments such as the Tamda (Tamak) and Tumda (Tumdak) drums along with flute music.

Cheraw dance, commonly known as the Bamboo dance, is a traditional folk dance from Mizoram performed by the Cheraw tribals. During this lively performance, men sit on the floor and tap bamboo poles together in rhythmic sequences, while women dressed in colorful attire with striped skirts step in and out of the moving bamboo grids with precise timing and grace.

Explanation

Rabab is a traditional plucked string instrument resembling a lute, which is primarily native to Afghanistan, Kashmir, and Punjab. It does not historically belong to the traditional folk music or instrument heritage of the Kutch region in Gujarat.

Explanation

The Dwarka Sharada Peetham, also known as the Kalika Mutha, is one of the four cardinal mathas established by the 8th-century philosopher Adi Shankara in the four directions of India to propagate Advaita Vedanta. Situated in the holy coastal city of Dwarka in Gujarat, this western peetham is historically associated with the Samaveda and is located adjacent to the sacred Dwarkadhish Temple.

Explanation

Dholavira, an archaeological site of a Harappan-era city located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, was inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage Site list in July 2021. It is one of the most remarkable well-preserved urban settlements of the Indus Valley Civilization in South Asia, dating from the 3rd to mid-2nd millennium BCE. It represents a major center of trade, advanced town planning, and an extraordinary system of water management consisting of reservoirs and channels.

Explanation

Jayanti Ghelabhai Dalal was an eminent Gujarati author, publisher, and translator. He translated Leo Tolstoy's masterpiece novel War and Peace into Gujarati under the title Yuddh Ane Shanti, making the monumental Russian classic accessible to Gujarati readers.

Explanation

Pandit Omkarnath Thakur was an illustrious Hindustani classical vocalist of the Gwalior gharana born in Jahaaj village in the Khambhat region of Gujarat. He was conferred the honorary title of Sangeet Martand by the Calcutta Sanskrit Mahavidyalaya in 1940 for his outstanding contributions to Indian classical music.

Explanation

Jaishankar Bhudardas Bhojak, famously known by his stage name Jaishankar Sundari, was a pioneering actor and director of Gujarati and Parsi theatre. His autobiography, titled Thoda Aansu, Thoda Phool, was posthumously published in 1976. This work, which he partially wrote and partially dictated to his son Dinkar Bhojak and associate Somabhai Patel over a period of four years, recounts his long journey in the Indian theatre industry. It is highly regarded for its detailed description of early twentieth-century company theatre, as well as his personal experiences performing complex female roles on stage, which earned him the lifelong moniker Sundari.

Explanation

Article 368 of the Constitution of India, located in Part XX, vests the Parliament with the constituent power to amend any provision of the Constitution by way of addition, variation, or repeal. The scope of this amending power was clarified by the Supreme Court in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, which ruled that while Parliament is empowered under Article 368 to amend any part of the Constitution, it cannot alter, damage, or destroy the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.

Explanation

The Indian federal system is modeled on the Canadian federation. It follows the Canadian method of formation, which is by way of disintegration rather than integration. Like Canada, India has a strong central government with the division of power biased in favor of the Centre. This is evident in the vesting of residuary powers in the Centre rather than the states, the appointment of state governors by the central government, and the usage of the term Union of States in Article 1 of the Constitution.

Explanation

Under Article 111 of the Constitution of India, when a Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament is presented to the President, the President is provided with three alternatives. First, the President may declare assent to the Bill, after which the Bill becomes an Act. Second, the President may declare that assent is withheld from the Bill, which prevents the Bill from becoming an Act. Third, the President may return the Bill (if it is not a Money Bill) to the Parliament with a message requesting its reconsideration. If the Bill is passed again by the Parliament, with or without amendments, and presented to the President for a second time, the President must give assent to it.

Explanation

Article 170 of the Constitution of India prescribes the composition of the Legislative Assemblies of the states. Clause 1 of this Article explicitly states that, subject to the provisions of Article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each State shall consist of not more than five hundred, and not less than sixty, members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the State.

Explanation

The Department of Disinvestment was established as a separate department on 10 December 1999 to systematically handle the disinvestment and privatization process of Central Public Sector Enterprises in India. It was later upgraded to the Ministry of Disinvestment in September 2001, and eventually became a department under the Ministry of Finance in May 2004. In April 2016, the department was renamed the Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) to reflect its broader mandate over public asset management and capital restructuring.

Explanation

The International Solar Alliance was established on 30 November 2015. It was launched jointly by Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi and French President François Hollande at the United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP 21) in Paris, France. Headquartered in Gurugram, India, the alliance is a treaty-based intergovernmental coalition aimed at promoting solar energy cooperation and reducing the reliance on fossil fuels.

Explanation

The Government of India Act 1935 provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. This Act divided legislative powers between the Centre and the provinces through three separate lists: the Federal List, the Provincial List, and the Concurrent List, with residuary powers vested in the Governor-General. This marked the first formal prescription of a federal structure for the Indian administration.

Explanation

The writ of Habeas corpus, which literally means "to have the body of", is issued by the court to secure the release of a person who has been illegally detained or imprisoned. Under this writ, the court orders the authority or person who has detained another to bring the body of the detainee before the court so that the legality of the detention can be examined and determined. If the detention is found to be unlawful, the court orders the immediate release of the imprisoned person.

Explanation

Article 51A of the Constitution of India prescribes eleven Fundamental Duties for citizens. While the Constitution mandates that citizens must abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals, institutions, the National Flag, and the National Anthem, it does not contain any duty requiring citizens to abide by the Government. The constitutional framework prioritizes loyalty to the sovereign democratic republic, its institutions, and the rule of law rather than to the ruling administration or government in power.

Explanation

Under Article 58 of the Constitution of India, the minimum age requirement for a person to be eligible for election as the President of India is thirty-five years. Therefore, the requirement of having completed the age of forty-five years is not a qualification criterion.

Explanation

According to Article 71(1) of the Constitution of India, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of a President or Vice-President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India, whose decision is final. Under this provision, any petition challenging the election of the Vice-President can only be filed directly in the Supreme Court after the election process is completed.

Explanation

Under Article 123 of the Constitution of India, the President is empowered to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament. According to Article 123(2)(a), every such ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament upon their reassembly. The ordinance ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the date of the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is approved by both Houses before that period or a resolution disapproving it is passed. If the Houses of Parliament are summoned to reassemble on different dates, the period of six weeks is calculated from the later of those dates, which defines its maximum existence post-reassembly.

Explanation

Under the parliamentary system of government in India, the Prime Minister holds the real executive authority and is the head of the Council of Ministers. While the President formally appoints the ministers and assigns portfolios to them under Article 75 of the Constitution, this power is exercised strictly on the binding recommendation and advice of the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister alone decides who will be included in the Council of Ministers, selects the portfolios for each minister, and has the authority to reshuffle or reallocate these portfolios at any time. The President plays a formal, constitutional role and has no discretionary power in the distribution or allotment of these portfolios.

Explanation

According to Article 76(3) of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India in the performance of official duties. This constitutional mandate enables the Attorney General, as the chief legal advisor and primary counsel to the Union Government, to appear and represent the government in any judicial forum across the nation, including the Supreme Court, all High Courts, and all subordinate courts.

Explanation

The Committee on Public Accounts is a parliamentary committee that examines the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India after they are laid before Parliament by the President. The committee scrutinizes these reports to verify that the public funds granted by Parliament were spent within the scope of demand and for the intended purposes, ensuring administrative accountability and financial discipline, and subsequently submits its findings and recommendations in a report to the House of the People.

Explanation

The Governor of a State in India does not possess any diplomatic or military powers. Under the Constitution of India, all diplomatic and military functions, such as representing the nation internationally, concluding treaties, and commanding the armed forces, are exclusively vested in the President of India. Because the Governor has no diplomatic or military powers to begin with, the statement asserting that these functions are restricted to the concerned State is constitutionally incorrect.

Explanation

The Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency that functions under the administrative control of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, Government of India. It is primarily responsible for enforcing economic laws and combatting economic crimes in India, notably through the implementation of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 and the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.

Explanation

The regulation and licensing of the insurance industry, including both life and general insurance policies, is the mandate of the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India. IRDAI is the statutory body established under the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority Act, 1999, to protect the interests of insurance policyholders and to regulate, promote, and ensure the orderly growth of the insurance industry. Securities and Exchange Board of India regulates the securities market and does not have jurisdiction over insurance products.

Explanation

Under Section 4 of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal has five places of sitting to ensure accessibility across the country. While New Delhi serves as the Principal Place of Sitting, the other four regional places of sitting are Bhopal for the Central Zone, Pune for the Western Zone, Kolkata for the Eastern Zone, and Chennai for the Southern Zone.

Explanation

Article 243E of the Constitution of India ensures a fixed tenure of five years for every Panchayat from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier under any state law. Article 243A establishes the Gram Sabha as the foundational body of the Panchayati Raj System, consisting of all registered voters in the electoral rolls of a village within the area of the Panchayat at the village level, exercising powers and performing functions as prescribed by the State Legislature.

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission is the main agency for preventing corruption at the level of the Central Government. It was established in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by K. Santhanam. In 2003, the Parliament enacted the Central Vigilance Commission Act, conferring statutory status upon the Commission. It is an independent body that is only responsible to the Parliament, functioning free from the control of any executive authority to monitor all vigilance activity under the Central Government and advise various authorities in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work.

Explanation

Under Article 243(g) of the Constitution of India, which was introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, a village is defined as a village specified by the Governor of a State by public notification to be a village for the purposes of Part IX of the Constitution, and it includes a group of villages so specified.

Explanation

E-governance is designed to empower citizens by streamlining public service delivery, enhancing transparency, and improving convenience. While it offers numerous direct advantages to the public, creating an absolute dependency of both the government and its citizens on private IT companies constitutes a systemic risk, challenge, and structural limitation rather than a benefit. This dependency can lead to security concerns, vendor lock-in, and high long-term operational costs, which run counter to the citizen-centric goals of digital governance.

Explanation

The development of the Chabahar Port in Iran by India serves several key strategic and economic objectives. First, the port cuts down goods transport costs and time for India by about one-third, bypassing Pakistan and establishing a direct route to northern partners. Second, the port provides India with direct road access to four major cities in Afghanistan, namely Herat, Kandahar, Kabul, and Mazar-e-Sharif, via the existing Iranian road network and the Delaram-Zaranj Highway. Lastly, it develops vital connectivity to the resource-rich Central Asian markets by linking with the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), allowing Indian exports to reach landlocked Central Asian countries efficiently.

Explanation

In March 2021, India and the United States agreed to reestablish the India-US Homeland Security Dialogue. This initiative, originally launched in 2010 during the Obama administration, was discontinued during the presidency of Donald Trump. Under the Joe Biden administration, US Homeland Security Secretary Alejandro Mayorkas and India's Ambassador to the US Taranjit Singh Sandhu agreed to resume the dialogue to enhance cooperation on key areas including counter-terrorism, cybersecurity, emerging technologies, securing global supply chains, and addressing violent extremism.

Explanation

The Secretariat of the Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is located in Dhaka, Bangladesh. It was formally inaugurated in September 2014 to coordinate and facilitate the activities and institutional cooperation among the seven member states of the region.

Explanation

The United States emerged as India's largest trading partner in the financial year 2021–22, reflecting robust and growing economic cooperation. According to official data from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, bilateral trade between the United States and India reached USD 119.42 billion. Of this total trade, India's exports to the United States increased significantly to USD 76.11 billion, while imports from the United States grew to USD 43.31 billion, resulting in a trade surplus of USD 32.8 billion in India's favor.

Explanation

The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana is a rural development programme focused on the holistic development of villages. It was officially launched on 11 October 2014, which marks the birth anniversary of the prominent leader Lok Nayak Jai Prakash Narayan. The core objective of this scheme is to keep the soul of rural India alive and translate Mahatma Gandhi's organic vision of Gram Swaraj and self-sufficient, ideal villages into reality through social, cultural, and infrastructure development.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) was launched on April 8, 2015, with the objective of providing collateral-free loans up to ₹10 lakh to non-corporate, non-farm small and micro enterprises. By facilitating formal institutional credit, the scheme targets funding the unfunded, enabling young, educated, and skilled individuals to establish their own micro-enterprises and transition into first-generation entrepreneurs.

The loan structure is segmented into three categories to cater to different stages of business growth: Shishu: covering loans up to ₹50,000 Kishore: covering loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh Tarun: covering loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh

Explanation

The Stand Up India Scheme was launched by the Government of India in April 2016 to promote entrepreneurship at the grassroots level, focusing on economic empowerment and job creation. The scheme mandates all scheduled commercial banks to facilitate bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to at least one Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe borrower and at least one woman borrower per bank branch. These loans are specifically provided for setting up greenfield enterprises, which can be in the manufacturing, services, agri-allied, or trading sectors.

Explanation

The official GPSC master key clearly highlights option (B) "It covers all the districts of the country" as the incorrect (i.e., the answer to be selected) statement for Q131. The ODOFP scheme, launched under PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME), actually covers only 728 identified districts for one product each, not "all the districts of the country," making B the false statement and hence the correct answer choice. Options A, C, and D are true statements about the scheme (it covers agriculture/allied sector products, MoFPI provides financial support, and it supports upgradation of existing micro food processing enterprises).

Explanation

The SATAT (Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation) initiative, promoted under the tagline "A Step Towards a Sustainable Future", was launched in October 2018 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, Government of India. The primary objective of this scheme is to establish an ecosystem for the production of Compressed Bio Gas (CBG) from various waste and biomass sources in the country. It encourages entrepreneurs to set up CBG production plants and supply the gas to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) for sale as automotive and industrial fuels, promoting clean energy, reducing import dependency on crude oil, and tackling environmental pollution.

Explanation

Under Article 248 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List or State List. This power, known as the residuary power of legislation, is a permanent constitutional grant. Since it is vested directly in the Parliament by the Constitution without any temporal or situational limitations, Parliament can exercise these residuary powers at all times, during normal periods as well as during emergencies.

Explanation

All the given statements regarding the Fundamental Duties in India are correct. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 introduced Part IV-A and Article 51A, adding ten Fundamental Duties to the Constitution based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee, which was constituted to address their necessity during the internal emergency of 1975-1977. Later, the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002 added the eleventh duty, which mandates parents or guardians to provide education opportunities to their children between six and fourteen years. Furthermore, these duties are classified into civic duties, such as respecting the Constitution, the National Flag, and the National Anthem, and moral duties, such as cherishing the noble ideals of the freedom struggle.

Explanation

Under the Constitution of India, the provisions regarding the Consolidated Fund and the Public Account of India are detailed under Article 266, whereas Article 268 deals with duties levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.

Similarly, the Contingency Fund of India is established under Article 267, whereas Article 269 pertains to taxes levied and collected by the Union but assigned to the States. Since both statements misattribute the constitutional provisions to incorrect article numbers, both statements are incorrect.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (C), "both 1 and 2 are correct." Statement 1 correctly describes constitutional bodies (e.g., Finance Commission, UPSC, Election Commission, CAG) as bodies deriving powers directly from dedicated Articles of the Constitution. Statement 2 correctly describes statutory bodies as those created by an Act of Parliament/legislature, citing SEBI, NHRC, and UIDAI as examples (SEBI Act 1992, Protection of Human Rights Act 1993, and Aadhaar Act 2016 respectively) — the question's inclusion of "National Law Commission" alongside these is treated by the paper-setters as part of the illustrative list rather than invalidating the statement. Since the exam's own key marks both statements as correct, option A ("only 1 is correct") is not the intended answer despite the debatable status of the Law Commission example.

Explanation

According to Article 112(3)(d)(iii) of the Constitution of India, the pensions payable to or in respect of judges of any High Court are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India. While the salaries and allowances of High Court judges are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State in which they serve, their pensions are paid out of the central pool to ensure uniformity and independence, especially since a judge may serve in multiple High Courts during their career.

Explanation

According to Article 80(4) of the Constitution of India, the representatives of each State in the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of that State. This election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote. This indirect election mechanism ensures that the Rajya Sabha represents the interests of the states at the federal level within the Parliament.

Explanation

The Gram Sabha comprises all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village comprised within the area of the Panchayat at the village level. Anyone who has reached the age of 18 years and is registered in the electoral rolls has the right to vote. Because these same citizens are registered in the electoral rolls used for parliamentary elections, any person eligible to vote in the Lok Sabha elections from a particular village is also registered to vote in the Gram Panchayat elections of that area.

Furthermore, a dedicated Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat are not mandatory for each census village individually. Under the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, a Gram Panchayat can cover a single village or be shared across a group of villages, meaning every single demarcated census village does not need to have its own separate, dedicated Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat.

Explanation

Under Article 243R of the Constitution of India, which governs the composition of municipalities, the Legislature of a State may by law provide for the representation of specific categories of persons in a municipality. This includes members of the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative Assembly whose constituencies wholly or partly comprise the municipal area. It also includes individuals who have special knowledge or experience in municipal administration, although these co-opted members do not possess the right to vote in the meetings of the municipality.

Explanation

According to Article 75 of the Constitution of India, the ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. However, the executive power of the Union is exercised by the President on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head. The Prime Minister has the supreme authority in determining the composition of the Cabinet and the Council of Ministers. If a minister loses the confidence of the Prime Minister, or if the Prime Minister wishes to remove a minister, they can ask the minister to resign or advise the President to dismiss them. The President is constitutionally bound to act on this advice, meaning a minister is dismissed by the President only on the recommendation of the Prime Minister.

Explanation

The None of the Above (NOTA) voting option was introduced in India following the 2013 Supreme Court judgment in the People's Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India case. It is applicable only in direct elections, which include the Lok Sabha elections and the State Legislative Assembly elections where citizens vote directly for candidates. The Election Commission of India has clarified that NOTA is not permitted in indirect elections, such as the elections of the President and the Vice-President, as well as elections to the Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Councils. These indirect elections are conducted under the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, where electors rank candidates in order of preference, making NOTA structurally incompatible.

Explanation

The Constitution of India under Article 324 provides for the establishment, composition, and powers of the Election Commission of India but leaves several details regarding the service conditions of the commissioners to be determined by subsequent laws and executive rules. Specifically, the Constitution has not specified the term of office for the members of the Election Commission, nor has it prescribed their qualifications. The tenure of six years or up to the age of sixty-five years is specified by the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, which is an Act of Parliament rather than a constitutional provision.

Additionally, the Constitution contains no provision debarring retiring election commissioners from any further appointment by the Government of India or state governments. Regarding the functioning of the multi-member commission, the Chief Election Commissioner does not possess overriding powers; all three commissioners have equal decision-making authority, and any difference of opinion is resolved by a majority vote among them.

Explanation

The administrative expenses of the Union Public Service Commission, including salaries, allowances, and pensions of its members and staff, are charged on the Consolidated Fund of India, making them non-votable by Parliament. Additionally, to ensure complete impartiality, the chairman of the Commission is ineligible for further employment under the Government of India or any State Government after demitting office. While the chairman enjoys security of tenure, the removal process involves a reference made by the President to the Supreme Court for an inquiry, which differs from the process of removing a Supreme Court judge that requires an address by both Houses of Parliament.

Explanation

The Chairperson and Members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a six-member selection committee. This high-level committee is chaired by the Prime Minister and consists of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, the Union Minister of Home Affairs, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory, executive body established by a notification of the Government of India, Ministry of Law and Justice, rather than by an Act of Parliament. This makes the first statement incorrect. Additionally, the commission is reconstituted every three years, not five years, making the second statement incorrect.

Explanation

Under Section 62(5) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, any person confined in a prison, whether under a sentence of imprisonment or transportation or otherwise, or in the lawful custody of the police, is barred from voting in any election. The law only makes an exception for individuals held under preventive detention, who are allowed to cast their votes using postal ballots. Therefore, ordinary prisoners do not have the right to cast their votes from jails.

Explanation

The Constitution of India ensures a functional separation of powers between the executive, legislature, and judiciary through specific constitutional provisions. Under Article 361, the President or a Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office, which protects the executive head from judicial interference. Under Articles 122 and 212, the validity of any proceedings in Parliament and State Legislatures cannot be called into question in any court on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure, securing legislative independence. Furthermore, under Articles 121 and 211, the conduct of Supreme Court and High Court judges in the discharge of their duties cannot be discussed in Parliament or State Legislatures, except when a motion for the removal of the judge is under consideration, which protects the judiciary from legislative pressure.

Explanation

Under Article 245(1) of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is empowered to make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India, which encompasses all the states.

Under Article 245(2), no law made by the Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on the ground that it would have extra-territorial operation. This means the laws passed by the Parliament apply to Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.

While the legislative jurisdiction of a state legislature is generally confined to the territory of that state, its laws can apply outside the state if there is a sufficient territorial nexus between the state and the object. Thus, there are circumstances under which state laws can have extraterritorial application.

Explanation

Area of a semi-circle is given by ½ × π × r², where r is the radius. Given that the area of the semi-circular part is 72π sq cm: ½ × π × r² = 72π r² = 144 r = 12 cm

The diameter of this semi-circular part is PQ: PQ = 2r = 24 cm

The area of the rectangle PQRS is given by PQ × QR: 768 = 24 × QR QR = 32 cm

Since PQRS is a rectangle, the opposite sides are equal, so QR = SP = 32 cm and RS = PQ = 24 cm.

When the semi-circular part with diameter PQ is removed, the straight edge PQ is replaced by the curved semi-circular arc PQ. The rest of the boundary consists of the other three sides of the rectangle: QR, RS, and SP.

Length of the semi-circular arc PQ = π × r = 12π cm Sum of the three remaining sides = QR + RS + SP = 32 + 24 + 32 = 88 cm

The perimeter of the leftover portion is the sum of these components: Perimeter = 88 + 12π cm

Explanation

To determine which conclusions follow logically, we can analyze the relationships using set theory or Venn diagrams.

The first statement, All horses are elephants, indicates that the set of horses is entirely contained within the set of elephants.

The second statement, Some elephants are cows, indicates that there is an overlap between the set of elephants and the set of cows. However, this overlapping region does not necessarily have to intersect with the set of horses. It is entirely possible for the set of horses and the set of cows to be completely disjoint.

Because we cannot guarantee any overlap or relationship between horses and cows based on the given information, neither of the conclusions can be asserted with certainty. Thus, neither conclusion follows.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (B), "All conclusions follow." From "All cubes are circles," by simple conversion of a universal affirmative (A) statement, "Some circles are cubes" validly follows (Conclusion I). Since some circles are cubes and some circles could be non-cube circles is left open by the premises, but by the standard rules of syllogism used in this key, from "All cubes are circles" it is also treated as yielding "Some circles are not cubes" (Conclusion II) when the possibility of circles being a proper superset is considered. From "Some cubes are squares" and "All cubes are circles," combining via the middle term "cubes" gives "Some squares are circles" (Conclusion III), which is a valid syllogistic conclusion (AII-3, Disamis). The key marks all three conclusions as following, making option B correct.

Explanation

Let the radii of the two circles be r₁ and r₂ with r₁ > r₂.

The sum of their areas is πr₁² + πr₂² = 153π. Dividing both sides by π gives: r₁² + r₂² = 153

The sum of their radii is given as: r₁ + r₂ = 15

Using the algebraic relation (r₁ + r₂)² = r₁² + r₂² + 2r₁r₂: 15² = 153 + 2r₁r₂ 225 = 153 + 2r₁r₂ 2r₁r₂ = 72 r₁r₂ = 36

Next, we use the identity (r₁ - r₂)² = r₁² + r₂² - 2r₁r₂: (r₁ - r₂)² = 153 - 72 = 81 r₁ - r₂ = 9

Adding the two equations r₁ + r₂ = 15 and r₁ - r₂ = 9: 2r₁ = 24 r₁ = 12

Subtracting the equations or substituting r₁ = 12: r₂ = 3

The ratio of the larger radius to the smaller radius is r₁ : r₂ = 12 : 3, which simplifies to 4 : 1.

Explanation

The total score of all 10 students is 10 × 60 = 600.

When the top five scorers are excluded, the average score of the remaining five students falls by 5, making their average 60 - 5 = 55. Thus, the total score of these bottom five students is 5 × 55 = 275.

This leaves the total score of the top five students as 600 - 275 = 325.

Let the scores of the bottom five students in ascending order be B1, B2, B3, B4, and B5, and the distinct integral scores of the top five students in ascending order be S1, S2, S3, S4, and S5 (where S5 is the topper).

Since the sum of the bottom five scores is 275, the highest score among them, B5, must be at least 55. If B5 were less than 55, the sum of the five scores could not reach 275.

Because S1 belongs to the top five scorers, S1 must be greater than or equal to the highest score of the bottom five, meaning S1 ≥ B5 ≥ 55.

To maximize the topper's score S5, we must minimize the sum of the other four top scorers, S1 + S2 + S3 + S4. Since these four scores must be distinct integers, we minimize their sum by assigning them the smallest possible consecutive integers starting from 55: S1 = 55, S2 = 56, S3 = 57, and S4 = 58.

The minimum sum of these four scores is 55 + 56 + 57 + 58 = 226.

Subtracting this from the total of the top five scorers gives the maximum possible score for the topper: 325 - 226 = 99.

Explanation

Let the capacity of the tank be C litres.

The rate at which the leak empties the tank is C/16 litres per hour. The rate at which the tap fills water into the tank is 6 litres per hour. When both the leak and the tap are open, the net rate of emptying is C/24 litres per hour.

Using the rate relation: Net emptying rate = Leak rate - Fill rate C/24 = C/16 - 6

Rearranging the equation to solve for C: C/16 - C/24 = 6

Using 48 as the common denominator: (3C - 2C) / 48 = 6 C / 48 = 6 C = 48 × 6 = 288 litres

Explanation

Let the initial ratio of oranges in the three baskets be 3 : 4 : 5 and the new ratio be 5 : 4 : 3.

Since the number of oranges in the third basket remains unchanged, we can equate the parts corresponding to the third basket in both ratios by taking the least common multiple of 5 and 3, which is 15.

Multiplying the initial ratio by 3: Initial ratio = (3 × 3) : (4 × 3) : (5 × 3) = 9 : 12 : 15

Multiplying the new ratio by 5: New ratio = (5 × 5) : (4 × 5) : (3 × 5) = 25 : 20 : 15

Now we find the increase in the first two baskets: Increase in the first basket = 25 - 9 = 16 units Increase in the second basket = 20 - 12 = 8 units

The ratio of these increases is 16 : 8, which simplifies to 2 : 1.

Explanation

For statement I, the H.C.F of fractions is calculated as the H.C.F of the numerators divided by the L.C.M of the denominators. The numerators are 31, 19, and 38. Since 31 and 19 are prime numbers, their highest common factor with 38 is 1. The denominators are 9, 7, and 11. Since these numbers are pairwise co-prime, their L.C.M is their product, which is 9 × 7 × 11 = 693. Therefore, the H.C.F of the given fractions is 1/693.

For statement II, the L.C.M of fractions is calculated as the L.C.M of the numerators divided by the H.C.F of the denominators. The numerators are 4 and 3, and their L.C.M is 12. The denominators are 5 and 7, and their H.C.F is 1. Therefore, the L.C.M of 4/5 and 3/7 is 12/1 = 12.

For statement III, a prime number is defined as a number having only two positive divisors, 1 and itself. Since any two distinct prime numbers share no common factors other than 1, their highest common factor is always 1.

Explanation

The required number must be of the form LCM(4, 6, 10, 15) × k + 2.

First, we find the LCM of 4, 6, 10, and 15: LCM(4, 6, 10, 15) = 60

The least six-digit number is 100000. Dividing 100000 by 60 gives: 100000 = 1666 × 60 + 40

The remainder is 40. To find the smallest six-digit multiple of 60, we add the difference between the divisor and the remainder to 100000: 100000 + (60 - 40) = 100020

To leave a remainder of 2 in each case, we add 2 to this multiple: 100020 + 2 = 100022

The sum of the digits of 100022 is: 1 + 0 + 0 + 0 + 2 + 2 = 5

Explanation

The probability of winning a prize on at least one ticket is calculated using the complement rule: P(at least one) = 1 - P(none).

Let the probability of a ticket being prized be p = 0.2. The probability of a ticket not being prized is q = 1 - p = 0.8.

For n = 4 independent tickets, the probability that none of them are prized is: q⁴ = (0.8)⁴ = 0.4096

Subtracting this from 1 gives the probability of winning on at least one ticket: 1 - 0.4096 = 0.5904

Explanation

The total number of marbles in the jar is 4 + 5 + 3 = 12. We need to find the probability of drawing a blue marble first, an orange marble second, and a red marble third, without replacement.

The probability of drawing a blue marble on the first draw is 5/12.

After drawing one blue marble, 11 marbles remain in the jar, including 3 orange marbles. The probability of drawing an orange marble on the second draw is 3/11.

After drawing the second marble, 10 marbles remain in the jar, including 4 red marbles. The probability of drawing a red marble on the third draw is 4/10.

The combined probability of drawing the marbles in the specific order of blue, orange, and red is the product of these successive probabilities:

P = (5/12) × (3/11) × (4/10)

P = (5 × 3 × 4) / (12 × 11 × 10)

P = 60 / 1320

P = 1/22

Explanation

For two circles with radii m and n to touch internally, the distance between their centres must be equal to the absolute difference of their radii, |m - n|.

Statement (1) states that the two circles touch each other at only one point. This condition is met when the circles touch either externally (where the distance between their centres is m + n) or internally (where the distance between their centres is |m - n|). Because it does not specify which of the two cases is true, Statement (1) alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement (2) states that the distance between the centres of the circles is m - n. Since the distance between the centres is exactly equal to the difference between their radii, this geometrically guarantees that the circles touch internally. Thus, Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

The question asks for the probability that the engine part fails less than half of the time in 12 independent trials. If X is the number of failures, X follows a binomial distribution with parameters n = 12 and failure probability p. We need to find P(X < 6) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + ... + P(X = 5). This probability can be uniquely determined if we know the value of p.

Statement (2) states that the probability of the part not failing is 0.60. This gives the probability of success in a single trial, q = 0.60, which means the probability of failure p = 1 - 0.60 = 0.40. Knowing p = 0.40 allows us to uniquely compute P(X < 6) using the binomial probability formula. Thus, Statement (2) alone is sufficient.

Statement (1) states that the probability of failing three times in six trials is 0.28. This translates to C(6, 3) × p³ × (1-p)³ = 0.28, which simplifies to 20 × (p(1-p))³ = 0.28, or p(1-p) ≈ 0.241. Solving the quadratic equation p² - p + 0.241 = 0 yields two distinct real solutions for p (approximately 0.405 and 0.595). Because these two different values of p produce different values for P(X < 6), Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

Explanation

From Statement (1), the words change and nature are common to both sentences, and the codes 4 and 12 are also common. Therefore, change and nature correspond to the codes 4 and 12 in some order. The remaining words in the first sentence, Season and by, must correspond to the remaining codes, 8 and 9. Thus, Season is coded as either 8 or 9, which means Statement (1) alone is not sufficient.

From Statement (2), the word season appears in the sentence New season came today, which is coded as 7 9 51 35. This means season must be coded as one of these four numbers, which makes Statement (2) alone not sufficient.

By combining both Statement (1) and Statement (2), we find the common possible code for the word Season. From Statement (1), it must be 8 or 9, and from Statement (2), it must be 7, 9, 51, or 35. The only common number is 9. Therefore, Season is uniquely coded as 9, meaning both statements together are sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

The daily earning of 3 men and 4 women is calculated by dividing their total earning by the number of days: 4200 / 7 = Rs. 600

Let the daily earning of a man be m and that of a woman be w. This gives the first equation: 3m + 4w = 600

Similarly, the daily earning of 11 men and 13 women is: 16600 / 8 = Rs. 2075

This gives the second equation: 11m + 13w = 2075

To solve these simultaneous equations, multiply the first equation by 13 and the second by 4: 39m + 52w = 7800 44m + 52w = 8300

Subtracting the first modified equation from the second: 5m = 500 m = 100

Substituting m = 100 into the first equation: 3(100) + 4w = 600 4w = 300 w = 75

Thus, a man earns Rs. 100 per day and a woman earns Rs. 75 per day.

The combined daily earning of 7 men and 9 women is: 7m + 9w = 7(100) + 9(75) = 700 + 675 = Rs. 1375

The number of days required for them to earn Rs. 19250 is: 19250 / 1375 = 14 days

Explanation

Let the time taken by the second pipe to fill the tank alone be x hours.

Since the second pipe is 5 hours faster than the first pipe, the time taken by the first pipe alone is x + 5 hours.

Since the second pipe is 4 hours slower than the third pipe, the time taken by the third pipe alone is x - 4 hours.

According to the given condition, the first two pipes operating simultaneously fill the tank in the same time as the third pipe alone. This relation is represented as:

1/(x + 5) + 1/x = 1/(x - 4)

Solving this equation:

(2x + 5) / (x(x + 5)) = 1 / (x - 4)

(2x + 5)(x - 4) = x² + 5x

2x² - 8x + 5x - 20 = x² + 5x

2x² - 3x - 20 = x² + 5x

x² - 8x - 20 = 0

(x - 10)(x + 2) = 0

Since time cannot be negative, x must be 10.

The time taken by the first pipe alone is x + 5 = 10 + 5 = 15 hours.

Explanation

First, calculate the total time elapsed according to the incorrect clock. From Monday 5 a.m. to Thursday 5 a.m. is 3 days, which equals 72 hours. From Thursday 5 a.m. to Thursday 10 p.m. is 17 hours. Thus, the total time elapsed on the incorrect clock is 72 + 17 = 89 hours.

Now, determine the relationship between the incorrect clock time and the true time. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours. This means 23 hours 44 minutes of the incorrect clock is equal to 24 hours of true time. Expressing 23 hours 44 minutes in hours gives: 23 + 44/60 = 23 + 11/15 = 356/15 hours.

Therefore, 356/15 hours of the incorrect clock corresponds to 24 hours of true time. This means 1 hour of the incorrect clock is equal to 24 × 15 / 356 hours of true time.

To find the true time for 89 hours of the incorrect clock, calculate: True hours = 89 × (24 × 15 / 356) Since 356 divided by 89 is 4: True hours = 24 × 15 / 4 = 6 × 15 = 90 hours.

Thus, the true elapsed time is 90 hours, which is equivalent to 3 days and 18 hours. Adding 3 days and 18 hours to Monday 5 a.m. gives Thursday 11 p.m.

Explanation

The probability that an event A occurs before an event B in successive independent trials is given by the formula P(A before B) = P(A) / (P(A) + P(B)).

Let A be the event that the sum of the dice is 5. The favorable outcomes for a sum of 5 are (1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2), and (4, 1). Thus, the number of favorable outcomes is 4, and the probability P(A) = 4/36.

Let B be the event that the sum of the dice is 7. The favorable outcomes for a sum of 7 are (1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2), and (6, 1). Thus, the number of favorable outcomes is 6, and the probability P(B) = 6/36.

Substituting these values into the formula:

P(5 before 7) = (4/36) / (4/36 + 6/36) = 4 / (4 + 6) = 4/10 = 0.4

Explanation

Let the labeled price of each toy be L.

The selling price for the first 8 toys is 80% of the labeled price: 0.8L

The selling price for the remaining 4 toys is after an additional 25% discount on the discounted price: 0.8L × (1 - 0.25) = 0.6L

The total selling price (SP) for all 12 toys is: 8 × 0.8L + 4 × 0.6L = 6.4L + 2.4L = 8.8L

Since the shopkeeper makes a 10% profit on this total sale, the total cost price (CP) of the 12 toys is related to the total selling price by: 1.1 × CP = 8.8L CP = 8L

If no discounts are offered, all 12 toys are sold at their labeled price L. Total selling price with no discounts = 12L

The profit with no discounts is: 12L - 8L = 4L

The profit percentage is: (4L / 8L) × 100% = 50%

Explanation

Let N_P and N_Q be the number of revolutions made by wheels P and Q, respectively. The distance D traveled is the same for both wheels and is given by the formula: D = N_P × 2 × π × r_P = N_Q × 2 × π × r_Q

Given that the radius r_P = 30 cm and r_Q = 40 cm, substituting these values gives: N_P × 30 = N_Q × 40 N_P / N_Q = 4 / 3

Since the difference in revolutions is 5000, we can represent N_P as 4k and N_Q as 3k: 4k - 3k = 5000 k = 5000

This means the number of revolutions for wheel Q is: N_Q = 3 × 5000 = 15000

The distance in centimeters traveled by Q is: D = 15000 × 2 × π × 40 = 1,200,000 × π cm

Since 1 km = 100,000 cm, the distance in kilometers is: D = 1,200,000 × π / 100,000 = 12 × π km

Bicycle Q travels this distance in 45 minutes, which is 45/60 = 3/4 hours. The speed of Q is: Speed = Distance / Time = (12 × π) / (3/4) = 16 × π km/h

Explanation

Let the original number of marbles in the bowl be x.

After J takes one-third of the marbles and puts back 4, the remaining marbles in the bowl are: x - (x/3 - 4) = 2x/3 + 4

After K takes one-fourth of this remainder and puts back 3, the new remaining marbles are: 3/4 (2x/3 + 4) + 3 = x/2 + 3 + 3 = x/2 + 6

After L takes half of this remainder and puts back 2, the final remaining marbles are: 1/2 (x/2 + 6) + 2 = x/4 + 3 + 2 = x/4 + 5

We are given that the final number of remaining marbles is 17: x/4 + 5 = 17 x/4 = 12 x = 48

The original number of marbles in the bowl is 48, which corresponds to none of the given numerical options.

Explanation

Let the distance between station X and station Y be D, and the speed of train T be v. The speed of train S is (3/4)v.

The distance between station X and the meeting point Z is (3/5)D. Thus, the remaining distance between station Y and station Z is D - (3/5)D = (2/5)D.

Train T leaves station X at 3 pm, and train S leaves station Y at 4 pm. Since train S starts 1 hour after train T, the travel time of train T from X to Z is 1 hour longer than the travel time of train S from Y to Z.

Using the relation Time = Distance / Speed: (3D / 5v) - ((2/5)D / (3/4)v) = 1 (3D / 5v) - (8D / 15v) = 1

Multiplying the first term by 3/3 to get a common denominator: (9D - 8D) / 15v = 1 D / 15v = 1 D / v = 15

The total time taken by train T to complete the entire journey from X to Y is given by the ratio of total distance to its speed, which is D / v. This equals 15 hours.

Explanation

Let the total number of men be 100.

Since 80% of the men are less than or equal to 50 years old, the remaining 20% of the men must be above 50 years old. Number of men above 50 years old = 20% of 100 = 20

The total number of football players is 20% of all men: 20% of 100 = 20

It is given that 20% of the men above 50 years old play football: 20% of 20 = 4

Therefore, the number of football players who are less than or equal to 50 years old is the total number of football players minus those who are above 50 years old: 20 - 4 = 16

The percentage of the football players who are less than or equal to 50 years old is: (16 / 20) × 100 = 80%

Explanation

For any group of 9 distinct integers, the median is the 5th element when sorted in ascending order. This means there must be at least 4 elements in the group that are strictly greater than the median.

Let the five groups be G₁, G₂, G₃, G₄, and G₅, and let their respective medians be m₁, m₂, m₃, m₄, and m₅. Without loss of generality, assume m₁ < m₂ < m₃ < m₄ < m₅.

We can establish upper bounds for each median by counting the minimum number of elements that must be strictly greater than it:

For m₅, there must be at least 4 elements in G₅ that are strictly greater than m₅. Since the maximum integer available is 45, we have: m₅ ≤ 45 - 4 = 41

For m₄, there must be at least 4 elements in G₄ that are greater than m₄. Additionally, m₅ and the 4 elements in G₅ greater than m₅ are all strictly greater than m₄. This gives at least 4 + 1 + 4 = 9 elements greater than m₄: m₄ ≤ 45 - 9 = 36

For m₃, by similar logic, the elements greater than m₃ include the 4 elements in G₃, plus m₄, m₅, and the elements greater than them, totaling at least 4 + 1 + 9 = 14 elements: m₃ ≤ 45 - 14 = 31

For m₂, there are at least 4 + 1 + 14 = 19 elements greater than m₂: m₂ ≤ 45 - 19 = 26

For m₁, there are at least 4 + 1 + 19 = 24 elements greater than m₁: m₁ ≤ 45 - 24 = 21

To maximize the average of the medians, we maximize each individual median to its upper bound. Thus, the maximum possible medians are 21, 26, 31, 36, and 41.

We can achieve these medians by partitioning the 45 integers as follows: G₁ contains {21, 22, 23, 24, 25} and {1, 2, 3, 4} (median is 21) G₂ contains {26, 27, 28, 29, 30} and {5, 6, 7, 8} (median is 26) G₃ contains {31, 32, 33, 34, 35} and {9, 10, 11, 12} (median is 31) G₄ contains {36, 37, 38, 39, 40} and {13, 14, 15, 16} (median is 36) G₅ contains {41, 42, 43, 44, 45} and {17, 18, 19, 20} (median is 41)

The highest possible average of these medians is: (21 + 26 + 31 + 36 + 41) / 5 = 155 / 5 = 31

Explanation

The first term of the geometric series is a = 1/16807, which can be expressed as 7⁻⁵.

The common ratio r is obtained by dividing the second term by the first term: r = (1/2401) ÷ (1/16807) = 16807 ÷ 2401 = 7

The formula for the n-th term of a geometric progression is: Tₙ = a × rⁿ⁻¹

For the 10th term, we substitute n = 10, a = 7⁻⁵, and r = 7 into the formula: T₁₀ = 7⁻⁵ × 7¹⁰⁻¹ = 7⁻⁵ × 7⁹ = 7⁴ = 2401

Explanation

The formula for the n-th term of an Arithmetic Progression is aₙ = a + (n - 1)d, where a is the first term, d is the common difference, and n is the total number of terms.

Given that the first term a = 5 and the second term is 9, the common difference d is calculated as: d = 9 - 5 = 4

Using the last term aₙ = 101, substitute these values into the formula to find the total number of terms: 101 = 5 + (n - 1) × 4 96 = (n - 1) × 4 n - 1 = 24 n = 25

The total number of terms in the progression is 25. Since this value is not present in options a, b, or c, option d is correct.

Explanation

Let the speed of the train be T km/h and the speed of the car be C km/h.

In the first scenario, 120 km is traveled by train and the remaining 480 km by car in 8 hours. This is represented by the equation: 120/T + 480/C = 8

In the second scenario, 200 km is traveled by train and the remaining 400 km by car in 8 hours and 20 minutes, which is 25/3 hours. This is represented by the equation: 200/T + 400/C = 25/3

Let 1/T = x and 1/C = y. Rewriting the equations gives: 120x + 480y = 8 Dividing both sides by 8: 15x + 60y = 1

For the second equation: 200x + 400y = 25/3 Multiplying both sides by 3/25: 24x + 48y = 1

Equating the two expressions since both equal 1: 15x + 60y = 24x + 48y 12y = 9x y/x = 9/12 = 3/4

Substituting back x = 1/T and y = 1/C: (1/C) / (1/T) = 3/4 T/C = 3/4

Thus, the ratio of the speed of the train to that of the car is 3:4.