What is the biggest reason for migration in India as per Census 2011?
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Answer: (C) Marriage
Explanation
According to the 2011 Census of India, marriage is the leading reason for migration in the country, accounting for the largest share of total migrants. This phenomenon is heavily driven by female migration, as traditional post-marital residency practices in India typically require women to relocate to their husband's household or village after marriage. Out of the 45.36 crore migrants recorded in the 2011 Census, approximately 46% cited marriage as the primary reason for their migration, making it the single largest contributor to population movement in India.
2Science and Technology
What does a "Firewall" do?
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Answer: (B) Filters data coming and going in the network.
Explanation
A firewall acts as a protective barrier between a trusted internal network and an untrusted external network, such as the Internet. It monitors, inspects, and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on a defined set of security rules. By analyzing data packets, a firewall determines whether to allow or block them, thereby preventing unauthorized access and securing the network from external threats.
3Economy
Find a positive number which when multiplied by 2 and decreased by 10 is equal to 12 times the reciprocal of the number.
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Answer: (C) 6
Explanation
Let the positive number be x. According to the given condition, multiplying the number by 2 and decreasing it by 10 is equal to 12 times its reciprocal. This is represented by the equation:
2x - 10 = 12/x
Multiplying the entire equation by x to clear the fraction yields:
2x² - 10x = 12
Dividing the entire equation by 2 simplifies it to:
x² - 5x - 6 = 0
Factoring this quadratic equation gives:
(x - 6)(x + 1) = 0
This yields two solutions, x = 6 and x = -1. Since the question specifies that the number must be a positive number, we discard the negative root. Thus, the positive number is 6.
4History
The 'Komagata Maru' holds an irreplaceable place in the narrative of modern Indian history. This ship is primarily famous because
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Answer: (C) It carried Indian immigrants who were denied entry at a foreign port under strict immigration rules, resulting in a prolonged standoff and their forced return.
Explanation
The Komagata Maru incident of 1914 involved a Japanese steamship chartered by Gurdit Singh to transport 376 Indian passengers, mostly from Punjab, to Vancouver, Canada. Upon arrival, Canadian authorities denied the passengers entry, citing strict and discriminatory immigration rules such as the continuous journey regulation. This sparked a tense, two-month standoff in Vancouver harbor, after which the ship was forced to return to India. Upon its arrival at Budge Budge near Calcutta, the passengers clashed with the British police, resulting in the tragic shooting of twenty passengers. This historic event exposed the systemic racial discrimination faced by Indian immigrants and galvanized the Indian nationalist movement, particularly the Ghadar Party, against British colonial rule.
5Economy
Consider the following statements regarding OPEC grouping:
1. OPEC mainly influences global oil markets through export quotas instead of production targets.
2. The United Arab Emirates was the first country to withdraw from OPEC.
3. OPEC membership has always been confined only to countries in Asia and Africa whereas the OPEC + group allows membership from other continents as well.
How many of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because OPEC primarily regulates global oil markets by setting production targets (or production quotas) rather than export quotas. By adjusting the collective volume of crude oil produced by its members, it seeks to manage global price stability.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the United Arab Emirates was not the first country to withdraw from OPEC. Several countries had suspended or withdrawn their membership prior to the UAE, including Ecuador in 1992, Gabon in 1995, and Qatar in 2019.
Statement 3 is incorrect because OPEC membership has never been restricted only to countries in Asia and Africa. Venezuela, located in South America, is one of the five founding members of OPEC from 1960, and Ecuador has also held membership in the past.
6Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the constitutional position and discretionary powers of the Governor of a State:
1. The Governor can reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President if it endangers the powers of the High Court.
2. Recommending the imposition of President's Rule in a state is considered a discretionary power of the Governor.
3. The Governor cannot be held answerable in any court for official acts performed during their tenure.
4. It is a mandatory qualification written in the Constitution that the Governor 'must not be a resident of the concerned state'.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Under Article 200 of the Constitution, the Governor is constitutionally mandated to reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President if, in their opinion, the Bill would so derogate from the powers of the High Court as to endanger the position which that Court is designed to fill.
Under Article 356, recommending the imposition of President's Rule in a state is a discretionary power of the Governor, as it is done based on their independent assessment and is not subject to the aid and advice of the state Council of Ministers.
Under Article 361, the Governor enjoys immunity from legal proceedings and is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office or for any official acts performed during their tenure.
Under Article 157, the Constitution specifies only two qualifications for the appointment of a Governor: the person must be a citizen of India and must have completed the age of 35 years. The practice of appointing an outsider who does not belong to the concerned state is a political convention recommended by various committees, but it is not a mandatory qualification written in the Constitution.
7Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the distribution of ocean salinity:
1. The highest surface salinity in the open oceans is recorded precisely at the equator due to maximum year-round solar insolation.
2. In the Arctic Ocean, surface salinity fluctuates significantly across seasons due to the freezing and thawing of sea ice.
3. In high-latitude regions, the salinity of ocean water generally increases with depth, creating a distinct halocline layer.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
In the Arctic Ocean, surface salinity fluctuates significantly across seasons because the formation of sea ice in winter excludes salt through brine rejection, which increases salinity, while the melting and thawing of sea ice in summer introduces fresh water, which dilutes and decreases surface salinity.
In high-latitude regions, the surface waters have relatively low salinity due to low evaporation rates, high precipitation, and melting ice. With increasing depth, salinity increases as denser, saltier water sinks, creating a sharp vertical salinity gradient known as the halocline.
8EconomyGujarat-specific
______________ is defined as the measure in monetary terms of the volume of all goods and services produced within the geographical boundary of the State during a given period of time.
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Answer: (B) Gross state domestic product
Explanation
Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) is defined as the total monetary value of all goods and services produced within the geographical boundaries of a state during a specified period of time, usually a financial year. It is a key macroeconomic indicator used to measure the size, growth, and overall performance of a state's economy, serving as the provincial counterpart to a country's Gross Domestic Product (GDP).
9Economy
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding Renewable Energy Installed Capacity in India?
1. Wind energy is second only to solar energy in the Indian renewable sector.
2. Biomass power capacity accounts for around 30% of India's total renewable energy.
3. India ranks among the top three countries in the world in Hydropower Installed Capacity.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
In India, solar energy holds the largest share in the renewable energy sector with an installed capacity exceeding 150 GW, followed by wind energy which has an installed capacity of over 56 GW. This makes wind energy the second-largest source in India's renewable energy sector.
Biomass power (bioenergy) installed capacity is around 11.75 GW. Out of India's total renewable energy capacity of approximately 274 GW, biomass accounts for only about 4.3%, which is far below 30%.
Globally, India ranks fifth or sixth in installed hydroelectric capacity, trailing behind countries such as China, Brazil, Canada, and the United States, and therefore does not rank among the top three countries.
10Polity and Governance
To understand inclination of students towards various subjects, three students are asked to give their preference for three subjects: Mathematics, Science and History. Each student either preferred or did not prefer each subject. The following information is available for the selection:
- Two students selected History
- One student selected Science
- Two students selected Mathematics
- Student 1 does not select Mathematics and Science
- Student 2 selects subjects except Science
- Student 3 does not select History
Which of the following statements is true?
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Answer: (C) Student 2 selected Mathematics and History
Explanation
Let the subjects Mathematics, Science, and History be represented as M, S, and H respectively.
Based on the clue that Student 2 selects subjects except Science, Student 2 selects Mathematics and History, and does not select Science.
To verify the consistency of this selection with the remaining clues, we can determine the choices of all three students:
Student 1 does not select Mathematics and Science.
Student 3 does not select History.
Now, we calculate the totals for each subject:
For Mathematics, since the total selected must be 2, and Student 1 does not select it while Student 2 selects it, Student 3 must select Mathematics.
For History, since the total selected must be 2, and Student 3 does not select it while Student 2 selects it, Student 1 must select History.
For Science, since the total selected must be 1, and Student 1 and Student 2 both do not select it, Student 3 must select Science.
This completes the consistent preference profile:
Student 1 selects History.
Student 2 selects Mathematics and History.
Student 3 selects Mathematics and Science.
This confirms that Student 2 selects Mathematics and History.
11Polity and Governance
To understand inclination of students towards various subjects, three students are asked to give their preference for three subjects: Mathematics, Science and History. Each student either preferred or did not prefer each subject. The following information is available for the selection:
- Two students selected History
- One student selected Science
- Two students selected Mathematics
- Student 1 does not select Mathematics and Science
- Student 2 selects subjects except Science
- Student 3 does not select History
Which of the following statements is false?
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Answer: (A) Student 1 and Student 2 both selected Mathematics
Explanation
We can determine the subjects selected by each student by representing their preferences for Mathematics, Science, and History:
For Student 1, we are given that Mathematics and Science are not selected.
For Student 2, "except Science" means Mathematics and History are selected, while Science is not selected.
For Student 3, we are given that History is not selected.
Using the total counts for each subject:
Since total History selected is 2, and Student 3 did not select History (0) while Student 2 did (1), Student 1 must have selected History.
Since total Science selected is 1, and both Student 1 (0) and Student 2 (0) did not select Science, Student 3 must have selected Science.
Since total Mathematics selected is 2, and Student 1 did not select Mathematics (0) while Student 2 did (1), Student 3 must have selected Mathematics.
Therefore, Student 1 selected only History (and did not select Mathematics), whereas Student 2 selected Mathematics and History. This makes the statement that Student 1 and Student 2 both selected Mathematics false.
12History
Consider the following statements regarding the philosophical doctrines of Jainism and Buddhism:
Statement- 1: As part of their foundational philosophies, Jainism acknowledges the supremacy of the 'Yajurveda' for its ascetic practices, whereas Buddhism accepts the authority of the 'Samaveda' for its monastic chants.
Statement- 2: Buddhism advocates the 'Madhyam Marg', whereas Jainism propounds the doctrine of 'Anekantavada'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
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Answer: (D) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-2 is correct.
Explanation
Statement-1 is incorrect because both Jainism and Buddhism are heterodox (nastika) systems of Indian philosophy. A defining characteristic of heterodox schools is their explicit rejection of the authority of the Vedas, including the Yajurveda and the Samaveda. Their foundational philosophies and practices are derived from their own canonical texts rather than Vedic traditions.
Statement-2 is correct because Buddhism promotes the Madhyam Marg (Middle Path), which emphasizes a moderate way of living that avoids the extremes of both sensual indulgence and severe asceticism. On the other hand, Jainism propounds the metaphysical doctrine of Anekantavada, which asserts that truth and reality are complex and have multiple viewpoints, meaning no single perspective can capture the absolute truth.
13Economy
Following its official expansion, the BRICS grouping has undergone a significant geopolitical transformation. Which of the following statements best explains the most important strategic macroeconomic shift resulting from this expansion?
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Answer: (C) It significantly increased the grouping's influence over global energy markets by including major Middle Eastern petroleum-exporting countries.
Explanation
The official expansion of the BRICS grouping in January 2024 represents a major macroeconomic and geopolitical shift, particularly through its increased control over global commodities. By integrating major Middle Eastern petroleum-exporting nations, such as the United Arab Emirates (UAE) and Iran, alongside close participation from Saudi Arabia, the expanded BRICS bloc unites several of the world's leading fossil fuel producers with the world's largest energy consumers, such as China and India. Collectively, the expanded BRICS+ countries control over 40% of global crude oil production and a substantial share of global natural gas reserves. This consolidation of energy-exporting power significantly increases the grouping's influence and strategic leverage over global energy markets, resource supply chains, and international trade pricing dynamics.
14Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Basic Structure' doctrine of the Indian Constitution and judicial pronouncements:
1. The 'Basic Structure' doctrine was first propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case.
2. Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution under Article 368, but it must not affect the basic structure.
3. Judicial Review is not a part of the basic structure of the Constitution.
4. In the Minerva Mills case the court identified the balance between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles as a part of the basic structure.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case in 1973 is the landmark judgment wherein a 13-judge bench of the Supreme Court of India first propounded the Basic Structure doctrine. The court ruled that although Parliament has the power to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, under Article 368, this amending power is not absolute and cannot be used to damage, emasculate, or alter the basic structure or essential framework of the Constitution.
In the Minerva Mills v. Union of India case in 1980, the Supreme Court struck down portions of the 42nd Amendment and specifically held that the Indian Constitution is founded on the bedrock of the balance between Fundamental Rights in Part III and Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV. The court identified this harmonious relation and balance as an essential feature of the basic structure of the Constitution.
15Geography
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The annual range of temperature is significantly greater in the Northern Hemisphere than in the Southern Hemisphere at equivalent latitudes.
Statement 2: The Northern Hemisphere has a vastly larger proportion of landmass compared to the Southern Hemisphere, leading to intense differential heating and cooling.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
Explanation
Land has a much lower specific heat capacity than water, meaning it heats up and cools down far more rapidly and to a greater extent than oceans. Because the Northern Hemisphere contains the vast majority of the Earth's landmass, whereas the Southern Hemisphere is predominantly water-covered, the continental effect is heavily pronounced in the north. At equivalent latitudes, especially in the sub-polar and temperate zones, this unequal distribution of land and sea causes the Northern Hemisphere to experience highly intense seasonal differential heating and cooling, resulting in a significantly larger annual range of temperature compared to the ocean-dominated Southern Hemisphere.
16Economy
Which of the statement/s given below is/are correct?
1. Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) refers to the Reserve Bank's operations through which it injects/absorbs liquidity into/from the banking system.
2. Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is the penal rate at which banks can lend, on an overnight basis, from the Reserve Bank.
3. Unlike LAF, MSF can be obtained without pledging any collateral securities by the bank.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) is the primary framework through which the Reserve Bank of India manages short-term liquidity mismatches by injecting or absorbing liquidity from the banking system. This makes Statement 1 correct.
Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a window for scheduled commercial banks to borrow overnight funds from the central bank in times of emergency. It is a borrowing facility, not a lending facility for banks, which makes Statement 2 incorrect.
Under MSF, banks must pledge government securities as collateral. Although they are allowed to dip into their Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) portfolio up to a certain limit to obtain these funds, it is a collateralised borrowing facility and cannot be accessed without pledging securities. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.
17Science and Technology
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about India's nuclear energy programme?
1. India's three-stage nuclear programme is centered on plutonium-based fast breeder reactors.
2. The thorium-based Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) is the main component of India's third stage.
3. Kaiga Atomic Power Station houses India's first Indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR).
Select the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
India's three-stage nuclear energy programme, conceived by Homi J. Bhabha, is designed to progressively build the capacity to utilize the country's vast thorium reserves.
The second stage is centered on plutonium-based fast breeder reactors (FBRs). These reactors use plutonium-239 recovered from the first stage to breed more plutonium and transmute thorium into fissile uranium-233, making this technology the crucial bridge of the entire three-stage cycle.
The third stage is designed to utilize thorium, and the Advanced Heavy Water Reactor (AHWR) developed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Centre (BARC) serves as the flagship and main component of this stage. The AHWR is designed to run on thorium-uranium-233 mixed oxide fuel.
The Madras Atomic Power Station (MAPS) at Kalpakkam in Tamil Nadu, which achieved criticality in the 1980s, houses India's first fully indigenous Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor (PHWR). Kaiga Atomic Power Station in Karnataka was commissioned much later, in 2000.
18Economy
Arithmetic mean of 6 values is 4. If number 5 is found as incorrect value in series and replaced with correct number as 17, then what will be the mean of new data series?
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Answer: (B) 6
Explanation
The arithmetic mean is defined by the formula:
Mean = Sum of observations / Number of observations
Using the initial values, the sum of the original six observations is:
Sum = 6 × 4 = 24
When the incorrect value 5 is replaced with the correct value 17, the sum of the observations becomes:
New Sum = 24 - 5 + 17 = 36
Since the total number of observations remains 6, the mean of the new data series is:
New Mean = 36 / 6 = 6
19Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Ellora:
1. Ellora is a unique art-historical site because it features caves belonging to three religions: Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism.
2. The Kailash temple at Ellora was constructed by assembling large, finely cut stone blocks brought from distant quarries.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1
Explanation
Ellora is a globally renowned archaeological site in Maharashtra containing rock-cut caves that represent three major Indian religions: Buddhism (caves 1 to 12), Hinduism (caves 13 to 29), and Jainism (caves 30 to 34), reflecting the spirit of religious tolerance in ancient India. The magnificent Kailash temple in Cave 16 is a monolithic structure excavated out of a single basalt cliff-face from top to bottom, rather than being constructed by assembling cut stone blocks transported from external quarries.
20Polity and Governance
With reference to demographic data collection and the preparations for the upcoming decadal Census scheduled for 2027, consider the following statements:
1. Following recent statutory amendments mandating digital birth certificates, the Civil Registration System (CRS) for recording vital events falls under the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution.
2. The Houselisting and Housing Census provides comprehensive data on the conditions of human settlements and housing deficits to be taken care of in the formulation of housing policies.
3. The Mother Tongue Survey project surveys the mother tongues which are recorded consistently across two and more Census decades.
How many of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
The Civil Registration System for recording vital events, including the registration of births and deaths, falls under Entry 30 of the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, rather than the Union List.
The Houselisting and Housing Census is conducted as the first phase of the decadal census operations. It is designed to list all buildings and structures, providing essential data on the conditions of human settlements, housing deficits, and household amenities to guide the formulation of public housing policies and developmental plans.
The Mother Tongue Survey of India is a project implemented by the Ministry of Home Affairs. It specifically conducts surveys on mother tongues that are returned consistently by respondents across two or more Census decades, documenting and preserving their linguistic features.
21Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Gram Sabha' and reservation provisions in Panchayati Raj Institutions:
1. Gram Sabha is the foundational unit of the Panchayati Raj system, consisting of all adult voters of the village.
2. In Panchayat, it is mandatory to reserve seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in proportion to their population.
3. Reserving the post of Chairperson for women in Panchayats depends on the discretion of the State Government; it is not mandatory.
4. It is constitutionally mandatory to hold new elections before the five-year term of the Panchayats expires.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Under Article 243A, the Gram Sabha is established as the foundational body of the Panchayati Raj system, comprising all persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village area, which represents all adult voters of the village. This makes Statement 1 correct.
Article 243D(1) of the Constitution mandates the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in every Panchayat, in proportion to their population relative to the total population in that Panchayat area, making Statement 2 correct.
Article 243D(4) mandates that the offices of Chairperson in Panchayats at each level be reserved for women in such a manner as the State Legislature may by law provide, but the reservation itself — not less than one-third of the total number of such offices — is constitutionally mandatory and not left to the discretion of the State Government on whether to reserve at all. Hence Statement 3, which claims reservation of the Chairperson post for women is purely discretionary and not mandatory, is incorrect.
Article 243E(3) of the Constitution mandates that an election to constitute a Panchayat must be completed before the expiry of its five-year duration, ensuring that new elections are held before the term ends, which makes Statement 4 correct.
Thus, Statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct, while Statement 3 is incorrect, making option A the right answer.
22Geography
Consider the following pairs of Air Mass classifications and their dominant characteristics:
Air Mass - Characteristics
1. Maritime Tropical (mT) - Warm, moist, unstable
2. Continental Polar (cP) - Cold, dry, stable
3. Continental Tropical (cT) - Cold, moist, unstable
4. Maritime Polar (mP) - Cool, dry, unstable
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Maritime Tropical (mT) air masses originate over warm tropical and subtropical oceans. Consequently, they are characterized by warm temperatures, high moisture content, and a general tendency toward instability, which can lead to precipitation.
Continental Polar (cP) air masses develop over extensive high-latitude land areas such as northern Canada and Siberia. Because they form over cold, dry land, they are characterized by cold temperatures, very low humidity, and high atmospheric stability due to the dense, sinking cold air.
These two classifications are correctly described, making exactly two of the four pairs correctly matched.
23Economy
Which of the below is/are considered as legal tender in India?
1. Fiat money
2. Demand deposits
3. Cheques drawn on savings or current accounts.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Fiat money refers to currency issued by a government or central bank that has no intrinsic value but is declared by a government decree to be legal tender. In India, paper currency notes and metallic coins are fiat money, and they are recognized by law as a valid means to settle any debt or financial obligation, meaning a creditor is legally obligated to accept them in settlement of claims.
Conversely, demand deposits and cheques drawn on savings or current accounts represent bank money or fiduciary money. Their acceptance is based on trust and mutual agreement rather than any legal compulsion. Since any merchant or creditor can legally refuse a cheque or demand deposit as a mode of payment, they do not qualify as legal tender.
24Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding the factors affecting glycemic index:
1. If the amount of fiber in a food is high, the glycemic index can be reduced.
2. If the food is processed further, its glycemic index can be increased.
3. Fat in food always speeds up the absorption of glucose.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
High fiber content in food, particularly soluble fiber, slows down the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates, which helps in reducing the glycemic index. Food processing, such as grinding, refining, or cooking, disrupts the natural physical structure of the food and breaks down complex carbohydrates, making them easier to digest and rapidly absorbable, which increases the glycemic index. Fat and protein do not speed up glucose absorption; instead, they delay gastric emptying and slow down the overall rate of carbohydrate digestion and glucose absorption, which lowers the glycemic index of the meal.
25Economy
The largest number of three digits which is divisible by 3, 5, 7 and 9 is
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Answer: (D) 945
Explanation
To find the largest three-digit number divisible by 3, 5, 7, and 9, we first find the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of these numbers.
The prime factorization of the numbers is:
3 = 3
5 = 5
7 = 7
9 = 3²
The LCM is calculated by taking the highest power of each prime factor involved:
LCM(3, 5, 7, 9) = 3² × 5 × 7 = 9 × 5 × 7 = 315
Any number divisible by 3, 5, 7, and 9 must be a multiple of their LCM, which is 315.
The largest three-digit number is 999. Dividing 999 by 315 gives:
999 ÷ 315 = 3 with a remainder of 54
Multiplying the LCM by the quotient 3 gives the largest three-digit multiple:
315 × 3 = 945
26Art and Culture
Consider the following statements regarding the architectural and sculptural traditions of the Mauryan period:
1. Drawing structural inspiration from the Achaemenian empire, the stone pillars of the Mauryan period were constructed in multiple pieces by highly skilled masons.
2. Lomas Rishi Cave, located in the Barabar Hills, is associated with Jainism.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The stone pillars of the Mauryan period were monolithic, meaning they were carved from a single colossal piece of stone, typically Chunar sandstone. This is a key structural difference from the Achaemenian pillars, which were built in multiple segments or drums joined together.
The Lomas Rishi Cave in the Barabar Hills of Bihar was patronized by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka for the Ajivika sect, a heterodox school of philosophy contemporary to Buddhism and Jainism, rather than being associated with Jainism.
27GeographyGujarat-specific
The 'Great Indian Bustard (GIB)' (Ghorad) is frequently seen in the news in the context of wildlife conservation efforts in western India. Consider the following statements regarding this species:
1. Currently, the highest surviving wild population of the Great Indian Bustard in India is located in the semi-arid grasslands of Gujarat.
2. It is a long-distance migratory bird that travels from Central Asia to the Indian subcontinent to escape harsh winters.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The highest surviving wild population of the Great Indian Bustard is located in the state of Rajasthan, particularly in the dry grasslands and scrublands of the Desert National Park in Jaisalmer. Rajasthan holds the vast majority of the remaining wild individuals of this species, while the population in Gujarat is extremely small.
The Great Indian Bustard is a terrestrial bird endemic to the Indian subcontinent. It is not a long-distance migratory bird from Central Asia; instead, it is a resident species that makes only local, seasonal movements within its regional range in search of suitable feeding and breeding grounds.
28Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and types of 'Writs':
1. The writ of 'Mandamus' can also be issued against private individuals.
2. Through the writ of 'Quo warranto', the court can ask by what authority a person holds an office.
3. The writ of 'Prohibition' can be issued only against judicial or quasi-judicial authorities.
4. The Supreme Court can issue writs only for fundamental rights, whereas High Courts can issue writs for other rights as well.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The writ of Quo-warranto, which literally means "by what authority or warrant", is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office, preventing illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.
The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it does not possess. This writ can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities, and is not available against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private individuals.
Under Article 32, the Supreme Court can issue writs only for the enforcement of fundamental rights, whereas under Article 226, High Courts can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for other legal rights, making the writ jurisdiction of High Courts broader in scope.
The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or private body; it is a command issued to a public official, public body, corporation, inferior court, tribunal, or government to perform a public duty.
29Geography
Consider the following pairs:
Tree Species - Associated Forest Type
1. Rosewood (Dalbergia latifolia) - Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests
2. Teak (Tectona grandis) - Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests
3. Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) - Tropical Thorn Forests
4. Sundari (Heritiera fomes) - Littoral and Swamp Forests
5. Deodar (Cedrus deodara) - Mountainous Sub-Tropical Broad-leaves Forests
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Rosewood (Dalbergia latifolia) is a major species found in Tropical Wet Evergreen and Semi-Evergreen forests, which thrive in areas with very high rainfall and warm temperatures.
Teak (Tectona grandis) is the dominant and highly representative tree species of Tropical Moist Deciduous forests, which are widespread in areas receiving 100 to 200 cm of annual rainfall.
Khejri (Prosopis cineraria) is a hardy, drought-tolerant species characteristic of the arid and semi-arid areas belonging to Tropical Thorn forests.
Sundari (Heritiera fomes) is the defining mangrove tree species of Littoral and Swamp forests, notably abundant in the Sundarbans region.
Deodar (Cedrus deodara) is a coniferous tree specifically associated with the Montane Wet Temperate forests of the Western Himalayas, rather than Sub-Tropical Broad-leaved forests.
30Economy
Consider the following statements:
1. Bank run is a situation which occurs when a large number of depositors start withdrawing their money from bank at the same time which leads to bank failure
2. Bank rate is the interest rate charged by the RBI for short-term loans that it gives to the commercial banks
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
A bank run is a financial crisis that occurs when a large number of customers simultaneously withdraw their deposits from a financial institution due to fears of the bank's insolvency. Since banks operate on a fractional-reserve system and keep only a small portion of deposits as cash, sudden mass withdrawals can quickly exhaust the bank's liquid reserves, leading to actual default or bank failure.
Bank rate is the interest rate charged by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) for providing long-term loans and advances to commercial banks without any collateral. In contrast, short-term lending by the RBI to commercial banks against collateral is conducted at the Repo rate. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect as it describes the Repo rate rather than the Bank rate.
31Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding the scientific aspects of vacuum packing:
1. Humidity has no effect in vacuum packing.
2. Oxidation reactions slow down due to the reduced oxygen content in vacuum packing.
3. Some anaerobic microorganisms can grow even in vacuum conditions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
Vacuum packaging involves removing air from the package before sealing. Humidity and moisture levels have a significant effect on vacuum packing. High relative humidity or moisture content in the product can hinder the sealing process by preventing proper thermal fusion of the packaging material, and it can also facilitate rapid microbial spoilage. Thus, humidity is a critical factor in vacuum packaging.
Oxidation is a chemical reaction that requires oxygen. By evacuating air and reducing the oxygen concentration inside the packaging, oxidative reactions that cause rancidity, discoloration, and nutrient degradation in food products are drastically slowed down.
While vacuum packaging inhibits the growth of aerobic bacteria, it does not achieve sterilization. Certain anaerobic microorganisms, such as Clostridium botulinum, do not require oxygen to grow and can multiply under vacuum conditions if other factors like moisture and temperature are favorable.
32Economy
Working at the equal rate, 5 employees can complete a total of 150 tasks in a year. How many tasks could 12 employees can complete in 3 years?
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Answer: (A) 1080
Explanation
The formula relating work, number of workers, and time is W₁ / (E₁ × T₁) = W₂ / (E₂ × T₂), where W is the number of tasks, E is the number of employees, and T is the time in years.
Consider the following statements regarding the decorative art technique known as 'Pietra Dura':
1. It is a technique where precisely cut and polished colored stones are inlaid into a stone base to create elaborate images or geometric patterns.
2. The use of this technique is exclusively limited to Islamic architecture.
3. The Taj Mahal is renowned for its extensive and exquisite use of Pietra Dura, particularly in its floral motifs.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Pietra dura is a decorative art technique where highly polished, precisely cut colored semi-precious stones, such as jasper, lapis lazuli, and jade, are inlaid into a stone base, typically marble or sandstone, to create intricate pictorial or geometric designs. This technique reached its peak of artistic expression in Mughal India during the reign of Shah Jahan. The Taj Mahal is globally renowned for its extensive and exquisite use of this inlay work, particularly in the highly detailed, lifelike floral motifs and arabesques that decorate its white marble walls and cenotaphs.
34Polity and Governance
With reference to the Supreme Court's landmark judgment in the Harish Rana vs. Union of India case, consider the following statements regarding euthanasia in India:
1. The fundamental right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution encompasses dignity until death, consequently including the right to die with dignity.
2. While the law permits the withdrawal of life-support systems under strict medical guidelines, the deliberate administration of lethal substances to accelerate a patient's death remains a criminal offense.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India, in the case of Harish Rana vs. Union of India (2026), allowed passive euthanasia by permitting the withdrawal of life-support treatments for a patient in a permanent vegetative state. This marked the first practical application of the guidelines established in the Common Cause (2018) judgment.
The ruling reaffirmed that the fundamental right to live with dignity under Article 21 of the Constitution of India extends to the end of life, which encompasses the right to die with dignity. The court clarified that allowing the natural process of death to occur by withdrawing medical treatment does not violate Article 21.
Additionally, the legal framework in India differentiates between active and passive euthanasia. While passive euthanasia is permitted under strict medical guidelines, active euthanasia, involving the deliberate administration of lethal substances to hasten death, remains illegal and a criminal offense under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita.
35Polity and Governance
Examine the following statements regarding 'Article 311' of the Constitution and protection granted to Civil Servants:
1. No civil servant shall be dismissed by an authority subordinate to the one by which they were appointed.
2. No officer shall be removed without informing them of the charges and giving them an opportunity for inquiry.
3. In the interest of national security, the President or Governor can remove an officer without an inquiry.
4. This protection is available only to All India Services officers and not to state service officers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Article 311 of the Constitution of India provides safeguards to civil servants against arbitrary dismissal, removal, or reduction in rank.
Article 311(1) states that no civil servant can be dismissed or removed by an authority subordinate to the one by which they were appointed, ensuring administrative security.
Article 311(2) mandates that no civil servant shall be dismissed, removed, or reduced in rank except after an inquiry in which they have been informed of the charges against them and given a reasonable opportunity of being heard in respect of those charges.
Article 311(2)(c) provides an exception where the requirement of an inquiry can be bypassed if the President or the Governor, as the case may be, is satisfied that in the interest of the security of the State, it is not expedient to hold such an inquiry.
These constitutional protections extend to all persons who are members of a civil service of the Union, an All-India Service, a civil service of a State, or holders of a civil post under the Union or a State. Thus, this protection is available to both Union and State service officers.
36Geography
Which of the following mountain passes is/are located in the Zaskar Range of the Himalayas and historically served as a critical trade route connecting the Kashmir Valley with the cold desert of Ladakh?
1. Zoji La
2. Shipki La
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Zoji La is a high-altitude mountain pass situated in the western Himalayan region, often identified with the transition zone of the Zaskar Range and the Great Himalayas. Historically and strategically, Zoji La has served as a critical trade and transit route that links the Kashmir Valley via Sonamarg to the cold desert region of Ladakh, continuing on to Dras, Kargil, and Leh.
Shipki La is located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh along the India-Tibet border. It is the pass through which the Sutlej River enters India from Tibet, and does not connect the Kashmir Valley with Ladakh. Therefore, only the first statement is correct.
37Economy
As per the Union Budget 2025-26, arrange the following sources of government revenue in descending order of their share in the government's total receipts:
1. GST and other taxes
2. Borrowing and other liabilities
3. Income Tax
4. Corporation Tax
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) 2-3-1-4
Explanation
According to the Union Budget 2025-26, the share of the listed sources of government revenue in the total receipts is distributed as follows:
Borrowings and other liabilities contribute the highest share at 24% of the total receipts. This is followed by Income Tax, which accounts for 22% of the total receipts. Goods and Services Tax (GST) and other taxes contribute 18% of the total receipts. Lastly, Corporation Tax contributes 17% of the total revenue.
Arranging these sources in descending order based on their percentage share yields Borrowings and other liabilities (2), Income Tax (3), GST and other taxes (1), and Corporation Tax (4), resulting in the sequence 2-3-1-4.
38Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the comparison of PNG (Piped Natural Gas) and LPG (Liquefied Petroleum Gas):
1. PNG is lighter than air and therefore spreads upwards in case of leakage, whereas LPG is heavier than air and therefore collects near the ground.
2. PNG always provides more energy per unit weight than LPG.
3. The pressure of PNG is generally lower than that of LPG.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
PNG consists primarily of methane, which is lighter than air. In the event of a leak, it disperses quickly upwards into the atmosphere. Conversely, LPG is composed of heavier hydrocarbons like propane and butane, which are heavier than air and tend to accumulate near the ground.
LPG has a higher calorific value (approximately 46 to 51 MJ/kg) compared to commercial PNG (typically 38 to 48 MJ/kg). This means LPG provides more energy per unit weight than PNG.
PNG is delivered to household stoves at a very low pressure of about 21 millibar. On the other hand, LPG is stored in cylinders at high pressures of 5 to 7 bar and delivered to burners at about 30 millibar, meaning PNG operates under lower pressure than LPG.
39Economy
In a company, there are 200 employees. 40% of them are in marketing, 30% in IT and rest are in production department. In IT department, 40% are female and in production department 30% are female. 20% male from IT department are working part time, 70% male from marketing department are working full time and 5% male from production department are working part time.
What is the total number of female employees?
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Answer: (B) 42
Explanation
The total number of employees in the company is 200.
The number of employees in the IT department is 30% of 200, which equals 60. Since 40% of the IT department are female, the number of female employees in IT is 40% of 60, which equals 24.
The number of employees in the marketing department is 40% of 200, which equals 80.
The remaining employees are in the production department, which is 200 - 80 - 60 = 60 employees. Since 30% of the production department are female, the number of female employees in production is 30% of 60, which equals 18.
Since no female ratio is specified for the marketing department, the number of female employees in marketing is 0.
Therefore, the total number of female employees in the company is 24 + 18 = 42.
40Economy
In a company, there are 200 employees. 40% of them are in marketing, 30% in IT and rest are in production department. In IT department, 40% are female and in production department 30% are female. 20% male from IT department are working part time, 70% male from marketing department are working full time and 5% male from production department are working part time.
What is the total number of male employees working in full time mode?
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Answer: (C) 125
Explanation
The total number of employees in the company is 200. We can first calculate the number of employees in each department:
Marketing department: 40% of 200 = 80 employees
IT department: 30% of 200 = 60 employees
Production department: 200 - 80 - 60 = 60 employees
Next, we determine the gender distribution and full-time status for each department.
For the IT department:
Total employees = 60
Females = 40% of 60 = 24
Males = 60 - 24 = 36
Part-time males = 20% of 36 = 7.2 ≈ 7
Full-time males = 36 - 7 = 29
For the Production department:
Total employees = 60
Females = 30% of 60 = 18
Males = 60 - 18 = 42
Part-time males = 5% of 42 = 2.1 ≈ 2
Full-time males = 42 - 2 = 40
For the Marketing department:
Since no female percentage is specified, we consider all employees to be male:
Males = 80
Full-time males = 70% of 80 = 56
Summing up the full-time male employees from all departments:
Total full-time males = 56 + 29 + 40 = 125
41Art and Culture
"During the Indus Valley Civilisation, artisans practiced a highly specialized method for metal casting. In this process, figures were first modelled from a specific material and then covered with a coating of clay and allowed to dry. The coated figure was then heated and the molten inner material was drained out through a tiny hole made in the clay cover. The hollow mould thus created was filled with molten metal, which took the original shape of the object. Once the metal cooled, the clay cover was completely removed. The famous bronze statue of the 'Dancing Girl' from Mohenjodaro was crafted using this exact method"
What is the name of the technique described in the passage above?
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Answer: (B) Lost wax technique
Explanation
The lost wax technique, also known as cire perdue, is an ancient metallurgical casting process where a duplicate metal sculpture is cast from an original sculpture made of wax. In this method, the artisan first sculpts a model from beeswax, which is then coated with layers of clay. Once the clay dries, the entire structure is heated. The heat melts the inner wax model, which is then drained out through a small hole at the bottom. Molten metal, typically bronze, is poured into the hollow clay mold to fill the exact space previously occupied by the wax. After the metal cools and solidifies, the clay cover is broken away to reveal the finished metal object. This highly sophisticated metal-casting method was widely used during the Indus Valley Civilisation to create intricate statues, most famously the bronze Dancing Girl discovered at Mohenjodaro.
42Economy
Recent global conflicts have underscored the critical importance of maintaining domestic Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR). With reference to India's SPR programme, consider the following statements:
1. Under Phase-I of the SPR programme, underground rock caverns for storing crude oil have been established exclusively on the western coast of India to minimize transit time from the Middle East.
2. The Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle created by the Government of India specifically to build and operate these strategic crude oil storage facilities.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
Indian Strategic Petroleum Reserves Limited (ISPRL) is a Special Purpose Vehicle created by the Government of India under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas to build, maintain, and operate the strategic crude oil reserves. Under Phase-I of the strategic petroleum reserve programme, three underground rock cavern facilities were constructed with a total capacity of 5.33 million metric tonnes. These facilities are located at Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh on the eastern coast, and Mangalore and Padur in Karnataka on the western coast. Because Vishakhapatnam is located on the eastern coast, the Phase-I facilities are not located exclusively on the western coast.
43Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the role of institutions in the formulation and implementation of 'Public Policy' in India:
1. The Cabinet Secretariat works directly under the leadership of the Prime Minister and is the main center of policy coordination.
2. The 'Governing Council' of NITI Aayog has completely replaced the National Development Council.
3. Private sector experts are involved in government policy formulation through 'Lateral Entry'.
4. Parliamentary Standing Committees conduct detailed examinations of ministries' policies and expenditures.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister of India, who is its political head. It is responsible for the administration of the Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules, 1961 and the Government of India (Transaction of Business) Rules, 1961, ensuring smooth inter-ministerial coordination and consensus in policy-making.
The system of lateral entry allows the recruitment of private-sector professionals, academics, and specialists into the civil services at mid-to-senior levels, such as Joint Secretaries, Directors, and Deputy Secretaries. This integrates specialized expertise and contemporary domain knowledge directly into government policy formulation.
Departmentally Related Standing Committees of the Parliament perform critical legislative oversight by conducting detailed examinations of the draft policies, bills, and annual budgetary allocations and expenditures of various ministries, ensuring executive accountability to the legislature.
Although the Governing Council of NITI Aayog performs similar functions of cooperative federalism, the National Development Council has not been officially or formally abolished through any executive resolution, meaning it has not been completely replaced.
44GeographyGujarat-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the drainage system of Kutch:
1. Most rivers in the Kutch region are ephemeral and non-perennial, carrying water only during the brief monsoon season.
2. The rivers originating from the central hilly tracts of Kutch invariably drain into the Arabian Sea directly.
3. The Luni River, after traversing through Rajasthan, dissipates into the marshy lands of the Rann of Kutch.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
The Kutch region in Gujarat experiences an arid to semi-arid climate, which makes its drainage network highly seasonal. Most of the rivers in this region are ephemeral and non-perennial, carrying water only during the brief southwest monsoon season before drying up.
The central highland of Kutch serves as a major water divide. The rivers originating from these central hilly tracts flow in two different directions. The north-flowing rivers drain into the Great Rann of Kutch, whereas the south-flowing rivers drain into the Gulf of Kutch and the Arabian Sea. Since a significant number of these rivers empty into the landlocked Rann of Kutch, they do not invariably drain directly into the Arabian Sea.
The Luni River is the largest river in the Thar Desert region. It originates in the Pushkar Valley of the Aravalli Range in Rajasthan, flows southwest through the state, and finally terminates by dissipating into the marshy lands of the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat.
45Economy
Which one of the following was not a feature of Indian economy under the British rule?
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Answer: (D) Working population in agriculture decreased considerably
Explanation
During the British colonial rule, the proportion of the working population dependent on agriculture actually increased rather than decreased. This trend of progressive ruralization, often referred to as de-industrialization, was driven by the systematic decline of traditional Indian handicraft and textile industries due to competition from cheap, machine-made British imports. With no corresponding growth in modern domestic industries to absorb the displaced workforce, millions of artisans and weavers were forced to return to land for sustenance. Consequently, the share of the workforce engaged in the agricultural sector rose to nearly 70% to 75% by the end of colonial rule, intensifying the population pressure on agricultural land.
46Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding the process of measuring blood pressure:
1. The arm should be kept below the level of the heart while measuring blood pressure.
2. Systolic pressure is always higher than diastolic.
3. Blood pressure can change at different times during the day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
To obtain an accurate blood pressure measurement, the patient's arm must be supported at the level of the heart. If the arm is positioned below heart level, gravity causes hydrostatic pressure to increase, resulting in a falsely elevated reading. If positioned above heart level, the reading will be underestimated.
Systolic pressure measures the force that the heart exerts on the arterial walls while beating (during ventricular contraction), whereas diastolic pressure measures the force when the heart rests between beats (during ventricular relaxation). Therefore, systolic pressure is always higher than diastolic pressure.
Blood pressure is dynamic and undergoes natural fluctuations throughout the day. It typically follows a circadian rhythm, being lowest during sleep, rising upon waking, and shifting in response to factors like stress, physical activity, meals, and temperature.
47Economy
A price of a commodity is increased by 25% , then decreased by 20% . What will be the net percentage change in the price?
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Answer: (D) No change
Explanation
For successive percentage changes of a% and b%, the net percentage change is given by the formula:
Net percentage change = a + b + (a × b)/100
Here, the price is first increased by 25% (a = +25) and then decreased by 20% (b = -20).
Substituting these values into the formula:
Net percentage change = 25 - 20 + (25 × (-20))/100
Net percentage change = 5 - 500/100
Net percentage change = 5 - 5 = 0%
Alternatively, if the initial price is assumed to be 100:
After a 25% increase, the price becomes 125.
After a 20% decrease on 125, the reduction is 20% of 125, which is 25.
The final price is 125 - 25 = 100.
Since the final price equals the initial price, the net change is 0%.
48History
Consider the following statements regarding the Noakhali riots that occurred during the partition of India:
1. Noakhali is a town located in the Sindh province of undivided India, which witnessed severe communal violence in 1946-47.
2. 'Frontier Gandhi' Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan played a pivotal role in walking through the affected villages to pacify the communal sentiments of the people.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Noakhali is a district located in the Chittagong Division of Bengal (present-day Bangladesh), rather than the Sindh province. The region witnessed severe communal violence in October and November 1946. Mahatma Gandhi, rather than Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, famously toured the riot-affected villages of Noakhali on foot to restore communal harmony and peace. Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, known as Frontier Gandhi, was primarily active in the North-West Frontier Province during this period.
49History
With reference to the Commonwealth Games (CWG), consider the following statements:
1. The 2030 edition in Ahmedabad is officially recognized as the 'Centenary Games'.
2. Traditionally, China has dominated the Commonwealth Games by consistently topping the medal tally with the highest number of total medals.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: the 2030 Commonwealth Games in Ahmedabad mark the 100th anniversary of the Games (first held in 1930), and are officially designated the Centenary Games. Statement 2 is incorrect: China is not a member of the Commonwealth and does not participate in the Commonwealth Games; Australia and England have historically dominated the medal tally, not China. Hence only statement 1 is correct, making option (A) the correct answer.
50Polity and Governance
Examine the following statements regarding the powers and jurisdiction of the 'National Human Rights Commission' (NHRC):
1. The Commission has direct power to punish for human rights violations or award compensation to victims.
2. The Commission can only investigate incidents that occurred within one year.
3. The Commission can request a report from the Central Government in cases of human rights violations by armed forces.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993, governs the powers and jurisdiction of the National Human Rights Commission.
Under Section 36 of the Act, the Commission is barred from inquiring into any matter after the expiry of one year from the date on which the act constituting the violation of human rights is committed. This establishes a strict one-year limitation period for investigating incidents.
Under Section 19 of the Act, a special procedure is laid down for dealing with human rights violations by members of the armed forces. Under this provision, the Commission cannot conduct an independent investigation on its own, but it can, either on its own motion or on receipt of a petition, seek a report from the Central Government.
The Commission functions as a recommendatory body. It does not have the power to enforce its decisions, directly punish any violators of human rights, or directly award compensation to the victims. It can only make recommendations to the concerned government or authority to initiate prosecution or grant relief.
51GeographyGujarat-specific
Consider the following pairs of mineral resources and their prominent mining districts/regions in Gujarat:
Mineral - Associated Region
1. Bauxite - Devbhumi Dwarka
2. Lignite - Panandhro (Kutch)
3. Limestone - Porbandar
4. Chalk (Porbandar Stone) - Junagadh
Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Pair 1 is correctly matched because Devbhumi Dwarka, particularly the Kalyanpur region, is a prominent hub for high-grade bauxite mining in Gujarat.
Pair 2 is correctly matched as Panandhro, situated in the Lakhpat region of Kutch, is home to one of the most well-known and historically significant open-cast lignite mines operated by the Gujarat Mineral Development Corporation.
Pair 3 is correctly matched since Porbandar is highly renowned for its vast deposits of superior chemical and cement-grade limestone.
Pair 4 is correctly matched because chalk, which is closely related to the soft, fine-grained miliolite limestone popularly known as Porbandar Stone, occurs across the coastal geologic formations of the Saurashtra region, extending into the Junagadh district.
52Geography
Consider the following statements with respect to urbanization in India:
1. The percentage increase in urban population has been consistently greater than the percentage increase in rural population for all decades since 1911
2. Urbanization process has got concentrated over time in large cities and developed regions, particularly during the period of last two decades
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The decadal percentage growth rate of India's urban population has consistently exceeded that of the rural population for every decade starting from 1911-1921. For instance, in the 1911-1921 decade, the rural population experienced negative growth while the urban population continued to grow. This trend of faster urban percentage growth has persisted through all subsequent decades up to 2011.
Urbanization in India has shown a high degree of spatial concentration, with urban population growth disproportionately concentrated in Class I cities, million-plus urban agglomerations, and economically advanced states. This trend has intensified over the last two decades, driven by globalization and economic reforms that have favored metropolitan areas and developed regions with stronger infrastructure, municipal finance, and credit ratings.
53Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the technical aspects of ethanol blending:
1. E20 means a blend of 20% ethanol by weight in petrol.
2. Higher ethanol blends may require modifications to the vehicle engine.
3. Ethanol has a lower energy value than petrol.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
Ethanol-gasoline blends are designated by the letter E followed by the percentage of ethanol by volume, not by weight. Therefore, E20 refers to a blend of 20% ethanol by volume in 80% petrol.
Higher blends of ethanol can be highly corrosive to certain metals, elastomers, and plastic components found in standard automotive fuel systems. Additionally, ethanol has different combustion characteristics and stoichiometry compared to petrol. Consequently, utilizing higher ethanol blends requires modifications to the vehicle engine, fuel delivery systems, and engine control units to ensure compatibility and performance.
Ethanol also has a lower energy density than petrol. The energy value of ethanol is roughly two-thirds (about 33% less) of the energy value of pure petrol per unit volume. This lower energy content results in reduced fuel economy as more fuel must be burned to produce the same amount of work.
54Science and Technology
Different alphabets stands for various symbols as indicated below:
'+' : O, '-' : M, 'x' : A, '÷' : Q, '=' : X, '>' : Y, '<' : Z
Out of the following four alternatives, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct answer.
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Answer: (A) 2 Z 2 A 4 O 1 A 4 M 8
Explanation
Substituting the letter symbols with their corresponding mathematical operators yields:
Z is <
A is ×
O is +
M is -
Applying these symbols to the expression in option a:
2 < 2 × 4 + 1 × 4 - 8
According to the BODMAS rule, perform the multiplication operations first:
2 × 4 = 8
1 × 4 = 4
Substitute these values back into the inequality:
2 < 8 + 4 - 8
2 < 4
Since 2 is less than 4, the statement is mathematically correct.
55Science and Technology
Different alphabets stands for various symbols as indicated below:
'+' : O, '-' : M, 'x' : A, '÷' : Q, '=' : X, '>' : Y, '<' : Z
Out of the following four alternatives, only one is correct according to the above letter symbols. Identify the correct answer.
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Answer: (B) 2 Q 1 O 10 A 1 Z 6 A 4
Explanation
Substituting the given letters with their corresponding mathematical symbols in the expression 2 Q 1 O 10 A 1 Z 6 A 4 yields:
2 ÷ 1 + 10 × 1 < 6 × 4
Evaluating the left-hand side of the expression using the BODMAS rule:
First, perform the division: 2 ÷ 1 = 2
Next, perform the multiplication: 10 × 1 = 10
Then, perform the addition: 2 + 10 = 12
Evaluating the right-hand side of the expression:
Multiply: 6 × 4 = 24
Comparing the two sides shows that 12 < 24 is mathematically true.
56History
Consider the following statements regarding the eminent Gandhian leader and social reformer, Acharya Vinoba Bhave:
1. He is known for the 'Bhoodan Movement', which aimed to bring about voluntary land reform by persuading wealthy landowners to donate a portion of their land to the landless.
2. He served as the President of the Indian National Congress during the historic transition of India's independence.
3. He was chosen by Mahatma Gandhi as the first 'Individual Satyagrahi' to protest against India's involvement in the Second World War.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Acharya Vinoba Bhave initiated the Bhoodan Movement in 1951 at Pochampally, Telangana, aiming to bring about voluntary land reform by persuading affluent landowners to donate a percentage of their land to landless farmers. In October 1940, Mahatma Gandhi chose Vinoba Bhave as the very first Individual Satyagrahi to protest against the British government dragging India into World War II without the consent of its people. The Indian National Congress was led by Acharya J.B. Kripalani during the period of India's transition to independence in 1947, not by Vinoba Bhave.
57Polity and Governance
With reference to the 16ᵗʰ Finance Commission (FC) and its recommendations, consider the following statements:
1. The Finance Commission is a quasi-judicial body whose recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes are legally binding on the Union Government.
2. The Commission has introduced 'contribution to GDP' as a criterion for horizontal devolution, replacing the earlier tax and fiscal effort parameter.
3. Revenue deficit grants, sector-specific grants and state-specific grants have been continued to ensure the fiscal stability of weaker states.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
The official GPSC answer key highlights option (C) "Only 1 and 3" as correct for this "which statements are incorrect" question. Statement 1 is incorrect because Finance Commission recommendations under Article 280 are advisory/recommendatory, not legally binding on the Union Government. Statement 3 is incorrect because the 16th Finance Commission has actually rationalized/discontinued several revenue deficit, sector-specific, and state-specific grants rather than continuing them all to ensure fiscal stability. Statement 2 is correct, as the 16th FC introduced 'contribution to GDP' as a new horizontal devolution criterion, replacing the earlier tax and fiscal effort parameter, so only statements 1 and 3 are incorrect, making (C) the right choice.
58Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the posts of 'Attorney General' and 'Solicitor General' of India:
1. The Attorney General is the chief legal advisor to the Government of India and is appointed by the President.
2. The Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of both Houses of Parliament, but cannot vote.
3. The post of 'Solicitor General' is a constitutional post like that of the Attorney General.
4. The Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
Under Article 76 of the Constitution of India, the Attorney General is appointed by the President and serves as the chief legal advisor to the Government of India. Article 76(4) specifies that the Attorney General holds office during the pleasure of the President.
According to Article 88 of the Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which they may be named a member, but they are not entitled to vote in these proceedings.
The office of the Attorney General is a constitutional office created directly by Article 76 of the Constitution. In contrast, the post of Solicitor General of India is a statutory post rather than a constitutional one. The Solicitor General is appointed to assist the Attorney General in fulfilling their duties, and the office is governed by executive and statutory rules.
59Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the winter atmospheric circulation over India:
1. Western Disturbances are shallow cyclonic depressions originating over the eastern Mediterranean Sea and traveling eastward across the Middle East.
2. The steering mechanism that brings these Western Disturbances to the Indian subcontinent is the Tropical Easterly Jet Stream.
3. The precipitation brought by these disturbances is highly beneficial for the Rabi crops in the northwestern plains of India.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Western Disturbances are shallow cyclonic depressions that originate over the eastern Mediterranean Sea and travel eastward across West Asia and the Middle East. They are steered towards India by the subtropical westerly jet stream, which flows south of the Himalayas during the winter season. The winter precipitation associated with these disturbances is highly beneficial for the growth of Rabi crops, such as wheat, in the northwestern plains of India.
60Economy
Consider the following statements about domestic capital formation:
1. Domestic capital formation depends on domestic saving and capital inflow
2. The rate of domestic capital formation in India is estimated as a percentage of GDP
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Gross Domestic Capital Formation refers to the net addition to the physical capital stock of an economy during an accounting year.
The first statement is correct because capital formation or investment is financed through two primary sources: domestic savings generated by households, private corporations, and the government, and net capital inflows from the rest of the world in the form of foreign investments, loans, and other capital transfers.
The second statement is correct because the rate of domestic capital formation in India is officially calculated and expressed as a percentage of the Gross Domestic Product at current and constant prices by the National Statistical Office. This ratio represents the investment rate of the country, reflecting how much of the total economic output is being directed toward creating productive assets rather than being consumed.
61Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding electrochemical corrosion:
1. The presence of moisture or electrolyte can accelerate the corrosion process.
2. The purer the metal, the greater the chance of corrosion.
3. Galvanic corrosion can occur when two dissimilar metals are in contact with each other.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Electrochemical corrosion is an electrochemical process that involves the transfer of electrons and ions.
The presence of moisture or an electrolyte acts as a conductive medium that facilitates the movement of ions between anodic and cathodic regions, which completes the electrical circuit and accelerates the rate of corrosion.
Conversely, extremely pure metals have a highly homogeneous structure with negligible impurities. Impurities in metals act as tiny cathodic or anodic sites that establish localized galvanic cells on the surface. Because a purer metal lacks these heterogeneous sites to form local cells, it is significantly more resistant to corrosion.
Galvanic corrosion takes place when two dissimilar metals with different electrochemical potentials are in physical or electrical contact in the presence of an electrolyte. This potential difference drives an electric current, causing the more active metal to act as an anode and corrode rapidly while protecting the more noble metal.
62Polity and Governance
Given below is a question followed by two statements I and II. Read both the statements carefully to decide which one of them is sufficient to answer the question.
Six people - K, M, N, P, Q and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. Who sits to the immediate right of K?
Statement-I: K sits third to the left of M. Only one person sits between K and N. R sits to the immediate left of N.
Statement-II: K sits second to the right of Q. Only two people sit between K and M. P sits second to the left of R.
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Answer: (B) Either data in Statement I or Statement II is sufficient to answer the question.
Explanation
To determine who sits to the immediate right of K, let us analyze each statement individually. For a circular table facing the centre, clockwise movement represents the left direction, and counter-clockwise movement represents the right direction.
Using Statement-I:
Let M be seated at the 12 o'clock position. Since K sits third to the left of M, K is seated opposite M at the 6 o'clock position.
Only one person sits between K and N, which means N can be at either the 2 o'clock or 10 o'clock position.
R sits to the immediate left of N. Since left is clockwise:
If N is at 2 o'clock, R is at 4 o'clock.
If N is at 10 o'clock, R would have to be at 12 o'clock, but that position is already occupied by M. This case is eliminated.
Thus, N is at 2 o'clock and R is at 4 o'clock. The immediate right (counter-clockwise) of K at 6 o'clock is 4 o'clock, where R sits.
Hence, Statement-I alone is sufficient.
Using Statement-II:
Let Q be seated at the 12 o'clock position. K sits second to the right of Q, placing K at the 8 o'clock position.
Since only two people sit between K and M in a six-person arrangement, M must sit opposite K, which is at the 2 o'clock position.
P sits second to the left of R, meaning P is two positions clockwise from R. The remaining available positions are 10 o'clock, 6 o'clock, and 4 o'clock.
If R is at 10 o'clock, P would be at 2 o'clock, which is occupied by M.
If R is at 4 o'clock, P would be at 8 o'clock, which is occupied by K.
Thus, R must be at 6 o'clock, which places P at 10 o'clock and the remaining person N at 4 o'clock.
The immediate right (counter-clockwise) of K at 8 o'clock is 6 o'clock, where R sits.
Hence, Statement-II alone is also sufficient.
Since both statements independently yield the unique answer that R sits to the immediate right of K, either statement alone is sufficient.
63Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Consider the following prominent works of Gujarati literature:
1. Saapna Bhara (सापना बारा)
2. Dhwani (ध्वनी)
3. Malela Jeev (मळेला जीव)
4. Amrita (अमृता)
What is the common characteristic shared by all the literary works listed above?
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Answer: (C) All of these books are written by authors who have been honoured with the prestigious 'Jnanpith Award'.
Explanation
The listed literary works are written by the four celebrated Gujarati authors who have been honoured with the Jnanpith Award, India's highest literary award.
Saapna Bhara is a collection of realist one-act plays written by Umashankar Joshi, who received the Jnanpith Award in 1967.
Dhwani is an acclaimed poetry collection by Rajendra Shah, who was honoured with the Jnanpith Award in 2001.
Malela Jeev is a classic rural novel authored by Pannalal Patel, who received the Jnanpith Award in 1985.
Amrita is a landmark modern novel written by Raghuveer Chaudhari, who was awarded the Jnanpith Award in 2015.
64Polity and Governance
With reference to the four new 'Labour Codes' enacted by the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Since "Labour" is a subject enumerated in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule, the Central Government has uniformly implemented the Codes across all states via an executive order.
2. The Code on Wages, 2019, restricts the guarantee of a minimum wage to workers engaged exclusively in the organized sector and specific 'scheduled employments'.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Under the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India, Labour is a subject in the Concurrent List (List III), which means both the Parliament and State Legislatures have the authority to legislate on it. Because it is a Concurrent subject, the implementation of the four Labour Codes requires both the Central Government and State Governments to formulate and notify their respective rules. The Central Government cannot uniformly enforce these Codes across all states through a single executive order.
The Code on Wages, 2019, universalizes the right to minimum wages and timely payment of wages for all employees, encompassing both the organized and unorganized sectors. It does away with the restrictive concept of scheduled employments that existed under the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, thereby extending wage protection to all categories of workers across the country.
65Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Joint Sitting' of Parliament and its procedure:
1. The President can call a joint sitting to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary Bill.
2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over the joint sitting and in their absence, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides.
3. There is no provision for a joint sitting for Constitutional Amendment Bills and Money Bills.
4. So far in the history of the Indian Parliament, a joint sitting has been called only 3 times.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Under Article 108 of the Indian Constitution, the President can summon a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament to resolve a deadlock over an ordinary Bill.
According to Article 118, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides over a joint sitting. In the absence of the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha presides, and if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presides. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, being the Vice President of India, is not a member of either House of Parliament and therefore cannot preside over a joint sitting under any circumstances.
A joint sitting cannot be held for a Money Bill because the Lok Sabha has overriding powers and the Rajya Sabha has only advisory powers. Similarly, a joint sitting cannot be held for a Constitutional Amendment Bill, which must be passed by each House separately by a special majority under Article 368.
Historically, a joint sitting of the Parliament has been called only three times: in 1961 for the Dowry Prohibition Bill, in 1978 for the Banking Service Commission (Repeal) Bill, and in 2002 for the Prevention of Terrorism Bill.
66Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the linguistic composition of India:
1. The Indo-Aryan language family is the largest, accounting for over 70% of the total population of India.
2. The Austric language family has the smallest proportion of speakers among the four major linguistic groups in the country.
3. According to the 2011 Census, Bengali is the second-most spoken language in India by the number of native speakers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
The Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European language family is the largest linguistic group in India, spoken by approximately 73% of the population according to traditional classifications and around 78% in recent census figures. Since this exceeds 70%, the first statement is correct.
According to the 2011 Census of India, Bengali is the second-most spoken language in the country by number of native speakers, with about 8.03% of the population claiming it as their mother tongue, making the third statement correct.
The smallest of the four major linguistic families in India is the Sino-Tibetan (Kirata) family, which accounts for only about 0.85% of the total population, whereas the Austric (Nishada) family accounts for approximately 1.38%. Therefore, the second statement is incorrect.
67Economy
The Union Budget 2026-27 introduces the concept of 'Orange Economy'. To which one of the following is this term related to?
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Answer: (B) Creative industries like animation and comics
Explanation
The term 'Orange Economy' refers to the creative economy, which encompasses industries where value is primarily derived from human creativity, cultural expression, and intellectual property. In the Union Budget 2026-27, the government highlighted this sector—specifically focusing on Animation, Visual Effects, Gaming, and Comics (AVGC)—as a major driver of employment, digital innovation, and services-led growth. To support this creative ecosystem, the budget proposed establishing AVGC Content Creator Labs in 15,000 secondary schools and 500 colleges across the country in collaboration with the Indian Institute of Creative Technologies, Mumbai.
68Economy
Which of the following statements regarding digital payment systems in India are correct?
1. Unified Payments Interface (UPI) enables real-time fund transfer between bank accounts.
2. Digital payments eliminate the need for any physical infrastructure.
3. QR codes facilitate quick transactions without requiring card swiping machines.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Unified Payments Interface is an instant real-time payment system developed by the National Payments Corporation of India that facilitates immediate inter-bank peer-to-peer and person-to-merchant transactions directly through mobile devices. Quick Response codes are two-dimensional barcodes that store payment information, allowing customers to scan and complete transactions instantly using smartphone cameras, which eliminates the need for merchants to maintain physical point-of-sale card swiping machines. While digital payments reduce the reliance on physical cash, they do not eliminate physical infrastructure, as the entire system remains dependent on robust physical components including servers, fiber-optic cables, data centers, telecommunication towers, and mobile devices.
69Science and Technology
In the following, select the missing number from the given series:
98, 70, 42, 14, ?, - 42
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Answer: (B) - 14
Explanation
The given sequence is an arithmetic progression where each term is obtained by subtracting a constant difference of 28 from the preceding term.
98 - 28 = 70
70 - 28 = 42
42 - 28 = 14
Following this pattern, the missing number is:
14 - 28 = -14
Subtracting 28 from -14 gives the next term in the series:
-14 - 28 = -42
70Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the 'Rogan Art':
1. It is an indigenous Indian art form that originated purely in the Kutch region of Gujarat and is traditionally practiced by local tribal communities.
2. A master artisan of this art form has been honoured with the prestigious 'Padma Shri' award for his contribution to this craft.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because Rogan Art did not originate in India; its roots lie in Persia, and it was brought to the Kutch region of Gujarat around 400 years ago. Additionally, it is traditionally practiced by the Muslim Khatri community, rather than local tribal communities.
Statement 2 is correct because Abdul Gafur Khatri, a celebrated master of Rogan Art from Nirona village in Kutch, was honored with the prestigious Padma Shri award in 2019 for his outstanding contribution to preserving, reviving, and promoting this traditional textile craft.
71Science and Technology
The term 'Mayday', seen in the news in the context of recent maritime and aviation incidents, refers to:
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Answer: (B) An internationally recognized voice distress signal used to indicate that a vessel or aircraft is facing a grave and imminent danger to life.
Explanation
The term Mayday is an internationally recognized voice distress signal used in radio communications by mariners and aviators to signal that a vessel, aircraft, or person is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requires immediate assistance. Originating in 1923 from the phonetic spelling of the French phrase m'aider, which translates to help me, the signal was officially adopted at the International Radiotelegraph Convention in 1927. When transmitted, it is repeated three times in succession as Mayday Mayday Mayday to ensure it is clearly distinguished from other radio transmissions and ambient noise, immediately giving the distress call priority over all other radio traffic.
72Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the effects of 'Emergency' in the Indian Constitution:
1. During a National Emergency, the 6 freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended.
2. When President's Rule is imposed in a state, the state legislative assembly is mandatorily dissolved.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Under Article 358 of the Constitution of India, the six freedom rights guaranteed under Article 19 are automatically suspended only when a National Emergency is declared on the grounds of war or external aggression. They are not automatically suspended when the emergency is declared on the grounds of armed rebellion, as per the 44th Amendment Act of 1978.
When President's Rule is imposed in a state under Article 356, the President can either suspend or dissolve the state legislative assembly. The dissolution of the assembly is not mandatory, and it is often kept in suspended animation.
73Economy
Primary deficit is the difference between __________________.
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Answer: (D) Fiscal deficit and interest payments.
Explanation
Primary deficit is defined as the difference between the fiscal deficit of the current financial year and the interest payments on previous borrowings.
It reflects the government's current borrowing requirements to meet its expenditures, excluding the interest liabilities accumulated due to past debts. This measure helps assess the sustainability of current fiscal policies by isolating the impact of historical debt servicing.
74Economy
Which one of the following best defines 'crowding out' in the context of public debt?
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Answer: (A) High government borrowing increases interest rates and thereby reduces private sector investment.
Explanation
Crowding out is an economic phenomenon that occurs when increased government spending, funded through high public borrowing, leads to a rise in interest rates. When the government borrows heavily from the financial market, it competes with the private sector for a limited pool of loanable funds. This surge in demand for funds drives up the cost of borrowing (interest rates). Consequently, higher interest rates make capital more expensive, discouraging private businesses from undertaking new investments and thereby reducing overall private sector investment.
75Science and Technology
Why is LED (Light Emitting Diode) technology considered superior to traditional incandescent bulbs?
1. LEDs convert a higher percentage of electrical energy into light rather than heat.
2. LEDs produce light through the heating of a metal filament.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Light Emitting Diodes are highly efficient solid-state semiconductor devices that operate on the principle of electroluminescence. Unlike traditional incandescent bulbs, which lose approximately 90% of their electrical energy as waste heat, LEDs convert a significantly higher percentage of electrical energy directly into visible light. This exceptional energy efficiency drastically reduces electricity consumption, minimizes heat emission, and ensures a much longer operating lifespan, making LED technology far superior for sustainable and cost-effective lighting.
76Logical Reasoning
It was Saturday on 12 December, 1342. What was the day on 24 August, 1342?
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Answer: (B) Monday
Explanation
To find the day of the week on 24 August 1342 given that 12 December 1342 was a Saturday, we calculate the number of days between these two dates.
First, we count the days from 24 August to 12 December:
Remaining days in August = 31 - 24 = 7 days
Days in September = 30 days
Days in October = 31 days
Days in November = 30 days
Days in December = 12 days
Total number of days = 7 + 30 + 31 + 30 + 12 = 110 days
Now, we find the number of odd days by dividing the total days by 7:
110 ÷ 7 = 15 weeks and 5 odd days
Since we are moving backward in time from December to August, we subtract the 5 odd days from Saturday. Subtracting 5 days from Saturday is equivalent to adding 2 days (7 - 5 = 2 days) to Saturday, which gives Monday.
77HistoryGujarat-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the Mahagujarat Movement:
1. Following the success of the Navnirman Movement, its leaders decided to initiate the Mahagujarat Movement.
2. During the police firing in the movement, a sparrow was killed and a monument in its memory known as the 'Chakli Smarak' has been erected in Ahmedabad.
3. The movement successfully culminated in the formation of the separate linguistic state of Gujarat on 1 May, 1960.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
Only Statement 3 is correct. The Mahagujarat Movement (1956-1960) actually preceded and inspired the later Navnirman Movement (1973-74), not the other way around, so Statement 1 reverses the chronology and is incorrect. The 'Chakli Smarak' (Sparrow Memorial) in Ahmedabad commemorates a sparrow killed during police firing in the Navnirman Movement of 1974, not the Mahagujarat Movement, making Statement 2 incorrect. Statement 3 is correct: the Mahagujarat Movement successfully culminated in the creation of the separate linguistic state of Gujarat on 1 May 1960 under the Bombay Reorganisation Act.
78Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
With reference to the Uniform Civil Code Bill recently passed by the Gujarat Legislative Assembly, consider the following statements:
1. The Bill provides for compulsory registration of live-in relationships and excludes Scheduled Tribes from its applicability.
2. The Bill grants legal recognition to same-sex marriages and civil unions on par with heterosexual marriages.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The Gujarat Uniform Civil Code, 2026 Bill, passed by the Gujarat Legislative Assembly, introduces a common civil framework governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and live-in relationships. The bill specifically mandates the compulsory registration of live-in relationships within the state. It also explicitly exempts members of Scheduled Tribes and certain other groups whose customary rights are constitutionally protected from the applicability of the code. Furthermore, the legislation defines marriages and live-in relationships within a heteronormative framework, meaning it does not grant legal recognition to same-sex marriages or civil unions.
79Polity and Governance
Examine the following statements regarding the composition and jurisdiction of the Delimitation Commission:
1. The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India and works in collaboration with the Election Commission.
2. The orders of the Delimitation Commission regarding seat boundaries cannot be challenged in any court.
3. To date, the Delimitation Commission has been constituted 4 times in India (1952, 1963, 1973, 2002).
4. By the Constitutional Amendment, the number of Lok Sabha seats has been frozen until 2026.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the President of India under Article 82 of the Constitution, working in close collaboration with the Election Commission of India to redraw the boundaries of constituencies. Under Article 329 of the Constitution, the orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be questioned in any court of law to prevent delays in holding elections. In India, Delimitation Commissions have been constituted exactly four times under dedicated Acts of Parliament passed in 1952, 1962 (constituted in 1963), 1972 (constituted in 1973), and 2002. Furthermore, the 84th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 extended the freeze on the total number of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies until the year 2026, keeping the seat allocation based on the 1971 census.
80Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: Over the last two decades, the volume of South-South trade (trade between developing nations) has expanded at a considerably faster rate than North-South trade.
Statement 2: The proliferation of regional trading blocs among emerging economies, combined with their rapid industrialization and growing middle-class consumer bases, has diversified their export destinations away from traditional developed markets.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 explains Statement 1
Explanation
Over the last two decades, South-South trade has experienced a remarkable expansion, growing at a much faster rate than traditional North-South trade. This shift is driven by the rapid industrialization of emerging economies, particularly in regions like Asia, Latin America, and Africa, which has transformed these nations into major hubs of manufacturing and trade.
The rise of a large and prosperous middle-class consumer base within these developing nations has substantially boosted regional consumption, creating new markets for products from other developing countries. Additionally, the proliferation of regional trade agreements and economic blocs among emerging economies has facilitated seamless cross-border commerce, lowering tariffs and barriers. As a result, developing countries have diversified their export destinations away from traditional, slower-growing developed markets toward more dynamic emerging markets, directly causing the rapid growth of South-South trade relative to North-South trade.
81Economy
The capital account of the balance of payments, records transactions that cause a change in which one of the following?
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Answer: (C) The ownership of assets and liabilities between a country and the world
Explanation
The capital account of the balance of payments records all international transactions that involve a transfer of ownership of financial and non-financial assets and liabilities between the residents of a country and the rest of the world. It encompasses capital inflows and outflows such as foreign direct investment, portfolio investment, external commercial borrowings, and changes in foreign exchange reserves, which directly alter the external asset and liability position of a nation.
82Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding "Fast Tag" (RFID technology) used at toll plazas?
1. It utilizes Active RFID tags that require an internal battery source to transmit signals to the toll reader.
2. It operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction to exchange data between the vehicle's tag and the reader.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
FASTag operates on Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology. The system utilizes passive RFID tags that lack an internal battery. Instead, they rely on electromagnetic induction to function. When a vehicle passes through a toll plaza, the RFID reader emits an alternating electromagnetic field. As the tag enters this field, the changing magnetic flux induces a voltage across the tag's antenna coil via electromagnetic induction. This induced current powers the chip inside the tag, enabling it to transmit its stored electronic product code back to the reader wirelessly.
83Science and Technology
DRIVEN is related to EIDRVN in the same way as BEGUMF is related as
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Answer: (D) MGBEUF
Explanation
The relationship between DRIVEN and EIDRVN is based on the rearrangement of the positions of the letters.
Let the letters in DRIVEN be numbered by their original positions:
D is 1, R is 2, I is 3, V is 4, E is 5, N is 6.
In the rearranged word EIDRVN, the letters are ordered according to the position sequence:
5, 3, 1, 2, 4, 6.
Applying this exact position rearrangement sequence to the word BEGUMF (where B is 1, E is 2, G is 3, U is 4, M is 5, F is 6):
The 5th letter is M.
The 3rd letter is G.
The 1st letter is B.
The 2nd letter is E.
The 4th letter is U.
The 6th letter is F.
Combining these letters in this order gives MGBEUF.
84History
Consider the following statements regarding the Revolt of 1857:
1. Similar to the southern states of India, the region of Gujarat remained completely isolated and untouched by the events of the 1857 uprising.
2. Historical figures whose names are prominently associated with the events surrounding the 1857 uprising include Mangal Pandey, Bahadur Shah Zafar and Rani Lakshmibai.
3. During the revolt, all the native rulers and princes of Northern India unitedly supported the mutineers against the British East India Company.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
The Revolt of 1857 is prominently associated with key historical figures such as Mangal Pandey, who initiated the rebellion in Barrackpore, Bahadur Shah Zafar, who was declared the Emperor of Hindustan by the rebels, and Rani Lakshmibai, who led the armed resistance in Jhansi.
In contrast, many native rulers of Northern India did not support the mutineers and instead actively helped the British East India Company suppress the rebellion. Additionally, Gujarat was not completely untouched, as mutinies and tribal uprisings occurred in areas like Ahmedabad, Godhra, Dahod, and Panchmahal.
85Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Recently, the festival of Deepawali was inscribed on the UNESCO 'Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity'. In this context, consider the following statements:
1. Prior to the inclusion of Deepawali, the traditional dance form 'Garba of Gujarat' was inscribed on this prestigious UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage list.
2. In India, the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) acts as the designated nodal agency for maintaining the national inventory of these living traditions and processing their nominations.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: Garba of Gujarat was inscribed on the UNESCO Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in December 2023, prior to Deepawali's inscription in December 2025. Statement 2 is incorrect: the Sangeet Natak Akademi (an autonomous body under the Ministry of Culture), not the Archaeological Survey of India, is India's designated nodal agency for maintaining the National Inventory of Intangible Cultural Heritage and processing UNESCO nominations. Since only statement 1 is correct, the answer is Only 1.
86Polity and Governance
Examine the following statements regarding the 'Right to Information' (RTI Act, 2005) and its limitations:
1. It is mandatory for an applicant to state the reason for seeking information under RTI.
2. If information is related to a person's life or liberty, it must be provided within 48 hours.
3. Information affecting the sovereignty, integrity and strategic interests of the country can be refused.
4. The Chief Information Commissioner of India is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee led by the Prime Minister.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Under Section 6(2) of the RTI Act, 2005, an applicant requesting information is explicitly not required to give any reason for seeking it, nor any other personal details except those necessary for contacting them. This makes Statement 1 incorrect.
Section 7(1) of the Act stipulates that if the requested information concerns the life or liberty of a person, it must be provided within 48 hours of receiving the request, verifying Statement 2.
Section 8(1)(a) permits the refusal of disclosure for information that would prejudicially affect the sovereignty, integrity, security, and strategic, scientific, or economic interests of the country, confirming Statement 3.
Section 12(3) states that the Chief Information Commissioner is appointed by the President on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Prime Minister, with the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha and a nominated Union Cabinet Minister as members, confirming Statement 4.
87Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India's inland water transport infrastructure:
1. National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is the longest navigable inland waterway in the country, extending from Prayagraj to Haldia along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system.
2. The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP), implemented with technical and financial assistance from the World Bank, is primarily focused on capacity augmentation of the Brahmaputra River (NW-2).
3. The West Coast Canal (NW-3) maintains a highly consistent navigable draft year-round, facilitated by the natural topography of estuarine backwaters (Koyals) in Kerala.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
National Waterway 1 (NW-1) is the longest navigable waterway in the country, spanning approximately 1620 km along the Ganga-Bhagirathi-Hooghly river system between Prayagraj and Haldia.
The Jal Marg Vikas Project (JMVP) is a major capacity augmentation project specifically designed for National Waterway-1 (NW-1), not NW-2 (Brahmaputra River). This project is being implemented with the financial and technical assistance of the World Bank to enable the navigation of larger vessels on the Ganga.
The West Coast Canal (NW-3) in Kerala benefits from the unique local geography of estuarine backwaters, known as Kayals. Unlike alluvial rivers in northern India which suffer from massive seasonal discharge variations and high siltation, these tidal backwater structures help maintain a stable, highly consistent navigable draft year-round, which facilitated the development of India's first round-the-clock navigation facility.
88Economy
Economic Survey 2025-26 discusses 'Demographic Divergence' within India.
What is meaning of the term 'Demographic Divergence'?
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Answer: (D) Some states having a young and growing population, while others facing an aging population
Explanation
Demographic divergence refers to the varying paces of demographic transition across different Indian states. While some states, primarily in Northern and Central India (such as Bihar and Uttar Pradesh), still maintain high total fertility rates and a large, growing young population, other states, particularly in Southern and Western India (such as Kerala and Tamil Nadu), have experienced rapid fertility declines to below-replacement levels, leading to an aging population structure and a shrinking workforce. This regional asymmetry creates distinct challenges and opportunities for fiscal federalism, migration corridors, labor market dynamics, and national policymaking.
89Economy
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nano Urea' recently promoted by the Government of India for agricultural use:
1. It replaces the need for Phosphorus and Potash fertilizers entirely, simplifying the fertilizer application process for farmers.
2. It has a higher nutrient use efficiency compared to conventional granular urea, leading to reduced soil degradation and water pollution.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
Conventional urea has a low nutrient use efficiency of around 30% to 50%, with a major portion of nitrogen lost through leaching, volatilization, and runoff. Nano Urea contains nanoscale nitrogen particles of 20 to 50 nm in size that are applied as a foliar spray. Because of their tiny size and larger surface area, these particles are absorbed directly by plant leaves, achieving a nutrient use efficiency of 85% to 90%. This precise delivery significantly reduces nutrient wastage, minimizing soil degradation and water pollution.
Nano Urea only provides nitrogen to plants and is designed to replace or reduce the usage of conventional urea. It does not contain phosphorus or potassium, meaning it cannot replace the essential phosphorus and potash fertilizers like Di-ammonium Phosphate or Muriate of Potash, which are still required for crop growth.
90Logical Reasoning
Seven friends, Manashvi, Prince, Pratham, Trushil, Mahima, Prishiv and Naitik are sitting around a circular table with their backs towards the centre. Manashvi is sitting to the immediate right of Prince. Naitik and Prishiv are not sitting to the immediate left or right of Trushil. Trushil is sitting third to the left of Prince. Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Trushil. Who is sitting third to the right of Prince?
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Answer: (B) Pratham
Explanation
Since the seven friends are sitting with their backs towards the centre of the circular table, they are facing outwards. For outward-facing seats, the "right" direction is counter-clockwise and the "left" direction is clockwise.
Let the seven positions in the circle be numbered 1 to 7 in a counter-clockwise direction.
Placing Prince at position 1:
Manashvi is to the immediate right of Prince, which places Manashvi at position 2.
Trushil is sitting third to the left of Prince, which corresponds to position 5.
Mahima is sitting to the immediate right of Trushil, placing her at position 6.
This leaves positions 3, 4, and 7 vacant for Naitik, Prishiv, and Pratham.
Because Naitik and Prishiv cannot sit to the immediate left or right of Trushil (position 5), they cannot occupy position 4. This means Pratham must sit at position 4, while Naitik and Prishiv occupy positions 3 and 7.
Counting three positions to the right (counter-clockwise) from Prince at position 1:
The first to the right is Manashvi at position 2.
The second to the right is Naitik or Prishiv at position 3.
The third to the right is Pratham at position 4.
91History
Consider the following statements regarding the Simon Commission:
1. Lokmanya Tilak wrote a series of aggressive articles in his newspaper 'Kesari' vehemently opposing the arrival of the commission.
2. The commission faced a widespread boycott in India primarily because it was a seven-member group with no Indian representation.
3. During a protest rally opposing the commission, Lala Lajpat Rai was severely injured in a police lathi-charge, which ultimately led to his death.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Simon Commission, officially known as the Indian Statutory Commission, was appointed in November 1927 to report on the working of the constitutional system in British India.
The commission faced an intense and widespread boycott across India because it was composed of seven British members of Parliament with absolutely no Indian representation, which was seen as a direct insult to the self-determination of Indians.
During a peaceful protest demonstration against the commission in Lahore on October 30, 1928, the veteran nationalist leader Lala Lajpat Rai was brutally assaulted in a police lathi-charge led by the local police. The severe physical injuries he sustained during this assault led to his untimely death on November 17, 1928.
Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak passed away on August 1, 1920, and therefore could not have written articles in Kesari opposing the commission, which was constituted years after his death.
92History
Consider the following statements regarding the Russia-Ukraine war:
1. The rift between Ukrainian President, Zelensky and Russian President, Putin became the main cause of the war.
2. Ukraine is located north of Russia.
3. Ukraine is receiving NATO support in the war
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Only 3
Explanation
Ukraine receives extensive military, financial, and humanitarian assistance from NATO and its individual member states to defend its sovereignty against the Russian invasion.
The primary causes of the war are structural geopolitical issues, including Russia's opposition to NATO's eastward expansion and its denial of Ukraine's right to self-determination, rather than a personal dispute between leadership figures. Geographically, Ukraine lies to the south and southwest of Russia, sharing its northern border with Belarus and its eastern border with Russia.
93Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the role of the 'Central Vigilance Commission' (CVC) and the anti-corruption framework in India:
1. The 'Central Vigilance Commission' was established on the recommendation of the 'Santhanam Committee'.
2. The Central Vigilance Commission works under the administrative control of the Investigation Bureau.
3. The Chairman and members of the Central Vigilance Commission cannot hold any office in the Central or State Government after retirement.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government of India in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, popularly known as the Santhanam Committee.
Under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003, the Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance Commissioners, on ceasing to hold office, are ineligible for further employment under the Government of India or under the Government of any State.
The Commission is an independent body that is responsible only to the Parliament. It does not function under the administrative control of any executive agency, ensuring its autonomy in monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government.
94Geography
Consider the following statements with reference to temperature and moisture characteristics in the middle and high latitudes:
1. The temperature and relative humidity are high and low respectively early in the morning.
2. The temperature and relative humidity are low and high respectively early in the morning.
Which of the above mentioned statement (s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
Relative humidity is inversely related to air temperature when the actual moisture content of the air remains constant. Early in the morning, typically around sunrise, the ground and the air near the surface reach their lowest temperatures of the day due to overnight terrestrial radiative cooling. Since cold air has a much lower capacity to hold water vapor compared to warm air, the existing moisture in the air is closest to its saturation point. Consequently, early in the morning, the temperature is at its daily minimum while the relative humidity reaches its daily maximum.
95Economy
The education dimension of Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite of two indicators. Which are these two indicators?
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Answer: (A) Mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling
Explanation
The education dimension of the Human Development Index (HDI), formulated by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), is calculated using two key indicators: mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling. Mean years of schooling measures the average number of years of education completed by adults aged 25 years and older. Expected years of schooling estimates the total number of years of schooling that a child of school-entrance age can expect to receive if current age-specific enrollment rates remain constant throughout their life. These two indicators are normalized and combined to reflect both the current educational attainment of the population and the future prospects for the younger generation.
96Economy
What is the primary objective of the BharatNet project?
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Answer: (B) To connect all Gram Panchayats with high-speed broadband infrastructure using optical fibre network
Explanation
The BharatNet project, originally launched in October 2011 as the National Optical Fibre Network and rebranded in 2015, is a flagship initiative of the Government of India funded by the Universal Service Obligation Fund. The core objective of the project is to provide non-discriminatory, high-speed broadband connectivity to all of the approximately 2.5 lakh Gram Panchayats across the country using an optical fibre network. This infrastructure serves as the backbone for extending digital services, including e-governance, online education, telemedicine, and e-banking, to rural populations, thereby bridging the digital divide between rural and urban India.
97Logical Reasoning
After arranging the given words according to dictionary order, which word will come at 'Fifth' position?
1. Popular
2. Population
3. Populace
4. Pope
5. Poppy
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Answer: (A) Population
Explanation
To find the dictionary order of the given words, we compare them letter by letter:
The first three letters Pop are identical in all five words.
Comparing the fourth letter, Pope has e, Poppy has p, and the remaining three words have u. Since e comes before p, and p comes before u, Pope is first and Poppy is second in alphabetical order.
To arrange the remaining three words Populace, Popular, and Population, we compare their seventh letters because their first six letters Popula are identical.
The seventh letter in Populace is c.
The seventh letter in Popular is r.
The seventh letter in Population is t.
Since c comes before r, and r comes before t, the alphabetical sequence for these words is Populace as third, Popular as fourth, and Population as fifth.
98Art and Culture
Consider the following statements regarding the famous Brihadeshwara Temple of Thanjavur:
1. The temple was constructed during the period of the Chalukya dynasty, showcasing their distinct architectural style.
2. Detailed descriptions of this magnificent temple are prominently found in ancient Sangam literature.
3. It is officially recognised as a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 3
Explanation
The Brihadeshwara Temple in Thanjavur is officially recognized as a UNESCO World Heritage Site, grouped under the Great Living Chola Temples. Constructed by the Chola emperor Rajaraja I and completed in 1010 CE, this monument is a premier example of Dravidian architecture from the Chola dynasty rather than the Chalukyas. Because the temple was built in the 11th century CE, it postdates the ancient Sangam literature era, which flourished between 300 BCE and 300 CE.
99Art and Culture
Raghurai was known for his excellent photographs of which of the following subjects?
1. Bhopal Gas Tragedy
2. India-China War
3. Taj Mahal
4. Terrorism in Kashmir
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Raghu Rai is one of India's most celebrated photojournalists and photographers, renowned for his impactful documentary work and artistic captures. He is globally acclaimed for his extensive coverage of the 1984 Bhopal Gas Tragedy, where his haunting images of the victims and the aftermath of the industrial disaster brought international attention to the tragedy. He also dedicated decades to capturing the monument of love, resulting in a highly celebrated photographic book on the Taj Mahal that showcases the monument in various seasons, lights, and human contexts.
100Polity and Governance
Consider the following in relation to Article 14, "equality before law" and "equal protection of the laws":
1. Equality before the law is a more positive concept, implying the right to equality of treatment in equal circumstances.
2. Equal protection of laws is a somewhat negative concept, implying the absence of any special privilege by reason of birth, creed or like
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
The two statements have interchanged the definitions of the two concepts under Article 14 of the Indian Constitution.
Equality before the law is a concept of British origin and is a negative concept. It implies the absence of any special privileges in favour of any individual, the equal subjection of all individuals to the ordinary law of the land, and that no person is above the law.
Equal protection of the laws is a concept of American origin and is a positive concept. It implies the right to equality of treatment under equal circumstances, both in the privileges conferred and liabilities imposed by the laws. It requires that like should be treated alike, and that similar treatment should be accorded to persons similarly situated.
101Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. An aircraft takes off from Papeete (Tahiti, 150° W) at 4p.m . on Monday and lands at Port Moresby (Papua New Guinea, 150° E) at 6a.m . on Wednesday.
2. The same aircraft makes a return from Port Moresby at 12 noon on Wednesday and lands at Papeete at 11 a.m. on the same day (Wednesday).
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The time zones of the two locations are calculated based on their longitudes:
Papeete (Tahiti, 150° W): Since 15° corresponds to 1 hour, its time zone is 150/15 = 10 hours behind Greenwich Mean Time (GMT-10). Thus, GMT = Local Time + 10 hours.
Port Moresby (150° E): Its time zone is 150/15 = 10 hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT+10). Thus, GMT = Local Time - 10 hours.
Evaluating Statement 1:
Takeoff from Papeete is at 4 p.m. on Monday.
GMT of takeoff = Monday 4:00 p.m. + 10 hours = Tuesday 2:00 a.m.
Landing at Port Moresby is at 6 a.m. on Wednesday.
GMT of landing = Wednesday 6:00 a.m. - 10 hours = Tuesday 8:00 p.m.
Flight duration = Tuesday 8:00 p.m. - Tuesday 2:00 a.m. = 18 hours.
Evaluating Statement 2:
Takeoff from Port Moresby is at 12 noon on Wednesday.
GMT of takeoff = Wednesday 12:00 noon - 10 hours = Wednesday 2:00 a.m.
Landing at Papeete is at 11 a.m. on Wednesday.
GMT of landing = Wednesday 11:00 a.m. + 10 hours = Wednesday 9:00 p.m.
Flight duration = Wednesday 9:00 p.m. - Wednesday 2:00 a.m. = 19 hours.
Both flights represent consistent, realistic physical durations.
102Economy
In the context of rural-urban migration, which one of the following is a 'push factor'?
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Answer: (B) Lack of livelihood opportunities, backwardness and poverty in rural areas
Explanation
Push factors are unfavorable or adverse conditions in the place of origin that compel or force individuals to leave their homes and migrate to other areas. In the context of rural-urban migration, the lack of adequate livelihood opportunities, agricultural distress, poverty, social backwardness, and a lack of basic amenities in rural regions create a challenging environment that pushes people out of their villages to seek survival and better prospects elsewhere.
103Science and Technology
Which of the following best describes the core operational strategy of the Bhashini Mission launched by the Government of India?
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Answer: (B) It is an ecosystem that utilizes a crowdsourcing initiative called 'Bhasha Daan' to collect diverse language datasets to train AI models.
Explanation
The Bhashini Mission, officially known as the BHASHA Interface for India, is a national public digital platform initiated by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). Its core operational strategy centers around building a robust multilingual AI ecosystem through the national crowdsourcing initiative called Bhasha Daan. Through Bhasha Daan, citizens and volunteers actively contribute text, voice, translation, and transcription datasets in various scheduled and regional Indian languages. This crowdsourced repository is utilized to train, validate, and refine advanced artificial intelligence and natural language processing models, facilitating accessible and inclusive voice-first public and private digital services in native languages.
104Polity and Governance
In this question, two statements I and II are given. These statements may be independent causes or effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of the statements maybe the effect of the other statement. Read both statements and select the correct answer.
Statement-I: This year College X reduced the cut-off marks to 50 from 60 for the entrance exam.
Statement-II: In the last two years, the Students Union in College X has been actively negotiating with the college administration regarding the quality of food and health and hygiene standards at the college canteen.
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Answer: (C) Both I and II are effects of independent causes.
Explanation
The reduction of the entrance exam cut-off marks from 60 to 50 by College X is an administrative decision likely caused by factors such as a highly difficult entrance test, a drop in the number of applicants, or a policy change to fill vacant seats. On the other hand, the Students Union negotiating with the college administration over food quality and hygiene standards at the canteen is an event caused by student grievances regarding health, hygiene, and campus amenities. Because academic admission policies and canteen hygiene issues are entirely unrelated, both statements represent effects of two separate and independent causes.
105History
In the context of India, what do the terms 'Jarawa', 'Onge', 'Sentineles' and 'Shompen' refer to?
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Answer: (B) Tribal communities found in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
Explanation
The terms Jarawa, Onge, Sentinelese, and Shompen represent ancient indigenous tribal communities native to the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, a Union Territory of India. These tribes are categorized as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) due to their isolation, small population size, pre-agricultural technology, and distinct cultural practices. Specifically, the Jarawa, Onge, and Sentinelese reside in the Andaman group of islands, while the Shompen inhabit the interior of Great Nicobar Island.
106Science and Technology
Consider the following statements about Gaganyan Mission:
1. Gaganyan Mission aims at human lunar journey.
2. Gaganyan Mission aims at human space travel.
3. 'Hindustan Aeronautics Limited' is directly involved in the work of Gaganyan Mission.
4. Indian astronauts have made a journey into space under Gaganyan Mission.
Which of the above statements is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 4
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because the primary objective of the Gaganyaan mission is to demonstrate India's human spaceflight capability by launching a crew into a Low Earth Orbit of approximately 400 km for a short duration, rather than undertaking a lunar journey. Statement 4 is incorrect because no Indian astronauts have traveled into space under the Gaganyaan mission yet [1]. While Indian astronaut candidates have been selected and are undergoing extensive training, the actual crewed orbital flight of Gaganyaan has not yet been launched [1]. Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma, who flew in 1984 on a Soviet mission, remains the only Indian citizen to have traveled to space.
107Polity and Governance
As per Article 53 of the Constitution, the executive power of the Union shall be vested with the
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Answer: (A) President
Explanation
Article 53(1) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President. It further mandates that this power shall be exercised by the President either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution. This establishes the President as the formal and constitutional head of the executive branch of the Indian Government.
108Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Venus and Uranus rotates from east to west.
2. Because the earth rotates from west to east on its own axis, we experience different seasons.
3. Because of the revolution of the earth around the sun, we experience day and night.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Venus and Uranus rotate from east to west in a retrograde motion, which is opposite to the prograde rotation (west to east) of Earth and most other planets in our solar system. Earth's rotation on its axis is responsible for day and night, while the revolution of Earth around the Sun, combined with the tilt of its axis, is responsible for the changing seasons.
109Economy
Food subsidy is the difference between
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Answer: (B) Economic Cost and the Central Issue Price (CIP)
Explanation
Food subsidy is defined as the difference between the economic cost of foodgrains and the Central Issue Price (CIP). The Food Corporation of India (FCI) and state agencies procure foodgrains from farmers at the Minimum Support Price (MSP). The total economic cost incurred by the FCI is the sum of this procurement price, procurement incidentals (such as taxes, mandi charges, and packaging), and distribution costs (such as freight, handling, storage, and interest). These foodgrains are then distributed to beneficiaries under the National Food Security Act (NFSA) and other welfare schemes at the Central Issue Price, which is set at a highly subsidized rate. The Union Government bridges this financial gap by releasing food subsidy directly to the FCI and state governments to cover the difference between the economic cost of procurement and distribution and the realization from the CIP.
110Science and Technology
Which of the following statements regarding the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) are correct?
1. ISRO has developed both Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV).
2. PSLV is primarily used for launching heavy communication satellites into geostationary orbit.
3. ISRO successfully conducted the Chandrayaan-3 mission demonstrating soft landing capability on the Moon.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
ISRO has successfully designed and developed both the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) to achieve self-reliance in launching various classes of satellites. Additionally, ISRO successfully executed the Chandrayaan-3 mission in August 2023, which successfully demonstrated a safe soft-landing and roving capability on the lunar surface near the south pole region.
111Science and Technology
In a certain code language, '782' means 'Flowers are beautiful', '692' means 'Roses are red', '628' means 'Roses are beautiful'.
Which number denotes 'Flowers'?
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Answer: (B) 7
Explanation
Comparing the first statement, 782 representing Flowers are beautiful, with the third statement, 628 representing Roses are beautiful, the common words are are and beautiful, and the common digits are 8 and 2. This indicates that the words are and beautiful correspond to the digits 8 and 2 in some order.
By eliminating these common elements from the first statement, the remaining word is Flowers and the remaining digit is 7. Therefore, the number 7 denotes Flowers.
112Science and Technology
In a certain code language, '782' means 'Flowers are beautiful', '692' means 'Roses are red', '628' means 'Roses are beautiful'.
What does number '9' denote?
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Answer: (C) Red
Explanation
Comparing the code 692, which means Roses are red, and the code 628, which means Roses are beautiful, the common numbers are 6 and 2, corresponding to the common words Roses and are.
Comparing 782, which means Flowers are beautiful, and 628, which means Roses are beautiful, the common numbers are 8 and 2, corresponding to the common words beautiful and are.
Since 2 is the common number present in all three codes 782, 692, and 628, and are is the common word in all three sentences, 2 represents are.
Since 2 represents are and 6 represents Roses, in the code 692, which means Roses are red, the remaining digit 9 must represent red.
113History
Consider the following conceptual statements regarding the Bhakti and Sufi movements in medieval India:
1. Instead of preaching exclusively in classical languages like Sanskrit or Arabic, saints of both movements extensively used local vernacular languages to effectively connect with the common masses.
2. Unlike the Bhakti movement, the prominent Sufi orders in India strictly prohibited the use of music, poetry and singing in their spiritual gatherings.
3. Both traditions fundamentally emphasised that intense personal devotion and love for the Almighty are far more important than performing complex religious rituals or pilgrimages.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Saints of both the Bhakti and Sufi movements made a conscious effort to preach in local vernacular languages rather than classical languages like Sanskrit or Arabic. This enabled them to reach the common masses directly, leading to the rapid growth and enrichment of regional literature in Hindi, Punjabi, Bengali, Marathi, and Deccani.
Both traditions fundamentally believed in the primacy of intense love and devotion to God over ritualistic orthodoxy. They rejected rigid social hierarchies, complex rituals, and pilgrimages, emphasizing instead that salvation or union with the divine could be achieved through a pure heart, a spiritual mentor, and personal devotion.
Furthermore, prominent Sufi orders in India, especially the Chishtis, actively encouraged the use of music, poetry, and singing. They organized spiritual musical gatherings called Sama to induce a state of spiritual ecstasy and love for the Almighty, meaning that music and singing were not strictly prohibited.
114History
Which historical battle completed 500 years on 21 April, 2026? Between who and whom was it fought?
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Answer: (B) First Battle of Panipat; Between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
Explanation
The First Battle of Panipat was fought on 21 April 1526 between the invading Timurid forces of Babur and the ruling Lodi dynasty under Sultan Ibrahim Lodi. On 21 April 2026, this landmark military conflict completed exactly 500 years. Babur's decisive victory in this battle led to the establishment of the Mughal Empire in India and marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate.
115Polity and Governance
Which of the following best explains federalism in India?
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Answer: (C) Distribution of powers between the Union and the States
Explanation
Federalism is fundamentally characterized by the division of authority between a central government and its constituent units. Under the Constitution of India, this distribution of powers is explicitly laid out to ensure that both the Union and the State governments have independent legislative, executive, and financial jurisdictions. This is primarily achieved through the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution, which divides subjects of administration into the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List, thereby establishing the structural framework of Indian federalism.
116Geography
Consider the following statements regarding cyclones:
1. The engine of an extra-tropical cyclone is latent heat, whereas the engine of a tropical cyclone is condensation of air due to frontal uplift.
2. Dissipation of an extra-tropical cyclone occurs due to occlusion, whereas a tropical cyclone dissipates due to the moisture supply being cut-off.
3. Usually, the direction of movement of an extra-tropical cyclone is from west to east and that of a tropical cyclone is from east to west.
4. The area of impact of a tropical cyclone is much larger than that of an extra-tropical cyclone.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
Extra-tropical cyclones and tropical cyclones have distinct dissipation mechanisms and steering influences.
An extra-tropical cyclone dissipates through the process of occlusion. This occurs when the faster-moving cold front overtakes the warm front, lifting all the warm air off the surface and eliminating the temperature and density contrasts that drive the system. In contrast, a tropical cyclone is powered by the latent heat released from the condensation of water vapor over warm ocean surfaces. When a tropical cyclone moves over land or cooler waters, its moisture supply is cut off, leading to rapid decay and dissipation.
In terms of movement, the path of these weather systems is determined by global wind belts. Extra-tropical cyclones develop in the mid-latitudes and are steered by the Westerlies, which carry them from west to east. Tropical cyclones form in the low latitudes and are steered by the Easterly trade winds, causing them to move from east to west.
117Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) spearheaded by DRDO?
1. The program aimed at self-reliance in missile technology and resulted in the development of five missile systems: Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash and Nag.
2. Nag is a third-generation 'fire-and-forget' Anti-Tank Guided Missile (ATGM) that utilizes an Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) seeker for target acquisition.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was managed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) to achieve self-sufficiency in missile technology. The programme successfully developed five critical missile systems: Prithvi, Agni, Trishul, Akash, and Nag.
Nag is a third-generation, fire-and-forget, anti-tank guided missile designed to destroy heavily armored enemy tanks. It is equipped with an Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) seeker that provides high-resolution imaging for target acquisition and guidance, allowing the missile to home in on the target autonomously after launch without requiring further operator intervention.
The pattern in the given equations is found by multiplying each of the two numbers by 3, and then concatenating the results in reverse order. For any operation A × B, the result is the concatenation of (B × 3) and (A × 3).
Applying this pattern to the first example, 4 × 6:
6 × 3 = 18
4 × 3 = 12
Concatenating 18 and 12 gives 1812.
For the second example, 5 × 8:
8 × 3 = 24
5 × 3 = 15
Concatenating 24 and 15 gives 2415.
For the third example, 6 × 9:
9 × 3 = 27
6 × 3 = 18
Concatenating 27 and 18 gives 2718.
Applying the same logic to 7 × 6:
6 × 3 = 18
7 × 3 = 21
Concatenating 18 and 21 gives 1821.
119Art and Culture
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question that follows:
"Depicted in a famous mural painting at the Ajanta Caves, this Buddhist narrative illustrates the ultimate perfection of charity and compassion. In the story, a virtuous king offers refuge to a terrified pigeon being chased by a hungry hawk. To uphold his duty of protecting the refugee without depriving the hawk of its natural food, the king resolves to offer his own flesh. As he cuts off pieces of his flesh to match the weight of the pigeon on a scale, the bird miraculously grows heavier, eventually prompting the king to offer his entire body."
Which of the following Jataka tales is described in the passage given above?
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Answer: (B) Sibi Jataka
Explanation
The Sibi Jataka narrates the story of King Sibi, who was legendary for his extreme selflessness, compassion, and commitment to protecting those who sought refuge. In this story, King Sibi protects a terrified pigeon from a hungry hawk. To satisfy the hawk without sacrificing the pigeon, the king agrees to offer his own flesh equal to the weight of the pigeon. As the pigeon miraculously keeps growing heavier on the scale, the king eventually offers his entire body. This ultimate act of sacrifice, illustrating the perfection of charity (Dana Paramita), is depicted in a famous mural painting in Cave 1 of the Ajanta Caves.
120Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Sabarmala temple is correct?
1. The dispute over the trust's property is the main issue in the court case related to Sabarmala temple.
2. The ban on entry for women between the ages of 10 and 50 is at the heart of the court case related to Sabarmala temple.
3. Earlier, a bench of the Supreme Court had held the ban on entry for women to be unconstitutional.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The core issue in the Sabarimala temple case centers on the long-standing custom that barred women of menstruating age, specifically between the ages of 10 and 50 years, from entering the shrine. In September 2018, a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India delivered a landmark 4:1 ruling in the Indian Young Lawyers Association case, declaring this ban unconstitutional. The Court held that the practice violated the fundamental rights to equality, non-discrimination, and freedom of religion guaranteed under Articles 14, 15, and 25 of the Constitution of India.
121Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements about Council of States:
1. Under the Indian Constitution, there is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States.
2. The Council of States cannot be correctly described as a federal Chamber because some of it's members are nominated by the President.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Under the Indian Constitution, there is no equality of representation of the States in the Council of States. Unlike classic federal systems like the United States where every state gets equal representation in the upper chamber, representation in the Rajya Sabha is based on the population of each state. As outlined in the Fourth Schedule, the representation varies significantly, ranging from 1 seat for smaller states to 31 seats for Uttar Pradesh. This makes the first statement correct.
The Council of States also cannot be correctly described as a pure federal Chamber because it contains a nominated element. Under Article 80 of the Constitution, 12 members are nominated by the President of India from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and social service. Because these nominated members do not represent any of the constituent states of the union, the chamber deviates from a strict federal structure. This makes the second statement correct.
122Geography
Consider the following statements about earthquakes:
1. The maximum damage due to an earthquake occurs at its epicentre.
2. In areas close to the epicentre, the earthquake waves reach the earth's surface obliquely in a 'to-and-fro movement', thereby causing maximum damage.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The epicenter is the point on the Earth's surface directly above the hypocenter (focus) where the earthquake originates. Because it is the geographically closest point to the source of energy release, seismic wave energy is most concentrated here, resulting in the highest shaking intensity and maximum damage. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.
Near the epicenter, the seismic waves travel directly upward from the focus, meaning they reach the Earth's surface vertically. This causes a vertical (up-and-down) ground movement. It is only at locations further away from the epicenter that the seismic waves emerge at the surface obliquely (at an angle), causing lateral or horizontal (to-and-fro) motion. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect because waves arrive vertically near the epicenter, not obliquely.
123Science and Technology
In the context of modern healthcare, what is the primary objective of Nano-shells or Nano-bullets in cancer treatment?
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Answer: (C) To provide targeted drug delivery, ensuring that medication is released only at the site of the cancer cells, thereby minimizing the side effects on healthy tissues.
Explanation
The primary objective of nano-shells and nano-bullets in cancer therapeutics is targeted drug delivery. These engineered nanostructures are designed to carry chemotherapy drugs directly to the tumor site by exploiting tumor-specific biomarkers or the enhanced permeability and retention effect of tumor blood vessels. By releasing the therapeutic payload exclusively at the site of cancer cells, this approach prevents damage to surrounding healthy tissues and dramatically reduces the systemic toxicity and side effects typical of conventional cancer treatments.
124Economy
A situation is given followed by two conclusions I and II. Read the situation and both the conclusions carefully and select the correct answer.
Situation: Since the past 15 years, 75% of the products in the world's pottery market comes from Country 'K'. However, the employment in the pottery industry of Country 'K' has been consistently declining by 5-9% every year since the past 3 years.
Conclusions:
Statement I: Even after declining employment, Country 'K' has enough potters to continue contributing equally to the international market.
Statement II: The local demand of pottery in Country 'K' has substantially decreased leading to less interest among potters.
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Answer: (A) Neither I nor II can be concluded.
Explanation
Statement I cannot be concluded because the given facts only describe the historical and current trends of declining employment over the past three years. The passage does not provide any data to guarantee that the remaining workforce will be sufficient to maintain Country K's 75% global market share in the future.
Statement II cannot be concluded because the premise contains absolutely no information regarding the domestic or local demand for pottery within Country K. The decline in pottery sector employment could easily be driven by other factors, such as increased mechanization, automation, or the migration of labor to higher-paying industries, rather than a drop in local demand or interest.
Since both statements require making assumptions that extend far beyond the provided facts, neither conclusion logically follows from the situation.
125HistoryGujarat-specific
Consider the following statements about Lothal:
1. In the Indus Valley Civilisation, Lothal was a centre of trade with Mesopotamia, Egypt and Persia
2. Double burial was a common feature of Lothal.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Lothal was one of the most prominent port cities of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Statement 1 is correct because Lothal served as a vital maritime trade centre. Archaeological findings, such as the famous dockyard and artifacts like the circular button-shaped Persian Gulf seal, indicate that the city maintained extensive trade relations with contemporary civilizations in Mesopotamia, Egypt, and Persia.
Statement 2 is correct because archaeological excavations at the burial site in Lothal revealed multiple instances of joint or double burials, where two individuals were buried together in a single grave. At least three such double burial graves were discovered, showing that this custom was a prominent and distinctive feature of the burial practices of the people of Lothal.
126Geography
Consider the following statements about El Niño:
1. El Nino is a weather phenomenon that directly affects the global environment.
2. El Nino is related to environmental factors in the Pacific Ocean.
3. El Nino starts in the Atlantic Ocean and ends in the Pacific Ocean.
4. El Nino only affects the regularity of the monsoon.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because El Niño is a coupled ocean-atmosphere climate phenomenon operating over multi-year cycles, rather than a short-term weather phenomenon.
Statement 3 is incorrect because El Niño originates and resides in the central and eastern tropical Pacific Ocean, rather than starting in the Atlantic Ocean.
In contrast, Statement 2 is correct since El Niño is directly driven by oceanographic and atmospheric changes in the Pacific Ocean.
127Polity and Governance
Who bears the expenditure incurred on the conduct of the Lok Sabha Elections?
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Answer: (A) Central Government
Explanation
The expenditure incurred on the conduct of the Lok Sabha Elections (including both General Elections and Bye-elections) is entirely borne by the Central Government when held independently.
During the election process, the respective State and Union Territory Governments initially spend the money from their Consolidated Funds to manage local polling administration. However, this entire amount is subsequently reimbursed by the Central Government.
For State Legislative Assembly elections, the expenditure is borne by the respective State Governments. When elections to both the Lok Sabha and the State Assemblies are held simultaneously, the expenses are shared equally on a 50:50 basis between the Central Government and the concerned State Governments.
128Geography
Consider the following features of black soil:
1. Black soil is very retentive of moisture.
2. It is highly argillaceous with a large clay factor and without gravel or coarse sand.
3. Black soils of uplands are of low fertility but they are darker, deeper and richer in the valleys.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Black soil, also known as Regur soil, is highly retentive of moisture. During the rainy season, it absorbs water and swells, becoming sticky, while during the dry season, it shrinks and develops deep cracks which help in self-aeration.
It is highly argillaceous, meaning it has a very high clay content, often exceeding 60%, with almost no gravel or coarse sand, giving it a fine-grained texture.
The fertility of black soil varies significantly with topography. In upland areas, the soils are generally thin, poorly developed, and have lower fertility. In contrast, the black soils in valleys and low-lying river plains are deeper, darker, and highly fertile due to the accumulation of organic matter and fine clay materials washed down from the uplands.
129Science and Technology
In the context of Green Propulsion, which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the advantage(s) of using Hydroxylammonium Nitrate (HAN)-based monopropellants over traditional Hydrazine?
1. HAN-based fuels have a higher density and higher specific impulse, offering better performance with lower toxicity.
2. HAN-based fuels do not require an ignition source as they react spontaneously with the vacuum of space.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Hydroxylammonium Nitrate (HAN)-based monopropellants, such as AF-M315E (now known as ASCENT), are widely recognized as viable green propellant alternatives to highly toxic hydrazine. They feature a significantly higher density (around 1.47 g/cm³ compared to 1.0 g/cm³ for hydrazine) and a higher specific impulse (approximately 250 seconds versus 220 seconds for hydrazine), leading to superior performance and reduced overall volume requirements. They also have remarkably low toxicity, which simplifies handling and drastically cuts ground operation costs.
However, HAN-based monopropellants do not react spontaneously with the vacuum of space. Due to their high chemical stability and water content, they have a high onset temperature of decomposition and require a reliable, active ignition source—such as a catalyst bed preheated to several hundred degrees Celsius—to initiate and sustain combustion.
130Logical Reasoning
If today is Saturday, which day will it be on 190th day from today?
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Answer: (B) Sunday
Explanation
To find the day of the week on the 190th day from today, we calculate the number of odd days by dividing 190 by 7, which is the number of days in a week.
190 = 27 × 7 + 1
The remainder is 1, which means 190 days consist of 27 complete weeks and 1 odd day. Adding 1 day to Saturday results in Sunday.
131History
Which of the following statements regarding the India-Pakistan war in 1971 is/are true?
1. Yahya Khan signed the instrument of surrender on behalf of Pakistan.
2. Chief of Indian army during this war was J.S. Arora.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
During the 1971 India-Pakistan war, the Instrument of Surrender was signed on behalf of Pakistan by Lieutenant-General A. A. K. Niazi, the Commander of the Pakistani forces in East Pakistan, rather than President Yahya Khan. Additionally, the Chief of the Army Staff of the Indian Army during this conflict was General Sam Manekshaw, while Lieutenant General Jagjit Singh Aurora served as the General Officer Commanding-in-Chief of the Eastern Command of the Indian Army who accepted the surrender.
132Geography
Nathu La pass on the India-China border is located in which state?
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Answer: (D) Sikkim
Explanation
Nathu La is a high-altitude mountain pass in the Himalayas, situated at an elevation of approximately 4,310 meters. It is located in the East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim, forming a crucial link on the Indo-China border that connects Sikkim with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China. Historically, this pass was an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road and remains one of the officially designated border personnel meeting points between the Indian military and the Chinese People's Liberation Army.
133Polity and Governance
Consider the following in relation to the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):
1. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation.
2. It is responsible for the regulation of air transport services.
3. Its headquarters are in Bengaluru.
4. It coordinates with the Indian Air Force for its day-to-day functions.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is the statutory regulatory body for civil aviation in India, operating under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation, which includes formulating and enforcing safety standards, conducting safety audits, and ensuring airworthiness requirements. Additionally, the DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to, from, and within India, overseeing the licensing of pilots, air traffic controllers, and aircraft maintenance engineers, as well as granting air operator certificates. Its headquarters are located in New Delhi, and it coordinates its regulatory functions with the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO).
134Economy
Consider the following statements with respect to literacy according to the Census of India, 2011.
1. A person is considered literate if he or she can read and write, with understanding, in any language.
2. Literacy rate is the total average percentage of population of an area at a particular time who can read and write with understanding.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Under the Census of India 2011, a person aged seven years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is considered literate. A person who can only read but cannot write is not classified as literate.
The literacy rate, also known as the effective literacy rate, is calculated as the percentage of the literate population aged seven years and above to the total population aged seven years and above. Children aged six years or below are classified as illiterate by default, meaning the entire population of an area is not used as the denominator when determining the official literacy rate.
135Science and Technology
With reference to ISRO's achievements in Quantum Communication, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. ISRO successfully demonstrated free-space Quantum Communication over a distance of 300 meters, including live video conferencing using quantum-key-encrypted signals.
2. India is the first country in the world to establish a dedicated quantum-secure link between its mainland and an orbiting satellite in Deep Space.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
In March 2021, the Space Applications Centre (SAC) of ISRO successfully demonstrated free-space Quantum Key Distribution (QKD) over a distance of 300 meters. The experiment featured a live video conferencing demonstration using quantum-key-encrypted signals.
China was the first country to establish a satellite-to-ground quantum-secure link with the launch of the Micius satellite in 2016. Furthermore, these satellite-based quantum communications are operated in Low Earth Orbit (LEO) rather than Deep Space.
136Polity and Governance
Meera shows her friend a family photo album. Pointing to a boy, she says, "This is Dakshit and he is my grandfather's only grandson." Later, she shows her the photos of her grandfather's two sons, Jayesh and Vijay and tells her that her grandfather has only two sons, no daughters. Pointing to a woman, she says, "This is my mother Sheetal, who is standing with her brother-in-law Vijay and his wife Sunita." Meera also shows the photo of her only sister Mamta.
Dakshit is Sunita's _____________.
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Answer: (D) Nephew
Explanation
Meera's grandfather has two sons, Jayesh and Vijay, and no daughters.
Sheetal's brother-in-law is Vijay, which means Sheetal is married to Jayesh. Thus, Meera and her only sister Mamta are the daughters of Jayesh and Sheetal.
The grandfather's only grandson is Dakshit, which makes him the son of Jayesh and Sheetal, and the brother of Meera and Mamta.
Sunita is married to Vijay, who is the brother of Jayesh. Since Dakshit is the son of Jayesh, he is the nephew of Vijay and his wife Sunita.
137Polity and Governance
Meera shows her friend a family photo album. Pointing to a boy, she says, "This is Dakshit and he is my grandfather's only grandson." Later, she shows her the photos of her grandfather's two sons, Jayesh and Vijay and tells her that her grandfather has only two sons, no daughters. Pointing to a woman, she says, "This is my mother Sheetal, who is standing with her brother-in-law Vijay and his wife Sunita." Meera also shows the photo of her only sister Mamta.
Mamta is Vijay's _____________.
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Answer: (D) Niece
Explanation
By analyzing the family structure, the relationships can be determined as follows:
Meera's grandfather has only two sons, Jayesh and Vijay, and no daughters.
Sheetal is Meera's mother and is standing with her brother-in-law Vijay. This means Sheetal is married to the other brother, Jayesh.
Meera, Mamta (who is Meera's only sister), and Dakshit are the children of Jayesh and Sheetal.
Since Vijay is the brother of Jayesh, he is the paternal uncle of Mamta. Consequently, Mamta is Vijay's niece.
138Polity and Governance
Meera shows her friend a family photo album. Pointing to a boy, she says, "This is Dakshit and he is my grandfather's only grandson." Later, she shows her the photos of her grandfather's two sons, Jayesh and Vijay and tells her that her grandfather has only two sons, no daughters. Pointing to a woman, she says, "This is my mother Sheetal, who is standing with her brother-in-law Vijay and his wife Sunita." Meera also shows the photo of her only sister Mamta.
How many children are there in the third generation (to which Mira belongs)?
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Answer: (B) Three
Explanation
The family structure across three generations is as follows:
First Generation: Grandfather.
Second Generation: Grandfather's two sons, Jayesh and Vijay. Since Sheetal is Meera's mother and Vijay is Sheetal's brother-in-law, Sheetal is married to Jayesh, while Sunita is married to Vijay.
Third Generation: The children of Jayesh and Vijay.
Meera and her only sister, Mamta, are two female children in this generation. Dakshit is the grandfather's only grandson, which means he is the only male child in this generation. Since no other children are mentioned, the third generation consists of exactly three children: Meera, Mamta, and Dakshit.
139History
Which of the following contributions of Aryabhatta is/are true?
1. Earth rotates around stationary Sun
2. Cause of solar and lunar eclipse
3. Nearly correct value of the circumference of the earth
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Aryabhata, the classical Indian mathematician and astronomer who wrote the Aryabhatiya in 499 AD, made several pioneering contributions to astronomy:
He proposed that the Earth rotates on its axis, causing the apparent daily movement of the stars and heavenly bodies. In this geocentric/heliocentric transitional understanding, he pointed out that the Sun remains stationary while the Earth rotates.
He provided the scientific explanation for eclipses, stating that solar and lunar eclipses are caused by shadows rather than mythological demons. Specifically, a lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon enters the shadow of the Earth, and a solar eclipse occurs when the Moon passes between the Earth and the Sun.
He estimated the circumference of the Earth to be 4967 yojanas, which translates to approximately 39968 km. This is remarkably close to the actual modern equatorial circumference of 40075 km, representing an error of less than 1%.
140Science and Technology
The first successful test of the Indian-made, helicopter-launched, short-range anti-ship missile was conducted in 2026. What is the name of that missile?
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Answer: (B) NASM-SR
Explanation
The Naval Anti-Ship Missile – Short Range (NASM-SR) is India's first indigenously developed helicopter-launched short-range anti-ship missile. Developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with the Indian Navy, the missile is designed for deployment from ship-borne helicopters like the Westland Sea King, MH-60R, and HAL Dhruv. It is equipped with advanced indigenous technologies, including an Imaging Infra-Red (IIR) Seeker for terminal guidance, a high-bandwidth two-way datalink for in-flight retargeting, and a solid-propellant propulsion system with an ejectable booster and a long-burn sustainer. The successful salvo tests of this advanced weapon system validated its rapid-launch capabilities and precision waterline strike targeting.
141Polity and Governance
The Competition Commission of India aims to establish a robust competitive environment through the proactive engagement with
1. Government
2. Industry
3. Consumers
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Competition Commission of India, established under the Competition Act of 2002, outlines its core mission to foster and establish a robust competitive environment in the country. To achieve this objective, the commission relies on proactive engagement with all major stakeholders. This includes active participation and dialogue with the government, various industries, and consumers, alongside international jurisdictions. Engaging with these sectors helps the commission prevent anti-competitive agreements, regulate mergers and acquisitions, and protect consumer welfare.
142Economy
Consider the following statements about commercial dairy farming.
1. It is a high labour intensive activity.
2. It is highly commercial, wherein, efficient transport, refrigeration and pasteurization processes are its major facilitators.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
Commercial dairy farming is the most advanced and efficient type of rearing milch animals. It is highly labour-intensive because it requires continuous, year-round care of the cattle, including feeding, milking, breeding, and veterinary healthcare, without any off-season. Additionally, it is a highly commercialized and capital-intensive activity that depends heavily on urban and industrial markets. Efficient transportation networks, refrigeration systems, pasteurization techniques, and preservation processes are essential facilitators, as they extend the shelf life of fresh milk and various dairy products, allowing them to be transported over long distances without spoilage.
143Science and Technology
What role does Electric Propulsion play in the modern Green Space Movement?
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Answer: (B) They use solar energy to accelerate ions to very high speeds, providing high fuel efficiency for long-duration missions.
Explanation
Electric propulsion systems, such as ion thrusters, utilize electrical energy harvested from solar panels to ionize propellant atoms and accelerate them to exceptionally high velocities using electromagnetic fields. This process generates a very high specific impulse, which translates to superior fuel efficiency compared to conventional chemical rockets. By requiring significantly less propellant mass to achieve the necessary velocity changes over time, this technology enables highly efficient, long-duration space maneuvers and deep-space missions, making it a key element of sustainable and resource-efficient space exploration.
144Economy
A Charity kitchen has grain to serve 200 people for 40 days. If 50 people leave after 10 days, how long from now would the grain last?
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Answer: (B) 40 days
Explanation
The standard relation for food provision problems is M₁ × D₁ = M₂ × D₂, where M is the number of people and D is the number of days.
Initially, after 10 days have passed, the remaining grain is sufficient to feed the original M₁ = 200 people for D₁ = 30 days (calculated as 40 - 10 = 30 days).
After 50 people leave, the remaining strength of people becomes M₂ = 200 - 50 = 150 people.
Let D₂ be the number of days the remaining grain will last for these 150 people from this point onward. Substituting the values into the formula:
200 × 30 = 150 × D₂
D₂ = 6000 / 150 = 40 days
145HistoryGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements regarding the Girnar rock inscriptions are correct?
1. Girnar rock inscription has inscriptions of Ashoka, Rudradaman and Skandagupta
2. Inscriptions are in Pali language
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The Girnar rock inscription, located near Junagadh in Gujarat, contains the inscriptions of three prominent rulers belonging to different dynasties: Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, the Western Kshatrapa ruler Rudradaman I, and the Gupta Emperor Skandagupta. This makes Statement 1 correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the inscriptions on the rock are not written in the Pali language. Ashoka's fourteen major rock edicts at Girnar are written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script. The subsequent inscriptions of both Rudradaman I and Skandagupta are written in Classical Sanskrit. Rudradaman's inscription is particularly significant as it is one of the earliest and longest major prose inscriptions written in chaste Classical Sanskrit.
146Art and Culture
Consider the following statements about Prasoon Joshi:
1. Recently the Government of India has appointed him as the Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
2. Prior to this appointment, he was working as the Chairman of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
3. He has written the song "Main Kabhi Batalta Nahin, Par Andhere Se Darta Hoon Main Ma..." from the film 'Tare Zameen Par'.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
In May 2026, the Ministry of Information and Broadcasting appointed the renowned lyricist, writer, and communications expert Prasoon Joshi as the Chairman of Prasar Bharati.
Prior to this appointment, he served as the Chairperson of the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) from August 2017, rather than the International Film Festival of India (IFFI).
Prasoon Joshi is a highly acclaimed lyricist who penned the national award-winning song Maa (which contains the lyrics Main Kabhi Batlata Nahin, Par Andhere Se Darta Hoon Main Maa) from the 2007 film Taare Zameen Par.
147Polity and Governance
The Basic Structure doctrine propounded by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case is related to which of the following?
1. Encroachment of executive powers into the judiciary
2. The power of Parliament to amend the Constitution
3. Supremacy of the Constitution
4. Legislative control of the executive
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Basic Structure doctrine was propounded by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) specifically to define and limit the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution under Article 368. The Court ruled that while Parliament has wide-ranging powers to amend the Constitution, it cannot alter, destroy, or emasculate its basic structure or core identity. Among the fundamental features identified by the Court as forming the core of this basic structure is the supremacy of the Constitution, which ensures that the Constitution remains the supreme law of the land and cannot be subverted by legislative amendments.
148Geography
Consider the following statements regarding Aravallis:
1. The region is home to important lakes and wetlands including Sambhar, Sultanpur, Pushkar, Fatehsagar and Jaisamand.
2. It is one of the main watersheds, separating the drainage of the Bay of Bengal, through rivers like Chambal and other tributaries of the Yamuna, from that of the Arabian Sea through the Mahi, Sabarmati, Luni and other rivers.
3. The mountain range is home to lead, zinc, copper, gold, tungsten and has reserves of critical minerals such as tin, graphite, molybdenum, niobium, nickel, lithium and rare earth elements (REEs). These are considered to be of strategic relevance for energy transition, high-technology manufacturing and national security.
4. Rocks in the Aravallis are highly fractured, weathered and porous, allowing rainwater to percolate deep into the ground instead of running off the surface. Any disruption to this recharge system, through mining, construction or deforestation poses a direct and serious threat to regional water availability.
5. The Aravalli hills and range are 'green lungs' of North-Western India and serve as the indispensable ecological and socio-economic backbone of the region, functioning as the primary geographical barrier separating the arid North-Western desert from the fertile Northern Indian plains.
Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Explanation
The Aravalli range serves as a critical ecological, hydrological, and economic lifeline for northwestern India, validating all five statements.
The region supports vital wetlands and lakes such as Sambhar, Sultanpur, Pushkar, Fatehsagar, and Jaisamand, maintaining regional biodiversity.
As a primary water divide, it separates the Arabian Sea drainage basin comprising the Luni, Sabarmati, and Mahi rivers from the Bay of Bengal drainage basin via the Chambal and other Yamuna tributaries.
Geologically, the range is a rich repository of base metals like copper, lead, zinc, and tungsten, along with critical minerals including graphite, lithium, niobium, and rare earth elements crucial for high-technology industries.
Its highly fractured and weathered rock structure acts as an indispensable groundwater recharge system, facilitating deep rainwater percolation that feeds regional aquifers.
Additionally, the range functions as a geographical barrier, protecting the fertile Indo-Gangetic plains from the eastward expansion of the Thar Desert while acting as the green lungs for the Delhi-NCR and surrounding regions.
149Science and Technology
What is the primary technical objective of the Second Stage of India's Three-Stage Nuclear Power Programme?
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Answer: (B) To use Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs) to burn Plutonium-239 and breed more fuel from a Thorium blanket.
Explanation
The second stage of India's three-stage nuclear power programme centers on Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs). In this stage, plutonium-239 obtained from reprocessing the spent fuel of the first stage is used as the primary fuel. The FBRs are designed to utilize a blanket of thorium-232 surrounding the reactive core. During the fission process of plutonium-239, excess neutrons are absorbed by the thorium-232 blanket, transmuting it into fissile uranium-233. This process breeds more fissile fuel than the reactor consumes, which serves the critical technical objective of generating the necessary inventory of uranium-233 required to sustain the thorium-based third stage of the nuclear power programme.
150Economy
The sum of 30 observations is 910. If one of the observations is taken as -25 instead of 25, find the correct mean.
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Answer: (C) 32
Explanation
The given incorrect sum of 30 observations is 910. One of the observations was incorrectly taken as -25 instead of the correct value of 25.
To find the correct sum, we subtract the incorrect value and add the correct value to the incorrect sum:
Correct sum = Incorrect sum - Incorrect value + Correct value
Correct sum = 910 - (-25) + 25
Correct sum = 910 + 25 + 25 = 960
Using the formula for the mean:
Mean = Sum of observations / Total number of observations
Correct mean = 960 / 30 = 32
151History
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Battle of Plassey?
1. Battle of Plassey was won by the East India Company due to their superior military.
2. After the Battle of Plassey, East India Company virtually monopolised the trade and commerce of Bengal.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
The Battle of Plassey in 1757 was won by the British East India Company not due to superior military strength, but through a pre-planned conspiracy orchestrated by Robert Clive. Clive bribed Mir Jafar, the commander-in-chief of Nawab Siraj-ud-Daulah, along with influential figures like Rai Durlabh and Jagat Seth, ensuring that a vast portion of the Nawab's army remained inactive during the conflict.
Following the victory, the British established political dominance over Bengal by placing Mir Jafar on the throne as a puppet Nawab. This political leverage enabled the East India Company to virtually monopolise the trade and commerce of Bengal, securing duty-free trade rights and systematically eliminating their European competitors.
152Polity and Governance
Which of the following foreign dignitaries visited India in 2026?
1. Ursula von der Leyen: President of the European Commission
2. Sheikh Mohammed Bin Zayed Al Nahyan: President of the United Arab Emirates (UAE)
3. Emmanuel Macron: Prime Minister of France
Select the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
Ursula von der Leyen is the President of the European Commission and visited India from 25 to 27 January 2026. She joined European Council President Antonio Costa as Chief Guests at India's 77th Republic Day celebrations and co-chaired the 16th India-EU Summit in New Delhi.
Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, the President of the United Arab Emirates, visited India on 19 January 2026. During this visit, India and the UAE agreed to a strategic defence partnership and set a target to double their bilateral trade to 200 billion USD by 2032.
While Emmanuel Macron visited India from 17 to 19 February 2026 to participate in the Artificial Intelligence Impact Summit, he serves as the President of France rather than the Prime Minister of France. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.
153Polity and Governance
In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the right to privacy is a Fundamental Right?
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Answer: (D) Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India
Explanation
In the landmark case of Justice K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017), a nine-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court of India unanimously ruled that the right to privacy is a fundamental right. The Court declared that privacy is an intrinsic part of the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, and is protected as an essential aspect of the freedoms safeguarded by Part III of the Constitution.
154Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the international border of India:
1. The states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim share borders with Nepal.
2. The states of West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram share borders with Bangladesh.
3. India shares the shortest international border with Bhutan.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
India shares its international land borders with seven countries. Nepal shares a border length of approximately 1751 km with five Indian states, namely Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim.
Bangladesh shares the longest international land border with India, stretching about 4156 km, and is bordered by five Indian states, which are West Bengal, Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
India shares its shortest international land border with Afghanistan, which extends for about 106 km along the Ladakh region, while the border with Bhutan is significantly longer at approximately 699 km.
155Science and Technology
Regarding India's engagement with global nuclear regimes, which of the following statement(s) is/are true?
1. India is a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT) and the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).
2. India is a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR), the Wassenaar Arrangement and the Australia Group.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
India has successfully integrated into three of the four major global non-proliferation and export control regimes. It became a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime in June 2016, the Wassenaar Arrangement in December 2017, and the Australia Group in January 2018.
On the other hand, India has consistently refused to sign the Non-Proliferation Treaty and the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty. India considers both treaties to be discriminatory and non-inclusive, as they create an artificial divide between recognized nuclear-weapon states and non-nuclear-weapon states without offering a clear, universal, or time-bound commitment to global nuclear disarmament.
156History
Match the following Land revenue systems and Provinces in India during the British rule correctly:
| Land revenue methods | Provinces |
|---|---|
| 1. Zamindari System | a. United Provinces, Central Provinces, Punjab |
| 2. Mahawari System | b. Bengal, Bihar, Orissa |
| 3. Ryotwari System | c. Bombay, Madras |
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (B) 1 - b , 2 - a , 3 - c
Explanation
The Zamindari System, also known as the Permanent Settlement, was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa, making landlords the owners of the land with fixed revenue rights.
The Mahalwari System was introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 in the United Provinces, Central Provinces, and Punjab, where the revenue was assessed collectively for an entire village or estate, known as a Mahal.
The Ryotwari System was introduced by Thomas Munro and Alexander Read in 1820 in Madras and Bombay, creating a direct land revenue settlement between the government and the individual cultivators, known as ryots.
157Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): In 2014, the "Look East" policy was replaced by the "Act East" policy.
Reason (R): The "Look East" policy focused on economic integration with ASEAN countries, whereas the "Act East" policy focused on ASEAN countries + Economic Integration + East Asian countries + Security Cooperation.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation
India originally launched the Look East Policy in 1991 to focus primarily on economic integration, trade, and establishing connectivity with ASEAN nations. In November 2014, during the 12th ASEAN-India Summit, the policy was upgraded to the Act East Policy. This transition was made to shift from a passive approach to a more proactive, action-oriented strategy. The Act East Policy expanded the geographical coverage to include East Asian nations like Japan, South Korea, and Australia, and deepened the relationship by adding a robust security and defense cooperation dimension alongside economic and cultural integration. Therefore, the expanded scope and structural change in strategic objectives directly explain the upgrade and replacement of the policy.
158Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
1. The principle of 'Procedure Established by Law' is not mentioned in the Constitution; the Supreme Court adopted it after the Maneka Gandhi case.
2. The principle of 'Due Process of Law' is mentioned in the Constitution.
3. "Procedure Established by Law ensures that the law is as it ought to be - just and reasonable, whereas Due Process is about how the law is made."
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
All three statements are incorrect. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions the term procedure established by law, meaning this principle is directly written in the Constitution. The doctrine of due process of law is not explicitly mentioned in the Indian Constitution, though the Supreme Court read this doctrine into Article 21 during the Maneka Gandhi case in 1978 by holding that the procedure must be just, fair, and reasonable.
Furthermore, the definitions in the third statement are reversed. Procedure established by law focuses on whether the legislature followed the correct, legally prescribed procedure when enacting a law, meaning it is about how the law is made. Due process of law not only checks whether the correct procedure was followed but also ensures that the law itself is just, fair, and reasonable, meaning it evaluates the law as it ought to be.
159Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Shivaliks were formed after all the mountain ranges of Himalayas.
2. Middle Himalayas are also known as Himadri.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
The Shivalik Range, representing the Outer Himalayas, is the youngest of all the Himalayan mountain ranges, formed during the Pliocene to Early Pleistocene epoch. It consists of consolidated sediments brought down by rivers from the higher ranges located further north. The Greater Himalayas are known as Himadri, whereas the Middle Himalayas are referred to as Himachal. Therefore, Statement 1 is accurate and Statement 2 is inaccurate.
160Science and Technology
What is the unique significance of the BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited) enterprise in India's energy sector?
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Answer: (B) It is the nodal agency for the implementation and operation of Stage-II Fast Breeder Reactors.
Explanation
BHAVINI (Bharatiya Nabhikiya Vidyut Nigam Limited) is a Public Sector Undertaking under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), established in 2003. It is the nodal agency tasked with the construction, commissioning, and operation of Fast Breeder Reactors (FBRs). FBRs represent Stage-II of India's three-stage nuclear power program. Under this mandate, BHAVINI is responsible for the Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor (PFBR) at Kalpakkam, Tamil Nadu, which utilizes mixed oxide (MOX) fuel of uranium and plutonium to generate power while breeding more fissile material than it consumes.
161History
Consider the statements related to Bal Gangadhar Tilak:
1. Tilak was associated with the Home Rule League movement.
2. Tilak was a founder member of the Indian National Congress.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1
Explanation
Bal Gangadhar Tilak launched the Indian Home Rule League in April 1916 at Belgaum to demand self-government for India within the British Empire, which confirms his association with the Home Rule League movement. The Indian National Congress was founded in December 1885 by Allan Octavian Hume, Dadabhai Naoroji, and Dinshaw Wacha, among others. Tilak was not a founding member of the organization, as he joined the Congress later in 1890.
162Polity and Governance
In the context of the Agnipath Scheme announced by the Central Government in 2022, consider the following statements:
1. "A person appointed under the Agnipath scheme is called an Agnirakshak"
2. "The Agnipath scheme is applicable only to the Army."
3. "Under the Agnipath scheme, the appointment is made for a period of four years."
4. "A person below the age of 19 years cannot apply for recruitment under the Agnipath scheme."
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Only 3
Explanation
Under the Agnipath Scheme launched by the Central Government in 2022, candidates are recruited to serve in the Indian Armed Forces for a tenure of four years. This duration is uniform across all three branches of the military: the Indian Army, Indian Navy, and Indian Air Force. The eligibility age bracket for candidates under this scheme is established as 17.5 to 21 years, allowing individuals under the age of 19 to apply and join. Recruits enlisted under this short-term service program are designated as Agniveers.
163Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Judiciary:
1. The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge is mentioned in the Constitution.
2. The procedure for the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court is given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
3. The procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge is stated in the Collegium system. Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
Article 124(4) of the Indian Constitution outlines the constitutional framework for removing a Supreme Court judge, requiring an address by both Houses of Parliament passed by a special majority (majority of the total membership and two-thirds of the members present and voting) during the same session, on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Article 124(5) empowers Parliament to regulate the detailed procedure for the investigation and proof of misbehaviour or incapacity. In exercise of this constitutional power, Parliament enacted the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, which provides the step-by-step statutory procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court judge, including the introduction of a motion, the constitution of a three-member inquiry committee, and the presentation of the report to Parliament.
164Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. The Chhota Nagpur plateau is composed mainly of Gondwana rocks.
2. The Damodar river flows from east to west in the Chhota Nagpur plateau.
3. The radial drainage pattern is observed in Chhota Nagpur plateau.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the Chhota Nagpur plateau is primarily composed of Gondwana rocks, along with patches of ancient Archaean granites, gneisses, and Deccan lavas. These Gondwana sedimentary formations are highly significant as they contain massive coal reserves of India, particularly in the rift valleys.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Damodar river originates near Chandwa in Latehar district on the plateau and flows in an eastward direction (from west to east) through a rift valley before joining the Hooghly river in West Bengal.
Statement 3 is correct because the Chhota Nagpur plateau, particularly the Ranchi plateau and Pat region, forms a dome-like upland that acts as a water divide. It exhibits a radial drainage pattern where numerous rivers such as the Damodar, Subarnarekha, North Koel, South Koel, and Barakar flow outwards in different directions from the central highland.
165Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding the PM-WANI (Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface) scheme?
1. It aims to provide affordable high-speed internet by allowing local shopkeepers and entrepreneurs to set up public Wi-Fi hotspots without requiring a license from the Department of Telecommunications.
2. The architecture of the scheme involves four layers: Public Data Offices (PDOs), Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs), App Providers and a Central Registry.
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Prime Minister Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (PM-WANI) scheme was approved by the Union Cabinet to democratize broadband connectivity and expand the public Wi-Fi network across India.
Statement 1 is correct because the scheme encourages local shopkeepers, kirana stores, and small establishments to become last-mile internet service providers by setting up Wi-Fi hotspots, known as Public Data Offices (PDOs). These PDOs do not require any license, registration, or payment of fees to the Department of Telecommunications (DoT), which significantly lowers entry barriers.
Statement 2 is correct because the scheme operates on a distributed architecture consisting of four essential layers. First, Public Data Offices (PDOs) establish, operate, and maintain Wi-Fi access points. Second, Public Data Office Aggregators (PDOAs) perform authentication, accounting, and aggregate multiple PDOs. Third, App Providers develop applications for users to register, discover, and access nearby hotspots. Fourth, a Central Registry maintained by C-DOT coordinates and maintains records of all players to ensure interoperability.
166Art and Culture
Chronology (Musicians/Tradition):
Arrange the following persons/movements in chronological order:
1. Amir Khusro
2. Tansen
3. Thyagaraja
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) 1-2-3
Explanation
Amir Khusro (1253 to 1325 CE) was an iconic Sufi musician, poet, and scholar who lived during the Delhi Sultanate period and is widely regarded as the father of Qawwali and the inventor of the sitar and tabla.
Tansen (circa 1506 to 1589 CE) was a legendary Hindustani classical musician, composer, and vocalist who served as one of the nine jewels (Navaratnas) in the court of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.
Thyagaraja (1767 to 1847 CE) was a prolific composer of Carnatic music, highly revered as one of the Trinity of Carnatic music, who composed thousands of devotional songs, primarily in praise of Lord Rama.
167Economy
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): India is a founding member of the World Trade Organization.
Reason (R): The World Trade Organization was established replacing General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT).
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation
India has been a member of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) since 1948 and became a founding member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) upon its inception on January 1, 1995. The WTO was indeed established to replace GATT as the global supervisor of international trade following the Marrakesh Agreement. While both statements are factually correct, the replacement of GATT by the WTO does not explain the reason behind India being a founding member of the WTO. India's founding member status is a result of it being an active participant in the Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations and a signatory to the Marrakesh Agreement.
168Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion(A): The Constitution of India has become the longest constitution in the world.
Reason(R): The chapter on Fundamental Rights has been borrowed from the model of the American Constitution.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (B) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are correct, but Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
Explanation
The Constitution of India is the longest written constitution of any sovereign nation in the world. At its adoption, it contained 395 articles divided into 22 parts and 8 schedules, which has further expanded over the years through various amendments. The primary factors contributing to its bulk are the geographical vastness and diversity of India, the incorporation of detailed administrative provisions from the massive Government of India Act 1935, the existence of a single constitution covering both the Union and the states, and the prominent influence of legal luminaries in the Constituent Assembly.
The Indian Constitution borrowed its chapter on Fundamental Rights in Part III from the Bill of Rights of the United States Constitution. However, the United States Constitution is one of the shortest written constitutions in the world. Thus, while both statements are individually true, the borrowing of Fundamental Rights from the American model is not the reason behind the immense length of the Indian Constitution.
169Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. The Lidar is an important tributary of the Jhelum River in Kashmir.
2. The Hindon River is a tributary of the Yamuna River.
3. The Teesta River is an important tributary of the Brahmaputra River from the south.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Lidder River, also spelled Lidar, originates from the Kolahoi Glacier in Jammu and Kashmir and flows through the Kashmir Valley before merging with the Jhelum River near Khanabal.
The Hindon River originates in the Shivalik range of Saharanpur district in Uttar Pradesh and flows through western Uttar Pradesh before joining the Yamuna River as a tributary near Noida.
The Teesta River is a major right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River, originating from Tso Lhamo Lake in North Sikkim and flowing southward through Sikkim and West Bengal before entering Bangladesh, meaning it joins the Brahmaputra from the north (right bank) rather than the south.
170Polity and Governance
In the context of the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA), consider the following statements:
1. The scheme's primary goal is to make at least one person in every rural household digitally literate, specifically targeting the age group of 14 to 60 years.
2. To bridge the digital divide, the scheme gives priority to non-smartphone users, Antyodaya households and college drop-outs from marginalized communities.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan (PMGDISHA) was launched under the Digital India Programme to foster digital literacy in rural India.
Statement 1 is correct. The primary objective of the scheme is to make at least one person in every eligible rural household digitally literate, focusing on households where no family member is currently digitally literate. The eligibility criteria for training under this scheme specifically targets the productive age group of 14 to 60 years.
Statement 2 is correct. In order to bridge the digital divide and ensure that marginalized and disadvantaged groups benefit first, the scheme guidelines mandate giving priority to non-smartphone users, Antyodaya households, college drop-outs, and participants of adult literacy missions.
171History
Which states had a relation with Goutham Buddha's Life?
1. Avanti
2. Gandhar
3. Kosal
4. Magadh
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (C) Only 3 and 4
Explanation
Gautama Buddha spent a significant portion of his life, preached his teachings, and gained royal patronage in the kingdoms of Kosala and Magadha. In Magadha, Buddha attained enlightenment at Bodh Gaya under the Bodhi tree and preached several of his important sermons in Rajgriha, the capital of Magadha. The rulers of Magadha, Bimbisara and Ajatashatru, were great patrons of Buddha. In Kosala, Buddha spent many years, particularly at the Jetavana monastery in Shravasti, which was the capital of Kosala. King Prasenajit of Kosala was also a devout disciple and contemporary of Buddha. These two regions served as the primary geographical areas for Buddha's active ministry and monastic life.
172Economy
Which of the following statements regarding the International Monetary Fund are correct?
1. It provides balance of payments support.
2. It was established under the Bretton Woods Agreement.
3. It is part of the World Bank Group.
4. India is its member.
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 4
Explanation
The International Monetary Fund is an international organization established alongside the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development at the Bretton Woods Conference in July 1944. Its primary mission is to ensure the stability of the international monetary system, which it achieves in part by providing temporary financial assistance and loans to member countries experiencing balance of payments difficulties. India is one of the original founder members of the institution, having signed the Articles of Agreement on December 27, 1945.
173Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The Constitution of India now provides a mechanism for a regular flow of funds to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Reason (R): Panchayati Raj institutions have been greatly handicapped in the performance of their assigned duties by paucity of funds.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (A) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are correct and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
Explanation
The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992 added Article 243-I to the Constitution of India, which mandates the constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats and recommend the distribution of tax revenues and grants-in-aid. This constitutional provision establishes a structured and regular mechanism for the flow of funds to Panchayati Raj Institutions. The underlying reason for incorporating this constitutional mechanism was that local self-government bodies had historically been highly ineffective and severely handicapped in performing their developmental duties due to a chronic shortage of financial resources and absolute dependence on discretionary state grants. By institutionalizing the devolution of funds, the Constitution directly addressed this fundamental weakness of paucity of funds, making the reason the correct explanation for the assertion.
174Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. When the temperature decrease in the South Pacific Ocean, India receives deficient rainfall.
2. El Nino is an important factor in the drought situation in India.
3. El Nino is a warm current that flows along the coast of Peru in December.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
El Nino is a warm ocean current that develops along the coast of Peru and Ecuador, typically appearing around December, which is why it is named after the Christ Child. During an El Nino event, the warming of the sea surface temperatures in the eastern and central tropical Pacific Ocean alters atmospheric circulation patterns globally. This warming weakens the trade winds and disrupts the normal monsoon winds, frequently leading to deficient rainfall and severe drought situations in India.
175Science and Technology
Which of the following statements regarding the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and India's missile programme are correct?
1. DRDO is responsible for the development of indigenous missile systems under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
2. The Prithvi missile is a short-range ballistic missile.
3. The Agni series are primarily surface-to-air missiles.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP) was a premier project of the Ministry of Defence managed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) to develop a comprehensive range of missiles, making statement 1 correct.
The Prithvi missile is a surface-to-surface battlefield tactical short-range ballistic missile (SRBM), which validates statement 2.
The Agni series of missiles are medium to intercontinental-range surface-to-surface ballistic missiles, not surface-to-air missiles, which makes statement 3 incorrect.
176History
Which of the following statements is/are correct about Kabir?
1. He was contemporary to Sultan Sikandar Lodi.
2. Kabir's sermons to Sikh community are compiled in the "Sabad" epic.
3. They were associated with Nirgun Bhakti.
4. Kabir's teachings are compiled in Sakhi, Sabad and Ramaini. These were collected by Kabir's disciple, Mulakdas in a book called 'Bijak'.
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Kabir was a contemporary of Sultan Sikandar Lodi of Delhi, who ruled from 1489 to 1517. Several traditional accounts detail the interactions and conflicts between Kabir and Sikandar Lodi.
Kabir's sermons and verses compiled for the Sikh community are integrated into the Sikh holy scripture, the Guru Granth Sahib, where they are organized under the term Sabad (or Shabad) and Salok.
He was a major exponent of the Nirgun Bhakti tradition, which propagates devotion to a formless, immanent, and absolute God without attributes, rejecting idol worship and ritualistic practices.
Kabir's compositions are divided into Sakhi, Sabad, and Ramaini, which were compiled in the scripture Bijak by his disciple Dharamdas. Mulakdas was a distinct Bhakti saint who lived during a later period. Therefore, the fourth statement is incorrect, which makes the combination of statements 1, 2, and 3 correct.
177Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): India is a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation.
Reason (R): The SCO focuses on regional security and economic cooperation in Eurasia.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (B) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation
India became a full member of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) in June 2017 during the Astana Summit, having previously held observer status since 2005. The SCO is a permanent intergovernmental international organization established in 2001 with the primary objective of promoting regional security, combating terrorism, and enhancing economic and cultural cooperation across Eurasia. While both the assertion and the reason are factually accurate, the organization's thematic focus on Eurasian security and economic cooperation does not explain the geopolitical reasons or the historical diplomatic process through which India attained its full membership.
178Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court can invalidate a Constitutional Amendment violating Fundamental Rights even if it does not affect the Basic Structure.
Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are superior to all other constitutional provisions.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (D) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct.
Explanation
Assertion (A) is incorrect because under the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court of India established the Basic Structure doctrine. According to this doctrine, the amending power of Parliament under Article 368 is broad enough to amend any part of the Constitution, including the Fundamental Rights, provided that such amendments do not alter, damage, or destroy the basic structure of the Constitution. Therefore, the Supreme Court cannot invalidate a Constitutional Amendment merely because it violates a Fundamental Right, unless that violation also amounts to a breach of the basic structure of the Constitution.
179History
Consider the following statements:
1. The census year 1921 registered a negative growth rate in the demographic history of India.
2. The year 1921 is known as the "Demographic divide" in the demographic history of India.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
During the decade from 1911 to 1921, India experienced a negative population growth rate of approximately -0.31% due to widespread famines and deadly epidemics, notably the 1918 influenza pandemic, which caused extremely high mortality rates. This was the only census decade in India's history where the population declined. Consequently, the year 1921 is referred to as the Great Demographic Divide because after this year, India entered a phase of steady and continuous population growth, leaving behind the era of fluctuating and stagnant population levels.
180History
Which state/s supported the British in suppressing the Revolt of 1857?
1. Scindia of Gwalior
2. Nizam of Hyderabad
3. Begum of Awadh
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
The Scindia of Gwalior, Maharaja Jayajirao Scindia, remained loyal to the British during the Revolt of 1857. Despite his troops mutinying and joining the rebel forces under Rani Lakshmibai and Tatya Tope, the Maharaja and his minister, Dinkar Rao, refused to join the uprising, chose to support the British, and fled to Agra to seek their protection.
The Nizam of Hyderabad, Afzal-ud-Daulah, along with his Prime Minister Salar Jung, also remained staunchly loyal to the British. Their active support was critical in keeping the Deccan region quiet, preventing the rebellion from spreading effectively into southern India, and helping the British suppress the uprising.
181Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding the United Nations Security Council:
1. Each permanent member has the power to veto substantive resolutions.
2. Procedural matters in the Security Council are subject to veto by permanent members.
3. A resolution requires at least nine affirmative votes to be adopted.
4. Non-permanent members are elected for a two-year term and are not eligible for immediate re-election.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 3 and 4
Explanation
Under Article 27 of the United Nations Charter, decisions of the Security Council on procedural matters require nine affirmative votes and cannot be vetoed by permanent members, which makes statement 2 incorrect. Decisions on all other substantive matters require nine affirmative votes including the concurring votes of the five permanent members, meaning each permanent member has the power to veto substantive resolutions, validating statements 1 and 3. Additionally, Article 23 of the Charter stipulates that the non-permanent members are elected for a two-year term and a retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election, confirming the accuracy of statement 4.
182Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The 43ʳᵈ Constitutional Amendment reversed certain provisions of the 42ⁿᵈ Amendment.
Reason (R): It restored the jurisdiction of the High Courts and Supreme Court.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (A) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
Explanation
The 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1977 was enacted by the Janata Party government to undo several controversial changes introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 during the Emergency. A central feature of this reversal was restoring the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the High Courts, which had been severely curtailed. The 42nd Amendment had deprived these courts of their power to decide upon the constitutional validity of state and central laws. By repealing Articles 32A, 131A, 226A, and 228A, the 43rd Amendment restored the full power of judicial review and writ jurisdiction to the judiciary. Therefore, the restoration of judicial powers directly explains how the 43rd Amendment reversed the provisions of the 42nd Amendment.
183Economy
Consider the following factors regarding the low population mobility in India before 1980 in terms of migration:
1. Low level of education.
2. Family practices and prejudice against women's migration.
3. Farmers' emotional attachment to their land.
Which of the given factor/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Historically, India showed remarkably low spatial mobility before the 1980s due to deep-rooted structural, cultural, and economic factors.
First, the low level of education and literacy meant that the vast majority of the population lacked the modern skills, resources, and information required to seek employment in distant urban industrial centers.
Second, conservative family practices, early marriage, and strong societal prejudice against women migrating alone or for employment heavily restricted autonomous female mobility, confining female migration almost entirely to short-distance marriage-related movement.
Third, India was predominantly an agrarian society where farmers held a profound emotional and spiritual attachment to their ancestral land, which served as their primary source of economic security and social identity. This deep attachment, coupled with localized caste-based support systems, discouraged rural populations from risking migration to unfamiliar territories.
184History
In the context of the Indian freedom movement, what was recommended in the Motilal Nehru Committee Report?
1. Complete independence for India
2. Reserved seats for minorities in joint electorates
3. Provision of Fundamental Rights for Indians in the Constitution
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Motilal Nehru Committee Report, submitted in 1928, recommended a system of joint electorates with reservation of seats for minorities in provinces where they were in a minority, rejecting the previous system of separate electorates. It also proposed a declaration of nineteen fundamental rights for Indian citizens, which included universal adult suffrage, equal rights for women, freedom of speech, and the right to form unions. The report advocated for Dominion Status as the constitutional framework for India rather than complete independence.
185Polity and Governance
Which of the following initiatives are primarily aimed at strengthening digital governance and digital public infrastructure in India?
1. Digital India
2. Aadhaar
3. Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Digital India programme, Aadhaar, and the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) are the foundational elements of India's Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI), collectively referred to as the India Stack. Digital India is the umbrella initiative launched to transform the nation into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy by improving online infrastructure and digital literacy. Aadhaar serves as the identity layer of this infrastructure, providing a unique, biometric-backed digital identity to over a billion citizens, which enables secure and seamless authentication for government welfare schemes and private services. UPI acts as the financial transaction layer, providing a real-time, interoperable mobile payment system that has revolutionized digital payments and financial inclusion. Together, these three initiatives have successfully modernized digital governance and public service delivery across India.
186Polity and Governance
Choose the option that correctly matches List-I and List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Indian Councils Act, 1909 | 1. Provincial autonomy |
| b. Government of India Act, 1935 | 2. Introduction of communal electorates |
| c. Montagu Declaration, 1917 | 3. Responsible government in India |
| d. Government of India Act, 1858 | 4. Transfer of power to the Crown |
| e. Indian Councils Act, 1861 | 5. Beginning of legislative councils |
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) a-2,b-1,c-3,d-4,e-5
Explanation
The Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced communal electorates by granting separate electorates to Muslims, where only Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives.
The Government of India Act of 1935 established provincial autonomy, which abolished dyarchy at the provincial level and allowed provinces to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres.
The Montagu Declaration of 1917 announced that the policy of His Majesty's Government was the gradual development of self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive realization of responsible government in India.
The Government of India Act of 1858 transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues from the East India Company to the British Crown in the wake of the Revolt of 1857.
The Indian Councils Act of 1861 marked the beginning of legislative councils by associating Indians with the law-making process as non-official members, restoring legislative powers to Bombay and Madras.
187Economy
Consider the following statements regarding the objectives of Forest Policy, 2018:
1. Controlling animal grazing in forests.
2. Promoting government and private partnership where forests have been destroyed.
3. Promoting greenbelts in cities.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3
Explanation
The Draft National Forest Policy, 2018, introduced several new thrust areas and objectives to address emerging environmental challenges like climate change and declining green cover. Key provisions of the policy include promoting Public-Private Partnership models for afforestation and reforestation activities in degraded forest areas where forests have been destroyed or are underutilized. Additionally, it prioritizes urban forestry by promoting urban greens and peri-urban green spaces in a mission mode to manage urban forest ecosystems and improve greenbelts in rapidly growing cities. Controlling animal grazing, on the other hand, was a prominent objective of the earlier National Forest Policy, 1952, rather than a primary objective of the 2018 policy.
188History
Match the following Indus Valley Civilization sites and States correctly:
| Places | States |
|---|---|
| 1. Surkotada | a. Punjab |
| 2. Ropar | b. Rajasthan |
| 3. Rakhighad and Banavali | c. Gujarat |
| 4. Kalibangan | d. Haryana |
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Answer: (C) 1 - c, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - b
Explanation
Surkotada is matched with Gujarat because it is an archaeological site located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, known for providing the remains of horse bones.
Ropar is matched with Punjab because this Indus Valley site is situated on the banks of the Sutlej River in the Rupnagar district of Punjab.
Rakhigarhi and Banawali are matched with Haryana because both are major Harappan sites located in Haryana, with Rakhigarhi being one of the largest sites of the civilization.
Kalibangan is matched with Rajasthan because it is located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan and is famous for the discovery of a ploughed field and fire altars.
189Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): BRICS was formed to promote cooperation among emerging economies.
Reason (R): It includes Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa as founding members.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (C) Assertion(A) is correct, but Reason(R) is incorrect.
Explanation
The assertion is correct because the BRICS grouping was established to promote mutual cooperation, dialogue, and partnership among major emerging economies on various global economic, financial, and political issues.
The reason is incorrect because South Africa was not a founding member of the group. The association was originally founded as BRIC in 2009 with only four nations: Brazil, Russia, India, and China. South Africa was officially invited to join the group later, in December 2010, and participated in its first summit in 2011, which led to the expansion of the acronym to BRICS.
190Polity and Governance
Which of the following have been recognised as part of the Basic Structure of the Constitution?
1. Judicial Review
2. Federalism
3. Rule of Law
4. Supremacy of Parliament
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India has recognized Judicial Review, Federalism, and the Rule of Law as essential components of the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Judicial Review, affirmed in landmark judgments like the Kesavananda Bharati case and Minerva Mills case, ensures the judiciary has the power to test the constitutional validity of legislative and executive acts. Federalism, which maintains the constitutional distribution of powers between the Union and the States, was declared a basic feature in the S.R. Bommai case. The Rule of Law, establishing the supremacy of law over arbitrary power, was recognized as part of the Basic Structure in the Indira Nehru Gandhi case. Unlike the British system, India is characterized by constitutional supremacy rather than parliamentary supremacy, meaning the power of Parliament is limited by the Constitution itself.
191Economy
Consider the following statements regarding petroleum:
1. The demand for petroleum in India is increasing at an alarming rate.
2. Petroleum is mostly used in transportation, industry, domestic work and agriculture sectors in India.
3. Improvement in transportation facilities plays an important role in saving petroleum.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
India's rapid economic growth and urbanisation have led to an alarming increase in the demand for petroleum, making it one of the largest consumers and importers of crude oil in the world. This demand is driven by key sectors such as transportation, which consumes the bulk of petroleum products like petrol and diesel, alongside industrial operations, domestic cooking in the form of LPG, and agricultural activities using diesel-run machinery. Enhancing transportation infrastructure, promoting public transit, and adopting fuel-efficient technologies are vital strategies that directly contribute to reducing fuel consumption and saving petroleum resources.
192History
Match the following Vedas and Collections correctly:
| Vedas | Collection |
|---|---|
| 1. Rigveda | a. Collection of devotional songs. |
| 2. Atharva veda | b. Collection of Sacred songs. |
| 3. Sama veda | c. Collection on Tantra and Mantra |
| 4. Yajur veda | d. Collection of Balli sutra |
Choose the correct option from the following.
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Answer: (D) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d
Explanation
The correct matching is as follows:
Rigveda matches with Collection of devotional songs (1 - a) because it consists of 1028 hymns (suktas) dedicated to various deities, serving as the earliest collection of devotional prayers.
Atharva veda matches with Collection on Tantra and Mantra (2 - c) as it contains everyday chants, magical charms, spells, and speculative hymns that laid the foundations for early tantric practices.
Sama veda matches with Collection of Sacred songs (3 - b) because it is the Veda of melodies and chants (Saman), which are musical rendering of verses mostly taken from the Rigveda to be sung by the Udgatri priests during sacrifices.
Yajur veda matches with Collection of Balli sutra (4 - d) since the term yajus refers to sacrificial formulas, and the text serves as a liturgical guide containing the ritual prose and sacrificial rules (Bali sutras) executed by the Adhvaryu priest.
193Polity and Governance
With reference to the recently established 'Board of Peace' concerning the Gaza conflict, consider the following statements:
1. The 'Board of Peace' is a specialized international body chaired by the United Nations (UN) Secretary-General.
2. India attended the inaugural meeting of the 'Board of Peace' in Washington D.C. as an observer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2
Explanation
The 'Board of Peace' is a US-led international body set up to oversee the Gaza peace plan and reconstruction; it is chaired by US President Donald Trump, not by the UN Secretary-General, making Statement 1 incorrect. India did attend the inaugural meeting of the Board of Peace in Washington D.C. as an observer nation, making Statement 2 correct. Hence only Statement 2 is correct, so option B is the right answer.
194Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): Judicial review is part of the Basic Structure of the Indian Constitution.
Reason (R): Judicial review ensures supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (A) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are correct and Reason(R) is the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
Explanation
Judicial review is an essential mechanism established under the Indian Constitution, primarily through Articles 13, 32, 131 to 136, 226, and 246. In the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court ruled that judicial review is part of the basic structure of the Constitution, making it immune to constitutional amendments that seek to destroy or abridge it.
The reason judicial review is deemed an indestructible feature of the basic structure is because it is the vital tool that maintains constitutional supremacy. In the Indian political system, the Constitution, rather than Parliament, is supreme. Judicial review empowers the courts to invalidate any legislative enactments or executive actions that violate constitutional provisions or infringe upon fundamental rights. By acting as a check on legislative competence, judicial review directly ensures the supremacy of the Constitution over Parliament, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.
195Geography
Consider the following statements regarding climate change:
1. Floods and droughts are increasing in India.
2. There has been a sharp increase in the number of tropical cyclones in India.
3. Humidity levels are gradually increasing in the regions of central India.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Climate change in India is driving significant shifts in weather patterns and extreme events.
Regarding statement 1, anthropogenic climate change has disrupted the Indian summer monsoon, making rainfall highly erratic. This has led to a dual challenge of a rising number of extreme precipitation events causing frequent localized flooding, alongside prolonged dry spells and agricultural droughts across several parts of the country.
Regarding statement 2, while rising sea surface temperatures have led to more intense and severe category cyclones, the overall historical annual frequency of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean has remained relatively stable or shown a slight decrease over the long term. Therefore, there is no sharp increase in their overall number.
Regarding statement 3, rising global temperatures have led to an increase in atmospheric moisture-holding capacity. Long-term meteorological data shows a gradual increase in relative and specific humidity levels in central India, leading to elevated wet-bulb temperatures and the rising frequency of dangerous humid heatwaves.
196Science and Technology
With reference to the 'India Semiconductor Mission' (ISM), consider the following statements:
1. The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) is established as an independent business division within the 'Digital India Corporation' to build a semiconductor and display ecosystem.
2. The mission aims to transition India's role from a traditional 'consumer' of semiconductors to a significant 'producer' and an integrated participant in the Global Semiconductor Value Chain.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2
Explanation
The India Semiconductor Mission (ISM) was launched as a specialized, independent business division within the Digital India Corporation (DIC) under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY). It holds administrative and financial autonomy to formulate and implement India's long-term strategies for developing sustainable semiconductor and display fabrication facilities, as well as a semiconductor design ecosystem.
The primary strategic objective of the ISM is to transform India's position from a major importer and consumer of semiconductor chips into a significant global producer. By fostering domestic fabrication, packaging, and design innovations, the mission aims to integrate the nation as a trusted, resilient, and key participant in the Global Semiconductor Value Chain.
197Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review.
Reason (R): Articles 13, 32 and 226 collectively form the constitutional basis of judicial review in India.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (B) Both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) are correct, but Reason(R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion(A).
Explanation
The Supreme Court of India has the power of judicial review to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders, making Assertion (A) correct.
Articles 13, 32, and 226 collectively form the constitutional basis of judicial review in India, making Reason (R) correct.
While Articles 13 and 32 empower the Supreme Court, Article 226 applies exclusively to the High Courts. Since Article 226 does not grant or govern the powers of the Supreme Court, Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
198Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Tropical cyclones form in the summer when the temperature is more than 27 degrees Celsius.
2. The Coriolis force is mandatory for the formation of tropical cyclones.
3. The Coriolis force is found to be greater in the equatorial belt.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
Tropical cyclones require specific atmospheric and oceanic conditions to develop. A warm ocean surface temperature of more than 27°C is essential to provide a continuous supply of moisture and latent heat of condensation, which fuels the system. This condition is typically met during the late summer months. Additionally, the Coriolis force is mandatory for cyclone formation because it deflects the incoming winds and creates the necessary cyclonic rotation or spin around the low-pressure center. Without this rotational force, wind would simply flow directly into the low-pressure center and neutralize it before a organized storm system could form. The Coriolis force is mathematically defined as 2Ω sin φ, where φ represents the latitude. Consequently, the force is zero at the equator and increases toward the poles, making it weakest in the equatorial belt rather than greater. This lack of Coriolis force prevents tropical cyclones from forming in the immediate vicinity of the equator.
199Polity and Governance
Consider the following Assertion and Reason:
Assertion (A): The advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is binding on the President.
Reason (R): Constitution empowers the President to seek advisory opinion from the Supreme Court.
Which of the following is correct with respect to the above?
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Answer: (D) Assertion(A) is incorrect, but Reason(R) is correct.
Explanation
Article 143 of the Constitution of India confers advisory jurisdiction on the Supreme Court, empowering the President to seek its opinion on any question of law or fact of public importance. This establishes that the Reason is correct. However, the opinion delivered by the Supreme Court under this advisory jurisdiction is merely advisory in nature and not a judicial decree. Consequently, it is not binding on the President, who may choose to accept or disregard the advice. This makes the Assertion incorrect.
200Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Jet streams are strong winds blowing from west to east in the troposphere.
2. Jet streams are found only in the northern hemisphere.
3. Jet streams are stronger in winter than summer.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 3
Explanation
Jet streams are narrow bands of fast-flowing, westerly air currents located near the tropopause in the upper troposphere. They blow from west to east in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres, driven by the temperature contrast between the poles and the equator and the Earth's rotation.
The speed of a jet stream is determined by the temperature gradient between the warm air at lower latitudes and the cold air at higher latitudes. Since this temperature difference is much greater during the winter season than during the summer, the pressure gradient is steeper, making jet streams significantly stronger and faster during the winter.