GPSC Prelims 2020 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Maksad is a prominent drama written by the modernist Gujarati writer Labhshankar Thakar. Biji Sawar no Suraj is a popular novel published in 1982 by the well-known Gujarati novelist and folklorist Hasu Yagnik. Gulab, written in 1862 by Nagindas Marfatia, holds historic significance as one of the earliest social-reformist plays in Gujarati literature. Kapoor no Divo is a noted play published in 1960 by the legendary pioneer of modern Gujarati theatre, Chandravadan Mehta. This matches the sequence of I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a.

Explanation

Andrews Library, established in 1850, is one of the oldest and most historical public libraries located in Surat.

Sayaji Vijay Library is a well-known historical library located in Navsari that has served local readers for decades.

Lang Library, founded in 1856 by British political agent Colonel William Lang, is a prominent heritage repository situated in Rajkot.

Barton Library, established in 1882, is a prestigious cultural institution and library located in Bhavnagar, named in honor of the political agent Colonel L. C. Barton.

Explanation

In the Bhil tribe of Gujarat, the term Udali Javu is used to represent Gandharva marriage. In this traditional form of tribal marriage, a young man and woman elope or run away by mutual consent (often from tribal fairs, festivals, or weekly markets) to live together as husband and wife, without requiring prior parental approval or formal rituals.

Explanation

According to the GPSC official master answer key, option (D) "III only" is marked correct. Gher no mela (Kawant fair, Chhota Udepur) is held around Chaitra/Holi time, not in March as paired here, making III the only unmatched pair. Akha Trij (Akshaya Tritiya) falls in the Vaishakh month which is often reckoned close to March-April in these fair calendars, Dusshera correctly falls in October, and Dang Darbar is indeed held around February-March (close enough to be treated as matched per the key), so pairs I, II, and IV are considered matched, leaving only III unmatched.

Explanation

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu was a prominent 16th-century saint and reformer from Bengal who founded Gaudiya Vaishnavism and propagated the philosophy of Achintya Bheda-Abheda. This school of Vedanta teaches the inconceivable (achintya) simultaneous oneness (abheda) and difference (bheda) between the Supreme Lord and the individual souls. It explains that the individual soul is qualitatively identical to God in spiritual nature but quantitatively different, being a minute spark of the divine energy. Through this synthesis, Chaitanya Mahaprabhu resolved the classical philosophical tension between absolute monism and dualism, emphasizing intense devotion and the congregational chanting of the holy names of God as the primary means to attain divine love.

Explanation

Waghai Botanical Garden, located in the Dang district of Gujarat, is the largest botanical garden in the state, spanning over 24 hectares. It serves as a significant conservation, research, and educational center housing more than 1,100 plant species. The garden features a dedicated medicinal plant section that acts as a unique living museum. This section showcases diverse flora used in traditional natural healing, Ayurveda, and naturopathy, complete with descriptive labels detailing the therapeutic uses and scientific names of each specimen.

Explanation

Amrut Jani (1912-1997) was a celebrated actor of the old Gujarati theatre (Deshi Rangbhumi), renowned for his performances in female roles. His autobiography, titled 'Abhinaypanthe', was published and documents his life and career as a female-role specialist on the Gujarati stage. The other options - Amrut Keshav Nayak, Prabhashankar 'Ramani', and Jayshankar 'Sundri' - though also associated with Gujarati theatre, are not the authors of this particular autobiography.

Explanation

The Kalakacharya Katha is an ancient Jain text that narrates the adventures of the revered Jain monk Kalakacharya. During the 14th century, this text became highly popular for Jain miniature paintings in Western India, characterized by vibrant colors, angular lines, and exaggerated features like protruding eyes.

Bhimbetka, located in the Raisen district of Madhya Pradesh, is a UNESCO World Heritage site celebrated worldwide for its ancient rock paintings. These paintings date from the Upper Paleolithic and Mesolithic periods down to the historic period, illustrating the evolution of human life, dance, hunting, and animal figures on sandstone walls.

Explanation

The prominent English writer and philosopher Aldous Huxley visited Bikaner during his travels and was deeply captivated by the architectural brilliance of the Rampuria Haveli. He described this grand mansion as the pride of Bikaner due to its sheer scale, elegance, and aesthetic beauty. Constructed primarily using Dulmera red sandstone, the haveli was built by the wealthy Rampuria merchant family beginning in the 15th century and represents a magnificent blend of Rajputana, Mughal, and Victorian architectural styles, adorned with intricate stone carvings, jharokhas, and woodworks.

Explanation

The Pashupati seal, discovered at the Indus Valley Civilization site of Mohenjo-daro, depicts a three-faced male figure carved in a seated yogic posture. The figure is shown seated cross-legged on a low platform, with heels pressed together in a posture closely resembling the yogic padmasana or mulabandhasana. This figure, adorned with a horned headdress and surrounded by various wild animals such as an elephant, a tiger, a rhinoceros, and a water buffalo, is widely identified as a proto-Shiva or Pashupati, the Lord of Animals. Sir John Marshall first interpreted this depiction as an early prototype of the Hindu god Shiva in his aspect as a yogi or Mahayogi.

Explanation

The Kailasanathar Temple in Kanchipuram is a landmark structural temple built by the Pallava ruler Narasimhavarman II (Rajasimha) in the late seventh and early eighth century CE, showcasing early Dravidian style architecture with intricate sandstone carvings.

The Kotikal Mandapam in Mahabalipuram is an early rock-cut cave temple excavated during the reign of Mahendravarman I, who pioneered the cave temple architecture of the Pallava dynasty.

The Airavateswara Temple in Darasuram is a Chola structural temple built by Rajaraja Chola II in the twelfth century CE, and is not associated with the Pallavas.

Explanation

Mughal Emperor Jahangir issued a highly unique series of gold and silver coins depicting the twelve signs of the Zodiac (Rashis) with a radiating sun in the background. In his 13th regnal year (AH 1027 / 1618 CE), while camped near Ahmedabad in Gujarat, Jahangir conceived the idea to replace the traditional names of the months on his coinage with their corresponding astronomical constellations. Following this decision, the Ahmedabad mint in Gujarat was utilized to strike these legendary Zodiac coins, particularly the silver rupees representing the twelve Sun rashis, making Jahangir the ruler responsible for this numismatic innovation.

Explanation

Mumukshu is the pen name of Anandshankar Dhruv (I - d), a highly respected academic, philosopher, and writer of the Pandit Yuga in Gujarati literature, who also edited the influential journal Vasant.

Vanmali is the pen name of Keshavlal Harshadrai Dhruv (II - c), a pioneering research scholar, philologist, and translator who translated various classic Sanskrit plays and poetry into Gujarati.

Sukani is associated with Zaverchand Meghani (III - b), a celebrated writer, poet, and freedom fighter whom Mahatma Gandhi honored with the title of Rashtriya Shayar (National Poet) for his patriotic writings.

Makrand is the pen name of Ramanbhai Mahipatram Nilkanth (IV - a), an eminent novelist, humorist, and social reformer famous for writing Bhadrambhadra, the first major satirical novel in Gujarati.

Explanation

The song, gharda var ne jawaan vahu ne javaan ne vahu ghardi (which translates to: an old groom for a young bride, and an old wife for a young husband), is from the reformist play Nindya Shringar Nishedhak Roopak (1920) written by Ranchhodbhai Udayaram Dave. He is widely considered the father of modern Gujarati theatre. Through this song and play, Dave critiqued the widespread social issue of mismatched marriages (Kajoda) and sought to eliminate vulgarity in contemporary performances, advocating instead for moral and educational themes on the stage.

Explanation

Narsinh Mehta, widely revered as the Adi Kavi of Gujarati literature, lived during the 15th century, from approximately 1414 to 1481. He was a prominent Vaishnava poet-saint of the Bhakti movement, famous for composing many devotional songs. Premanand Bhatt was an outstanding Gujarati poet and story-teller of the 17th century, living from 1649 to 1714. Dalpatram was a major Gujarati poet and social reformer of the 19th century, living from 1820 to 1898.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (D) Amarsinh Gamit for this question. Amarsinh Gamit, a tribal social reformer from south Gujarat, organised the Raniparaj Conference at Khata (Vyara taluka), which is regarded as the first congress of tribals in the region. The other names — Raisinghbhai Chaudhari, Kotla Mehta, and Govinbhai Desai — were other contemporaneous tribal-welfare figures but are not credited with organising this specific conference at Khata.

Explanation

Tansen, one of the Navaratnas (nine jewels) in the court of Mughal Emperor Akbar, was an expert instrumentalist and is historically renowned for playing the Rabab (also referred to as Rawab). The Rabab is a plucked string instrument of Central Asian origin that Tansen adapted, improved, and popularized in India. His modified version of this instrument, known as the Seni Rabab or Dhrupad Rabab, became central to Dhrupad music and the legacy of the Senia gharana. Tansen's lineage and disciples continued this instrumental tradition, which significantly influenced the history of Hindustani classical music.

Explanation

Kaikhushru Kabraji (Kakhasharo Kabaraji) was a pioneering figure in Gujarati and Parsi theatre, closely associated with the Victoria Natak Mandali, which popularised plays in Mumbai around 1870.

Waghji Asharam Oza (Vaghibhai Aasharam Oza), along with his brother Mulji, founded the Morbi Arya Subodh Natak Mandali in Morbi in 1878, pioneering professional Gujarati theatre in Saurashtra.

Dahyabhai Dholshaji (Dahayabhai Dholashaaji) established the Shree Desi Natak Samaj, a highly influential theatre company that staged numerous famous plays in Ahmedabad and other regions of Gujarat.

Jayshankar 'Sundari' was an acclaimed actor and female impersonator of the Gujarati stage who rose to fame and performed extensively with the Mumbai Gujarati Natak Mandali.

Explanation

The traditional farming method of the tribals in the Panchmahals district of Gujarat is Zoom and Daajna, which are local forms of shifting and slash-and-burn cultivation. In this method, Zoom represents Jhum cultivation, while Daajna is derived from the local term daajvu meaning to burn. The tribal farmers, mainly belonging to the Bhil and Rathwa communities, clear small patches of forest land, burn the vegetation, and sow crops like maize and millets in the ash-enriched soil before eventually shifting to a new plot once soil fertility declines.

Explanation

I. Akho Bhagat is a major 17th-century medieval Gujarati poet known for his philosophical chhappas, and the line gebi nipaj thai pind tani, tyare tu tya nohto dhani is a part of his spiritual compositions.

II. Premanand Bhatt is a celebrated 17th-century medieval Gujarati poet and Akhyana writer, whose verses include hayhasti rath pala dise, baktariya bihamana.

III. Pritam is an influential 18th-century Gujarati Bhakti poet, and the spiritual pad Tire ubha juve tamasho te, kodi nav pame jone is composed by him.

IV. Narsinh Mehta is the 15th-century Adi Kavi of Gujarat, and the line Karachata garath bhandhar khute tuo, khutjyo re, sonu pihirita kaan tute tuo, trutjyo re is written by him to emphasize detached spiritual wealth over transient material assets.

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi is widely referred to as taaj vagar na raja, which translates to the uncrowned king or king without a crown, in the tribal folk songs of Gujarat. During the freedom struggle and social reform movements, Gandhiji deeply inspired the indigenous and tribal populations of the region. Recognizing his selfless leadership, simple lifestyle, and advocacy for their upliftment without holding any formal royal title, the tribal communities integrated him into their folklore and songs under this reverent title.

Explanation

Akha Bhagat (popularly known as Akho) was a seventeenth-century Gujarati saint-poet, philosopher, and reformer of the Bhakti movement. He is highly revered for his Vedantic philosophy and satirical verses called chhappas. Among his prominent compositions is Chittvichaarsamvaad (also written as Chitta-Vichar-Samvad), which is a philosophical discourse between Chitt (the mind) and Vichaar (thought). His other notable works include Akhegita, Panchikaran, Anubhava-Bindu, Guru-Sishya-Samvad, and Kaivalya-Gita.

Explanation

The famous study center of Varanasi was historically celebrated as a premier hub of traditional learning. The French physician and traveler Francois Bernier, who visited India in the 17th century, described the educational setup of Varanasi in detail.

According to Bernier, Varanasi functioned as a university, but unlike European universities of the time, it had no centralized public colleges, public educational institutions, or organized classes. Instead, learned brahmins personally imparted education in their own private schools and residences, making Statements I and II correct.

Statement III is incorrect because education in Varanasi was not limited to theology alone. In addition to religious scriptures, students specialized in a diverse range of secular and scientific fields, including Sanskrit grammar, philosophy, medicine (Ayurveda), astronomy, and astrology.

Explanation

Hu j Ceaser ane hu j Brutus is a notable Gujarati play written by Lavkumar Desai.

Akhu aikhu farithi is a modernist Gujarati drama written by Hasmukh Baradi.

Kumar ni agashi is a highly famous psychological thriller play written by Madhu Rye.

Raja Midas is an experimental play written by the prominent Gujarati writer Chinu Modi.

Explanation

The Morbi Arya Subodh Natak Mandali, founded in 1878 by the brothers Mulji Asharam Oza and Vaghji Asharam Oza, was the first indigenous professional theatre group in Gujarat. Their highly successful debut production was Bharthari (Raja Barathari), which went on to create a landmark history in traditional Gujarati theatre. Mulji Asharam Oza masterfully enacted the lead role of Raja Barathari, famously performing with a golden chain on his legs. His powerful performance was so profound and realistic that it is said to have deeply moved the audience, inspiring several spectators to renounce worldly life.

Explanation

Kanada, Kedar, and Sarang are classical Hindustani ragas that are deeply integrated into the Haveli Sangeet tradition of Vaishnavism, which is specifically dedicated to the devotion of Lord Krishna.

The saint-poet Narsinh Mehta of Gujarat, an ardent devotee of Lord Krishna, is famously associated with Raga Kedar. According to popular legend, Narsinh Mehta had pawned this raga to a local moneylender to secure a loan. When he later needed to please Lord Krishna, he sang Kedar raga, and Lord Krishna himself appeared to pay off the debt and release the raga. This confirms the validity of both Statement I and Statement II.

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Rigveda contains references to all four categories of musical instruments recognized in Indian classical tradition: Tata (stringed instruments, such as the vana or early veena), Sushira (wind instruments, such as bakura or flutes), Avanaddha (membranophones/percussion, like the dundubhi), and Ghana (solid percussion instruments, such as cymbals).

Statement II is correct as string instruments, membranophones, and wind instruments were highly popular and routinely played during sacrificial rituals (Yajnas), social festivities, and daily life throughout the Vedic era.

Statement III is incorrect because Dholsagar is not the most ancient book of Indian music. It is a regional treatise focused specifically on the drumming traditions and folk music of the Garhwal region of Uttarakhand. The oldest systematically documented texts on Indian music and performing arts are the Samaveda and the Natya Shastra of Bharata Muni.

Explanation

The Gujarati-language drama film The Good Road (2013), written and directed by Gyan Correa, was selected by the Film Federation of India as India's official entry for the Best Foreign Language Film category at the 86th Academy Awards. It was the first Gujarati film to represent the country in this category.

Explanation

The Zari industry of Surat, which produces exquisite metallic threads of gold and silver for textile weaving, traces its commercial establishment and organized growth to the Mughal period. Although the art of weaving metal threads has ancient roots in India, it was under the direct patronage of the Mughal emperors, especially Akbar, that the craft transformed into a highly structured and celebrated industry. During this era, Surat developed as a vital port and a prosperous trade center. The massive demand from the Mughal royal court for luxury embroidered garments and brocades turned Surat into the primary hub of Zari production and export, a legacy that continues to define the city's identity.

Explanation

Brihadeshwara Temple is a prominent Chola dynasty temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, located in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu.

Shore Temple is a structural temple complex overlooking the Bay of Bengal, built during the Pallava dynasty in Mahabalipuram, Tamil Nadu.

Tunganath is the highest Shiva temple in the world, situated in the Rudraprayag district of Uttarakhand.

Virupaksha Temple is an ancient temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (represented as Virupaksha), situated in the historical heritage site of Hampi, Karnataka.

Explanation

Harkor Sethani, also known as Harkunwar Shethani, was a prominent philanthropist and the widow of the wealthy Ahmedabad merchant Hutheesing Kesrisinh. She made pioneering contributions to female education and social reform. When the first girls' school in Ahmedabad, established in 1849 by the Gujarat Vernacular Society, required financial support to survive, she stepped forward in 1850 and donated ₹3,000 for its construction and ₹12,000 for its maintenance. This school later developed into the Maganlal Karamchand Girls' School. In recognition of her outstanding contributions to education and society, the British Government honored her with the title of Nek Sakhavati Bahadur.

Explanation

Prajnaparamita, which translates to the Perfection of Wisdom, is a central concept in Mahayana Buddhism. It refers to a body of sutras that expound on the doctrine of emptiness (shunyata) and the path of the Bodhisattva. These texts are fundamental to Buddhist philosophy, with well-known examples being the Heart Sutra and the Diamond Sutra.

Explanation

Azarara (Ajrada) Gharana is matched with Pandit Sudhirkumar Saxena, who was a renowned disciple of Ustad Habeebuddin Khan, the doyen of this gharana.

Lucknow Gharana is matched with Miya Bakshu Khan, who along with Modu Khan founded and pioneered this style of tabla playing.

Farukha (Farrukhabad) Gharana is matched with Haji Vilayat Ali Khan, the son-in-law and disciple of Miya Bakshu Khan, who established this gharana in Uttar Pradesh.

Punjab Gharana is matched with Ustad Zakir Hussain, who, alongside his father Ustad Alla Rakha, is the most celebrated modern exponent of this tradition.

Explanation

The Talaja Caves are located on a hill in Talaja, Bhavnagar district, Gujarat. This rock-cut cave group consists of around thirty ancient Buddhist caves dating back to the second century BCE. Among these, the most notable structure is the Abhal Mandap, which is a massive, spacious pillared hall. It is historically associated with the local ruler Abhalji Vala, who according to legend utilized the large cave space to host group marriages. The site also features a prominent Chatyagruh, illustrating classic rock-cut monastic architecture from the early era.

Explanation

Sir Ramanbhai Nilkanth was a distinguished Gujarati novelist, essayist, and politician who played a vital role in social reforms and local governance in Gujarat. He served as the mayor of the Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation and was actively involved in various civic and social initiatives, including serving as the first secretary of the Ahmedabad Red Cross established in 1923. In recognition of his public services and contributions, the British government awarded him the title of Rai Bahadur and later conferred a knighthood upon him in 1927, giving him the title of Sir.

Explanation

Pandor Devi, also known as Pandhar Mata, Panduri Devi, or Pohli Pandor, is worshipped as a form of Goddess Parvati by the tribal communities of Gujarat, particularly the Bhil and Vasava tribes residing in the Satpura mountain ranges. She is deeply revered as the goddess of grains, agriculture, and fertility, and is affectionately called Yaha Mogi or Devmogra Mata in the local tribal dialects. Her primary shrine is the ancient Devmogra Mata Temple located in the Sagbara Taluka of Narmada District, Gujarat, where a major annual fair is held during Mahashivratri, attracting hundreds of thousands of tribal devotees from across the region.

Explanation

The provided matching correctly pairs regional vocabulary with their respective dialects of Gujarat.

Bhako is associated with the Charotari dialect, spoken in the central Gujarat region (Charotar), including Anand and Kheda.

Ghadu is matched with the Kutchi dialect, which is spoken in the arid region of Kutch and exhibits transitional features with Sindhi.

Haiya Haiya is a rhythmic and expressive colloquial term typical of the Surati dialect spoken in Surat and south Gujarat.

Aalvu means to give (equivalent to Aapvu in standard Gujarati) and is a prominent vocabulary feature of the Pattani dialect spoken in north Gujarat.

Explanation

Kakada Dance is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat performed in temples dedicated to the deity Baliyadev and Sheetla Mata. In this dance, a male performer holds lit torches, referred to as Kakada, in his hands and dances in front of the procession to please Baliyadev.

Explanation

Adi Marzban revolutionized Parsi theatre by introducing elements of modernism and realism, steering it away from traditional historical melodrama.

In traditional Parsi theatre, plays were characterized by multiple scene changes—usually eight to ten scenes—requiring frequent changes of painted backcloths. Marzban discarded this system and designed plays to be successfully enacted on a single, realistic box set, streamlining the production process.

Unlike earlier Parsi plays which were heavily dominated by operatic songs and musical interludes, Marzban minimized the reliance on songs, choosing instead to emphasize witty dialogue, crisp pacing, and situational comedy. Hence, he did not give more prominence to songs and music in his plays.

Explanation

The Adalaj Stepwell was built in 1498 in the Gandhinagar district of Gujarat by Queen Rudabai to honor the memory of her husband, Rana Veer Singh of the Vaghela dynasty. Rana Veer Singh had initiated the construction of the stepwell to resolve the severe water shortage in the semi-arid region of Dandai Desh. Following his death in battle against Mahmud Begada, Queen Rudabai ensured the completion of this intricate five-story stepwell, which functioned as a crucial reservoir for drinking, washing, and bathing, as well as a cool shelter for caravans and travelers along the trade routes.

Explanation

According to the official GPSC answer key, the correct matching is I-d, II-c, III-b, IV-a, i.e., option (A). The tribal marriage system in which a bride's family selects/secures the desired groom is called "Bhaaya" (d); "Khandhad" (c) is a Dangi tribal dance; "Haalipratha" (b) is the traditional bonded-labor/patronage economic-social system associated with the tribal landholding elite class in south Gujarat; and "Roabdati" (a) refers to an arrow fitted with a bamboo knot used by Gujarat's tribal communities. The other options (B, C, D) mismatch these pairings and are therefore incorrect.

Explanation

The "Khushboo Gujarat Ki" and "Kuchh Din to Guzariye Gujarat Main" campaigns for Gujarat Tourism were conceptualized and designed by the legendary advertising professional Piyush Pandey during his tenure at Ogilvy | Mather. This highly successful campaign featured Bollywood superstar Amitabh Bachchan as the brand ambassador and effectively showcased the diverse tourism, wildlife, and heritage of Gujarat to a global audience.

Explanation

On the official master answer key page (P1₂₀₂₀ₚ14.png), question 043 shows option (B) "ગોપનું મંદિર" (Gop temple) highlighted in yellow, confirming Gop temple as the correct answer. The Gop temple in Jamnagar district, one of Gujarat's earliest surviving stone temples (c. late 6th century), is architecturally distinguished by having two courtyards (an inner and outer enclosure). Navlakha, Ambarnath, and Hathi Singh temples do not share this distinctive double-courtyard feature.

Explanation

The Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad (I) was designed by the prominent American architect Louis Kahn. The Gaikwad Palace in Vadodara (III), primarily known as the Laxmi Vilas Palace, was designed by Major Charles Mant in the Indo-Saracenic architectural style. Because neither of these structures was designed by Le Corbusier, they fulfill the condition of the question. The other listed buildings, namely the Mill Owners Association Building (II) and the Sanskar Kendra Museum (IV) in Ahmedabad, were designed by Le Corbusier during his visits to India in the 1950s.

Explanation

The artists Khodidas Parmar, Manhar Makwana, and Devjibhai Vaja are widely celebrated for capturing and preserving the vibrant folk culture, rural life, and local folklore of the Saurashtra region in Gujarat through their paintings.

Khodidas Parmar, born in Bhavnagar, was a highly respected painter and folklorist who dedicated his life to documenting Gohilwad and Saurashtra folk tales, traditional embroidery, and village customs, translating them into a simplified, rustic folk style.

Manhar Makwana, based in Rajkot, focused his artwork on the distinct Gujarati sensibility, drawing heavily from the motifs of rural textiles and local legends of the Saurashtra region.

Devjibhai Vaja similarly centered his artistic creations around the traditional folk narratives, lifestyle, and heritage of Saurashtra.

Explanation

Pujya Mota, born as Chunilal Asharam Bhavsar (also known as Chunilal Asharam Bhagat) on September 4, 1898, in Savli village of Vadodara district in Gujarat, was a prominent spiritual leader, social reformer, and freedom fighter. He dedicated his life to the Indian independence movement, Harijan welfare, and intense spiritual sadhana. He is widely celebrated for establishing the Hari Om Ashrams in Nadiad and Surat, which popularized the practice of Maun Mandirs (silence retreats) to facilitate silent meditation and personal spiritual realization.

Explanation

The popular life-enriching Gujarati monthly magazine Jankalyan was founded by the spiritual saint Punit Maharaj (originally named Balakrishna Bhaishankar Bhattri) in April 1950. Started with the aim of promoting spiritual, moral, and value-based literature among the masses, the magazine continues to be published by the Shree Punit Seva Trust based in Ahmedabad, Gujarat.

Explanation

The iconic Gujarati song Tari Aankh No Afini, Tara Bol No Bhandani is from the 1950 Gujarati film Divadandi. The song was written by the renowned poet and lyricist Venibhai Purohit and set to music by composer Ajit Merchant. It was sung by the legendary playback singer and composer Dilip Dholakia. This classic romantic song remains one of the most celebrated and evergreen melodies in the history of Gujarati cinema.

Explanation

The lines in option d, "Krushna-karim, Ram-hir Raghav, jab lag ek na pesha" (often transliterated as "Krishna, Karim, Ram, Hari, Raghav, jab lag ek na pekha"), were composed by the medieval Bhakti saint Sant Ravidas, also known as Guru Ravidas or Raidas. In this composition, Ravidas emphasizes the ultimate oneness of God, highlighting that different names like Krishna, Karim, Ram, and Raghav all refer to the same singular divine essence.

Explanation

The Sahasralinga Talav (lake) in Patan, Gujarat, is a historic artificial water reservoir originally built by the Solanki (Chaulukya) ruler Durlabharaja and later extensively expanded and embellished by King Siddharaja Jaisinh in the early 12th century. According to literary and archaeological records, this massive lake was surrounded by several shrines, including temples of eight goddesses, while a prominent temple dedicated to Goddess Vindhyavasini (Vindhayavashini Devi) stood in its center or middle portion.

Explanation

Kalibangan, a major archaeological site of the Indus Valley Civilization located in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan, was situated on the southern bank of the dried bed of the Ghaggar-Hakra river. The river, often identified with the mythological Sarasvati River, played a crucial role in supporting this ancient settlement, which is highly significant for yielding the earliest recorded ploughed agricultural field in archaeological history.

Explanation

The term Dwija translates literally to twice-born in Sanskrit. In ancient Indian society, this designation was given to members of the three upper varnas: Brahmanas, Kshatriyas, and Vaishyas. Their first birth is their physical birth from their parents, while their second birth is spiritual, marked by the performance of the Upanayana sacrament. This rite of passage initiates them into Vedic studies, granting them the eligibility to study the Vedas and perform sacred rituals.

Explanation

Bindusara, the second Mauryan emperor, was given the title Amitraghata, meaning slayer of enemies, which is recorded in Greek texts as Amitrochates. Samudragupta, the prominent Gupta ruler, assumed several royal titles including Parakramanka on his coinage to reflect his supreme military prowess. Kumaragupta I adopted the title Mahendraditya and is traditionally credited with the foundation of Nalanda University. Skandagupta, famous for successfully repelling the Huna invasions to safeguard the empire, assumed the title Kramaditya.

Explanation

During the Sunga period, the Indo-Greek king Menander led military expeditions deep into northern and western India, invading and besieging the cities of Saketa and Madhyamika.

This historic invasion is attested by the Sanskrit grammarian Patanjali in his work Mahabhashya. To illustrate grammatical rules of the imperfect tense for recent historical events, Patanjali recorded the sentences: Arunad Yavanah Saketam (The Yavana was besieging Saketa) Arunad Yavano Madhyamikam (The Yavana was besieging Madhyamika)

These passages indicate that the Greek forces under Menander successfully penetrated the Sunga territory, reaching as far as Saketa in modern Uttar Pradesh and Madhyamika in Rajasthan.

Explanation

Kumaramatyas were high-ranking administrative officers who emerged during the Gupta period to oversee provincial and local administration, serving as a link between the central government and the provinces. They do not find mention in the Mauryan administration, where provincial governors of royal lineage were instead known as Kumaras or Aryaputras. The other positions, such as Samaharta (collector-general of revenue), Sannidhata (treasurer-general), and Antapala (frontier governor), are well-established administrative designations of the Mauryan Empire as detailed in Kautilya's Arthashastra.

Explanation

Kanishka I, the celebrated Kushana emperor, convened the Fourth Buddhist Council at Kundalavana in Kashmir. Under the presidency of Vasumitra, this council systematized Buddhist teachings into comprehensive commentaries known as the Mahavibhasha. Additionally, Kanishka I established his primary capital at Purushapura, which is modern-day Peshawar, positioning it strategically to govern his extensive territories spanning Central Asia and Northern India.

Explanation

Portuguese travelers Domingo Paes and Duarte Barbosa visited India and wrote extensive accounts of the Vijayanagara Empire during the reign of Krishnadevaraya. Their chronicles provide rich historical details about the layout, economy, and culture of the empire. Krishnadevaraya was a highly accomplished scholar and a magnificent patron of literature and fine arts. He wrote the Telugu work Amuktamalyada and the Sanskrit play Jambavati Kalyanam. His royal court, known as the Bhuvana Vijayam, was famously patronized by the Ashtadiggajas, who were eight legendary Telugu scholars and poets. This exceptional patronization of art and literature earned him the title of Andhra Bhoja, alongside Abhinava Bhoja and Andhra Pitamaha.

Explanation

The official answer key highlights option D. Statement I is incorrect: Devagupta of Malava never accepted Harsha's suzerainty — he was defeated (and killed) by Harsha's elder brother Rajyavardhana before Harsha's own accession. Statement II is correct: Bhaskaravarman, king of Kamarupa, entered into a treaty of friendship (and military alliance) with Harshavardhana against their common enemy Shashanka of Gauda. Statement III (truncated in the extracted question text but present in the original paper) states "Harshavardhana defeated Sasanka, the king of Gauda," which is historically correct, as Harsha, aided by Bhaskaravarman, campaigned against and defeated Shashanka. Hence both II and III are correct, making D the right answer.

Explanation

Rajaraja Chola I initiated a massive and comprehensive project of land survey and assessment in 1000 CE. This landmark project aimed to determine accurate land revenue and led to the administrative reorganisation of the kingdom into individual units called valanadus.

Bhaskara Ravivarman I (also known as Bhaskara Ravi Varman Thiruvadi), the medieval Chera ruler of Kerala, was a contemporary of Rajaraja Chola I. Rajaraja's earliest military campaign in Kerala, known as the Kandalur Salai campaign, was directed against him and resulted in the destruction of the Chera naval fleet.

Rajadhiraja Chola I, the eldest son of Rajendra I, was killed in combat atop his war elephant during the Battle of Koppam in 1054 CE while fighting against the Western Chalukya king Someshvara I. He was succeeded by his younger brother Rajendra Chola II, who crowned himself directly on the battlefield.

Explanation

Mularaja I founded the Chaulukya dynasty of Anahilavada in the 10th century CE, establishing his capital at Patan. His successor, Chamundaraja, successfully defended his kingdom against the expansionist incursions of the Paramara ruler Sindhuraja of Malwa, forcing him to retreat. Bhima I did not defeat Mahmud of Ghazni during the 1025 CE invasion of Somnath, as Bhima I had to retreat to Kanthkot during the raid.

Explanation

Senapati Bhatarka was appointed as the military governor or commander-in-chief (Senapati) of the Saurashtra region in Gujarat by the imperial Guptas. As the central authority of the Guptas weakened around 475 CE, he established the independent Maitraka dynasty with Vallabhi as its capital.

Explanation

Under the regency of his mother, Queen Naikidevi, the young Chaulukya (Solanki) ruler of Gujarat, Mularaja II, defeated the invading Ghurid army led by Muhammad Ghori in the Battle of Kasahrada in 1178 CE.

The Vaghelas originally served as military generals, ministers, and feudatories under the Chaulukya dynasty of Anahilavada before they eventually consolidated power and established their own independent rule over Gujarat in the 13th century CE.

Jayasimha Siddharaja (c. 1094–1143 CE) had major military conflicts with the Western Chalukyas of Kalyana, specifically during the reign of the contemporary ruler Vikramaditya VI (r. 1076–1126 CE), a rivalry recorded in several regional inscriptions and medieval historical texts.

Explanation

Peshwa Baji Rao II entered into a subsidiary alliance with the British East India Company by signing the historic Treaty of Bassein on 31 December 1802.

Major Alexander Walker was appointed as the first Political Resident at the court of the Gaekwad of Baroda in 1802, not in May 1800.

The Arab mercenary forces that mutinied and troubled the Gaikwad administration in Baroda were finally defeated and expelled in December 1802, following a ten-day siege of Baroda by British forces, rather than in December 1801.

Explanation

Swami Dayananda Sarasvati was born on 12 February 1824 in Tankara, which is located in the Kathiawar region of Gujarat.

The Tattvabodhini Sabha was founded by Debendranath Tagore on 6 October 1839 in Calcutta to propagate a rational and reformist interpretation of Hinduism based on the Upanishads.

Explanation

Maharaja Takhtasinhji of Bhavnagar sanctioned and oversaw the development of the metre-gauge Bhavnagar-Wadhwan Railway line, which was officially completed and opened to traffic on 18 December 1880.

The Bank of Baroda was established on 20 July 1908 by Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, not Khande Rao Gaekwad (who had passed away in 1870).

The Gaekwad Baroda State Railway (GBSR) was started in 1862 by Maharaja Khanderao Gaekwad (who ruled Baroda from 1856 to 1870), whereas Sayajirao Gaekwad III was coronated as the ruler of Baroda later in 1875.

Explanation

The Ghadar Movement began in 1913 in California, US, as a coalition of expatriate Indian immigrants, primarily Punjabi Sikhs, who sought to free India from British rule by organizing financial support, publishing revolutionary material, and coordinating an armed rebellion. The movement published the weekly journal Ghadar and various pamphlets to raise consciousness, while also mobilizing arms and sending thousands of volunteers back to India to execute a planned revolution during the First World War. Following the failure of the 1915 rebellion and subsequent trials, the Ghadar Party was reorganized in the 1920s, adopting strong socialist and communist ideologies, and it persisted as a key socio-political center for Punjabi and Sikh identity in North America until Indian independence in 1947.

Explanation

The term Mahagujarat was coined by the eminent writer and freedom fighter K.M. Munshi during a meeting of the Gujarat Sahitya Parishad held in Karachi in 1937.

Indulal Yagnik, popularly known as Indu Chacha, came out of political retirement to lead the Mahagujarat Movement and founded the Mahagujarat Janata Parishad in September 1956 to guide and spearhead the agitation for a separate state of Gujarat.

The student protest and subsequent police firing near the Congress House in Ahmedabad, which served as the decisive turning point for the movement, occurred on 8th August 1956. This makes the first statement historically incorrect due to the year being specified as 1957.

Explanation

The bust of the bearded man, also known as the Priest-King, is one of the most famous stone sculptures discovered from the Indus Valley Civilisation site of Mohenjo-Daro. This 18-centimetre-tall artifact is carved from steatite (soapstone), which is a soft, easily workable talc-schist stone. The sculpture depicts a male figure draped in a shawl decorated with a trefoil pattern, with half-closed eyes and a well-groomed beard, representing the exceptional craftsmanship of the Mature Harappan Period.

Explanation

The term Nakhlistan, also spelled Nakhilistan, is a Persian word that means an oasis or a grove of palm trees. The surrounding region of Mohenjo-daro, located along the Indus River basin in Sindh, Pakistan, is extraordinarily fertile and has traditionally been referred to as Nakhlistan, meaning the Garden of Sind, owing to its rich soil, abundant water supply, and agricultural productivity.

Explanation

Al-Biruni was a pioneering Central Asian scholar who visited the Indian subcontinent in the eleventh century. His landmark work, Kitab-ul-Hind, provides a detailed and systematic account of Indian religion, philosophy, customs, social laws, astronomy, and sciences. He wrote this text in the Arabic language, utilizing a simple and lucid style that typically structured each chapter with an initial question, followed by a detailed description based on Sanskrit traditions, and concluding with a comparative analysis of other civilizations.

Explanation

The Shatapatha Brahmana, a major prose text associated with the Shukla Yajurveda, contains the earliest explicit seeds of the doctrine of Karma and the concept of rebirth. While the Upanishads subsequently systematized and elevated these concepts into a core philosophical system, it is in the Shatapatha Brahmana where we find the foundational transition from purely ritualistic action to the moral law of cause and effect governing human existence.

Explanation

The Gayatri Mantra, also known as the Savitri Mantra, is a highly revered hymn from the Rigveda, specifically found in Mandala 3, Hymn 62, Verse 10. It was composed by Sage Vishvamitra and is dedicated to Savitri, a solar deity representing the divine light and the life-giving, stimulative power of the Sun, particularly associated with the rising Sun that illuminates and guides the human intellect.

Explanation

The followers of Vardhamana Mahavira were originally known as Nirgranthas. The Sanskrit term Nirgrantha, which translates to Nigantha in Prakrit, literally means those who are free from bonds or unfettered. It was used to describe ascetics who had completely renounced all worldly attachments, ties, and material possessions. In early Buddhist scriptures, Mahavira himself is frequently referred to as Nigantha Nataputta. After Mahavira attained supreme knowledge and was recognized as a Jina, meaning conqueror of his inner passions, his followers gradually came to be called Jainas.

Explanation

The Dutch East India Company, also known as the Vereenigde Oostindische Compagnie or VOC, was established in March 1602 by a charter granted by the States-General of the Netherlands. It is historically recognized as the world's first formally listed public joint-stock company. To finance its extensive trading voyages to India and the East Indies, the company offered shares to the general public, establishing the world's first stock market in Amsterdam. This structural innovation allowed them to pool vast public capital and sustain long-term maritime commerce.

Explanation

The Uttaramerur inscriptions, dating back to the reign of the Chola monarch Parantaka I in the early tenth century (919 CE and 921 CE), provide a comprehensive account of the village administration and local self-government under the Cholas. These inscriptions, carved on the walls of the Vaikuntha Perumal temple in Uttaramerur, describe the constitution, working, and eligibility criteria for the village assembly (sabha) and its various committees (variyams). They detail the unique kuda-olai (pot-ticket) system of election, wherein names of eligible candidates were written on palm leaves, put into a pot, and drawn by a young boy to choose the committee members, thereby establishing a highly structured system of local governance.

Explanation

The Kanheri Caves, located in the forests of the Sanjay Gandhi National Park in Mumbai, Maharashtra, house the only rock-cut representation of the eleven-headed Bodhisattva Avalokiteshvara (also known as Ekadasamukha Avalokiteshvara) in India.

This unique relief sculpture is carved on the right wall of the portico in Cave 41 and dates to around the late 5th or early 6th century CE. In this depiction, the central figure of Avalokiteshvara has ten additional faces piled vertically in multiple tiers atop his head. The eleven heads symbolize his expanded spiritual vision, allowing him to look in all directions to see the suffering of humanity, and represent the ten stages (dasabhumi) of spiritual attainment leading to Buddhahood.

Explanation

The Mathura school of art, which flourished during the Kushana period from the first century CE onwards, is highly characterized by the exclusive use of locally quarried red sandstone speckled with white spots. This distinctive spotted red sandstone, primarily sourced from regions near Mathura such as Sikri, was the signature material used by sculptors to carve a vast range of Buddhist, Brahmanical, and Jain deities.

Explanation

During the early 14th century, the Kakatiya dynasty ruled the eastern Deccan region with its capital at Warangal, in present-day Telangana. The monarch of the dynasty during the invasions by the Delhi Sultanate was Prataparudra, also known in various historical texts as Prataparudra II or Pratap Rudra Deva.

Warangal was first besieged by the Sultanate forces in 1310 under Malik Kafur, the general of Sultan Alauddin Khalji. During this invasion, the Kakatiya ruler was forced to negotiate a truce, surrendering vast treasures including the famous Koh-i-Noor diamond, and agreeing to pay annual tributes to Delhi. Later, following the withholding of tributes, the kingdom faced subsequent invasions by the Tughlaq dynasty, culminating in the 1323 campaign led by Ulugh Khan (Muhammad bin Tughluq) which captured Warangal, ended the Kakatiya dynasty, and annexed the region to the Delhi Sultanate.

Explanation

Krishnadevaraya, the prominent ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire who reigned from 1509 to 1529, was a great patron of literature and an accomplished scholar. He authored the Telugu epic poem Amuktamalyada, which translates to "she who offered the garland after wearing it." The work depicts the life of Andal, the Tamil Alvar poet-saint, and her devotion to Lord Ranganatha. Besides its religious and poetic merit, the text offers rich insights into the political philosophy, administration, and statecraft of the Vijayanagara period.

Explanation

Krishnadevaraya, the most illustrious ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire, was a great patron of art and architecture under whom the Vijayanagara style reached its zenith. He built the famous Hazara Ramaswami temple in Hampi, which served as the private place of worship for the royal family and is renowned for its highly detailed bas-reliefs depicting scenes from the Ramayana. He also constructed and expanded major portions of the Vittalaswamy temple complex in Hampi, adding magnificent structures such as the famous stone chariot and the highly ornate Kalyana Mandapa featuring musical pillars.

Explanation

The Rig Vedic society and economy was predominantly pastoral and semi-nomadic. Cattle rearing was the primary occupation, and cows (gayi) were considered the main form of wealth and the chief unit of value, making statement I correct.

Although pastoralism was dominant, agriculture was also practiced. Rig Vedic texts mention the use of wooden ploughshares (referred to as langala or sira) drawn by oxen for tilling the soil. They cultivated crops, particularly barley (yava), making statement II correct.

There is no archaeological or literary evidence of significant trade relations between the Rig Vedic people and West Asia. Rig Vedic trade was mostly local and limited, conducted via barter using cows or gold ornaments (nishka) as media of exchange. Extensive maritime and overland trade with West Asia was a key feature of the Harappan Civilisation, not the Rig Vedic period, making statement III incorrect.

Explanation

The contact between ancient India and the Persian (Achaemenid) Empire led to significant cultural, administrative, and artistic exchanges.

The ceremonial hair washing of the king on his birthday, practiced by Chandragupta Maurya and recorded by the Greek ambassador Megasthenes, was a direct adoption of a Persian royal custom.

Mauryan art and architecture, particularly the monolithic pillars of Ashoka with their highly polished lustrous finish, bell-shaped capitals, and animal motifs like the lion replicas, were heavily influenced by Achaemenid architectural designs found in Persepolis.

Explanation

The classical Sanskrit playwright Bhasa is traditionally credited with thirteen plays, which include both Charudatta and Balacharita. Charudatta is a secular drama that narrates the story of the poor merchant Charudatta and the courtesan Vasantasena, later serving as the foundation for Shudraka's play Mrichchhakatika. Balacharita is a play depicting the childhood exploits and early life of Lord Krishna.

In contrast, Ravanavadha (commonly known as Bhattikavya) is a celebrated Sanskrit epic poem composed by the poet Bhatti. Composed around the seventh century AD, Ravanavadha narrates the story of the Ramayana up to the death of Ravana while systematically illustrating the rules of Sanskrit grammar. Therefore, Ravanavadha is not a work of Bhasa.

Explanation

According to the Chinese traveller Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang), Emperor Harshavardhana made himself the Master of the Five Indies in the initial years of his military campaigns. These five regions or indies correspond to Punjab, Kannauj, Bengal, Bihar (representing Magadha/Mithila), and Orissa.

While Bengal (I) and Magadha (II) were under Harsha's direct administration and considered part of the core Five Indies, regions like Sindh (III) and Kashmir (IV) merely accepted his nominal suzerainty as feudatories or allies. Thus, only Bengal and Magadha are included in this classification, making option a the correct choice.

Explanation

During the medieval period, Gujarat occupied a pivotal position in maritime trade across the Indian Ocean. Statement I is correct because Gujarat's strategic coastal location and prosperous ports, particularly Cambay, allowed it to emerge as a major export hub connecting the Western Indian Ocean with Southeast Asia, especially the Malacca Straits and Indonesia.

Statement II is incorrect because spices were the primary import from Malacca and Indonesia to Gujarat, rather than an export. Gujarat's main exports to Malacca consisted of high-quality manufactured goods, particularly cotton and silk textiles, which were highly sought after in Southeast Asian markets in exchange for spices like pepper, nutmeg, mace, and cloves.

Statement III is correct because the Italian traveler Ludovico di Varthema, who visited India in the early sixteenth century, left extensive records detailing the extraordinary volume of maritime traffic at the port of Cambay. He described Cambay as a grand trading city where a massive influx of merchant vessels from various foreign nations docked, emphasizing the enormous scale of its international commerce.

Explanation

The official master answer key clearly highlights option (A) "I and II only" for Q86 on Bhalan. Bhalan was indeed a Gujarati writer who translated (adapted) Banabhatt's 'Kadambari' into Gujarati (Statement I correct), and he was a contemporary of Mirabai, both being 15th-16th century figures (Statement II correct). Bhalan is not particularly known for expounding Advaita philosophy, so Statement III is not attributed to him, ruling out options involving III.

Explanation

The Charaka Samhita is the foundational ancient Sanskrit text on internal medicine (Kayachikitsa) rather than surgery, which is the primary focus of the Sushruta Samhita.

The oldest surviving palm-leaf manuscript of the Sushruta Samhita, dating to 878 CE, is preserved at the Kaiser Library in Kathmandu, Nepal. This manuscript is recognized globally for its historical significance and is inscribed in UNESCO's Memory of the World Register.

Ayurvedic theory is based on the concept of three fundamental bodily humours or doshas, namely vata (wind/air), pitta (bile), and kapha or shleshma (phlegm), which govern the physiological and psychological functions of the body.

Explanation

During the First Anglo-Maratha War, Warren Hastings rejected the Treaty of Wadgaon and dispatched a Bengal detachment under the command of Colonel Goddard. Goddard marched across central India, entered Gujarat, and successfully captured Ahmedabad on 15 February 1779.

Explanation

During the First War of Independence in 1857, the Ahmedabad cantonment in Shahibaug was a focal point of revolt in Gujarat. The uprising by the native sepoys of the 2nd Grenadiers and the 7th Native Infantry was successfully suppressed by British forces under Captain Campbell, who quelled the mutiny in Ahmedabad.

Following the failed revolt, the British military authorities executed 21 rebellious sepoys. Since only 21 sepoys were executed rather than 210, statement I is incorrect.

The execution room in the Shahibaug cantonment area where these hangings were carried out is historically referred to as 'Fansi Ghar'.

Explanation

Tilak's Home Rule League (founded 1916) demanded Swaraj and, as part of its broader programme, called for education in the vernacular language and the reorganization of provinces on a linguistic basis. It also propagated its message through regional-language literature, including Marathi, Kannada, and Gujarati, alongside English, to reach a wider population across the Bombay Presidency and adjoining regions. All three statements are therefore correct, making option D ("I, II and III") the right answer.

Explanation

The chronological sequence of these significant events in modern Indian history is established by their respective years of occurrence.

The All India Muslim League was formed on December 30, 1906, in Dacca under the leadership of Aga Khan III, Nawab Salimullah of Dhaka, and others to safeguard the political rights of Muslims in British India.

The Rowlatt Act, officially called the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, was passed by the Imperial Legislative Council in March 1919, authorizing the colonial government to detain suspects of nationalist activities without trial.

The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, was sent by the British government to India in March 1942 to secure active Indian cooperation in World War II in exchange for the promise of post-war self-government.

This places the events in the precise order of Muslim League Formation (1906), Rowlatt Act (1919), and Cripps Mission (1942).

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization extended far beyond the geographic limits of the Indus river basin. Major archaeological sites are distributed across a vast geographical area including Gujarat (Lothal and Dholavira), Rajasthan (Kalibangan), Haryana (Rakhigarhi and Banawali), Uttar Pradesh (Alamgirpur), and even northern Afghanistan (Shortugai).

The characteristic pottery of the Indus Valley Civilization is the wheel-made Red and Black Ware. Potters treated the ceramic vessels with a bright red slip and painted them with rich black designs. These designs featured geometric patterns, horizontal bands, interlocking circles, and naturalistic motifs like peepal leaves, trees, fish scales, and animals.

Explanation

The Rigveda refers to several popular assemblies of the Early Vedic period that exercised check over the power of the king and participated in decision-making. The three prominent assemblies mentioned are the Sabha, the Samiti, and the Vidatha. The Vidatha was the oldest assembly and is mentioned 122 times in the Rigveda, serving military, religious, and redistributive functions where both men and women participated. The Sabha is mentioned 8 times and was a select body of elders and elites that performed judicial and advisory duties. The Samiti is mentioned 9 times and was a larger, general assembly of the entire clan or tribe where major political and administrative decisions, including the election and regulation of the king, were taken.

Explanation

The official GPSC master answer key highlights option (A) "Ignorance (Avijja)" as correct, confirmed on both the English and Gujarati versions of page 28/29. In Buddhist doctrine of Pratityasamutpada (dependent origination), avijja (ignorance) is the first of the twelve nidanas and is treated as the root cause from which the entire chain leading to rebirth (via sankhara, vinnana, etc., including tanha/craving and upadana/attachment) originates. While craving and attachment are proximate causes within the cycle, the exam-setters designated ignorance as the ultimate origin.

Explanation

The sequence of foreign invasions in northwestern India during the post-Mauryan period began with the Indo-Greeks, who established their rule in the early 2nd century BCE under Demetrius I. They were followed by the Shacas (Scythians), who entered India through the Bolan Pass in the 1st century BCE, displacing Greek rule in several regions. Following them, the Indo-Parthians (Pahlavas) established their authority in the early 1st century CE, with Gondophares being their most prominent ruler. Finally, the Kushanas (Yuezhi) entered India by the mid-1st century CE, defeating the Parthians and Shakas to build a vast empire that reached its peak under Kanishka.

Explanation

The Kushanas initiated the administrative practice of appointing two governors simultaneously in the same province. Under this dual governorship system, provinces were often jointly administered by a Mahakshatrapa and a Kshatrapa, or by a Kshatrapa and a Dandanayaka (military commander). For instance, during the reign of Kanishka I, two governors named Kharapallana and Banasphara were appointed to govern Varanasi together. This dual administration served as a system of checks and balances to prevent provincial heads from accumulating excessive power and rebelling against the central authority.

Explanation

Jonathan Duncan, the resident of the East India Company at Benares, established the Sanskrit College in 1791. The institution was created to preserve and cultivate the laws, literature, and religion of the Hindus, which also served the British administration by providing a steady supply of qualified assistants versed in Hindu law for the colonial courts.

Explanation

Acharya Vinoba Bhave initiated the Bhoodan Movement, also known as the Land Gift Movement, on April 18, 1951, from Pochampally village, located in the present-day Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district of Telangana. This voluntary land reform movement sought to persuade wealthy landowners to donate a portion of their land to landless peasants to address land inequality. The historic movement began when a local landowner, Vedre Ramachandra Reddy, stepped forward as the first donor by offering 100 acres of land to the landless villagers, leading the village to be renamed Bhoodan Pochampally in honor of this milestone.

Explanation

The correct chronological sequence of the establishment of these societies begins with the Brahmo Samaj, founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in Calcutta in 1828 to reform Hindu society and promote monotheism. This was followed by the Prarthana Samaj, established by Atmaram Pandurang in Bombay in 1867 to focus on religious and social reforms. Next, the Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Madame H. P. Blavatsky and Colonel H. S. Olcott before establishing its headquarters in Adyar in 1882. Finally, the Ramakrishna Mission was established by Swami Vivekananda in 1897 to propagate spiritual teachings and carry out humanitarian work.

Explanation

The States Reorganisation Commission was appointed by the Government of India in December 1953 to examine the question of the reorganization of the states of the Indian Union on a linguistic and administrative basis. The commission was chaired by Fazl Ali and had two other members, namely Pandit Hridaynath Kunzru and K. M. Panikkar. Pandit Hridaynath Kunzru was a respected liberal politician and social reformer, while K. M. Panikkar was a distinguished diplomat, historian, and scholar. Their recommendations, submitted in September 1955, formed the basis of the States Reorganisation Act of 1956.

Explanation

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India. It recognized for the first time the political and administrative functions of the Company, which had previously functioned purely as a trading body. By elevating the Governor of Bengal to the position of Governor-General of Bengal and establishing a unified control structure, this Act initiated the process of centralization, thereby laying the foundation of central administration in India.

Explanation

The Government of India Act 1919, also known as the Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, was enacted by the British Parliament in 1919 and officially came into force in 1921. This makes statement 1 correct.

The Act relaxed central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. This makes statement 2 correct.

Under this Act, the central and provincial legislatures were authorized to make laws on their respective lists of subjects. Thus, the provincial legislatures were indeed authorized to make laws on the provincial list, which makes statement 4 incorrect. By eliminating statement 4, options a, b, and d can be ruled out, leaving option c as the correct choice.

Explanation

The Rajaji Formula was proposed by C. Rajagopalachari in 1944 to solve the political deadlock between the All-India Muslim League and the Indian National Congress. Under this formula, the Muslim League would endorse the Congress demand for complete independence and cooperate with the Congress in forming a provisional coalition government at the Centre during the transitional period. Mahatma Gandhi fully supported the formula and held a series of talks with Muhammad Ali Jinnah in September 1944 to discuss its terms. Jinnah, however, rejected the proposal because he opposed a common center and wanted a sovereign Pakistan immediately without a plebiscite of the entire population in the proposed regions.

Explanation

Under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, the Constituent Assembly was constituted. The seats in the Assembly were allotted to each province and princely state in proportion to their respective population, roughly in the ratio of one seat per million people. The seats allocated to each British province were divided among three main communities, namely, Muslims, Sikhs, and General, in proportion to their population. The representatives of each community in the provincial legislative assembly were elected by members of that community, and the voting was conducted using the method of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote.

Explanation

The community-wise composition of the Constituent Assembly in 1946 shows that the Scheduled Castes had the third highest representation. Out of the 296 members from the British Indian provinces, Hindus had the highest representation with 163 members, followed by Muslims with 80 members. The Scheduled Castes held the third-highest position with 31 representatives.

Explanation

All four pairs are correctly matched under the Constitution of India. The Fourth Schedule deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) to the States and Union Territories. The Tenth Schedule contains provisions regarding the disqualification of members of Parliament and State Legislatures on the ground of defection, added via the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The Seventh Schedule delineates the division of powers between the Union and the States through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List. The Sixth Schedule contains provisions relating to the administration of tribal areas in the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.

Explanation

The Preamble to the Constitution of India declares fraternity as one of its core objectives, which aims at assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. This concept of fraternity, meaning a sense of common brotherhood, is actively promoted by the system of single citizenship, which fosters a feeling of oneness among all Indians irrespective of their state of origin. Furthermore, Article 51A of the Fundamental Duties specifically mandates under clause (e) that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India, transcending religious, linguistic, and regional or sectional diversities. The phrase unity and integrity of the nation encompasses both psychological integration and territorial dimensions, rather than being limited to territorial aspects alone.

Explanation

Under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, any bill proposing the reorganization of states can be introduced in either House of Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President.

Before recommending the bill, the President must refer it to the legislature of the affected state or states for expressing their views within a specified period.

The Parliament and the President are not bound by the views of the state legislature and have the absolute authority to either accept or reject any such recommendations or suggestions.

In the case of Union Territories, no reference to the legislature is required, and there is no provision under the Constitution requiring any special permission from the Rajya Sabha.

Explanation

Under Section 10 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Central Government can compulsorily terminate the citizenship of an Indian citizen by deprivation under specific circumstances. These grounds include when a citizen has shown disloyalty to the Constitution of India, or has unlawfully traded or communicated with the enemy during a war in which India is engaged. Additionally, citizenship can be terminated if a citizen, within five years after registration or naturalisation, has been imprisoned in any country for at least two years. The act specifies that deprivation on the grounds of continuous residence out of India applies only if the citizen has been ordinarily resident out of India for a continuous period of seven years.

Explanation

Under the Indian Constitution, the rule of equality before law under Article 14 is not absolute and is subject to several constitutional exceptions.

The first statement is correct because Article 105(2) provides that no member of Parliament shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in Parliament or any committee thereof. This immunity ensures that members of Parliament can perform their legislative duties without fear of legal consequences for their statements within the House.

The second statement is also correct because Article 361A, which was inserted by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, provides that no person shall be liable to any civil or criminal proceedings in any court in respect of the publication in a newspaper of a substantially true report of the proceedings of either House of Parliament or of the Legislature of a State, unless the publication is proved to have been made with malice. This protects the freedom of the press and the public right to know about legislative proceedings.

Explanation

Under the rules established by the Government of India for identifying the creamy layer among Other Backward Classes (OBCs), officers holding the rank of Colonel and above in the Army, as well as equivalent ranks in the Navy and Air Force, are classified as part of the creamy layer. Consequently, their children are excluded from the purview of OBC reservation benefits and cannot avail of these reservations.

Explanation

In the A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras case (1950), the Supreme Court took a narrow and literal interpretation of Article 21. The Court held that the expression "procedure established by law" meant a procedure prescribed by a law duly enacted by the legislature. Consequently, it ruled that the protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is available only against arbitrary executive action, and not against arbitrary legislative action. This meant the legislature could deprive a person of these rights by enacting a valid law, and the courts could not question the reasonableness, fairness, or justice of such a law.

Explanation

The writ of Prohibition is issued by a higher court to a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction or violating the principles of natural justice. Because its primary purpose is to restrain bodies performing judicial or quasi-judicial functions, it can indeed be issued against quasi-judicial authorities. It is only unavailable against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, and private individuals or organizations.

Explanation

Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978, the Right to Property was abolished as a Fundamental Right and re-introduced as an ordinary constitutional/legal right under Article 300A in Part XII of the Constitution. Because it is a legal right and not a fundamental right, it can be regulated, curtailed, or modified by an ordinary law enacted by Parliament or State Legislatures without needing a constitutional amendment. Article 300A mandates that no person shall be deprived of their property save by authority of law. This provides protection for private property against arbitrary executive actions, but does not provide protection against legislative actions authorized by a valid law. Furthermore, in case of violation, the aggrieved individual cannot directly petition the Supreme Court under Article 32, as that remedy is exclusively reserved for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. Instead, they can directly approach the High Court under Article 226, which extends to the enforcement of ordinary constitutional and legal rights.

Explanation

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar stated in the Constituent Assembly that the Directive Principles of State Policy have great value because they establish economic democracy as the ideal of the Indian polity. In line with these directives, the Government of India has enacted various laws, such as the Minimum Wages Act, the Maternity Benefit Act, and environmental protection laws, to promote a welfare state. Furthermore, while certain Fundamental Rights apply to foreigners and citizens alike, the Fundamental Duties under Article 51A are exclusively applicable to citizens of India. Consequently, all the given statements are factually and constitutionally correct, meaning none of them is incorrect.

Explanation

Under Article 368 of the Constitution of India, a special majority is required for amending certain provisions. This special majority requires the bill to be passed in each House of Parliament by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting.

The term total membership is defined as the total number of members that comprise the House as prescribed by law, which remains constant regardless of any existing vacancies, absentees, or disqualified members at the time of voting. This ensures that the baseline requirement for the majority of the total membership does not decrease even if several seats in the House are vacant.

Explanation

Federalism was recognized as an essential component of the basic structure of the Constitution in the landmark S.R. Bommai v. Union of India case (1994).

Social justice along with the concept of a welfare state forms a crucial pillar of the Indian polity and was declared part of the basic structure in various Supreme Court judgments, reinforcing that socio-economic justice is a fundamental feature of the constitutional order.

Effective access to justice was explicitly held to be a part of the basic structure of the Constitution in the Central Coal Fields Ltd. v. State of Bihar case (1980).

Freedom and dignity of the individual are fundamental ideals enshrined in the Preamble and were declared as part of the basic structure in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case (1973).

Explanation

Under Article 245 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament is vested with the power of extra-territorial legislation. This means that laws enacted by Parliament can extend beyond the territory of India and are legally binding on Indian citizens, as well as their property, located anywhere across the globe.

According to Paragraph 5(1) of the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution, the Governor of a state possessing Scheduled Areas is vested with special powers regarding the applicability of laws. The Governor is authorized to direct, by public notification, that any specific Act of Parliament or of the State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area within that state, or shall apply subject to such exceptions and modifications as may be specified.

Explanation

Under Article 249 of the Constitution of India, a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha declaring that it is necessary or expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter in the State List remains in force for such period, not exceeding one year, as may be specified in the resolution. It does not remain in force for only 30 days. The resolution can be extended for a further period of one year at a time, any number of times, by passing a subsequent resolution in the same manner.

Explanation

The Sarkaria Commission (1983–1988), which was constituted to review the framework of Centre-State relations, recommended that the Central Government must have the authority to deploy its armed forces or other Union forces to maintain public order or protect Union properties in any state, even without the consent of that state. While the Commission emphasized that consulting the state government beforehand is highly desirable to foster cooperative federalism, it maintained that the ultimate constitutional power and responsibility to deploy these forces rests with the Centre.

Explanation

The Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice, chaired by Dr. E. M. Sudarsana Natchiappan, submitted its report on the Feasibility of Holding Simultaneous Elections to House of People (Lok Sabha) and State Legislative Assemblies on December 17, 2015.

The committee recommended the implementation of simultaneous elections in a phased manner. It highlighted that synchronized polls would substantially reduce the massive financial expenditure incurred during separate elections, prevent the administrative and policy paralysis resulting from the frequent enforcement of the Model Code of Conduct, and minimize the repetitive burden on security forces and government manpower deployed for election duties.

Explanation

The concept of a Republic in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the French Constitution. In a republican system, the head of the state is elected, either directly or indirectly, rather than being a hereditary monarch. This philosophy, along with the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble, was adopted from the democratic traditions of France.

Explanation

During a National Emergency declared under Article 352, the federal structure of the constitution undergoes a significant change. As per Article 353(a), the executive power of the Union extends to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power of the State is to be exercised. This allows the Central government to issue executive directions to a state on any matter, establishing complete control over the state executive while the state governments continue to exist and are not suspended.

Explanation

According to Article 55 of the Constitution of India, the value of the vote of each elected Member of Parliament is determined by dividing the total value of votes of all the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of all states by the total number of elected members of both Houses of Parliament. Nominated members of Parliament do not participate in the electoral college for the Presidential election, which is why only the elected members of Parliament are included in the denominator of the formula.

Explanation

Registered non-resident Indian (NRI) voters are required to physically cast their votes in person at the designated polling station of their respective constituency in India, where their residence is located as per their passport. No online or postal voting provisions are available to them.

The option of proxy voting is exclusively available to classified service voters under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This category includes members of the armed forces, force members to which the Army Act applies, armed police forces of a state serving outside that state, and government employees posted outside India, who are permitted to nominate a proxy to vote on their behalf.

Explanation

Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor can reserve a Bill passed by the state legislature for the consideration of the President of India under certain circumstances. One such condition is when the provisions of the Bill are opposed to the Directive Principles of State Policy. Other conditions include bills that endanger the position of the state High Court, are ultra-vires to the Constitution, oppose the larger interest of the country, or are of grave national importance.

In the case of a bicameral state legislature, there is no constitutional provision that allows the Governor to summon a joint sitting of both Houses to resolve a deadlock over a Bill. Unlike the President of India at the federal level, the state Legislative Assembly holds overriding powers over the Legislative Council, meaning a joint sitting mechanism does not exist.

Under Article 333 of the Constitution, the Governor of a state was empowered to nominate one member of the Anglo-Indian community to the state legislative assembly if they felt the community was not adequately represented. This provision was active up to the early part of 2020 before being phased out.

Explanation

A Money Bill is categorized as a government bill, which means it can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha by a Minister. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.

Financial Bills are of three categories: Money Bills under Article 110, Financial Bills (I) under Article 117(1), and Financial Bills (II) under Article 117(3). This classification shows that all Money Bills are a subcategory of Financial Bills, but not all Financial Bills are Money Bills. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.

Financial Bills (II) under Article 117(3) contain provisions involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India but do not include any of the matters specified in Article 110. Unlike Financial Bills (I), Financial Bills (II) can be introduced in either House of Parliament, and prior recommendation of the President is not required for their introduction. This makes Statement 3 incorrect.

Explanation

The 6th Report of the Second Administrative Reforms Commission, titled Local Governance: An Inspiring Journey into the Future, is dedicated to local self-government in India. This report provides comprehensive recommendations on strengthening Panchayati Raj Institutions and Urban Local Bodies. It outlines measures for effective devolution of functions, finances, and functionaries to these local bodies to ensure robust democratic decentralization and citizen-centric governance at the grassroots level.

Explanation

Quasi-judicial bodies are entities such as an arbitrator, board, or commission that possess powers and procedures resembling those of a court of law, enabling them to adjudicate disputes and make bindings rulings. Administrative and statutory tribunals are the primary examples of these institutions. The Central Information Commission is a quasi-judicial body because it exercises powers similar to a civil court under the Right to Information Act, including summoning individuals, inspecting documents, and receiving evidence. Unlike ordinary civil courts that have broad jurisdiction, the authority of any given quasi-judicial body is strictly confined to a highly specific, specialized area of administration or regulatory field.

Explanation

The North Eastern Council is a statutory body established under the North Eastern Council Act, 1971.

The council consists of the Governors and the Chief Ministers of the eight north-eastern states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura) as its members, along with three members nominated by the President of India.

Following the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act of 2002, the mandate of the council was upgraded from an advisory body to a regional planning body for the north-eastern region.

According to Section 4 of the amended Act, while formulating regional plans for the north-eastern area, the Council is mandated to give priority to schemes and projects that will benefit two or more states of the region. For Sikkim, the Council formulates specific projects and schemes tailored to the state.

Explanation

The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, was enacted to reorganize the boundaries of India's states on a linguistic basis.

Part IV of the Act contains specific provisions for the delimitation of constituencies, establishing the Delimitation Commission to determine and redraw parliamentary and assembly constituencies for the newly organized states.

Part V of the Act provides for the establishment and jurisdiction of High Courts for the newly created or reorganized states, including setting up High Courts for new states such as Kerala, Mysore, and Rajasthan.

The Inter-State Council is not provided under this Act. It is a constitutional body established under Article 263 of the Constitution of India, which was set up in 1990 following the recommendations of the Sarkaria Commission. The States Reorganisation Act, 1956, instead provided for the establishment of Zonal Councils.

Explanation

Article 145(3) of the Constitution of India mandates that any reference made to the Supreme Court under Article 143 for its advisory opinion must be heard by a Bench consisting of not less than five judges.

The advisory opinion given by the Supreme Court under Article 143 is purely consultative in nature. It does not constitute a judicial pronouncement, decree, or order, and therefore it is not binding on the President, who is free to accept or disregard the opinion.

Under Article 143(1), the Supreme Court may decline to express its opinion on a reference if it considers the matter inappropriate or unnecessary for judicial advice.

Explanation

The election of the President of India is held in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and secret ballot under Article 55(3) of the Constitution of India. Similarly, the Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament through the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and voting by secret ballot under Article 66(1).

The representatives of each State in the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote under Article 80(4). Similarly, the members of the Vidhan Parishat are elected in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote under Article 171(4). While Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishat elections were amended in 2003 to introduce an open ballot system to prevent cross-voting, they still utilize the core system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

The Deputy Chairman (Vice Chairman) of the Rajya Sabha is elected by the members of the Rajya Sabha from among themselves using a simple majority vote rather than the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

Explanation

The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is not governed by any "National Register for Citizens Act, 1971". There is no such legislation in India. Instead, the legal framework for the registration of citizens and the compilation of the NRC is provided under Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. Section 14A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, empowers the Central Government to compulsorily register every citizen of India and issue national identity cards, while the 2003 Rules lay down the specific procedures for building and maintaining the register.

Explanation

Remission refers to the reduction of the period of a sentence without changing its character, such as reducing a sentence of rigorous imprisonment from two years to one year. The awarding of a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special physical fact, such as the pregnancy of a female offender or the physical disability of a convict, is known as Respite. Thus, the description given for remission is incorrect as it actually defines respite.

Explanation

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) is empowered to conduct all three types of audits mentioned. The audit against provision of funds ensures that the money expended has been applied to the purpose for which it was appropriated and conforms to the governing authority. The proprietary audit focuses on the wisdom, faithfulness, and economy of public expenditure to check wastefulness. The efficiency-cum-performance audit evaluates whether government programs, projects, and organizations have achieved their objectives economically and efficiently. Because the CAG performs all these audits, none of them are excepted.

Explanation

The minimum number of members required to hold a valid meeting of the Gram Sabha, commonly referred to as the quorum, is one-tenth of the total membership. The Gram Sabha represents the general body of the village and consists of all persons registered on the electoral rolls of the village within the panchayat area. If this minimum attendance of one-tenth is not reached at the scheduled meeting time, the meeting is adjourned due to a lack of quorum and is typically rescheduled for a subsequent date.

Explanation

The Committee on Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is a joint parliamentary committee consisting of 30 members. Among these, 20 members are elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its members, and 10 members are elected by the Rajya Sabha from amongst its members. The election is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, and the term of office of the committee members is one year.

Explanation

The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019, amended the Constitution of India to provide up to ten percent reservation in education and public employment for the Economically Weaker Sections of citizens. This amendment inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) into the Constitution. Article 15(6) enables the state to make special provisions, including reservation in admission to educational institutions, for the advancement of economically weaker sections. Article 16(6) enables the state to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in government services in favor of these sections.

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India has framed specific guidelines regarding the types of petitions that can and cannot be entertained as Public Interest Litigation (PIL).

According to these guidelines, cases falling under certain categories are strictly not entertained as PIL. These include landlord-tenant matters, service matters and those pertaining to pension and gratuity of an individual, admission to medical and other educational institutions, and petitions for the early hearing of cases pending in High Courts and subordinate courts.

Complaints against central or state government departments and local bodies are also generally excluded, except when they relate to the specified public interest subjects listed in the guidelines (such as bonded labor, environmental pollution, atrocities on women, or non-payment of minimum wages). Because complaints against government departments and local bodies are indeed entertained as PIL when they concern these specified public interest matters, this area is not completely barred. Thus, only landlord-tenant matters, service/pension matters, and petitions for early hearing of pending cases are excluded from being entertained as PIL.

Explanation

The Governor of a state possesses judicial powers under the Constitution of India that encompass both pardoning powers and appointments to the state judiciary.

Under Article 161 of the Constitution, the Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment, or to suspend, remit, or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence against any law relating to a matter to which the executive power of the state extends.

Under Article 233 of the Constitution, the appointments, posting, and promotion of district judges in any state are made by the Governor of the state in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such state.

Explanation

Under Article 229(3) of the Constitution of India, the administrative expenses of a High Court, which include all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of the officers and servants of the court, are charged upon the Consolidated Fund of the State.

Regarding the judges, Article 202(3)(d) mandates that the salaries and allowances of High Court judges are charged to the Consolidated Fund of the State, whereas their pensions are charged to the Consolidated Fund of India under Article 112(3)(d)(iii).

Regarding post-retirement practice, Article 220 restricts a retired permanent judge of a High Court from pleading or acting only in the courts or before authorities where they held office as a permanent judge. They are fully permitted to practice in the Supreme Court and in any other High Court.

Explanation

The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under Article 323A of the Constitution of India via the Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985. Section 14 of the Act empowers the CAT to exercise jurisdiction, power, and authority in relation to recruitment and service matters of persons appointed to public services and posts in connection with the affairs of the Union. This includes members of the all-India services, Central Civil Services, civil posts under the Union, and civilian employees of the defence services. Conversely, the Act specifically excludes members of the armed forces, officers and servants of the Supreme Court, and the secretarial staff of Parliament from the jurisdiction of the tribunal.

Explanation

The National Legal Services Authority is a statutory body constituted under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, which was enacted by the Parliament of India to provide free legal services to the weaker sections of society.

In every State, a State Legal Services Authority has been constituted under Section 6 of the Act to implement the policies and directions of the national authority, provide free legal services, and conduct Lok Adalats.

The Chief Justice of India serves as the Patron-in-Chief of the National Legal Services Authority, whereas the Executive Chairman of the authority is the second senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court of India.

Explanation

The Ashok Mehta Committee was appointed by the Janata Government in December 1977 and submitted its report in August 1978. Among its 132 recommendations to strengthen the local self-governance system, the committee suggested that Nyaya Panchayats, as judicial organs, must be kept entirely separate from development panchayats to prevent the mixing of developmental functions with judicial administration. It further proposed that these Nyaya Panchayats should be presided over by a qualified judge to ensure fair and legally competent adjudication. To strengthen democratic processes at the grassroots, the committee also recommended the official participation of political parties at all levels of panchayat elections.

Explanation

Article 324 of the Constitution of India establishes the Election Commission but does not specify the term or tenure of office for the Election Commissioners. Instead, Article 324(5) states that the conditions of service and tenure of office of the Election Commissioners shall be such as the President may by rule determine, subject to any law made by Parliament. It was Parliament that subsequently specified the term of six years or up to the age of sixty-five years, whichever is earlier, through the Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991.

Explanation

Under Article 280 of the Constitution of India, the Finance Commission is established by the President.

Article 280(2) authorizes the Parliament to determine by law the qualifications requisite for appointment as members of the Commission and the manner of their selection. Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the Finance Commission (Miscellaneous Provisions) Act, 1951, to define these qualifications.

Article 280(3)(d) mandates that the Commission shall make recommendations to the President on any other matter referred to it by the President in the interests of sound finance.

The Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members, which means the statement claiming it has five other members is incorrect. Thus, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The ideal of economic justice is enshrined in both the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Indian Constitution. The Preamble explicitly declares the resolve of the people of India to secure for all its citizens justice, which includes social, economic, and political justice. This objective is translated into actionable guidelines under Part IV of the Constitution through the Directive Principles of State Policy. Article 38 directs the State to secure a social order permeated by social, economic, and political justice to promote the welfare of the people and minimize inequalities in income, status, and opportunities. Article 39 further reinforces economic justice by directing the State to ensure that citizens have the right to an adequate means of livelihood, that the ownership and control of material resources are distributed to subserve the common good, and that there is no concentration of wealth to the common detriment.

Explanation

Article 51A of the Constitution of India, contained in Part IV-A, details the Fundamental Duties of its citizens.

Under Article 51A(e), it is the duty of every citizen of India to promote harmony and the spirit of common brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities, and to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Under Article 51A(k), which was inserted by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2002, it is the duty of a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

Explanation

In the landmark case of Faheema Shirin RK v. State of Kerala (2019), the Kerala High Court held that the right to access the Internet is a fundamental right. The court ruled that internet access is an integral part of the right to privacy and the right to education, both of which are protected under the right to life and personal liberty guaranteed by Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

Explanation

Let T_P and T_Q be the events where P and Q speak the truth, and L_P and L_Q be the events where they lie.

The probability of P speaking the truth is P(T_P) = 75% = 0.75. The probability of P lying is P(L_P) = 1 - 0.75 = 0.25.

The probability of Q speaking the truth is P(T_Q) = 80% = 0.80. The probability of Q lying is P(L_Q) = 1 - 0.80 = 0.20.

They will contradict each other when one speaks the truth and the other lies. The probability of contradiction is given by the formula:

P(Contradiction) = P(T_P) × P(L_Q) + P(L_P) × P(T_Q)

Substituting the values:

P(Contradiction) = 0.75 × 0.20 + 0.25 × 0.80 P(Contradiction) = 0.15 + 0.20 = 0.35

Converting this probability into a percentage:

Percentage of cases of contradiction = 0.35 × 100% = 35%

Explanation

The number of divisions along each edge of the larger cube is given by n = D/d, where D is the edge of the larger cube and d is the edge of the smaller cube. Here, n = 8/2 = 4.

The formula to find the number of smaller cubes that do not have any of their faces painted is (n - 2)³.

Substituting the value of n into the formula:

(4 - 2)³ = 2³ = 8

Explanation

The family consists of three males (R, S, T) and three females (P, Q, U). Since U is the daughter-in-law of T, U must be married to either R or S, and T must be married to Q. This leaves P and either S or R as the remaining female and male. Since the members of each couple sit opposite to each other, T sits opposite Q, the husband of U sits opposite U, and the remaining male sits opposite P.

Let the six seats around the circular table be numbered 1 to 6 in counter-clockwise order, which represents the left direction when facing the center. Since all three males sit together and all three females sit together, the seating layout consists of three consecutive male seats and three consecutive female seats.

Let T (Male) sit at seat 1. U (Female) sits second to the left of T, which is seat 3 in the counter-clockwise direction. Since seat 1 is occupied by a male and seat 3 is occupied by a female, the three adjacent male seats must be seats 6, 1, and 2, while the three adjacent female seats must be seats 3, 4, and 5.

Since T at seat 1 and Q must sit opposite each other, Q sits at seat 4. Since U at seat 3 and her husband must sit opposite each other, the husband of U sits at seat 6. This leaves seat 2 for the remaining male and seat 5 for the remaining female, P, who is the daughter of U.

We can verify this configuration using the condition that the daughter of U sits second to the left of U. Starting from U at seat 3, moving two seats to the left brings us to seat 5, which is indeed occupied by P.

To find who is sitting second to the left of the husband of U, we look at the position relative to the husband at seat 6. Moving two seats to the left of seat 6 brings us to seat 2. Since the husband of U can be either R or S, the remaining male at seat 2 will be the other one, either S or R.

Explanation

Substituting the specified mathematical operators for the given letters: R is replaced by - T is replaced by ÷ Q is replaced by × W is replaced by +

The given expression is 20R12T4Q6W5.

Substituting the symbols into the expression yields: 20 - 12 ÷ 4 × 6 + 5

Applying the BODMAS (Bracket, Of, Division, Multiplication, Addition, Subtraction) rule:

First, perform the division operation: 12 ÷ 4 = 3

The expression becomes: 20 - 3 × 6 + 5

Next, perform the multiplication operation: 3 × 6 = 18

The expression becomes: 20 - 18 + 5

Now, perform the addition and subtraction: 20 - 18 + 5 = 25 - 18 = 7

Explanation

To find when a birthday falls on the same day of the week, the number of odd days accumulated between the two years must be a multiple of 7. An ordinary year has 1 odd day, while a leap year has 2 odd days.

The year 1970 is an ordinary year. The leap years between 1970 and 1981 are 1972, 1976, and 1980.

We count the odd days from September 6, 1970 to September 6, 1981: From 1970 to 1971: 1 odd day From 1971 to 1972: 2 odd days (leap year) From 1972 to 1973: 1 odd day From 1973 to 1974: 1 odd day From 1974 to 1975: 1 odd day From 1975 to 1976: 2 odd days (leap year) From 1976 to 1977: 1 odd day From 1977 to 1978: 1 odd day From 1978 to 1979: 1 odd day From 1979 to 1980: 2 odd days (leap year) From 1980 to 1981: 1 odd day

Total odd days = 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 = 14 odd days.

Since 14 is a multiple of 7, the day on September 6, 1981 will be the same as September 6, 1970, which is a Sunday. Alternatively, using the calendar repetition shortcut, an ordinary year that is two years after a leap year (1970 is two years after 1968) repeats its calendar after 11 years, giving 1970 + 11 = 1981.

Explanation

Average = (Sum of all observations) / (Total number of observations)

The interest paid on loans for each of the five years is: Sum of interest = 23.4 + 32.5 + 41.6 + 36.4 + 49.4 = 183.3 lakhs

Total number of years = 5

Average interest per year = 183.3 / 5 = 36.66 lakhs

Explanation

The percentage can be calculated using the direct formula:

Percentage = (Total Bonus / Total Salary) × 100%

First, calculate the total amount of bonus paid by the company from 1998 to 2002:

Total Bonus = 3.00 + 2.52 + 3.84 + 3.68 + 3.96 = 17.00 lakhs

Next, calculate the total salary paid by the company during the same period:

Total Salary = 288 + 342 + 324 + 336 + 420 = 1710 lakhs

Now, substitute these totals into the percentage formula:

Percentage = (17.00 / 1710) × 100% ≈ 0.994%

Rounding to the nearest whole number gives approximately 1%.

Explanation

Total expenditure of the company in the year 1998 is calculated by summing up the expenditures on all the items in that year: 288 + 98 + 3.00 + 23.4 + 83 = 495.4 lakhs

Total expenditure of the company in the year 2002 is calculated similarly: 420 + 142 + 3.96 + 49.4 + 98 = 713.36 lakhs

To find the required percentage, we divide the total expenditure of 1998 by the total expenditure of 2002 and multiply by 100: Percentage = (495.4 / 713.36) × 100 ≈ 69.45%

This value is approximately 69%.

Explanation

To find the total expenditure of the company during the year 2000, we sum up the expenditures on all the given items for that year:

Total Expenditure = Salary + Fuel and Transport + Bonus + Interest on Loans + Taxes

Total Expenditure = 324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74 = 544.44 lakhs

Explanation

Total expenditure on taxes for all the years is calculated by summing up the taxes for each year: Total Taxes = 83 + 108 + 74 + 88 + 98 = 451 lakhs

Total expenditure on fuel and transport for all the years is calculated by summing up the fuel and transport costs for each year: Total Fuel and Transport = 98 + 112 + 101 + 133 + 142 = 586 lakhs

The ratio between the total expenditure on taxes and the total expenditure on fuel and transport is: Ratio = 451 : 586 ≈ 0.7696

Evaluating the options, 10:13 is approximately 10 / 13 ≈ 0.7692, which is the closest approximation to 0.7696.

Explanation

From Statement I, substituting z = 2 gives: 2xy(2) + 6y - 8(2) + 5 = 0 4xy + 6y - 11 = 0 y(4x + 6) = 11

Using Statement II, we obtain a specific non-zero value for y: y = √225 - √116 = 15 - √116

Substituting this value of y back into y(4x + 6) = 11 allows us to solve uniquely for x. Thus, Statements I and II together are sufficient.

Alternatively, from Statement III, substituting z = 3 gives: 4xy(3) - 6(3) + 8y - 7 = 0 12xy + 8y - 25 = 0

We can define xy = u and y = v. Combining this with Statement I gives a system of two linear equations: 4u + 6v = 11 12u + 8v = 25

Multiplying the first equation by 3 yields: 12u + 18v = 33

Subtracting 12u + 8v = 25 from this gives: 10v = 8 v = 0.8

Since y = v = 0.8, substituting this into 4u + 6v = 11 gives: 4u + 6(0.8) = 11 4u + 4.8 = 11 4u = 6.2 u = 1.55

Since xy = u = 1.55 and y = 0.8, we can find x uniquely: x = 1.55 / 0.8 = 1.9375

Thus, Statements I and III together are also sufficient.

Explanation

The volume of water that rises in the cylindrical vessel is equal to the volume of the sphere dropped into it.

The volume of the sphere is given by the formula: Volume = 4/3 × π × r³

Given the radius of the sphere r = 30 cm, the volume is: Volume of sphere = 4/3 × π × 30³ = 4/3 × π × 27000 = 36000π

The volume of the risen water in the cylindrical vessel is given by the formula: Volume = π × R² × x

Given the diameter of the cylindrical vessel is 80 cm, its radius R is 40 cm. The volume of the risen water column is: Volume of risen water = π × 40² × x = 1600πx

Equating the volume of the sphere to the volume of the risen water: 1600πx = 36000π 1600x = 36000 x = 36000 / 1600 = 22.5 cm

Explanation

Let the initial quantities of liquids M and N in the container be 7x and 5x respectively, making the total initial volume 12x.

When 9 liters of mixture are drawn off: Quantity of M removed = 9 × 7/12 = 21/4 liters Quantity of N removed = 9 × 5/12 = 15/4 liters

The container is then filled with 9 liters of liquid N.

The new quantity of M is 7x - 21/4, and the new quantity of N is 5x - 15/4 + 9 = 5x + 21/4.

According to the given condition, the new ratio of M and N is 7:9: (7x - 21/4) / (5x + 21/4) = 7/9

Dividing the numerator of the left side by 7: (x - 3/4) / (5x + 21/4) = 1/9

Cross-multiplying to solve for x: 9 × (x - 3/4) = 5x + 21/4 9x - 27/4 = 5x + 21/4 4x = 48/4 4x = 12 x = 3

The initial quantity of liquid M is 7x = 7 × 3 = 21 liters.

Explanation

To find the correct arrangement of balls in the boxes, we can test the placement of balls such that each friend makes exactly one true statement and one false statement.

Let the positions of the Yellow, Green, and Red balls be represented by their respective box numbers. Consider the arrangement where the Yellow ball is in Box 2, the Green ball is in Box 3, and the Red ball is in Box 1 (Yellow = 2, Green = 3, Red = 1).

Testing this arrangement against each person's statements:

For J: The first statement, Yellow ball is not in Box 2, is False because Yellow is in Box 2. The second statement, Red ball is in Box 1, is True. This gives one True and one False statement.

For K: The first statement, Yellow ball is not in Box 3, is True because Yellow is in Box 2. The second statement, Green ball is in Box 2, is False because Green is in Box 3. This gives one True and one False statement.

For L: The first statement, Green ball is in Box 3, is True. The second statement, Red ball is not in Box 1, is False because Red is in Box 1. This gives one True and one False statement.

Since this arrangement perfectly satisfies the condition of having exactly one true and one false statement for J, K, and L, Box 1 must contain the Red ball.

Explanation

Let the arrangement of the Yellow, Green, and Red balls in Box 1, Box 2, and Box 3 be represented as an ordered triplet (Box 1, Box 2, Box 3). Since each friend makes one true statement and one false statement, we can test the arrangement where Box 1 contains Red, Box 2 contains Yellow, and Box 3 contains Green, denoted as (Red, Yellow, Green).

For J: The first statement, Yellow Ball is not in Box 2, is false. The second statement, Red ball is in Box 1, is true. This satisfies the condition of having one true and one false statement.

For K: The first statement, Yellow Ball is not in Box 3, is true. The second statement, Green ball is in Box 2, is false. This also satisfies the condition.

For L: The first statement, Green ball is in Box 3, is true. The second statement, Red ball is not in Box 1, is false. This also satisfies the condition.

Since this arrangement of (Red, Yellow, Green) perfectly matches all criteria, the Yellow ball must be in Box 2.

Explanation

Following the given conditions, three balls (Yellow, Green, and Red) are to be placed into three numbered boxes (1, 2, and 3), with exactly one ball per box.

We consider the first statement made by K to be true: K1: The Yellow ball is not in Box 3. This means the Yellow ball must be placed in either Box 1 or Box 2.

We can analyze the arrangements based on these two possibilities.

In the first case, let the Yellow ball be in Box 2. Under this assumption, statement J1 (The Yellow ball is not in Box 2) is false. Since exactly one statement made by J must be true and the other false, statement J2 (The Red ball is in Box 1) must be true. Thus, Red is placed in Box 1. This leaves the Green ball to be placed in Box 3. Let us check L's statements under this arrangement (Red in Box 1, Yellow in Box 2, Green in Box 3): Statement L1 (The Green ball is in Box 3) is true. Statement L2 (The Red ball is not in Box 1) is false. Since exactly one of L's statements is true and the other is false, this arrangement satisfies all conditions. Therefore, the first valid arrangement is: Red in Box 1, Yellow in Box 2, Green in Box 3.

In the second case, let the Yellow ball be in Box 1. Under this assumption, statement J1 (The Yellow ball is not in Box 2) is true. Since exactly one of J's statements must be true, statement J2 (The Red ball is in Box 1) must be false (which is consistent since Yellow is in Box 1). Since Red is not in Box 1, statement L2 (The Red ball is not in Box 1) is true. Since exactly one of L's statements must be true, statement L1 (The Green ball is in Box 3) must be false. Thus, Green is not in Box 3. With Yellow in Box 1, the remaining boxes for Green and Red are Box 2 and Box 3. Since Green is not in Box 3, Green must be in Box 2, and Red must be in Box 3. This arrangement (Yellow in Box 1, Green in Box 2, Red in Box 3) satisfies all conditions for J, K, and L. Therefore, the second valid arrangement is: Yellow in Box 1, Green in Box 2, Red in Box 3.

Since the Yellow ball can only be in Box 1 or Box 2, there are no other cases. This results in exactly 2 possible arrangements. Since 2 is not listed in options a, b, or c, the correct option is d.

Explanation

The statement states that the reformer has enemies in all those who profit by the old order. This directly supports conclusion I, which states that those benefited by the old order are the foes of the reformer.

Additionally, the statement mentions that the reformer has lukewarm defenders in all those who would profit from the new order. Since these people are defenders, even if lukewarm, they are supporters rather than enemies of the reformer. This directly supports conclusion II, which states that the ones who benefit from the new order are not the enemies of the reformer. Therefore, both conclusions I and II logically follow.

Explanation

The given statement specifies that the President is required to perform certain other functions in relation to the Parliament under the Constitution.

Conclusion I does not follow because performing certain functions in relation to the Parliament does not mean the President performs most of the functions of the Parliament. The word most makes the conclusion an overgeneralization that is unsupported by the statement.

Conclusion II does not follow because the statement merely describes functions in relation to the Parliament, without limiting the President's scope of work. It does not state or imply that the Parliament is the only entity in relation to which the President can function. Since both conclusions are logical leaps that cannot be directly derived from the statement, neither I nor II follows.

Explanation

The statement establishes that antiques are extremely expensive, costing too much for a common man to purchase. Because the cost exceeds what a common man can afford, it logically follows that a common man does not purchase antiques, validating conclusion I. The statement specifically discusses antiques and does not provide any information to support a general rule about all exhibited products, meaning conclusion II cannot be deduced from the given premises.

Explanation

The statement highlights that the cricket team's performance on foreign soil has improved recently. The term "improved" directly indicates a comparison with the past, signifying that the team's past performance or the proficiency of the previous teams during overseas matches was of a lower standard. Therefore, Conclusion I naturally and logically follows from the statement.

Explanation

The given statement asserts that farmers across India contribute to the increase in agricultural production. Conclusion I introduces a specific statistic regarding the landholding size of Indian farmers (80% owning less than one hectare), which cannot be inferred or deduced from the general statement about agricultural contribution. Conclusion II compares productivity between smaller and larger lands, which is also completely outside the scope of the statement. Since neither conclusion can be logically derived from the given statement, neither I nor II follows.

Explanation

Let the present ages of X and Y be 2k and 3k.

According to the given condition, after 5 years, the ratio of their ages becomes 7:10:

(2k + 5) / (3k + 5) = 7/10

Cross-multiplying the terms gives:

10(2k + 5) = 7(3k + 5)

20k + 50 = 21k + 35

k = 15

Thus, the present age of X is 2 × 15 = 30 years, and the present age of Y is 3 × 15 = 45 years.

After 15 years from now, their ages will be:

X = 30 + 15 = 45 years

Y = 45 + 15 = 60 years

The required ratio of their ages after 15 years is:

45 : 60 = 3 : 4

Explanation

The arithmetic mean of an odd number of consecutive integers is equal to the middle term of the sequence.

For the first set of 5 consecutive integers starting with s, the terms are s, s + 1, s + 2, s + 3, and s + 4. The middle term (3rd term) is s + 2. Hence, a = s + 2.

For the second set of 9 consecutive integers starting with s + 2, the terms are s + 2, s + 3, s + 4, s + 5, s + 6, s + 7, s + 8, s + 9, and s + 10. The middle term (5th term) of this sequence is s + 6.

Expressing this new mean in terms of a: s + 6 = (s + 2) + 4 = a + 4.

Explanation

Let the monthly salaries of the five vice presidents in lakhs, sorted in ascending order, be represented as a, b, c, d, and e, where a ≤ b ≤ c ≤ d ≤ e.

Since there are five observations, the median is the middle term, c. We are given that the median is 5 lakhs, so c = 5.

We are also given that the only mode is 8 lakhs. Since the mode is 8 and c = 5, the value 8 must repeat and be greater than c. Thus, we must have d = 8 and e = 8. Since 8 is the only mode, all other values must be distinct, which means a < b < c.

The mean of the salaries is 5 lakhs, so the sum of all five salaries is: a + b + c + d + e = 5 × 5 = 25

Substituting the known values: a + b + 5 + 8 + 8 = 25 a + b = 4

Since salaries of vice presidents must be positive integers, and we must satisfy the condition a < b < 5, the only possible integer values are a = 1 and b = 3.

Thus, the lowest salary is 1 lakh and the highest salary is 8 lakhs. The sum of the highest and lowest salaries is 1 + 8 = 9 lakhs.