GPSC2017General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

GPSC Prelims 2017 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 189 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

189
Questions
6
Subjects
31
Gujarat-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • History5529%
  • Art and Culture4725%
  • Polity and Governance4323%
  • Economy3116%
  • Science and Technology95%
  • Logical Reasoning42%
1History
Which of the following is the largest Harappan site in modern India ?
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Answer: (D) Rakhigarhi

Explanation

Rakhigarhi, located in the Hisar district of Haryana, is the largest Harappan site in modern India. Archaeological excavations and surveys have revealed that the site spreads over an area of more than 350 hectares, consisting of multiple mounds along the dry bed of the seasonal Ghaggar River. This makes it the largest site of the Indus Valley Civilization within India's borders.

2History
In which one of the Indus valley civilization sites is the earliest known evidence of dyeing and embroidery of cotton textiles found ?
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Answer: (D) Mohenjodaro

Explanation

Mohenjodaro provides the earliest archaeological evidence of cotton textile dyeing and embroidery in the Indus Valley Civilization. Excavations at the site yielded fragments of cotton cloth preserved by the metal salts and corrosion of a silver vase and copper objects to which they were attached. Chemical analysis confirmed that these fibers were dyed with madder, a vegetable dye, representing the earliest physical evidence of textile dyeing in the subcontinent.

Additionally, evidence of embroidery is vividly illustrated by the famous stone sculpture of the Priest-King discovered at Mohenjodaro, which depicts a figure wearing a draped shawl adorned with an intricate trefoil pattern. This pattern is widely interpreted by historians as the earliest depiction of embroidered or appliqued garment designs. The recovery of numerous copper and bone needles from the site further supports the widespread practice of stitching and embroidery.

3History
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the list | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | a) Rigveda | i) A collection of Hymns | | b) Atharvaveda | ii) A collection of Holy songs | | c) Samaveda | iii) A collection of Spells and charms | | d) Yajurveda | iv) A collection of Sacrificial formulas | Codes :
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Answer: (D) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv

Explanation

Rigveda is paired with a collection of Hymns as it comprises 1028 hymns dedicated to various Vedic deities.

Atharvaveda is paired with a collection of Spells and charms because it contains ritualistic chants, charms, and magical spells to cure diseases and ward off evils.

Samaveda is paired with a collection of Holy songs since it is the Veda of melodies and serves as a songbook for the priests.

Yajurveda is paired with a collection of Sacrificial formulas as it contains the liturgical mantras and prose formulas recited during the performance of various rituals and sacrifices.

4History
The important contribution of Jainism to Indian Philosophy is the doctrine of
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Answer: (D) Syadvada

Explanation

Syadvada is the doctrine of relative pluralism or conditioned predication, which is a core epistemological contribution of Jain philosophy. It states that truth and reality are complex and multi-faceted, meaning any assertion or judgment about them is only relatively or conditionally true from a particular point of view. According to this doctrine, no single standpoint can capture the absolute, ultimate truth in its entirety. Syadvada is closely linked to the ontological concept of Anekantavada, emphasizing tolerance and the accommodation of diverse viewpoints in Indian philosophical discourse.

5History
The 'Four Nobel Truths' are propounded by Buddha are centred upon
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Answer: (A) Suffering and its extinction

Explanation

The Four Nobel Truths, known as Aryasatyas, constitute the core of Gautama Buddha's teachings and are entirely centered upon the concept of suffering and its eradication. The first truth is the existence of suffering (Dukkha), which asserts that worldly existence is inherently full of sorrow. The second truth identifies the cause of suffering (Samudaya), which is root desire or attachment. The third truth states that suffering can be eliminated (Nirodha) by extinguishing desire. The fourth truth outlines the path leading to the cessation of suffering (Marga), which is the Eightfold Path. Thus, the entire framework is a systematic approach to diagnosing and curing human suffering.

6History
Who among the following was appointed by Darius to explore the valley of the Indus river and its tributaries in 517 BC ?
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Answer: (A) Scylax

Explanation

The Persian Achaemenid Emperor Darius I appointed Scylax of Caryanda, a Greek explorer and navigator, to explore the Indus River valley and its tributaries around 517 BC. Scylax began his journey from the city of Caspatyrus in Pactyica, sailed down the course of the Indus River to its mouth, and then proceeded westward across the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea, completing the voyage at Suez. The successful reconnaissance of this route provided Darius I with vital geographic and strategic intelligence, which paved the way for the Persian conquest and subsequent annexation of the Indus valley as the twentieth satrapy of the Persian Empire.

7History
Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prashasti) was composed by
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Answer: (C) Harisena

Explanation

The Allahabad Pillar Inscription, also known as the Prayag Prashasti, was composed by Harisena, who was the court poet and minister of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta. Written in classical Sanskrit prose and verse, this inscription provides a detailed panegyric of Samudragupta, detailing his extensive military conquests, personal qualities, and the expansion of the Gupta Empire.

8History
The head of the administration of Bhukti (province) in the Gupta period was called
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Answer: (B) Uparika

Explanation

During the Gupta period, the empire was divided into several administrative provinces known as Bhukti. Each Bhukti was placed under the administrative charge of a provincial governor called Uparika. The Uparika was appointed directly by the king and was responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting revenue, and carrying out judicial and civil functions within the province. Typically, members of the royal family or highly trusted high-ranking nobles were appointed as Uparikas to ensure strong central oversight over the provinces.

9History
Which of the following were the two important political centres of Kanishka's Empire ?
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Answer: (A) Purushapura and Mathura

Explanation

Under the Kushan emperor Kanishka I, the empire was governed through two major political and administrative capitals. The primary capital was Purushapura, located near modern-day Peshawar, which served as the main seat of power controlling the trade routes connecting Central Asia and India. The second capital was Mathura, which functioned as a major administrative, religious, and cultural center in the eastern part of the empire. Together, these two centers allowed the Kushans to effectively administer their vast territories spanning Central Asia, Gandhara, and the Gangetic plains.

10History
Vikramankadev-Charitra, a eulogistic text on Vikramaditya VI, the Chalukya king of Kalyani is written by
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Answer: (B) Bilhana

Explanation

Bilhana was an eleventh-century Kashmiri poet who traveled widely across India before settling at the court of the Western Chalukya king Vikramaditya VI in Kalyani. Appointed as the court poet, he composed the Sanskrit epic Vikramankadevacharita to chronicle and eulogize the life, military conquests, and prosperous reign of his patron Vikramaditya VI.

11History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the list | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | a) Nicolo Conti | i) Morocco Traveller | | b) Domingos Paes | ii) Venetian Traveller | | c) Ibn Battutah | iii) Russian Traveller | | d) Athanasius Nikitian | iv) Portuguese Traveller | Codes:
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Answer: (A) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

Explanation

Nicolo Conti was an esteemed merchant and explorer from the Republic of Venice who visited the Vijayanagara Empire during the 15th century.

Domingos Paes was a Portuguese traveler who visited the Vijayanagara Empire in the early 16th century and penned highly detailed chronicles of its administration and society.

Ibn Battutah was a Moroccan explorer and scholar who traveled widely across Asia and Africa, spending several years in India as a Qadi under Sultan Muhammad bin Tughlaq.

Athanasius Nikitin was a Russian merchant who traveled to India in the late 15th century and wrote a detailed narrative of his journeys, focusing primarily on the Bahmani Sultanate.

12HistoryGujarat-specific
The Nagarsheth who intervened to save the city of Ahmedabad from being looted by the Marathas by paying ransom money from his personnel funds in 1725 was
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Answer: (C) Sheth Khushalchand

Explanation

Sheth Khushalchand, the grandson of the eminent seventeenth-century merchant Shantidas Jhaveri, played a crucial role in safeguarding Ahmedabad during a period of intense Mughal-Maratha conflict. In 1725, when Maratha forces advanced to plunder and sack the city, Khushalchand stepped in to negotiate with the commanders. To protect the lives and livelihoods of the residents, he paid a massive ransom of ₹5 lakh entirely from his personal funds, persuading the invading army to retreat without damaging the city.

In deep gratitude for his timely intervention and selflessness, the combined merchant guilds of the city formally recognized him as the Nagarsheth, or the supreme chief of the city merchants. The guilds also granted his family the perpetual right to levy a small transit tax on all goods entering Ahmedabad, establishing a highly respected hereditary lineage of civic leadership.

13Art and Culture
Where is the Headquarter of the Theosophical Society situated?
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Answer: (A) Adyar

Explanation

The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 by Helena Petrovna Blavatsky and Colonel Henry Steel Olcott. In 1882, the headquarters of the Society was shifted to Adyar, an area in Chennai (then Madras), India, where it has remained ever since as the international headquarters. This estate on the banks of the Adyar River became the global center for the society's spiritual and philosophical activities, especially during the presidency of Annie Besant.

14HistoryGujarat-specific
Name the leading Parsi industrialist of Ahmedabad who was awarded the 'Khan Bahadur Medal' by the English for his services rendered to the Parsi Society
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Answer: (A) Sheth Naoroji Pestanji Vakil

Explanation

Sheth Naoroji Pestanji Vakil was a highly prominent Parsi industrialist and philanthropist from Ahmedabad. He made outstanding contributions to public welfare, urban development, and the progress of the local Parsi community. In recognition of his exemplary social service and leadership, the British government awarded him the title and medal of Khan Bahadur on 2 January 1888. His continued dedication to public works later earned him appointment as a Companion of the Order of the Indian Empire (CIE) and a knighthood in 1917.

15History
The idea of the Indian National Army (INA) was first conceived in Malaya by
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Answer: (A) Mohan Singh

Explanation

The idea of the Indian National Army (INA) was first conceived in Malaya by Captain Mohan Singh, an officer in the British Indian Army. During the Second World War, after the British capitulated to the Japanese forces in the Malayan campaign in late 1941, Mohan Singh decided not to retreat with the British army. Instead, he sought Japanese assistance to organize Indian soldiers into a nationalist force to fight for India's liberation from British rule. The Japanese authorities handed over the captured Indian prisoners of war to him, which laid the foundation for the creation of the first INA in 1942.

16Art and CultureGujarat-specific
The Art of temple building and making the idols has been preserved by a community in Gujarat Known as
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Answer: (B) Sompuras

Explanation

The Sompuras (or Sompura Salats) are a highly specialized community of traditional temple architects and sculptors originating from Prabhas Patan in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. They are the custodians of Shilpa Shastra, the ancient treatises on architecture, design, and iconography. For generations, they have preserved the intricate art of hand-carving stone idols and designing magnificent temples. Their architectural legacy includes the construction and restoration of world-famous monuments like the Somnath Temple, the Sun Temple at Modhera, the Akshardham temples, and the Ram Mandir in Ayodhya.

17HistoryGujarat-specific
Who founded 'Bhavnagar Darbar Savings Bank'?
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Answer: (C) Bhavsinhji-II

Explanation

The Bhavnagar Darbar Savings Bank was founded on April 1, 1902, by Maharaja Bhavsinhji II of Bhavnagar State, along with his Prime Minister, Prabhashankar Pattani. It was established as part of famine relief measures to provide credit and loans to local farmers, merchants, and traders, initiating a co-operative banking movement in the region. This institution was the earliest princely state bank in Gujarat and eventually evolved into the State Bank of Saurashtra before its eventual merger with the State Bank of India.

18Economy
Who wrote a book entitled "The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solutions"?
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Answer: (A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

Explanation

Dr. B. R. Ambedkar wrote the seminal book "The Problem of the Rupee: Its Origin and Its Solution", which was published in 1923. This work was originally submitted as his doctoral dissertation for obtaining a Doctor of Science degree in Economics from the London School of Economics. In this book, he analyzed the evolution of the Indian currency, evaluated the debate between the gold standard and the gold exchange standard, and offered comprehensive recommendations for currency stability in British India. His analysis on the monetary system served as an important reference for the Royal Commission on Indian Currency and Finance (Hilton Young Commission), which eventually recommended the establishment of the Reserve Bank of India.

19History
Which of the following Indus Valley Civilization site shows continuous occupation from the seventh millennium BC?
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Answer: (D) Mehrgarh

Explanation

Mehrgarh, located on the Kachi Plain of Balochistan near the Bolan Pass, is one of the most important Neolithic sites in South Asia. Archaeological excavations have revealed that Mehrgarh was continuously occupied from around 7000 BC (the seventh millennium BC) until about 2500 BC. It documents the transition from a semi-nomadic pastoralist lifestyle to settled agricultural communities, showcasing the earliest evidence of wheat and barley cultivation, cattle, sheep, and goat domestication, and early pottery and metallurgy in the region, which paved the way for the mature Indus Valley Civilization.

20History
According to the Arthashastra udka-bhaga was a tax levied
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Answer: (D) Use of irrigation works

Explanation

In Kautilya's Arthashastra, udakabhaga is defined as a water tax or irrigation cess levied on the use of irrigation works. The Mauryan state placed significant emphasis on agricultural productivity, and the development and maintenance of irrigation systems were highly regulated. Cultivators utilizing water from state-provided sources, canals, reservoirs, or rivers were required to pay this tax, which typically ranged from ⅕ to ⅓ of the agricultural produce depending on the mechanism used to lift or channel the water.

21History
The scheme of extending agricultural loans Sondhar was introduced by
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Answer: (B) Muhammad Tughlaq

Explanation

Muhammad bin Tughlaq introduced agricultural loans known as Sondhar to help peasants recover from a devastating famine in the Doab region and to encourage cultivation. He established a specialized department of agriculture called Diwan-i-Amir-i-Kohi to manage agricultural development. Through this department, Sondhar loans were disbursed directly to farmers to buy seeds, bullocks, and agricultural equipment, as well as to dig wells to bring more land under cultivation.

22History
The Nayankara system was an important feature of
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Answer: (A) Vijaynagara polity

Explanation

The Nayankara system was a prominent administrative and military feature of the Vijayanagara Empire. Under this system, the king assigned territories, known as Amaram, to military commanders or chiefs called Nayakas. In return for these land grants, the Nayakas were obligated to maintain a specified contingent of troops, horses, and elephants to assist the ruler during warfare. They were also responsible for maintaining law and order, collecting land revenue within their designated areas, and forwarding a fixed portion of the collected revenue to the imperial treasury. This feudal-like arrangement allowed the Vijayanagara rulers to effectively govern a vast territory and rapidly mobilize a powerful standing army.

23HistoryGujarat-specific
Throughout the Indian war of Independence of 1857 the British in Gujarat enjoyed support from which of the following rulers in Gujarat ? i) Gaekwads of Baroda ii) Raja of Idar iii) Raja of Rajpila iv) Jam of Nawanagar v) Thakore Saheb Lakhaji Rajsinhji-I of Rajkot
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Answer: (C) i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation

During the Indian Revolt of 1857, several rulers of the princely states of Gujarat extended their active support to the British to maintain stability and suppress local uprisings.

Maharaja Khanderao Gaekwad of Baroda provided vital military forces and resources to assist the British in controlling mutinous outbreaks. Maharaja Jawan Singhji of Idar, Maharana Verisalji II of Rajpipla, and Jam Vibhaji II of Nawanagar similarly remained loyal and aided the British administration in securing their respective regions.

Thakore Saheb Lakhaji Rajsinhji-I of Rajkot did not rule during the 1857 war, as his reign ended in 1796, whereas the ruler of Rajkot in 1857 was Thakore Mehrmansinhji IV Surajji, who governed from 1844 to 1862. Thus, only statements i, ii, iii, and iv are correct.

24HistoryGujarat-specific
Which ruler of Gujarat inflicted a terrible defeat upon Muhammed Ghor who had attacked Gujarat in 1178 AD ?
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Answer: (C) Bhima-II (Bhola -Bhima)

Explanation

In 1178 AD, Muhammad of Ghor invaded Gujarat by marching through Multan, Uch, and the Thar desert. He was confronted and decisively defeated in the Battle of Kasahrada (also known as the Battle of Kayadara), fought near the foot of Mount Abu. Although the nominal ruler of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty at the beginning of 1178 AD was Mularaja II, who was a minor under the regency of his mother Queen Naikidevi, his brother Bhima II succeeded him in the very same year. Many contemporary and subsequent Persian chroniclers, including Minhaj-i-Siraj and Firishta, directly credit Bhima II with this historic routing of the Ghurid forces. The defeat was so severe that Muhammad Ghori was forced to retreat to Ghazni and permanently abandoned his plans to conquer India via the Gujarat route, shifting his focus to the northern route through the Khyber Pass instead.

25History
Gopala Krishna Gokhale was not associated with which of the following
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Answer: (B) Royal Commission on Indian Labour

Explanation

The Royal Commission on Indian Labour, popularly known as the Whitley Commission on Labour, was set up in 1929 to inquire into and report on the existing conditions of labor in industrial undertakings and plantations in British India. Gopal Krishna Gokhale passed away on February 19, 1915, which was fourteen years before this commission was established, meaning he had no association with it.

26History
The Vedic river Vitasta has been identified with which of the following modern river ?
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Answer: (A) Jhelum

Explanation

The river Vitasta is the ancient Vedic name of the modern Jhelum River. Mentioned in the Rigveda as one of the primary rivers of the Saptasindhu region, it originates from the Verinag Spring at the foothills of the Pir Panjal range in the Kashmir Valley. The river was also known to the ancient Greeks as the Hydaspes, famous as the site of the historic Battle of the Hydaspes between Alexander the Great and King Porus in 326 BCE.

27History
Who got constructed the Udaigiri Cave during the Gupta Period in honour of Lord Shiva ?
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Answer: (A) Virsena Saba

Explanation

Virasena Saba, also known as Virasena, was the minister of peace and war under the Gupta emperor Chandragupta II. He was an accomplished poet from Pataliputra and an ardent devotee of Lord Shiva. When he accompanied Chandragupta II on his military expedition to the Malwa region, he got Cave 7 (also known as the Tawa Cave) excavated at the Udayagiri Caves near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh. A Sanskrit inscription in Gupta-Brahmi script on the back wall of this cave records that he constructed it in honour of Shambhu (Lord Shiva) to mark the visit of the emperor during his conquest.

28History
Which Gupta king used the Ashokan Pillar for executing his own inscription on it ?
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Answer: (C) Samudragupta

Explanation

The Allahabad Pillar Inscription, also known as the Prayag Prasasti, is a famous panegyric composed by Harisena, the court poet of the Gupta Emperor Samudragupta. This inscription was executed on an existing sandstone pillar of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka. Originally erected at Kosambi, the pillar was later moved to Allahabad. Written in elegant Sanskrit using the Brahmi script in the Champu kavya style (combining prose and poetry), the inscription provides a comprehensive account of Samudragupta's extensive military campaigns, his conquests of Northern and Southern kingdoms, and his genealogy. The pillar also contains a later 17th-century Persian inscription of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir.

29History
The Buddhist monks of which monastery wrote letters to Hiuen-tsang after he had reached back to China ?
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Answer: (A) Mahabodhi Monastery

Explanation

After returning to China in 645 CE, Hiuen-tsang maintained active correspondence with several of his former teachers and fellow Buddhist monks in India. Among these, the prominent monks and scholars of the Mahabodhi Monastery in Bodh Gaya, including Prajñādeva and Jñānaprabha, wrote letters to him. In these letters, they inquired about his health, congratulated him on his extensive translation work, informed him of the passing of venerable teachers like Śīlabhadra of Nalanda, and dispatched replacement copies of the sacred Buddhist scriptures that Hiuen-tsang had lost during his crossing of the Indus River. Hiuen-tsang replied to these correspondences from China, preserving a crucial historical record of the deep intellectual and spiritual connections between medieval India and China.

30Art and Culture
Which of the following is not a Jain text ?
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Answer: (D) Vissudhimagga

Explanation

Visuddhimagga is a major non-canonical treatise of Theravada Buddhism written by the Buddhist scholar Buddhaghosa in Sri Lanka during the fifth century CE. It is a systematic manual that synthesizes the teachings of the Tipitaka, focusing on the three pillars of the Buddhist path: virtue, meditation, and wisdom. Because of its Buddhist origin and subject matter, it is not associated with the Jain tradition.

31History
What is 'Sayurghal' ?
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Answer: (B) Rent-free land

Explanation

During the Mughal period, 'Sayurghal' (also spelt as Suyurghal or Sayurgal) refers to revenue-free or rent-free land grants. These grants were typically awarded by the Mughal emperors to scholars, religious figures, saints, Sufis, needy persons, and widows as a form of charity or sustenance, allowing them to collect and keep the revenues without paying taxes to the state. In the administrative text Ain-i-Akbari, Abul Fazl describes such charitable land grants, which were also known as madad-i-ma'ash or milk.

32History
Among the following who said that the Vedanta was the expression of Hindu spiritual authority ?
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Answer: (A) Vivekananda

Explanation

Swami Vivekananda was a primary proponent of Neo-Vedanta, through which he presented Vedanta as the supreme philosophy and the ultimate expression of Hindu spiritual authority. He emphasized that the teachings of the Upanishads (Vedanta) provide a rational, universal, and scientific foundation for spirituality, transcending sectarian divisions. By projecting Vedanta on a global stage at the 1893 Parliament of the World's Religions, he established it as the core spiritual and philosophical authority of Hinduism.

33History
Where was the Ghadar Party formed ?
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Answer: (D) San Francisco

Explanation

The Ghadar Party was an international revolutionary movement founded by expatriate Indians in 1913 to liberate India from British rule. The party was established in San Francisco, California, which also served as its headquarters under the name Yugantar Ashram. Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, and Kartar Singh Sarabha were among the key figures involved in its formation and the publication of its weekly journal, Ghadar, to propagate revolutionary ideas.

34Art and Culture
The Story of Satyakama Jabala appears in which of the following Upanishads ?
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Answer: (C) Chhandogya

Explanation

The story of Satyakama Jabala, who was the son of a maidservant named Jabala, is narrated in the Chandogya Upanishad. When Satyakama approached the sage Haridrumata Gautama to seek spiritual instruction and study the Vedas, the sage asked about his family lineage. Satyakama truthfully stated that his mother did not know his father's lineage as she had worked as a servant in many places during her youth. Deeply impressed by this absolute truthfulness, Gautama declared that only a true seeker of truth could speak with such honesty, and accepted him as his student. This legend in the Chandogya Upanishad highlights that character, integrity, and truthfulness are the true markers of eligibility for sacred knowledge.

35History
Who was by the side of the Buddha when he achieved Mahaparinirvana ?
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Answer: (B) Ananda

Explanation

Ananda was the personal attendant and one of the closest disciples of Gautama Buddha, having served him with devotion for decades. During the Buddha's final days at Kushinagar, Ananda remained constantly by his side. As the Buddha prepared to attain Mahaparinirvana, Ananda grieved deeply, prompting the Buddha to console him with teachings on the impermanence of all things and to deliver his famous final words, urging his followers to strive diligently for their own liberation.

36History
Read the following two statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below. 1) Alexander died in 323 CE. 2) With his death, the Greek control along the Sindhu river weakened considerably. Codes :
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Answer: (D) 1 is incorrect, 2 is correct

Explanation

Alexander the Great died in Babylon in June 323 BCE, not 323 CE. Since CE stands for Common Era, the first statement is chronologically incorrect. Following his demise in 323 BCE, the vast Macedonian empire faced immediate fragmentation as his generals fought for control during the Diadochi wars. This political vacuum in the east allowed Chandragupta Maurya to mobilize forces, defeat the remaining Greek satraps, and liberate the territories along the Sindhu (Indus) river, significantly weakening and eventually ending Greek control over the region.

37History
Which of the following texts give a detailed information on Mauryan polity ?
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Answer: (B) Arthashastra

Explanation

The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, political science, economic policy, and military strategy, traditionally authored by Kautilya, who was the chief advisor and prime minister to Chandragupta Maurya. This monumental text offers the most comprehensive and detailed account of Mauryan administration, polity, and governance. It delineates the Saptanga theory of state, outlining the seven essential organs of a kingdom, and provides intricate details on the organization of the bureaucracy, taxation systems, judicial administration, espionage, and foreign policy during the Mauryan period.

38History
The Mauryan architecture is said to have been influenced by that of
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Answer: (D) Persia

Explanation

The Mauryan art and architecture, especially during the reign of Emperor Ashoka, show strong cultural and artistic influences from the Achaemenid Empire of Persia. Key features such as the use of highly polished sandstone, the design of bell-shaped capitals resembling the inverted lotus, and the practice of carving royal proclamations on pillars and rock surfaces were inspired by Persian precedents established during the reign of Darius I.

39History
The Gupta were known adherents of the
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Answer: (B) Bhagawata Sampradaya

Explanation

The Gupta rulers were devout followers and chief patrons of the Bhagawata Sampradaya, which centered on the worship of Vishnu and his incarnations. Most of the Gupta emperors assumed the title of Parama-bhagavata to signify their supreme devotion to Lord Vishnu. They also adopted the Garuda, the celestial mount of Vishnu, as their royal seal and depicted it widely on their gold coins.

40History
With which of the following dynasties Harshavardana had matrimonial relations ?
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Answer: (C) Maitrakas

Explanation

Harshavardhana invaded the western region of India and defeated Dhruvasena II, who was the ruler of the Maitraka dynasty of Vallabhi in Gujarat. In order to secure the safety of his empire's western boundary and establish lasting peace, Harshavardhana reinstated Dhruvasena II and forged a strong diplomatic and matrimonial alliance by giving his daughter in marriage to the Maitraka ruler. This alliance ensured that the Maitraka kingdom functioned as a friendly feudatory state, consolidating Harshavardhana's imperial influence across western India.

41History
Who among the following sent a naval expedition to the Shailendra empire (now in South East Asia) ?
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Answer: (B) Rajendra Chola

Explanation

Rajendra Chola I launched a historic naval expedition against the Shailendra kingdom of Srivijaya in Southeast Asia in 1025 CE. The campaign aimed to secure Chola maritime trade routes and curb the monopoly of the Srivijaya Empire in the Strait of Malacca. The Chola navy successfully attacked several ports in Sumatra and the Malay Peninsula, capturing the Shailendra king Sangrama Vijayatungavarman. Following this conquest, Rajendra Chola assumed the title of Kadaramgondan, meaning the conqueror of Kadaram.

42Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following temples does not belong to Solanki period ?
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Answer: (D) Temple at Gop

Explanation

The Temple at Gop, located in Zinavari village of Jamnagar district in Gujarat, is one of the earliest surviving stone temples in the region, built during the late 6th century CE under the patronage of the Maitraka dynasty. This significantly predates the Solanki (Chaulukya) period, which flourished much later between the 10th and 13th centuries CE. The architecture of the Gop temple represents a transitional style featuring a square shrine and a stepped pyramidal roof, reflecting early North Indian Gupta and Gandhara influences.

43HistoryGujarat-specific
Arrange the following Solanki kings in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. 1) Bhimdeva - I 2) Kumarapala 3) Siddharaja 4) Durlabharaja Codes :
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Answer: (B) 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation

The chronological order of the given Solanki (Chaulukya) kings of Gujarat, along with their approximate reign periods, is:

Durlabharaja ruled from c. 1008 to 1022 CE. Bhimdeva I ruled from c. 1022 to 1064 CE. Siddharaja ruled from c. 1092 to 1142 CE. Kumarapala ruled from c. 1143 to 1172 CE.

Durlabharaja was succeeded by his nephew Bhimdeva I. Siddharaja Jayasimha ascended the throne later and was subsequently succeeded by Kumarapala. This establishes the sequence of 4, 1, 3, 2.

44HistoryGujarat-specific
Which of the following Sultans of Gujarat took Malva ?
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Answer: (C) Bahadur Shah

Explanation

Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat annexed the Malwa Sultanate in 1531 CE. He launched a military campaign against Mahmud Khalji II, the last ruler of the Khalji dynasty of Malwa, and besieged the strategic fort of Mandu. The fort fell to Bahadur Shah on 25 May 1531, leading to the surrender of Mahmud Khalji II and the integration of Malwa into the territory of the Gujarat Sultanate.

45HistoryGujarat-specific
Which king of Gujarat forbade production or sale of liquor in his Kingdom in 12ᵗʰ century AD ?
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Answer: (C) Kumarapala

Explanation

Kumarapala, a prominent ruler of the Chaulukya dynasty of Gujarat who reigned in the 12th century AD, prohibited the production and sale of liquor in his kingdom. Influenced by the renowned Jain scholar Acharya Hemachandra, Kumarapala embraced Jainism and implemented several state reforms aligned with its ethical values. Guided by these Jain-influenced principles of non-violence and moral conduct, he enacted bans on animal slaughter, gambling, and the consumption, production, or sale of alcohol within his territories.

46History
"The earth long harassed by outlanders, now turned for protection and refuge". Who said it ?
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Answer: (D) Chandragupta Maurya

Explanation

The quote is a translation of the concluding verse (Bharatavakya) of Vishakhadatta's Sanskrit historical play, Mudrarakshasa. The verse describes how the Earth, having been severely troubled and harassed by foreign invaders (the Mlechchhas or outlanders), finally found a sanctuary of protection and refuge under the sovereign rule and strong arms of King Chandragupta Maurya. This refers to his historic campaign in liberating northwestern India from Macedonian Greek satraps following the departure of Alexander the Great, thereby establishing the Mauryan Empire.

47HistoryGujarat-specific
Which emperor from Gupta Dynasty conquered Saurashtra ?
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Answer: (C) Chandragupta - II

Explanation

Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya, conquered the Saurashtra region of modern-day Gujarat during his western campaign. He achieved this by defeating the Western Kshatrapa ruler Rudrasimha III in the late fourth or early fifth century CE. This victory brought the prosperous territories of Malwa and Saurashtra under Gupta rule, giving the empire control over vital western coast ports like Bharuch. This strategic acquisition facilitated lucrative trade with the western world and significantly boosted the economic wealth of the Gupta Empire. To mark this conquest, he also introduced silver coins in imitation of the Saka currency.

48History
Which of the following pair is not correct ?
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Answer: (A) Emblem of Pallavas - Elephant

Explanation

The royal insignia of the Pallava dynasty was the Bull (Vrishabha or Nandi) and the Lion (Simha), symbolizing their religious patronage of Shaivism and Vaishnavism, as well as their royal authority. The elephant was not the royal emblem of the Pallavas, making this pair incorrect.

49History
Which of the following pair is not correct ?
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Answer: (D) Arjumandbanu - Nurjehan

Explanation

Arjumand Banu Begum was the actual name of Mumtaz Mahal, the empress consort of Shah Jahan for whom the Taj Mahal was built. Nur Jahan was a different Mughal empress, whose original name was Mehr-un-Nissa, and she was the chief consort of Emperor Jahangir.

50History
Join the persons in List - I with Organizations given in List - II : ## List - I (a) Devendranath Tagore (b) Jyotiba Phule (c) Durgaram Mehta (d) Shivnarayan Agnihotri ## List - II i) Manav Dharma Sabha ii) Tatavabodhini Sabha iii) Dev Samaj iv) Satyashodhak Sabha Codes :
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Answer: (B) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

Explanation

The correct pairings of reformers and their organizations are:

Devendranath Tagore established the Tattvabodhini Sabha in Calcutta in 1839 to propagate the ideas of Ram Mohan Roy and promote systematic study of India's past.

Jyotiba Phule founded the Satyashodhak Sabha in Pune in 1873 to liberate the depressed classes from priestly exploitation and secure social justice.

Durgaram Mehta founded the Manav Dharma Sabha in Surat in 1844 to promote social reforms and challenge orthodox religious practices.

Shivnarayan Agnihotri founded the Dev Samaj in Lahore in 1887 as a religious and social reform society emphasizing moral conduct, the eternity of the soul, and the veneration of the guru.

51History
Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct answer from the codes given below. 1) Second Round Table Conference 2) Event of Chauri Chaura 3) Dandi March 4) Jalilianwala Bagh Massacre Codes :
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Answer: (B) 4, 2, 3 and 1

Explanation

The correct chronological sequence of these historical events is Jallianwala Bagh Massacre, Chauri Chaura incident, Dandi March, and the Second Round Table Conference.

The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on 13 April 1919 in Amritsar, Punjab, when British troops under the command of Colonel Reginald Dyer opened fire on a large, peaceful gathering of unarmed civilians.

The Chauri Chaura incident occurred on 4 February 1922 in the Gorakhpur district of the United Provinces, when a crowd of protesters participating in the Non-Cooperation Movement clashed with local police, leading Mahatma Gandhi to call off the nationwide movement.

The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, was a major non-violent protest campaign led by Mahatma Gandhi that began on 12 March 1930 and concluded on 6 April 1930, initiating the Civil Disobedience Movement.

The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September to 1 December 1931, with Mahatma Gandhi attending as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress following the signing of the Gandhi-Irwin Pact.

52History
Mahatma Gandhi described the on Punjab disturbance as "page after page of thinly disguised official whitewash".
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Answer: (B) Hunter Commission

Explanation

The Hunter Commission, officially named the Disorders Inquiry Committee, was appointed in October 1919 by the Government of India under the chairmanship of Lord William Hunter. Its purpose was to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the subsequent disturbances in Punjab. The official report, released in May 1920, was highly critical of General Reginald Dyer but ultimately failed to recommend punitive actions against the perpetrators of the violence, seeking to downplay the colonial administration's responsibility. Distressed by this lenient approach, Mahatma Gandhi characterized the report as page after page of thinly disguised official whitewash.

53Art and Culture
Select from the following name of the world famous metal sculpture of Tanjavur Tamil Nadu.
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Answer: (A) Natraj

Explanation

Thanjavur in Tamil Nadu was the capital of the Chola Empire, which is globally renowned for its exquisite bronze metal sculptures. Among these, the most celebrated masterpiece is the bronze icon of Nataraja, representing the cosmic dance of Lord Shiva. Developed using the lost-wax casting technique, the Chola Nataraja sculptures are widely acclaimed for their aesthetic beauty, dynamic posture, precise iconographic proportions, and profound spiritual symbolism. The unique craftsmanship of these bronze icons has been traditionally preserved by artisans in the Thanjavur region.

54Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following is the architectural style of Gop temple situated in Jamnagar district ?
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Answer: (C) Chalukya

Explanation

The Gop Temple, located at Zinavari village in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat, is a 6th-century stone temple that showcases early Western Chalukya architectural influences. It represents a transitional phase of temple architecture, displaying a unique blend of regional post-Gupta, Gandhara, and early Chalukyan styles. The temple is built on a high, square stone terrace (jagati) and incorporates chaitya-arch window motifs (gavakshas) on its pyramidal superstructure, which directly mirror the early Chalukya structures of Aihole and Pattadakal.

55History
Swami Haridas belonged to which Bhakti cult ?
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Answer: (D) Sakhi Cult

Explanation

Swami Haridas was a prominent 16th-century Vaishnava saint, classical musician, and poet of the Bhakti movement who lived in Vrindavan. He founded the Haridasi Sampradaya, which is widely referred to as the Sakhi Sampradaya or Sakhi Cult.

Devotees of the Sakhi Cult worship Radha and Krishna through "Sakhi-bhava", a devotional attitude in which the seeker identifies as a female companion or maidservant (sakhi) of Radha to serve the divine couple. Within this tradition, Swami Haridas is revered as an incarnation of Lalita Sakhi, the principal companion of Radha.

56Art and Culture
Which saint tradition put emphasis on the concept of 'Maner Manush' ?
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Answer: (A) Baul

Explanation

In the Baul mystical and musical tradition of Bengal, the central spiritual concept is the pursuit of 'Maner Manush' (the Person of the Heart). Bauls are wandering minstrels who reject orthodox religious structures, scriptures, and caste divisions, believing instead that the divine resides within the human body. Finding this inner divine being, or 'Maner Manush', is the ultimate spiritual goal, which they express through their songs, dance, and philosophy. The legendary 19th-century saint, philosopher, and songwriter Lalon Fakir was a key figure who popularized this concept.

57Art and Culture
In which of the following states are the Pochampally Sarees woven ?
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Answer: (D) Telangana

Explanation

Pochampally Sarees are traditional sarees woven in Bhoodan Pochampally, located in the Yadadri Bhuvanagiri district of Telangana. Known for their unique Ikat style of weaving, these sarees feature intricate geometric patterns created by transferring the design onto the warp and weft threads before dyeing them, a technique locally known as Pogudubandhu. Pochampally Ikat received Geographical Indication status in 2005 as it represents a historic weaving cluster of Telangana.

58Art and Culture
'Litty Chokha' is a special food dish of which state ?
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Answer: (A) Bihar

Explanation

Litti Chokha is a traditional and highly popular dish originating from the state of Bihar. The dish consists of litti, which are baked whole wheat flour balls stuffed with spiced sattu, and chokha, a smoky mashed mixture of roasted eggplant, tomatoes, and potatoes seasoned with mustard oil, garlic, and green chillies. It serves as a signature culinary identity of Bihar.

59History
Which of the following pair is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Padma Prabhunath - Son of Banaras King Ashvasen

Explanation

Padmaprabha (Padma Prabhunath), the sixth Jain Tirthankara, was born in Kaushambi to King Shridhara (or Dharana) and Queen Susima. King Ashvasena of Banaras (Varanasi) was the father of Parshvanatha, who was the twenty-third Jain Tirthankara.

60Art and Culture
Usha, the grand daughter-in-law of Lord Krishna is supposed to have popularized the Lasya form of dance known as
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Answer: (B) Garba

Explanation

According to Hindu mythology, Usha, the daughter of Banasura and the grand daughter-in-law of Lord Krishna (married to Aniruddha), was trained in the graceful Lasya style of dance by Goddess Parvati. Upon her marriage to Aniruddha, Usha came to Dwarka in Gujarat and introduced this delicate feminine dance form to the local women. Over generations, this traditional art form evolved and became popularly known as Garba, which is danced in circular formations to honor the feminine form of divinity.

61Art and Culture
Mention the Gharana of Pandit Bhimsen Joshi.
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Answer: (C) Kirana

Explanation

Pandit Bhimsen Joshi was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist who belonged to the Kirana gharana. Founded by Ustad Abdul Karim Khan and Ustad Abdul Wahid Khan in the late 19th century, the Kirana gharana is celebrated for its intense focus on perfect intonation (swara) and emotional expression. Bhimsen Joshi was trained under Sawai Gandharva, who was a prominent disciple of Ustad Abdul Karim Khan. Through his mastery, Bhimsen Joshi became one of the most influential exponents of this gharana, popularizing its distinctive style of khayal singing, bhajan, and abhang across the globe.

62Art and Culture
__________, a national Kuchipudi and Bharatnatyam dancer has received the French Palme d'Or, the highest civilian award of France.
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Answer: (B) Mallika Sarabhai

Explanation

Mallika Sarabhai, daughter of Vikram Sarabhai and Mrinalini Sarabhai, is a renowned Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam dancer, choreographer, and social activist based at the Darpana Academy of Performing Arts in Ahmedabad, Gujarat. She is internationally recognised for her contribution to Indian classical dance, which fits the honour described in the question. The other options are not correct fits: Shovana Narayan is primarily a Kathak dancer, Rukmini Devi Arundale (a Bharatanatyam pioneer) passed away in 1986, and Sonal Mansingh is known chiefly for Odissi. Hence, Mallika Sarabhai (Option B) is the correct answer.

63Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following organization awards Ranjit Ram Gold Medal ?
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Answer: (C) Gujarat Sahitya Sabha

Explanation

The Ranjitram Suvarna Chandrak, also known as the Ranjitram Gold Medal, is awarded by the Gujarat Sahitya Sabha. Established in 1928, it is considered the highest literary honor in Gujarati literature. The award is named after the renowned Gujarati writer and social reformer Ranjitram Mehta, who founded the Gujarat Sahitya Sabha in 1904. The first recipient of this prestigious medal was the prominent writer and poet Jhaverchand Meghani in 1928.

64Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which educational Institution is having Adivasi Museum in Gujarat ?
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Answer: (D) Gujarat Vidyapith

Explanation

The Adivasi Museum (also known as the Tribal Museum) is located inside the campus of Gujarat Vidyapith in Ahmedabad. Opened in 1965 under the Tribal Research and Training Institute (established in 1962), this ethnographic museum meticulously documents and preserves the rich cultural heritage, lifestyle, attire, ornaments, musical instruments, and traditional tools of various tribal communities of Gujarat.

65Art and CultureGujarat-specific
In old Gujarati Theatre, whose dramas were known as 'Shikhamani' ?
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Answer: (D) Dahyabhai Dholshaji

Explanation

Dahyabhai Dholshaji Jhaveri was a highly influential pioneer of early Gujarati theatre. In 1889, he founded the Deshi Natak Samaj in Ahmedabad, which played a monumental role in shaping the region's performing arts. His plays were popularly referred to as Shikhamani (or Shikhamanio) due to their strongly didactic, moral, and reformative nature. He utilized the medium of theatre to impart ethical advice, social education, and moral instructions to the audience, effectively blending stage entertainment with constructive social values.

66Art and CultureGujarat-specific
'Pithoro' is the supreme god of
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Answer: (C) Rathwa

Explanation

The Rathwa tribe primarily inhabits the Chhota Udepur, Panchmahal, Vadodara, and Dahod districts of Gujarat. Pithoro, also referred to as Baba Pithora, is their supreme deity. He is revered as the god of food grains and the protector of families, crops, and cattle. To invoke his blessings and express gratitude, the Rathwas perform a highly sacred ritual of creating elaborate Pithora wall paintings on the main walls of their homes, which primarily depict the mythological wedding procession of Baba Pithora.

67Art and CultureGujarat-specific
'Satipati Sampradaya' is a Tribal community of
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Answer: (B) Gujarat

Explanation

The Satipati Sampradaya is a tribal community and self-rule sect primarily based in the southern districts of Gujarat, such as Tapi, Dang, Narmada, and Valsad. The name of the community is derived from Sati, which signifies the mother or earth, and Pati, which signifies the father, representing their core belief in nature worship.

Historically, the followers of this community have kept themselves aloof from the administration, refusing to accept government schemes, register for official identification, or participate in the modern electoral process. In recent years, local administrations have made efforts to integrate them into mainstream democratic processes by enrolling them in voter lists for the first time.

68Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Where is the socio-culturally famous Adivasi 'GOL-GADHEDA' fair celebrated ?
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Answer: (B) Dahod District

Explanation

The Gol-Gadheda fair is a socio-culturally famous tribal festival celebrated in the Dahod district of Gujarat. It is organized annually after the festival of Holi, typically on the fifth or seventh day, in the tribal villages such as Jesawada in the Garbada taluka.

The fair is a traditional celebration of strength, courage, and heritage mainly observed by the Bhil tribal community. The key attraction of the festival is a unique swayamvar-like competition where a smooth wooden pole, measuring around 25 to 30 feet, is erected with a pot of jaggery (gol) tied at the very top. Young tribal men attempt to climb the pole to claim the jaggery, while young women dancing around the pole try to prevent them by striking them with sticks.

69Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Give the name of the poet of this line - 'Ya Hom Karine Pado Fateh Chhe Aage'.
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Answer: (D) Narmad

Explanation

The famous inspiring line Ya Hom Karine Pado Fateh Chhe Aage was written by the pioneer of modern Gujarati literature, Kavi Narmad (Narmadashankar Lalshankar Dave). It is an encouraging call to action that urges individuals to plunge ahead with courage, conveying that victory and success lie ahead for those who take bold initiatives.

70HistoryGujarat-specific
For whom it is said in Medieval Gujarati Literature that nobody can compete with him regarding the configuration of 'Rasa' ?
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Answer: (D) Premanand

Explanation

In Medieval Gujarati literature, Premanand Bhatt is highly revered as the Akhyana Shiromani due to his peerless mastery in Rasa Nirupan. He possesses an unmatched ability to weave and configure diverse emotional flavors, or rasas, such as Shringara, Karuna, Hasya, and Veera, seamlessly into his narrative poetry. His extraordinary command of language, coupled with a deep psychological understanding of human nature, allows him to evoke intense emotional responses from his audience. Scholars and critics consistently note that no other medieval Gujarati poet can match or compete with Premanand in the art of evoking and structuring these aesthetic sentiments within narrative compositions.

71Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Who is known as 'Dharatina Chitrakar' ?
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Answer: (A) Khodidas Parmar

Explanation

Khodidas Parmar is a renowned folk artist from Bhavnagar, Gujarat, who made significant contributions to portraying the rural heritage and folklore of Saurashtra. He earned the moniker Dharatina Chitrakar, meaning Artist of the Earth, because of his deep artistic connection with the land, traditions, and lifestyle of rural Gujarat, which he captured beautifully on his canvas. His memoir is also titled Dharati na Chitrakar: Khodidas Parmar na Sansmarano.

72History
Meerabai belongs to which Bhakti Tradition ?
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Answer: (B) Madhurabhakti

Explanation

Meerabai was a 16th-century poet-saint and one of the most prominent figures of the Bhakti movement. Her devotion to Lord Krishna is characterized by Madhurabhakti, also known as Madhurya Bhava, which represents the devotion of a lover or wife towards her beloved. In her Bhajans and poetry, she viewed Krishna as her divine husband and expressed an intense spiritual love, yearning, and complete self-surrender, symbolizing the individual soul's deep conjugal relationship with the Supreme Divine.

73Art and Culture
Who is the author of 'Sitajini Kanchali' ?
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Answer: (C) Krishnabai

Explanation

Krishnabai was a prominent 18th-century medieval Gujarati poetess belonging to the Nagar Brahmin community of Vadnagar, Gujarat. She is widely celebrated for her notable contributions to medieval Gujarati devotional literature, particularly her narrative poem titled Sitajini Kanchali. This 93-verse composition creatively portrays the dialogue and debate between Sita, Rama, and Lakshman regarding Sita's strong desire to capture the golden deer in order to fashion a blouse (kanchali) out of its skin. Through this work, Krishnabai beautifully depicts Sita's relatable human desires and emotional conflicts.

74Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Who is the dramatist of 'Pilu Gulab Ane Hun' ?
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Answer: (D) Labshankar Thakar

Explanation

Labhshankar Thakar was a prominent modernist Gujarati poet, playwright, and novelist heavily influenced by the Theatre of the Absurd. He wrote the two-act play Pilu Gulab Ane Hun in 1985, which portrays the deep emotional anguish, existential dilemma, and inner conflict of an actress yearning for true love. Originally developed as an improvised piece for the Darpana Academy of Performing Arts, the play was directed by Kanti Madia.

75History
Which of the following pair is not correct ?
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Answer: (C) Kumargupta - Worshipper of Vishnu

Explanation

Kumaragupta I was a devout worshipper of Lord Kartikeya, the Hindu deity of war and son of Lord Shiva, rather than Lord Vishnu. His deep devotion to Kartikeya is evidenced by his name, Kumara, which is an alternative name for Kartikeya, as well as the naming of his successor, Skandagupta. Furthermore, he introduced the famous peacock-type gold coins, which depict the deity Kartikeya riding his vehicle, the peacock, on the reverse, and the king feeding a peacock on the obverse.

76Art and Culture
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Lata Mangeshkar | a) Man tadpat Hari Darshanko Aaj | | 2) Mannade | b) Bole re Papihara, Papihara | | 3) Vani Jayram | c) Zanak Zanak Tori Baje Payaliya | | 4) Mohammed Rafi | d) Kuhu, Kuhu Bole Koyaliya |
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Answer: (D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Lata Mangeshkar sang the iconic classical-based duet Kuhu, Kuhu Bole Koyaliya in the film Suvarna Sundari.

Manna Dey performed the classical masterpiece Zanak Zanak Tori Baje Payaliya in the film Mere Huzoor.

Vani Jayram rendered the highly acclaimed song Bole re Papihara, Papihara in the movie Guddi.

Mohammed Rafi delivered the legendary devotional song Man tadpat Hari Darshanko Aaj in the classic film Baiju Bawra.

77Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match List - I with List - II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Aparao Bholanath Library | a) Rajkot | | 2) Lang Library | b) Bhavnagar | | 3) Raichand Deepchand Library | c) Ahmedabad | | 4) Barton Library | d) Bharuch | Codes :
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Answer: (B) 1-c, 2-a, 3-d, 4-b

Explanation

The correct matching of the historical libraries of Gujarat with their respective locations is as follows:

Aparao Bholanath Library is located in Ahmedabad. Lang Library, established in 1856, is located in Rajkot. Raichand Deepchand Library, established in 1858, is located in Bharuch. Barton Library, founded in 1882, is located in Bhavnagar.

78Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Atane | a) Surati Dialect | | 2) Vakh | b) Pattani Dialect | | 3) Buhalu | c) Saurashtri Dialect | | 4) Poyro | d) Charotari Dialect |
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Answer: (A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a

Explanation

Atane matches with Saurashtri Dialect because it is a regional word meaning now, commonly used in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat.

Vakh matches with Pattani Dialect because it is a local North Gujarati word meaning close, often used in phrases like closing a door.

Buhalu matches with Charotari Dialect because it is a traditional term meaning broom, which is characteristic of the Central Gujarati dialect of Charotar.

Poyro matches with Surati Dialect because it is a well-known rustic term meaning boy or son, which is unique to South Gujarat.

79Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Chandravadan Mehta | a) Abajonan Bandhan | | 2) Nrusinh Vibhakar | b) Aaggadi | | 3) Ranchhodbhai Udayram | c) Mithyabhiman | | 4) Dalpatram | d) Lalithadukh Darshak |
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Answer: (C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Explanation

Chandravadan Mehta wrote the realistic play Aaggadi which is a landmark work depicting the plight of railway workers.

Nrusinh Vibhakar authored the nationalist-reformist play Abajonan Bandhan during the early decades of modern Gujarati theatre.

Ranchhodbhai Udayram Dave wrote Lalithadukh Darshak which is widely known as one of the first social tragedies in Gujarati literature.

Dalpatram penned the classic satirical play Mithyabhiman featuring the iconic character Jivram Bhatt to critique societal arrogance and false pride.

80Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Mumbai | a) Aryasubodhak Natak Mandali | | 2) Morbi | b) Deshi Natak Samaj | | 3) Ahmedabad | c) Laxmi-Vijay Natak Mandali | | 4) Surat | d) Bombay Green Theatre |
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Answer: (B) 1-d, 2-a, 3-b, 4-c

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Mumbai matches with Bombay Green Theatre, which was a prominent historical venue in Mumbai that hosted early theatrical productions. Morbi matches with Aryasubodhak Natak Mandali, which was founded in Morbi in 1878 by Mulji and Vaghji Oza, establishing the first Gujarati theatre group independent of the Parsi and Bhavai traditions. Ahmedabad matches with Deshi Natak Samaj, founded in 1889 by Dahyabhai Dholashaji Jhaveri, which served as a major pioneer in the early Gujarati theatre movement of Ahmedabad. Surat matches with Laxmi-Vijay Natak Mandali, a historically popular theatrical company based in Surat.

81Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Timirpanthi | a) Ila Arab Mehata | | 2) Vaad | b) Dhruv Bhatt | | 3) Vijay Bahubali | c) Chinu Modi | | 4) Badlatan Sarnama | d) Raghuvir Chaudhari |
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Answer: (B) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Explanation

The official master answer key clearly highlights option (B) "1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c" in yellow for Q081 on page 19. This corresponds to Timirpanthi–Dhruv Bhatt, Vaad–Ila Arab Mehata, Vijay Bahubali–Raghuvir Chaudhari, and Badlatan Sarnama–Chinu Modi, matching the well-documented authorship of these Gujarati literary works. The JSON's stored correct_answer "C" is incorrect per the official key.

82Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Parab | a) Gujarat Vidhya Sabha | | 2) Kumar | b) Gujarat Sahitya Academy | | 3) Shabda Shrushti | c) Gujarat Sahitya Parishad | | 4) Buddhiprakash | d) Kumar Trust |
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Answer: (C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Parab is a monthly Gujarati literary magazine published as the official organ of the Gujarat Sahitya Parishad.

Kumar is an illustrated cultural and literary magazine established in 1924 by Ravishankar Raval and published by the Kumar Trust.

Shabda Shrushti is the monthly literary journal published by the Gujarat Sahitya Academy.

Buddhiprakash is a historic Gujarati monthly journal published by the Gujarat Vidhya Sabha (formerly the Gujarat Vernacular Society) since 1850.

83Art and Culture
Where is Watson Museum situated ?
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Answer: (A) Rajkot

Explanation

The Watson Museum is situated in the Jubilee Garden area of Rajkot, Gujarat. Established in 1888, it is one of the oldest and largest museums in the state. The museum is named in honour of Colonel John Watson, who served as the British political agent in the Kathiawar region. It houses a vast collection of invaluable historical artifacts, including relics from the Indus Valley Civilisation, ancient coins, inscriptions, sculptures, and traditional handicrafts, preserving the rich cultural heritage of Saurashtra.

84Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Read both sentences and select the correct answer from the options given below : 1) Ranchhodbhai Udayram is known as "Ranchhod Amalikhacoo" 2) A member of "Laxmi Vijay Drama Group" Ranchhoddas is famous as the Shakespeare of Gujarati Drama.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 are wrong

Explanation

Ranchhodbhai Udayram Dave is a pioneering playwright and scholar of Gujarati literature, widely celebrated as the Father of Gujarati Drama for his foundational contributions to the modern theatre of Gujarat. He is not known by the moniker Ranchhod Amalikhacoo.

The title Shakespeare of Gujarati Drama is associated with the playwright Mulshankar Mulani, whose mastery over character development and dramatic structure earned him this comparison. The title is also sometimes used for the dramatist Prabhulal Dwivedi. It is not associated with any individual named Ranchhoddas or the Laxmi Vijay Drama Group. Consequently, both statement 1 and statement 2 are false.

85Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Wall painting | a) Natraj | | 2) Pichhavai | 2) Vasant Vilas | | 3) Pothichitra | c) Chitra Seva | | 4) Metal Sculpture | d) Padmapani |
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Answer: (A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Wall painting matches with Padmapani because the Bodhisattva Padmapani is a globally renowned mural or wall painting located in Cave 1 of the Ajanta Caves.

Pichhavai matches with Chitra Seva because Pichhavai art consists of intricate cloth paintings depicting Lord Shrinathji, which serve as a form of visual worship or Chitra Seva in the Pushtimarg tradition.

Pothichitra matches with Vasant Vilas because Vasant Vilas is a celebrated 15th-century illustrated scroll manuscript that represents the early tradition of manuscript, or pothi, illustration.

Metal Sculpture matches with Natraj because the Chola-era bronze statue of Shiva Nataraja is a world-famous masterpiece of Indian metal metallurgy and sculpture.

86Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Nadi Ke Dwip | a) Govardhanram Tripathi | | 2) Saraswatchandra | b) Agyeya | | 3) Yayati | c) Rabindranath Tagore | | 4) Geetanjali | d) V. S. Khandekar |
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Answer: (D) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c

Explanation

Nadi Ke Dwip is matched with Agyeya, who is the celebrated Hindi pioneer who authored this classic psychological novel in 1951.

Saraswatchandra is matched with Govardhanram Tripathi, who is the eminent Gujarati novelist who created this monumental four-part social epic.

Yayati is matched with V. S. Khandekar, who is the distinguished Marathi author who wrote this legendary mythological novel that won the Jnanpith Award.

Geetanjali is matched with Rabindranath Tagore, who is the legendary Bengali polymath who composed this world-famous collection of song offerings.

87History
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Kabir | a) Puran Brahma Vicharie Jab Sakal Atma ek | | 2) Guru Nanak | b) Mere To Giridhar Gopal, Dusro Naa Koi | | 3) Dadu Dayal | c) Dhai Akshar Premke Padhe So Pandit Hoye | | 4) Meera | d) Avigati Nirmaili Upaje Niragun Te Saragun Thia |
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Answer: (C) 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

Explanation

Kabir is matched with Dhai Akshar Premke Padhe So Pandit Hoye because this is a line from his famous couplet emphasizing that true wisdom comes from the realization of love rather than merely reading scriptures.

Guru Nanak is matched with Avigati Nirmaili Upaje Niragun Te Saragun Thia because this theological verse describes the manifestation of the unmanifest, formless Supreme Reality (Nirguna) into the manifest world (Sarguna).

Dadu Dayal is matched with Puran Brahma Vicharie Jab Sakal Atma ek because this spiritual teaching reflects his non-sectarian philosophy of non-duality and the absolute oneness of all souls with the Supreme Brahman.

Meera is matched with Mere To Giridhar Gopal, Dusro Naa Koi because this is her highly celebrated bhajan expressing absolute surrender and single-minded devotion to Lord Krishna.

88Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Vishvamohan | a) Sarod | | 2) Zakir Hussain | b) Sitar | | 3) Manju Mehta | c) Tabla | | 4) Aman Ali Khan | d) Mohan Veena |
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Answer: (B) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Vishvamohan Bhatt is an internationally acclaimed classical instrumentalist who created and plays the Mohan Veena, a modified slide guitar.

Zakir Hussain is a world-renowned virtuoso tabla player and composer who has popularized Indian classical percussion globally.

Manju Mehta is an eminent classical sitar player who was trained under Pandit Ravi Shankar and co-founded the Saptak School of Music.

Aman Ali Khan is a prominent classical musician of the Senia Bangash gharana who represents the seventh generation of sarod players.

89Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Parab | a) Yogesh Joshi | | 2) Tathapi | b) Jayesh Bhoayata | | 3) Kavilok | c) Dhiru Parikh | | 4) Navneet-Samarpan | d) Dipak Doshi |
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Answer: (C) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Explanation

The correct matches of the Gujarati literary magazines and journals with their respective editors are as follows:

Parab is a literary publication of the Gujarati Sahitya Parishad and has been edited by Yogesh Joshi.

Tathapi is a quarterly Gujarati literary journal edited by Jayesh Bhoayata.

Kavilok is a well-known bimonthly Gujarati poetry journal edited by the renowned Gujarati poet and critic Dhiru Parikh.

Navneet-Samarpan is a monthly Gujarati literary magazine published by Bharatiya Vidya Bhavan and edited by Dipak Doshi.

This matches 1 with a, 2 with b, 3 with c, and 4 with d.

90HistoryGujarat-specific
Who was called Shah Jahan of Kathiavar ?
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Answer: (D) Waghji-II of Morbi

Explanation

Sir Waghji-II of Morbi is referred to as the Shah Jahan of Kathiavar because of his creation of the magnificent Mani Mandir. He commissioned this exquisite temple and palace complex, built in pink Jaipur sandstone, to immortalize his love for his beloved wife, Manibai. Much like the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan who built the Taj Mahal in memory of Mumtaz Mahal, Waghji-II built the Mani Mandir as a lasting architectural monument of love, earning him this distinctive title.

91Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List – I | List – II | |---|---| | 1) Batik Style | a) Orissa | | 2) Gonda Painting | b) Bengal | | 3) Kalamkari Painting | c) Madhya Pradesh | | 4) Patchitra Painting | d) Andhra Pradesh |
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Answer: (B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a

Explanation

Batik Style matches with Bengal because Santiniketan is a globally renowned center for this resist-dyeing textile art form in India.

Gond Painting matches with Madhya Pradesh as it is a celebrated folk and tribal art form created by the Gond indigenous community native to central India.

Kalamkari Painting matches with Andhra Pradesh where this ancient style of hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile has thrived in regions like Srikalahasti and Machilipatnam.

Pattachitra Painting matches with Orissa as it is a traditional, cloth-based scroll painting form characterized by its rich details and mythological narratives.

92Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Dalpatram | a) Krishna Kumari | | 2) Naginda Marfatiya | b) Bhatnu Bhopalu | | 3) Navalram Pandya | c) Gulab | | 4) Narmad | d) Laxmi |
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Answer: (D) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Dalpatram wrote Laxmi (1850), which is widely recognized as the first modern play in Gujarati literature, adapted from the Greek drama Plutus.

Naginda Marfatiya wrote Gulab (1862), which is one of the earliest social plays in Gujarati, emphasizing the importance of female education and reform.

Navalram Pandya wrote Bhatnu Bhopalu (1867), a highly popular Gujarati comedy adapted from Henry Fielding's play The Mock Doctor, which itself was based on Moliere's French play.

Narmad wrote Krishna Kumari (1859), a tragic drama focused on the historical story of the Rajput princess Krishna Kumari of Mewar.

93Art and Culture
Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the options given below : | List - I | List - II | |---|---| | 1) Gulam Mohammad Shaikh | a) Banaras dairy | | 2) Sitanshu Yashschandra | b) Tadako | | 3) Labshankar Thaker | c) Jatayu | | 4) Harish Minashru | d) Pittalani Chamdino Bodo Rankar |
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Answer: (A) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Explanation

Gulam Mohammad Shaikh is a highly acclaimed contemporary painter, art critic, and poet in Gujarati literature, whose notable artistic and literary expressions include the poem Pittalani Chamdino Bodo Rankar.

Sitanshu Yashschandra is a celebrated modernist Gujarati poet and playwright. His landmark surrealistic poetry collection Jatayu, published in 1986, earned him the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award in 1987.

Labshankar Thaker, who also wrote under the pen name Punarvasu, was a pioneering modernist writer, dramatist, and Ayurvedic practitioner in Gujarat. He is associated with several critically acclaimed works exploring existential themes, including Tadako.

Harish Minashru is a prominent contemporary Gujarati poet and translator. His popular and well-recognized collection of poetry is titled Banaras Dairy.

94Art and Culture
Which of the following Manuscript is famous for its miniature paintings ?
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Answer: (A) Kalpasutra

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The Kalpasutra is an ancient Jain text ascribed to Acharya Bhadrabahu, containing detailed biographies of the Jain Tirthankaras, particularly Parshvanatha and Mahavira. It is highly celebrated for its rich and extensive tradition of manuscript illumination and miniature paintings, which flourished predominantly from the 14th to the 16th centuries under the Western Indian school of art. Initially produced on palm leaves and later on paper, these manuscripts are characterized by their vibrant use of primary colors, formal compositions, stylized figures with sharply defined profiles and projecting eyes, and the opulent use of gold and ultramarine pigments to illustrate sacred events.

95Art and Culture
Who wrote Natya Shastra ?
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Answer: (C) Bharatmuni

Explanation

The Natya Shastra is a comprehensive ancient Indian treatise on the performing arts, encompassing theatre, dance, and music. It was composed by the sage Bharata Muni, with its compilation traditionally dated between 200 BCE and 200 CE. The text consists of 36 chapters and serves as the foundational authority for classical Indian drama, detailing intricate aspects of production, stage design, acting, makeup, and musical theory, alongside the influential concepts of Rasa and Bhava.

96Art and Culture
'Ajarakh' block printing belongs to
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Answer: (A) Textile

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Ajarakh is a traditional hand-block printing technique performed on textiles, particularly cotton and silk fabrics. Originating in the Sindh region and widely practiced in the Kutch region of Gujarat and parts of Rajasthan, this craft is characterized by complex geometric and floral patterns. It utilizes natural vegetable and mineral dyes, notably indigo blue and madder red, and involves a highly detailed, multi-stage resist-dyeing and mordanting process.

97Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Architect of IIM Ahmedabad is
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Answer: (B) Louis Kahan (Louis Kahn)

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Louis Kahn, a renowned American architect, designed the iconic campus of the Indian Institute of Management Ahmedabad (IIMA). Commencing the project in 1962, Kahn integrated traditional Indian building materials with modern structural forms. The design is globally recognized for its monumental exposed red brick structures, geometric facades featuring large circular and arched openings, and a layout that fosters interaction by seamlessly connecting academic, administrative, and residential spaces.

98Art and Culture
'Janata Watch' is painted by
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Answer: (B) Bhupen Khakhar

Explanation

Bhupen Khakhar painted the oil-on-canvas masterpiece titled Janata Watch Repairing in 1972. This artwork is a key piece in his celebrated series of trade paintings from the early 1970s, which depicted the everyday lives and workspaces of ordinary Indian tradespeople such as tailors, barbers, and watchmakers. In Janata Watch Repairing, Khakhar affectionately details a watch repairer focused on his delicate task, using a distinct narrative style that blends a flattened, naive perspective with popular imagery and local Gujarati culture. This painting is recognized as a seminal work in post-colonial Indian modernism and pop art, illustrating the beauty in mundane urban street life.

99Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Kutch Mural is known as
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Answer: (B) Kamangari

Explanation

Kamangari art (also known as Kamangiri bhint chitro) is a traditional school of mural painting native to the Kutch region of Gujarat. Originating around the 18th century, these ornamental wall paintings were historically commissioned by local communities to decorate the walls of houses, temples, and Havelis. The murals depict themes from Hindu and Jain mythology, local folklore, daily life, and historical events using natural pigments on wet-plastered walls.

100Art and Culture
Vitanchitra means
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Answer: (C) Ceiling Painting

Explanation

In traditional Indian art and temple architecture, especially in Gujarat, the word vitan means a canopy, dome, or ceiling, while chitra refers to a painting or picture. Therefore, vitanchitra translates directly to a ceiling painting. These are intricate, decorative mural paintings or carved reliefs commonly found on the ceilings of sabhamandapas (assembly halls) and shrines of historical temples and traditional havelis.

101Art and Culture
Which of the following ragas is sung early in the morning ?
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Answer: (A) Todi

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Raga Todi, also known as Miyan ki Todi, is a major raga in Hindustani classical music that is traditionally performed during the morning hours. Specifically, its designated time of performance is the second prahar of the day, which roughly corresponds to late morning from 9 AM to 12 PM. The raga uses a scale with flat second, third, and sixth notes along with a sharp fourth, creating a deeply meditative, solemn, and devotional mood that is exceptionally suited for the quiet, contemplative atmosphere of the early part of the day.

102Polity and Governance
What is the vote value of each Parliament member in the president elections of India ?
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Answer: (D) 708

Explanation

The value of the vote of an elected Member of Parliament (MP) in the Indian presidential election is calculated by dividing the total value of votes assigned to all elected members of the state legislative assemblies (MLAs) by the total number of elected members of both houses of Parliament.

In the 2017 presidential election, the total value of votes of all MLAs was 5,49,495. The total number of elected members of Parliament was 776, consisting of 543 from the Lok Sabha and 233 from the Rajya Sabha. Dividing 5,49,495 by 776 gives approximately 708.11, which is rounded to the nearest integer, resulting in a vote value of 708 for each Member of Parliament.

103Polity and Governance
The latest country to quit the Commonwealth is
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Answer: (C) Maldives

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The Maldives officially withdrew from the Commonwealth of Nations on 13 October 2016. The government of the Maldives made the decision to leave after facing pressure from the Commonwealth Ministerial Action Group (CMAG) regarding its domestic political situation, progress of democratic reforms, and human rights issues.

104Polity and Governance
Under which of the following ministry does the Central Bureau of Investigation (C.B.I.) functions ?
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Answer: (D) Personnel, Pensions and Public grievances

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The Central Bureau of Investigation is the premier investigating police agency in India. It functions under the superintendence of the Department of Personnel and Training, which is a part of the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. While the agency derives its power to investigate from the Delhi Special Police Establishment Act, 1946, its administrative control rests with this ministry, making it responsible for matters related to the budget, personnel, and overall administration of the organization.

105Polity and Governance
Unless the proclamation of Financial emergency is approved by the houses of Parliament it ceases to operate at the expiration of
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Answer: (D) 2 months

Explanation

Under Article 360 of the Constitution of India, a proclamation of Financial Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within two months from the date of its issue. If it is not approved by resolutions of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha within this two-month period, the proclamation automatically ceases to operate at the expiration of two months.

106Economy
Who was the Chairman of a government appointed committee which recommended to shift to a January to December financial year ?
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Answer: (A) Shankar Acharya

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The Union Ministry of Finance constituted a high-level committee in July 2016 to examine the feasibility and desirability of changing India's financial year from the traditional April-March cycle. The committee was headed by Dr. Shankar Acharya, the former Chief Economic Adviser to the Government of India. In its report submitted in December 2016, the committee recommended shifting the financial year to a January-December calendar year format. This proposed shift aimed to align the fiscal year with the monsoon cycle, agricultural crop periods, and international business reporting standards.

107Polity and Governance
Which of the following is introduced by the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005 ?
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Answer: (C) Overseas Citizenship

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The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005 expanded the scope of the Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI) scheme to persons of Indian origin (PIOs) of all countries, except Pakistan and Bangladesh, as long as their home countries allow dual citizenship under their local laws. This amendment established a comprehensive OCI registry system, enabling eligible individuals of the Indian diaspora to register as Overseas Citizens of India. Registered OCI cardholders receive benefits such as a lifelong, multiple-entry, multi-purpose visa to visit India, alongside parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in economic, financial, and educational fields, without being granted political rights or voting power.

108Polity and Governance
The only instance when the president of India exercised his power of veto related to
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Answer: (C) The Indian Post Office Bill (Amendment)

Explanation

In 1986, President Giani Zail Singh exercised the pocket veto with respect to the Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill. This bill was passed by both houses of Parliament but faced widespread public and political criticism because it contained provisions allowing the government to intercept and read personal mail, which was seen as a major violation of the right to privacy. Since the Constitution of India does not prescribe any specific time limit within which the President must give assent, return, or reject a bill, President Zail Singh used this constitutional silence to keep the bill pending on his desk indefinitely. By taking no action, he effectively prevented the controversial bill from becoming law.

109Polity and Governance
Who among the following declared that "The responsibility for the economic and social welfare policies of the nation should lie with Parliament and not with the courts" ?
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Answer: (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru

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During the parliamentary debates on the Constitution (Fourth Amendment) Bill in 1955, Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru argued in the Lok Sabha that the responsibility for the economic and social welfare policies of the nation must lie with Parliament and not with the courts. This amendment was introduced to address judicial challenges to land reform and socio-economic legislation, particularly regarding the right to property under Article 31. Nehru emphasized that when a conflict arises between individual Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, which aim to establish a welfare state, the will of the people represented through the Parliament must prevail to implement necessary agrarian and social reforms.

110Polity and Governance
According to the Balwantrai Mehata Committee, the district collector should be :
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Answer: (D) The Chairman of District Panchayat

Explanation

The Balwantrai Mehta Committee, appointed in January 1957 to examine the Community Development Programme and the National Extension Service, recommended the establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system consisting of the Gram Panchayat at the village level, the Panchayat Samiti at the block level, and the Zilla Parishad (District Panchayat) at the district level. Within this structure, the committee recommended that the Zilla Parishad should function primarily as an advisory, coordinating, and supervisory body with the District Collector serving as its Chairman to ensure effective administrative coordination and integration of developmental activities at the district level.

111Economy
The execution of Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is the responsibility of which of the following department of the ministry of Finance ?
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Answer: (B) Department of Revenue

Explanation

The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 is enforced by the Directorate of Enforcement, which is a specialized financial investigation agency functioning under the administrative control of the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. The Department of Revenue is responsible for matters relating to all direct and indirect union taxes and oversees the implementation of various economic laws, including those targeting money laundering and economic crimes, through its designated enforcement agencies.

112Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is incorrect about National Green Tribunal ?
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Answer: (A) The tribunal shall be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

Explanation

According to Section 19(1) of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, the Tribunal is not bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908. Instead, the National Green Tribunal is guided by the principles of natural justice and has the power to regulate its own procedure, which allows for a more flexible and speedy disposal of environmental cases.

113Polity and Governance
Arrange the following items as per the daily schedule of the Lok Sabha Proceedings ? 1) Zero Hour 2) Question Hour 3) Agenda of the House
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Answer: (C) 2, 1, 3

Explanation

The daily schedule of the Lok Sabha proceedings commences with the Question Hour, which is scheduled as the first hour of every parliamentary sitting from 11:00 AM to 12:00 PM. During this period, Members of Parliament ask oral and written questions to ministers to hold the executive accountable for its policies and decisions.

Immediately following the Question Hour, the Zero Hour begins at 12:00 noon. This is an informal parliamentary innovation unique to India where members can raise matters of urgent public importance without prior notice.

The Zero Hour typically continues until the daily Agenda of the House, also known as the regular listed business, is taken up for discussion, which usually starts after the lunch recess. This sequence makes the chronological order of the daily proceedings Question Hour first, followed by Zero Hour, and then the Agenda of the House.

114Polity and Governance
Which Constitutional amendment Act made it possible to appoint governor for two or more states ?
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Answer: (C) 7ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act

Explanation

The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 amended Article 153 of the Indian Constitution. Originally, Article 153 stipulated that there must be a separate Governor for each State. The amendment added a proviso to this article, making it possible to appoint the same person as Governor for two or more States. This modification was part of the larger restructuring of states under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, allowing for shared gubernatorial administration to enhance administrative efficiency and manage transition phases across neighboring states.

115Polity and Governance
Which of the following is included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India ? Disputes between
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Answer: (A) Government of India and one or more states

Explanation

Article 131 of the Constitution of India vests original and exclusive jurisdiction in the Supreme Court for disputes between the Government of India and one or more States. This means such disputes can be initiated only in the Supreme Court, bypassing all other lower courts. For a dispute to fall under this jurisdiction, it must involve a question of law or fact on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends, and the parties to the conflict must be the constituent federal units of the Indian Union, specifically the Central Government and the State Governments.

116Polity and Governance
Which schedule of the Constitution deals with special provisions for administration and control of schedule areas in several states ?
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Answer: (C) Fifth Schedule

Explanation

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram. Under Article 244(1), these provisions grant the President the power to declare any area as a Scheduled Area, and place a special responsibility on the Governor of each state having such areas to report annually to the President. It also provides for the establishment of a Tribes Advisory Council in these states to advise on matters relating to the welfare and advancement of the Scheduled Tribes.

117Polity and Governance
Who is not a member of the selection committee for the selection of central vigilance commission ?
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Answer: (C) Chief Justice of India

Explanation

Under the Central Vigilance Commission Act of 2003, the Central Vigilance Commissioner and other Vigilance Commissioners are appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of a three-member selection committee. This committee consists of the Prime Minister as the Chairperson, the Minister of Home Affairs as a member, and the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha as a member. The Chief Justice of India is not included in this selection committee.

118Polity and Governance
Who was the Chairman of the standing committee of Parliament, which suggested to hold Parliament and state assemble elections simultaneously ?
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Answer: (B) E. M. S. Natchiappana

Explanation

The Department-related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Personnel, Public Grievances, Law and Justice, under the chairmanship of Dr. E. M. Sudarsana Natchiappan, submitted its 79th report in December 2015 on the "Feasibility of Holding Simultaneous Elections to House of People (Lok Sabha) and State Legislative Assemblies". The committee proposed holding concurrent elections in two phases to reduce election-related expenditure, prevent policy paralysis caused by frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct, and limit the burden on public manpower and resources.

119Economy
The separate railway budget practice was prevalent till 2016, since when the practice of separate railway budget was started ?
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Answer: (C) 1921

Explanation

The practice of a separate railway budget in India was initiated based on the recommendations of the ten-member Indian Railway Committee, popularly known as the Acworth Committee. Headed by British railway economist Sir William Acworth, the committee was constituted in 1920 and submitted its report in 1921. It recommended the complete separation of railway finances from the general finances of India to free the commercial development of railways from the administrative controls of the general budget. This landmark recommendation led to the adoption of the Separation Convention and the subsequent implementation of the separate railway budget from 1924 onwards, a practice that continued until 2016.

120Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is not correct about Right to Education Act, 2009 ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 contains provisions that make all the given statements correct. Section 17 of the Act strictly prohibits physical punishment and mental harassment of children. Section 13 bans the collection of capitation fees and subjects violators to monetary penalties. Sections 33 and 34 provide for the constitution of the National Advisory Council and State Advisory Councils to advise the governments on the implementation of the Act. Since all of these statements are legally accurate, none of them are incorrect.

121Polity and Governance
The word 'Lokpal' was first coined by
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Answer: (D) L. M. Singhvi

Explanation

Dr. Laxmi Mall Singhvi, an eminent jurist, diplomat, and member of Parliament, coined the term Lokpal in 1963 during a parliamentary debate on the concept of an Indian Ombudsman. He derived the name by combining the Sanskrit words Loka, meaning people, and Pala, meaning protector, representing a protector of the people. This concept of Lokpal was later recommended by the First Administrative Reforms Commission in 1966 to investigate corruption allegations against public functionaries.

122Economy
The Committee to suggest changes Fiscal Responsibilities and Budget Management (F.R.B.M.) is
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Answer: (A) N. K. Singh Committee

Explanation

The Government of India constituted a high-level committee in May 2016 under the chairmanship of N. K. Singh to review the working of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003. The committee was mandated to assess the fiscal policy of the country and suggest a future fiscal roadmap, including targets for the fiscal deficit and the debt-to-GDP ratio. In its report submitted in January 2017, the committee recommended a transition to a target debt-to-GDP ratio of 60% for the combined government (40% for the Central Government and 20% for the State Governments) to be achieved by the financial year 2022-23.

123Polity and Governance
Article 1(1) of Indian Constitution says
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Answer: (B) India, that is Bharat, Shall be a union of states

Explanation

Article 1(1) of the Constitution of India specifies that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States. This declaration establishes both the official name of the nation and the structural nature of its polity. The term Union of States was intentionally preferred over Federation of States to emphasize that the Indian federation is not the result of an agreement or treaty among independent states, and that no state has the right or authority to secede from the union. Thus, while the country is divided into different states for administrative convenience, the nation remains an integral and indestructible entity.

124Polity and Governance
Which Ministry is responsible for undertaking census in India every ten years ?
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Answer: (C) Home Affairs

Explanation

The decennial census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner, India, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India. The Census Act of 1948 provides the legal framework for conducting the population census, vesting the authority and responsibility for planning, executing, and analyzing this massive demographic exercise in the Ministry of Home Affairs.

125Polity and Governance
District planning Committees have been constituted as mandated by
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Answer: (B) 74ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment Act

Explanation

The 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, which added Part IXA concerning Municipalities to the Constitution of India, introduced Article 243ZD. This article mandates the establishment of a District Planning Committee at the district level in every state. The committee is specifically tasked with consolidating the development plans prepared by Panchayats and Municipalities in the district, and preparing a comprehensive draft development plan for the district as a whole.

126Polity and Governance
Who has recommended abolishing the M.P. and M.L.A. local area development programme in India ?
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Answer: (C) 2ⁿᵈ Administrative Reforms Commission headed by Veerappa Moily

Explanation

The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC), constituted in 2005 under the chairmanship of M. Veerappa Moily, recommended the immediate discontinuation of the Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS) and the Member of Legislative Assembly Local Area Development Scheme (MLALADS).

In its report on Ethics in Governance, the Commission argued that these schemes violate the cardinal constitutional principle of separation of powers by allowing legislators to perform executive functions. Since choosing, planning, and executing local developmental works are tasks of the executive branch, involving members of the legislature compromises their primary role of oversight and accountability. Additionally, the Commission noted that these schemes encroach upon the jurisdiction and autonomy of local self-governments, namely Panchayats and Municipalities, which are constitutionally entrusted with local-level planning and development under the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendment Acts.

127Polity and Governance
Who was the Chairman of the committee on "Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for democracy and Development"?
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Answer: (A) L. M. Singhvi

Explanation

In 1986, the Government of India under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi appointed a committee to prepare a concept paper on the Revitalisation of Panchayati Raj Institutions for Democracy and Development under the chairmanship of L. M. Singhvi. The L. M. Singhvi Committee played a crucial role in recommending that local self-government bodies be constitutionally recognized, protected, and preserved. It also recommended the establishment of Nyaya Panchayats for a cluster of villages and emphasized the significance of the Gram Sabha as the foundation of direct democracy.

128Polity and Governance
The Concept of 'Mega Policy' and 'Meta Policy' was given by
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Answer: (B) Yehezkel Dror

Explanation

Yehezkel Dror, an eminent political scientist and public administration scholar, introduced the concepts of mega policy and meta policy in his landmark works on public policy sciences and his formulation of the normative-optimum model of policy-making.

Meta policy refers to policy-making about policy-making. It involves structuring, designing, and managing the policy system itself, which includes establishing guidelines, values, resources, and procedures for formulating other policies.

Mega policy consists of master policies or overarching, high-level guidelines and directives that provide broad societal direction and govern specific, operational, lower-level policies. Together, these concepts aim to elevate the quality of decision-making by integrating systematic planning with political processes.

129Polity and Governance
"The term Public Policy always refers to the actions of government and the intentions that determine those actions" who made this statement ?
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Answer: (A) Clarke E. Cochran

Explanation

Clarke E. Cochran, along with his co-authors, defined public policy in their book American Public Policy: An Introduction, by stating that the term public policy always refers to the actions of government and the intentions that determine those actions. This definition emphasizes that public policy is an intentional process involving both the tangible steps taken by state authorities and the underlying objectives, goals, or political motives that drive and justify those steps.

130Polity and Governance
Which high court in India has declared the practice of "Triple Talaq" as unconstitutional ?
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Answer: (C) Allahabad High Court

Explanation

In December 2016, the Allahabad High Court ruled that the practice of triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) is unconstitutional and violates the fundamental rights of Muslim women as guaranteed under the Indian Constitution. The court observed that no personal law board or custom is above the Constitution of India, and that personal laws must align with the constitutional principles of equality and gender justice. This significant observation was passed by a single-judge bench while hearing a petition filed by a woman who asserted her rights against the practice, paving the way for subsequent national-level judicial reforms on the subject.

131Polity and Governance
Which Article of the Constitution directs the state to Endeavour secure uniform Civil Code throughout the country ?
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Answer: (D) Article 44

Explanation

Article 44 of the Constitution of India, contained within Part IV of the Directive Principles of State Policy, explicitly states that the State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the territory of India. This provision is designed to promote national integration by replacing personal laws based on diverse religious scriptures and customs with a single, uniform set of laws governing personal matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and succession for all citizens, irrespective of their religion.

132Polity and Governance
Which is the headquarters of the registered voluntary association "Transparency International"?
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Answer: (B) Berlin, Germany

Explanation

Transparency International is an international non-governmental organisation founded in 1993 with the purpose of combating global corruption and preventing criminal activities arising from corruption. Its international secretariat is established as a registered voluntary association in Berlin, Germany, from where it coordinates global anti-corruption campaigns and publishes key research publications such as the annual Corruption Perceptions Index.

133Polity and Governance
Which of the following NGO had played a major role in persuading government to enact the RTI Act ?
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Answer: (C) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangthan (MKSS)

Explanation

The Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangthan (MKSS) is a grassroots civil society organisation founded in Rajasthan in 1990 by social activists Aruna Roy, Shankar Singh, and Nikhil Dey. The MKSS began its struggle demanding fair wages for daily wage workers, which quickly revealed deep-rooted corruption in local development works and public distribution systems. To expose this corruption, the MKSS demanded access to government records, such as muster rolls and bills, giving rise to the historic struggle for the right to information under the slogan Hum Janenge, Hum Jiyenge. This grassroots movement pioneered the use of Jan Sunwais (public hearings) to audit government expenditure. The sustained campaign by MKSS not only led to the passage of Rajasthan's state-level right to information legislation but also served as the primary catalyst and foundation for the national campaign that culminated in the enactment of the Right to Information (RTI) Act of 2005.

134Polity and Governance
The Secretary General of the United Nations Organization is appointed by the
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Answer: (D) General Assembly

Explanation

According to Article 97 of the United Nations Charter, the Secretary-General is appointed by the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council. While the Security Council selects and recommends a candidate, the official appointment and voting to confirm the candidate are performed by the General Assembly.

135Economy
Which one of the following pact involves the world bank as a third party ?
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Answer: (D) Indo-Pak River water agreement

Explanation

The Indo-Pak River water agreement, known as the Indus Waters Treaty, was signed on September 19, 1960, in Karachi by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan. The World Bank, then known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, negotiated the treaty and signed it as a third party to guarantee and facilitate the sharing of the waters of the Indus River system between the two nations.

136History
India has kalapani and Susta territorial dispute with
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Answer: (C) Nepal

Explanation

The Kalapani and Susta territorial disputes are long-standing boundary disagreements between India and Nepal. Kalapani is an area in the Himalayas, administered by India as part of the Pithoragarh district in Uttarakhand, but claimed by Nepal based on its interpretation of the 1816 Treaty of Sugauli, specifically regarding the origin of the Kali River. Susta is another disputed territory located in the plains along the Gandak River, where the shifting course of the river over several decades has created conflicting claims over the land between the two nations.

137History
The 1971 Twenty Years Treaty of friendship and corporation was between
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Answer: (B) India- Soviet Union

Explanation

The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation was signed on August 9, 1971, between India and the Soviet Union (USSR). Concluded for a duration of twenty years, the treaty established mutual strategic cooperation and specified that both nations would consult each other in the event of a security threat. This landmark agreement was signed by Swaran Singh, India's Minister of External Affairs, and Andrei Gromyko, the Soviet Foreign Minister, in the wake of the growing geopolitical alignment between the United States, Pakistan, and China. It played a critical role in providing India with strategic cover and military assurance during the Bangladesh Liberation War of 1971.

138Polity and Governance
The Multi Purpose and Multi model platform PRAGATI (Pro Active Governance and Timely Implementation) launched in March 2015 aims to
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Answer: (A) Address common man's grievances and simultaneously monitoring and reviewing

Explanation

The PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) platform is an interactive, multi-purpose, and multi-modal governance tool designed to address the grievances of the common man while simultaneously monitoring and reviewing key projects, programmes, and schemes of both the Central and State Governments. By integrating video conferencing, digital data management, and geo-spatial technology, it brings the Prime Minister, Union Secretaries, and State Chief Secretaries onto a single platform to fast-track decision-making, resolve inter-departmental issues, and ensure the timely implementation of crucial developmental initiatives.

139Polity and Governance
What is the tagline of "Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana"?
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Answer: (C) Mera Khata Bhagya Vidhata

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a national mission for financial inclusion launched on 28 August 2014 to ensure access to various financial services like basic savings bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pension to the excluded sections of society. The official tagline of this mega financial inclusion initiative is Mera Khata Bhagya Vidhata, which translates to My Account, Creator of Fortune.

140Polity and Governance
The present delimitation of constituencies has been done on the basis of 2001 Census, the next delimitation of constituencies will be constituted on the basis of
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Answer: (D) First Census after 2026

Explanation

Under Article 82 and Article 170 of the Constitution of India, the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies is determined after each census. The 84th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 extended the freeze on the undertaking of readjustment of seats (which was initially placed by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976) until the year 2026. Therefore, the next delimitation of constituencies to readjust the number of seats and the boundaries will be undertaken on the basis of the first census conducted after the year 2026.

141Polity and Governance
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India deals with the administrative relations between the union and states ?
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Answer: (B) Article 256-263

Explanation

Articles 256 to 263 of the Constitution of India, located in Chapter II of Part XI, govern the administrative relations between the Union and the States. This chapter outlines the distribution of executive powers, the authority of the Union to issue administrative directions to the States to ensure compliance with central laws, the delegation of union functions to states, and the establishment of mechanisms like the Inter-State Council under Article 263 to facilitate coordination and resolve disputes between the federation and its units.

142Polity and Governance
Grant in Aids are provided every year to the states in need of assistance as recommended by the
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Answer: (C) Finance Commission

Explanation

Under Article 275 of the Constitution of India, grants-in-aid are provided to the states in need of financial assistance from the Consolidated Fund of India. These statutory grants are given on the recommendations of the Finance Commission, which is a constitutional body established under Article 280. The Finance Commission lays down the principles that govern these grants-in-aid to help states cover their budgetary deficits, meet specific regional developmental needs, and reduce vertical and horizontal fiscal imbalances.

143Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect about International Court of Justice ? 1) There are total 15 number of Judges 2) The chief of Judges is known as Prime Judge 3) The Judges are appointed for the period of six years 4) The distribution of Membership of the court allows the representation of 3 members from Asia
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3

Explanation

The International Court of Justice is composed of fifteen judges elected by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. Statement 2 is incorrect because the head of the Court is officially designated as the President of the Court, who is elected by the fellow judges for a term of three years. Statement 3 is also incorrect because the judges are elected for a term of nine years, not six years, with one-third of the bench elected every three years to ensure judicial continuity. Statement 1 and statement 4 are correct, as the Court consists of fifteen judges, and the informal regional distribution of seats allocates three seats to Asian states, three to African states, two to Latin American and Caribbean states, two to Eastern European states, and five to Western European and other states.

144Polity and Governance
Land mark judgment by Supreme Court of India in the case of Swaraj Abhiyan versus Union of India was concerned with
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Answer: (A) Directions to Central Government on Drought Management

Explanation

The landmark judgment in Swaraj Abhiyan versus Union of India (2016) was a public interest litigation concerning the severe drought situation across several states in India. The Supreme Court of India issued comprehensive directions to the Central Government and state administrations to reform and streamline drought management. The directives mandated the revision of the Drought Manual, the creation of a National Disaster Response Force, and the strict implementation of welfare schemes like the National Food Security Act, Mid-Day Meal scheme, and MGNREGA to mitigate rural distress in drought-affected regions.

145Polity and Governance
Identify the six religious communities as minority communities notified by the National Commission for Minorities (N.C.M.) set up by the Union Government under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992
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Answer: (D) Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians and Jains

Explanation

Under Section 2(c) of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992, the Central Government notified five religious communities as minority communities on October 23, 1993, namely Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, and Zoroastrians. Later, via a notification dated January 27, 2014, Jains were declared as the sixth minority community at the national level.

146Polity and Governance
Which of the following are departments under the ministry of Home Affairs ? i) Department of Official Language ii) Department of States iii) Department of J and K Affairs iv) Department of Border Management
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Answer: (D) i, ii, iii and iv

Explanation

The Ministry of Home Affairs comprises six departments, which include all four listed entities. The Department of Official Language is responsible for implementing constitutional and legal provisions regarding official languages. The Department of States deals with Centre-State relations, interstate relations, Union Territories, and administrative matters of various states. The Department of Jammu and Kashmir Affairs manages constitutional and administrative affairs pertaining to the region. The Department of Border Management is tasked with the management of borders, including coastal borders, and the strengthening of border infrastructure.

147Polity and Governance
Under the Indus Water Treaty, The exclusive rights over the rivers are governed by India. 1. Chenab 2. Ravi 3. Beas 4. Indus 5. Sutlej 6. Jhelum
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 5 only

Explanation

Under the Indus Waters Treaty signed in 1960 between India and Pakistan, the waters of the Indus River system are divided between the two nations. According to this treaty, India has exclusive rights over the three Eastern Rivers, which are the Ravi, the Beas, and the Sutlej. This allocation grants India unrestricted use of the waters of these three rivers for domestic, agricultural, power generation, and industrial purposes.

148Polity and Governance
Which of the following are the aims of The Indian Ocean Rim Association (I.O.R.A.) ? 1) Social Development of Indian Ocean Rim Region 2) Enhancing Security and protection from piracy 3) Trade facilitation 4) Trade Deficit
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is an intergovernmental organization established in 1997 to foster regional cooperation and sustainable development in the Indian Ocean region. Its foundational principles emphasize open regionalism to strengthen economic cooperation, trade facilitation and investment promotion, as well as the social development of the region.

IORA has identified several key priority areas to achieve its goals. These include maritime safety and security, which focuses on addressing challenges like piracy, enhancing maritime security, and ensuring safe navigation across the Indian Ocean. Another core priority is trade and investment facilitation to reduce barriers and enhance the flow of goods, services, and technology among member nations. The association also aims to promote the social development of the region through collaboration in education, healthcare, and tourism. In contrast, managing or promoting a trade deficit is not an objective of IORA.

149Polity and Governance
Read the following statement and select the correct option : 1) India is due for becoming full member of Shanghai Co-operation Organization (S.C.O.) in 2017 2) India is full member of ASEAN group of nations 3) India is one of the founding members of United Nations Organization which was formed in 1945
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

India officially joined the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation as a full member during the Astana Summit in June 2017, having previously held observer status.

India is also a founding member of the United Nations, having signed the United Nations Charter in San Francisco in 1945 along with other original member nations, well before obtaining independence in 1947.

India is not a full member of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, which is an intergovernmental organization comprising ten Southeast Asian countries. Instead, India maintains a strong relationship with the group as a dialogue partner.

150Polity and Governance
The International criminal court lacks jurisdiction over which countries ?
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Answer: (A) USA, Russia, China, Israel

Explanation

The International Criminal Court is governed by the Rome Statute, which grants the court jurisdiction primarily over countries that have signed and ratified the treaty. The United States, Russia, China, and Israel are not state parties to the Rome Statute. The United States and Israel originally signed the treaty but subsequently withdrew their intent to ratify it. Russia signed the statute in 2000 but formally withdrew its signature in 2016. China never signed or ratified the treaty. Because these nations are not member states, the court lacks jurisdiction over crimes committed on their territories or by their citizens.

151Economy
A basket contains 6 white, 7 red and 2 blue balls. If two balls are drawn simultaneously, what is the probability that both are of different color ?
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Answer: (C) 68/105

Explanation

The total number of balls in the basket is 6 + 7 + 2 = 15.

The total number of ways to select 2 balls out of 15 simultaneously is given by the combination formula: 15C2 = (15 × 14) / (2 × 1) = 105

To find the number of ways to choose 2 balls of different colors, we sum the combinations of choosing one ball of one color and one of another: Ways to choose 1 white and 1 red ball = 6C1 × 7C1 = 6 × 7 = 42 Ways to choose 1 red and 1 blue ball = 7C1 × 2C1 = 7 × 2 = 14 Ways to choose 1 white and 1 blue ball = 6C1 × 2C1 = 6 × 2 = 12

Total favorable outcomes = 42 + 14 + 12 = 68

The probability that both drawn balls are of different colors is: Probability = Favorable outcomes / Total outcomes = 68/105

152Economy
Rs. 1,380 are divided among A, B and C. The shares received by A, B and C were Rs. 5 less, Rs. 10 less and Rs. 15 less respectively, their shares would be in the ratio of 2:3:4 . What is A's Share ?
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Answer: (B) Rs. 305

Explanation

To find the original share of A, subtract the total reduction of all shares from the total sum first. The reductions for A, B, and C are ₹5, ₹10, and ₹15 respectively.

Total reduction = ₹5 + ₹10 + ₹15 = ₹30

Remaining sum to be divided = ₹1380 - ₹30 = ₹1350

The remaining sum is distributed in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 4. The total ratio parts equal 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 parts.

Value of one part = ₹1350 ÷ 9 = ₹150

A's reduced share, representing 2 parts, is calculated as: 2 × ₹150 = ₹300

Adding back the ₹5 reduction gives A's original share: ₹300 + ₹5 = ₹305

153Science and Technology
In a certain code language 'FRIEND' is coded as 'KTJMUH'. How can 'CANDLE' be written in that code ?
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Answer: (B) HCOLSI

Explanation

The coding pattern is established by adding a specific sequence of numerical increments to the alphabetical positions of each letter in the word.

By analyzing the transformation of FRIEND to KTJMUH: F (6) + 5 = K (11) R (18) + 2 = T (20) I (9) + 1 = J (10) E (5) + 8 = M (13) N (14) + 7 = U (21) D (4) + 4 = H (8)

The sequence of additions is +5, +2, +1, +8, +7, and +4. Applying this same pattern to the word CANDLE: C (3) + 5 = H (8) A (1) + 2 = C (3) N (14) + 1 = O (15) D (4) + 8 = L (12) L (12) + 7 = S (19) E (5) + 4 = I (9)

This produces the coded word HCOLSI.

154Economy
A train is 200 m long. It is running at a speed of 69 kmph. How long the train will take to pass a man who is running at 9 kmph in the same direction as the train ?
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Answer: (D) 12 seconds

Explanation

Relative speed of two objects moving in the same direction is the difference of their individual speeds.

Relative speed = 69 kmph - 9 kmph = 60 kmph

To convert the speed from kmph to m/s, multiply by 5/18:

Relative speed = 60 × 5/18 = 50/3 m/s

The time taken by the train to pass the man is the time required to cover the length of the train at this relative speed:

Time = Distance / Speed = 200 / (50/3) = 200 × 3 / 50 = 12 seconds

155Economy
If 20% of a = b , then b% of 20 is same as
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Answer: (B) 4% of a

Explanation

Using the mathematical definition of percentages, the relation given is: b = 20% of a = (20/100) × a = 0.2a

We need to calculate b% of 20: b% of 20 = (b/100) × 20

Substituting the value of b: ((0.2a)/100) × 20 = (20 × 0.2 / 100) × a = (4/100) × a = 4% of a

156Economy
If Ramesh walks at 7 kmph, he reaches school 9 minutes late. But if he walks at 8 kmph, he reaches school 6 minutes early. How far is the school ?
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Answer: (A) 14 kms

Explanation

When a person travels between the same two points at two different speeds, s₁ and s₂, resulting in a time difference of Δt between the two journeys, the distance d is given by the formula:

d = (s₁ × s₂) / |s₁ - s₂| × Δt

In this case, the given speeds are: s₁ = 7 km/h s₂ = 8 km/h

The time difference Δt is the total duration between being 9 minutes late and 6 minutes early: Δt = 9 minutes + 6 minutes = 15 minutes

Converting the time difference into hours: Δt = 15/60 hour = 1/4 hour

Substituting these values into the distance formula: d = (7 × 8) / (8 - 7) × 1/4 d = 56 × 1/4 d = 14 km

157Economy
If selling price doubles, profit triples. What is original profit percentage ?
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Answer: (B) 100%

Explanation

Let the cost price be CP and the selling price be SP.

The original profit (P) is given by: P = SP - CP

When the selling price doubles, the new selling price becomes 2SP. Under this condition, the new profit is triple the original profit: 2SP - CP = 3(SP - CP)

Solving the equation: 2SP - CP = 3SP - 3CP 3CP - CP = 3SP - 2SP 2CP = SP

This means the selling price is twice the cost price.

The original profit percentage is calculated as: Profit % = (SP - CP) / CP × 100 Profit % = (2CP - CP) / CP × 100 Profit % = CP / CP × 100 = 100%

158Economy
If the numerator and the denominator of a fraction are both increased by 1, the fraction becomes ⅗ . If both are decreased by 1, it becomes ⁵⁄₉ . Find the fraction.
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Answer: (C) ¹¹⁄₁₉

Explanation

Let the required fraction be x/y.

According to the first condition, increasing both the numerator and denominator by 1 yields 3/5: (x + 1)/(y + 1) = 3/5 5x + 5 = 3y + 3 5x - 3y = -2 ... (1)

According to the second condition, decreasing both by 1 yields 5/9: (x - 1)/(y - 1) = 5/9 9x - 9 = 5y - 5 9x - 5y = 4 ... (2)

Multiplying equation (1) by 5 and equation (2) by 3 gives: 25x - 15y = -10 ... (3) 27x - 15y = 12 ... (4)

Subtracting equation (3) from equation (4) yields: 2x = 22 x = 11

Substituting x = 11 into equation (1) gives 5(11) - 3y = -2, which simplifies to 3y = 57, so y = 19. This gives the fraction 11/19.

159Logical Reasoning
Read the following information and answer the questions 160 to 162 : Seven flags of different Colours - Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red are placed in a row from left to right, not necessarily in that order. The Indigo flag and the Yellow flag have four flags between them. The Orange flag is not between the Indigo flag and the Yellow flag. The Violet flag and the Red flag cannot be next to the Blue flag. What is the total number of possible arrangements of flags as per given information ?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

To find the total number of possible arrangements of the seven flags (Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, Red), we can analyze the positions step-by-step. Let the seven positions from left to right be 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7.

First, the Indigo (I) flag and the Yellow (Y) flag must have exactly four flags between them. This means the difference between their positions must be exactly 5. The only possible position pairs for {I, Y} are: Scenario A: {I, Y} are at positions {1, 6} Scenario B: {I, Y} are at positions {2, 7}

Second, the Orange (O) flag is not allowed to be placed between the Indigo flag and the Yellow flag: In Scenario A, the positions between I and Y are 2, 3, 4, and 5. Thus, O must be placed at the only other remaining position, which is position 7. In Scenario B, the positions between I and Y are 3, 4, 5, and 6. Thus, O must be placed at position 1.

In both scenarios, we have four remaining vacant positions to be filled by Violet (V), Red (R), Green (G), and Blue (B). The constraint is that neither V nor R can be adjacent to B. Since the only other available flag is G, B can only be adjacent to G, or to any of the fixed boundary flags (I, Y, or O).

Let us analyze Scenario A where I is at 1, Y is at 6, O is at 7, and the vacant positions are {2, 3, 4, 5}: If B is at position 2, its neighbors are 1 (I) and 3. Since the flag at 3 cannot be V or R, it must be G. This leaves positions 4 and 5 for V and R, which can be arranged in 2! = 2 ways (VR or RV). This yields 2 valid arrangements: I, B, G, V, R, Y, O and I, B, G, R, V, Y, O. If B is at position 5, its neighbors are 4 and 6 (Y). Since the flag at 4 must be G, this leaves positions 2 and 3 for V and R, which can be arranged in 2! = 2 ways. This yields 2 valid arrangements: I, V, R, G, B, Y, O and I, R, V, G, B, Y, O. B cannot be at position 3 or 4, because both of its adjacent positions would need to be G, which is impossible since there is only one G flag.

Thus, when I is at 1 and Y is at 6, there are exactly 4 valid arrangements. Since I and Y can swap positions (Y at 1 and I at 6), Scenario A contributes 4 × 2 = 8 valid arrangements.

Applying the same logic to Scenario B (where I and Y are at {2, 7} and O is at 1): The vacant positions are {3, 4, 5, 6}. B can only be placed at position 3 (with neighbors I at 2 and G at 4) or position 6 (with neighbors G at 5 and Y at 7). Similar to Scenario A, this yields 4 valid arrangements. Swapping the positions of I and Y gives another 4 arrangements, contributing 8 valid arrangements in total for Scenario B.

Adding the arrangements from both scenarios, we get 8 + 8 = 16 possible arrangements. Since 16 is not listed in the options, the correct choice is None of the above.

160Logical Reasoning
Read the following information and answer the questions 160 to 162 : Seven flags of different Colours - Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red are placed in a row from left to right, not necessarily in that order. The Indigo flag and the Yellow flag have four flags between them. The Orange flag is not between the Indigo flag and the Yellow flag. The Violet flag and the Red flag cannot be next to the Blue flag. In additions to the seven flags, if the Black flag and the White flag are also to be placed such that they are adjacent to each other but none of them is next to the Violet flag or to the Red flag, and also none of them is at any of the extreme ends, then what is the total number of possible arrangements ?
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Answer: (C) 96

Explanation

Let the seven original flags be Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange, and Red. First, we determine the number of valid arrangements for these seven flags.

Since the Indigo and Yellow flags have four flags between them, and there are seven flags in total, they must occupy positions {1, 6} or {2, 7}. The Orange flag cannot be between them, which means: If Indigo and Yellow are at {1, 6}, Orange must be at position 7. If Indigo and Yellow are at {2, 7}, Orange must be at position 1.

This gives two main symmetric cases for the positions of Indigo, Yellow, and Orange. In each case, we have four remaining consecutive empty positions to be filled by Blue, Green, Violet, and Red. Because Violet and Red cannot be adjacent to Blue, Blue must be placed at one of the two ends of these four positions, and Green must be placed next to Blue to separate it from Violet and Red. The remaining two positions are filled by Violet and Red in 2! = 2 ways. Since Indigo and Yellow can also be swapped in 2 ways, each case yields: 2 × (2 + 2) = 8 valid arrangements. Thus, there are 8 + 8 = 16 valid arrangements of the seven flags.

Next, we introduce the Black and White flags. Since they must be adjacent, we treat them as a single block of size two. This block can be arranged in 2 ways: Black-White or White-Black. We must insert this block into one of the gaps of a valid seven-flag arrangement.

Since neither Black nor White can be at the extreme ends, we only consider the 6 internal gaps. For neither of them to be next to Violet or Red, both flags on either side of the insertion gap must be non-Violet/Red flags (Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange).

In any of the 16 valid seven-flag arrangements, Violet and Red are always adjacent to each other, forming a block of size two. Since this block is never at the extreme ends, it always splits the other five non-Violet/Red flags into two non-empty groups of sizes a and b, where a + b = 5. The number of adjacent non-Violet/Red pairs (which represent the valid gaps for inserting Black and White) is: (a - 1) + (b - 1) = a + b - 2 = 5 - 2 = 3.

Therefore, for each of the 16 valid arrangements of the seven flags, there are always exactly 3 valid gaps to insert the Black-White block.

The total number of possible arrangements is: 16 × 3 × 2 = 96.

161Logical Reasoning
Read the following information and answer the questions 160 to 162 : Seven flags of different Colours - Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Yellow, Orange and Red are placed in a row from left to right, not necessarily in that order. The Indigo flag and the Yellow flag have four flags between them. The Orange flag is not between the Indigo flag and the Yellow flag. The Violet flag and the Red flag cannot be next to the Blue flag. Which of the following statement must be true ?
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Answer: (C) The Blue flag is adjacent to the Green flag

Explanation

Let the 7 positions for the flags be numbered 1 to 7 from left to right.

The Indigo (I) flag and the Yellow (Y) flag have four flags between them. This requires them to occupy positions 1 and 6, or positions 2 and 7.

Since the Orange (O) flag is not between I and Y, O must be placed outside of their span. If I and Y are at positions 1 and 6, O must be at position 7. If I and Y are at positions 2 and 7, O must be at position 1.

The remaining four flags to be placed in the remaining four consecutive positions are Violet (V), Red (R), Blue (B), and Green (G).

Since V and R cannot be next to B, the neighbors of B can only be G, I, Y, or O.

If the four empty positions are 2, 3, 4, and 5, B cannot be at 3 or 4 because its neighbors would have to be chosen from V, R, and G, forcing B to be adjacent to V or R. Thus, B must be at 2 or 5. If B is at 2, its neighbor at position 1 is I or Y, and its neighbor at position 3 cannot be V or R, meaning position 3 must be occupied by G. If B is at 5, its neighbor at position 6 is I or Y, and its neighbor at position 4 must be G.

Similarly, if the four empty positions are 3, 4, 5, and 6, B cannot be at 4 or 5. B must be at 3 or 6. If B is at 3, its neighbor at position 4 must be G. If B is at 6, its neighbor at position 5 must be G.

162Science and Technology
A and B are 2 faulty clocks. A looses 10 minutes for every hour and B gains 10 minutes for every hour. What is the time shown by A when the time shown by B is 7.00 p.m. on the same day, if both clocks were set correct at 12:00 noon that day.
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Answer: (B) 5.00 p.m.

Explanation

Let T be the actual elapsed time in hours since 12:00 noon.

Since clock B gains 10 minutes for every actual hour, for every 1 hour of true time, clock B registers 1 hour and 10 minutes, which is 7/6 hours. Elapsed time shown by B = T × 7/6

Since clock B shows 7:00 p.m., the elapsed time on clock B is 7 hours: T × 7/6 = 7 T = 6 hours

Since clock A loses 10 minutes for every actual hour, for every 1 hour of true time, clock A registers 50 minutes, which is 5/6 hours. Elapsed time shown by A = T × 5/6

Substituting T = 6 hours: Elapsed time shown by A = 6 × 5/6 = 5 hours

Starting from 12:00 noon, an elapsed time of 5 hours on clock A means it shows 5:00 p.m.

163Economy
What is the approximate value of (15.01)²× √(730) ?
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Answer: (B) 6075

Explanation

To find the approximate value of the expression, we can round each number to its nearest easily calculable value.

First, approximate 15.01 to 15. 15² = 225

Next, approximate √730 to the nearest perfect square. Since 27² = 729, √730 is approximately 27.

Now, multiply these two approximated values: 225 × 27 = 225 × (30 - 3) = 6750 - 675 = 6075

164Economy
If the length of a rectangular field is increased by 20% and the breadth is reduced by 20% the area of the rectangle will be 192cm² . What is the area of the original rectangle ?
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Answer: (C) 200cm²

Explanation

Let the original length and breadth of the rectangular field be L and B respectively, making the original area A = L × B.

When the length is increased by 20%, the new length becomes 1.2L. When the breadth is reduced by 20%, the new breadth becomes 0.8B.

The new area Aₙew is calculated as: Aₙew = 1.2L × 0.8B = 0.96 × L × B = 0.96A

Given that the new area is 192 cm², we can set up the equation: 0.96A = 192 A = 192 / 0.96 A = 200 cm²

165Science and Technology
A 5 cm cube is cut into as many 1 cm cubes as possible. What is the ratio of the surface area of the larger cube to that of the sum of surface areas of the smaller cubes ?
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Answer: (B) 1:5

Explanation

Let the side of the larger cube be L = 5 cm and the side of each smaller cube be s = 1 cm.

The total number of smaller cubes (N) obtained is calculated using the ratio of their volumes: N = L³ / s³ = 5³ / 1³ = 125

The surface area of the larger cube is: A_large = 6L² = 6 × 5² = 150 cm²

The sum of the surface areas of all N smaller cubes is: A_total_small = N × 6s² = 125 × 6 × 1² = 750 cm²

The ratio of the surface area of the larger cube to the sum of the surface areas of the smaller cubes is: A_large : A_total_small = 150 : 750 = 1 : 5

166Science and Technology
If 2³⁻³ - 64¹² = 0 , what is the value of a ?
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Answer: (B) 75

Explanation

The given equation is 2ᵃ⁻³ - 64¹² = 0.

By rewriting the equation: 2ᵃ⁻³ = 64¹²

Since 64 is equal to 2⁶, we can substitute this value: 2ᵃ⁻³ = (2⁶)¹² 2ᵃ⁻³ = 2⁷²

Since the bases are equal on both sides, we can equate their exponents: a - 3 = 72 a = 72 + 3 a = 75

167Economy
Village X has population of 78000 which is decreasing at the rate of 1200 per year. Village Y has population of 52000 which is increasing at the rate of 800 per year. In how many years will the population of the villages be equal?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Let t be the number of years after which the population of both villages becomes equal.\n\nThe population of Village X decreases at a constant rate, represented by the linear equation:\nP_X = 78000 - 1200t\n\nThe population of Village Y increases at a constant rate, represented by the linear equation:\nP_Y = 52000 + 800t\n\nTo find the time when the populations are equal, set P_X equal to P_Y:\n78000 - 1200t = 52000 + 800t\n\nRearranging the terms to solve for t:\n78000 - 52000 = 800t + 1200t\n26000 = 2000t\nt = 26000 ÷ 2000 = 13 years.\n\nSince 13 years is not listed among options (a) 16, (b) 12, or (c) 14, the correct choice is (d) None of the above.

168Science and Technology
Find : √(5 - 26)
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Answer: (C) √3 -√2

Explanation

To find the square root of the expression 5 - 2√6, we rewrite the terms inside the square root to fit the perfect square algebraic identity:

(a - b)² = a² + b² - 2ab

Comparing 5 - 2√6 with a² + b² - 2ab: 2ab = 2√6, which simplifies to ab = √6. a² + b² = 5.

By selecting a = √3 and b = √2, we satisfy both conditions: a² + b² = (√3)² + (√2)² = 3 + 2 = 5 2ab = 2 × √3 × √2 = 2√6

This allows us to express the original value as a perfect square: 5 - 2√6 = (√3 - √2)²

Taking the square root of this expression yields: √(5 - 2√6) = √((√3 - √2)²) = √3 - √2

169Science and Technology
The pressure of wind on a sail jointly varies as the area of the sail and square of the velocity of the wind. The pressure per square meter is 1 unit when velocity is 16 km/hr . What will be the velocity when pressure is 4 units per square meter ?
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Answer: (C) 32 km/hr

Explanation

Let P be the pressure of the wind, A be the area of the sail, and V be the velocity of the wind. According to the given relation, the pressure varies jointly as the area and the square of the velocity:

P ∝ A × V²

This can be rewritten to express the pressure per unit area (P / A) as:

P / A ∝ V²

Using the ratio of two states:

(P₁ / A₁) / (P₂ / A₂) = V₁² / V₂²

Given that the pressure per unit area is P₁ / A₁ = 1 unit when V₁ = 16 km/hr, and we need to find V₂ when the pressure per unit area is P₂ / A₂ = 4 units:

1 / 4 = 16² / V₂²

V₂² = 4 × 16²

Taking the square root on both sides:

V₂ = 2 × 16 = 32 km/hr

170Economy
A tank is filled by a tap in 15 hours. Due to some leakage at the bottom, 5 more hours are required to fill the tank. Then if the tank is full, in how many hours will it be empty due to leakage ?
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Answer: (D) 60

Explanation

Let the capacity of the tank be the least common multiple of 15 and 20 (since 15 + 5 = 20), which is 60 units.

The rate at which the tap fills the tank is 60 / 15 = 4 units per hour.

Due to the leakage, the combined rate of the tap and the leak is 60 / 20 = 3 units per hour.

The rate of the leakage alone is the difference between these two rates, which is 4 - 3 = 1 unit per hour.

The time taken by the leakage to empty the full tank of 60 units is 60 / 1 = 60 hours.

171Polity and Governance
Using the information given below answer the following : A+B means A is mother of B A-B means A is sister of B A × B means A is father of B A ≠ B means A is daughter of B A=B means A is brother of B Which of the following means P is aunt (Mausi) of Q ?
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Answer: (A) P - R + Q

Explanation

The term Mausi refers to a maternal aunt, which is the mother's sister. To establish that P is the Mausi of Q, there must be a middle person, say R, such that R is the mother of Q and P is the sister of R.

Using the coded definitions: P - R means P is the sister of R. R + Q means R is the mother of Q.

Combining these two relations, the expression P - R + Q shows that R is the mother of Q and P is the sister of Q's mother. This directly establishes that P is the maternal aunt (Mausi) of Q.

172Science and Technology
Find the wrong number in the below series : 1,2,9,44,267,1854,
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Answer: (D) 267

Explanation

The pattern of the series is obtained by multiplying each term by consecutive integers starting from 3, while alternately subtracting and adding 1:

1 × 3 - 1 = 2 2 × 4 + 1 = 9 9 × 5 - 1 = 44 44 × 6 + 1 = 265 265 × 7 - 1 = 1854

Therefore, the term 267 is incorrect and should be replaced by 265.

Alternatively, this sequence represents the number of derangements (subfactorials, denoted as !n) starting from n = 2:

!2 = 1 !3 = 2 !4 = 9 !5 = 44 !6 = 265 !7 = 1854

173Economy
A, B and C together can earn Rs. 3,240/- in 18 days. A and C can earn Rs. 1,200 in 10 days whereas B and C can earn Rs. 1,820/- in 14 days. What is daily earning of B ?
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Answer: (B) 60 Rs.

Explanation

To find the daily earning of B, we calculate the daily rates of earning for the groups.

Daily earning of A, B, and C together = 3240 ÷ 18 = 180 Rs.

Daily earning of A and C together = 1200 ÷ 10 = 120 Rs.

The daily earning of B is the difference between the collective daily earning of all three and that of A and C combined:

Daily earning of B = Daily earning of (A + B + C) - Daily earning of (A + C) = 180 - 120 = 60 Rs.

174Economy
X, Y and Z are 3 runners with their speeds of 18km / hr , 27km / hr and 36km / hr run along the circular track of 3600m long. They start at the same time from same point and run in same direction. When will they meet for the first time?
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Answer: (B) 24 minutes after they start

Explanation

To find when the three runners meet for the first time, we first convert their speeds from km/hr to m/s by multiplying with 5/18: Speed of X = 18 × 5/18 = 5 m/s Speed of Y = 27 × 5/18 = 7.5 m/s Speed of Z = 36 × 5/18 = 10 m/s

Next, we calculate the time taken by each runner to complete one round of the 3600 m track: Time taken by X = 3600 / 5 = 720 seconds Time taken by Y = 3600 / 7.5 = 480 seconds Time taken by Z = 3600 / 10 = 360 seconds

The runners will meet for the first time at the starting point at a time which is the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of their individual round times: LCM(720, 480, 360) = 1440 seconds

Converting this time into minutes: 1440 / 60 = 24 minutes

175Economy
The monthly expenses of Kiran on his car are partly constant and partly vary with the number of kilometres he travels in a month. If he travels 100km in a month his total expenses will be Rs. 3,500 / - . If he travels 200km in a month, his total expense will be Rs. 4,000 / - . If in a month his total expense is Rs. 4,250 / - how many kilometres he has travelled?
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Answer: (B) 250km

Explanation

Let C be the constant expense and v be the variable expense per kilometer. The total expense E for travelling a distance of d kilometres is represented by the linear relation E = C + v × d.

Using the given data, we can set up two equations:

For 100 km: C + 100v = 3500

For 200 km: C + 200v = 4000

Subtracting the first equation from the second equation: 100v = 500 v = 5

Substituting the value of v into the first equation: C + 100 × 5 = 3500 C = 3000

Now, we calculate the distance d when the total expense is ₹4250: 3000 + 5d = 4250 5d = 1250 d = 250 km

176Logical Reasoning
The first day of a leap year is Sunday. How many Mondays does the year would have?
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Answer: (C) 53

Explanation

A leap year contains 366 days, which can be expressed as 52 weeks and 2 extra days. Because there are 52 complete weeks, every day of the week is guaranteed to occur at least 52 times. The 2 extra days correspond to the first two days of the year, January 1 and January 2. Given that the first day of the year is Sunday, the second day of the year is Monday. These two days will each occur 53 times during the year.

177Economy
In a group of Buffalo and Ducks, the total numbers of legs are 24 more than total number of heads, how many Buffaloes are there?
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Answer: (D) Data inadequate

Explanation

Let B represent the number of buffaloes. Let D represent the number of ducks.

Each buffalo has 1 head and 4 legs, while each duck has 1 head and 2 legs.

Total number of heads = B + D Total number of legs = 4B + 2D

According to the given condition, the total number of legs is 24 more than the total number of heads: 4B + 2D = (B + D) + 24

Simplifying the equation: 3B + D = 24

This is a single equation with two independent variables. We cannot determine a unique value for the number of buffaloes (B) because there are multiple integer solutions that satisfy this equation. For instance: If B = 7, then D = 3 If B = 6, then D = 6 If B = 5, then D = 9

Because multiple combinations of buffaloes and ducks are possible, the given data is inadequate to find the exact number of buffaloes.

178Economy
Simplify b - [b - (a + b) - {b - (b - a + b)} + 2a]
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Answer: (A) 0

Explanation

To simplify the given algebraic expression: b - [b - (a + b) - {b - (b - a + b)} + 2a]

We resolve the brackets sequentially from the innermost to the outermost:

First, simplify the terms inside the curly brackets: {b - (b - a + b)} = b - (2b - a) = b - 2b + a = a - b

Next, substitute this back into the square brackets: [b - (a + b) - (a - b) + 2a]

Expand the terms inside the square brackets: b - a - b - a + b + 2a

Group the like terms: (b - b + b) + (-a - a + 2a) = b + 0 = b

Finally, substitute this back into the main expression: b - b = 0

179Economy
Mean of 100 observation is 45. It was later found that two observations 28 and 43 were incorrectly recorded as 82 and 34. The correct mean is
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Answer: (B) 44.55

Explanation

The incorrect sum of 100 observations is calculated as: Incorrect sum = 100 × 45 = 4500

The sum of the incorrectly recorded values is: 82 + 34 = 116

The sum of the correct values is: 28 + 43 = 71

The correct sum of the observations is found by subtracting the incorrect values and adding the correct values: Correct sum = 4500 - 116 + 71 = 4455

The correct mean is: Correct mean = Correct sum / 100 = 4455 / 100 = 44.55

180Science and Technology
At 2:15 hours, the minute hand and hour hand of a clock from an angle of
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Answer: (C) 22½

Explanation

The angle between the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock is calculated using the standard formula:

Angle = |30H - 5.5M|

where H represents the hour and M represents the minutes.

Substituting H = 2 and M = 15 into the formula:

Angle = |30 × 2 - 5.5 × 15| Angle = |60 - 82.5| Angle = |-22.5| = 22.5°

Converting 22.5° into a mixed fraction yields 22½°.

181Economy
What is the value of (x - y)(x² - y²)⁻¹(x - 1 + y⁻¹) ?
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Answer: (D) x⁻¹y⁻¹

Explanation

To simplify the expression, we use standard algebraic identities. First, write the term with the negative exponent as a fraction:

(x² - y²)⁻¹ = 1 / (x² - y²)

By the difference of squares formula, x² - y² = (x - y)(x + y). Substituting this into the first part of the expression gives:

(x - y)(x² - y²)⁻¹ = (x - y) / ((x - y)(x + y)) = 1 / (x + y)

Next, simplify the last term (x⁻¹ + y⁻¹):

x⁻¹ + y⁻¹ = 1/x + 1/y = (x + y) / (xy)

Multiplying these two simplified parts together yields:

(1 / (x + y)) × ((x + y) / (xy)) = 1 / (xy) = x⁻¹y⁻¹

182Science and Technology
The medians of a right angled triangle drawn from vertices of acute angles are 5 and 2√(10) . What is the length of hypotenuse?
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Answer: (C) 2√(13)

Explanation

The relationship between the medians drawn from the acute angles of a right-angled triangle and its hypotenuse is given by the formula: 4(m₁² + m₂²) = 5c²

where m₁ and m₂ are the lengths of the medians drawn from the acute angles, and c is the length of the hypotenuse.

Given: m₁ = 5 m₂ = 2√10

Calculate the squares of the medians: m₁² = 5² = 25 m₂² = (2√10)² = 40

Substitute these values into the formula: 4(25 + 40) = 5c² 4 × 65 = 5c² 260 = 5c² c² = 52 c = √52 = 2√13

183Economy
If 3x + y = 19 and x + 3y = 1 find value of y .
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Answer: (D) -2

Explanation

We are given two equations: 3x + y = 19 x + 3y = 1

From the second equation, we can write: x = 1 - 3y

Substituting this expression for x in the first equation: 3(1 - 3y) + y = 19 3 - 9y + y = 19 3 - 8y = 19 -8y = 16 y = -2

184Economy
Decide whether the data given in statements I and II are sufficient or not to answer the given questions: What is the area of rectangle PQRS ? Statement - I: the breadth of rectangle is 18cm Statement - II: The Length of Rectangle is not more than 20cm
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Answer: (D) Statements - I and II both together also are not sufficient.

Explanation

The area of a rectangle is given by the formula: Area = length × breadth.

To determine the unique area of rectangle PQRS, the exact values of both the length and the breadth are required.

Statement I provides only the breadth as 18 cm, leaving the length unknown.

Statement II provides only an inequality for the length, stating that the length ≤ 20 cm, which does not give an exact value for the length, nor does it provide any information about the breadth.

When both statements are combined, we know the breadth is 18 cm and the length is any value less than or equal to 20 cm. Because the exact value of the length is still unknown, a unique area cannot be calculated. Thus, both statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

185Economy
Decide whether the data given in statements I and II are sufficient or not to answer the given questions : What is average weight of all students in a class ? Statement - I: There are 45 boys and 30 girls in the class Statement - II: Average weight of boys is 60 and average weight of girls is 50
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Answer: (C) Statements - I and II both are together sufficient but neither statement alone is sufficient

Explanation

The average weight of all students in a class is calculated using the weighted average formula:

Weighted Average = (n₁ × A₁ + n₂ × A₂) / (n₁ + n₂)

Here, n₁ and n₂ represent the number of boys and girls, while A₁ and A₂ represent their respective average weights.

Statement I provides the number of boys (n₁ = 45) and girls (n₂ = 30). Statement II provides the average weight of boys (A₁ = 60) and girls (A₂ = 50).

Neither statement alone is sufficient to find the overall average because Statement I lacks the weights, and Statement II lacks the number of students or their ratio. By combining both statements, we can compute the average weight:

Average Weight = (45 × 60 + 30 × 50) / (45 + 30) = (2700 + 1500) / 75 = 4200 / 75 = 56

Both statements together are necessary and sufficient to answer the question.

186Economy
If the simple interest on a certain amount for 2 years is Rs. 60 and the compound interest for the same amount for 2 years is Rs. 63.75. What will be that amount ?
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Answer: (B) Rs. 240

Explanation

The simple interest (SI) on a principal (P) for 2 years is Rs. 60. Since simple interest is equal for each year, the interest for the first year is 60 ÷ 2 = Rs. 30.

The compound interest (CI) for 2 years is Rs. 63.75. The difference between the compound interest and simple interest for 2 years represents the interest earned on the first year's interest. Difference = CI - SI = 63.75 - 60 = Rs. 3.75

The interest of Rs. 3.75 is earned on Rs. 30 (the interest of the first year) at the rate of interest R. R = (3.75 ÷ 30) × 100 = 12.5% per annum

Using the simple interest formula SI = P × R × T ÷ 100, we can substitute the values for 2 years: 60 = P × 12.5 × 2 ÷ 100 60 = P × 25 ÷ 100 60 = P ÷ 4 P = 60 × 4 = Rs. 240

187Economy
The greatest number of 5 digit which is a perfect square is
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Answer: (C) 99856

Explanation

The greatest 5-digit number is 99999. To find the largest 5-digit perfect square, we calculate the square root of 99999.

√99999 ≈ 316.227

Taking the largest integer less than or equal to this value, we get 316. Squaring this integer yields the greatest 5-digit perfect square:

316² = 316 × 316 = 99856

Since the square of the next consecutive integer 317 is 317² = 100489, which is a 6-digit number, 99856 is indeed the largest 5-digit perfect square.

188Economy
What is the least multiple of 7 which leaves a remainder of 4 when divided by 6, 9, 15 and 18 ?
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Answer: (B) 364

Explanation

The required number N must leave a remainder of 4 when divided by 6, 9, 15, and 18. Therefore, N can be expressed in the form N = LCM(6, 9, 15, 18) × m + 4, where m is a positive integer.

To find the least common multiple (LCM) of 6, 9, 15, and 18, we find the highest powers of the prime factors: 6 = 2 × 3 9 = 3² 15 = 3 × 5 18 = 2 × 3²

LCM = 2 × 3² × 5 = 90

So, the number is of the form N = 90m + 4.

We also require N to be the least multiple of 7. We can substitute consecutive positive integers for m to find the smallest value that makes N divisible by 7: For m = 1, N = 90 × 1 + 4 = 94 (not divisible by 7) For m = 2, N = 90 × 2 + 4 = 184 (not divisible by 7) For m = 3, N = 90 × 3 + 4 = 274 (not divisible by 7) For m = 4, N = 90 × 4 + 4 = 364 (divisible by 7, as 364 ÷ 7 = 52)

189Economy
What is the area of the rectangle whose length is twice its width and whose perimeter is equal to that of square whose area is 1 unit ?
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Answer: (D) ⁸⁄₉

Explanation

Let the side of the square be s. Since the area of the square is 1 unit: s² = 1 s = 1

The perimeter of this square is: Perimeter of square = 4s = 4 × 1 = 4 units

Let the width of the rectangle be w. Since the length of the rectangle is twice its width, the length is 2w. The perimeter of the rectangle is: Perimeter of rectangle = 2 × (length + width) = 2 × (2w + w) = 6w

Equating the perimeter of the rectangle to the perimeter of the square: 6w = 4 w = 4/6 = 2/3

Using this width, the length of the rectangle is: length = 2 × (2/3) = 4/3

The area of the rectangle is calculated by multiplying its length and width: Area = length × width = (4/3) × (2/3) = 8/9

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2D
  3. 3D
  4. 4D
  5. 5A
  6. 6A
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10B
  11. 11A
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16B
  17. 17C
  18. 18A
  19. 19D
  20. 20D
  21. 21B
  22. 22A
  23. 23C
  24. 24C
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28C
  29. 29A
  30. 30D
  31. 31B
  32. 32A
  33. 33D
  34. 34C
  35. 35B
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38D
  39. 39B
  40. 40C
  41. 41B
  42. 42D
  43. 43B
  44. 44C
  45. 45C
  46. 46D
  47. 47C
  48. 48A
  49. 49D
  50. 50B
  51. 51B
  52. 52B
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55D
  56. 56A
  57. 57D
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62B
  63. 63C
  64. 64D
  65. 65D
  66. 66C
  67. 67B
  68. 68B
  69. 69D
  70. 70D
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75C
  76. 76D
  77. 77B
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80B
  81. 81B
  82. 82C
  83. 83A
  84. 84C
  85. 85A
  86. 86D
  87. 87C
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90D
  91. 91B
  92. 92D
  93. 93A
  94. 94A
  95. 95C
  96. 96A
  97. 97B
  98. 98B
  99. 99B
  100. 100C
  101. 101A
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105D
  106. 106A
  107. 107C
  108. 108C
  109. 109B
  110. 110D
  111. 111B
  112. 112A
  113. 113C
  114. 114C
  115. 115A
  116. 116C
  117. 117C
  118. 118B
  119. 119C
  120. 120D
  121. 121D
  122. 122A
  123. 123B
  124. 124C
  125. 125B
  126. 126C
  127. 127A
  128. 128B
  129. 129A
  130. 130C
  131. 131D
  132. 132B
  133. 133C
  134. 134D
  135. 135D
  136. 136C
  137. 137B
  138. 138A
  139. 139C
  140. 140D
  141. 141B
  142. 142C
  143. 143C
  144. 144A
  145. 145D
  146. 146D
  147. 147C
  148. 148D
  149. 149D
  150. 150A
  151. 151C
  152. 152B
  153. 153B
  154. 154D
  155. 155B
  156. 156A
  157. 157B
  158. 158C
  159. 159D
  160. 160C
  161. 161C
  162. 162B
  163. 163B
  164. 164C
  165. 165B
  166. 166B
  167. 167D
  168. 168C
  169. 169C
  170. 170D
  171. 171A
  172. 172D
  173. 173B
  174. 174B
  175. 175B
  176. 176C
  177. 177D
  178. 178A
  179. 179B
  180. 180C
  181. 181D
  182. 182C
  183. 183D
  184. 184D
  185. 185C
  186. 186B
  187. 187C
  188. 188B
  189. 189D

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