GPSC Prelims 2019 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization was first recognized in 1921 when excavations began at Harappa in the Punjab region, followed by the discovery and excavation of Mohenjo-Daro in Sindh in 1922.

The vast size, exceptional standardization in town planning, uniform brick sizes, and standardized weights and measures at both Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro point to a highly organized system of political and administrative centralization. This has led historians to hypothesize that they operated either as dual capitals of a single massive empire or as centers of two highly centralized states.

The expansion of the civilization into the southern region, particularly on the Kathiawar Peninsula in Gujarat, occurred during the mature to late Harappan phases. These southern settlements, like Lothal and Rangpur, demonstrate a later chronological sequence and lasted longer into the second millennium BCE compared to the urban decline seen earlier in the core Indus river valley sites.

Explanation

Charles Wilkins was an English typographer and Orientalist who made the first direct translation of the Bhagavad Gita from Sanskrit into English. Published in 1785 under the title "The Bhagvat-Geeta, or Dialogues of Kreeshna and Arjoon", this translation was highly influential in introducing Indian philosophy to the Western world and was actively encouraged by Warren Hastings, the first Governor-General of Bengal.

Explanation

The Gandhara School of Art was a prominent school of art in ancient India that developed primarily during the rule of the Kushana dynasty, especially under the patronage of Emperor Kanishka. It is uniquely characterized by the fusion of indigenous Indian ideas with Greco-Roman (Hellenistic) techniques, often referred to as Greco-Buddhist art. This foreign influence is prominent in the naturalistic and realistic portrayal of human features, the depiction of curly or wavy hair, the halo, and the Roman-style heavy draped garments.

This school of art was closely associated with the rise of Mahayana Buddhism, which encouraged the anthropomorphic representation of the Buddha. Consequently, the main themes of Gandharan sculptures centered on the life of Lord Buddha, his previous births (Jataka stories), and various Bodhisattvas.

Geographically, the Gandhara style flourished across ancient Gandhara, which encompasses modern-day eastern Afghanistan and north-western Pakistan (historically referred to as north-western India). The major hubs of this artistic development included Peshawar (Purushapura), Taxila (Takshashila), Begram (Bagram), and Bamiyan, where magnificent rock-cut Buddha sculptures were carved.

Explanation

The Vijayanagar Empire was established in 1336 by the brothers Harihara I and Bukka Raya I of the Sangama dynasty, serving as the dominant geopolitical force in Southern India for more than two centuries.

The creation of the Bahmani Sultanate in 1347 along the northern frontier of Vijayanagar introduced a persistent military rival. This development forced Harihara I to restrict his expansionist efforts to defend his northern borders from Bahmani incursions.

The administrative foundation of the Vijayanagar state was laid during the reign of Harihara I, not Bukka. Borrowing from the Kakatiya model of administration under which he had previously served, Harihara I organized the empire into administrative subdivisions such as stholas, nadus, and simas, appointing revenue and administrative officials to manage local affairs. This makes the third statement inaccurate while the first, second, and fourth statements are correct.

Explanation

The Ghadar Movement was started in 1913 in San Francisco, California, by expatriate Punjabi immigrants who sought to liberate India from British colonial rule, which validates Statement 1.

The movement was organized and led by key figures such as Lala Har Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh Sarabha, and Kanshi Ram. It was not headed by Lala Lajpat Rai or Bipin Chandra Pal, making Statement 2 incorrect.

To propagate their revolutionary ideas and mobilize support, the Ghadarites published the weekly journal Ghadar, printed patriotic literature, and arranged to send arms, money, and volunteers to India to orchestrate an armed rebellion, confirming Statement 3.

Following the disruptions of World War I and the subsequent trials, the Ghadar Party was reorganized during the 1920s. From this period onward, it continued to serve as a vital political and cultural focal point for Punjabi and Sikh identity in North America until India achieved independence in 1947, confirming Statement 4.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Parsvanatha, the 23rd Jain Tirthankara, was born to King Asvasena of Varanasi (Banaras) and Queen Vama. Statement 2 is correct because in the Svetambara Jain tradition, Mallinatha, the 19th Tirthankara, is regarded as a woman who was the daughter of King Kumbha, the ruler of Mithila. Statement 3 is correct since Rishabhanath, the first Tirthankara of Jainism, is traditionally represented by the symbol of a bull. Statement 4 is correct as Neminath, the 22nd Tirthankara, is described in Jain texts as the cousin of Krishna, being the son of Samudravijaya, who was the brother of Krishna's father Vasudeva.

Explanation

All four statements are historically correct:

Ambhi was the ruler of Taxila (Takshashila) when Alexander invaded India in 326 BC. He submitted to Alexander and offered him assistance.

The territory of King Porus (Purus) was located in the Punjab region, specifically between the Hydaspes (Jhelum) and Acesines (Chenab) rivers.

Following his victory at the Battle of the Hydaspes, Alexander founded the city of Bucephala (Boukephalia) on the banks of the Jhelum river to honor his beloved horse, Bucephalus, who died there.

During his campaign in northwestern India, Alexander was highly impressed by the exceptional breed of Indian oxen. He selected 200,000 (2 lakh) of the finest oxen and sent them back to Macedonia to be used in agriculture.

Explanation

The rock-cut monolithic Kailash Temple (Cave 16) at Ellora was built in the 8th century CE under the patronage of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I.

The Mahapurana (or Trishashthilakshana Mahapurana) is a major Jain text begun by Acharya Jinasena, continued by Gunabhadra, and completed and edited by his disciple Lokasena during the reign of the Rashtrakuta king Krishna II.

The historic inscriptions of the Rajarajeshwar Temple (Brihadisvara Temple) in Thanjavur, built by Chola king Rajaraja I, meticulously record that 400 temple dancers were brought from various parts of the empire to serve at the temple.

The Tamil poet Kamban wrote the Ramavataram in the 12th century CE, which is regarded as one of the greatest epics in Tamil literature.

Explanation

Purushpura, located in modern-day Peshawar, was the primary capital of Kanishka's Kushan Empire. During his military campaigns into Central Asia, Kanishka was defeated by the renowned Chinese Han dynasty general Ban Chao. Additionally, Mathura served as a second capital and became a vital artistic and cultural hub during Kanishka's reign, leading to the flourishing of the Mathura School of Art. Kanishka is also associated with convening the Fourth Buddhist Council in Kashmir, while the Third Buddhist Council was convened by the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka.

Explanation

Kumarpal Solanki was a prominent ruler of the Chaulukya (Solanki) dynasty of Gujarat who reigned from 1143 to 1172 CE. He was initially a follower of Shaivism and later embraced Jainism under the guidance of the celebrated Jain scholar Acharya Hemachandra, meaning he was not a follower of Vaishnavism. His Mahamatya (prime minister) was Vagbhatta, who was the son of minister Udayana. Guided by Jain principles of non-violence, Kumarpal banned animal slaughter, gambling, hunting, and the consumption of alcohol across his kingdom. Additionally, he rebuilt the holy Somnath Temple in stone and appointed the renowned Pashupata Shaiva scholar Bhav Brihaspati as its Mahant.

Explanation

Under the Solanki administration of Gujarat, the state machinery was divided into various specialized departments known as karanas.

The Record Department was known as Akshapatal, which was responsible for maintaining state registers, land records, and administrative accounts.

The Port Department was called Velakul (Velakula-karana), which oversaw coastal administration, harbours, and maritime trade.

The Finance Department was known as Shri Karan (Sri-karana), which served as the central department of finance, revenue, and state secretariat, usually functioning under the direct authority of the mahamatya.

The Dutak (Dutaka) refers to a royal messenger, executor of grants, or envoy who communicated state decrees and orders, rather than a palace department.

Explanation

Dadhikara (also known as Dadhikra or Dadhikravan) is a celebrated divine horse or steed in the Rigveda. He is prominently featured in several hymns, particularly in the fourth and seventh mandalas of the Rigveda. Dadhikara is personified as a swift, powerful warhorse associated with the morning sun, dawn, and Agni. In Vedic mythology, he was the legendary racehorse of King Trasadasyu of the Puru tribe, embodying heroic strength, speed, and royal sovereignty.

Explanation

Mirabai was born into a Rathore Rajput family in the village of Kudki in Merta, Rajasthan. Her father was Ratan Singh, a warrior of the Rathore clan and a descendant of Rao Jodha, the founder of Jodhpur. She grew up in Merta under the care of her grandfather, Rao Duda, and became one of the most celebrated saint-poets of the Bhakti movement, dedicating her life and verses to Lord Krishna.

Explanation

The Indigo Revolt (1859-60), also referred to as the Blue Mutiny, was a massive peasant uprising in Bengal against European indigo planters. Planters forced local farmers (ryots) to cultivate indigo, which was used to make blue dye, under highly exploitative contracts that kept the farmers in perpetual debt. In March 1859, ryots in Nadia district refused to grow any more indigo, initiating a powerful and highly organized strike that rapidly spread across other districts of Bengal. This widespread defiance by the peasantry, which eventually forced the British government to set up the Indigo Commission, is historically known as the Blue Mutiny due to the blue dye at the center of the struggle.

Explanation

Joseph Doke, a Baptist minister in Johannesburg, wrote the first biography of Mahatma Gandhi, titled M. K. Gandhi: An Indian Patriot in South Africa. Published in 1909, this biography was written during Gandhi's struggle against racial discrimination in South Africa. Doke was a close associate and friend of Gandhi, and his work provided the global community with its first detailed introduction to Gandhi's early life, his philosophy of Satyagraha, and his civil rights activism.

Explanation

Nana Sahib was born as Dhondu Pandit and was later adopted by Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa of the Maratha Empire. After the natural death of Baji Rao II in 1851, Governor-General Lord Dalhousie refused to recognize Nana Sahib as the successor to the Peshwaship and subsequently stopped his pension. This refusal was based on the British policy of not extending pensions to adopted heirs. Baji Rao II died a natural death in exile at Bithoor and did not commit suicide.

Explanation

In 1915, alongside Jamnadas Dwarkadas and Shankerlal Banker, Indulal Yagnik launched and published the English language magazine Young India from Bombay. The publication was later handed over to Mahatma Gandhi in 1919.

He was an active participant in the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918 under Mahatma Gandhi's leadership, working closely to organize and address the grievances of the local peasantry during the famine.

He played a pioneering role in organizing the peasantry on a national level, helping to form the All India Kisan Sabha in 1936 in Lucknow, and actively participating in its inaugural session alongside Swami Sahajanand Saraswati.

After the separate state of Gujarat was formed on 1 May 1960, the original Mahagujarat Janata Parishad was dissolved. In June 1960, Yagnik founded the Nutan Maha Gujarat Janata Parishad to continue advocating for the welfare and development of the region.

Explanation

The smaller Digambara Jain temple located at Indargarh in the Bundi district of Rajasthan, commonly known as the Padamprabhu Digamber Jain Chota Mandir, is dedicated to Lord Padmaprabha. Lord Padmaprabha is the sixth Jain Tirthankar. Since the sixth Tirthankar is not listed among the options, the correct choice is None of the above.

Explanation

The Provisional Government of Free India (Arzi Hukumat-e-Azad Hind), proclaimed by Subhash Chandra Bose in Singapore on 21 October 1943, was formally recognized by nine sovereign nations. These countries were primarily the Axis powers and their co-belligerents. Japan was the first nation to recognize the government and provided significant military and political backing, which included handing over the territorial authority of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Italy, as a primary Axis power, also extended formal diplomatic recognition to the provisional government.

Explanation

Dipavamsa and Mahavamsa are ancient Buddhist chronicles from Sri Lanka that provide valuable historical information about the Maurya dynasty, particularly regarding the reign of Emperor Ashoka, his embrace of Buddhism, and his efforts to propagate the religion across and beyond India. The Arthasastra, composed by Kautilya, the prime minister of Chandragupta Maurya, serves as a foundational treatise on statecraft, administration, and economic policy of the Mauryan Empire. Vishakhadatta's Sanskrit drama Mudrarakshasa narrates the political maneuvers of Chanakya to overthrow the Nanda dynasty and establish Chandragupta Maurya on the throne, throwing significant light on the foundation of the empire.

Explanation

The Simon Commission, appointed in November 1927 to review the working of the Government of India Act 1919 and suggest further constitutional reforms, faced widespread protests across India.

The Indian National Congress and a major faction of the All India Muslim League under the leadership of Mohammad Ali Jinnah joined hands to strongly oppose and boycott the commission. Jinnah and other leaders cooperated with the Congress to reject the commission and organize nationwide protests and hartals.

On October 30, 1928, Lala Lajpat Rai led a peaceful protest demonstration against the commission in Lahore. During this protest, the police launched a brutal lathi charge in which Lala Lajpat Rai was severely injured. He did not recover from these physical injuries and passed away on November 17, 1928.

Explanation

Amir Khusrau made monumental contributions to the cultural development of medieval India:

He introduced several new ragas by blending Persian and Indian musical traditions, including ghora, sanam, aiman, and bakharez. He is widely regarded as the pioneer of the qawwali style of music, blending Hindu and Iranian systems to transform devotional singing in the subcontinent. He created a unique style of Persian poetry in India called Sabaq-i-Hind (the Indian style), which adapted classical Persian forms to include local Indian elements and sensibilities.

While new musical instruments such as the sarangi and rabab were introduced to India during the Delhi Sultanate period, they were not invented by Amir Khusrau. Instead, the invention of instruments like the sitar and tabla is traditionally attributed to him.

Explanation

The Praja Mandal was the nationalist peoples organization in the Indian Princely States. Launched during the Indian independence movement, these organizations were established by the inhabitants of the feudatory states to fight against the autocracy of the local rulers and demand civil liberties, democratic rights, and responsible governance. Under the guidance of the All-India States Peoples Conference, which was formed in 1927, the Praja Mandal movement worked in close coordination with the Indian National Congress to bridge the political divide between British India and the princely states, eventually paving the way for their integration into the independent Indian Union.

Explanation

The first statement is incorrect because Lothal is situated on the Bhogavo River, which is a tributary of the Sabarmati River, rather than the Saraswati River.

The second statement is correct as Rojadi is located on the northern bank of the Bhadar River in the Rajkot district of Gujarat.

The third statement is correct because Dholavira is situated on Khadir Bet island in the Great Rann of Kutch, within the desert region of Kutch.

The fourth statement is correct since Malvan is a Late Harappan site located on the estuary of the Tapi River in the Surat district of Gujarat.

Explanation

Harshavardhana defeated Dhruvasena II, the Maitraka (often written as Mitra) ruler of Vallabhi, as documented in the Nausari copper plate inscription. Following this military victory, Harsha established peace and cemented a political alliance by marrying his daughter to Dhruvasena II.

Additionally, Harshavardhana convened a grand religious and charitable assembly known as the Mahamoksha Parishad every five years at Prayag (modern Prayagraj). During this solemn assembly, which was famously attended by the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang, Harsha distributed his treasury's wealth and personal belongings in charity to monks, scholars, and the poor.

Explanation

Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct while statement 4 is false, so the answer is 'B) 1, 2 and 3 only'. Kalhana's Rajatarangini was indeed written in Sanskrit (1 correct); Ibn Battuta was appointed qazi (judge) of Delhi by Muhammad bin Tughlaq (2 correct); and Amir Khusrau is traditionally credited with the invention of the sitar (3 correct). Statement 4 is wrong because the Humayun-nama was written by Gulbadan Begum, Humayun's half-sister, not by Hamida Banu Begum (Akbar's mother).

Explanation

The Bhakti movement emphasized a deeply personal and loving bond between the devotee and a personal deity, rather than rigid rituals or abstract intellectualism.

In Maharashtra, Saint Dnyaneshwar wrote the Dnyaneshwari, a commentary on the Bhagavad Gita, which serves as the foundational text of the Varkari sect.

Chaitanya Mahaprabhu of Bengal popularized ecstatic congregational singing and dancing as a form of devotion and was the most prominent exponent of Krishna Bhakti in eastern India.

Mirabai, the Rajput princess and mystic poet, dedicated her life to the worship of Krishna, specifically addressing him in her compositions as Girdhar-gopal, the lifter of the mountain.

Explanation

The statements accurately represent the diverse historical interpretations regarding the character and nature of the Revolt of 1857.

Ashok Mehta, in his book 1857: The Great Rebellion, described the event as a planned war of national independence.

V. D. Savarkar, in his influential 1909 work The Indian War of Independence, was among the first to term it a national war of independence.

P. Roberts, presenting the British imperialist historiographical viewpoint, described the uprising as a military or Sepoy Mutiny.

Dr. S. N. Sen, in his official centenary history titled Eighteen Fifty-Seven, concluded that what began as a fight for religion eventually transformed into a war of independence and a people's struggle to expel the foreign rulers.

Explanation

The princely state of Bhavnagar was the pioneer in Gujarat in building a dedicated drinking water reservoir, namely the Bor Talav, also known as Gaurishankar Lake. Constructed in 1872 under the visionary guidance of Dewan Gaurishankar Oza, it was the first systematically planned drinking water tank in the region.

Maharaja Jam Saheb Ranjitsinhji of Jamnagar was one of the finest cricketers of his era, representing England in Test cricket and popularizing innovative batting strokes. India's premier domestic cricket tournament, the Ranji Trophy, is named after him.

Thakore Saheb Lakhajiraj III of Rajkot was a highly progressive ruler who founded the Praja Pratinidhi Sabha in 1923. In an era when women's representation was rare, he reserved five seats for women in this representative assembly.

Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, the reformist ruler of Baroda State, founded the prestigious Baroda Museum and Picture Gallery. The foundation stone was laid in 1887, and the main museum building was completed and opened to the public in 1894.

Explanation

During the medieval period, Gujarat was ruled successively by the Chavada, the Solanki, and the Vaghela dynasties. The Solanki dynasty, founded by Mulraj, saw several great rulers like Bhimdev, Siddhraj Jaysinh, and Kumarpal. Siddhraj Jaysinh was a great patron of art, literature, and learning. He patronized the eminent Jain scholar and polymath Shri Hemchandracharya, who wrote several treatises on grammar, philosophy, and history under royal patronage.

The fourth statement is incorrect because Karandev Vaghela, the last ruler of the Vaghela dynasty, was defeated by the forces of the Delhi Sultan Alauddin Khalji (led by his generals Ulugh Khan and Nusrat Khan) in 1299. This event, and not an encounter with Sikandar Lodi, marked the end of Rajput rule over Anhilwad Patan and led to the establishment of the Delhi Sultanate's authority in Gujarat. Therefore, only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.

Explanation

Chandra Gupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire in 322 BC and successfully unified the majority of the Indian subcontinent under a single centralized administration, extending his control across northern and western India.

His mentor and advisor Kautilya, also known as Chanakya, played a crucial role in planning and executing the overthrow of the last ruler of the Nanda dynasty, Dhana Nanda, which allowed Chandragupta to capture the throne at Pataliputra.

Chandragupta's son, Bindusara, succeeded him and expanded the empire's territory into central India and significant parts of the southern peninsula, conquering the region between the eastern and western seas, excluding only Kalinga and the extreme southern kingdoms.

In 185 BC, the last Mauryan monarch, Brihadratha, was assassinated during a military parade by his senapati, Pushyamitra Shunga, who then established the Shunga dynasty in Magadha.

Explanation

The Bhakti Movement began in South India around the seventh century CE through the devotional teachings of the Alvar and Nayanar saints in Tamil Nadu and Kerala, and eventually spread northwards.

By the fifteenth century, this movement swept through northern and eastern India, reaching its peak between the fifteenth and seventeenth centuries with a massive wave of popular devotion.

Surdas was a celebrated sixteenth-century poet and saint who became a disciple of Vallabhacharya, the founder of the Pushtimarg. Under his guidance, Surdas composed devotional songs dedicated to Lord Krishna, which greatly popularized the Krishna cult in Northern India.

Kabir Das, a fifteenth-century mystic poet and saint, was a disciple of Ramananda rather than Surdas, making the fourth statement incorrect.

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy established the Brahmo Sabha in Calcutta in August 1828, which was later renamed the Brahmo Samaj. It was designed as a reformist movement within Hinduism, aimed at purifying the religion and preaching monotheism based on the Upanishads.

The Samaj was founded with the primary objective of reforming Hindu society by eradicating deep-seated socio-religious evils. It strongly campaigned against idolatry, meaningless rituals, caste rigidities, child marriage, and was pivotal in the legal abolition of the Sati practice in 1829.

In 1866, internal differences over the pace of social reforms and theological issues led to a major split in the movement. Debendranath Tagore led the more traditional faction known as the Adi Brahmo Samaj, while Keshab Chandra Sen established a more radical wing called the Brahmo Samaj of India, resulting in two distinct versions of the Samaj.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (B) Amatyas. In Mauryan administration under Ashoka, Amatyas were the highest-ranking civil officials/ministers, heading the central administrative machinery and advising the emperor, as described in the Arthashastra and corroborated by Ashokan inscriptions. Rajukas (D) were important judicial-cum-revenue officers at the provincial/district level but ranked below the Amatyas in the overall hierarchy; Pulisas (spies/reporters) and Samharta (chief revenue collector) held more specialized, narrower roles.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel was appointed as the Chairman of the Central Election Board of the Indian National Congress during the Central Legislative elections in late 1945. In this role, he was responsible for overseeing the party's overall election machinery across the country. He managed candidate selections, resolved internal disputes, directed campaign strategies, and handled election funds, leading the Congress to a major victory in the general constituencies.

Explanation

Jnandev, also known as Dnyaneshwar, and Namdev are legendary saint-poets who pioneered the Varkari Bhakti movement in medieval Maharashtra. This tradition is characterized by its intense devotion to Lord Vitthal, also known as Vithoba, the patron deity of Pandharpur. Jnandev laid the intellectual and philosophical foundation of the Varkari sect through his landmark Marathi commentary on the Bhagavad Gita called the Jnanesvari. Namdev, a close contemporary, played a crucial role in propagating the tradition through his deeply emotional devotional poetry called abhangas, which emphasized equality, simplicity, and the chanting of the divine name.

Explanation

The term Dharmachakra Pravartana, also represented as Paramachakra Pravartana, translates to turning of the wheel of dharma or turning of the wheel of law. It refers to the historic first sermon delivered by Gautama Buddha at Isipatana (modern-day Sarnath, near Varanasi) shortly after attaining enlightenment. During this sermon, the Buddha preached the Middle Path, the Four Noble Truths, and the Eightfold Path to his five former companions. This pivotal moment established the Buddhist Sangha and initiated the spread of his teachings across the world.

Explanation

Bilahana, an 11th-century Kashmiri poet, wrote Vikramankadevacharita (Vikramarka charitam) to eulogize his patron, the Western Chalukya King Vikramaditya VI.

Bharavi, a 6th-century classical Sanskrit poet, composed Kiratarjuniyam, which depicts the battle between Arjuna and Lord Shiva in the guise of a mountain hunter.

Dandin, a 6th-7th century writer, authored Dasakumaracharita, a Sanskrit prose romance detailing the individual adventures of ten young princes.

Mahendravarman I, a prominent Pallava dynasty king, wrote Mattavilasa Prahasana, a satirical Sanskrit farce mocking the eccentricities of contemporary religious sects.

Explanation

The Raichur Doab, which is the extremely fertile territory located between the Krishna River and its tributary the Tungabhadra River, served as the primary bone of contention between the Bahamani Sultanate and the Vijayanagara Empire. Because of its immense agricultural productivity, strategic geographical position, and rich mineral resources, both empires constantly fought to control this region, leading to a series of intense conflicts and territorial disputes that spanned over two centuries.

Explanation

This quote is an English translation of the famous Hindi poem Moko kahan dhoonde re bande, mein to tere paas mein written by the 15th-century mystic poet and saint, Kabir. As a prominent proponent of the Nirguna Bhakti movement, Kabir criticized organized religion, orthodox rituals, and sectarianism. Through these lines, he emphasizes that the Divine is not found in external physical spaces like temples, mosques, or sacred pilgrimage sites like Kaaba and Kailash. He similarly rejects outward religious practices, rites, ceremonies, yoga, and asceticism, advocating instead that the ultimate reality resides within each individual.

Explanation

Behramji M. Malabari (1853-1912) was a prominent Parsi social reformer, poet, and journalist who campaigned tirelessly against infant and child marriage as well as forced widowhood.

His intense advocacy against child marriage gained immense momentum during the Rukhmabai case of 1885. Malabari utilized his journal, the Indian Spectator, to highlight the plight of child brides and mobilize public opinion in both India and Great Britain. His persistent lobbying and publications directly influenced the British administration to enact the Age of Consent Act of 1891. This landmark legislation raised the legal age of consent for girls from ten to twelve years, effectively targeting the practice of early child marriage. He also co-founded the Seva Sadan in 1908 to support and educate vulnerable women.

Explanation

The Government of India Act of 1858, enacted in the aftermath of the Revolt of 1857, transferred the powers of government, territories, and revenues from the East India Company to the British Crown. The designation of the Governor-General of India was changed to the Viceroy of India, who served as the direct representative of the British Crown in the subcontinent. Alongside this legislative change, the Queen’s Proclamation of 1858 officially renounced the policy of further territorial annexation, promising to respect the treaty rights, dignity, and territorial integrity of the native Indian princes.

Explanation

V D Savarkar established Mitra Mela, a revolutionary secret society, in Nasik in 1899 to foster nationalist sentiment.

Surya Sen, a prominent revolutionary leader, planned and led the famous Chittagong Armoury Raid in 1930 to seize weapons from the auxiliary forces.

Shyamji Krishna Verma founded India House in London and published the monthly nationalist journal titled The Indian Sociologist starting in 1905.

Madanlal Dhingra, an activist of India House, assassinated the British officer Curzon Wyllie in London in 1909 as a protest against British atrocities in India.

Explanation

Following the Gandhi-Irwin Pact of March 1931, the Indian National Congress agreed to suspend the Civil Disobedience Movement and participate in the Second Round Table Conference in London. Mahatma Gandhi attended this conference, which took place from September to December 1931, as the sole official representative of the Indian National Congress to present the nationalist viewpoint.

Explanation

Mahabhinishkramana, which translates to the Great Departure, refers to the historic event of Siddhartha Gautama leaving his royal palace at Kapilavastu at the age of twenty-nine. Seeking an end to human suffering, he renounced his luxurious worldly life, leaving behind his kingdom, wife Yashodhara, and son Rahula, to adopt the life of a wandering ascetic. In Buddhist art and iconography, this momentous event is traditionally represented by a riderless horse, symbolizing his horse Kanthaka.

Explanation

Emperor Harshavardhana organized two major religious assemblies during his reign. The first was the Kannauj Assembly, convoked to honor the Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang and to popularize the doctrines of Mahayana Buddhism. The second was the Prayag Assembly, a grand quinquennial gathering held at the confluence of the Ganga, Yamuna, and Saraswati rivers, where Harsha famously distributed all his accumulated royal treasures and personal belongings in charity to the poor, orphans, and religious men of all faiths.

Explanation

Guru Ravidas was a prominent 15th-to-16th-century saint-poet of the Bhakti movement in Northern India, traditionally associated with the leather-working community. His devotional hymns and verses, several of which are compiled in the Guru Granth Sahib, frequently address themes of social hierarchy, humility, and equality. The quote highlights his personal reflection on his marginalized social background and professional status, expressing that sincere devotion to God is capable of liberating and uplifting any individual regardless of caste or occupation.

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy was a pioneering reformer of the 19th century who advocated for monotheism, the belief in a single, formless God. He strongly opposed idol worship, which he viewed as a degeneration of true spiritual principles, and established the Brahmo Samaj to promote a simplified form of worship free from images and rituals.

Central to his religious outlook was the supremacy of human reason and rationality. He believed that no scripture could supersede human intellect and that all religious tenets must be evaluated using logical reasoning. Consequently, while he respected the Vedas and Upanishads, he did not consider them to be eternal or infallible, arguing instead that they were subject to human interpretation and critical inquiry. This stance on the fallibility of scriptures distinguishes his philosophy from later reformers who declared the Vedas to be absolute and infallible.

Explanation

The Kalakacharya Katha is a celebrated non-canonical narrative text of the Shvetambara sect of Jainism. It recounts the legendary exploits and life of the revered Jain monk Kalakacharya, also known as Kalaka. The text is historically significant and is frequently appended to manuscripts of the Kalpasutra, a major canonical Jain work. It is famously illustrated in the Western Indian miniature painting style, dating from the medieval period, depicting key episodes of his life, such as his interactions with Saka kings and his spiritual lineage.

Explanation

The Bhima Ratha is one of the famous Pancha Rathas, a group of five monolithic rock-cut monuments located at Mahabalipuram on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal. These structures were carved out of single blocks of pink granite during the 7th century under the patronage of the Pallava dynasty, specifically during the reigns of Mahendravarman I and Narasimhavarman I. The Bhima Ratha is notable for its unique barrel-vaulted roof design, resembling a wagon, which reflects the architectural ingenuity of the Pallava craftsmen.

Explanation

The Hathigumpha inscription, also known as the Elephant Cave inscription, is carved in the Udayagiri hills near Bhubaneswar in Odisha. It was inscribed by King Kharavela of the Mahameghavahana dynasty of Kalinga during the second or first century BCE. Written in the Prakrit language using the Brahmi script, the inscription consists of seventeen lines and provides a detailed, year-by-year chronological account of the first thirteen years of King Kharavela's reign, highlighting his military conquests, religious patronage, and public welfare activities.

Explanation

Ajanta Caves, Ellora Caves, and Lepakshi Temples are all prominent historical sites famous for their ancient and medieval mural paintings:

Ajanta Caves house exquisite Buddhist murals dating from the 2nd century BCE to the 5th-6th century CE, primarily illustrating the Jataka tales and events from the life of Buddha.

Ellora Caves contain significant fragments of mural paintings from the Rashtrakuta and Yadava periods, preserved across multiple rock-cut shrines, most notably on the ceilings of the Kailasha Temple (Cave 16) and several Jain caves.

Lepakshi Temples (Veerabhadra Temple) are renowned for their stunning 16th-century Vijayanagara style murals painted on the ceilings, showcasing scenes from Hindu epics like the Ramayana and Mahabharata, alongside mythological stories of Lord Shiva.

Explanation

Bikaner is famous for Manoti Art, which is also commonly referred to as Usta Art. This unique handicraft is practiced by the Usta community of artisans in Bikaner, Rajasthan. It involves decorating various articles, particularly those made of camel skin or hide, with intricate gold embossed designs, miniature paintings, and floral patterns. The process typically utilizes 24-carat gold foil and vibrant colors to create elaborate embossed decorations on leather surfaces like camel hide jars, flasks, and other decorative objects.

Explanation

Chikankari is a traditional hand-embroidery style that originated and is highly famous in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh. The craft involves delicate and artistic shadow-work type embroidery, traditionally done using white cotton thread on fine, sheer fabrics like muslin, cotton, voile, georgette, or organza to create beautiful floral and leafy patterns.

Explanation

Ananda, which signifies supreme bliss or spiritual joy, is a foundational concept in Indian philosophy and metaphysics rather than an aesthetic flavor. Classical Indian aesthetics, formulated initially in the Natya Shastra, recognizes a specific set of primary emotions called the Navarasas. While the pursuit and experience of art are believed to elevate the spectator to a state of aesthetic bliss, Ananda itself is not enumerated as one of these nine canonical rasas.

Explanation

Sattriya dance is officially recognized as a classical dance of India by the Sangeet Natak Akademi. It was introduced in the fifteenth century AD by the great Vaishnavite saint and reformer of Assam, Mahapurush Sankaradeva, as a medium for the propagation of the Vaishnava faith. This makes it a centuries-old living tradition preserved and nurtured in the Vaishnavite monasteries of Assam, known as Sattras. The art form is highly comprehensive, seamlessly integrating devotional music, expressive dance, and theatrical drama, which was originally performed as part of the one-act plays called Ankiya Naat.

Explanation

Only statement 1 correctly distinguishes the two dances, so the answer is 'A) Only 1'. Dancers do occasionally speak/sing dialogues in Kuchipudi whereas Bharatanatyam is purely non-verbal (1 correct). Statement 2 is false because it reverses the fact: dancing on the edges of a brass plate (the Tarangam) is a distinctive feature of Kuchipudi, not of Bharatanatyam.

Explanation

Kathak features a unique segment known as Jugalbandi, which represents a competitive, rhythmic play between the dancer and the percussionist, typically a tabla or pakhawaj player. During this performance, the instrumentalist plays a complex sequence of rhythmic beats, and the dancer immediately reproduces the exact pattern using rapid footwork and ankle bells. This playful exchange increases in speed and complexity, showcasing the deep synergy, mathematical precision, and rhythmic mastery of both the dancer and the musician.

Explanation

Yampuri is the traditional rod puppetry form of Bihar. The name is derived from Yampuri, the court of Yama, the Hindu god of death. The theatrical performances depict scenes from Yama's court, illustrating the consequences of human deeds by showing how souls are judged and sent to either heaven or hell. Unlike other rod puppets found in India, Yampuri puppets are crafted from a single piece of wood and have no joints, demanding high dexterity and skill from the puppeteers during manipulation.

Explanation

Panchasiddhantika is a classical Sanskrit treatise on mathematical astronomy composed by the Indian astronomer and mathematician Varahamihira in the 6th century CE. The work compiles and summarizes five earlier astronomical systems, namely the Surya, Romaka, Paulisa, Vasistha, and Paitamaha Siddhantas. It addresses calculations of planetary positions, solar and lunar eclipses, and other celestial events, having no relation to public administration.

Explanation

Under the consolidated Foreign Direct Investment Policy of the Government of India, 100% Foreign Direct Investment is permitted in the film and cinema industry. This investment is allowed through the automatic route, which means foreign entities do not require any prior approval from the government or the Reserve Bank of India. This policy applies to various segments of the cinema value chain, including film production, financing, distribution, exhibition, marketing, and related technical services.

Explanation

Only statement 2 is correct, so the answer is 'B) Only 2'. The 'S' (Special) category certification by the CBFC restricts a film to a specialised audience such as doctors or scientists (2 correct). Statement 1 is false because 'U/A' certification denotes parental guidance for children under the age of 12 years, not under 14 years.

Explanation

Nagarjuna was a pioneering ancient Indian alchemist, chemist, and metallurgist who made significant contributions to the field of Rasashastra (vedic chemistry and alchemy). He is the celebrated author of Rasaratnakara, a major treatise that describes various chemical processes, the extraction of metals such as gold, silver, tin, and copper, and the preparation of mercury compounds. His work also detailed the design of laboratory apparatus and methods for the purification of minerals, establishing him as a leading figure in ancient Indian chemical science.

Explanation

Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth Sikh Guru, was executed in 1606 during the reign of Mughal Emperor Jahangir. He was arrested and subjected to severe torture in Lahore due to his growing spiritual influence and support for Jahangir's rebel son, Khusrau Mirza.

Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Sikh Guru, was executed in Delhi in 1675 on the orders of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb. He was publicly beheaded at Chandni Chowk for resisting forced conversions and defending the religious freedom of Kashmiri Pandits who sought his protection.

Explanation

Ramananda was a pioneering medieval Bhakti saint who revolutionized the movement in northern India by adopting Hindi as the medium for propagating his teachings, thereby making the spiritual discourse accessible to the common masses instead of restricting it to Sanskrit.

Mirabai was a prominent exponent of the Saguna school of Bhakti, which emphasizes devotion to a personal God with physical form, attributes, and virtues. Her intense devotion was directed toward Lord Krishna, whom she worshiped as her divine husband.

The Bhakti and Sufi movements developed and spread during the same medieval period in India, sharing common themes of divine love, mysticism, equality of all humans, and a rejection of rigid orthodox rituals, making them highly influential contemporary spiritual movements.

Explanation

The Amaravati Stupa, also known as the Mahachaitya, is located in the Palnadu district of Andhra Pradesh. This prominent Buddhist monument was built and expanded primarily during the Satavahana era, starting around the 2nd century BCE and continuing up to the 3rd century CE, with further contributions made under the Ikshvaku dynasty. It is particularly renowned as the center of the Amaravati school of art, distinguished by its intricate white limestone reliefs and distinctive architectural style, which emerged in the post-Mauryan period under Satavahana patronage.

Explanation

The Vinaya Pitaka is the first of the three divisions of the Tripitaka, which constitutes the traditional sacred scriptures of Buddhism. It primarily governs the rules, discipline, and code of conduct for Buddhist monks and nuns. It contains detailed regulations regarding monastic duties and daily administration, including specific guidelines on the acquisition and use of daily essentials such as robes (clothes), medicines, food, shelter, and transport. This set of monastic laws ensures spiritual discipline and maintains the order and harmony of the Sangha.

Explanation

Among the Digambara sect of Jainism, the annual festival of Paryushan is observed as Das Lakshana Parva. This festival lasts for ten days, during which adherents focus on self-purification, penance, and the contemplation of the ten supreme virtues of the soul (das lakshana) as expounded in sacred Jain texts like the Tattvartha Sutra. These ten virtues include supreme forgiveness, humility, straightforwardness, purity, truth, self-restraint, penance, renunciation, non-attachment, and celibacy. Each day of the festival is dedicated to cultivating one of these ten spiritual attributes.

Explanation

Kamandal Kund on Mount Girnar is deeply revered for its association with Lord Dattatreya, who is considered to have resided and meditated at this site. According to local lore, Lord Dattatreya produced water from the rocks of Girnar by striking his kamandal (water pot) to quench the thirst of humanity, creating this sacred reservoir. This site is also famous for the Datt Dhuni, a holy campfire kindled by Lord Dattatreya that continues to burn perpetually, and the Annakshetra (free kitchen) managed by the Shree Kamandal Kund Sansthan Ashram, which serves mahaprasad to visiting pilgrims.

Explanation

Mena Gurjari is a landmark Gujarati musical folk play written by Rasiklal Parikh, based on the traditional folk legend and written in the folk theatre style of Bhavai. In 1953, the play was adapted for the stage and directed by Jaishankar Sundari Bhojak for Natmandal, a theatre troupe associated with the Gujarat Vidhya Sabha. In his direction, Jaishankar Sundari successfully blended his deep understanding of traditional Bhavai with elements of Chinese opera, making it one of the most influential productions in modern Gujarati theatre.

Explanation

The Kakada dance is a traditional ritualistic folk dance of Gujarat performed to appease the deity Baliyadev, who is widely worshipped as the protector against diseases like smallpox. When a child is afflicted with smallpox, families make a vow to the deity. Upon recovery, they visit the Baliyadev temple to perform the thanksgiving ritual known as horamana. During this ceremony, a dancer holds burning wicks or torches, called kakadas, in his hands and performs the dance to express gratitude and seek the deity's continued blessings.

Explanation

Kakasaheb Kalelkar authored the celebrated Gujarati work Jivan-Vyavastha, which received the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1965.

Bhagwatikumar Sharma wrote the renowned family saga novel Assuryalok, which earned him the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1988.

Varsha Adalja penned the acclaimed social novel Ansar, dealing with the lives and struggles of leprosy patients, for which she won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1995.

Suman Shah is the author of Fatfatiyu, a recognized collection of short stories.

Explanation

Priti Sengupta is a prominent Gujarati poet and travel writer who has written more than twenty travelogues. Known for her extensive global travels, she was the first Indian woman to reach the Magnetic North Pole. She has documented her journeys across all seven continents in highly acclaimed Gujarati travelogues such as Poorva, Dikdigant, and Surajsange Dakshinpanthe. For her outstanding contributions to Gujarati literature, she was awarded the prestigious Kumar Suvarna Chandrak in 2006.

Explanation

The vesh of Zanda-Zulan (also known as Jhanda Jhulan) is one of the most famous and historical skits (veshas) of Bhavai, the traditional folk theatre form of Gujarat initiated by Asait Thakar. The narrative is based on a historical event set in Unjha, Gujarat, during the Mughal period, centering on the love story between Tejan, a Hindu woman, and Zanda Zulan, a Muslim nobleman. By depicting this interfaith relationship and the interaction between the two communities, the play promotes mutual respect, cultural synthesis, and delivers a strong message of communal harmony.

Explanation

Parmanand Bhatt, whose full name was Parmanand Manishankar Bhatt, was a renowned poet, lyricist, and playwright of traditional Gujarati theater. He belonged to the village of Trapaj in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, from which he adopted his famous pen name, Trapajkar.

He wrote several notable Gujarati plays and dramas, such as Samrat Harsha, Vahurani, Ranagarjana, and Vadhkani Vahu. He is also celebrated for composing popular devotional songs, most notably the widely sung kirtan Mane Sant Malya Bhagvant Malya.

Explanation

Dang Darbar is an annual cultural festival and fair organized in the Dang district of Gujarat, primarily in the town of Ahwa. This three-day tribal festival is celebrated every year during the spring season, just a few days before the festival of Holi. Originating during the British colonial era, the event is historically significant as it commemorates the five hereditary Bhil kings and chiefs of the region. During the festivities, the state government honors these traditional tribal rulers with annual political pensions. The festival features vibrant tribal dances, traditional music played on instruments like the kahalia and tadpur, and a grand showcase of local art and culture, drawing large crowds of local tribesmen and tourists.

Explanation

Tribal dances in India are spontaneous and creative expressions deeply integrated with the daily routines, agricultural cycles, hunts, and social rituals of tribal communities. These performances serve as both individual and collective reflections of their lived experiences and cultural heritage.

Additionally, the geographical attire, consisting of unique traditional costumes, ornaments, and headgear sourced from their local environment and specific geographic regions, is a mandatory and characteristic component of these dances, reflecting their close connection to nature. Unlike formal classical dance forms that are governed by strict textual rules and complex techniques, tribal dances are defined by their simplistic, community-driven, and naturalistic nature.

Explanation

The archaeological discoveries of the Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) provide the earliest concrete evidence of Indian artistic traditions.

Terracotta (baked clay) figurines of humans and animals found at Lothal, such as horses, bulls, and gorillas, show exceptional craftsmanship and have served as foundational models for early Indian sculptural art.

At Harappa, two highly realistic stone statuettes—a red sandstone torso of a male and a grey stone torso of a male dancer—were excavated. These figures demonstrate an extraordinarily advanced understanding of human anatomy and show strong stylistic similarities with the classical stone torso sculptures of later historical periods in India.

Among the terracotta artifacts recovered from the port city of Lothal, archaeological excavations revealed baked clay figures resembling an Egyptian mummy. This find, along with other foreign artifacts, highlights the active maritime trade and cultural exchange that existed between the Indus Valley Civilization and ancient Egypt.

Explanation

Dharaniya is a traditional embroidered wall hanging used extensively for home decoration in the Kutch and Saurashtra regions of Gujarat. It occupies a unique place in the folk art of the state.

A person learning the art of folk embroidery traditionally begins their training by practicing and creating a Dharaniya. It acts as a foundational canvas where young learners can master various stitches, patterns, and mirror-work.

During weddings and special festive occasions, these large embroidered cloths are hung on the interior mud walls of houses. Because they cover a significant portion of the walls with vibrant colors, intricate details, and local motifs, they serve as a textile equivalent to wall paintings, showcasing the richness of folk embroidery.

Dharaniyas are not restricted to geometric shapes. They heavily feature diverse organic, natural, and figurative designs. Common motifs found in Dharaniya embroidery include representations of local flora and fauna such as the tree of life, flowers, peacocks, parrots, elephants, and horses, alongside human figures. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect, making only statements 1 and 2 correct.

Explanation

The Parsi theatre was a highly influential, commercial, and experimental theatre movement of the 19th and 20th centuries in India.

Parsi theatre companies popularized Hindustani and Urdu language dramas to appeal to wider North Indian audiences. This integration of classical singing, ghazals, and Urdu poetry led to the initiation of the Urdu song-drama genre, created by legendary playwrights like Agha Hashar Kashmiri.

Parsi playwrights drew from diverse literary traditions. They widely adapted Western literature, particularly Shakespearean plays, while simultaneously celebrating their cultural roots through dramas based on ancient Iranian history and legends, such as Rustam and Sohrab. They also created popular plays based on Indian mythological and historical narratives, such as Harishchandra.

The early history of modern Gujarati theatre was deeply intertwined with the Parsis, as Gujarati was their primary vernacular language. The stagecraft, music, and dramatic structures of the Parsi theatrical tradition heavily influenced Gujarati drama, leading to significant evolutionary changes in the performance and themes of Gujarati one-act plays.

Explanation

The Bengali biographical musical drama film Moner Manush, directed by Goutam Ghose, is based on the life and spiritual journey of Lalon Fakir, a legendary 19th-century saint, philosopher, and social reformer. Lalon Fakir is widely regarded as a central icon of the Baul cult, a group of mystic minstrels from Bengal. The film explores the liberal, humanistic, and secular philosophy of the Baul tradition, which rejects orthodox religious boundaries, caste divisions, and sectarianism, focusing instead on internal spiritual connection through music and devotion. The movie won the Golden Peacock for Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 3 are correct while statement 2 is false, so the answer is 'C) Only 1 and 3'. Dhrupad has a direct relationship with Krishna/temple worship in its devotional origins (1 correct) and held an esteemed place in the Mughal court, flourishing under Akbar's patronage of Tansen (3 correct). Statement 2 is wrong because Dhrupad is an austere, grave classical style; it did not make music more people-oriented and entertaining (that popular, lighter character is associated with later forms like khyal and thumri).

Explanation

The Targala community, which comprises the sub-castes of Nayaks and Bhojaks, has a long-standing history that is central to the development of Gujarati theatre and its musical traditions.

First, they have a hereditary, ancestral tradition of learning and performing classical music. Training in classical methods of singing and playing traditional instruments was systematically passed down through generations.

Second, they are the traditional practitioners of Bhavai, the popular folk-theatre form of Gujarat. Bhavai is a highly engaging, music-and-dance-based performance designed for the masses, which gave the performers a thorough and practical understanding of people-entertaining music.

Third, their artistic excellence was recognized by royalty, and several prominent performers from the Nayak and Bhojak communities were employed as esteemed court musicians and singer-artists under the patronage of various princely states in Gujarat, such as Vadodara.

Explanation

Assam celebrates three main types of Bihu festivals throughout the year: Bohag Bihu (Rongali Bihu) in April, Kati Bihu (Kongali Bihu) in October, and Magh Bihu (Bhogali Bihu) in January. Among these, Rongali Bihu coincides with the advent of spring and the beginning of the sowing season, representing joy, dance, and music. This festival also marks the onset of the Assamese New Year, symbolising the restart of the agricultural cycle and a fresh beginning for the community.

Explanation

The Pattani dialect, spoken primarily in North Gujarat, shares several linguistic features with standard Gujarati but exhibits distinct phonological shifts.

Statement 1 is correct because the Pattani dialect has a strong tendency to replace the lateral consonants with the dental or flap r. Consequently, standard words like dholo and utaval are pronounced as dhoro/dhor and utavar respectively.

Statement 2 is correct because the glottal fricative h is frequently diluted or completely dropped when it occurs between vowels. This causes words like vahu to be pronounced as vau.

Statement 3 is correct because in central Gujarat, particularly in the Charotari dialect, the ubiquitous and heavy usage of the h sound along with palatalization transforms standard words. Under this phonetic influence, a word like dadam is pronounced in the aspirated, palatalized form of dhyadyam.

Explanation

In 1864, the pioneering Gujarati social reformer and writer Narmadashankar Dave, popularly known as Veer Narmad, launched the biweekly publication Dandiya. The primary objective of this periodical was to accelerate the social reform movement, historically referred to in local contexts as "Jagat Sudharo" or world reformation. Through its highly critical and satirical columns, Narmad actively took up the challenge of awakening the public from prevailing ignorance, orthodoxy, and crass social practices. The biweekly was a reformist vehicle for opinion and critique rather than a tool to impart basic literacy to the masses.

Explanation

The official GPSC master answer key clearly highlights option (A) "Only 1" in yellow for Q.087. This matches subject knowledge: the "Ambali Kadhavi" game played on Holi is a tradition specifically associated with the Karadiya Rajput community of Saurashtra, not the Panchmahal tribals or the Mer community, so statement 1 alone is correct.

Explanation

This dialogue is from the Zanda Zulan no Vesh, one of the most famous and widely performed historical veshas in Bhavai, the traditional folk theatre of Gujarat.

The plot of this vesh revolves around Tejan, a married Hindu woman (referred to as Hindvani in the dialogue), and Zanda Zulan, a Muslim nobleman or Subedar. The dialogue contains cultural and situational references characteristic of their encounters, such as carrying a water pot on the head (shir pani ka bedo bhare) and the calling of partridges near the well (kuve me tetar bole). It also evokes the ideal couple of Ram and Sita (Ram-Sita ka joda) and ends with the rhythmic dance beats typical of Bhavai performance (Ta thaiya ka ta thai).

Explanation

In Hindu mythology, the demon king Hiranyakashipu received a boon from Lord Brahma that prevented his death indoors or outdoors, during day or night, on the ground or in the sky, and by any man, beast, or weapon. To protect his devotee Prahlada and slay the demon while keeping the boon intact, Lord Vishnu incarnated as Lord Narasimha, a half-man, half-lion avatar.

Lord Narasimha vanquished the demon at twilight (neither day nor night), on his lap (neither ground nor sky), using his claws (neither animate nor inanimate weapon), and specifically on the threshold of the palace doorway (neither indoors nor outdoors). In Indian tradition, this threshold, known as the Umbar or Umbaro, is worshipped as the symbolic throne of Lord Narasimha, who serves as the divine guardian protecting the home from evil forces.

Explanation

The beautifully sculpted wood carvings and structural support brackets found in traditional buildings, temples, and bird feeders (chabutaro) of Gujarat are known as Nejwa. Handcrafted by the traditional Gurjar Suthar (carpenter) community, these artistic elements serve a dual purpose of utility and ornament. Structurally, Nejwa are designed as decorative wooden brackets that support the overhanging eaves (locally termed as neva) of roofs. They are characterized by elaborate and exquisite carvings featuring floral patterns, geometric designs, and animal or human figurines, reflecting the rich architectural heritage of Gujarat.

Explanation

All three locations feature prominent archaeological museums in Gujarat.

The Archaeological Museum at Gujarat Vidyapith, established in 1977 in Ahmedabad, houses a collection of ancient antiquities, including Harappan seals and Buddhist relics.

The Archaeological Museum at Lothal, managed by the Archaeological Survey of India since 1976, is located adjacent to the famous Indus Valley Civilisation site and showcases a wide range of Harappan artifacts, including pottery, beads, copper objects, and terracotta seals.

Vadnagar has long hosted an archaeological museum to showcase the region's continuous human habitation and cultural history spanning over two millennia, featuring artifacts recovered from various local excavations.

Explanation

Amir Khusrow, the legendary thirteenth-century Sufi musician, poet, and scholar, is traditionally credited with introducing several innovations to Hindustani classical music. He creatively synthesized Persian melodic modes (maqams) with traditional Indian ragas, which led to the creation of several new ragas, most notably Raga Yaman (or Yaman Kalyan). His musical synthesis helped shape the foundational structure of North Indian classical music.

Explanation

Indumati Chimanlal Sheth was a prominent freedom fighter, social worker, and educationist from Gujarat. After independence, she served as the Deputy Education Minister of Bombay State from 1952 to 1960. Following the formation of Gujarat, she was elected from the Ellis Bridge constituency and served as the Minister of Education of Gujarat from 1962 to 1967. In recognition of her distinguished social service and contributions to education, she was honored with the Padma Shri award by the Government of India in 1970.

Explanation

The Naklang fair, also known as the Nishkalank Mahadev fair, is celebrated at the seashore of Koliyak in the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat. According to Hindu mythology, after defeating the Kauravas in the Kurukshetra war of the Mahabharata, the Pandavas felt deep remorse for killing their relatives and committing gotrahatya. On the advice of Lord Krishna, they traveled across the country carrying a black flag and following a black cow, seeking a place where both would turn white, signifying that their sins had been cleansed. Upon reaching the coast of Koliyak, the cow and the flag turned white. To express their gratitude, the five Pandava brothers established five Shivalingas on the beach and performed intense penance to Lord Shiva, who appeared to liberate them from their sins. Because the Pandavas became spotless or guilt-free at this site, the temple was named Nishkalank Mahadev, establishing a direct mythological connection between the fair and the Mahabharata epic.

Explanation

Shri Sayaji Shasan Shabdakalpataru is an administrative and legal dictionary published in 1931 under the patronage of Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III of Baroda during the Gaekwad reign. Bhagavadgomandal is a massive, comprehensive Gujarati dictionary and encyclopedia initiated and compiled under the vision and patronage of Maharaja Bhagvatsinhji of the princely state of Gondal. The third statement is incorrect because the first edition of Sarth Jodanikosh was published by Gujarat Vidyapith in 1929, which was decades before the formation of Gujarat state. The fourth statement is incorrect because Narmakosh, the first dictionary in the Gujarati language, was compiled by the reformist poet Narmad, not Dalpatram.

Explanation

His first anthology of poetry, Vishwa Shanti (published in 1931), was written while he was imprisoned during the freedom struggle. The long poem deeply reflects Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy, peace message, and lifework.

He served as a member of the Rajya Sabha from 1970 to 1976, having been nominated by the President of India. During his tenure, he famously raised his voice against the Emergency.

He was the first Gujarati writer to receive the prestigious Jnanpith Award. He won the award in 1967 (shared with Kannada poet K.V. Puttappa) for his contribution to Indian literature, specifically for his poetry collection Nishith.

Explanation

Kanaiyalal Munshi (K.M. Munshi), Vallabhbhai Patel, and Minoo Masani (M.R. Masani) were all members of the Constituent Assembly of India. Kanaiyalal Munshi was a member of the Drafting Committee. Vallabhbhai Patel served as the chairman of the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas. Minoo Masani was elected from the Bombay province and served on the Fundamental Rights Sub-Committee and Union-Powers Committee. Morarji Desai, who was serving as the Minister for Home and Revenue in the Bombay Province during this period, was not a member of the Constituent Assembly.

Explanation

The first line critiques the practice of idol worship and ritualism, which were dominant in medieval society. By questioning these practices, Kabir challenged orthodox religious authorities and advocated for a direct, internal devotion, highlighting his role as a revolutionary social reformer.

The second line expresses the metaphysical philosophy of non-duality or Advaita. It metaphorically explains how the individual soul merges with the universal soul, similar to water in a broken clay pot merging with the surrounding body of water. This describes his spiritualist and mystical wisdom rather than social reform.

The third line emphasizes that love is the only true caste and form of the divine. This directly opposes the rigid caste system, social hierarchies, and religious discrimination of his time, advocating for universal brotherhood and equality.

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976 amended Article 74 of the Indian Constitution to explicitly state that the President shall, in the exercise of their functions, act in accordance with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister. This made the executive advice formally binding and obligatory on the President of India for the first time. Since the 42nd Amendment is not listed among the other choices, d is the correct option.

Explanation

Under Article 169 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament has the power to abolish or create a Legislative Council in a State by law. This parliamentary action is contingent upon the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passing a resolution to that effect. The resolution in the State Assembly must be passed by a special majority, which requires a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the Assembly present and voting. Once the State Assembly passes this resolution, the Parliament can enact a law by a simple majority to create or abolish the Legislative Council. This ensures that the creation or abolition of a second chamber is initiated by the representatives of the state itself and finalized by the Union legislature.

Explanation

The Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India divides legislative subjects into the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List under Article 246, establishing clear jurisdictions within which the Parliament and the State Legislatures exercise their law-making authority.

The legislative powers of the Parliament and State Legislatures are not absolute as they are subject to judicial review and constitutional limitations. Any law passed by them must conform to the provisions of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights as guaranteed under Article 13.

The doctrine of basic structure, established by the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati case in 1973, limits the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368. Under this doctrine, the Parliament has no power to amend, delete, or alter the basic features or the foundational framework of the Constitution.

Explanation

Parliamentary privileges in India are broadly classified into two categories: collective privileges, which are enjoyed by each House of Parliament as a whole, and individual privileges, which are enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually.

Article 122 of the Constitution of India explicitly bars courts from inquiring into the validity of any proceedings of Parliament on the ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. This ensures that no court has the right to investigate the proceedings of the House or any of its committees, maintaining the separation of powers and the independence of the legislature.

Parliament also possesses the power to act as a court of record to punish both its own members and outsiders for breach of its privileges or for contempt of the House. This punishment can take the form of admonition, reprimand, or imprisonment.

Explanation

The Ashok Mehta Committee on Panchayati Raj Institutions, appointed in 1977, submitted its report in 1978 recommending a transition from a three-tier to a two-tier Panchayati Raj system. This structure comprised the Zila Parishad at the district level and the Mandal Panchayat for a group of villages. The committee proposed that the district should serve as the primary unit of decentralisation below the state administration. Consequently, it recommended that the Zila Parishad be established as the executive body directly responsible for comprehensive planning and development at the district level.

Explanation

The National Commission for Women was established as a statutory body on January 31, 1992, to review the constitutional and legal safeguards for women, recommend remedial legislative measures, facilitate redressal of grievances, and advise the government on all policy matters affecting women.

The commission was constituted under the National Commission for Women Act, 1990, which was enacted by the Parliament of India to provide a legislative framework for the protection and promotion of women's rights.

The Ministry of Women and Child Development serves as the nodal ministry for the National Commission for Women, coordinating its administrative functions and overseeing its budgetary allocations.

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly held its historic first meeting on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall, which is now the Central Hall of Parliament House. To lead the assembly in its task of framing the constitution, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as its permanent Chairman on December 11, 1946. The structural and ideological basis of the Constitution was defined by the Objectives Resolution, which outlined the core principles, philosophy, and socio-economic fundamentals that would guide the drafting of the constitutional document.

Explanation

Article 123 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament if immediate legislative action is required. An ordinance issued under this provision has the same force and effect as a regular Act of Parliament. Under Article 123(2)(a), such an ordinance must be laid before both Houses of Parliament and automatically ceases to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of Parliament. Additionally, under Article 123(2)(b), the President retains the power to withdraw the ordinance at any time.

Explanation

Article 14 of the Constitution of India guarantees that the State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.

Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice, and propagate religion to all individuals, establishing this as a fundamental right.

The right to freedom of speech and expression is enshrined under Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, whereas Article 29 is specifically aimed at protecting the interests of minorities by safeguarding their distinct language, script, or culture. Thus, the first and third statements are correct, while the second statement is incorrect.

Explanation

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Bill, 2019, received the assent of the President of India on July 31, 2019. Upon receiving presidential assent and being published in the Gazette of India, the bill officially became the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019. This legislation criminalizes the practice of instant triple talaq (talaq-e-biddat) among Muslims and prescribes a punishment of up to three years of imprisonment for a husband who violates the law.

Explanation

Article 35A was incorporated into the Constitution of India through the Constitution (Application to Jammu and Kashmir) Order, 1954. This Presidential Order was issued by President Rajendra Prasad on 14 May 1954, exercising the powers conferred under Article 370(1) of the Constitution of India, with the concurrence of the State Government of Jammu and Kashmir.

Explanation

In the Union of India v. LIC of India (1995) case, the Supreme Court of India reaffirmed its landmark ruling from the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) and held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution of India. The Court observed that the Preamble is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be read and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in it.

Explanation

The Prime Minister's Secretariat, which was originally established in 1947 to provide secretarial assistance to the Prime Minister, was officially renamed the Prime Minister's Office (PMO) in 1977. This structural and administrative nomenclature change took place during the tenure of Shri Morarji Desai, who served as the Prime Minister of India heading the Janata Party government from 1977 to 1979. The change aimed to redefine and streamline the role of the office within the framework of the Union government's administration.

Explanation

According to the second edition of the "Healthy States, Progressive India" report (Health Index 2017-18) published by NITI Aayog in June 2019:

Uttar Pradesh recorded the lowest score among the 21 larger states, ranking 21st (lowest) in terms of overall health performance.

Kerala retained its top position in overall health performance for the second consecutive time.

Gujarat secured the fourth spot in overall performance, following Kerala (1st), Andhra Pradesh (2nd), and Maharashtra (3rd).

Punjab and Himachal Pradesh stood at the fifth and sixth positions respectively, making the fourth statement incorrect.

Explanation

The M.M. Punchhi Commission on Centre-State Relations was constituted in April 2007 under the chairmanship of Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, a former Chief Justice of India, and submitted its report in April 2010.

The Commission made several key recommendations to safeguard the independence of the Governor's office and ensure a healthy federal structure. It proposed deleting the doctrine of pleasure from the Constitution so that Governors could not be arbitrarily removed by the Central Government. Instead, it recommended that Governors be given a secure five-year tenure, and any removal before that term should only be possible through a process of impeachment by the State Legislature, similar to the impeachment process of the President of India by the Parliament.

Explanation

Tolls is enumerated under Entry 59 of the State List (List II) of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. This means that the authority to legislate on, levy, and collect tolls is vested in the state legislatures, making it a state subject rather than a concurrent one.

Explanation

The Committee on Commerce is a department-related standing committee of the Parliament of India, functioning under the administrative control of the Rajya Sabha, rather than a financial standing committee. Its primary mandate is to examine bills, policies, and annual reports specifically related to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Explanation

Bangladesh and India share common memberships in all four specified groupings:

SAARC was established in 1985 with both India and Bangladesh as founding members.

BIMSTEC was formed in 1997, and both nations are founding members of this regional grouping.

IORA, established in 1997, has India as a founding member, while Bangladesh joined the association in 1999.

The Commonwealth of Nations includes both countries as members; India joined the Commonwealth in 1947, and Bangladesh became a member in 1972.

Explanation

The Asian-African Conference, held in Bandung, Indonesia, in April 1955, brought together 29 newly independent nations of Asia and Africa. The conference adopted a ten-point declaration on the promotion of world peace and cooperation, known as the Bandung Principles or Dasa Sila Bandung. These principles, which emphasized respect for sovereignty, territorial integrity, equality of all races and nations, and non-interference in the internal affairs of other countries, directly laid the foundation and ideological framework for the formal creation of the Non-Aligned Movement at the Belgrade Summit in 1961.

Explanation

Statement 2 is correct because the original Constitution of India under Part III guaranteed the Right to Property as a Fundamental Right under Article 19(1)(f), which gave citizens the right to acquire, hold, and dispose of property, and Article 31, which protected citizens against deprivation of their property.

Statement 3 is correct because the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 deleted the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and inserted Article 300-A in Part XII of the Constitution, which specifies that no person shall be deprived of his property save by authority of law. This made the Right to Property a legal and constitutional right rather than a fundamental right.

Explanation

Article 13(3)(a) of the Indian Constitution defines the term law in a comprehensive manner to ensure the protection of fundamental rights. Under this provision, law includes any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Additionally, following the Supreme Court ruling in the Golaknath case, the Parliament passed the Constitution (Twenty-fourth Amendment) Act, 1971. This amendment inserted Article 13(4), which specifies that nothing in Article 13 shall apply to any amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368, thereby excluding constitutional amendment acts from the definition and purview of law under Article 13.

Explanation

The Rajamannar Committee was appointed by the Government of Tamil Nadu in 1969 under the chairmanship of Dr. P.V. Rajamannar to examine Centre-State relations and suggest measures to secure maximum autonomy for the states.

The committee made several far-reaching recommendations aimed at curtailing the dominance of the Central Government, such as the omission of Articles 356, 357, and 365, replacing the Planning Commission with a statutory body, and transferring subjects from the Union and Concurrent Lists to the State List. Because these recommendations strongly favored state autonomy and threatened the federal balance desired by the Union, the then Central Government completely ignored and rejected the report, accepting none of its recommendations.

Explanation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is false, so the answer is 'C) 1 and 2 only'. In general the Governor appoints the leader of the majority party in the Assembly as Chief Minister (1 correct), and when no party has a clear majority the Governor may use personal discretion in selecting and appointing the CM (2 correct). Statement 3 is false because a person who is not a member of the state legislature can be appointed Chief Minister, provided he/she becomes a member within six months (Article 164(4)).

Explanation

In the landmark Indra Sawhney and Others v. Union of India (1992) judgment, popularly known as the Mandal case, the Supreme Court directed the Central Government to set up a permanent body to examine complaints of over-inclusion or under-inclusion of any class of citizens in the list of backward classes. Following this directive, the Parliament enacted the National Commission for Backward Classes Act, 1993, which led to the creation of the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

Explanation

Public Interest Litigation (PIL) relaxes the traditional rule of locus standi, allowing any public-spirited citizen or social organization to file a petition in a high court or the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the constitutional or legal rights of any person or group of persons who, by reason of poverty, helplessness, or socially or economically disadvantaged position, are unable to approach the court for relief themselves. Consequently, the person filing the PIL does not need to be the victim or directly affected party, and the court entertains the petition to address broader public interest, systemic injustice, or welfare issues rather than resolving personal grievances or private disputes.

Explanation

The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs is responsible for planning, coordinating, and managing the visits of Government Goodwill Delegations of Members of Parliament to other countries. This program aims to project India's policies, achievements, and democratic values abroad while securing international goodwill. In coordination with the Ministry of External Affairs, it also receives and hosts similar government-sponsored delegations of parliamentarians under exchange programs from foreign nations to foster closer bilateral relations.

Explanation

Under Article 243Z of the Constitution of India, which was introduced by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, the Legislature of a State is empowered to make provisions by law regarding the maintenance of accounts by the Municipalities and the auditing of such accounts.

Explanation

The National Population Register is a register of usual residents of India, prepared at the local, sub-district, district, state, and national levels under the provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003.

The database is managed and updated by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which operates under the administrative jurisdiction of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

The register contains a designated list of demographic particulars collected from every usual resident, including name, relationship to the head of household, father's name, mother's name, spouse's name, sex, date of birth, marital status, place of birth, educational qualification, and occupation.

Explanation

Tribunals are quasi-judicial administrative bodies created to resolve specific administrative or tax-related disputes, helping to reduce the burden on regular courts. They are not bound by the strict technical procedures of the Code of Civil Procedure or the Indian Evidence Act, but are instead guided by the principles of natural justice. These bodies were given constitutional status through the insertion of Part XIVA, which includes Articles 323A and 323B, based on the recommendations of the Swaran Singh Committee. This insertion was carried out by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976.

Explanation

The United Nations Convention against Torture and Other Cruel, Inhuman or Degrading Treatment or Punishment is a key international human rights treaty adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1984. Its primary objective is to prevent torture and other forms of cruel, inhuman, or degrading treatment or punishment worldwide. The convention obligates signatory nations to take effective legislative, administrative, and judicial measures to prevent acts of torture in any territory under their jurisdiction, thereby serving as a critical global instrument for protecting human dignity and physical integrity.

Explanation

The Home Rule League was established in 1916 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant to advocate for self-government for India under the British Empire.

The Cripps Mission, led by Sir Stafford Cripps, was sent to India in March 1942 to secure Indian cooperation in World War II in exchange for the promise of post-war dominion status.

The Quit India Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1942 as a direct consequence of the failure of the Cripps Mission, demanding an immediate end to British rule.

The Mountbatten Plan, proposed on June 3, 1947, by Viceroy Lord Mountbatten, laid down the final framework for the partition of British India and the transfer of power to India and Pakistan.

Explanation

Article 223 of the Constitution of India deals with the appointment of an acting Chief Justice. It states that when the office of Chief Justice of a High Court is vacant or when any such Chief Justice is, by reason of absence or otherwise, unable to perform the duties of his office, the duties of the office shall be performed by such one of the other Judges of the Court as the President may appoint for the purpose.

Explanation

The G20 is an international forum comprising 19 individual countries and the European Union. Among these 19 countries, 7 are classified as Asian nations. These countries are China, India, Indonesia, Japan, South Korea, Saudi Arabia, and Turkey. Although Turkey is a transcontinental country spanning both Europe and Asia, the vast majority of its landmass, Anatolia, is located in Western Asia, which places it among the seven Asian member states of the G20.

Explanation

The criteria for declaring any area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India are well-defined administrative and demographic benchmarks. The President of India designates these areas based on four specific factors. First, there must be a clear preponderance of tribal population in the region. Second, the area should exhibit physical compactness and be of a reasonable size. Third, it must form a viable administrative entity, such as an entire district, block, or taluka, to ensure governance is manageable. Fourth, there must be a marked economic backwardness of the area compared to neighboring regions, necessitating special constitutional protections and targeted developmental measures. All four of these criteria are essential for the designation, making the combination of all statements correct.

Explanation

The princely state of Hyderabad, among a few others, decided not to participate in the Constituent Assembly, meaning some princely states remained unrepresented.

Under the Indian Independence Act of 1947, the Constituent Assembly assumed legislative powers in addition to its constitution-making role. It functioned as the Provisional Parliament of India, enacting ordinary laws for the nation until the first general elections were conducted and the first elected Parliament was formed in 1952.

While the major portion of the Constitution of India came into force on 26th January 1950, several specific provisions became effective immediately upon its adoption on 26th November 1949. These early provisions included those regarding citizenship, elections, provisional parliament, and temporary and transitional provisions.

Explanation

The Preamble to the Constitution of India explicitly outlines the core values of the nation:

Justice is defined in the Preamble as social, economic, and political.

Liberty is guaranteed to all citizens in terms of thought, expression, belief, faith, and worship.

Equality is defined in terms of status and of opportunity.

Fraternity is defined as assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation. The Preamble does not contain the phrase "by the single citizenship" within its text, even though the broader Constitution promotes brotherhood using the system of single citizenship. Thus, only statements 1, 2, and 3 are correctly matched as per the literal text of the Preamble.

Explanation

Indian socialism is based on the principles of democratic socialism, which is characterized by a specific and well-defined economic structure known as a mixed economy. In this mixed economic framework, both the public sector and the private sector co-exist and cooperate. Rather than adopting the classic Marxist-Leninist or communistic model of complete state ownership and the abolition of private property, India chose this definite economic structure to actively direct resources towards reducing economic inequalities, preventing the concentration of wealth, and promoting comprehensive social and economic welfare as laid out in the Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy of the Constitution.

Explanation

The President of India enjoys both situational and informal discretionary powers.

The power of the President to call sessions of Parliament even if the Council of Ministers has not advised to do so is a situational discretionary power. Normally, Article 85 of the Constitution dictates that the President summons Parliament on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. However, in extraordinary situations, such as when the government loses its majority or if a no-confidence motion is pending and the Prime Minister refuses to recommend summoning the House, the President can exercise situational discretion to call a session to test the floor majority.

The President also has the right to warn and encourage the Council of Ministers. Under Article 78 of the Constitution, the President has the right to be informed about all decisions and affairs of the Union. Stemming from parliamentary conventions, the constitutional head of state possesses the right to be consulted, the right to encourage, and the right to warn the Council of Ministers during administrative deliberations.

Explanation

According to Article 107 of the Constitution of India, a Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Since a Bill that originated in the Rajya Sabha and is pending before the Rajya Sabha has not yet been passed by or transmitted to the Lok Sabha, its status remains unaffected by the dissolution of the lower house, and it remains alive for consideration by the next Parliament.

Explanation

Pair 2 is incorrectly matched because an unstarred question is one to which a written answer is laid on the table of the House, meaning no oral answer is given and supplementary questions cannot be asked subsequently. Pair 4 is incorrectly matched because the limit for starred questions listed for oral answer is 20 per day in Lok Sabha and 15 per day in Rajya Sabha, rather than 50 questions.

Explanation

A censure motion is a parliamentary device used in the Lok Sabha to reprimand the government or express strong disapproval of its policies. It differs from a No-Confidence Motion in that the specific reasons and grounds for its adoption must be stated when it is introduced. It can be targeted precisely, allowing it to be moved against an individual minister, a group of ministers, or the entire Council of Ministers to censure specific acts of omission or commission. Passing a censure motion merely indicates the House's disapproval of specific policies or actions and does not mandate the resignation of the Council of Ministers.

Explanation

During the First Reading, the Bill is introduced in either House of Parliament and published in the Gazette of India. No discussion of the Bill takes place at this stage.

During the Second Reading, specifically the stage of general discussion, the House has the option to refer the Bill to a Joint Committee consisting of members from both the Houses.

During the Third Reading, once the Bill is voted on and passed by the Parliament, it is transmitted to the presiding officer who authenticates the Bill before it is presented to the President of India for assent.

Explanation

Under Article 110(1) of the Indian Constitution, a bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of several specified financial matters. Clause (b) of this article covers the regulation of the borrowing of money or the giving of any guarantee by the Government of India. Clause (c) specifies the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, along with the payment of moneys into or the withdrawal of moneys from any such Fund. Clause (f) explicitly includes the receipt of money on account of the Consolidated Fund of India or the public account of India, the custody or issue of such money, and the audit of the accounts of the Union or of a State. Therefore, all four listed matters are constitutional components of a Money Bill.

Explanation

Under Article 105 of the Constitution of India, parliamentary privileges are extended to all persons who are entitled to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament or any of its committees, such as the Attorney General of India and Union Ministers.

These privileges are divided into two categories. First, there are collective privileges, which are enjoyed by each House of Parliament collectively. Second, there are individual privileges, which are enjoyed by the members of Parliament individually.

The freedom from arrest is an individual privilege. However, this immunity is strictly limited to civil cases. It does not extend to criminal cases or cases of preventive detention. A member of Parliament can be arrested during the session of Parliament on criminal charges or under preventive detention laws, making the fourth statement incorrect while the first three statements are correct.

Explanation

The Finance Bill is a money bill introduced in the Lok Sabha immediately after the presentation of the Budget to give effect to the financial proposals and taxation measures of the government for the upcoming financial year, detailing the various sources and mechanisms through which revenue will be collected.

The Appropriation Bill is introduced to provide the legal authority for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India, ensuring that the government can only spend money on the specific areas, ministries, and purposes for which the expenditure has been sanctioned by Parliament.

Explanation

Under Article 127 of the Constitution of India, a serving High Court judge who is qualified to be appointed as a Supreme Court judge can be designated as an ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court when there is a lack of quorum. Similarly, Article 128 enables the Chief Justice of India to request retired judges of the Supreme Court or High Courts to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court. Both categories of judges can thus temporarily discharge judicial functions in the Supreme Court.

The Chief Justice of India can appoint or request these judges only with the previous consent of the President of India and after consultation with the Chief Justice of the High Court concerned. The consent of the Parliament is not required, which makes the second statement incorrect.

An ad hoc judge, while attending the sittings of the Supreme Court, possesses all the jurisdiction, powers, privileges, and constitutional protections against arbitrary removal that are available to a permanent judge of the Supreme Court.

Explanation

The official GPSC master key highlights option (D) "1, 2 and 4 only" for Q.145. This is correct because under Article 171: the Legislative Council's strength cannot exceed one-third of the Assembly's strength (statement 1, correct), cannot be less than 40 (statement 2, correct), and one-sixth of members are elected by the Assembly members (statement 4, correct). Statement 3 (that the Chief Minister acts as leader of the Legislative Council) is false since the Leader of the House in the Council is typically a minister nominated by the CM, not the CM himself, which is why option (D) excluding statement 3 is correct.

Explanation

The Constitution of India provides for four categories of judges in the High Courts: Permanent Judges, Additional Judges, Acting Judges, and Ad Hoc Judges. This makes Statement 1 and Statement 2 correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Gujarat High Court was established on 1 May 1960 following the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960, while the Kerala High Court was established on 1 November 1956 following the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.

Statement 4 is correct because, with the establishment of the separate High Court for Andhra Pradesh at Amaravati on 1 January 2019, the total number of High Courts in India became 25.

Explanation

Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, outlines the specific criteria for determining eligibility for free legal services in India. According to this section, women and children, members of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, and industrial workmen are eligible for free legal aid. Additionally, disabled persons, including those who are mentally ill or otherwise disabled, and persons in custody, which covers individuals in protective homes, juvenile homes, or psychiatric hospitals, are entitled to these services. The act also extends eligibility to victims of human trafficking or begar, victims of mass disasters, ethnic violence, caste atrocities, or natural disasters, and individuals whose annual income falls below the statutory limit prescribed by the respective state or central authorities.

Explanation

The 97th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2011 provided constitutional status and protection to cooperative societies. Under this amendment, Article 19(1)(c) of the Constitution of India was modified to make the right to form cooperative societies a fundamental right. The amendment also inserted a new Directive Principle of State Policy under Article 43B for the promotion of cooperative societies and introduced Part IXB, which spans Articles 243ZH to 243ZT. Specifically, Article 243ZN within this part mandates that the annual general meeting of every cooperative society must be convened within a period of six months from the close of the financial year.

Explanation

The official GPSC master answer key clearly highlights option (B) "1, 3 and 4 only" in yellow for Q149 on page 49. This implies the key-setters treat statement 2 (that only six Zonal Councils were created under the States Reorganization Act 1956) as false — since statement 4 itself notes the North Eastern Zonal Council was created later (via a separate 1971 Act), meaning only five zones were originally constituted in 1956. Statements 1, 3 and 4 are treated as correct per the key, making option B the official answer, even though the JSON dataset had recorded "C" and flagged a dispute.

Explanation

Article 345 of the Constitution of India provides that the Legislature of a State may by law adopt any one or more of the languages in use in the State or Hindi as the language or languages to be used for all or any of the official purposes of that State. This constitutional provision does not restrict the choice of official languages to the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution, which makes the second statement incorrect; states like Meghalaya, Nagaland, and Mizoram have adopted English as their official language, even though English is not listed in the Eighth Schedule.

Furthermore, Article 348(1) of the Constitution stipulates that until Parliament by law otherwise provides, all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be in the English language. This establishes that both statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

For equal intervals of time in compound interest, the accumulated amounts grow by a constant multiplier. This means the ratio of the amount at the end of 6 years to the amount at the end of 3 years is equal to the ratio of the amount at the end of 3 years to the initial principal sum.

This relation is expressed as: A₆ / A₃ = A₃ / P

Rearranging this formula to solve for the principal sum P: P = (A₃)² / A₆

Substituting the given values A₃ = 13380 and A₆ = 20070: P = (13380 × 13380) / 20070

Simplifying the fraction 13380 / 20070 by dividing both terms by 6690: 13380 / 20070 = 2/3

Substitute this ratio back into the calculation for P: P = 13380 × 2/3 P = 4460 × 2 P = 8920

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option D ("only 3") as correct for this question. Note that strict calculation shows some discrepancies: Statement 1 (350m train, 750m platform, 100 km/hr) actually takes 1100/(250/9) = 39.6s, not 25s as stated, so it is false. Statement 2 (750m train crossing a pole at 90 km/hr) actually takes 750/25 = 30s, not 6s, so it is false. Statement 3 (750m train, 350m platform, 90 km/hr) is closest to being true among the three, and the GPSC key designates it as the correct statement, making "only 3" (option D) the key-designated answer.

Explanation

The given series consists of terms formed by the product of two consecutive prime numbers in ascending order. The prime numbers are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, and so on.

Multiplying the consecutive prime pairs gives:

2 × 3 = 6 3 × 5 = 15 5 × 7 = 35 7 × 11 = 77 11 × 13 = 143 13 × 17 = 221

According to this pattern, the fourth term in the series must be 77. Since the series lists 63 instead of 77, it is the wrong number.

Explanation

Let B be the number of sons and G be the number of daughters in the family.

According to the first condition, each daughter has the same number of brothers as she has sisters. A daughter has G - 1 sisters and B brothers. This can be represented as: B = G - 1

According to the second condition, each son has twice as many sisters as he has brothers. A son has B - 1 brothers and G sisters. This can be represented as: G = 2 × (B - 1)

Substituting the value of G from the first equation into the second equation: B + 1 = 2B - 2 3 = B

Substituting B = 3 back into the first equation: G = 3 + 1 = 4

Thus, there are 3 sons and 4 daughters in the family.

Explanation

Let the four prime numbers in ascending order be p₁, p₂, p₃, and p₄.

We are given that: p₁ × p₂ × p₃ = 1001 p₂ × p₃ × p₄ = 2431

Dividing the second equation by the first equation: (p₂ × p₃ × p₄) / (p₁ × p₂ × p₃) = 2431 / 1001 p₄ / p₁ = 17 / 7

Since the fraction 17/7 is in its simplest form and both 17 and 7 are prime numbers, we can directly equate the terms: p₁ = 7 p₄ = 17

Substituting p₁ = 7 into the product of the first three primes: 7 × p₂ × p₃ = 1001 p₂ × p₃ = 143

The prime factorization of 143 is 11 × 13. Thus, the four prime numbers written in ascending order are 7, 11, 13, and 17. The first prime number is 7.

Explanation

The total horizontal displacement towards the east is 1 km + 2 km = 3 km.

The total vertical displacement is 9 km north minus 5 km south, which equals 4 km north.

By applying the Pythagorean theorem, the straight-line distance from the origin is:

Distance = √(3² + 4²) = √(9 + 16) = √25 = 5 km

Explanation

The relationship in the given pair is based on Shape : Object, where the first word describes the characteristic three-dimensional geometric shape of the object represented by the second word. Just as the Earth is round in shape, a dice is a cube.

Explanation

Let the present ages of the father and daughter be 3x and x respectively.

Four years ago, their ages were 3x - 4 and x - 4. According to the given ratio:

(3x - 4) / (x - 4) = 4 / 1

By cross-multiplying:

3x - 4 = 4(x - 4) 3x - 4 = 4x - 16 x = 12

The present average age of the father and daughter is:

(3x + x) / 2 = 2x

Substituting x = 12, the present average age is 2(12) = 24 years.

Since the age of each person increases by 2 years after 2 years, the average age also increases by exactly 2 years. Therefore, the average age 2 years hence will be:

24 + 2 = 26 years

Explanation

The coding pattern involves adding 2 to the alphabetical position value of each letter in the word.

For the word RED: R is the 18th letter: 18 + 2 = 20 E is the 5th letter: 5 + 2 = 7 D is the 4th letter: 4 + 2 = 6 Combining these gives the code 2076.

Applying the same pattern to the word GREEN: G is the 7th letter: 7 + 2 = 9 R is the 18th letter: 18 + 2 = 20 E is the 5th letter: 5 + 2 = 7 E is the 5th letter: 5 + 2 = 7 N is the 14th letter: 14 + 2 = 16

Combining these values in sequence gives the code 9207716.

Explanation

Using the standard relationship between two numbers and their HCF and LCM: Product of two numbers = HCF × LCM

Let the two numbers be A and B, where A = P. Substituting the given values: P × B = P(x - y) × (x + y)

Dividing both sides by P: B = (x - y)(x + y)

Using the algebraic identity (a - b)(a + b) = a² - b²: B = x² - y²

Explanation

Based on the given family and professional details, we can trace the structure and relationships of the eight family members (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W) across three generations:

Genders and Siblings: The females are U, W, R, and S, while the males are P, Q, T, and V. V and R are the only siblings in the family. S is V’s daughter, which puts V in Generation 1 or 2, and S in Generation 2 or 3.

Family Tree and Generation Setup: Since Q has a maternal grandfather who works with C, Q is in Generation 3. This grandfather (a male working with C) must be V, who belongs to Generation 1. Since V and R are siblings, R also belongs to Generation 1. The three married couples are: Generation 1 Couple: V (male, works with C) married to U (female, works with A). Generation 1 Couple: R (female, works with B) married to T (male, works with H). Generation 2 Couple: S (female, daughter of V) married to P (male). Generation 3 (unmarried): Q (male, son of S, works with D) and W (female, daughter of R).

Companies and Generations: The person who works with A is the mother of the female who works with F. Since U is the mother of S, U works with A, and S works with F. The person who works with G (female) and the one who works with E (male) belong to the same generation. Looking at the generations: Generation 1: V (C), U (A), R (B), T (H). No one is available for G and E. Generation 2: S (F) and P (male, spouse of S). S already works with F, so the pair cannot be in Generation 2. Generation 3: Q (works with D) and W (female). Since they belong to the same generation, and Q works with D, the male working with E must be P from Generation 2, which means W (female) and P (male) belong to Generation 2? No, if W is in Generation 2 (as a child of R and T) and P is in Generation 2 (husband of S), they belong to the same generation (Generation 2). This means the female W works with G, and the male P works with E. This perfectly satisfies the generation and gender conditions.

Explanation

Let us determine the genders of all eight members of the family (P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, and W): V has a daughter S, which means S is female and V is male. Since U, W, R, and S are of the same gender, they are all females. This leaves P, Q, T, and V as males. Since there are three married couples and two unmarried individuals, we have exactly four females and four males.

Next, we establish the generations and relationships: V and R are the only siblings, belonging to Generation 1. R works with B. V works with C, and is the maternal grandfather of Q (who works with D). This means Q belongs to Generation 3, and Q's mother must be V's daughter. V's daughter is S, which makes S (Generation 2) the mother of Q (Generation 3). Since the person who works with A is the mother of the female who works with F, U works with A and S works with F. V and U are married, forming the first couple: V (male) = U (female). Since R is V's sister in Generation 1, she is married to T (who works with H), forming the second couple: R (female) = T (male). Their daughter is W (female, Generation 2), who is unmarried. S (female, Generation 2) is married to P (male, Generation 2), forming the third couple: S (female) = P (male). Their child is Q (male, Generation 3).

Finally, we assign the remaining companies: The person working with G is female and the person working with E is male, and they belong to the same generation (Generation 2). Since W and P are the remaining members in Generation 2, W (female) works with G and P (male) works with E. As P is married to S, S is the spouse of the person working with E.

Explanation

V has a daughter S, which means V is Male and S is Female. Since U, W, R, and S share the same gender, they are all Females. Consequently, the remaining four members, P, Q, T, and V, are Males.

We can identify the companies of the Males as follows: Q works with D. T works with H. V does not work with E. The person working with E is Male, which must be P. The maternal grandfather of Q works with C and must be Male, leaving V as the only option. Thus, V works with C and is the maternal grandfather of Q.

Since V is in the first generation, his wife must be a Female. The Females are U, W, R (V's sibling), and S (V's daughter). Since V cannot marry R or S, and it is given that W and V do not form a married couple, V must be married to U.

Explanation

By carefully analyzing the family tree structure and clues, we can uniquely determine the relationships and company mappings:

Generation and Family Tree Structure Since there are three generations, three married couples, and two unmarried individuals, and each couple has at least one child, the family must have two married couples in Generation 1, one married couple in Generation 2, and two unmarried members across Generations 2 and 3. Since V and R are the only siblings in the family, they must belong to Generation 1. V's daughter is S (Generation 2). S is married to P (Generation 2), and their child is Q (Generation 3). R is married to T (Generation 1), and they have an unmarried daughter, W (Generation 2). V is the maternal grandfather of Q (as Q's mother is S, and S's father is V).

Genders S is V's daughter, making S female. Since U, W, R, and S share the same gender, all four are female. V is male, and his wife U is female. R's husband T is male. S's husband P is male.

Company Mappings V is the maternal grandfather of Q who works with C. Thus, V works with C. R works with B. Q works with D. T works with H. The person who works with A is the mother of the female who works with F. Since S (female) is the daughter of U (V's wife), U works with A and S works with F. The female working with G (W) and the male working with E (P) belong to the same generation (Generation 2). Thus, W works with G and P works with E.

Summary of Company Assignments: U: A R: B V: C Q: D P: E S: F W: G T: H

Thus, U works with A is definitely true.

Explanation

To find the ratio of nickel and copper in the new alloy Z, we can standardize the total quantity of the two alloys.

In alloy P, the ratio of copper to nickel is 2:7, which gives a total of 9 parts. In alloy Q, the ratio of copper to nickel is 7:11, which gives a total of 18 parts.

To mix equal quantities, we can take the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the total parts, which is LCM(9, 18) = 18.

Multiplying the terms of the ratio in alloy P by 2 to make its total parts equal to 18, we get: Copper in P = 2 × 2 = 4 units Nickel in P = 7 × 2 = 14 units

In 18 units of alloy Q, the quantities remain: Copper in Q = 7 units Nickel in Q = 11 units

Combining equal quantities of P and Q to form Z: Total copper in Z = 4 + 7 = 11 units Total nickel in Z = 14 + 11 = 25 units

The ratio of nickel to copper in Z is therefore 25:11.

Explanation

For statement 1, in a trapezium where the non-parallel sides are equal (an isosceles trapezium), the base angles are equal. Since the parallel sides are cut by transversals, the interior angles on the same side are supplementary, meaning angle A + angle D = 180° and angle B + angle C = 180°. Since the base angles are equal (angle A = angle B and angle C = angle D), it follows that the opposite angles are supplementary (angle A + angle C = 180° and angle B + angle D = 180°). Any quadrilateral with supplementary opposite angles is a cyclic quadrilateral.

For statement 2, a fundamental property of any parallelogram is that its diagonals bisect each other. This can be proved using the congruency of the triangles formed by the intersection of the diagonals.

For statement 3, only the consecutive interior angles lying along the non-parallel sides are supplementary due to the parallel lines. The adjacent angles sharing a parallel side (base) are not supplementary in a general trapezium, making this statement false in general.

Explanation

Let 2ˣ = 3ʸ = 12ᶻ = k.

From this, we get: 2 = k⁽1/x) 3 = k⁽1/y) 12 = k⁽1/z)

We know the relation: 12 = 2² × 3

Substituting the values in terms of k: k⁽1/z) = (k⁽1/x))² × k⁽1/y) k⁽1/z) = k⁽2/x) × k⁽1/y) k⁽1/z) = k⁽2/x + 1/y)

By comparing the exponents of k on both sides: 1/z = 2/x + 1/y

Rearranging the terms: 1/z - 1/y = 2/x

Explanation

To find the day of the week on 1ˢᵗ July, 1901, we calculate the total number of odd days up to this date.

First, we split the period into two parts: up to 31ˢᵗ December 1900, and from 1ˢᵗ January 1901 to 1ˢᵗ July 1901.

For the period up to 1900: Number of odd days in 1600 years = 0 Number of odd days in 300 years = 1 Thus, total odd days up to 31ˢᵗ December 1900 = 1 odd day.

For the period in 1901 (non-leap year) up to 1ˢᵗ July: January: 31 days (3 odd days) February: 28 days (0 odd days) March: 31 days (3 odd days) April: 30 days (2 odd days) May: 31 days (3 odd days) June: 30 days (2 odd days) July: 1 day (1 odd day)

Total odd days in 1901 = 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 1 = 14 days = 0 odd days.

Adding the odd days from both parts: Total odd days = 1 + 0 = 1 odd day.

Since 1 odd day corresponds to Monday, 1ˢᵗ July, 1901 was a Monday.

Explanation

The ratio of investments of P, Q, and R is 40000 : 50000 : 60000 = 4 : 5 : 6. The sum of these parts is 15.

Let the total profit for the year be T.

P gets 25% of the profit for managing the business, which is 0.25T. The remaining 75% of the profit, 0.75T, is divided among P, Q, and R in the ratio 4 : 5 : 6.

P's share from the remaining profit is (4 / 15) × 0.75T = 0.20T. Q's share from the remaining profit is (5 / 15) × 0.75T = 0.25T. R's share from the remaining profit is (6 / 15) × 0.75T = 0.30T.

The total amount received by P is 0.25T + 0.20T = 0.45T. The total amount received by Q and R together is 0.25T + 0.30T = 0.55T.

The difference between the amount received by Q and R together and the amount received by P is Rs. 2000: 0.55T - 0.45T = 2000 0.10T = 2000 T = 20000

Explanation

The statement that Shirin and her parents live in an apartment must be true because the parents support their refusal to get a dog by explaining that a dog would not be happy in an apartment. This reason directly implies that their current place of residence is an apartment.

Explanation

Total number of balls in the drawer is 3 + 4 + 5 = 12.

The probability of drawing a red ball on the first attempt is: P(Red first) = 3/12

Since the drawn ball is not replaced, the total number of balls remaining in the drawer becomes 11. The number of blue balls in the drawer is still 5.

The probability of drawing a blue ball on the second attempt, given that the first ball drawn was red, is: P(Blue second | Red first) = 5/11

The joint probability that the first ball is red and the second ball is blue is the product of these dependent probabilities: P(Red first and Blue second) = P(Red first) × P(Blue second | Red first) = (3/12) × (5/11) = (1/4) × (5/11) = 5/44

Explanation

The five parking spaces from first to last correspond to the executives in the order of CEO (1st), President (2nd), Vice-President (3rd), Secretary (4th), and Treasurer (5th).

According to the clues, the car in the first space (CEO) is red, and the car in the last space (Treasurer) is purple. Since a blue car is parked between the red car and the green car, the blue car must be in the second space (President), and the green car must be in the third space (Vice-President). This leaves the yellow car for the fourth space (Secretary), which is consistent with the clue that the secretary drives a yellow car. Therefore, the vice-president's car, parked in the third space, is green.

Explanation

The order of the five parking spaces, from first to last, corresponds to the hierarchy: CEO, President, Vice-president, Secretary, and Treasurer.

First, we determine the color of the car in each space: The car in the first space is Red. The car in the last space (fifth) is Purple. Since a Blue car is parked between the Red (first) and Green cars, the second space must be Blue, and the third space must be Green. The remaining fourth space is Yellow, which matches the clue that the secretary drives a yellow car.

Next, we identify the owner in each space: S's car is parked in the last space (fifth). T drives the Green car, which is in the third space. P's car is parked next to S's, so P must be in the fourth space. Q's car is between R's and T's. Since T is in the third space, Q must be in the second space, placing R in the first space.

Since R occupies the first space, R is the CEO.

Explanation

To determine the identity of the secretary, we first assign the car colors to the five sequential parking spaces (1 to 5) corresponding to CEO, president, vice-president, secretary, and treasurer.

The first space (CEO) has the red car. Since the blue car is parked between the red and green cars, the blue car is in the second space (president) and the green car is in the third space (vice-president). The fifth space (treasurer) has the purple car. This leaves the fourth space (secretary) with the yellow car, which matches the clue that the secretary drives a yellow car.

Next, we map the names of the executives to these spaces. T drives the green car, which places T in the third space. S is in the last space, which is the fifth space. Since Q's car is parked between R's and T's, Q must be in the second space and R in the first space. P's car is parked next to S's, placing P in the fourth space.

Since the fourth space belongs to the secretary, P is the secretary.

Explanation

The relationship between Marked Price (MP) and Cost Price (CP) when profit percentage and discount percentage are known is given by the formula:

MP / CP = (100 + Profit%) / (100 - Discount%)

Substituting the given values into the formula:

MP / 2500 = (100 + 32) / (100 - 12)

MP / 2500 = 132 / 88

Dividing the numerator and the denominator of the fraction on the right by 44:

MP / 2500 = 3 / 2

MP = 2500 × 1.5

MP = 3750