GPSC Prelims 2021 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct as Mohenjodaro is located on the right (west) bank of the Indus River in the Larkana District of Sindh, Pakistan.

Statement 2 is correct because Lothal, a major port city of the civilization, is situated at the head of the Gulf of Cambay (Khambhat) on the west coast of India, positioned near the Sabarmati River and its tributary Bhogavo.

Statement 3 is correct because Kalibangan is situated in the Hanumangarh district of Rajasthan, which lies northwest of Delhi, along the left bank of the now-dry Ghaggar River.

Statement 4 is incorrect because Harappa is located on the banks of the Ravi River (specifically on its old bed), rather than the Beas River.

Explanation

The Seleucid Empire, founded by Seleucus I Nicator following the division of Alexander the Great's empire, was a major Hellenistic state. At its greatest extent, after the Battle of Corupedium in 281 BC, the empire stretched from Thrace in Europe, across Anatolia, the Levant, Mesopotamia, and Persia, all the way to the borders of northwestern India along the Indus River.

Bactria was an ancient historical region located north of the Hindu Kush and south of the Amu Darya river. Historically ruled by Seleucus, this region corresponds to modern-day northern Afghanistan, along with parts of Tajikistan and Uzbekistan.

The Seleucid-Mauryan War from 305 to 303 BC ended with a peace treaty highly favorable to Chandragupta Maurya. Instead of declining, the Mauryan Empire expanded its territories into Arachosia, Gedrosia, and Paropamisadae in exchange for 500 war elephants, cementing Mauryan dominance over the Indian subcontinent. The decline of the Mauryan Empire did not occur until 185 BC, more than a century after this conflict.

Explanation

The Indus Valley Civilization was primarily characterized by its highly advanced urban planning, grid-patterned streets, and sophisticated drainage systems. However, early Harappan and pre-Harappan sites like Kunal in Haryana represent a rural village setup of farming communities that transitioned over time into these urban centers.

Furthermore, Gujarat has yielded the highest number of Indus Valley Civilization sites in India, including major settlements such as Lothal, Dholavira, Surkotada, and Rangpur. In contrast, Rajasthan has comparatively fewer sites, with Kalibangan being the most prominent.

Regarding the first statement, fire-altars were not completely absent in the Indus Valley Civilization. Archaeological excavations at sites like Kalibangan and Lothal have revealed distinct clay structures identified as fire-altars, indicating that some form of ritualistic fire worship existed well before the Vedic Age.

Explanation

The Mehrauli Iron Pillar inscription in Delhi mentions the military victories of a king named Chandra, who is widely identified as Chandragupta II. It states that he set up the pillar as a dhvaja (standard) in honour of Lord Vishnu on the hill called Vishnupadagiri.

The Eran Pillar inscription in Madhya Pradesh is dated to the Gupta Year 191, which corresponds to 510 AD, during the reign of the Gupta king Bhanugupta. It records that the wife of Bhanugupta's general Goparaja immolated herself on his funeral pyre after he died in battle, representing the earliest epigraphic record of Sati (Satipratha) in India.

The Junagadh Rock Inscription of the Gupta period records the repair of the Sudarshana Lake by the Gupta emperor Skandagupta and his local administrators, Parnadatta and Chakrapalita, rather than Samudragupta.

Explanation

Saint Tukaram played a pivotal role in the Bhakti movement of Maharashtra, composing devotional Abhangas that criticized the caste system and social inequalities, which helped foster a sense of social unity and laid the cultural and social foundation for Maratha nationalism. Chaitanya Mahaprabhu, born as Vishvambhar and widely known as Sri Gauranga, was a transformative 16th-century Vaishnava saint from Bengal who initiated the Gaudiya Vaishnavism movement and propagated the devotion of Radha and Krishna through community singing and sankirtanas. The Chishti order, introduced to India by Khwaja Moinuddin Chishti in Ajmer during the late 12th century, was indeed the first major Sufi silsila to establish a widespread presence in the Indian subcontinent. Gujarat served as a highly prominent region for Sufism, hosting various influential spiritual leaders from both the Chishti and Suhrawardi orders who established important khanqahs and deeply influenced the regional spiritual landscape.

Explanation

Bhatarka, the founder of the Maitraka dynasty of Valabhi, was originally a military commander (Senapati) appointed by the imperial Guptas to govern the Saurashtra region of Gujarat. He established his dynasty around 475 CE but continued to use the title of Senapati, acknowledging nominal Gupta suzerainty.

The Valabhi Era, utilized extensively by the Maitraka rulers, is identical to the Gupta Era, starting around 318 to 319 CE.

The Maitraka ruler Dhruvasena II reigned much later, from around 627 to 641 CE. He was a contemporary of King Harshavardhana of Kanauj, whose daughter he married. In contrast, the imperial Gupta emperor Budhagupta ruled during the late fifth century (around 476 to 495 CE), making them non-contemporaries.

Explanation

The Vaghela dynasty began their political journey as feudatories and generals under the Solankis, also known as the Chaulukyas of Anahilavada. They eventually assumed independent control over Gujarat as the main branch of the Chaulukya dynasty weakened.

Jayasimha Siddharaja, the prominent ruler of the Chaulukya dynasty of Gujarat, maintained an active military presence against rival regional powers, which brought him into direct conflict with the Western Chalukya ruler Vikramaditya VI of Kalyana. Inscriptions from both dynasties, such as the Talwada inscription of Jayasimha, record their respective claims of military campaigns and clashes against one another.

Explanation

In the early 18th century, the Maratha Empire aggressively expanded its influence over Gujarat. Under the leadership of Pilaji Gaekwad, the founder of the Gaekwad dynasty of Baroda, Maratha forces penetrated as far south as the rich port city of Surat in 1723.

According to regional historical chronicles like the Mirat-i-Ahmadi, 1723 marked the first year in which the Marathas successfully levied a regular tribute (Chauth) on the province of Gujarat, transitioning from sporadic predatory raids to a systematic and institutionalized revenue extraction.

In late 1725 and early 1726, the newly appointed Mughal governor of Gujarat, Sarbuland Khan, attempted to assert imperial control and expel the Marathas. However, the combined military pressure from Pilaji Gaekwad and Kanthaji Kadam Bande overwhelmed the imperial forces. Ultimately, Sarbuland Khan was defeated and compelled to sign a treaty in May 1726, formally conceding the Maratha claims to collect Chauth and Sardeshmukhi across the subah of Gujarat.

Explanation

During his tenure as the Governor-General of Bengal (1793 to 1798), Sir John Shore strictly adhered to the policy of neutrality and non-intervention in the affairs of the native Indian princely states, largely following the guidelines of the Pitt's India Act of 1784. This policy was put to the test during the conflict between the Maratha Empire and the Nizam of Hyderabad. Despite the existing treaties and the Nizam's reliance on British protection, Shore refused to intervene or provide military assistance to the Nizam when the Marathas attacked. As a result of this non-interventionist stance, the Nizam was left to face the Maratha forces alone and suffered a decisive defeat at the Battle of Kharda in 1795.

Explanation

Satyajit Ray was a legendary Indian filmmaker who received numerous prestigious national and international accolades for his monumental contributions to cinema and arts. Over his career, he was honored with all of India's major civilian and film-related awards. He received the Padma Shri in 1958, followed by the Padma Bhushan in 1965 and the Padma Vibhushan in 1976. Furthermore, he was conferred with the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, India's highest honor in cinema, in 1984. In 1992, he was awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award.

Explanation

Bhikaji Cama is widely acknowledged as the Mother of Indian Revolutionaries due to her extensive support of the revolutionary movement and her historic act of hoisting the first Indian national flag on foreign soil in Stuttgart, Germany, in 1907.

Colonel James Neill, commonly referred to as Colonel Oncell in competitive exam reference curricula, was the British officer who suppressed the rebellion and recaptured Banaras in June 1857.

Lord Canning, rather than Lord Illington, was the actual final Governor-General under the East India Company, serving from 1856 to 1858 before becoming the first Viceroy.

Explanation

The Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946 proposed the setting up of an Interim Government consisting of representatives of major political parties, which would remain in office while the Constituent Assembly drafted the new Constitution.

Under the same plan, the three groups of provinces (Sections A, B, and C) were to possess separate constitutions rather than a single constitution. Additionally, all residuary powers were to be vested in the provinces, while the central Union of India was restricted to only foreign affairs, defence, and communications.

Explanation

Regarding the history and administrative evolution of Kachchh, all three statements are correct.

The ruler of Kutch, Maharao Vijayaraji, signed the Instrument of Accession on 11 August 1947, making it one of the first princely states to formally join the Dominion of India.

Upon the enforcement of the Constitution of India on 26 January 1950, Kutch was classified as a Part C state, which placed its administration under the direct control of the Central Government through a Chief Commissioner.

Under the States Reorganisation Act of 1956, a newly expanded bilingual Bombay State was created on 1 November 1956, at which point Kutch ceased to exist as a separate state and became Kutch district within the Bombay State.

Explanation

Gopaldas Ambaidas Desai, popularly known as Darbar Gopaldas Desai, was a progressive ruler of the Dhasa State in Saurashtra and a prominent Gandhian activist. By 1921, he had joined the Indian National Congress and was appointed as the president of the Kheda District Congress Committee. Following his deposition by the British due to his active involvement in the nationalist movement, he dedicated himself to the freedom struggle. He actively participated in the Borsad Satyagraha of 1923 and the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928 as a key organizer alongside Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel. To promote female literacy and empowerment, he and his wife, Bhaktiba, founded residential schools for girls: Vitthal Kanya Vidyalaya at Nadiad in 1935 and Vallabh Kanya Vidyalaya at Rajkot in 1946.

Explanation

The Indian National Congress was established in December 1885. All three political associations listed were founded before this landmark event.

The Poona Sarvajanik Sabha was established in 1870 by Mahadev Govind Ranade, Ganesh Vasudeo Joshi, and others to act as a mediating body between the government and the people.

The Indian Association of Calcutta was founded in 1876 by Surendranath Banerjee and Ananda Mohan Bose, serving as one of the most important nationalist organizations of pre-Congress India.

The Madras Mahajan Sabha was formed in May 1884 by M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer, and P. Anandacharlu to represent public opinion and coordinate political activities in the Madras Presidency.

Explanation

The execution room in the Shahibaug cantonment area of Ahmedabad, where the rebellious sepoys were hanged during the revolt of 1857, is historically known as Fansi Ghar. The mutiny in Ahmedabad was successfully suppressed and quelled by Captain Rutherford. Additionally, only 21 rebellious sepoys of the 2nd Grenadiers and 7th Native Infantry Grenadiers were executed at the cantonment in Shahibaug, rather than 210.

Explanation

The last ruler of the Sunga dynasty, Devabhuti, was assassinated around 73 BCE by his Brahmana minister, Vasudeva Kanva, who then ascended the throne and established the Kanva dynasty.

The Kanva dynasty ruled for a short period before its last king, Susharman, was killed and deposed around 28 BCE by the Andhra dynasty, also known as the Satavahanas, who subsequently established their rule in the region.

Explanation

Panchasar served as the ancient capital of King Jayasekhara, a prominent ruler of the Chavda dynasty whose territory was located in northern Gujarat.

The medieval Jain chronicle Prabandha-Chintamani, composed by Merutunga Suri in 1304 CE, states that Jayasekhara's son, Vanaraja Chavda, founded the city of Anhilpur Patan and ruled for a long tenure of 60 years, spanning from 746 to 806 CE.

The Navasari Copper plate inscription of 739 CE, which describes the decisive defeat of Arab invaders, was issued by the Chalukya governor Avanijanashraya Pulakeshin of the Navasarika branch, rather than Mulraja.

Explanation

Uchharangrai Navalshankar Dhebar (U.N. Dhebar) was a prominent leader of the Rajkot Praja Parishad. After the death of the reformist ruler Thakore Lakhajiraj in 1930, his successor Dharmendra Singhji and Dewan Virawala mismanaged the state's administration and finances. To generate revenue, the state began selling exclusive monopolies on basic commodities like matches, sugar, rice, and entertainment licenses to private merchants. This resulted in steep price hikes and severe economic hardship for local traders and citizens. In response, the local Rajkot Praja Parishad initiated a movement in 1934 under the leadership of U.N. Dhebar to oppose these state-imposed monopolies and demand a more accountable and representative government.

Explanation

Visaladeva Vaghela, the first independent sovereign of the Vaghela dynasty, successfully led military campaigns against the Paramaras of Malwa and sacked their capital, Dhara, during the reign of the Paramara king Jaitugideva.

Vastupala and Tejpal served as prominent ministers during the regime of the Vaghela ruler Viradhavala. Under his administration, they patronized and constructed magnificent Jain temples at sacred sites, including the Girnar and Shatrunjaya hills.

The Sultan of Delhi, Alauddin Khalji, sent a military force under his prominent slave general, Malik Kafur, to attack Devagiri (Devgadh) to capture Princess Devaladevi, the daughter of the last Vaghela king, Karandev. Alaf Khan (Alp Khan) was the governor of Gujarat and the Sultan's brother-in-law, not his slave general.

Explanation

The Dhandusar inscription, dated to Vikram Samvat 1445 (1389 CE), is a key epigraph of the Chudasama dynasty located in Saurashtra, Gujarat. Found in a stepwell at Dhandusar, this inscription provides historical and genealogical details of the rulers, explicitly identifying Chudachandra (also known as Chuda of the Samma tribe) as the founder of the Chudasama dynasty.

Explanation

Maharaja Takhatsinhji of Bhavnagar inaugurated a system of constitutional rule in 1886 by placing several administrative departments under a newly established council of state consisting of four members under his own presidency.

Prince Lakhdhirji Thakor succeeded to the throne of Morbi State following the death of his father, Maharaja Sir Waghji II Ravaji (commonly known as Waghjee Thakor), in 1922.

Sir Waghjee was a highly progressive ruler who oversaw the modernization of Morbi, which included developing a seventy-mile network of roads and railway lines connecting Wadhwan with Morbi to facilitate trade and transport.

Explanation

Lakhajiraj, the Thakore Saheb of Rajkot State (1907–1930), was a highly progressive and visionary ruler who introduced several democratic and social reforms:

He established the Rajkot Praja Pratinidhi Sabha (People's Representative Assembly) in 1923. It consisted of 90 members elected on the basis of universal adult franchise, including reserved seats for women, fostering public participation in governance.

To provide easy credit and financial assistance to farmers, he established the State Havala Bank, which functioned as the Agriculture Bank of the state.

He actively championed women's education and social welfare, establishing specialized educational institutions and starting dedicated libraries for women to encourage female literacy.

The Kathiawad High School (where Mahatma Gandhi studied) was founded and renamed Alfred High School in 1907 by the British administration (Western India States Agency) rather than being taken over and renamed by Lakhajiraj.

Explanation

The first Buddhist council was convened in 483 BC at the Saptaparni Cave in Rajgriha, immediately after the death of the Buddha, under the patronage of King Ajatashatru to preserve the teachings of the Buddha. The third Buddhist council took place at Pataliputra around 250 BC under the patronage of Maurya Emperor Ashoka, where the Buddhist canon was compiled into the Tripitaka. The fourth Buddhist council was organized in Kashmir in 72 AD under the patronage of the Kushan Emperor Kanishka, which resulted in the division of Buddhism into Hinayana and Mahayana sects.

Explanation

Harshavardhana led a successful military campaign against the Maitraka dynasty, defeating their ruler Dhruvasena II of Valabhi. Following the defeat, Harsha established friendly relations with him and gave his daughter in marriage to Dhruvasena II, turning him into an ally.

Additionally, Harshavardhana was known for his grand religious assemblies and immense charity. He convened a grand assembly known as the Mahamoksha Parishad at Prayag (modern-day Prayagraj) every five years. During this assembly, which lasted for several days, he distributed his accumulated wealth, possessions, and royal treasures in charity to Buddhists, Brahmins, and the needy.

Explanation

Bhavnagar state was the pioneer in Gujarat in establishing a dedicated drinking water reservoir, Gaurishankar Lake (famously known as Bor Talav), constructed in 1872 under the guidance of Diwan Gaurishankar Oza to resolve the region's drinking water crisis.

Maharaja Ranjitsinhji of Jamnagar (Nawanagar) is universally recognized as one of the greatest batsmen in the history of cricket. He played Test cricket for England, popularized revolutionary batting techniques like the leg glance, and is the namesake of India's premier domestic tournament, the Ranji Trophy.

Thakore Saheb Sir Lakhajiraj, the progressive ruler of Rajkot, founded the Rajkot Praja Pratinidhi Sabha in 1923 on the basis of universal adult franchise and reserved five seats specifically for women to encourage female representation and political participation.

Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III of Baroda founded the world-renowned Baroda Museum and Picture Gallery in Kamatibaug. The construction of the main museum building was completed and opened to the public in the year 1894.

Explanation

Maharaja Rana Shri Sir Natwarsinhji Bhavsinhji was the last ruling Maharaja of the princely state of Porbandar in Gujarat, belonging to the Jethwa dynasty, and ruled until the state merged into the United State of Kathiawar in 1948.

He was appointed the captain of the Indian cricket team for its historic first Test tour of England in 1932. Showing immense sportsmanship, he stood down from leading the playing eleven in the actual Test match in favor of the more talented C. K. Nayudu.

Apart from being an administrator and cricketer, he was an accomplished musician, painter, and writer. His notable literary works include the books From the Flow of Life published in 1967, India's Problems: Reflections of an Ex-Ruler published in 1970, and International Solidarity published in 1975.

Explanation

Statement 4, which had been dropped from the question text by an OCR error, reads: "Treaty of Purandar was negotiated by Shivaji with Raja Jai Singh" (Mirza Raja Jai Singh negotiated the June 1665 treaty on behalf of Aurangzeb). As per the official answer key, of the four statements only statement 1 (grant of a mansab to Shivaji's minor son Sambhaji) is treated as part of the actual Treaty of Purandar, while statements 2, 3 and 4 are treated as not part of it. Hence the statements NOT part of the Treaty of Purandar are 2, 3 and 4, i.e., option (C).

Explanation

Kanishka the Great ruled a vast Kushan empire that bridged Central Asia and the Indian subcontinent. In the northwest, his dominion extended into Central Asia, encompassing the oasis city-state of Khotan in the Tarim Basin. In the eastern direction, his authority stretched deep into the Gangetic plains, as evidenced by Kushan inscriptions and coins discovered as far as Benares. In the north, Kashmir was a vital part of his empire, serving as the venue for the historic Fourth Buddhist Council. To the south, Kushan hegemony extended into Saurashtra and Malwa, regions administered by the Western Kshatrapas who acknowledged Kanishka's suzerainty.

Explanation

The Rampa Rebellion of 1922 to 1924, led by Alluri Sitarama Raju in the Madras Presidency, was a direct struggle against the Madras Forest Act of 1882. This British legislation imposed restrictive forest laws that prohibited tribal communities from practicing their traditional podu (shifting) cultivation and restricted their access to forest produce.

Bankim Chandra Chatterjee wrote his highly influential novel Anandamath in 1882, which is set against the backdrop of the Sanyasi Rebellion that occurred in Bengal in the late 18th century. This novel also popularized the patriotic song Vande Mataram.

During the Munda Rebellion or Ulgulan of 1899 to 1900 in the Chhotanagpur region, Birsa Munda declared himself as a messenger and representative of God. He claimed to possess miraculous healing powers and sought to establish a Munda Raj, mobilizing his people against the oppressive British administration and exploitative landlords.

Explanation

The Ilbert Bill was introduced in 1883 during the tenure of Viceroy Lord Ripon and was drafted by Sir Courtenay Ilbert, the legal member of the Viceroy's Executive Council. The primary objective of the bill was to remove racial discrimination in the judicial system of British India by granting senior Indian magistrates and sessions judges the authority to try European British subjects in criminal cases. Prior to this, Indian members of the covenanted civil service were barred from presiding over trials involving Europeans, creating a clear racial disparity in judicial jurisdiction. The bill aimed to establish judicial equality and bring Indian and European judges on par regarding criminal jurisdiction.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel actively participated in and led several pivotal satyagrahis during the Indian national movement.

In the Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, he worked as Mahatma Gandhi's chief deputy, leading the campaign to support local peasants who demanded the suspension of land revenue assessments following crop failures and famine.

In the Nagpur Flag Satyagraha of 1923, Patel took charge of the protest, successfully organizing volunteers to defy colonial restrictions on hoisting the national flag, which ultimately forced the British administration to negotiate and permit the processions.

In the Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, Patel played the primary leadership role by organizing a highly successful non-tax campaign against an arbitrary increase in land revenue, which earned him the title of Sardar.

He was arrested on March 7, 1930, prior to the commencement of the Dandi March, and was in prison when the Dharasana Satyagraha took place in May 1930.

Explanation

The Portuguese arrived in India in 1498 when Vasco da Gama reached Calicut, making them the first Europeans to establish direct maritime trade routes and settlements in India.

The Dutch officially left India in 1825 after transferring all their Indian territories to the British under the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1824, making them the first European power to exit India, ahead of the Danes in 1845, the French in 1954, and the Portuguese in 1961.

The three Carnatic Wars fought between 1746 and 1763 decisively crushed French territorial and political ambitions in India, establishing British dominance over their French rivals.

The historic Treaty of Allahabad, which granted the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the English East India Company, was signed in 1765 following the Battle of Buxar, making the statement with the year 1865 incorrect.

Explanation

Keshub Chandra Sen was an influential leader of the Brahmo Samaj who joined the movement in 1857. Under his leadership, the Samaj actively campaigned for social reforms, particularly focusing on the liberation and education of women. He established the Bamabodhini Patrika, a journal dedicated to women education, and worked towards ending child marriage while promoting widow remarriage.

Vinoba Bhave established the Sarvodaya Samaj in March 1948 in the wake of Mahatma Gandhi death. The organization aimed to realize Gandhi vision of a classless and casteless society based on non-violence. In its initial years, the Samaj focused heavily on providing relief and rehabilitation services to refugees displaced by the Partition of India.

Lala Lajpat Rai was an influential leader of the Arya Samaj and a strong advocate of its principles, which were rooted in the supreme authority of the Vedas. He did not oppose this appeal to Vedic authority; instead, he actively propagated it and helped establish the Dayanand Anglo-Vedic educational institutions to integrate Vedic education with modern sciences.

Explanation

Gautamiputra Satakarni, the powerful Satavahana king, defeated and overthrew the Western Kshatrapa ruler Nahapana. This historical event is attested by archaeological evidence, particularly the Jogalthambi hoard near Nashik, which contains thousands of silver coins of Nahapana overstruck by Gautamiputra Satakarni.

The Maitraka dynasty ruled the Kingdom of Valabhi (modern Vallabhi) from 475 CE to 776 CE. This timeline directly covers the 7th century and the first half of the 8th century.

Senapati Bhatarka was indeed a general and military governor of Saurashtra, but his service was under the Gupta Empire rather than the Mauryan Empire. He established independent rule in Saurashtra around 475 CE as the Gupta Empire began to collapse. This makes the third statement incorrect and leaves statements 1 and 2 as the only correct statements.

Explanation

Chastana was the founder of the Kardamaka dynasty of the Western Kshatrapas and ruled over the region of Malwa with Ujjain as his capital.

Rudradaman I, the grandson of Chastana, was the most celebrated Saka ruler. According to his famous Junagadh rock inscription, his vast empire extended over Kathiawar, Konkan, the Narmada valley, Malwa, and other parts of Gujarat.

Chandragupta II, rather than Samudragupta, defeated the final Saka ruler of the Western Kshatrapas, Rudrasimha III, annexed his kingdom into the Gupta Empire, and subsequently assumed the title of Vikramaditya.

Explanation

The differences between the moderates and the extremists first surfaced noticeably during the Banaras Session of the Indian National Congress in 1905, presided over by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, over the scope and methods of the Swadeshi and Boycott movements.

The 1907 session was originally scheduled to be held in Pune, which was a stronghold of the extremists. To prevent Bal Gangadhar Tilak from becoming the president, the moderates shifted the venue to Surat, since a leader from the host province could not preside over the session according to Congress conventions.

Rash Behari Ghosh was elected as the president of the Surat session, not Bal Gangadhar Tilak. The deep-seated ideological differences and clash over the presidency between the two factions ultimately culminated in the historic Surat Split of 1907, which divided the Congress.

Explanation

Vasudev Balwant Phadke, widely regarded as the father of the Indian armed rebellion, worked as a clerk in the Military Accounts Department in Pune. Deeply moved by the devastating impact of the Deccan famine of 1876-1877 and British economic policies, he resigned from his government service to lead an armed struggle. In 1879, he established the Ramosi Peasant Force, a secret revolutionary organization aimed at overthrowing British colonial rule.

Phadke formulated comprehensive plans to launch a coordinated uprising. His strategy involved disrupting communication networks by damaging railways, telegraph lines, and post offices, raiding government treasuries to gather funds, and targeting British government officers.

Following his capture in July 1879, he was tried in Pune and sentenced to transportation for life rather than capital punishment. He was deported to a prison in Aden, Yemen, where he passed away on February 17, 1883, after going on a hunger strike.

Explanation

Bipin Chandra Pal founded the English weekly journal New India in 1901 to spread social reform and nationalist ideas. In August 1906, he started the influential English daily newspaper Bande Mataram, which published powerful, radical articles criticizing the British colonial administration and advocating for complete independence (Swaraj). Under his editorship, these publications became a major voice of the extremist faction of the Indian National Congress, mobilizing public opinion during the Swadeshi movement.

Explanation

The Bengalee was taken over and edited by Surendranath Banerjee in 1879, under whose stewardship it became one of the most influential nationalist newspapers in India, campaigning actively for political rights and social reform. The National Herald was established in Lucknow in 1938 by Jawaharlal Nehru, serving as an important progressive voice for the Indian National Congress and the freedom struggle.

Explanation

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced the association of Indians with the law-making process by enabling the Governor-General to nominate non-official Indian members to the expanded legislative council. This associate system was intended to provide the British administration with a channel to hear Indian views and grievances to prevent another major rebellion like the Revolt of 1857. However, the nominated members (such as the Maharaja of Patiala, the Raja of Benares, and Sir Dinkar Rao) were selected exclusively from the princely and wealthy elite classes, rather than representing the general class or common public of India.

Explanation

During the fourth session of the Indian National Congress (referred to as the Mahasabha) held at Allahabad in 1888, the British administration shifted its policy from passive neutrality to active hostility. Sir Auckland Colvin, the Lieutenant-Governor of the North-Western Provinces, opposed the session and placed multiple administrative hurdles to prevent it, which marked the first bitter encounter of the organization with the changed government policy.

Allan Octavian Hume, the founder of the Congress, warned the British government that a massive mass agitation would be organized to address the extreme poverty and hunger of the Indian peasantry. He advocated mobilizing the masses and modeling the struggle after the Anti-Corn Law League in England, which had been led by John Bright and Richard Cobden to secure cheap food and economic reform.

Explanation

Lord Curzon introduced several vital agricultural and land revenue reforms during his tenure as Viceroy of India to address the agrarian distress caused by recurring famines.

First, he laid the foundation for modern agrarian science in India by establishing the Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar, in 1905. This initiative implemented scientific experiments and systematic research for agricultural reforms for the first time.

Second, in response to criticisms of the colonial tax administration, Curzon formulated a more moderate approach through the Land Revenue Resolution of January 1902. This policy brought important reforms beneficial to the farmers by revising the methods of deciding and collecting land revenue.

Third, the 1902 Resolution introduced the principle of elasticity in land revenue administration. Curzon ordered revenue officials to avoid strict and rigid recovery of taxes, particularly during periods of agricultural distress or crop failure. It also directed officials not to assess more land revenue except in extraordinary circumstances, thereby ensuring relief to the peasantry and preventing over-assessment.

Explanation

The Bengal Provincial Conference of April 1906 was held at Barisal under the presidency of Barrister Abdul Rasul to protest the partition of Bengal and the repressive measures of the colonial government. In defiance of the government ban on shouting patriotic slogans, a massive procession led by Abdul Rasul, Surendranath Banerjee, and other national leaders marched towards the conference venue singing Vande Mataram. This peaceful demonstration was met with a brutal lathi charge by the police, and the event became a historic milestone in the Swadeshi and anti-partition movement.

Explanation

The Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909, officially enacted as the Indian Councils Act of 1909, were part of the British policy of Carrot and Stick. The constitutional reforms served as the carrot to conciliate and win over the Moderate faction of the Indian National Congress, while severe repression and harsh legislative acts against the Extremist faction functioned as the stick.

Additionally, these reforms introduced separate electorates for Muslims, allowing Muslim voters to elect their own representatives. The Act also provided separate electorates and special representation for landholders (landlords), universities, chambers of commerce, and presidency corporations. Separate electorates for other minority communities, such as Sikhs, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, and Europeans, were introduced much later through the Government of India Act of 1919.

Explanation

Dr. Annie Besant founded the Home Rule League in September 1916 to demand self-government for India within the British Empire. To propagate her ideas, educate the public, and mobilize support for the movement, she utilized two major publications: the daily newspaper New India and the weekly journal Commonweal (often translated or referred to as Commonwealth in various Indian public service examinations). Through these publications, she wrote influential articles advocating for administrative reforms, self-rule, and national education.

Explanation

During the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1930, after successfully defying the salt laws at Dandi, Mahatma Gandhi planned to escalate the protest by taking non-violent possession of the salt works at both Dharasana in Gujarat and Vadala (Wadala) in Bombay.

Gandhiji communicated his decision to the Viceroy, Lord Irwin, in a letter stating his plan to raid these state-owned salt pans. Though Gandhiji was arrested on the night of May 4-5, 1930, before he could execute the plans, the satyagrahis went ahead with the program. The raid on the Dharasana Salt Works was led by Abbas Tyabji and later Sarojini Naidu, while the raids on the Vadala salt depot were organized by local leaders, involving thousands of satyagrahis who successfully defied British authority.

Explanation

On 15 August 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan, officially declared Hyderabad an independent sovereign state, refusing to join either the Dominion of India or Pakistan. In August 1948, the Hyderabad administration filed a formal complaint against India at the United Nations Security Council, accusing India of imposing an economic blockade and planning military aggression against the state, which was discussed by the Council shortly before Operation Polo was launched.

Explanation

The Limbdi Satyagraha was a pivotal struggle for civil liberties and responsible governance in the Kathiawar peninsula of Gujarat.

Regarding the first statement, although the Limbdi Prajamandal was established on 24 December 1938, it was formed under the leadership of Rasiklal Umedchand Parikh, not Vitthalbhai Patel.

Regarding the second statement, the Prince of Limbdi, Yuvraj Digvijaysinhji, and the state Diwan, Karbhari Fatesinhji, offered a compromise where they were willing to hand over the local administration of Limbdi city to public representatives and allow urban political activities. However, they refused to grant any such political freedoms or relaxation in the rural villages of Limbdi state, which prompted the Prajamandal leaders to launch the satyagraha.

Regarding the third statement, to counter the repressive policies of the state administration, the Limbdi Prajamandal, with the support of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, organized a nationwide boycott of cotton produced in Limbdi. Since cotton was the state's main export and primary source of revenue, this boycott severely impacted the state treasury, especially when mills in major industrial hubs like Mumbai and Ahmedabad refused to buy Limbdi cotton. This economic pressure eventually forced the ruler of Limbdi to concede to administrative reforms.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because Jayasimha Siddharaja initiated the Simha Samvat (also known as Sinha Samvant or Simha Era) in 1113-1114 CE to commemorate his major military victory over the Chudasama ruler Ra Khengara of Sorath (Saurashtra).

Statement 3 is correct because Jayasimha Siddharaja was a devout Shaivite (devotee of Lord Shiva). He held the title of Parama-Maheshvara (supreme devotee of Shiva) and reconstructed the grand Rudra Mahalaya temple at Siddhpur. Even though he patronized other religions, including Jainism, his personal faith remained Shaivism.

Statement 2 is incorrect because Arnoraja was a ruler of the Chahamana (Chauhan) dynasty of Shakambhari, not a Chavda (Chawda) king.

Explanation

Greco-Indian Art, also known as the Gandhara School of Art, developed in the northwestern frontier of the Indian subcontinent. In its early phase, the artisans mainly used local bluish-grey sandstone and schist to sculpt highly detailed figures. The thematic focus of this art school was exclusively Buddhist, depicting stories of Gautama Buddha and Bodhisattvas, with no representation of Jainism. Additionally, this school was patronized by the Indo-Greeks, Shakas, and Kushanas, while the Satavahana rulers patronized the indigenous Amaravati School of Art in southern India.

Explanation

The Sanskrit drama Ratnavali, written by Emperor Harshavardhana, tells the romantic story of the beautiful princess Ratnavali and King Udayana of Vatsa, not Harshavardhana himself. Harshavardhana is the playwright and author of the text, making the first statement incorrect.

The Sanskrit play Nagananda is composed in five acts and tells the Buddhist-themed story of the selfless sacrifice of Jimutavahana, the prince of Vidyadharas, who gives up his own body to save the Nagas from Garuda. This makes the second statement correct.

The play Priyadarshika is a natika (a light-hearted four-act drama) also written by Harshavardhana, which depicts the romantic intrigue and eventual union between King Udayana and Princess Priyadarshini, the daughter of King Dridhavarman. This makes the third statement correct.

Explanation

The Basholi school of paintings is the earliest school of Pahari miniature paintings, originating in the town of Basohli in Jammu and Kashmir.

The school reached its zenith and flourished under the patronage of Raja Kripal Pal in the late 17th century. A celebrated masterpiece from his reign is the illustration of Bhanudatta's Rasamanjari, painted by the artist Devidasa in 1694.

The painting style is highly distinguished by its strong, vibrant, and contrasting primary colors, such as deep red borders, mustard yellow, and bright blue. These intense colors, combined with bold lines and large, expressive lotus-shaped eyes, define the school's unique aesthetic.

The school represents a synthesis of local folk art, Hindu mythology, and Mughal miniature painting techniques. The Mughal influence is particularly visible in the style of costumes, decorative elements, and certain composition methods adopted by the artists of the hill states.

Explanation

Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, located in the western part of India. The dance derives its name from ghoomna, which refers to the graceful, circular pirouetting of the performers. It is a community dance performed exclusively by women on auspicious and celebratory occasions such as festivals, weddings, and harvesting seasons. The dancers wear a traditional, colourful, and heavy skirt called the ghaghra, which flares out spectacularly as they spin. The performance involves elegant and coordinated hand and foot movements, and dancers often display their skill by balancing earthen pots on their heads while maintaining their rhythmic flow.

Explanation

The Gandhara School of Art, which flourished from the first century AD under the Shaka and Kushana rulers, is widely recognized for introducing the first human sculptural representations of the Buddha, transitioning away from earlier symbolic depictions.

This artistic style was heavily influenced by Mahayana Buddhism, focusing on the creation of images of Buddha and Bodhisattvas. It exhibits strong Greco-Roman influences, earning it the designation of Greco-Buddhist art, which is reflected in the realistic anatomical accuracy, wavy hair, and heavy drapery of the sculptures.

For its sculptures, the Gandhara School primarily utilized blue-grey schist sandstone, stucco, and terracotta, while spotted red sandstone was used by the Mathura School.

Explanation

Bharavi is the author of Kiratarjuniya, a classical Sanskrit epic depicting the combat between Arjuna and Shiva in the guise of a Kirata.

Kalidas composed Kumarasambhava, a renowned court epic describing the birth of Kartikeya, the god of war and son of Shiva and Parvati.

Dandin wrote Dashakumaracharita, a prose romance detailing the adventures of ten princes.

Vishnu Sharma authored the Panchatantra, a highly celebrated collection of interrelated animal fables aimed at teaching wise conduct.

Explanation

The Alwars were Tamil poet-saints of South India who lived between the 6th and 9th centuries and were devoted to the Hindu god Vishnu. Their devotional hymns are compiled in the Divya Prabandham.

The Nayanars were a group of 63 Tamil poet-saints active during the same period who were devoted to the Hindu god Shiva. Their hymns are compiled in the Tirumurai.

The Varakari is a bhakti spiritual tradition of Maharashtra centered on the worship of Vithoba, who is worshipped as a form of Vishnu or Krishna. Prominent saints of this tradition include Dnyaneshwar, Namdev, Tukaram, and Eknath, who popularized the annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur.

Explanation

Sattriya is one of the eight classical dance forms of India, which originated in the Sattras (monasteries) of Assam. It was introduced by the 15th-century Vaishnavite saint and reformer Mahapurusha Sankaradeva as a powerful medium for the propagation of the Vaishnava faith, and it remains a centuries-old living tradition in Assam. The art form is an artistic synthesis of dance, drama, and music, originally performed as part of one-act plays called Ankiya Nat. The musical compositions accompanying the dance are Borgeets, which are devotional songs written and composed specifically by Sankaradeva and his disciple Madhavadeva using unique classical Ragas and Talas of Assam, rather than the compositions of Tulsidas, Kabir, or Mirabai.

Explanation

The Siddi community, descendants of Bantu peoples from Southeast Africa, is recognized as a Scheduled Tribe in Gujarat. They reside primarily in some districts of the state, such as Junagadh and Amreli in the Saurashtra region.

Dhamal is a traditional folk dance performed by the Siddi tribe. Originally performed by male members of the tribe following a successful hunt, the dance incorporates rhythmic drumming, animal mimicry, and energetic movements that reflect their historical passion for hunting.

Explanation

Harish Meenashru, whose real name is Harish Krishnaram Dave, is an eminent postmodern poet and translator in the Gujarati language. He was honored with the Sahitya Akademi Award 2020 in the Gujarati category for his outstanding poetry collection titled Banaras Diary, which was published in 2016. In addition to Banaras Diary, his literary corpus contains several other highly acclaimed works, including his debut poetry anthology Dhribaangsundar Eni Pere Dolya in 1988 and Suno Bhai Sadho in 1999, establishing him as a major voice in contemporary Gujarati literature.

Explanation

The Brahmo Samaj, established by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1828, was a monotheistic movement aimed at reforming Hindu society. It strongly opposed idolatry and advocated for the worship of one formless, eternal God. Raja Ram Mohan Roy promoted the direct reading of the Upanishads and other scriptures, actively denying the monopoly and necessity of a priestly class for interpreting religious texts. The Brahmo Samaj did not hold any scripture, including the Vedas, to be infallible, as it emphasized human reason and conscience over dogmatic beliefs. The doctrine of Vedic infallibility was instead popularized by Swami Dayanand Saraswati and the Arya Samaj.

Explanation

Pichvai is a traditional style of painting that originated in the temple town of Nathdwara near Udaipur in Rajasthan.

The word Pichvai is derived from Sanskrit words, where pichh means back and wai means hanging. These are traditional paintings executed on cotton cloth that are used as backdrops hung behind the idol of the deity, primarily Shrinathji (a manifestation of Lord Krishna), in temples.

These textiles are deeply connected with temple rituals and are changed daily according to the seasons, times of day, and specific festivals. Various themes, events, and celebrations from Lord Krishna's life, including Sharad Purnima, Raas Leela, Govardhan Puja, Janmashtami, Gopashtami, Diwali, and Holi, are frequently and vividly depicted in these paintings to match the corresponding celebration or darshan.

Explanation

Under the Cinematograph Act, 1952, the Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) issues certificates for the public exhibition of films in India.

Dubbed films require a fresh and separate certification. When a film is dubbed from one language to another, it is treated as a new film for certification purposes to ensure that the translated dialogues, lyrics, and cultural contexts conform to the guidelines and do not contain any offensive material.

The S category certificate is one of the four types of certificates issued by the CBFC, the others being U, UA, and A. An S certificate restricts the public exhibition of a film to specialized audiences or specific classes of persons, such as medical professionals, scientists, or engineers, depending on the specialized nature and content of the film.

In contrast, all films, including foreign films imported into India, must undergo mandatory CBFC certification before they can be exhibited publicly in the country. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Explanation

The correct matching of the pen names with their respective Gujarati authors is as follows:

Makrand matches with Ramanbhai Mahipatram Nilkanth, who adopted this pen name for his satirical and humorous literary contributions.

Sukani matches with Zaverchand Meghani, who utilized this pseudonym during his extensive career as a writer and journalist.

Mumukshu matches with Anandshankar Dhruv, the revered scholar who used "Mumukshu" as his pen name for his essays on philosophy and religion.

Vanmali matches with Keshavlal Dhruv, the pioneering research scholar and translator who published under this pen name.

Explanation

Chaukhandi Stupa is an ancient Buddhist stupa located in Sarnath, Uttar Pradesh, marking the spot where Lord Buddha met his first five disciples.

Ramabhar Stupa is situated in Kushinagar, Uttar Pradesh, and marks the exact spot where Lord Buddha was cremated.

Kesariya Stupa is a massive Buddhist monument located in East Champaran, Bihar, regarded as one of the largest stupas in the world.

Animesh Lochan Stupa is located within the Mahabodhi Temple Complex in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, where Lord Buddha spent the second week of his enlightenment in meditation.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Padhar dance is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat performed by the Padhar community, who are primarily fishermen living along the banks of Nal Sarovar (Nal Lake) in the Bhal region.

Statement 2 is correct because the members of the Padhar community are followers of Hinduism and deeply venerate Goddess Durga in her different forms, alongside other deities like Lord Krishna.

Statement 3 is correct because during the dance performance, dancers hold small sticks in their hands and mimic the seafaring lifestyle, replicating the rowing of boats and the rising and falling of sea waves while singing traditional songs associated with water.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the use of an embroidered umbrella with beautiful mirror and lace work as a prop is a characteristic feature of the Hudo dance, which is performed by the shepherd community (Bharwad tribe) of Gujarat, not the Padhar dance.

Explanation

Excavations conducted by archaeological agencies in Gujarat have revealed the presence of a prominent Buddhist monastery in Vadnagar.

The excavated Buddhist monastery dates back to the 2nd to 7th century AD and is situated within the fortified area of Vadnagar.

The structural layout of this monastery consists of two votive stupas and an open central courtyard. Initially, nine residential cells were constructed around this courtyard.

The architectural layout shows that the arrangement of these cells around the central courtyard forms a swastika-like pattern, reflecting both symbolic and functional planning in early Buddhist monastic architecture.

Explanation

The Magderu temple is an ancient Hindu temple dedicated to Shiva, recognized as a Monument of National Importance under the Archaeological Survey of India.

The temple is located near Dhrasanvel village in Devbhoomi Dwarka district of Gujarat, and dates back to the middle of the 8th century CE, which corresponds to the Maitraka dynasty period.

It represents the early Nagara style of temple architecture, which is often classified under the broader Indo-Aryan or Indo-European style in historical architectural descriptions. A key characteristic of its spire is the decorative, intricate lattice work known as sajala.

The architectural plan of the temple is rectangular and north-facing, constructed upon a low platform. It is built in the saptayatana (seven-shrine) style, featuring one larger central shrine with a five-fold (pancharatha) plan, surrounded by six smaller subsidiary shrines. This configuration is considered a rare modification of either the panchayatana (five-shrine) or ashtayatana (eight-shrine) temple layouts.

Explanation

The official GPSC master key highlights option (B) in yellow for Q69: "Vastupal Tejpal renovated this temple under the instructions of Vardhamansuri." This matches the historical record — Vastupal and Tejpal renovated the Shankheshwar Parshwanath Jain Temple under the spiritual guidance of Acharya Vardhamansuri in 1229 CE. Option (A) is not marked, meaning the claim about Sajjan Shah building the temple on the banks of the Banas river is considered incorrect/unverified by the examiners, so the combined options (C) "Both A and B" is wrong, and (D) is wrong since B is true.

Explanation

The Pala painting style, which flourished in the regions of Bihar and Bengal under the Pala rulers from the 8th to the 12th century CE, represents a key phase of medieval Indian art.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the subject matter and iconography of Pala painting were heavily influenced by Mahayana and Vajrayana (Tantric) Buddhism, rather than Hinayana Buddhism. Vajrayana Buddhism popularized the depiction of a wide pantheon of deities and Bodhisattvas, which became the central theme of these paintings.

Statement 2 is correct because Pala paintings are found in both manuscript forms and on murals. Manuscript paintings were executed on narrow palm leaves, such as the Astasahasrika Prajnaparamita, while mural paintings from this period survived on the walls of Buddhist monasteries and structural temples, notably at Nalanda.

Statement 3 is correct because the Pala school is considered a continuation of the classical Indian tradition of mural art. The style bears a close resemblance to the late Ajanta and Bagh mural painting styles, sharing features such as flowing sinuous lines, delicate color modeling, and graceful, lyrical expressions.

Explanation

The bronze figurines of the Harappan Civilisation, including the famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro, were crafted using the lost wax process, also known as cire perdue. In this metallurgical technique, craftsmen first sculpted the desired figure in beeswax and then coated it with a layer of clay. Once the clay dried, the model was heated so that the wax melted and drained out through a tiny hole made in the clay. Molten bronze was then poured into the hollow clay mold. After the liquid metal cooled and solidified, the outer clay shell was carefully broken away to reveal the finished solid bronze sculpture.

Explanation

The Chadia fair is a traditional tribal festival celebrated primarily by the Adivasi community of the Panchmahal district in Gujarat. This vibrant cultural event takes place during the spring season, shortly after the Holi festival, typically on Phalgun Vad 2. During the celebrations, a human effigy known as a chadia, constructed from wooden pieces and covered in colorful cloth with a coconut representing the head, is mounted on a tall pole or tree. Young tribal men attempt to climb the pole to claim the chadia and its offerings, while tribal women playfully strike them with bamboo sticks to prevent them from ascending. This energetic ritual is deeply rooted in local folklore and is also associated with traditional beliefs, including vows made for the blessing of children.

Explanation

The Bharat Ratna is the highest civilian award of India, instituted in 1954.

The awardees receive a certificate signed by the President of India and a medallion. The medallion is designed in the shape of a peepal leaf, made of toned bronze with a platinum emblem of the sun and the words Bharat Ratna engraved in Devanagari script on the obverse side.

The regulations governing the award specify that the number of annual awards is restricted to a maximum of three in any given year. The recommendations for these awards are formally made by the Prime Minister directly to the President, who then confers the honor.

Unlike other civilian or sports honors, the Bharat Ratna does not carry any monetary grant or cash prize. Instead, recipients receive several non-monetary benefits and privileges, such as being placed seventh in the Indian order of precedence, issuance of a diplomatic passport, and lifetime free first-class travel on Air India.

Explanation

Akhatrij no Melo is a prominent tribal fair of Gujarat celebrated by communities such as the Bhil Garasias. In this traditional festival, women perform ritualistic dances carrying grass baskets on their heads, which are filled with soil and freshly sprouted seeds to pray for a prosperous crop season, while the men provide rhythmic accompaniment with drums.

Bhanguriyu is a major tribal festival celebrated by the Rathwa tribe of Gujarat, particularly in the Chhotaudepur district. This vibrant, colorful event involving traditional music, dances, and social gatherings is celebrated with great fervor on the second day after Holi.

Explanation

Akhyan (or Akhyana) is a prominent medieval genre of Gujarati narrative poetry that also functions as a traditional folk musical theatre. The term Akhyana originates from Sanskrit, literally meaning to narrate or tell. It involves the poetic and musical recitation of religious and mythological stories, primarily sourced from the Ramayana, Mahabharata, and the Puranas, to educate and entertain the public.

The traditional performers of Akhyan are known as Manabhatts (or Gagaria-bhatts). They set the narrative poetry to musical tunes, perform mono-acting, and use a copper or metal water pitcher called a mana as a percussion instrument, striking it with metal rings worn on their fingers. Eminent medieval Gujarati poets like Bhalan, who pioneered the genre, and Premanand Bhatt, who elevated it to its artistic and literary peak in the 17th century, contributed immensely to its rich heritage.

Explanation

Shamalaji, located on the banks of the Meshwo River in the Aravalli district of Gujarat, is a prominent archaeological and pilgrimage site famous for its ancient artistic heritage. The area was a thriving center of sculpture during the late Gupta and Maitraka periods, dating back to the 4th to 6th centuries CE. Sculptors here primarily used a distinctive bluish schist to craft detailed iconographies, including exquisite relief carvings of deities. Among these remarkable historical works are the depiction of Parvati, such as her representation in the guise of a Bhil woman, and the carved sculpture of a dancing Ganesha on the temple walls, reflecting the rich aesthetic tradition and early religious iconography of the region.

Explanation

Bundi school paintings are highly celebrated for their detailed representation of nature, showcasing lush green vegetation, realistic water bodies with lotus flowers, and rich, dramatic night skies with golden-streaked clouds.

Pyatkar paintings, practiced by the Santhal tribe of Jharkhand, are one of the oldest scroll painting forms in India, traditionally centering on the theme of the soul's journey after death and the ultimate destiny of human life.

Manjusha paintings of Bihar, also known as Angika art, are commonly referred to as snake paintings because they heavily feature the depiction of snakes, being deeply tied to the regional folklore of Bihula and the snake goddess Mansa.

Jain miniature paintings did not restrict themselves to black and white, instead widely utilizing bright natural colors like red, yellow, and blue, and later incorporating luxurious gold and silver leafing.

Explanation

The correct matches for the temples and their respective architectural/historical periods are:

Gadadhar Temple, Shamalaji matches with the Mughal period. The temple's construction and major renovations are historically ascribed to the Mughal period, specifically between the late 16th and early 17th centuries.

Ranchhodji Temple, Dakor matches with the Maratha period. The current temple structure was built in 1772 CE by Hariprasad Tambekar, a financier of the Maratha Peshwa, and exhibits typical Maratha architectural elements.

Shatrunjay Jain Temple, Palitana matches with the British period. The complex underwent major renovations, expansions, and rebuilding of hundreds of shrines during the 19th century under British administration and Gaekwad patronage.

Hatkeshwar Temple, Vadnagar matches with the Sultanate period. The core historical construction of this prominent Shiva temple in Vadnagar dates back to the 15th century, aligning with the era of the Gujarat Sultanate.

Explanation

The ceramics similar to the Anarta tradition, characterized by Gritty Red Ware, were first reported from the site of Surkotada in Kutch where they were found in association with Classical Harappan pottery. The Anarta tradition represents a distinct regional Chalcolithic culture of Gujarat, dating to circa 3950 BCE to 1900 BCE based on radiocarbon determinations from sites like Loteshwar and Gola Dhoro. The core geographical range of this tradition is located in North Gujarat, where Anarta ware and associated settlements are extensively found in the districts of Banaskantha, Sabarkantha, Patan, and Mehsana.

Explanation

Bhanguriyu is a traditional musical festival celebrated with intense enthusiasm by the Rathwa tribe, primarily in the Chhotaudepur district of Gujarat before the onset of Holi. Thus, Pair 1 is correctly matched.

Nagdharo no melo is a prominent tribal fair celebrated by the Bhil Garasias at Shamlaji on the banks of the Meshwo River in Aravalli district, Gujarat. Thus, Pair 2 is correctly matched.

Golghodi no melo is a tribal fair celebrated primarily by the Chaudhari, Halpati, and Gamit tribes of South Gujarat in the Surat and Tapi districts. It is not primarily associated with the Kukna tribe, making Pair 3 incorrectly matched.

Explanation

Tangaliya weaving, also known as Daana weaving, is a highly skilled traditional handicraft of Gujarat characterized by the creation of unique raised dots on both sides of the fabric. This 700-year-old indigenous craft is mainly practiced by the Dangasia community. The artisans meticulously twist contrasting extra weft threads around a group of warp threads during the weaving process to create tiny bead-like dots called daana, which form beautiful geometric and linear patterns. While this craft is practiced in the Surendranagar district of the Saurashtra region, and not primarily in the Kutch district, it remains a celebrated cultural heritage of the state.

Explanation

The Gupta era marked a significant revival of classical Sanskrit. The official stone inscriptions, copper plates, and coin legends of the Gupta rulers were written in highly refined, pure Sanskrit prose and poetry.

Varahamihira, the legendary astronomer and mathematician of this period, composed the Panchasiddhantika. This treatise introduces and explains five ancient astronomical and astrological traditions: Surya, Romaka, Paulisa, Vasistha, and Paitamaha.

The famous epics Kumarasambhava and Raghuvamsa were authored by Kalidasa, not Bhasa.

Explanation

Dravidian style temples feature a square sanctum (garbhagriha) encircled by a covered ambulatory path (pradakshinapatha), which is enclosed within a larger square outer wall. The exterior walls of the sanctum are typically decorated with niches framed and projected by decorative pilasters. This makes statement 1 correct.

The spire (vimana) of a Dravidian temple is pyramidal in shape and composed of multiple distinct storeys (talas) stacked on top of each other, which progressively get smaller and narrower as they rise upward toward the crowning dome-like cupola. This makes statement 2 correct.

The Nagara style curvilinear spire (shikhara) rises high in a continuous upward curve that emphasizes a strong vertical thrust, directing the viewer's gaze toward the heavens. In contrast, the Dravidian style spire (vimana) emphasizes horizontal tiers and storeys, giving it a horizontal thrust. Thus, statement 3 is incorrect because the architectural thrusts of the two styles are reversed.

Explanation

Kalidasa authored the famous Sanskrit play Vikramorvashiyan, which dramatizes the love story of the mortal king Pururavas and the celestial nymph Urvashi.

Vishakhadatta composed the play Devichandraguptam, a historical Sanskrit drama depicting the events involving the Gupta king Ramagupta and his brother Chandragupta II.

Bhatti wrote Ravan Vaddha, also known as Bhattikavya, a classical poem that narrates the story of Rama while simultaneously illustrating the rules of Sanskrit grammar.

Chandra Gomin, a Buddhist scholar, composed Chandra Vyakarana, a highly influential system of Sanskrit grammar.

Explanation

The cave temples of the Gupta period are broadly classified into Brahmanical (Brahmin) and Buddhist divisions.

The Brahmanical cave temples of this era are best represented by the Udayagiri Caves near Vidisha in Madhya Pradesh, which contain rock-cut sanctuaries dedicated to Hindu deities like Vishnu, Shiva, and Durga.

The Buddhist cave temples of the Gupta period are exemplified by the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh, as well as several caves at Ajanta, which served as Buddhist monasteries (viharas) and prayer halls (chaityas) adorned with rich sculptures and mural paintings.

Explanation

The Ajanta Caves consist of a group of 29 or 30 rock-cut Buddhist caves, rather than 26, which makes the first statement incorrect.

The second statement is correct because the construction and paintings of the Ajanta caves occurred across two distinct historical periods. The first phase (Hinayana) took place from the 2nd century BCE to the 1st century CE under the Satavahana dynasty, while the second phase (Mahayana) occurred during the 5th and 6th centuries CE under the Vakataka dynasty.

The third statement is correct because the artworks and sculptures in the caves depict significant episodes from the life of Gautama Buddha. These include scenes of his birth in Cave 2, his Mahabhinishkraman (Great Departure) in Cave 16, and his Mahaparinirvana (Great Demise) in Cave 26.

Explanation

Dinker Joshi is the author of the notable Gujarati literary work Gai Kaal Vinani Aavati Kaal.

Saroj Pathak was a prominent Gujarati novelist and story writer who authored the novel Time bomb in 1987.

Hasu Yagnik wrote Diwal Pachhalni Duniya, which is a highly acclaimed collection of semi-fictionalized true stories.

Labhshankar Thaker was an experimental modernist writer who wrote the famous novel Akasmat in 1968.

Explanation

Saguna Bhakti involves the worship of a manifestation of God with specific attributes and physical forms. This school of devotion primarily popularized two main branches: Ram Bhakti, which centers on devotion to Lord Rama, and Krishna Bhakti, which centers on devotion to Lord Krishna.

Surdas was a prominent disciple of Vallabhacharya, who propounded the Pushtimarg, or the Path of Grace, within Vaishnavism. Consequently, Pushtimargiya philosophy and deep devotion to Lord Krishna are thoroughly depicted in the devotional poetry and compositions of Surdas.

Explanation

The Karadiya Rajputs of Saurashtra play the traditional game of Aambali Kaadhvi on the day of Holi, which is a key cultural custom of this community.

Samapancham, celebrated as Rishi Panchami on Bhadrapada Sud Panchami, carries the distinct tradition of eating grains grown naturally without plowing, such as Sama (barnyard millet), to observe non-violence and purity.

The Diwaso festival is celebrated on Ashadha Vad Amavasya (the no-moon day of the month of Ashadha) in South Gujarat to welcome the transition into the holy month of Shravan, and is not celebrated on Shravan Sood Saatam.

Explanation

The correct matches between the waterfalls and their respective districts in Gujarat are:

Zanzhari Waterfall is located on the Vatrak River near Bayad in the Aravalli district, which corresponds to b. Zharwani Waterfall is situated inside the Shoolpaneshwar Wildlife Sanctuary in the Narmada district, which corresponds to a. Girmall Waterfall, a prominent seasonal waterfall, is located on the Gira River near Girmal village in the Dangs district, which corresponds to d. Chimer Waterfall, also referred to as Chichkund Waterfall, is situated deep in the forest area of Songadh taluka in the Tapi district, which corresponds to c.

Explanation

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel Museum is located in the heritage-rich city of Ahmedabad at the Moti Shahi Mahal.

Bharatiya Sanskriti Darshan Museum is a cultural museum in Bhuj that displays the diverse arts, crafts, and architecture of the Kutch region.

Rotary Dolls Museum is situated in Rajkot and contains a vast, unique collection of cultural dolls representing different countries.

Shyamji Krishna Varma Memorial is established in his birthplace of Mandvi (Madvi) to commemorate the revolutionary freedom fighter.

Explanation

Under Article 120 of the Constitution of India, the business of Parliament is to be transacted in Hindi or in English. Although the Constitution originally envisaged that the use of English would cease after fifteen years, the Official Languages Act of 1963 was enacted to permit the continued use of English alongside Hindi for the transaction of business in Parliament. If a member wishes to address the House in their mother tongue, Article 120 empowers the Presiding Officer (the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha) directly to grant this permission, rather than requiring permission from or through the President of India. This makes only statements 1 and 3 correct.

Explanation

Prorogation is the act of terminating a session of Parliament, which is done by the President of India under Article 85(2)(a) of the Constitution. Unlike an adjournment, which merely terminates a sitting of the House for a specified time, prorogation terminates the entire ongoing session of the House.

Under Article 107(3) of the Constitution of India, a Bill pending in Parliament does not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the Houses. Any other pending business, including government assurances and committee reports, also remains unaffected and is carried over to the next session.

According to the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, on the prorogation of a session, all pending notices lapse, with the specific exception of notices for introducing Bills. If members wish to take up those lapsed matters in the next session, they must submit fresh notices.

Explanation

The Parliament of India functions as the grand inquest of the nation because it serves as the ultimate forum for expressing public grievances, discussing national and international policies, and inquiring into governmental conduct. It is also the watchdog of public finance and executive accountability, keeping a check on administration through parliamentary committees, questions, and motions.

Under Article 79 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of three constituents: the President of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), and the House of the People (Lok Sabha). Although the President is not a member of either House, they are an integral part of Parliament because no bill passed by both Houses can become law without the President's assent.

The first general elections under the Constitution of India were held from October 1951 to February 1952. Consequently, both the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha were constituted in April 1952, and their first sessions commenced on 13 May 1952. Prior to this, a unicameral Provisional Parliament functioned from 26 January 1950 until the formation of the elected bicameral legislature in 1952.

Explanation

Article 148(6) of the Constitution of India specifies that the administrative expenses of the office of the Comptroller and Auditor-General, including all salaries, allowances, and pensions payable to or in respect of persons serving in that office, shall be charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This provision ensures the financial independence of the supreme audit institution.

Article 148(4) of the Constitution of India debars the Comptroller and Auditor-General from further office either under the Government of India or under the Government of any State after ceasing to hold office. This restriction is designed to secure the independence of the CAG from any potential post-retirement influence or favor by the executive.

Explanation

Under Article 124(1) of the original Constitution of 1950, the Supreme Court of India was established with a Chief Justice and not more than seven other (puisne) judges, leaving it to the Parliament to increase this strength by law over time.

According to Chapter IV of the Supreme Court Rules, 2013, only an Advocate-on-Record (AOR) is entitled to file any matter, petition, document, or vakalatnama before the Supreme Court. While other advocates enrolled on the roll of any State Bar Council can appear and argue in the Supreme Court on behalf of a party, they cannot file any documents. Senior Advocates are not permitted to appear in the Supreme Court without an Advocate-on-Record.

Explanation

Article 51 of the Indian Constitution, which is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV, explicitly outlines the promotion of international peace and security. It states that the State shall endeavour to promote international peace and security, maintain just and honourable relations between nations, foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organised peoples with one another, and encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration. All four statements provided are exact provisions of Article 51.

Explanation

Article 33 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to restrict or abrogate the fundamental rights of specific categories of personnel to ensure the proper discharge of their duties and the maintenance of discipline. These categories specifically include the members of the Armed Forces, the members of the Forces charged with the maintenance of public order, and persons employed in any bureau or other organisation established by the State for purposes of intelligence or counter-intelligence. Additionally, Article 34 imposes restrictions on fundamental rights while martial law is in force in any area within the territory of India, enabling Parliament to indemnify any person for acts done in connection with maintaining or restoring order.

Explanation

Under Article 61 of the Constitution of India, the President can be impeached for violation of the Constitution. The impeachment process can be initiated by either House of Parliament. However, such a charge cannot be preferred unless a resolution containing the proposal is moved after at least fourteen days' notice in writing. This notice must be signed by not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House, indicating their intention to move the resolution. This procedural requirement ensures that the serious process of impeachment has substantial backing from the members of the House before it is formally introduced.

Explanation

Vote on Account is a grant in advance made by the Lok Sabha under Article 116 of the Constitution of India. It enables the government to carry on its expenditure for a part of the financial year, typically two months, pending the voting of demands for grants and the passing of the Appropriation Bill and the Finance Bill.

Vote of Credit is also provided under Article 116 of the Constitution. It is granted to meet an unexpected demand upon the resources of India when, due to the magnitude or the indefinite character of the service, the demand cannot be stated with the details ordinarily given in an annual financial statement. It functions like a blank cheque given to the executive by the Lok Sabha.

Explanation

Under Article 165 of the Constitution of India, the Governor of each State appoints a person who is qualified to be appointed as a Judge of a High Court to be the Advocate General for the State.

According to Article 177 of the Constitution, the Advocate General has the right to speak in and otherwise take part in the proceedings of the State Legislature, or any committee of the State Legislature of which they may be named a member, but does not have the right to vote.

According to Article 165 of the Constitution, the Advocate General holds office during the pleasure of the Governor, and receives such remuneration as the Governor may determine, not the state legislature.

Explanation

Under Article 217, a High Court judge resigns by writing to the President (not the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court), so statement 1 is actually incorrect per strict constitutional text; however, the official GPSC answer key marks option B ("1 and 2 only") as correct. Statement 2 is correct: under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968, the three-member investigation committee constituted by the Speaker/Chairman includes the Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court judge. Statement 3 is wrong because the committee member from a High Court is any Chief Justice, not necessarily of the "concerned state" High Court, and statement 4 is wrong because the third member is a distinguished jurist, not the Minister of Law. The official printed answer key for this paper highlights option (B), which is therefore the authoritative correct answer despite the apparent factual issue with statement 1.

Explanation

The Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 was enacted by Parliament in pursuance of Article 323A of the Constitution of India. This constitutional provision empowers the Parliament to establish administrative tribunals for the adjudication of disputes and complaints regarding the recruitment and conditions of service of persons appointed to public services and posts under the Union, States, or local authorities.

Under the provisions of the Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985, the Chairman and other members of the State Administrative Tribunals are appointed by the President of India. This appointment is made by the President after formal consultation with the Governor of the concerned state.

Explanation

Under Section 12 of the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, free legal services encompass the preparation of appeals and paper books, which includes the printing and translation of documents in legal proceedings.

Additionally, industrial workmen are explicitly listed as eligible beneficiaries for free legal services regardless of their income under Section 12(e) of the Act.

The annual income limit for general eligibility to receive free legal aid before courts other than the Supreme Court is generally ₹1,00,000 (which may be altered to other higher amounts up to ₹3,00,000 by state governments), making the five lakh limit incorrect for general eligibility.

Explanation

Compulsory Provisions match with voting rights of the chairperson and other members as the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act mandatorily grants voting rights in Panchayat meetings to all members, whether directly or indirectly elected.

Voluntary Provisions match with making the grants-in-aid to the panchayats from the Consolidated Fund of State because the Constitution leaves the decision of formulating policies for financial grants entirely to the discretion of the state legislatures.

R.R. Diwakar Committee matches with the study team on the position of Gram Sabha, which was constituted in 1963 under his chairmanship to analyze the functioning and role of the Gram Sabha in local self-governance.

K. Santhanam Committee matches with the Committee on Panchayat Raj Elections, set up in 1965 under his leadership to examine electoral methodologies and structures of Panchayati Raj bodies.

Explanation

Both statements are direct provisions from Article 257(1) of the Constitution of India, which governs the administrative relations and control of the Union over States.

Article 257(1) provides that the executive power of every State must be exercised in a manner that does not impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union. To enforce this, the same Article empowers the Union to issue necessary directions to the States "for that purpose". Hence, Statement 2 explains the constitutional mechanism through which the mandate of Statement 1 is secured and monitored by the Government of India.

Explanation

Under Article 279A of the Constitution of India, the Goods and Services Tax Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the States. Article 279A(9) outlines the voting structure and the decision-making process during its meetings. According to this constitutional provision, every decision of the Council must be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting.

In this weighted voting system, the vote of the Central Government carries a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast in that meeting. Meanwhile, the votes of all the State Governments combined carry a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting. This voting mechanism ensures that neither the Centre nor the States can make decisions unilaterally, requiring consensus and cooperation from both levels of government.

Explanation

Under Article 271 of the Constitution of India, Parliament is empowered to increase any of the duties or taxes referred to in Articles 269 and 270 by a surcharge for the purposes of the Union at any time. This makes Statement 1 correct. Furthermore, Article 271 explicitly mandates that the entire proceeds of any such surcharge shall form part of the Consolidated Fund of India, rather than the Public Account of India, which makes Statement 2 incorrect.

Explanation

Under Article 356(1)(b) of the Constitution of India, when the President is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the government of a State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution, the President may by Proclamation declare that the powers of the Legislature of the State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of Parliament. This provision transfers the legislative authority of the affected state to the Parliament of India during the period of the proclamation.

Explanation

Under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a candidate contesting an election to the State Legislative Assembly forfeits their security deposit if they fail to secure more than one-sixth (approx. 16.67%) of the total valid votes polled in that constituency. For a winning candidate to lose their deposit, they must secure the highest number of votes among all contestants while still falling short of this one-sixth threshold. This scenario can only occur when there is a very large number of candidates contesting the election, which fragments and distributes the votes so widely across multiple contestants that even the winner's share remains below 16.67%.

Explanation

Under Section 4 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person is qualified to fill a seat in the Lok Sabha only if they are registered as an elector for any parliamentary constituency in India. To be an elector, a person must be a citizen of India whose name is entered in the electoral roll of a constituency. This enables any registered voter, who meets the minimum age criteria of 25 years and other qualifications prescribed under Article 84 of the Constitution of India, to file a nomination paper to contest the Lok Sabha elections.

Explanation

The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against the President of India, Governors of States, or the Chief Justice of a High Court acting in a judicial capacity.

The writ of Certiorari is issued by a higher court to a lower court or tribunal to squash an order or transfer a pending case. It is issued on grounds such as excess of jurisdiction, lack of jurisdiction, or errors of law.

The writ of Quo-Warranto is issued to enquire into the legality of a claim which a party asserts to a public office. This writ can only be issued in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of a ministerial office or a private office.

The writ of Prohibition can only be issued against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction, and is not available against administrative authorities like the Election Commission of India in its administrative capacity.

Explanation

Article 165 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Advocate General for the State, making it a constitutional institution.

The Attorney General of India is not a whole-time counsel for the government, does not fall under the category of government servants, and is not debarred from private legal practice. However, the Attorney General cannot advise or hold a brief against the Government of India.

According to Article 105 of the Constitution, the Attorney General has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of either House of Parliament, any joint sitting of the Houses, and any committee of Parliament of which they may be named a member, and they enjoy all the privileges and immunities that are available to a Member of Parliament.

Explanation

The Parliamentary Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is a joint parliamentary committee where a minister is not eligible to be elected as a member. If an existing member of the committee is appointed as a minister, they cease to be a member from the date of such appointment. Additionally, the committee consists of 30 members, out of which 20 members are elected from Lok Sabha and 10 members are elected from Rajya Sabha, rather than an equal division of 15 members from each house. The term of the committee is indeed one year, making statements 2 and 3 the only incorrect statements.

Explanation

Judicial activism refers to the proactive role played by the judiciary in protecting the rights of citizens and promoting justice in society. The expansion of judicial review over administrative actions is a classic manifestation of judicial activism, as the courts actively expand their jurisdiction to scrutinize executive decisions and protect citizens from administrative excesses. Similarly, the expansion of the right of hearing in administrative processes reflects judicial activism by ensuring that principles of natural justice, such as procedural fairness and the right to be heard, are deeply integrated into administrative decision-making. The indiscriminate exercise of contempt power is generally viewed as judicial overreach or an authoritarian use of judicial authority rather than a progressive reflection of judicial activism, which aims to expand public participation and constitutional rights.

Explanation

Bankruptcy and insolvency is listed under Entry 9 of the Concurrent List (List III) of the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of India, which empowers both the Parliament and the State Legislatures to legislate on this subject.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (D) "1, 4 and 5 only" as correct for this question. Per the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, Santhali, Dogri, and Bodo (added via the 92nd/2003 and 100th amendments) are all included, while Gondu and Munda are not recognized languages under the Schedule. Strictly speaking only Gondu and Munda (items 4 and 5) are actually excluded, which would make none of the printed options fully correct as a matter of constitutional fact; however, the GPSC master key designates (D) as the intended correct answer, so that is adopted as authoritative for scoring purposes.

Explanation

The 11th Schedule of the Constitution of India, added by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, contains 29 functional items placed under the purview of Panchayats. Family Welfare is listed as entry 24, and poverty alleviation programmes is listed as entry 16 in this Schedule. The 12th Schedule, added by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, contains 18 functional items placed under the purview of Municipalities. Cattle pounds and prevention of cruelty to animals is listed as entry 15, while urban poverty alleviation is listed as entry 11 in this Schedule. This means poverty alleviation is shared as a subject matter across both the 11th and 12th Schedules of the Constitution.

Explanation

Under Article 371(2) of the Constitution of India, the President may by order provide for special responsibilities of the Governor of Maharashtra or Gujarat.

Statement 1 is correct because Article 371(2)(a) explicitly authorizes the establishment of separate development boards for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra, or Saurashtra, Kutch, and the rest of Gujarat.

Statement 2 is correct because Article 371(2)(b) prescribes the equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over these regions, subject to the overall requirements of the State.

Both clauses represent independent responsibilities entrusted to the Governor to ensure balanced regional development. Since they are distinct constitutional directives—one establishing administrative machinery and the other addressing fiscal distribution—the second statement does not act as a causal explanation or justification for the first.

Explanation

Under the First Schedule of the Constitution of India, which lists the States and Union Territories of India, entry 4 defines the territory of Gujarat. Following the bifurcation of the bilingual State of Bombay, the Bombay Reorganisation Act of 1960 was enacted. Section 4 of this Act amended the First Schedule to substitute the entry for Gujarat, describing its territory as "The territories referred to in sub-section (1) of section 3 of the Bombay Reorganisation Act, 1960". This sub-section specifies the exact districts and villages transferred from the former State of Bombay to form the new State of Gujarat.

Explanation

The ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity enshrined in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution were borrowed from the French Constitution, which originated during the French Revolution (1789–1799). These principles became the defining slogans of the revolution, representing the struggle against feudal privileges and monarchical tyranny, and were later integrated into democratic constitutions worldwide to ensure individual dignity and social harmony.

Explanation

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, extended the initial duration of President's Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution from six months to one year. This duration was subsequently restored to six months by the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978.

Since the formation of the state of Gujarat in 1960, President's Rule has been imposed there five times. These periods of imposition occurred in the years 1971, 1974, 1976, 1980, and 1996.

Chhattisgarh, which was carved out of Madhya Pradesh in 2000, and Telangana, which was formed in 2014, have never been placed under President's Rule at any point since their inception.

Explanation

The Union Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment is divided into two distinct departments to ensure targeted welfare, social justice, and empowerment for various marginalized sections of society. The first is the Department of Social Justice and Empowerment, which focuses on Scheduled Castes, Backward Classes, senior citizens, transgender persons, and victims of substance abuse. The second is the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, which focuses exclusively on the rehabilitation, rights, accessibility, and empowerment of divyangjan or persons with disabilities.

Explanation

Under Article 239 of the Indian Constitution, every Union Territory is administered by the President of India acting through an Administrator appointed by him. Since this office is created by and derives its authority directly from the provisions of the Constitution, the Administrator is a purely constitutional functionary.

The Administrator does not occupy a position equivalent to that of a State Governor. The Supreme Court has established that while a Governor acts as the constitutional head of a State representing a separate state executive, an Administrator of a Union Territory is merely an agent or delegate of the President, acting on the President's behalf and holding office during his pleasure.

Furthermore, in Union Territories where a Legislative Assembly exists, the Administrator is not answerable to the local legislature. Under the constitutional framework, the Council of Ministers led by the Chief Minister is collectively responsible and answerable to the Legislative Assembly for its actions, whereas the Administrator remains answerable directly to the President of India through the central government.

Explanation

The concept of equal protection of the laws, taken from the American Constitution, is a positive concept. It denotes equality of treatment in equal circumstances, meaning that among equals, the law should be equal and equally administered, and that likes should be treated alike. This principle permits reasonable classification to ensure that those similarly situated are treated similarly under the law.

Explanation

The Fifteenth Finance Commission recommended grants-in-aid to states falling under five broad categories. These designated categories are revenue deficit grants, grants for local governments, grants for disaster management, sector-specific grants, and state-specific grants. Non-specific grants are not part of these recommendations.

Explanation

Under Section 37 of the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Chairperson or any Member of the Lokpal can be removed from office by an order of the President of India. In cases of removal on the grounds of misbehaviour, a petition signed by at least one hundred Members of Parliament must be submitted to the President, who then refers the matter to the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court conducts an inquiry through a committee consisting of the Chief Justice of India and the senior-most judges. Based on the inquiry report and recommendation of the Supreme Court, the final order of removal is issued by the President of India.

Explanation

The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act, 2021 restored the power of State governments and Union Territories to identify and notify Socially and Educationally Backward Classes (SEBCs), also known as Other Backward Classes (OBCs), for their own state-level purposes.

This amendment was introduced to clarify the constitutional position following a May 2021 Supreme Court ruling on the Maratha reservation. The court had interpreted the 102nd Amendment Act of 2018 as having taken away the authority of state governments to identify SEBCs, vesting that power solely with the President.

By amending Article 342A and introducing a new clause (3), as well as amending Articles 338B and 366(26C), the 105th Amendment explicitly bifurcated the SEBC identification process. It clarified that while the Central List of SEBCs is prepared by the Central Government, every State and Union Territory has the legislative competence to prepare and maintain its own distinct list of backward classes, which may differ from the Central List.

Explanation

In the landmark case of Common Cause v. Union of India (2018), a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court held that the right to die with dignity is an inseparable facet of the right to life with dignity under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution, declaring it a fundamental right.

Furthermore, the Supreme Court legalized passive euthanasia, which involves the withdrawal of medical treatment or life support to let a terminally ill patient die in the natural course. The Court recognized the validity of advance medical directives, or living wills, to facilitate this. In contrast, active euthanasia, which involves taking positive steps to end a life (such as administering a lethal injection), continues to remain illegal and is treated as a criminal offense in India. Thus, passive euthanasia has been granted legal status, unlike active euthanasia.

Explanation

According to Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with all or any of the specified matters. These include the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax (statement 1); the appropriation of moneys out of the Consolidated Fund of India (statement 4); and the declaration of any expenditure to be expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India (statement 3).

Furthermore, Article 110(2) explicitly clarifies that a Bill shall not be deemed to be a Money Bill solely because it provides for the imposition of fines or other pecuniary penalties, or for the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax by any local authority or body for local purposes, making statement 2 incorrect.

Explanation

Under Section 4 of the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship by descent is granted to individuals born on foreign soil. For any person born outside India on or after December 10, 1992, citizenship of India is granted if either of their parents was a citizen of India at the time of their birth, provided that for births occurring on or after December 3, 2004, the birth is registered at an Indian consulate within one year.

Explanation

Article 18 of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition of titles to maintain social equality. Clause 1 of Article 18 mandates that no title, other than a military or academic distinction, shall be conferred by the State, preventing the creation of artificial hierarchies. Clause 3 of Article 18 states that a person who is not a citizen of India, while holding any office of profit or trust under the State, cannot accept any title from any foreign State without the consent of the President. In contrast, Clause 2 of Article 18 imposes an absolute prohibition on citizens of India, stating that no citizen of India shall accept any title from any foreign State, with no exceptions permitted.

Explanation

The Charter of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) begins with the preamble: "We, the Heads of State or Government of BANGLADESH, BHUTAN, INDIA, MALDIVES, NEPAL, PAKISTAN and SRI LANKA".

The Charter consists of a Preamble followed by exactly 10 Articles, detailing the objectives, principles, and institutional framework of the association.

The SAARC Charter was signed on 8 December 1985 by Rajiv Gandhi, who was the Prime Minister of India at the time, following the assassination of Indira Gandhi in 1984. Furthermore, according to Article IX of the Charter, the financial contributions of the Member States towards the activities of the Association are voluntary rather than mandatory.

Explanation

Under Article 80 of the Constitution of India, the Council of States (Rajya Sabha) consists of 12 members nominated by the President. Article 80 clause 3 explicitly mandates that these nominated members must be persons having special knowledge or practical experience in respect of specific fields, namely Literature, Science, Art, and Social Service. This makes Statement 1 correct. Because the Constitution specifically delineates these particular fields of experience, Statement 2 is incorrect.

Explanation

The National Human Rights Commission of India is a statutory body established on 12 October 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993. This makes Statement 1 correct.

The Commission has five specialized divisions, which are the Law Division, Investigation Division, Policy Research, Projects and Programmes Division, Training Division, and Administration Division. This makes Statement 2 correct and Statement 3 incorrect.

Explanation

As of 2021, India consists of 28 states and 8 Union Territories.

All 28 states have a Governor as their constitutional head of state.

Out of the 8 Union Territories, five are headed by a Lieutenant Governor and three are headed by an Administrator. The five Union Territories with Lieutenant Governors are Delhi, Puducherry, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Jammu and Kashmir, and Ladakh. The three Union Territories with Administrators are Chandigarh, Lakshadweep, and Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission was set up by the Government of India in February 1964 on the recommendations of the Committee on Prevention of Corruption, headed by Shri K. Santhanam, to advise and guide Central Government agencies in the field of vigilance.

The Commission is the apex vigilance institution of India. It is an independent body, free from executive control, and is responsible for monitoring all vigilance activity under the Central Government, as well as advising various authorities in planning, executing, reviewing, and reforming their vigilance work.

Explanation

Under Part VII (regarding the Party in Power) of the Model Code of Conduct, Ministers are prohibited from combining their official visits with electioneering work, and they cannot make use of official machinery or personnel during such activities.

The guidelines also dictate that government transport, including official aircraft, vehicles, machinery, and personnel, must not be used to further the interests of the party in power. Although the Prime Minister is allowed to use official transport under separate security guidelines (such as those under the Special Protection Group), the core Model Code of Conduct guidelines do not contain an exception for the Prime Minister.

Additionally, once elections are announced by the Election Commission, Ministers and other authorities are strictly barred from announcing any financial grants or promises in any form. They are also prohibited from making promises regarding public infrastructure, such as the construction of roads or the provision of drinking water facilities.

Explanation

The Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) Mission and the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser (PSA) both function under the administrative jurisdiction of the Cabinet Secretariat.

The DBT Mission, which coordinates and monitors the implementation of direct benefit transfers across various Union ministries and departments, is placed in the Cabinet Secretariat.

Similarly, the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, established to provide advice to the Prime Minister and the Cabinet on science, technology, and innovation, also operates as a constituent part of the Cabinet Secretariat.

Explanation

The reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is governed by Article 330 of the Constitution of India, and the number of reserved seats is determined by the Delimitation Commission based on population proportion. Currently, there are 84 seats reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 47 seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.

Up to 2021, there were no seats reserved for either Scheduled Castes or Scheduled Tribes among the five Lok Sabha seats allocated to the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir.

Regarding the Union territories, the National Capital Territory of Delhi has one of its seven Lok Sabha seats, specifically the North West Delhi constituency, reserved for the Scheduled Castes, which makes the fourth statement incorrect.

Explanation

The Indian Independence Act of 1947 abolished the office of the Viceroy and provided for a Governor-General for each of the two independent dominions of India and Pakistan. These Governor-Generals were appointed by the British Monarch on the advice of the respective dominion cabinets. The Act also abolished the office of the Secretary of State for India, transferring its functions to the Secretary of State for Commonwealth Relations, which means that the office of the Secretary of State for India did not continue.

Explanation

The volume of a globe is proportional to the cube of its radius. Since the diameter is twice the radius, the volume is also proportional to the cube of its diameter (V ∝ D³). When the three globes are melted and combined, the total volume is conserved, meaning the sum of the volumes of the three smaller globes equals the volume of the new globe:

Vₙew = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

This relationship simplifies to:

Dₙew³ = D₁³ + D₂³ + D₃³

The diameters of the three globes are 1½ meters, 2 meters, and 2½ meters. Substituting these values into the equation:

Dₙew³ = (3/2)³ + 2³ + (5/2)³

Dₙew³ = 27/8 + 8 + 125/8

Dₙew³ = (27 + 64 + 125) / 8

Dₙew³ = 216 / 8

Dₙew³ = 27

Taking the cube root gives:

Dₙew = ∛27 = 3 meters

Explanation

Adding 1 to both sides of the given equation x + y + xy = 54 allows the expression to be factored: xy + x + y + 1 = 55 (x + 1)(y + 1) = 55

Since x and y are positive integers (x, y ≥ 1), both (x + 1) and (y + 1) must be integers greater than or equal to 2.

The positive factors of 55 are 1, 5, 11, and 55. The only factorization of 55 into two integer terms both greater than or equal to 2 is: 5 × 11 = 55

This yields: x + 1 = 5 → x = 4 y + 1 = 11 → y = 10

Calculating the sum: x + y = 4 + 10 = 14

Explanation

Let the initial number of Seniors be S and the initial number of Juniors be J.

Since there are 36 employees initially: S + J = 36

According to the policy, exactly 3 Juniors work under each Senior, which gives: J = 3 × S

Substituting J in the first equation: S + 3 × S = 36 4 × S = 36 S = 9 J = 27

Thus, there were initially 9 Seniors and 27 Juniors.

When 1 Senior leaves and 5 Juniors are promoted to Seniors: New number of Seniors = 9 - 1 + 5 = 13 New number of Juniors = 27 - 5 = 22

To maintain the policy with 13 Seniors, the required number of Juniors is: 13 × 3 = 39

Since the company currently has 22 Juniors, the number of new Juniors needed to be recruited is: 39 - 22 = 17

Explanation

Using a 2D Cartesian coordinate system with the starting point P at the origin (0, 0):

First, Rajesh walks 1 km North to arrive at (0, 1).

Next, he turns East and walks 1 km to arrive at (1, 1).

He then turns 45° left, which points him in the Northeast direction. After walking 1 km, his position is: x = 1 + cos(45°) = 1 + 1/√2 y = 1 + sin(45°) = 1 + 1/√2

Finally, he turns 90° left, which points him in the Northwest direction. After walking 1 km to point Q, his final position is: x = 1 + 1/√2 - cos(45°) = 1 y = 1 + 1/√2 + sin(45°) = 1 + 2/√2 = 1 + √2 ≈ 2.414

To find the direction of point P (0, 0) with respect to point Q (1, 2.414): We must go West (from x = 1 to x = 0) and South (from y = 2.414 to y = 0). Therefore, point P is in the Southwest direction with respect to point Q.

Explanation

By comparing the phrase 'how many goals scored' (5379) with 'many more matches' (982), the common word is 'many' and the common digit is 9. Thus, 'many' is coded as 9.

By comparing 'how many goals scored' (5379) with 'he scored five' (163), the common word is 'scored' and the common digit is 3. Thus, 'scored' is coded as 3.

In the first phrase, after accounting for 'many' (9) and 'scored' (3), the remaining words are 'how' and 'goals', and the remaining digits are 5 and 7. Since there is no further information to distinguish between them, the code for 'goals' is either 5 or 7.

Explanation

To determine the youngest girl, we analyze the rankings of the five girls in terms of age, height, and strength.

For age, R is the oldest (1st). Q is older than exactly two girls, which puts Q in the 3rd position. S is older than Q, and since R is the oldest, S must be in the 2nd position. This leaves the 4th and 5th (youngest) positions to be shared between P and T.

For strength, S is the strongest (1st) and Q is the weakest (5th). Since T is weaker than P and R, T must be in the 4th position of strength.

For height, R is the shortest (5th). T is shorter than Q but taller than S, which gives the order Q > T > S > R. Since Q is taller than T, T cannot be the tallest. If Q were the tallest, it would violate the condition that the tallest is not the weakest (as Q is the weakest). Thus, P must be the tallest.

Since the tallest person (P) cannot be the youngest, and the only candidates for the youngest (5th in age) are P and T, T must be the youngest.

Explanation

The sum of ages is calculated using the formula: Sum = Average × Number of individuals.

For the four family members (the parents and two children), their average age four years ago was 34 years. The sum of their ages four years ago was: 4 × 34 = 136 years.

Since each of the four members has aged by 4 years, the present sum of their ages is: 136 + 4 × 4 = 152 years.

For three family members (the parents and one child), their average age six years ago was 32 years. The sum of their ages six years ago was: 3 × 32 = 96 years.

Since each of these three members has aged by 6 years, the present sum of their ages is: 96 + 3 × 6 = 114 years.

The present age of the other child is the difference between these two present sums: 152 - 114 = 38 years.

Explanation

Let the present age of Asha be x years and the present age of Ajay be y years.

Since Asha is older than Ajay, the difference in their present ages is represented as: x - y = 16.5 y = x - 16.5

According to the given condition, three years ago, Asha's age was four times Ajay's age after 1.5 years: x - 3 = 4 × (y + 1.5)

Substituting the value of y into this equation: x - 3 = 4 × (x - 16.5 + 1.5) x - 3 = 4 × (x - 15) x - 3 = 4x - 60 3x = 57 x = 19

Explanation

Let the initial volumes of the solutions in vessels V1 and V2 be x and 2x respectively, based on the given ratio of 1 : 2.

For vessel V1: Let the quantity of pure Benzene added be y. The initial volume of Benzene is 0.4x. After adding y units of pure Benzene, the final concentration becomes 50%: (0.4x + y) / (x + y) = 0.5 0.4x + y = 0.5x + 0.5y 0.5y = 0.1x y = 0.2x

For vessel V2: Let the volume of the solution removed and replaced with pure Benzene be z. Since the replaced quantity is equal, the total volume remains 2x. The initial amount of Benzene in V2 is 0.4 × 2x = 0.8x. Removing z units of the 40% solution removes 0.4z of Benzene, and adding z units of pure Benzene adds z of Benzene. The final concentration becomes 50% of the total volume: 0.8x - 0.4z + z = 0.5 × 2x 0.8x + 0.6z = x 0.6z = 0.2x z = x / 3

The ratio of the amount of Benzene added in V1 and V2 is: y : z = 0.2x : (x / 3) = (1/5) : (1/3) = 3 : 5

Explanation

Comparing the three coded sentences allows us to isolate the individual word codes.

The common word across all three statements is "good", and the common code present in all three is "ka". Thus, "good" is coded as "ka".

Comparing the first and second statements, the common words are "Richa" and "good", represented by the codes "ka" and "mi". Since "good" is "ka", "Richa" is coded as "mi".

Comparing the second and third statements, the common words are "food" and "good", represented by the codes "ka" and "ke". Since "good" is "ka", "food" is coded as "ke".

In the second statement "Richa eats good food" coded as "ke he ka mi", the only remaining word is "eats", which must correspond to the remaining code "he".

Comparing the first and third statements, the common words are "is" and "good", represented by the codes "ka" and "ni". Since "good" is "ka", "is" is coded as "ni".

In the first statement "Richa is a good girl" coded as "ka re ni si mi", we have determined the codes for "Richa" (mi), "is" (ni), and "good" (ka). The remaining words "a" and "girl" must correspond to the remaining codes "re" and "si" in some order.

To represent "a girl eats", the code must contain "re", "si", and "he".

Explanation

To find the days on which Wednesday fell in April 2001, we first determine the day of the week on April 1, 2001.

Up to the year 2000, the number of odd days is 0.

For the year 2001, we count the odd days up to April 1: January has 31 days (3 odd days) February has 28 days (0 odd days) March has 31 days (3 odd days) April has 1 day up to April 1 (1 odd day)

Total odd days = 3 + 0 + 3 + 1 = 7 odd days, which simplifies to 0 odd days (7 ÷ 7 = 0 remainder).

An odd day count of 0 corresponds to Sunday. Therefore, April 1, 2001 was a Sunday.

Since April 1 was Sunday: April 2 was Monday April 3 was Tuesday April 4 was Wednesday

Adding 7 days successively to find the subsequent Wednesdays in the month gives April 11, April 18, and April 25.

Explanation

Let the total work to build the wall be the least common multiple of 24 and 30, which is 120 units.

The daily efficiency of P is 120 ÷ 24 = 5 units. The daily efficiency of Q is 120 ÷ 30 = 4 units.

For the first 6 days, P works alone: Work done by P = 6 × 5 = 30 units.

For the next 3 days, P and Q work together: Combined efficiency of P and Q = 5 + 4 = 9 units. Work done by P and Q = 3 × 9 = 27 units.

Total work completed in the first 9 days = 30 + 27 = 57 units. Remaining work to be done = 120 - 57 = 63 units.

Time taken by P alone to build the remaining part of the wall = 63 ÷ 5 = 12.6 days.

Explanation

The length of the original square sheet is 10 cm. When a square of edge 2 cm is cut out from each of the four corners, the remaining sheet is folded along the edges to form an open cuboid.

The length and width of the base of the cuboid are reduced by twice the edge of the cut-out square: Length of cuboid = 10 - 2 × 2 = 6 cm Width of cuboid = 10 - 2 × 2 = 6 cm

The height of the cuboid is equal to the edge of the cut-out square: Height of cuboid = 2 cm

Using the formula for the volume of a cuboid: Volume = length × width × height Volume = 6 × 6 × 2 = 72 cu.cm

Explanation

The total population of State S is 7 million.

The percentage of the population below the poverty line in State S is 19%. Therefore, the percentage of the population above the poverty line is 100% - 19% = 81%.

The total population above the poverty line in State S is 81% of 7 million, which is 0.81 × 7 = 5.67 million.

The proportion of males and females above the poverty line in State S is given as 4 : 3. This means the fraction of females in this category is 3 / (4 + 3) = 3/7.

The number of females above the poverty line in State S is 3/7 × 5.67 million = 2.43 million.

Explanation

For State R, the percentage of the population below the poverty line is 24%. Consequently, the percentage of the population above the poverty line is 100% - 24% = 76%.

The ratio of males to females above the poverty line in State R is 2:3. Thus, males constitute 2/(2 + 3) = 2/5 of the total population above the poverty line.

Let T be the total population of State R. The population above the poverty line is 0.76 × T. The male population above the poverty line is given as: (2/5) × 0.76 × T = 1.9 million 0.4 × 0.76 × T = 1.9 million 0.304 × T = 1.9 million T = 1.9 / 0.304 = 6.25 million

Explanation

State P has 35% of its population below the poverty line (BPL), which means 100% - 35% = 65% of its population is above the poverty line (APL).

For the BPL population, the ratio of males to females is 5:6. Since the female population below the poverty line is 2.1 million: Female proportion in BPL = 6 / (5 + 6) = 6/11 Total BPL population = 2.1 million × 11 / 6 = 3.85 million

Since 35% of the total population is BPL: Total population of State P = 3.85 million / 0.35 = 11 million

The APL population represents 65% of this total: Total APL population = 11 million × 0.65 = 7.15 million

For the APL population, the ratio of males to females is 6:7. Male population APL = 7.15 million × 6 / (6 + 7) = 7.15 million × 6/13 = 3.3 million

Explanation

For State Q, let the total population be PQ. The percentage of the population below poverty line (BPL) is 25%. The ratio of males to females below poverty line is 3:5, meaning the fraction of males is 3/8. Given that the population of BPL males in State Q is 2.4 million: PQ × 25% × 3/8 = 2.4 million PQ × 1/4 × 3/8 = 2.4 PQ × 3/32 = 2.4 PQ = (2.4 × 32) ÷ 3 = 25.6 million

For State T, let the total population be PT. The percentage of the population below poverty line (BPL) is 15%. The ratio of males to females below poverty line is 5:3, meaning the fraction of males is 5/8. Given that the population of BPL males in State T is 6 million: PT × 15% × 5/8 = 6 million PT × 3/20 × 5/8 = 6 PT × 15/160 = 6 PT × 3/32 = 6 PT = (6 × 32) ÷ 3 = 64 million

The ratio of the total population of State Q to State T is: PQ : PT = 25.6 : 64 = 25.6 / 64 = 256 / 640 = 2:5

Explanation

The area of a triangle can be expressed as half the product of any side and its corresponding altitude. For a triangle with sides a, b, and c and their respective corresponding altitudes h_a, h_b, and h_c, the area is:

Area = ½ × a × h_a = ½ × b × h_b = ½ × c × h_c

This relationship shows that the sides of a triangle are inversely proportional to their corresponding altitudes:

a : b : c = 1/h_a : 1/h_b : 1/h_c

Given the ratio of the altitudes is 2 : 3 : 4, the ratio of the sides is:

a : b : c = 1/2 : 1/3 : 1/4

Multiplying each term by the least common multiple of the denominators, which is 12, gives the integer ratio:

a : b : c = 6 : 4 : 3

Letting the sides be 6x, 4x, and 3x, and knowing the perimeter is 91 cm, the sum of the sides is:

6x + 4x + 3x = 91 13x = 91 x = 7

Substituting the value of x back into the expressions for the sides yields:

a = 6 × 7 = 42 cm b = 4 × 7 = 28 cm c = 3 × 7 = 21 cm

Explanation

Let the side of the larger square be x units and the side of the smaller square be y units.

The perimeter of a square is given by 4 × side, and the area is given by side².

From the given perimeter relationship: 4x - 4y = 44 Dividing by 4 on both sides: x - y = 11

From the given area relationship: x² - y² = 187

Using the algebraic identity for the difference of squares, x² - y² = (x - y)(x + y): (x - y)(x + y) = 187

Substituting x - y = 11 into this equation: 11(x + y) = 187 x + y = 17

We now have a system of two linear equations: x - y = 11 x + y = 17

Adding the two equations: 2x = 28 x = 14

Subtracting the first equation from the second: 2y = 6 y = 3

The sides of the two squares are 3 and 14 units.

Explanation

The word BACBADE consists of 7 letters where A appears 2 times, B appears 2 times, C appears 1 time, D appears 1 time, and E appears 1 time.

First, the total number of words in set S is calculated by arranging these 7 letters: N(S) = 7! / (2! × 2!) = 5040 / 4 = 1260

Next, find the number of words in which both As are together. Treating the two As as a single unit (AA), we arrange 6 units (AA, B, B, C, D, E): N(As together) = 6! / 2! = 720 / 2 = 360

The subset P contains the words of S in which both As are not together: N(P) = N(S) - N(As together) = 1260 - 360 = 900

Now, we find the number of words in P where both As are at the two extremes. Since the word starts and ends with A (A _ _ _ _ _ A), the remaining 5 letters (B, B, C, D, E) are arranged in the middle 5 positions. Since the As are at the extremes, they are not together, meaning all such arrangements are in P: Number of favorable outcomes = 5! / 2! = 120 / 2 = 60

The probability that both As are at the two extremes in a randomly selected word from P is: Probability = 60 / 900 = 1 / 15

Explanation

Let T be the set of top academic performers and A be the set of athletes. From the main question, the number of students who are both athletes and top academic performers is 10.

Statement-A states that 60% of the top academic performers were not athletes. This implies that the remaining 40% of the top academic performers were athletes. Expressing this mathematically: 40% of T = 10 0.40 × T = 10 T = 10 / 0.40 = 25 This statement alone successfully determines that the number of top academic performers is 25.

Statement-B states that all the top academic performers were not necessarily athletes. This is a qualitative statement and does not provide any mathematical relationship or numerical data to calculate the exact number of top academic performers.

Explanation

Let the ranks from highest to lowest be represented by positions 1 to 5, where 3 is the median rank.

From the question, we have the following relations: Rank(D) < Rank(E) (since D is ranked higher than E) Rank(N) < Rank(C) (since N is ranked higher than C) Rank(C) ∈ {4, 5} (since C's rank is lower than the median rank 3)

Using Statement-A alone: M is the last rank holder, so Rank(M) = 5. This forces Rank(C) = 4. The remaining ranks 1, 2, and 3 are shared by D, E, and N. Since Rank(D) < Rank(E), the top rank (Rank 1) can be held by either D (with arrangement D=1, E=2, N=3, C=4, M=5) or N (with arrangement N=1, D=2, E=3, C=4, M=5). Thus, Statement-A alone is insufficient.

Using Statement-B alone: N is not in the top two ranks, so Rank(N) ∈ {3, 4, 5}. Here, the top rank can still be held by either M (with arrangement M=1, D=2, N=3, C=4, E=5) or D (with arrangement D=1, M=2, N=3, C=4, E=5). Thus, Statement-B alone is insufficient.

Combining both statements: From Statement-A, Rank(M) = 5, which means Rank(C) = 4. Since Rank(N) < Rank(C), N's rank must be 1, 2, or 3. From Statement-B, N cannot be in the top two ranks (Rank 1 or 2), which leaves Rank(N) = 3. The remaining ranks to be filled are 1 and 2, which must be occupied by D and E. Since Rank(D) < Rank(E), D must be Rank 1 and E must be Rank 2. This uniquely determines that D got the highest rank.

Explanation

Let the total number of employees in the call centre be T.

The number of male employees is 30% of T, which is 0.3T, and the number of female employees is 70% of T, which is 0.7T.

The female employees with an engineering background constitute 10% of the female workforce, which is 10% of 0.7T = 0.07T.

Using Statement-B: The number of male employees with an engineering background is 20% more than the female employees with an engineering background. This gives: Male employees with engineering background = 1.20 × 0.07T = 0.084T

The percentage of male employees who have an engineering background is: (Male employees with engineering background / Total male employees) × 100 = (0.084T / 0.3T) × 100 = 28%

Statement-B alone provides a unique solution. Statement-A only gives information about unknown backgrounds and does not help in finding the required percentage.

Explanation

The given equation is a⁴ - 62a² + 1 = 0.

Dividing the entire equation by a² gives: a² - 62 + 1/a² = 0 a² + 1/a² = 62

We can express (a + 1/a)² as: (a + 1/a)² = a² + 1/a² + 2

Substituting the value of a² + 1/a²: (a + 1/a)² = 62 + 2 = 64

Since a > 0, taking the positive square root on both sides gives: a + 1/a = 8

Now, we find the value of a³ + 1/a³ using the algebraic formula: a³ + 1/a³ = (a + 1/a)³ - 3(a + 1/a)

Substituting the value of a + 1/a = 8: a³ + 1/a³ = 8³ - 3 × 8 a³ + 1/a³ = 512 - 24 = 488

Explanation

Let the speeds of Car 1, Car 2, and Car 3 be v1, v2, and v3 respectively. Since all three cars start at the same time, the time elapsed until any meeting point is the same for the cars involved. Under constant time, the distance traveled is directly proportional to the speed of the car.

For the meeting of Car 1 and Car 3 at Q: Point Q is 200 km from A and 100 km from B (300 - 200 = 100 km). Car 1 travels from A to Q: distance = 200 km. Car 3 travels from B to Q: distance = 100 km. The ratio of their speeds is v1 / v3 = 200 / 100 = 2.

For the meeting of Car 2 and Car 3 at P: Point P is 100 km from A and 200 km from B (300 - 100 = 200 km). Car 2 travels from A to P: distance = 100 km. Car 3 travels from B to P: distance = 200 km. The ratio of their speeds is v2 / v3 = 100 / 200 = 1/2.

To find the ratio of the speed of Car 2 to that of Car 1: v2 / v1 = (v2 / v3) / (v1 / v3) = (1/2) / 2 = 1/4

Therefore, the ratio of the speed of Car 2 to that of Car 1 is 1:4.

Explanation

Since BC is the diameter of the circle, the angle subtended by BC on the circumference is 90°. This means angle BPC = 90° and angle BQC = 90°. Consequently, CP and BQ are altitudes of triangle ABC drawn to the sides AB and AC, respectively.

The area of triangle ABC can be expressed using either of these base-altitude pairs: Area = ½ × AB × CP = ½ × AC × BQ

This yields the relation: AB × CP = AC × BQ

Substituting the given values, AB = 30 cm, AC = 25 cm, and CP = 20 cm: 30 × 20 = 25 × BQ 600 = 25 × BQ BQ = 24 cm

Explanation

The numbers between 100 and 400 that are divisible by 6 form an arithmetic progression.

The first term, a, is 102 because 102 is the smallest multiple of 6 greater than 100. The last term, l, is 396 because 396 is the largest multiple of 6 less than 400. The common difference, d, is 6.

To find the number of terms, n, we use the standard arithmetic progression formula: l = a + (n - 1)d

Substituting the values: 396 = 102 + (n - 1) × 6 294 = (n - 1) × 6 n - 1 = 49 n = 50

The sum, S, of an arithmetic progression is calculated using the formula: S = (n / 2) × (a + l)

Substituting the values: S = (50 / 2) × (102 + 396) S = 25 × 498 S = 12450

Explanation

Let the cost price of the total stock be 100. The marked selling price is fixed at 30% above the cost price, which makes it 130.

The stock is sold in three parts: The first part is ½ of the stock, which is sold at the marked selling price of 130. The second part is ¼ of the stock, which is sold at a 15% discount on the marked selling price: 130 × (1 - 0.15) = 110.5. The third part is the remaining ¼ of the stock, which is sold at a 30% discount on the marked selling price: 130 × (1 - 0.30) = 91.

We calculate the average selling price for the entire stock by finding the weighted average of these prices: Average Selling Price = (½ × 130) + (¼ × 110.5) + (¼ × 91) Average Selling Price = 65 + 27.625 + 22.75 = 115.375

Since the cost price of the total stock is 100 and the average selling price is 115.375, the overall gain percentage is: Gain Percentage = 115.375 - 100 = 15.375%

Explanation

B.K.S. Iyengar is different from the other three individuals because he has not been awarded the Bharat Ratna, India's highest civilian award. Satyajit Ray received the Bharat Ratna in 1992, Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam received it in 1997, and Bhupen Hazarika was posthumously conferred the honor in 2019. B.K.S. Iyengar, the world-renowned yoga teacher, was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2014, which is India's second-highest civilian honor.

Explanation

Based on the given information, we can determine the genders and office locations of the individuals:

L is female and works in office X. O is male because L is his wife. M is female and works in office U. N works in office V. Since no woman works in office V, N must be male. P works in office W.

The remaining offices to be assigned are Y and Z, and the remaining individuals to be placed are K and O.

Since no woman can work in office Z, this office must be occupied by a male. Since K is female, K cannot work in office Z and must be assigned to office Y. This leaves office Z as the only possible office for O.

Explanation

Let us analyze the details of the six people (K, L, M, N, O, P) and their respective offices (U, V, W, X, Y, Z):

L is a female (wife of O) and works in office X. O is a male. M is a female (sister of N) and works in office U. P works in office W. N works in office V. Since no woman works in office V, N must be a male.

The offices assigned so far are: L -> X (Female) M -> U (Female) P -> W (Gender not specified) N -> V (Male)

The remaining offices to be filled are Y and Z, and the remaining people are K and O. O is definitely a male. For K's office to be uniquely determined, K is a female. Since women cannot work in office Z, the female K cannot work in office Z. Thus, K must work in office Y. This leaves O (male) to work in office Z.