GPSC2018General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

GPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 192 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

192
Questions
7
Subjects
45
Gujarat-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Polity and Governance6433%
  • History4624%
  • Art and Culture4423%
  • Economy1910%
  • Science and Technology158%
  • Logical Reasoning32%
  • Geography11%
1HistoryGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) regarding the Harappan Civilisation is (are) correct? 1. The Dholavira is the largest Harappan site in Gujarat. 2. The evidence of 'dual' interment, the so-called 'Sati' burial, are found from Lothal. 3. Lustrous Red Ware is a hallmark of mature phase of Sorath Harappan.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Dholavira, situated in the Khadir Bet in the Great Rann of Kutch, is the largest Harappan site in Gujarat, and one of the most prominent urban centers of the Indus Valley Civilisation in India.

Excavations at the port city of Lothal revealed three instances of double burials (joint graves containing two skeletons). This unique practice of joint interment led some archaeologists to suggest it as potential early evidence of the custom of Sati.

Lustrous Red Ware is a diagnostic pottery style of the Late Harappan (Post-Urban) period in Gujarat, particularly associated with the Rangpur III phase. It is not a hallmark of the Mature phase of the Sorath Harappan culture, which is characterized by earlier ceramic traditions of the Rangpur IIA and IIB phases.

2History
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Alexander invaded north-western India in 326-327 BCE. 2. He was accompanied by scholars who wrote about his campaign. 3. Megasthenes' Indica is a valuable historical source for Mauryan India. 4. Megasthenes' Indica is survived only in quotations (fragments) by latter writers.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Alexander the Great began his campaign in the Hindu Kush region in 327 BCE and crossed the Indus River into north-western India in 326 BCE. He brought along several scholars, geographers, and historians like Nearchus, Onesicritus, and Aristobulus, whose written accounts of the expedition served as key sources for later historians. Megasthenes, a Greek ambassador sent by Seleucus I Nicator to the court of Chandragupta Maurya, wrote Indica, which details the social, administrative, and military systems of the Mauryan Empire. Although the original text of Indica is lost, its descriptions survive through extensive quotations, summaries, and fragments preserved in the works of later classical writers such as Strabo, Arrian, Diodorus, and Pliny.

3History
The Annirruvar (five hundred swamis of Aihole) were the most celebrated _________ of southern India.
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Answer: (D) Merchant guild

Explanation

The Ainnurruvar, also known as the Five Hundred Swamis of Aihole, were a highly influential and celebrated merchant guild of medieval southern India. Originating from Aihole in Karnataka, this autonomous body of merchants played a pivotal role in organizing and controlling maritime and inland trade during the Chola, Chalukya, and Hoysala periods, extending their commercial influence across southern India and deep into Southeast Asia.

4History
There are similarities as well as differences between the Buddhist and Jain religions. Choose (Identify) the differences between the two religions.
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Answer: (D) Non-existence of Atma (Soul)

Explanation

Buddhism and Jainism differ fundamentally in their conception of the soul. Buddhism rejects the idea of an eternal, unchanging, and permanent soul, a doctrine known as Anatman or Anatta, holding instead that the self is an impermanent combination of physical and mental aggregates. Conversely, Jainism firmly asserts the existence of an eternal, individual soul (Jiva) in all living beings, which accumulates karma and must be purified through asceticism to achieve liberation.

5History
Which of the following statements regarding Rajendra Chola-I are correct? 1. He extended his sway up to the Ganga in the north and assumed 'Gangaikonda Cholan' title. 2. He conquered areas which are now known as Malaysia, Indonesia, Thailand, Sri Lanka and Maldives. 3. He built the famous 'Brihadishvara temple' dedicated to Lord Shiva. 4. He founded a new city called 'Gangaikonda Chaluparam.'
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Rajendra Chola I led a successful northern expedition to the Ganges, defeating the Pala ruler Mahipala, and assumed the title 'Gangaikonda Chola' (Statement 1 correct). His naval expeditions across the Bay of Bengal brought Sri Lanka, the Maldives, and parts of the Srivijaya empire (present-day Malaysia, Indonesia and southern Thailand) under Chola control (Statement 2 correct). The famous Brihadishvara temple at Thanjavur was built by his father Rajaraja I, not by Rajendra Chola I, so Statement 3 is incorrect. To commemorate his Ganges campaign, Rajendra Chola I founded a new capital city, Gangaikonda Cholapuram (Statement 4 correct). Hence, statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

6Art and Culture
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. The Gadhaiya coins were in circulation in the last centuries of first and initial centuries of second millennium CE. 2. They were in circulation mainly in northern and western India. 3. They were bronze coins coated with silver.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Gadhaiya coins were in circulation from around the 8th century to the late 13th century CE, covering the final centuries of the first millennium and the initial centuries of the second millennium CE.

These coins circulated widely in northern and western India, particularly in Gujarat, Rajasthan, and the Malwa region under medieval dynasties like the Chavadas, Chaulukyas, and Paramaras.

Gadhaiya coins were composed of debased silver or billon, which is a copper-silver alloy with varying silver content, rather than being bronze coins coated with silver.

7History
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. In 1934 Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya constituted a breakaway Congress Nationalist Party. 2. Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya didn't appreciate Gandhiji's movement of Dalitodhar. 3. Gandhiji accepted the 'MacDonald Award.' 4. With regard to Poona Pact (1932), the Congress Working Committee adopted 'neither rejection nor acceptance' stand.
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Answer: (B) Only 1

Explanation

Only Statement 1 is correct. In 1934, Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, along with Madhav Shrihari Aney, broke away from the Indian National Congress to form the Congress Nationalist Party, mainly to contest the 1934 Central Legislative Assembly elections and to oppose the Communal (MacDonald) Award of 1932, which had granted separate electorates to minorities and depressed classes. Statement 2 is incorrect: Malaviya was in fact an active supporter of the Dalitodhar (upliftment of the depressed classes) movement, not an opponent of it. Statement 3 is incorrect: Gandhiji did not accept the MacDonald/Communal Award; he strongly opposed it and undertook a fast unto death against separate electorates for the depressed classes, which led to the Poona Pact (1932) with Dr. Ambedkar. Statement 4 is incorrect: it was on the Communal Award, not the Poona Pact, that the Congress Working Committee adopted a stance of "neither acceptance nor rejection"; the Poona Pact itself, which replaced separate electorates with reserved seats for depressed classes, was accepted and endorsed by Congress. Hence, only Statement 1 is correct, making the answer 'Only 1'.

8History
Which of the following statements regarding The Charter Act of India (1813) are correct? 1. Made provisions for education in British India. 2. Christian Missionaries were formally permitted to propagate Christianity. 3. 'Governor General of Bengal' was redesignated as 'Governor General of India.' 4. British East India Company became solely an administrative body.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The Charter Act of 1813 made a ground-breaking provision of allocating an annual sum of ₹100,000 for the revival and improvement of literature, the encouragement of the learned natives of India, and for the introduction and promotion of a knowledge of the sciences among the inhabitants of the British territories. This marked the official beginning of state-aided education in British India.

Additionally, the Act formally permitted Christian missionaries to travel to India and carry out their religious and educational propagation, allowing them to preach and spread Christianity under license from the Board of Control.

The provisions regarding the redesignation of the Governor-General of Bengal to the Governor-General of India and the transition of the East India Company into a purely administrative body were introduced later by the Charter Act of 1833, making statements 3 and 4 incorrect for the 1813 Act.

9History
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about Ramananda? 1. He welcomed disciples from all walks of life - irrespective of their caste, creed, gender and religion. 2. His verses are integral to Guru Granth Sahib. 3. He was the contemporary of Akbar, the Mughal Emperor. 4. Ramanujacharya who believed in 'Social Equality' was his Guru.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Ramananda was a pioneering 14th–15th century Bhakti saint (c. 1400–1476) who revolutionized medieval Hindu society by opening the doors of devotion to everyone, completely rejecting barriers of caste, creed, gender, and religion (Statement 1 is correct). His twelve principal disciples included individuals from diverse social backgrounds, such as Kabir, a Muslim weaver, Ravidas, a cobbler, Sena, a barber, as well as women disciples like Padmavati and Surasari. His spiritual legacy is also recognized in Sikhism, where a devotional hymn composed by him in the Basant raga is preserved and integrated as a holy verse within the Guru Granth Sahib (Statement 2 is correct). However, Ramananda lived well before the Mughal Emperor Akbar (1542-1605), so he was not his contemporary (Statement 3 is incorrect). Also, his own Guru was Raghavananda, a preceptor of the Ramanuja (Sri Vaishnava) tradition, not Ramanujacharya himself, who had lived centuries earlier (c. 11th-12th century) (Statement 4 is incorrect). Hence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

10History
Which inscription of the Kushana period informs about the system of 'Dual Governorship' in a province of Kushanas?
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Answer: (C) The Bala Bodhisattva image inscription from Sarnath

Explanation

The Bala Bodhisattva image inscription from Sarnath, dating to the third regnal year of Kanishka I, provides key insights into the Kushana system of provincial administration. The inscription records that the colossal Bodhisattva statue, dedicated by the Buddhist monk Bhikshu Bala, was erected under the joint authority of two provincial governors: Mahakshatrapa Kharapallana and Kshatrapa Vanaspara. These two satraps governed the easternmost province of the Kushana Empire, centered around the Varanasi region. This co-administration represents the Kushana system of dual governorship, which functioned as an administrative check and balance by placing a senior governor alongside a junior colleague to distribute authority and prevent regional rebellions.

11History
Who of the following Gupta dynasty issued the Ashvamedha coin? 1. Samudragupta 2. Chandragupta - II (Vikramaditya) 3. Kumaragupta - I 4. Skandagupta
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Samudragupta and Kumaragupta I are the two prominent Gupta emperors who performed the Ashvamedha (horse sacrifice) ritual to declare their imperial sovereignty and issued special Ashvamedha type gold coins to commemorate the event.

Samudragupta performed this sacrifice after his extensive military conquests in Northern and Southern India. His Ashvamedha coins depict a caparisoned sacrificial horse standing in front of a sacrificial post (yupa) on the obverse, and the chief queen Dattadevi holding a flywhisk (chauri) along with the legend Apratirathah or Ashvamedhaparakramah on the reverse.

Kumaragupta I revived the ritual during his reign to assert his imperial authority. His Ashvamedha coins similarly depict a sacrificial horse on the obverse and the queen on the reverse, with the legend Sri Ashvamedhamendrah.

12History
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the second Karnatic War? 1. The siege of Arcot took place in 1751. 2. The war took place between British East India Company led by Robert Clive and Nawab of Arcot. 3. The Nawab was supported by the French East India Company. 4. Arcot is in Tamil Nadu.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Second Carnatic War (1749–1754) was a military conflict in South India where the British and French East India Companies supported rival local claimants to power.

The historic Siege of Arcot took place between August and November 1751. Robert Clive led a small force of the British East India Company to capture and successfully defend the city.

The conflict was fought against Chanda Sahib, who had declared himself the Nawab of Arcot. This Nawab was actively supported by the French East India Company under Joseph François Dupleix.

Geographically, Arcot is a historical town located in the present-day state of Tamil Nadu.

13History
Which of the following statements regarding the Anglo-Mysore Wars are correct? 1. Hyderali won the first Anglo-Mysore War. 2. Tipu defeated Baillie in the second Anglo-Mysore War. 3. Tipu Sultan was defeated in the third Anglo-Mysore War. 4. Tipu Sultan was killed in the fourth Anglo-Mysore War.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The first Anglo-Mysore War ended with the victory of Hyder Ali, who marched up to Madras and forced the British to sign the Treaty of Madras in 1769 on his own terms.

During the second Anglo-Mysore War, Tipu Sultan achieved a significant victory by defeating the British force under Colonel William Baillie at the Battle of Pollilur in September 1780.

In the third Anglo-Mysore War, Tipu Sultan was defeated by the British forces led by Lord Cornwallis, which culminated in the Treaty of Seringapatam in 1792 where Tipu had to surrender half of his territory.

The fourth Anglo-Mysore War in 1799 ended with the death of Tipu Sultan, who was killed while defending his capital city, Seringapatam, against the British army.

14HistoryGujarat-specific
With regard to Mahagujarat Andolan which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. The Chief Minister of the Bombay State was against the idea of having a separate state. 2. A few students martyred in front of the Congress House near Lal Darwaza, Ahmedabad on August 8, 1956. 3. Rivers like Mahi, Tapi and Narmada were not considered for major projects during the first five-year Plan was the cause of Mahagujarat Andolan. 4. Indulal Yagnik didn't contest the election of 1957 out of his protest against Mahagujarat Andolan.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Morarji Desai, the Chief Minister of Bombay State, was a strong proponent of a bilingual state and strongly opposed the bifurcation of Bombay State into separate linguistic states of Gujarat and Maharashtra, so statement 1 is correct.\n\nOn August 8, 1956, college students gathered and marched to the local Congress House located near Lal Darwaza in Ahmedabad to demand a separate state for Gujarati-speaking people. The police fired upon the demonstrating students, leading to the tragic death of several students, who were honoured as the first martyrs of the Mahagujarat Andolan, so statement 2 is correct.\n\nStatement 3 is incorrect: river valley projects on the Mahi, Tapi and Narmada were in fact taken up during the First Five Year Plan, and neglect of these river projects was not a cause of the Mahagujarat Andolan, which was driven by the demand for a separate Gujarati-speaking state.\n\nStatement 4 is incorrect: Indulal Yagnik did contest the 1957 general election, standing as a Mahagujarat Janata Parishad candidate from Ahmedabad and winning the Lok Sabha seat.\n\nHence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

15History
Who abolished the use of Persian as court language and ordered the use of Vernacular Languages?
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Answer: (A) William Bentinck

Explanation

Lord William Bentinck, during his tenure as Governor-General of India from 1828 to 1835, introduced significant administrative and judicial reforms. He abolished Persian as the official court language, replacing it with English in higher courts and local vernacular languages in lower courts. This reform aimed to make judicial processes and administrative proceedings more accessible and understandable to the native population, allowing them to present grievances and conduct legal affairs in their own regional languages.

16HistoryGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Walker's Settlement? 1. Walker's Settlement was carried out between the Gaekwads of Vadodara and the Saurashtra chiefs. 2. The Gaekwads of Vadodara didn't like it because they felt it as an interference of Britishers in Saurashtra. 3. The Gaekwads of Vadodara welcomed it as it ensured a regular payment without any military expeditions. 4. It brought Saurashtra under British control.
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

Walker's Settlement of 1807 to 1808 was negotiated by Colonel Alexander Walker, the British Resident at Baroda, on behalf of the British East India Company and the Gaekwads of Vadodara, directly with the local chiefs and talukdars of the Kathiawar peninsula in Saurashtra.

Before this settlement, the Gaekwads collected annual tributes through destructive and highly expensive military campaigns called Mulkgiri. The Gaekwads of Vadodara welcomed Walker's Settlement as it fixed the tribute amounts and guaranteed regular, peaceful annual payments to Baroda without the necessity of launching costly military expeditions.

The settlement established British mediation and oversight in the region, effectively bringing the various princely states of Saurashtra under British suzerainty and paramountcy, which eventually led to the creation of the Kathiawar Agency.

17HistoryGujarat-specific
Where did Sultan Bahadur Shah permit the Portuguese to construct a fort?
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Answer: (B) Diu

Explanation

Sultan Bahadur Shah of Gujarat permitted the Portuguese to construct a fort in Diu. Facing a severe threat from the Mughal Emperor Humayun who was invading Gujarat, Sultan Bahadur Shah sought a defensive alliance with the Portuguese. Under the Treaty of Bassein in 1534 and a subsequent agreement signed in October 1535 with the Portuguese Governor Nuno da Cunha, the Sultan secured military assistance from the Portuguese. In return, he granted them permission to build a fortress at Diu and to station a garrison there.

18HistoryGujarat-specific
Who founded the Gaekwads' Maratha rule in Vadodara?
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Answer: (D) Pilaji Rao

Explanation

Pilaji Rao Gaekwad was a distinguished Maratha military commander who founded the Gaekwad dynasty of Baroda. In 1721, he conquered the city of Baroda (Vadodara) from the declining Mughal Empire, establishing the initial Maratha rule in the region. Following his victory, the Maratha emperor Chhatrapati Shahu I and Peshwa Bajirao I formally recognized his authority and granted the territory to the Gaekwad family, laying the groundwork for the prominent princely state of Baroda.

19History
In which of the following princely states Shyamaji Krishna Varma had not served?
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Answer: (C) Kutch

Explanation

Shyamaji Krishna Varma was born in Mandvi within the princely state of Kutch on 4 October 1857. While Kutch was his birthplace where he spent his early childhood, he did not hold any administrative office, council membership, or the post of Diwan in the princely state of Kutch during his career in India.

20History
Arrange the following in chronological order: 1. Establishment of Gujarat Vidyapeeth 2. Home Rule Movement 3. Shifting of Capital from Calcutta to Delhi 4. Swadeshi Movement
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Answer: (A) 4, 3, 2, 1

Explanation

The Swadeshi Movement was launched in 1905 as a protest against the partition of Bengal. The shifting of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi was announced by King George V in December 1911. The Home Rule Movement was initiated in 1916 by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant to campaign for self-government. Gujarat Vidyapeeth was founded on October 18, 1920, by Mahatma Gandhi during the Non-Cooperation Movement to provide education independent of British colonial control.

21Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Film Reva is adapted from a Gujarati novel titled ______________
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Answer: (B) Tatvamasi

Explanation

The Gujarati film Reva is a 2018 adventure drama based on the acclaimed 1998 Gujarati novel Tatvamasi, written by the well-known author Dhruv Bhatt. The story depicts the spiritual and emotional transformation of an NRI youth during his journey along the Narmada River. The cinematic adaptation received widespread acclaim and won the National Film Award for Best Feature Film in Gujarati.

22HistoryGujarat-specific
Where among the following was the First 'Praja Mandal' was set up?
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Answer: (A) Baroda

Explanation

The Vadodara Rajya Praja Mandal was established in the princely state of Baroda in 1916. Founded during the progressive administration of Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III, it was the earliest political organization of its kind in the region designed to advocate for democratic reforms, civil liberties, and constitutional governance.

23HistoryGujarat-specific
In 1858, Wagers attacked the Gaekwad army and British troops stationed in the Baroda state and forced them to retreat. The rebels established their control over Dwaraka and Bet. Who was declared the leader of the rebels and King of Dwaraka thereafter?
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Answer: (D) Jodha Manek

Explanation

During the Indian Rebellion of 1857-1858, the Vaghers (referred to as Wagers or Waghers in some administrative records) of Okhamandal in Saurashtra revolted against the combined authority of the Gaekwads of Vadodara and the British East India Company. In 1858, the Vagher rebels launched a successful offensive, driving out the Gaekwad army and the British troops stationed in the region. After capturing the strategic areas of Dwaraka and Bet Dwaraka, the insurgents established their authority over the region, and Jodha Manek was declared the leader of the uprising and the King of Dwaraka. He continued to lead the resistance through guerrilla warfare in the years that followed.

24History
'Police Action' against ........... princely state was titled as Operation Polo.
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Answer: (D) Hyderabad

Explanation

Operation Polo was the code name of the military action launched by the Indian Armed Forces in September 1948 to integrate the princely state of Hyderabad into the Indian Union. Following India's independence in 1947, the Nizam of Hyderabad, Mir Osman Ali Khan, refused to accede to India and attempted to maintain an independent state. Amidst rising violence by the Razakars, a private militia, and growing instability in the region, the Indian government led by Deputy Prime Minister Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel ordered a "police action" on September 13, 1948. The military operation concluded within five days, leading to the surrender of the Hyderabad forces and the successful integration of the territory into India.

25History
With reference to Mahalwari Settlement, which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. It was a modified version of the Permanent Settlement. 2. The land revenue was fixed permanently in this system.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

The Mahalwari Settlement, introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822 in the Gangetic Valley, the North-West Provinces, parts of Central India, and the Punjab, was a modified version of the Zamindari (Permanent) Settlement. While it retained elements of revenue collection, the unit of assessment was the village or estate (mahal) represented by the village headman (lambardar). Furthermore, the land revenue in this system was revised periodically based on detailed field surveys and estimates of land productivity, rather than being permanently fixed.

26History
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Theosophical Society? 1. It was founded in 1875 by Madam H. P. Blavatsky and a former English army officer, Colonel H. S. Olcott. 2. Its aim was to achieve a universal brotherhood of man. 3. It focussed at promoting the study of ancient religion and philosophy. 4. It emphasized on occultism.
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Answer: (A) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Colonel Henry Steel Olcott was an American military officer who served in the Union Army during the American Civil War, not an English army officer.

The Theosophical Society was founded in New York in 1875 with the primary objective to form a nucleus of the universal brotherhood of humanity, without distinction of race, creed, sex, caste, or color.

The society promoted the study of comparative religion, philosophy, and science, focusing on reviving and studying ancient systems of thought, particularly those of the East.

It also emphasized occultism and spiritualism by aiming to investigate unexplained laws of nature and the psychical powers latent in humanity.

27History
The Travancore Rebellion in 1809 was led by its Diwan _______________.
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Answer: (A) Velu Thampi

Explanation

Velu Thampi Dalawa served as the Diwan of the Kingdom of Travancore between 1802 and 1809. He spearheaded a major armed rebellion against the British East India Company in 1808–1809 in protest against the heavy financial burden imposed by the Subsidiary Alliance and the constant interference of the British Resident, Colin Macaulay, in the internal affairs of the state. During this struggle, Velu Thampi issued the historic Kundara Proclamation on January 11, 1809, rallying the local population to defend their land and traditions against British domination.

28History
The Treaty of Amritsar (1809) was an agreement between Ranjit Singh and _______________.
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Answer: (B) Metcalfe

Explanation

The Treaty of Amritsar was signed on April 25, 1809, between Maharaja Ranjit Singh of the Sikh Empire and Charles T. Metcalfe, who represented the British East India Company. Negotiated during the tenure of Governor-General Lord Minto, this historic pact established the River Sutlej as the boundary line between the British sphere of influence and the Sikh kingdom, effectively halting Ranjit Singh's expansionist plans south of the river while guaranteeing his sovereignty to the north and west of it.

29HistoryGujarat-specific
________, a socio-religious organization, was co-founded by Mehtaji Durgaram Manchharam of Surat.
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Answer: (A) Manav Dharma Sabha

Explanation

Manav Dharma Sabha was co-founded by Mehtaji Durgaram Manchharam, Dadoba Pandurang Tarkhadkar, and others in Surat on June 22, 1844. As one of the earliest social reform organizations in Gujarat, its primary objectives were to challenge superstitious beliefs, oppose the rigid caste system, promote monotheism, and advocate for social reforms such as widow remarriage. Durgaram Manchharam, a pioneering Gujarati social reformer and educator, used this platform to create social awareness and intellectual awakening in western India by organizing weekly meetings and debates on progressive issues.

30History
A non-Brahmin movement emerged in south India under the leadership of E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker 'Periyar' is known as ___________.
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Answer: (A) Self-Respect Movement

Explanation

The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker, widely known as Periyar, in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. It emerged as a powerful egalitarian movement dedicated to dismantling the caste system and Brahminical hegemony in South India. The movement focused on reclaiming the dignity, equality, and self-respect of non-Brahmins, advocating for rationalism, the eradication of caste-based discrimination, women rights, and the simplification of marriages by conducting them without traditional priestly rituals.

31History
Whose court physician was Charak?
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Answer: (B) Kanishka

Explanation

Charaka served as the court physician of the Kushana king Kanishka I, who ruled during the late first and early second centuries CE. Charaka is celebrated as a foundational figure of Ayurveda, the ancient Indian system of medicine. He compiled and edited the Charaka Samhita, which remains one of the oldest, most comprehensive, and authoritative Sanskrit texts on traditional Indian medicine, internal medicine, and therapeutics.

32History
The Mandasur Inscription and Indore copper plate of Skanda Gupta suggest that ____________.
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Answer: (D) All of the above.

Explanation

The Mandasor inscription and the Indore copper plate of Skandagupta provide valuable information regarding the social and economic life of guilds (shrenis) in the Gupta era. The Mandasor stone inscription records the migration of a guild of silk weavers from Lata to Dashapura, demonstrating that guilds migrated from place to place. The Indore copper plate of Skandagupta documents a perpetual financial endowment given to a guild of oilmen to support a temple, which shows they acted as banks. These records collectively show that guilds were powerful organizations of craftsmen that enjoyed significant economic prosperity, allowing them to fund public works, construct temples, and manage financial trusts.

33History
Navanitakam of the Gupta period was a book on ________________.
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Answer: (C) Medicine

Explanation

The Navanitakam is an ancient Sanskrit manual on medicine and Ayurveda dating back to the Gupta period. Discovered in Kashgar by Lieutenant H. Bower in 1890 as part of the Bower Manuscript, this text is written on birch-bark leaves in the Gupta Brahmi script. It serves as a medical compendium detailing various therapeutic recipes, medicinal formulas, decoctions, powders, medicated oils, and remedies for different ailments, incorporating the teachings of early medical authorities like Sushruta.

34History
________ is the philosophy of Vallabhacharya.
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Answer: (C) Shuddha Advaitavada

Explanation

Vallabhacharya propounded the philosophy of Shuddha Advaitavada, which translates to pure non-dualism. According to this philosophy, the individual soul (Jiva) and the universe (Jagat) are identical to the supreme Brahman, identified as Krishna, and are completely real, without the intervening illusion of Maya. This system emphasizes that the universe is a natural manifestation of Brahman rather than an illusory projection.

35History
________ - an Indian revolutionary couldn't be imprisoned in the Kakori Robbery Case.
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Answer: (A) Chandra Shekhar Azad

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Chandra Shekhar Azad successfully evaded arrest by the British police following the Kakori Train Robbery of August 9, 1925. While most of his fellow revolutionaries from the Hindustan Republican Association who participated in the operation were eventually captured, tried, and subsequently hanged or sentenced to long prison terms, Azad managed to escape. He was never captured or imprisoned by the colonial authorities for this incident, remaining free to continue his revolutionary struggle and eventually reorganizing the group into the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association.

36History
________ - a Ghadarite leader referred to the Mexican revolutionaries as the Mexican Ghadarites.
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Answer: (C) Lala Har Dayal

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Lala Har Dayal was a prominent intellectual and co-founder of the Ghadar Party, which was established in San Francisco in 1913. He played a key role in imparting a secular, egalitarian, and deeply internationalist perspective to the movement. Strongly influenced by anarchist, syndicalist, and anti-colonial movements across the globe, his lectures and articles frequently drew parallels with and inspiration from Irish, Russian, and Mexican revolutionaries. Through these writings, he sought to build global solidarity for anti-imperial struggles and referred to the Mexican revolutionaries as the Mexican Ghadarites.

37Art and Culture
What is Kalaripayattu according to India's culture and tradition?
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Answer: (D) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of Southern India.

Explanation

Kalaripayattu is one of the oldest surviving martial arts in the world, originating in the state of Kerala in Southern India. It is a comprehensive system that includes physical training, self-defence techniques, armed and unarmed combat, and traditional medicine known as Kalari Chikitsa. Practised in a specialized training arena called a kalari, this martial art remains a living tradition that integrates physical prowess with mental discipline and ancient holistic health practices.

38History
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct regarding the All India Trade Union Congress (AITUC)? 1. It was founded during the Non-Cooperation Movement. 2. Lala Lajpat Rai was its first elected president. 3. Indian National Congress opposed its formation.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

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The All India Trade Union Congress was founded on October 31, 1920, in Bombay. This founding occurred during the Non-Cooperation Movement, which was launched by Mahatma Gandhi in August 1920.

Lala Lajpat Rai, the prominent nationalist leader, was elected as the first president of the organization, while Dewan Chaman Lall served as its first general secretary.

The Indian National Congress did not oppose the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress. Prominent Congress leaders were deeply involved in its growth, and at the Gaya session of the Congress in 1922, a resolution was passed welcoming the formation of the All India Trade Union Congress and a committee was formed to assist its work. Leaders like C.R. Das, Jawaharlal Nehru, and Subhas Chandra Bose also presided over its sessions in subsequent years.

39Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match the following by selecting the correct option regarding museums in Gujarat. | List 1 | List 2 | |---|---| | 1. Calico Museum | a. Gautam Sarabhai | | 2. Lalbhai Dalpatbhai Museum | b. Agamprabhakar Muni Shri Punyavijayji Maharaj | | 3. Kite Museum | c. Bhanu Shah | | 4. Sardar Patel Museum | d. Moti Shahi Mahal | Code:
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Answer: (A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

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The Calico Museum of Textiles was founded in 1949 by industrialist Gautam Sarabhai and his sister Gira Sarabhai.

The Lalbhai Dalpatbhai Museum was established to preserve priceless manuscripts, sculptures, and drawings, a project inspired and initiated by the visionary scholar monk Agamprabhakar Muni Shri Punyavijayji Maharaj along with philanthropist Kasturbhai Lalbhai.

The Kite Museum in Ahmedabad was created around a massive personal collection of kites donated to the Ahmedabad Municipal Corporation by the designer and collector Bhanu Shah.

The Sardar Patel Museum, known formally as the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Memorial, is housed within the historic Moti Shahi Mahal, a palace built by Mughal prince Khurram, who later became Emperor Shah Jahan.

40HistoryGujarat-specific
Match the locations of the libraries older than 100 years in Gujarat by selecting the correct option. | List 1 | List 2 | |---|---| | 1. Raichand Deepchand Library | a. Bharuch | | 2. Desai Nanji Sheth Zavershah Harjivan Library | b. Porbandar | | 3. Stuart Public Library | c. Godhra | | 4. Lang Library | d. Rajkot | Code:
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Answer: (A) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

Explanation

The correct matches for the historical libraries in Gujarat are as follows:

Raichand Deepchand Library was established in 1858 in Bharuch by the merchant Premchand Roychand in memory of his father Roychand Deepchand.

Desai Nanji Gokulji and Sheth Zavershah Harjivan Library is a historical public library situated near the sea-face and town hall building in Porbandar.

Stuart Public Library is a historic institution founded in 1866 in Godhra of Panchmahal district.

Lang Library was established in 1856 in Rajkot and named in honor of Colonel William Lang, who served as a British political agent to Kathiawar.

41Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Hathee Singh Jain Temple is dedicated to ________ Tirthankara.
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Answer: (A) Dharamanath

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The Hathee Singh Jain Temple, located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, is a prominent Jain temple constructed in 1848 AD by the wealthy merchant Sheth Hutheesing Kesrisinh and completed by his wife Harkunvar Shethani. The temple is dedicated to Dharmanatha, who is revered as the fifteenth Jain Tirthankara. Built primarily of white marble, the temple is known for its exquisite Maru-Gurjara architectural style and houses the sacred image of Lord Dharmanatha in its main sanctum.

42Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Popularly sung at Navratri festival and weddings in Gujarat, Sanedo has originated from ________.
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Answer: (B) Patan

Explanation

Sanedo is a traditional form of Gujarati folk music and dance that originated in the villages of the Patan district in northern Gujarat. The word Sanedo is derived from Snehdo, which translates to love or affection. Closely related to the elements of Bhavai, the traditional folk drama of the region, Sanedo is made up of catchy four-line couplets addressing various themes such as romance, youth, and lighthearted social satire. Traditionally performed during Navratri festivities and wedding celebrations, the singer chants these verses to the energetic beats of a large damaru-like percussion instrument called the daklu. The art form was brought to the mainstream in the 1980s by Gujarati artist Arvind Barot and was subsequently popularized across Gujarat and globally by the folk singer Maniraj Barot.

43Art and CultureGujarat-specific
________ is not a folk dance form of Gujarati Garba.
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Answer: (C) Dumhal

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Dumhal is a traditional devotional folk dance form of Jammu and Kashmir, rather than Gujarat. It is performed specifically by the men of the Wattal tribe on special occasions to invoke divine blessings. The dancers wear vibrant robes and tall conical caps decorated with beads and shells, performing in a unique ritualistic manner around a banner dug into the ground to the accompaniment of drums and chorus singing.

44Art and Culture
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Hallisaka dance? 1. The dance is very significant in the Harivansha Purana. 2. The dancers form a circle with their hands joined together to form a chain. 3. A young man who acts as Lord Krishna stands in the middle of the 'Gopis.'
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Hallisaka is a traditional group dance native to Gujarat, whose origins are traceably linked to the Harivamsa Purana. In this dance form, the performers arrange themselves in a circular ring by holding hands to form a chain. A single male dancer, portraying Lord Krishna, stands in the center of the circle, while the female dancers, representing the Gopis, circle around him. The rhythm or tala of the dance is maintained through singing and coordinated clapping.

45Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Chitra-Vichitra Mela in Gujarat? 1. It is held at the village of Gubhakhari. 2. The name of the fair is derived from Chitravriya and Vichitravriya, the sons of King Shantanu. 3. Fair is held a day before Holi.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

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The Chitra-Vichitra Mela is a prominent tribal fair celebrated annually in the village of Gunbhakhari (Gubhakhari) in the Sabarkantha district of Gujarat, near the border of Rajasthan.

The name of the fair is derived from Chitravirya and Vichitravirya, the sons of King Shantanu and stepbrothers of Bhishma from the epic Mahabharata. According to local legend, they settled in this region and were cured of their illnesses by the sacred waters of the site.

The festival commences annually a fortnight (fourteen days) after the festival of Holi.

46Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Tangaliya work? 1. It is a famous wood carving and traditional craft of Gujarat. 2. These are puppets vibrantly coloured and beautifully hand-painted. 3. It is usually worn as a wraparound skirt by the women of the Bharwad shepherd community.
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Answer: (B) Only 3

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Tangaliya is a unique, 700-year-old handwoven textile craft native to the Surendranagar district in the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, practiced by the Dangasia community. It is characterized by its exquisite dana work, where contrasting extra-weft threads are hand-knotted around the warp threads to create the effect of raised dots, forming intricate geometric patterns.

Traditionally, this distinctive dotted fabric is used as a shawl and worn as a wraparound skirt by women of the pastoral Bharwad shepherd community. It was awarded the Geographical Indication (GI) status in 2009 to protect its traditional identity and craft.

47Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Jaykumari-Vijay, a play written by _________________ is considered as the first modern love story of Gujarati Literature.
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Answer: (A) Ranchhodbhai Udayaram Dave

Explanation

Ranchhodbhai Udayaram Dave, widely considered the father of modern Gujarati theatre, wrote the play Jaykumari-Vijay. First published in 1864 as a serial in the Gujarati monthly magazine Buddhiprakash, it gained immense popularity. The play is celebrated as the first modern love story in Gujarati literature and is notable for featuring an educated female protagonist. Dave introduced structured, sober theatrical works to reform Gujarati theatre away from the traditional folk-drama style known as Bhavai.

48Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following temple(s) is(are) located on Girnar Mountain? 1. The Jain temple of Neminath 2. The Jain temple of Mallinath 3. The temple of Sampraiti Raja.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Jain temple of Neminath, the Jain temple of Mallinath, and the temple of Sampraiti Raja are all located within the famous sacred temple complex on Girnar Mountain near Junagadh in Gujarat. The Neminath temple is the largest and most celebrated shrine in this complex, dedicated to the twenty-second Tirthankara who attained spiritual liberation on this peak. The Mallinath temple is dedicated to the nineteenth Tirthankara and is noted for its beautiful Solanki-era craftsmanship. The temple of Sampraiti Raja is historically associated with the Maurya Emperor Samprati, who was a devout patron of Jainism and built many shrines on the mountain.

49Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Natak Bhajavata - A book on theatre criticism is written by _________________.
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Answer: (B) C. C. Mehta

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (B) — C. C. Mehta. Chandravadan Chimanlal Mehta (C. C. Mehta) was a leading figure of modern Gujarati theatre as a playwright, actor, and critic, and his book "Natak Bhajavata" is one of his acclaimed works on theatre criticism and stagecraft. Dalpatram (A) was an earlier Gujarati poet/dramatist not associated with this specific critical work, K. M. Munshi (C) was primarily a novelist and statesman, and Janak Dave (D), though a Gujarati theatre scholar, is not the author of this particular book.

50Art and CultureGujarat-specific
____________________ has translated Uncle Vanya by Anton Chekhov into Gujarati as Vanya Mama.
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Answer: (A) Hasmukh Baradi

Explanation

Hasmukh Baradi (1938–2017) was an eminent Gujarati playwright, theater artist, and critic. He translated Anton Chekhov's classic play Uncle Vanya into Gujarati as Vanya Mama in 1983. Having earned a Master of Arts in Theater History from the Lunacharsky State Institute for Theatre Arts in Moscow, Baradi had a deep connection with Russian dramatic literature, which influenced his extensive translation and adaptation work in Gujarati theater.

51Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Match the following information by selecting the correct option regarding crafts of Gujarat. | List 1 | List 2 | |---|---| | 1. Sadeli | a. Bhujodi | | 2. Ajrakh block printing | b. Dhamadka | | 3. Colourful shawls and blankets | c. Poshina | | 4. Terracotta horses | d. Surat | Code:
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Answer: (C) 1-d, 2-b, 3-a, 4-c

Explanation

Sadeli is associated with Surat. It is a traditional wood-inlay marquetry craft where thin geometric strips of wood, bone, metal, and other materials are joined together to embellish wooden surfaces.

Ajrakh block printing is associated with Dhamadka. This centuries-old resist-block-printing technique using natural dyes is practiced by the Khatri community in Kutch, utilizing rich indigo and crimson tones.

Colourful shawls and blankets are associated with Bhujodi. Located in Kutch, Bhujodi is a major weaving hub famous for producing high-quality handloom woolen blankets and shawls with intricate extra-weft motifs.

Terracotta horses are associated with Poshina. This village in the Sabarkantha district is internationally recognized for its tribal shrines lined with votive terracotta horses offered by local adivasis to their deities.

52Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Select the correct option from the choices given below regarding the examples of Torana architecture in Gujarat. 1. Sun Temple, Modhera 2. Rudramahalaya, Siddhpur 3. Ranchodji Temple, Valam
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

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Toranas are highly decorated ceremonial archways or free-standing gateways typical of the Solanki (Chalukya) style of temple architecture in Gujarat.

The Sun Temple at Modhera, built during the reign of Bhima I, has a magnificent free-standing torana located between the Surya Kunda and the Sabha Mandapa.

The Rudramahalaya Temple at Siddhpur, initiated by Mularaja and completed by Siddhraj Jaisinh, contains beautifully carved surviving pillars of a grand torana gateway.

The Ranchodji Temple at Valam in the Mehsana district also features an elegant and well-preserved historic torana gateway standing in front of the main temple structure.

53Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following lyric(s) is(are) written by Jhaverchand Meghani? 1. Supdu Savalakhnu... 2. Aaso Maso Sharad Poonam ni Raat Jo... 3. Man Mor Bani Thangat Kare...
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Jhaverchand Meghani, widely recognized as the National Poet of Gujarat, played a monumental role in writing, translating, and collecting Gujarati literature and folk songs.

Man Mor Bani Thangat Kare is one of his most celebrated lyrical creations. It is a beautiful Gujarati translation and adaptation of Rabindranath Tagore's famous Bengali poem Navavarsha.

Supdu Savalakhnu and Aaso Maso Sharad Poonam ni Raat Jo are traditional Gujarati folk songs that were meticulously documented, preserved, and compiled by Meghani in his seminal work Radhiali Raat, which serves as a treasure trove of Gujarati folk heritage.

Thus, all three of the specified lyrics are authored or compiled by Jhaverchand Meghani.

54Art and CultureGujarat-specific
The local artisans of _________________ district has mastered the Kamangari Art (A form of Fresco).
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Answer: (B) Kutch

Explanation

Kamangari art, also known as Kamangiri bhint chitro, is a unique form of fresco and mural painting native to the Kutch region of Gujarat. Dating back to the 18th century, this traditional art form was practiced by the Kamangars, a local community of skilled artisans who initially crafted bows and arrows before transitioning to decorating the walls of homes, temples, and palaces. These fresco paintings are executed on wet plastered surfaces using natural colors derived from leaves, pebbles, and clay. Rich examples of this heritage can still be found in historic Kutch structures like the Aina Mahal in Bhuj and the Tera Fort.

55HistoryGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct and indicates the existence of Buddhism in Gujarat? 1. Illustrated miniature manuscripts in Vadodara Museum Collection 2. Sculptures in the step well of Adalaj 3. Asokan Rock edict in Junagadh 4. All of the above
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

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The key evidence of Buddhism's historical presence in Gujarat includes:

Illustrated miniature manuscripts in Vadodara Museum Collection: The Baroda (Vadodara) Museum and Picture Gallery houses a rich collection of ancient illustrated palm-leaf and miniature manuscripts. These include Buddhist texts (such as the Prajnaparamita), which document the historical reach and practice of Buddhism in Western India and Gujarat. Asokan Rock edict in Junagadh: One of the most significant archaeological evidences of Buddhism in Gujarat is the boulder at the foothills of Mount Girnar in Junagadh. It contains 14 Rock Edicts of the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka, promoting Buddhist principles of Dhamma. Adalaj Stepwell (Adalaj ni Vav): Built in 1498 CE, this stepwell is a fusion of Solanki (Hindu) temple architecture and Islamic structural design. Its sculptures feature Hindu deities, floral motifs, and daily life scenes, with no connection to Buddhist iconography.

56HistoryGujarat-specific
Ra-Lakha folklore refers to the king of ________________.
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Answer: (A) Kutch

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The Ra-Lakha folklore revolves around Ra Lakha Phulani, also known as Lakho Phulani, a legendary 10th-century king who ruled over the Kutch region of Gujarat. He is celebrated in local oral traditions, Charni literature, and historic accounts as a powerful warrior and a generous ruler who established his capital at Kapilkot in Kutch. Several historical monuments in the region, including the Kotay Sun Temple and the Shiva temple in Kera, are locally attributed to him and are often referred to as Ra Lakha temples, highlighting his deep connection to the cultural and historical heritage of Kutch.

57Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Prag-Mahal in Kutch is built in ____________________ architectural style.
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Answer: (C) Italian Gothic

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Prag Mahal is a 19th-century palace situated in Bhuj, Gujarat, designed by the British architect Colonel Henry Saint Wilkins in the Italian Gothic style. Its construction began in 1865 under the reign of Maharao Pragmalji II and was completed in 1879. Italian artisans were specially employed alongside local Kutchi craftsmen to construct the palace, which features classic Italian Gothic elements such as Corinthian columns, pointed arches, and a prominent 150-foot clock tower.

58Art and Culture
Hindola Raga miniature painting depicts which of the following God and Goddess?
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Answer: (B) Krishna and Radha

Explanation

The word Hindola translates to a swing in Sanskrit, and the Hindola Raga in Ragamala miniature paintings represents the mood of young love during the spring or monsoon season. This musical raga is visually personified by depicting Lord Krishna and his beloved Radha seated together on a decorated swing. They are typically shown in a lush, romantic landscape, often surrounded by female attendants and musicians (gopis) who play musical instruments and rock the swing, symbolizing the divine and celebratory love between the couple.

59HistoryGujarat-specific
Aditya Ram, state musician of princely state ________________ popularised the singing style of Chaturang a variant of Drupad.
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Answer: (C) Jamnagar

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Pandit Adityaram Vyas (1819–1880) was a renowned classical musician and musicologist who served as the court musician of the princely state of Jamnagar under Jam Saheb Vibhaji. He was an expert vocalist and authored the prominent musical treatise Sangeetaditya. He is widely credited with popularising the singing style of Chaturang, a classical vocal style consisting of four parts that is considered a variant of the traditional Dhrupad.

60Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Who is the artist of Banyan the identity sculpture of Vadodara?
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Answer: (B) Nagji Patel

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The celebrated modern Indian sculptor Nagji Patel created the iconic twenty-foot-high Banyan Trees public sculpture in pink Jodhpur sandstone. Commissioned in 1991, the monumental sculpture pays homage to the city of Vadodara, whose name is derived from the banyan tree (vad in Gujarati). Originally located at the Fatehgunj crossing, it served as a major symbolic landmark and artistic gateway for the city.

61Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Saptamatruka sculptures are popular in Gujarat. 2. Saptamatruka worshipping started in Gujarat during Kshatrap time. 3. Saptamatrukas are generally carved in single panels. 4. Saptamatruka shrines are located at Pacchtar, Adodar and Balej in Gujarat.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Saptamatruka (seven mother goddesses) sculptures are highly popular in Gujarat, reflecting a robust history of Shaktism in the region.

The inception of Matruka worship in Gujarat is historically associated with the Western Kshatrapa (Kshatrap) era, representing the early evolution of mother goddess iconography from folk worship to classical depictions.

Architecturally, the seven matrukas, accompanied by Ganesha and Virabhadra, are generally carved side-by-side in a single, continuous horizontal relief panel or stone slab rather than as independent individual statues.

Ancient and early medieval Saptamatruka shrines, ruins, and architectural vestiges are situated at well-known historic sites in Gujarat, specifically Pacchtar, Adodar, and Balej, which are concentrated in the Saurashtra and Porbandar coastal belt.

62Art and Culture
_________________ is a famous Jain monk for miniature painting of 14th century.
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Answer: (A) Kalakacharya

Explanation

Kalakacharya is a legendary Jain monk-scholar whose deeds and teachings are recorded in the Kalakacharya Katha. During the 14th century, with the transition from palm-leaf manuscripts to paper, the Kalakacharya Katha became one of the most widely illustrated texts in the Western Indian school of miniature painting. These early manuscripts feature rich illustrations depicting scenes from his life, securing his place as a prominent figure in the history of Indian miniature art.

63Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Choose the correct combination of information from the following pairs.
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The Rathwa tribe is an indigenous community primarily residing in the east-central region of Gujarat, with a significant concentration in the Chhota Udaipur and Vadodara districts.

The Warli tribe is a major indigenous community predominantly located in the North Sahyadri range of Maharashtra, especially in the Thane, Palghar, and Nashik districts.

The Garasiya tribe is native to the hilly terrains of Rajasthan and Gujarat, particularly concentrated in the Aravalli range.

Because the provided pairs do not represent the correct geographical distributions of these tribes, none of the listed combinations are correct.

64History
Which of the following deity is depicted in Yogasana posture on Indus Sea?
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Answer: (C) Pashupathi

Explanation

The Pashupati seal discovered at Mohenjo-daro depicts a male deity sitting on a platform in a meditative, cross-legged yogic posture (yogasana). The figure wears a three-horned headgear and is surrounded by various wild animals, including an elephant, a tiger, a rhinoceros, and a buffalo, with two deer beneath his seat. Historian Sir John Marshall identified this figure as a proto-Shiva or Pashupati, representing an early form of the deity Shiva as the Lord of Animals.

65Art and Culture
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect about Pichvai? 1. Pichvai is the temple wall hanging used as a backdrop of the God's idol. 2. Pichvai is cloth painting. 3. Pichvai depicts scenes of Krishna's life. 4. Pichvai is the popular art form of southern India.
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Answer: (D) Only 4

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Statement 4 is incorrect because Pichvai is a traditional art form of western India, specifically originating from the town of Nathdwara in Rajasthan. It is not an art form of southern India. The word Pichvai is derived from the Sanskrit words pich meaning back and vai meaning hanging, representing the large painted cloth hangings used as backdrops in the shrines of Shrinathji, a manifestation of Lord Krishna, in the temples of Rajasthan.

66Art and Culture
Which among the following is the correct description of Nagara, Dravida and Vesara?
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Answer: (C) Three main styles of Indian temple architecture

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Nagara, Dravida, and Vesara represent the three primary architectural styles of Hindu temples in India. The Nagara style is characterized by a beehive-shaped tower known as a shikhara and is prevalent across Northern India. The Dravida style, dominant in Southern India, is distinguished by pyramid-like tiered towers called vimanas and grand gateway towers known as gopurams. The Vesara style is a hybrid style that incorporates elements of both Nagara and Dravida architectures, flourishing primarily in the Deccan region under dynasties like the Chalukyas and Hoysalas.

67Art and Culture
Kishangarh School of Rajasthan is famous for _______________.
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Answer: (A) Painting

Explanation

Kishangarh School is a highly distinct and celebrated style of Rajasthani miniature painting that originated in the princely state of Kishangarh in the 18th century. Developed under the patronship of Maharaja Sawant Singh, the school is internationally acclaimed for its unique aesthetic style, characterized by elongated facial features, arched eyebrows, and lotus-like, almond-shaped eyes. Its most famous masterpiece is the painting of Bani Thani, created by the renowned court artist Nihal Chand, which is frequently described as the Mona Lisa of India.

68Art and Culture
Pandavani is a traditional dance | drama | theatre of which one of the following states?
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Answer: (A) Chhattisgarh

Explanation

Pandavani is a traditional folk ballad singing and theatrical art form originating from Chhattisgarh. In this performance, the artist narrates tales from the Mahabharata, particularly focusing on the adventures of the Pandavas, accompanied by music and enactment. The lead artist usually holds a stringed instrument called a tanpura, which is also used as a prop to represent various weapons or objects during the narration. Renowned artists like Teejan Bai have popularized Pandavani globally, bringing widespread recognition to this traditional performing art of Chhattisgarh.

69Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Dada Hari.ni Wav (Stepwell | Baoli) is located at _____________.
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Answer: (D) Ahmedabad

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Dada Hari ni Vav is a historic stepwell built in 1499 AD in the Asarwa area of Ahmedabad, Gujarat. It was commissioned during the reign of Sultan Mahmud Begada by Dhai Harir (also known as Bai Harir Sultani), who was the superintendent of the royal harem. The stepwell is built in the Solanki style of architecture using sandstone, and it features intricate carvings across its five underground levels. It contains historical inscriptions in both Sanskrit and Arabic.

70Art and Culture
The walls of Nagara style temples are known as _________________.
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Answer: (A) Mandovar

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The exterior wall of a traditional Nagara-style temple, particularly within the Solanki or Maru-Gurjara architectural tradition of Western India, is known as the Mandovar. It represents the main vertical wall of the sanctum sanctorum (garbhagriha) and the assembly hall (mandapa). In traditional temple architecture treatises (Shilpa Shastras), the Mandovar is a crucial element used for calculating the structural proportions and dimensions of the temple. This wall is highly decorated with intricate horizontal molding bands—such as kumbha, kalasha, and kapotali—and features exquisite sculptural carvings of deities, celestial dancers (surasundaris), and narrative panels.

71HistoryGujarat-specific
The first female graduate of Gujarat is _________________.
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Answer: (A) Shardagauri Mehta

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Shardagauri Mehta, along with her elder sister Vidyagauri Nilkanth, became the first female graduate of Gujarat in 1901. She earned her Bachelor of Arts degree in Logic and Moral Philosophy from Gujarat College in Ahmedabad, which was affiliated with the University of Bombay at the time. Beyond this educational milestone, she was a pioneering social reformer, education activist, and Gujarati writer who established multiple institutions for women's welfare and actively participated in India's independence and social reform movements.

72Art and CultureGujarat-specific
The mansions (Havelis) of Gujarat are influenced by _____________ style of Architecture.
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Answer: (B) Maru-Gurjar

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The traditional mansions (Havelis) of Gujarat are significantly influenced by the Maru-Gurjar style of architecture, which represents an opulent style of West Indian design that originated in Gujarat and Rajasthan between the 11th and 13th centuries. Under the patronage of the Solanki (or Chaulukya) dynasty, this style flourished and was characterized by intricate ornamentation, detailed carvings, decorative pillars, and elegant jharokhas (balconies). These traditional temple-style craftsmanship and structural elements were later adapted by wealthy merchants and local artisans in the construction of residential havelis, resulting in a rich vernacular architecture characterized by exquisitely decorated wooden facades, brackets, and inner courtyards.

73Art and Culture
Match the following: | List I | List II | |---|---| | a. Sankardev | 1. Rasik School | | b. Chaitanyadev | 2. Veershaiva School | | c. Basveshwar | 3. Gaudiya School | | d. Nabhadas | 4. Mahapurushiya School | Code:
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Answer: (C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

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Sankardev is associated with the Mahapurushiya School as he founded the Ekasarana Dharma, also known as the Mahapurushiya Dharma, in Assam to promote egalitarian Vaishnavism.

Chaitanyadev is associated with the Gaudiya School as he was the 16th-century saint who established Gaudiya Vaishnavism in Bengal, emphasizing intense devotional worship of Radha and Krishna through sankirtan.

Basveshwar is associated with the Veershaiva School as he was a 12th-century social reformer and philosopher who founded Veerashaivism, a Shaivite movement in Karnataka that rejected caste hierarchies and temple worship.

Nabhadas is associated with the Rasik School as he was a prominent Vaishnava saint and author of the Bhaktamal, belonging to the Rasik sect of Ramabhakti which focuses on the sweet, aesthetic aspects of devotion.

74Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Famous Gujarati play Santu Rangili is inspired from an English play _______________.
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Answer: (D) Pygmalion

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The celebrated Gujarati play Santu Rangili, written by Madhu Rye and directed by Pravin Joshi, is a highly successful adaptation of George Bernard Shaw's famous English play, Pygmalion. Premiering in 1974, the play features Sarita Joshi in the lead role of Santu, portraying her transformation from a simple, unrefined girl into a sophisticated lady under the guidance of a language professor. This mirrors the original plot of Pygmalion, which revolves around Professor Henry Higgins taking a bet to train a Cockney flower girl, Eliza Doolittle, to pass as a duchess in high society.

75Art and CultureGujarat-specific
The lyricist of a song 'Dhanvan Jeevan Mane chhe Koi Anubhavine Poochhi Jo Ke Kon Jeevi Jane Chhe...' of Gujarati Theatre is _________________.
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Answer: (B) Prabhulal Dwivedi

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The master answer key clearly circles option (B) Prabhulal Dwivedi for Q75. Prabhulal Dwivedi, revered as Natya Maharshi, wrote this famous Gujarati theatre song 'Dhanvan Jeevan Mane Chhe...' for the play Sampatti Maate staged by Shree Deshi Natak Samaj. Raskavi Raghunath Brahmbhatt (A) was a poet but not the lyricist of this specific song, so the original key answer of A recorded in the dataset is incorrect.

76Art and Culture
Choose the correct option by matching the following texts with their authors: | Works | Authors | |---|---| | a. Kahe koyal shor machaye | 1. Saumya Joshi | | b. Aurangzeb | 2. Harish Nagrecha | | c. Ek lalni rani | 3. Chinu Modi | | d. Aathama taranu Aakash | 4. Labhshankar Thaker | Code:
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Answer: (C) a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

Explanation

Kahe koyal shor machaye is matched with Labhshankar Thaker (a-4), as it is a well-known theatrical play written by him in 1993.

Aurangzeb is matched with Chinu Modi (b-3), who wrote the popular play Khalifano Vesh Yani Aurangzeb.

Ek lalni rani is matched with Harish Nagrecha (c-2), representing his award-winning Gujarati play written in 1999.

Aathama taranu Aakash is matched with Saumya Joshi (d-1), which is a highly appreciated Gujarati play written and directed by him.

77GeographyGujarat-specific
________________ is situated at a confluence of rivers - Kapila, Saraswati and Hiranya.
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Answer: (C) Bhalka

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Bhalka (specifically Bhalka Tirtha) is located in Prabhas Patan near Veraval in the Gir Somnath district of Gujarat. It is situated near the sacred Triveni Sangam, which is the confluence of three holy rivers - Hiran (Hiranya), Kapila, and Saraswati - before they empty into the Arabian Sea. According to Hindu mythology, Bhalka is the revered site where Lord Krishna was resting under a peepal tree when he was accidentally struck in the foot by an arrow shot by a hunter named Jara, marking the beginning of his departure from the mortal world.

78Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Doobla people celebrate their festival _________________ by making big doll (Dhinglo).
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Answer: (C) Divaso

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The Dubla tribe, residing mainly in Gujarat, celebrates their most popular festival, Divaso, on the Amavasya of the Hindu month of Ashadha. A prominent custom of this festival involves creating large dolls called Dhinglo (male doll) and Dhingli (female doll). The tribe members arrange a symbolic marriage of these dolls, which is followed by mock funeral rituals and immersion in water. This celebration is marked by traditional music, tur dance, and community feasts.

79History
__________________ was Indian revolutionary who participated in the Indian independence movement until she was shot dead by the British Indian police in front of police station on 29th September 1942. She was affectionately known as 'Gandhi buri.'
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Answer: (B) Matangini Hazra

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Matangini Hazra was a prominent Indian revolutionary from Bengal who actively participated in the Civil Disobedience and Quit India movements. On 29 September 1942, during the Quit India Movement, she led a large procession of freedom fighters to take over the Tamluk police station in Midnapore. When the British Indian police opened fire, she stepped forward to keep the national flag from falling and was shot multiple times, dying with the flag in her hands while chanting Vande Mataram. Her dedicated adherence to Gandhian principles throughout her life earned her the affectionate title Gandhiburi, which means old lady Gandhi in Bengali.

80Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Renowned film musician Jaikishan was born in ____________________ of Gujarat.
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Answer: (C) Vansda

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Jaikishan Dayabhai Panchal, the legendary music composer of the famous Shankar-Jaikishan duo, was born on November 4, 1929, in the town of Vansda (historically known as Bansda) located in present-day Navsari district of Gujarat. Raised in a musical environment, he learned to play the harmonium at an early age and received formal training from masters like Sangeet Visharad Wadilalji and Prem Shankar Nayak before moving to Mumbai to pursue his career in the Indian film industry.

81Art and Culture
Which of the following father-son duo was conferred with National Sahitya Academy year's best book award for their distinctive contributions in the literary field?
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Answer: (D) Mahadev Desai-Narayan Desai

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The father-son duo of Mahadev Desai and Narayan Desai made outstanding contributions to Gujarati literature, with both being honored with the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Award.

Mahadev Desai, a renowned scholar, writer, and personal secretary to Mahatma Gandhi, was posthumously awarded the Sahitya Akademi Award in Gujarati in 1955 for his work Mahadevbhaini Dayari, a collection of his detailed diaries.

His son, Narayan Desai, who was also a prominent Gandhian activist and writer, was conferred with the Sahitya Akademi Award in Gujarati in 1993 for writing the detailed biography of his father.

82HistoryGujarat-specific
What is Hridaya Kunj?
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Answer: (B) A place at Gandhi Ashram

Explanation

Hridaya Kunj is the cottage where Mahatma Gandhi and his wife Kasturba Gandhi lived from 1918 to 1930 within the Sabarmati Ashram, popularly known as the Gandhi Ashram, in Ahmedabad. The cottage was named Hriday Kunj, meaning the "Garden of the Heart," by Kakasaheb Kalelkar. It is preserved as a national monument and displays several of Gandhiji's personal belongings, such as his spinning wheel (charkha), writing desk, and wooden sandals.

83Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Kutchhi language is a mix of which two languages?
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Answer: (B) Sindhi and Gujarati

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The Kutchhi language, spoken primarily in the Kutch district of Gujarat, is a Northwestern Indo-Aryan language that has historically functioned as a linguistic link between the Sindh region and Gujarat. Because Kutch is geographically situated between Sindh and Gujarat, the language evolved as a unique combination of Sindhi and Gujarati. While its grammatical structure and most of its core vocabulary are deeply rooted in Sindhi, its extensive contact with Gujarat over the centuries has led to the adoption of a large amount of Gujarati vocabulary and the usage of the Gujarati script for written communication.

84Art and CultureGujarat-specific
The first theatre group of Gujarati, Parsee Natak Mandali was founded by ______________.
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Answer: (A) Framjee Gustadjee Dalal

Explanation

The Parsee Natak Mandali was founded in 1853 by Framjee Gustadjee Dalal, marking the official beginning of modern Gujarati and Parsi theatre. The group performed its first Parsi-Gujarati play, Rustam Sohrab, based on the Persian epic Shahnameh, along with a farce titled Dhanji Gharak, at the Grant Road Theatre in Mumbai on October 29, 1853.

85History
Shaheed Bhagat Singh was a part of which of the following organization(s)?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

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Shaheed Bhagat Singh was actively associated with all three of these revolutionary organizations during his lifetime.

In March 1926, he founded the Naujavan Bharat Sabha in Lahore to mobilize the youth, peasants, and workers against British colonial rule and to promote a socialist and secular ethos.

He was also a prominent member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA). Under his influence and that of other leaders like Chandrashekhar Azad and Sukhdev, the organization formally adopted a socialist ideology and was renamed the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA) in Delhi in September 1928.

Additionally, Bhagat Singh was closely associated with the Kirti Kisan Party. He joined the party in Lahore and worked on the editorial board of its revolutionary journal, Kirti, where he authored numerous articles advocating for the rights of workers and peasants.

86Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Saptayatan style temple is located at _______________ in Gujarat.
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Answer: (A) Dhrasanvel

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The Magderu temple, dating back to the 8th century CE during the Maitraka period, is a prominent example of the Saptayatan style of temple architecture. Located in Dhrasanvel village near Dwarka in Devbhoomi Dwarka district, this early Nagara style complex features a large central shrine surrounded by six smaller subsidiary shrines on a low platform.

87Art and Culture
Who among the following was awarded Sangeet Natak Akademy Award (New Delhi) for stage direction?
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Answer: (C) Nayak Keshavlal

Explanation

Nayak Keshavlal (often referred to as Keshavlal Nayak) is a highly celebrated theatre veteran from Gujarat, renowned for his extensive contributions to both the traditional folk theatre of Gujarat (Bhavai) and the modern stage. Coming from a family of traditional performers, he dedicated his career to directing and performing in numerous acclaimed plays, blending classical sensibilities with folk performance styles. In recognition of his mastery and pioneering work in theatre, he was honored with the prestigious Sangeet Natak Akademi Award for stage direction by the National Academy of Music, Dance and Drama in New Delhi.

88Art and Culture
Swami Haridas is famous for his devotional compositions in ______________ style.
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Answer: (C) Dhrupad

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Swami Haridas was a highly revered saint, musician, and poet of the Bhakti movement who lived in the Vrindavan region. He is widely credited with the development and popularization of the classical Dhrupad style of Hindustani music, particularly through his devotional compositions known as Vishnupadas. He composed numerous songs in the Dhrupad genre dedicated to Lord Krishna, and his musical lineage is said to have produced legendary court musicians like Tansen and Baiju Bawra.

89History
Rural Olympics was organized at _______________ in India.
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Answer: (D) Kila Raypur

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The Qila Raipur Sports Festival, popularly known as the Rural Olympics, is held annually in the village of Kila Raipur near Ludhiana in Punjab, India. This prominent event showcases traditional rural sports, martial arts, and Punjabi cultural performances. Founded in 1933, it attracts thousands of sports enthusiasts and spectators from across the globe to witness iconic competitions including kabaddi, wrestling, tug-of-war, and various displays of physical strength and endurance.

90Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Sarth Gujarati Jodanikosh is published by _______________.
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Answer: (C) Gujarat Vidyapith

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Sarth Gujarati Jodanikosh is a standardized dictionary of the Gujarati language published by Gujarat Vidyapith. The dictionary was first published in 1929 by the Kosh Karyalay of Gujarat Vidyapith, which was established at the suggestion of Mahatma Gandhi to bring uniformity and standardization to Gujarati spellings. Over the decades, Gujarat Vidyapith has published several updated editions of this lexicon, making it the most authoritative reference for spelling and vocabulary in the Gujarati language.

91Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. According to the Representation of People Act (1950), the relevant date for determining the age qualification of 18 years to enroll as first time voters is described as follows: "Qualifying Date means the first day of January of the year in which the electoral roll is prepared or revised." 2. The electoral rolls are prepared Lok Sabha constituency wise. 3. A person disqualified due to 'Corrupt Practices' or offences relating to elections is not entitled to be registered in the electoral rolls. 4. A young citizen of India completing 18 years on 9th November 2018 will be able to vote for the assembly elections to be held in December 2018.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Section 14(b) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, defines the qualifying date for the preparation or revision of the electoral roll as the first day of January of the year in which the roll is prepared or revised. This means Statement 1 is correct.

Section 16 of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, lays down the disqualifications for registration in an electoral roll. It explicitly states that a person is disqualified from registration if they are disqualified from voting under the provisions of any law relating to corrupt practices and other offences in connection with elections, making Statement 3 correct.

Under Section 15 of the same Act, electoral rolls are prepared for each Assembly constituency, rather than Lok Sabha constituencies, which makes Statement 2 incorrect. Furthermore, because the qualifying date for the electoral roll is January 1 of the preparation year, an individual who turns 18 on November 9, 2018, will not meet the age criteria of 18 years on January 1, 2018. They would only become eligible for registration on January 1, 2019, making Statement 4 incorrect.

92Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Sarkaria Commission recommended the establishment of Inter-State Council. 2. Inter-State Council was notified and established by the Presidential order. 3. Inter-State Council was the recommendation of the States Committee of Constituent Assembly.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2

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The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-State Relations, which submitted its report in 1988, strongly recommended the establishment of a permanent Inter-State Council under Article 263 of the Constitution to promote cooperative federalism and resolve disputes between the Union and the States.

In pursuance of this recommendation, the President of India issued an order on May 28, 1990, officially establishing the Inter-State Council. Under Article 263, the President is empowered to establish such a council and define the nature of duties to be performed by it, as well as its organization and procedure.

93Polity and Governance
Which statement of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (C) The Chairman of All Parliamentary committees are nominated by the Speaker.

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The statement is incorrect because parliamentary committees include those of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha. While the Speaker of the Lok Sabha appoints the chairmen of committees belonging to the Lok Sabha, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha appoints the chairmen of committees belonging to the Rajya Sabha. Additionally, certain committees have ex-officio chairmen who hold the post by virtue of their office rather than by nomination, such as the Speaker or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha presiding over their respective Business Advisory Committees, Rules Committees, and General Purposes Committees.

94Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. The judgment in First Judges Case declared that the Primacy of The CJI's recommendations to the President can be refused for cogent reasons. 2. The judgment in Second Judges Case declared that "justiciability" and "primacy" required that the CJI be given the "primal" role in such appointments. 3. The judgment in Three Judges Case ruled out the concept of "primacy" of the highest judiciary over the executive.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

First Judges Case (S. P. Gupta v. Union of India, 1981) held that the recommendation of the Chief Justice of India (CJI) could be rejected by the executive for cogent reasons, granting the executive primacy over judicial appointments.

Second Judges Case (Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India, 1993) reversed the earlier position, holding that the concepts of justiciability and primacy necessitated giving the CJI the primal role in judicial appointments, which led to the creation of the Collegium system.

Third Judges Case (Special Reference No. 1 of 1998) did not rule out primacy; instead, it strongly reinforced and reaffirmed the primacy of the highest judiciary over the executive by expanding the consultation process to a collegium comprising the CJI and four senior-most judges of the Supreme Court.

95Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Government of India Act (1919) provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission in India. 2. The Public Service Commission was set up in India for the first time in 1926. 3. With the existence of Indian Constitution in 1950 the Federal Public Service Commission came to be known as the Union Public Service Commission. 4. Chairman and Members of the Federal Public Service Commission became Chairman and Members of the Union Public Service Commission by Article 378 of Indian Constitution.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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The Government of India Act 1919 provided for the establishment of a Public Service Commission under Section 96C. Following the recommendations of the Royal Commission on the Superior Civil Services in India, commonly known as the Lee Commission of 1924, this commission was set up for the first time in India on October 1, 1926. Under the Government of India Act 1935, it was reconstituted as the Federal Public Service Commission. With the commencement of the Constitution of India on January 26, 1950, the Federal Public Service Commission was renamed the Union Public Service Commission. Article 378 of the Constitution of India provided the transitional framework through which the Chairman and members of the Federal Public Service Commission automatically transitioned to become the Chairman and members of the newly formed Union Public Service Commission.

96Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners have a tenure of 06 years, or up to the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. 2. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India holds office for a term of 06 years or until attains age of 65 years whichever is earlier. 3. The retirement age for the Chief Vigilance Commissioner (CVC) is 65 years and comes with a four-year fixed term. 4. A person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission shall, on the expiration of his term of office, be ineligible for reappointment to that office.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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The Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners hold office for a six-year term or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India holds office for a term of six years or until attaining the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, in accordance with Article 148 of the Constitution of India.

The Chief Vigilance Commissioner holds office for a term of four years from the date of entering office or until they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier, under the Central Vigilance Commission Act, 2003.

According to Article 316(3) of the Constitution of India, a person who holds office as a member of a Public Service Commission (UPSC or SPSC) is ineligible for reappointment to that specific office upon the expiration of their term.

97Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding SAARC Charter? 1. Its objective is to promote the welfare of the people of ASIA and to improve their quality of life. 2. The Heads of State or Government shall meet once a year or more often as and when considered necessary by the Member States. 3. Former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi signed the SAARC Charter on behalf of Republic of India. 4. Total 10 Articles are there in SAARC Charter.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Article I of the SAARC Charter explicitly states that the primary objective of the Association is to promote the welfare of the people of South Asia, rather than the entire continent of Asia.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the SAARC Charter was signed on December 8, 1985, during the inaugural summit in Dhaka, Bangladesh. The signatory representing the Republic of India was Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, as Indira Gandhi had passed away in October 1984.

98Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Erstwhile Ministry of Small Scale Industries and the Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries were merged to form the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises. 2. In Service Sector, Micro Enterprise Category investment should not exceed INR 25 lakhs in Equipments. 3. In Manufacturing Sector, Medium Enterprise Category investment should be more than INR 5 crores but should not exceed INR 10 crores in plant and machinery.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

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The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises was established in 2007 by merging the erstwhile Ministry of Small Scale Industries and the Ministry of Agro and Rural Industries. This consolidated the administrative framework for promoting and developing the MSME sector in India.

Under the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development Act of 2006, the classification of enterprises in the manufacturing sector was determined by their investment in plant and machinery. For a medium enterprise in this sector, the investment limits were defined as more than ₹5 crores but not exceeding ₹10 crores.

99Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
A Prepared Community is A Safe Community is the slogan of ______________________.
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Answer: (B) National Disaster Management Authority

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The National Disaster Management Authority of India uses the slogan "A Prepared Community is A Safe Community" to emphasize the critical role of community-level capacity building, awareness, and preparedness in disaster risk reduction. Since local communities are always the first responders during any natural or man-made disaster, equipping them with training and resources directly enhances their safety and minimizes casualties.

100Polity and Governance
Sikshit Bharat - Swasth Bharat - Swachh Bharat - Swavalambi Bharat - Sampann Bharat is the Tagline of ________________.
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Answer: (A) Unnat Bharat Abhiyaan

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Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is a flagship national programme of the Ministry of Education (formerly Ministry of Human Resource Development) designed to connect higher education institutions with rural communities. Under this scheme, universities and colleges adopt clusters of villages and utilize their professional and technological knowledge to find sustainable solutions for local developmental challenges. The tagline "Sikshit Bharat - Swasth Bharat - Swachh Bharat - Swavalambi Bharat - Sampann Bharat" reflects the five major developmental pillars of the scheme, aiming to build an educated, healthy, clean, self-reliant, and prosperous rural India.

101Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Vice-President of India? 1. When Vice-President of India acts as President of India, he doesn't perform the duties of the Chairperson of the Council of States. 2. Vice-President receives salary and other allowances as Ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha not as Vice-President of India. 3. Whenever Vice-President acts as President of India, he will not enjoy the powers, immunities and privileges of President of India. 4. The Constitution is silent on who performs the duties of Vice-President, when a vacancy occurs in the office of Vice-President.
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Under Article 64 of the Constitution of India, during any period when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President under Article 65, they do not perform the duties of the office of the Chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).

The Constitution does not prescribe any specific salary for the post of the Vice-President of India in that capacity. The Vice-President receives salary and allowances in their capacity as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Under Article 65 of the Constitution, when the Vice-President acts as President or discharges the functions of the President, they enjoy all the powers, immunities, and privileges of the President of India, which makes the statement about them not enjoying these privileges incorrect.

The Constitution of India is silent on who performs the duties of the Vice-President when a vacancy occurs in the office of the Vice-President. While the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can perform the duties of the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, there is no constitutional provision for an acting Vice-President.

102Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct about Anti Defection Law? 1. A nominated member of a House will be disqualified if he joins any political party within six months of his/her nomination. 2. If an independent legislator joins a political party he would lose membership. 3. An independent can choose to support any political party but should not attach himself to any political party. 4. If a sole member of a political party in an Assembly joins another political party, he will be disqualified.
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Answer: (B) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

An independent legislator is disqualified from the House if they join any political party after their election. This makes Statement 2 correct.

An independent member can choose to support any political party, such as voting in favor of a government in a confidence motion or supporting a coalition from the outside, but they must not formally join or attach themselves to any political party, as doing so would trigger disqualification. This makes Statement 3 correct.

Under the Tenth Schedule, the exception for a merger requires the original political party to merge with another political party, alongside the agreement of at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party. If a sole member of a political party in an Assembly joins another political party on their own, the merger exception is not met, and they will be disqualified. This makes Statement 4 correct.

A nominated member of a House does not face disqualification if they join a political party within the first six months of taking their seat; they are only disqualified if they join a political party after the expiry of six months. This makes Statement 1 incorrect.

103Polity and Governance
There are three categories of Advocates who are entitled to practice law before the Supreme Court of India. Which of the following category is not in the list?
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Answer: (A) Constitutional Advocates

Explanation

The Supreme Court of India does not recognize any official category or designation known as Constitutional Advocates. Under the Supreme Court Rules, the legal practice before the apex court is strictly regulated and limited to only three designated categories of practitioners: Senior Advocates, Advocates-on-Record, and other Advocates. Since there is no statutory or regulatory framework under the Advocates Act, 1961, or the Supreme Court Rules that defines or establishes a separate class of Constitutional Advocates, it does not exist as a formal category of lawyers.

104Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to writs issued by the Supreme Court and High Courts in India? 1. The writ of Habeas Corpus can be issued against public authorities only. 2. The writ of Mandamus cannot be issued against a private individual or body. 3. The writ of prohibition can be issued only against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities. 4. The writ of Certiorari is available against legislative bodies and private individuals.
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Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3

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The writ of Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of an order from a superior court to any government, court, corporation, or public authority to do or to forbear from doing some specific act which that body is obliged under law to do or to refrain from doing. It is meant to ensure that public duties are performed, and therefore, it cannot be issued against a private individual, private organisation, or to enforce a private contract.

The writ of Prohibition is a preventive writ issued by a higher court to a lower court, tribunal, or quasi-judicial authority to prevent them from exceeding their jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction with which they are not legally vested. In India, the writ of Prohibition is directed solely towards judicial and quasi-judicial bodies, making it unavailable against administrative authorities, legislative bodies, or private entities.

105Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect with reference to the fundamental rights as enshrined in the Indian Constitution? 1. All fundamental rights are available against the arbitrary action of the State only. 2. Some of them are legally enforceable while others are not. 3. Parliament can curtail or repeal them, but only through a constitutional amendment.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because many fundamental rights are enforceable against private individuals as well, and not just against the arbitrary action of the State. For instance, the abolition of untouchability under Article 17 and the prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labor under Article 23 protect individuals from the actions of other private citizens. Statement 2 is incorrect because all fundamental rights are justiciable and legally enforceable in a court of law. Unlike Directive Principles of State Policy, which are non-justiciable, citizens can directly petition the Supreme Court under Article 32 or the High Courts under Article 226 for the enforcement of any of their fundamental rights when they are violated.

106Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct in the case when the Prime Minister of India belongs to the Upper House of Parliament? 1. He will not be able to vote in his favour in the event of a no-confidence motion. 2. He will not be able to speak on the budget in the Lower House. 3. He can make statements only in the Upper House. 4. He has to become a member of the Lower House within six months after being sworn-in as the Prime Minister.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

A no-confidence motion can be introduced, debated, and voted upon only in the Lok Sabha, which is the Lower House of Parliament. According to Article 88 of the Constitution of India, every minister has the right to speak and participate in the proceedings of either House or any joint sitting of both Houses. However, a minister is entitled to vote only in the House of which they are a registered member. Therefore, if the Prime Minister is a member of the Rajya Sabha, which is the Upper House, they do not have the right to vote in the Lok Sabha. In the event of a no-confidence motion being put to a vote in the Lok Sabha, the Prime Minister will be unable to cast a vote in their own favour.

107Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? 1. He cannot preside over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament. 2. He is a member of the House but cannot vote in the first instance. 3. When a resolution for his removal is under consideration, he can speak and take part in the proceedings but without right to vote.
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (the Vice-President of India) cannot preside over a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament. According to Article 118(4) and the relevant rules of procedure, a joint sitting is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or in their absence, the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha, or if they are also absent, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Under Article 92(2) of the Constitution, when a resolution for the removal of the Vice-President from office is under consideration, the Chairman does not preside but has the right to speak in and take part in the proceedings of the Rajya Sabha. However, they are not entitled to vote at all on the resolution or on any other matter during such proceedings.

108Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements regarding sessions of Parliament is incorrect?
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Answer: (A) Adjourned sine die is done by the President, while Adjournment is done by the Speaker.

Explanation

Adjournment sine die, which terminates a sitting of Parliament for an indefinite period, is executed by the presiding officer of the House, namely the Speaker in the Lok Sabha and the Chairman in the Rajya Sabha. The President of India does not have the power to adjourn or adjourn sine die the House; the President's powers are limited to summoning, proroguing, and dissolving the House.

109Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to constitutional amendments? 1. Private members can't introduce Constitutional Amendment Bill in Parliament. 2. President can't refer back Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by Parliament for reconsideration. 3. Constitutional Amendment Bill requires special majority for its approval. 4. There can't be a Joint Session of Parliament for passing a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
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Answer: (B) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Under Article 368 of the Constitution, a Constitutional Amendment Bill requires a special majority in each House of Parliament for its passage, which is a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of that House present and voting. In case of a deadlock or disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of Parliament, meaning each House must pass the bill separately. Additionally, the 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971 made it mandatory for the President of India to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill, meaning the President cannot withhold assent or return the bill to Parliament for reconsideration.

110Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is incorrect with reference to Indian Parliament?
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Answer: (C) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation.

Explanation

Article 265 of the Constitution of India mandates that no tax shall be levied or collected except by authority of law. This means that any modification, increase, or decrease in the rates of taxes that are already in operation cannot be done through administrative action alone and requires legislative authority. Therefore, a Finance Bill or another specific legislative amendment Act is mandatory to execute changes in the rates of existing taxes.

111Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. The total strength of a Legislative Council shall not exceed 40 members subject to minimum of one-third strength of Legislative Assembly. 2. The Legislative Council can have maximum of one-sixth nominated members. These members are nominated by Governor on the recommendation of President.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

According to Article 171(1) of the Constitution of India, the total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State shall not exceed one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State, and the total number of members shall in no case be less than 40. Statement 1 is incorrect because it reverses the maximum and minimum limits.

Additionally, Article 171(3)(e) specifies that one-sixth of the total number of members of the Legislative Council are nominated by the Governor of the State. The Governor makes these nominations from amongst persons having special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, co-operative movement, and social service, acting on the aid and advice of the state Council of Ministers rather than on the recommendation of the President. Therefore, Statement 2 is also incorrect.

112Polity and Governance
In which of the following circumstances, courts are debarred to interfere in electoral matters? 1. Delimitation of constituencies 2. Allotment of seats to the constituencies
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Under Article 329(a) of the Constitution of India, there is a bar to interference by courts in electoral matters. It explicitly states that the validity of any law relating to the delimitation of constituencies or the allotment of seats to such constituencies, made or purporting to be made under Article 327 or Article 328, shall not be called in question in any court. This constitutional provision ensures that the electoral process, including the preparation and finalization of electoral boundaries and seat allocations, is completed smoothly and within a fixed timetable without being delayed by judicial litigation. This means both the delimitation of constituencies and the allotment of seats to these constituencies are kept outside the purview of the courts.

113Polity and Governance
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of President's rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

When President's rule is imposed in a state under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister is dismissed by the President. This is a direct and necessary consequence of the proclamation.

However, the state legislative assembly is not necessarily dissolved; the President has the option to keep the assembly in suspended animation. The dissolution of local bodies like panchayats and municipalities has no relation to the proclamation of President's rule, as these local bodies continue to function under their respective state laws. Therefore, the dissolution of the state legislative assembly and the dissolution of local bodies are not necessary consequences of the imposition of President's rule.

114Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the status of 'official language' in India? 1. Hindi written in Devanagari script is the official language of the Union. 2. The Constitution specifies the official languages of different states. 3. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in English only, until Parliament provides otherwise.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Under Article 343(1) of the Constitution of India, the official language of the Union is Hindi written in Devanagari script, with the form of numerals to be used for the official purposes of the Union being the international form of Indian numerals. Furthermore, Article 348(1) mandates that all proceedings in the Supreme Court and in every High Court shall be conducted in the English language until Parliament by law provides otherwise.

115Polity and Governance
Though the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, the individual Ministers are constitutionally responsible to:
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Answer: (B) The President

Explanation

Article 75(2) of the Constitution of India explicitly states that the Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the President. This represents the principle of individual responsibility, where each Minister is constitutionally responsible to the President of India and can be removed from office by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.

116Economy
What is the difference between 'Vote-on-Account' and 'Interim Budget'? 1. The provision of a vote-on-account is used by a regular Government, while an interim budget is a provision used by a care-taker Government. 2. A vote-on-account only deals with the expenditure in Government's budget, while an interim budget includes both expenditure and receipts.
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

Under Article 116 of the Constitution of India, a Vote-on-Account is a grant in advance passed by the Parliament to authorize the government to withdraw funds from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet its essential expenditures for a short period, typically two months, until the full budget is debated and passed. It deals exclusively with the expenditure side of the budget and does not alter taxation or receipts.

An Interim Budget is a complete financial statement presented by an outgoing government in an election year. It contains detailed estimates of both government receipts and expenditure for the transition period, allowing the incoming government to present the full budget later. Both regular and outgoing governments utilize these provisions depending on the parliamentary timeline and election schedules, meaning these mechanisms are not restricted by caretaker status.

117Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are true about GST Council? 1. The quorum for its meeting is 50% of the total members. 2. Central Government shall have weightage of 2/3rd of the votes and State Governments shall have 1/3rd weightage of the votes. 3. Council's decisions are taken by the majority of not less than 3/4th of the weightage votes of the members present and voting. 4. Only the finance minister of the States can represent the State in the GST meetings.
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statements 1-3 are correct: under Article 279A(7) the quorum for a GST Council meeting is 50% of total members; under Article 279A(9) the Centre has 1/3rd weightage and states together have 2/3rd weightage of votes; and decisions require a majority of not less than 3/4th of the weighted votes of members present and voting. Statement 4 is false because any minister nominated by a State Government (not necessarily the finance minister) can represent that state in GST Council meetings. Therefore only statements 1, 2 and 3 are true, making option C correct.

118Polity and Governance
Central Information Commission falls under ______________ Ministry of Government of India.
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Answer: (B) Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions

Explanation

The Central Information Commission is a statutory body established in 2005 under the Right to Information Act, 2005. It operates under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training, which is a nodal department under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions. This ministry handles the administrative, budgetary, and policy matters related to the functioning of the Commission and the implementation of the Right to Information Act.

119Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement is not correct regarding personal immunity from legal action to the President | Governors?
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Answer: (D) Personal immunity bars a person to challenge the action of the head of the state in the court of law.

Explanation

Under Article 361 of the Constitution of India, the President and Governors enjoy personal immunity from legal proceedings for their official acts. However, this personal immunity does not prevent a person from challenging the validity of the official acts or decisions taken by the President or Governor in a court of law. Such actions of the head of the state can be challenged by bringing appropriate legal proceedings against the Government of India or the respective State Government, as provided under the proviso to Article 361(1). The personal immunity of the head of the state does not shield their official actions from judicial review.

120Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the reservation of seats for representation of certain sections of population in Panchayati Raj Institutions? 1. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes as per the proportion of their population size in the State. 2. Reservation of seats for Scheduled Tribes is linked with their population size. 3. Reservation of seats for Backward Classes is not necessarily linked with their population size.
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Answer: (D) Only 2 and 3

Explanation

According to Article 243D of the Constitution of India, the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayati Raj Institutions is based on the proportion of their population in the respective Panchayat area, rather than their population size in the State as a whole. This direct linkage with local population size makes statement 2 correct.

Furthermore, Article 243D(6) grants discretionary power to the State Legislature to make provisions for reservation of seats or offices of chairpersons in favor of backward classes. Unlike the reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, the reservation for backward classes is not constitutionally mandated to be proportional to their population size, making statement 3 correct.

121Polity and Governance
Union Public Service Commission is not consulted in the matters related to the _________________________.
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Answer: (D) The manner in which effect may be given to the provisions of Article 335.

Explanation

The official GPSC master key clearly circles option (D) for Q121. Article 320(3)(c) requires UPSC consultation on disciplinary matters affecting persons serving the Union or a State in a civil capacity, but the proviso to Article 320(3) empowers the President (for Union) or Governor (for State), in consultation with the UPSC, to make regulations specifying matters (including under Article 335, which deals with reservation for SC/ST in services) in which it is either not necessary or not practicable for the Commission to be consulted. Hence UPSC is not consulted specifically regarding "the manner in which effect may be given to the provisions of Article 335" (option D), which the President/Governor can exempt via regulation. Option C is a plausible distractor since UPSC's role is Union-focused, but the printed key marks D.

122Economy
Which of the following sentence is not correct with reference to the National Pension System in India?
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Answer: (D) The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Act was enacted in the year 2003.

Explanation

The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority Act was enacted in the year 2013, not 2003. Although the Interim Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority was set up via an executive resolution by the Government of India in August 2003, the statutory Act was passed by the Parliament in September 2013 and subsequently notified in February 2014.

123Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act (1986) amended recently? 1. To ban child labour below 14 years. 2. To prohibit employment of adolescent labour aged 14-16 years in all sectors. 3. To prohibit employment of adolescent labour aged 14-18 years in hazardous sector. 4. To regulate their employment in non-hazardous sections.
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016, introduced comprehensive reforms to the original 1986 Act. It completely bans the employment of children below 14 years of age in all occupations and processes, with exceptions limited to family-run businesses (without affecting school education) or as child artists. It defines an adolescent as a person between 14 and 18 years of age and prohibits their employment in specified hazardous occupations and processes, such as mining and handling inflammable or explosive substances. The Act also regulates the working conditions, hours of work, and safety of adolescents working in permissible non-hazardous occupations and processes.

124Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both follow the method of proportional representation for electing members. 2. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies. 3. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is fixed at 552. 4. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, (1988)
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Answer: (D) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected by the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the States in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.

The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha is fixed at 552 members, which includes 530 representatives from the States, 20 representatives from the Union Territories, and 2 members nominated from the Anglo-Indian community by the President.

The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, amended Article 326 of the Constitution of India to lower the voting age from 21 to 18 years for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies.

125Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. 2. During Financial Emergency the President may direct the State Government to send money bills and related bills for his consideration. 3. The Governor also enjoys 'Absolute and Suspensive' veto like President of India.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, the Governor is empowered to reserve certain types of bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. This reservation is obligatory if the bill passed by the state legislature endangers the position of the state High Court.

During a Financial Emergency declared under Article 360, the President can issue directions to the state government requiring all money bills or other financial bills to be reserved for the consideration of the President after they are passed by the legislature of the State.

The Governor enjoys veto powers over state bills similar to those of the President over central bills. These include the absolute veto, where the Governor withholds assent to a bill passed by the legislature, and the suspensive veto, where the Governor returns a non-money bill to the state legislature for reconsideration.

126Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Financial Bill? 1. All money bills are financial bills but not all financial bills are money bills. 2. Some types of financial bills can be changed or rejected by the Rajya Sabha. 3. Some types of financial bills can be introduced in either of the Houses, Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. 4. All types of financial bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha.
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Constitution of India classifies financial bills into three categories: Money Bills under Article 110, Financial Bills (I) under Article 117(1), and Financial Bills (II) under Article 117(3).

Since Money Bills are a specific category of financial bills, all money bills are financial bills, but not all financial bills are money bills.

Both Financial Bills (I) and Financial Bills (II) can be amended or rejected by the Rajya Sabha, unlike Money Bills, where the Rajya Sabha has very restricted powers and cannot reject or amend them.

While Financial Bills (I) can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha, Financial Bills (II), which deal with expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India without containing any matter specified in Article 110, can be introduced in either the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha.

127Polity and Governance
Which of the following feature(s) is(are) included in the fundamental structure of the Indian Constitution? 1. Judicial Review 2. Special leave to appeal by the Supreme Court 3. Federal Character 4. Free and Fair elections
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 3 and 4

Explanation

The basic structure doctrine, formulated by the Supreme Court of India in the landmark Kesavananda Bharati case of 1973, encompasses several features that cannot be amended or destroyed by the Parliament.

Judicial review is a fundamental aspect of this structure, as established in the Kesavananda Bharati and Minerva Mills cases, ensuring the supremacy of the Constitution and keeping a check on legislative and executive powers.

The federal character of the Constitution is another core element of the basic structure, as highlighted in S. R. Bommai v. Union of India, which ensures that the constitutional distribution of power between the Centre and the States remains intact.

Free and fair elections form the bedrock of Indian democracy and were explicitly declared as a part of the basic structure in the Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain case of 1975 to preserve the democratic form of government.

128Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are the provisions of the 44th Constitutional Amendment Act (1978)? 1. Restored the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts in respect of Judicial Review and issues of writs. 2. Replaced the term 'internal disturbance' by 'armed rebellion' with respect of national emergency. 3. The President can declare national emergency only on written recommendation of the Cabinet. 4. Deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right.
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Answer: (C) Only 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1978 was enacted to restore democratic safeguards in the Indian Constitution. It replaced the term internal disturbance with armed rebellion under Article 352 to restrict the misuse of national emergency provisions. It also introduced a mandatory requirement that the President can only declare a national emergency upon receiving a written recommendation from the Cabinet. Additionally, it deleted the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights and reclassified it as a legal right under Article 300A. The restoration of judicial review and writ jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and High Courts was enacted earlier under the 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1977.

129Polity and Governance
A new Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its term shall continue ________________.
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Answer: (B) For the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been dissolved.

Explanation

Under Article 243U(4) of the Constitution of India, a Panchayat constituted upon the dissolution of a Panchayat before the expiration of its duration shall continue only for the remainder of the period for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued had it not been so dissolved. This provision ensures the maintenance of a synchronized five-year election cycle for local bodies within the state.

130Polity and Governance
Which unit of the following units is not functioning under Prime Minister's Office (PMO)?
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Answer: (D) National Capital Region Planning Board.

Explanation

The National Capital Region Planning Board (NCRPB) is a statutory body constituted in 1985 under the National Capital Region Planning Board Act, 1985. It functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (formerly the Ministry of Urban Development). Conversely, the Department of Atomic Energy, the Department of Space, and the National Security Council directly function under the administrative control and supervision of the Prime Minister's Office (PMO).

131Polity and Governance
Recently constituted National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) is functioning under the _________________.
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME)

Explanation

The National SC/ST Hub (NSSH) was launched by the Government of India to provide professional support to Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe entrepreneurs. This initiative functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME) and is implemented by the National Small Industries Corporation (NSIC), a public sector undertaking under the Ministry. The hub is designed to build an enabling ecosystem for SC/ST entrepreneurs to participate effectively in public procurement processes, specifically helping them meet the 4% procurement target from SC/ST enterprises mandated by the Public Procurement Policy for Micro and Small Enterprises.

132Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect? 1. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar was the chairman of Drafting Committee. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru chaired the Union Constitution Committee. 3. Sardar Patel chaired Provincial Constitution Committee. 4. Sardar Patel chaired States Committee. (committee for negotiating with States)
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Answer: (C) Only 4

Explanation

The States Committee, which was responsible for negotiating with the princely states during the framing of the Indian Constitution, was chaired by Jawaharlal Nehru. While Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel played a monumental role in the integration of princely states into the Indian Union, he did not chair this specific Constituent Assembly committee. Instead, Jawaharlal Nehru headed the States Committee, as well as the Union Powers Committee and the Union Constitution Committee.

133Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with reference to the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are correct? 1. The President can refer any matter of public interest to the Supreme Court of India to seek its opinion. 2. The opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference under advisory jurisdiction is not binding on the Government. 3. The Supreme Court under Article 32 can issue Writs for the enforcement of the fundamental rights of the citizens and for any other purpose.
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Answer: (D) Only 2

Explanation

Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the advisory opinion given by the Supreme Court on a reference by the President is purely advisory in nature and is not a judicial pronouncement. Thus, it is not binding on the President or the Government, though it carries high persuasive value.

Under Article 32, the Supreme Court is empowered to issue writs only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights and not for any other purpose. In contrast, High Courts under Article 226 can issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights as well as for other purposes.

The President can only refer a question of law or fact of public importance to the Supreme Court under Article 143, rather than any general matter of public interest.

134Polity and Governance
The Indian Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties ____________________.
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Article 253 of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make laws for the whole or any part of India to implement any treaty, agreement, or convention with other countries, or any decision made at international conferences, associations, or other bodies. This legislative power is exercised by the Parliament without requiring the consent of any state, even if the subject matter falls under the State List. This ensures that the Union government can effectively fulfill its international obligations without being constrained by the division of powers under the federal structure.

135Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements with reference to the no-confidence motion in Parliament are correct? 1. There is no mention of a no-confidence motion in the Constitution. 2. A period of six months must elapse between the introduction of one no-confidence motion and another. 3. At least one hundred members must support a motion of no-confidence motion. 4. A motion of no-confidence motion can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 4

Explanation

The Constitution of India does not make any direct mention of a no-confidence motion. Instead, Article 75 of the Constitution specifies that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The mechanism of the no-confidence motion is governed by Rule 198 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.

Because the Council of Ministers is constitutionally responsible only to the Lok Sabha, a motion of no-confidence can only be introduced and passed in the Lok Sabha. Rajya Sabha does not have the power to entertain or vote on a no-confidence motion.

136Polity and Governance
At the commencement of the Constitution of India, every person shall be a citizen of India who has his domicile in the territory of India and ____________________.
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Answer: (D) All of the above.

Explanation

Article 5 of the Constitution of India provides for citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950. According to this Article, every person who had their domicile in the territory of India and met any of the three alternative conditions became a citizen of India. These conditions include being born in the territory of India, having either of their parents born in the territory of India, or having been ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution. Since satisfying any of these clauses in addition to domicile grants citizenship, all the stated provisions are correct under Article 5.

137Polity and Governance
Which of the following is correct under Article 18 of the Indian Constitution?
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Answer: (D) All of the above.

Explanation

Article 18 of the Constitution of India contains provisions for the abolition of titles to maintain the democratic principle of equality. Clause 1 specifies that the State shall not confer any title, with exceptions made only for military or academic distinctions. Clause 2 prevents citizens of India from accepting any titles from foreign nations to maintain their allegiance to the country. Clause 3 prevents non-citizens who hold an office of profit or trust under the Indian State from accepting any title from a foreign State without the explicit consent of the President of India. Together, these clauses ensure that artificial class distinctions are not created or recognized in India.

138Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. The Constitution amending power embodied in Article 368 is subject to the doctrine of 'Basic structure' propounded by the Supreme Court in Kesavananda Bharati V. State of Kerala. 2. For Constitution amendment prior permission of the President of India is required. 3. The Constitution amendment Bill should initiate in Lok Sabha.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

The landmark judgment of the Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala case (1973) established the Basic Structure doctrine, which limits the amending power of the Parliament under Article 368. The Court ruled that while Parliament has the authority to amend any part of the Constitution, it cannot alter or destroy its basic features.

Furthermore, a Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated in either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha) and does not require the prior permission or recommendation of the President of India. This makes only the first statement correct.

139Polity and Governance
In India, if a religious community is accorded status of national minority, then which are the entitlements? 1. They can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. President automatically nominates a member in Lok Sabha. 3. They can derive benefit from PM's 15-point Programme of 2006.
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Article 30(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees all minorities, whether based on religion or language, the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

The Prime Minister's New 15-Point Programme for the Welfare of Minorities was launched in 2006 to ensure the welfare and development of notified national minority communities, which include Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains. This programme ensures that the benefits of various government initiatives and developmental schemes flow equitably to these minority communities.

140Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Inter-state council? 1. It is established by the order of the President. 2. Its nature of duties is defined by Parliament. 3. Its establishment is meant to serve the public interests.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Under Article 263 of the Constitution of India, if at any time it appears to the President that the public interests would be served by the establishment of a Council, it shall be lawful for the President by order to establish such a Council. This means the Inter-state Council is established by a presidential order to serve the public interest.

Furthermore, Article 263 empowers the President to define the nature of the duties to be performed by the Council, as well as its organisation and procedure. Thus, the nature of its duties is defined by the President rather than Parliament.

141Polity and Governance
Which of the following Act is not considered as a part of the Public Policy formulation process?
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Answer: (D) Evaluation of the policy

Explanation

The public policy cycle is composed of several sequential stages, including problem identification, agenda setting, policy formulation, policy implementation, and policy evaluation. Policy formulation specifically focuses on the design, drafting, and development of strategic proposals and alternative courses of action to address the identified issues. Policy evaluation, on the other hand, is a retrospective stage that takes place only after a policy has been implemented. Its primary purpose is to assess the outcomes, effectiveness, and impacts of the existing policy, which makes it a separate phase of the policy cycle rather than a component of the policy formulation process.

142Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Digital governance has been legalized by the Information Technology Act (2000) in India. 2. Information Technology Act is a watershed in conceptualizing administrative reforms in India. 3. Digital Governance is an attack on bureaucratic red-tapism.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000 provides the necessary legal recognition for electronic transactions, electronic records, and digital signatures in India. By establishing a framework for electronic communication and filing, the act legalized the practice of digital governance.

This legislative development serves as a watershed moment in conceptualizing administrative reforms, transforming public administration from slow, paper-based workflows into modern, technology-driven electronic systems.

Furthermore, digital governance directly attacks bureaucratic red-tapism. By streamlining administrative procedures, automating workflows, and reducing direct physical contact between citizens and public officials, it minimizes procedural delays and significantly enhances transparency and efficiency in the delivery of public services.

143Polity and Governance
Which of the following is(are) the attribute(s) of Human Rights? 1. Inalienability 2. Divisibility 3. Interdependence
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Human rights are fundamental, inherent claims possessed by all human beings. Under international human rights frameworks, such as the Universal Declaration of Human Rights and the Vienna Declaration, human rights possess several key characteristics:

Inalienability refers to the principle that human rights cannot be taken away, surrendered, or transferred under any circumstances.

Interdependence means that different human rights are closely linked and mutually supportive, such that the realization of one right often depends on the fulfillment of others.

Conversely, human rights are characterized by indivisibility rather than divisibility, meaning they cannot be split, prioritized, or treated as separate parts of a hierarchy. Thus, only statements 1 and 3 represent valid attributes.

144Polity and Governance
The allocation of seats in the council of states from the different states of the Union of India has been provided in which of the following Schedule of the Constitution?
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Answer: (D) Fourth Schedule

Explanation

The Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India provides for the allocation of seats in the Council of States, also known as the Rajya Sabha, to the various states and union territories. In accordance with Article 4(1) and Article 80(2), this allocation is based on the population of each state to ensure balanced representation in the upper house of Parliament.

145Polity and Governance
Which scheme was launched for the socio-economic empowerment of adolescent girls and young women (AGYW)?
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Answer: (B) Tejaswini

Explanation

The Tejaswini project is a dedicated initiative launched for the socio-economic empowerment of adolescent girls and young women (AGYW). Formally known as the Tejaswini: Socio-Economic Empowerment of Adolescent Girls and Young Women Project, it was introduced with financial assistance from the World Bank.

The project specifically targets adolescent girls and young women in the age group of 14 to 24 years. Its primary objectives are to support them in acquiring basic life skills, completing secondary education, and gaining access to market-driven vocational and business skills training to enhance their economic independence and overall well-being.

146Polity and Governance
Joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament is allowed during which of the following? 1. Ordinary Bill 2. Money Bill 3. Constitution Amendment Bill
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Answer: (B) Only 1

Explanation

Under Article 108 of the Constitution of India, a joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament can be summoned by the President to resolve a deadlock on an Ordinary Bill or a Financial Bill. This mechanism is not applicable to Money Bills, as the Rajya Sabha has restricted powers and the Lok Sabha holds overriding authority, meaning no deadlock can arise. Similarly, a Constitution Amendment Bill under Article 368 must be passed by each House of Parliament separately by a special majority, explicitly ruling out the provision for a joint sitting to resolve any disagreement between the two Houses.

147Polity and Governance
The historic decision of the Supreme Court has accepted the right to Privacy, under the Article 21 of Indian Constitution, which guarantees right to life and personal liberty, as a fundamental right. Which of the following areas will get affected because of this decision? 1. IPC Section 377 2. Euthanasia
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The landmark nine-judge bench decision of the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (2017) declared the Right to Privacy as an intrinsic part of the Right to Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.

This historic ruling directly impacted IPC Section 377 because the Court held that sexual orientation is an essential attribute of privacy, dignity, and bodily autonomy. The bench explicitly observed that the protection of privacy extends to sexual orientation, which paved the way for the subsequent decriminalization of consensual same-sex acts.

Additionally, the recognition of the Right to Privacy affected the legal landscape of euthanasia. The Court emphasized that the right to privacy encompasses intimate personal choices and bodily integrity, which includes the right of a terminally ill patient to safeguard their dignity by refusing unwanted medical treatment. This philosophical link between privacy, autonomy, and dignity directly informed the judicial validation of passive euthanasia and living wills in the Common Cause v. Union of India judgment in March 2018.

148History
Which sentence of the following sentences is correct with reference to the provisions of the Government of India Act (1858)?
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Answer: (A) It ended the system of double government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Director.

Explanation

The Government of India Act 1858, enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857, transferred the governance of India from the East India Company directly to the British Crown. A key feature of this Act was the abolition of the Board of Control and the Court of Directors, which brought a complete end to the system of double government that had been in place since the Pitt's India Act of 1784. Instead, a new office, the Secretary of State for India, was created with complete authority and control over Indian administration, assisted by a fifteen-member Council of India.

149Polity and Governance
Which sentence of the following sentences is correct about the statutory bodies?
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Answer: (A) Statutory bodies are set up by statutes which Parliament and State Legislatures can pass.

Explanation

Statutory bodies are non-constitutional organizations established by an Act passed by the Parliament or a State Legislature. Since these bodies are created by law, which is also known as a statute, they derive their power, functions, and duties directly from the specific legislation enacted by the respective legislative body. Both the Union Parliament and the State Legislatures have the constitutional authority to pass such statutes under their respective legislative domains, enabling the creation of statutory authorities to handle regulatory, administrative, or specialized public functions.

150Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Article 371 of Indian Constitution? 1. Article 371 provides the establishment of separate Development Boards for Vidharbha, Marthwada and rest of Maharashtra. 2. Article 371 provides the establishment of separate Development Boards for Kutch and rest of Gujarat. 3. According to Article 371 Prime Minister is authorized to assign Governors of Maharashtra and Gujarat would have special responsibilities for the above provisions.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Under Article 371(2) of the Indian Constitution, the President of India is empowered to provide by order for any special responsibility of the Governors of Maharashtra and Gujarat for the establishment of separate development boards. These development boards are established for Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra, as well as for Saurashtra, Kutch, and the rest of Gujarat.

Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct because Article 371 explicitly provides for the creation of these development boards for Maharashtra and Gujarat.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constitution vests the authority to issue these orders and assign these special responsibilities to the Governors in the President of India, not the Prime Minister.

151Economy
If all the numbers from 601 to 800 are written, what is the total number of times the digit 7 appears?
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Answer: (C) 140

Explanation

The range of numbers from 601 to 800 can be divided into three parts to count the occurrences of the digit 7.

In the range 601 to 699: The digit 7 appears in the units place 10 times, in the numbers 607, 617, 627, 637, 647, 657, 667, 677, 687, and 697. The digit 7 appears in the tens place 10 times, in the numbers 670, 671, 672, 673, 674, 675, 676, 677, 678, and 679. This gives a total of 10 + 10 = 20 appearances.

In the range 700 to 799: The digit 7 appears in the hundreds place in every single one of these 100 numbers, which contributes 100 appearances. The digit 7 appears in the tens place 10 times, in the numbers 770 through 779. The digit 7 appears in the units place 10 times, in the numbers 707, 717, ..., 797. This gives a total of 100 + 10 + 10 = 120 appearances.

For the number 800, the digit 7 does not appear.

Adding the occurrences from all parts gives 20 + 120 = 140 total appearances of the digit 7.

152Science and Technology
The ratio of areas of circumcircle and incircle of an equilateral triangle is?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

For an equilateral triangle of side length a, the radius of the circumcircle (R) is given by R = a / √3, and the radius of the incircle (r) is given by r = a / (2√3).

The area of a circle is calculated using the formula πr². Therefore, the ratio of the areas of the circumcircle and the incircle is the square of the ratio of their radii:

Area Ratio = R² / r² = (a / √3)² / (a / (2√3))² = (a² / 3) / (a² / 12) = 12 / 3 = 4 / 1 = 4:1

This yields a ratio of 4:1, which corresponds to d.

153Science and Technology
Two linear equations: × +γ = 3 and -15 - 3γ = 3x has
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Answer: (B) No solution

Explanation

For a system of two linear equations of the form a₁x + b₁y = c₁ and a₂x + b₂y = c₂, the system has no solution when the lines are parallel, which corresponds to the condition: a₁/a₂ = b₁/b₂ ≠ c₁/c₂

Rewriting the given equations in standard form: First equation: x + y = 3 Here, a₁ = 1, b₁ = 1, and c₁ = 3.

Second equation: 3x + 3y = -15 Here, a₂ = 3, b₂ = 3, and c₂ = -15.

Comparing the ratios of the coefficients: a₁/a₂ = 1/3 b₁/b₂ = 1/3 c₁/c₂ = 3/-15 = -1/5

Since 1/3 = 1/3 ≠ -1/5, the condition a₁/a₂ = b₁/b₂ ≠ c₁/c₂ is satisfied. The lines are parallel and have no point of intersection.

154Polity and Governance
Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles - Maruti, Hyundai and Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers. 1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together. 2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti. 3. D is a male doctor. 4. Persons having same profession don't travel in same vehicle. 5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai. What is F's profession?
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Answer: (C) Engineer

Explanation

Since there are seven professionals traveling in three vehicles (Maruti, Hyundai, and Toyota) and only one person in each vehicle is male, there are exactly three males in the group.

From the given clues, we can determine the genders and vehicle assignments: Maruti has exactly two travelers: B (Male, Engineer) and G (Female, Teacher). D is a male doctor. The remaining male must be E (since C is a lady doctor, and A and F are a pair of sisters). Thus, the three males are B, D, and E. Since A and F travel together in Hyundai, and C cannot travel with them, C (Lady Doctor) travels in Toyota. Hyundai must contain A, F, and one male. Toyota contains C and the other male. The professions of the seven individuals are 2 Doctors (C, D), 2 Engineers, and 3 Teachers. Since C and D are the two doctors, the remaining five individuals (A, B, E, F, G) must be Engineers and Teachers. Specifically, there are 2 Engineers and 3 Teachers. We know B is an Engineer and G is a Teacher. Since A is not an engineer, A must be a Teacher. This leaves one Engineer and one Teacher to be distributed between E and F. A and F travel together in Hyundai. Because people with the same profession cannot travel in the same vehicle, F cannot be a Teacher (as A is already a Teacher in Hyundai).

Therefore, F must be an Engineer.

155Polity and Governance
Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles - Maruti, Hyundai and Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers. 1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together. 2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti. 3. D is a male doctor. 4. Persons having same profession don't travel in same vehicle. 5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai. In which vehicle C travels?
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Answer: (C) Toyota

Explanation

From the given conditions, B is a male engineer who travels with only G in Maruti. This means Maruti is completely occupied by only two people, B and G.

Furthermore, A and F are sisters who always travel together, and since A travels in Hyundai, F must also travel in Hyundai.

We are given that C is a lady doctor who does not travel with A and F. Since A and F are in Hyundai, C cannot travel in Hyundai. Since Maruti is already occupied only by B and G, C cannot travel in Maruti either. Thus, C must travel in Toyota.

156Polity and Governance
Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles - Maruti, Hyundai and Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers. 1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together. 2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti. 3. D is a male doctor. 4. Persons having same profession don't travel in same vehicle. 5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai. Who are three teachers?
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Answer: (B) EGA

Explanation

To determine the professions of all individuals, we can systematically analyze the given conditions and distribute them among the three vehicles (Maruti, Hyundai, and Toyota).

From the rules, we know there are 7 professionals: 2 Engineers, 2 Doctors, and 3 Teachers. Since there are 3 vehicles and no two people of the same profession can travel in the same vehicle, there must be exactly one teacher in each vehicle.

From Statement 2: Maruti has exactly two travellers: B (male, Engineer) and G (female, Teacher). Since Maruti is occupied, G is the teacher in Maruti.

From Statement 1 and 5: A and F travel together in Hyundai. Since C (female, Doctor) does not travel with them, C must travel in Toyota.

From Statement 3 and 4: D is a male Doctor. Since C is a Doctor in Toyota, D cannot travel in Toyota. D must travel in Hyundai. Therefore: Hyundai travellers: A (female), F (female), and D (male, Doctor). Toyota travellers: C (female, Doctor) and the remaining professional E, who must be male to satisfy the condition of one male per vehicle.

Identifying professions: Since we have exactly two Doctors (C and D), none of the others can be doctors. A is in Hyundai and is not an Engineer (Statement 5), which means A must be a Teacher. Since A (Teacher) is in Hyundai, F (also in Hyundai) cannot be a teacher. Thus, F must be the second Engineer. Since there must be one teacher in each of the three vehicles: Maruti has G (Teacher). Hyundai has A (Teacher). Toyota must have E as the Teacher.

Thus, the three teachers are E, G, and A.

157Polity and Governance
Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles - Maruti, Hyundai and Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers. 1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together. 2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti. 3. D is a male doctor. 4. Persons having same profession don't travel in same vehicle. 5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai. Which of following is correct?
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Answer: (A) E is a male teacher who travels in Toyota

Explanation

To determine the travelers, their genders, professions, and vehicles, we can analyze the clues step-by-step:

We have seven professionals (A, B, C, D, E, F, G) travelling in three vehicles (Maruti, Hyundai, Toyota). Each vehicle has exactly one male traveller, meaning there are three males and four females in total. The professions consist of two engineers, two doctors, and three teachers, with no two people of the same profession travelling in the same vehicle.

First, B is a male engineer who travels with only G (a teacher) in Maruti. Since there is only one male per vehicle and Maruti is full with two people, G must be a female teacher.

Second, C is a lady doctor. She cannot travel with A and F, who are sisters (both females) and always travel together. Since Maruti is full, A and F must travel in Hyundai. This leaves C to travel in Toyota.

Third, D is a male doctor. Since C is also a doctor (in Toyota), and people with the same profession cannot travel in the same vehicle, D must travel in Hyundai.

With Maruti full (B, G) and Hyundai containing A, F, and D, the remaining professionals C and E must travel in Toyota.

To find the genders: we know B and D are males, and A, C, F, and G are females. Since there are three males and three vehicles (each with one male), E must be the third male, and he travels in Toyota.

To find the professions: each vehicle must contain at most one of each profession. In Hyundai, we have D (doctor), A, and F. Since A is not an engineer (Clue 5) and cannot be a doctor, A must be a teacher. This leaves F to be an engineer. In Toyota, we have C (doctor) and E. Since there must be three teachers in total (one in each vehicle) and G is the teacher in Maruti while A is the teacher in Hyundai, the teacher in Toyota must be E.

Thus, E is a male teacher who travels in Toyota.

158Polity and Governance
Read the following information carefully and choose correct option for given questions: A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven professionals who travel in three different vehicles - Maruti, Hyundai and Toyota. Among travellers in each vehicle, only one person is male. Out of the seven professionals there are two engineers, two doctors and three teachers. 1. C is a lady doctor and she does not travel with pair of sisters A and F, who always travel together. 2. B, a male engineer, travels with only G, a teacher in Maruti. 3. D is a male doctor. 4. Persons having same profession don't travel in same vehicle. 5. A is not an engineer and travels in Hyundai. Which of the following is not correct?
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Answer: (A) E and B are engineers

Explanation

By analyzing the given clues, we can determine the vehicle, gender, and profession of each of the seven professionals:

Maruti has exactly two travellers: B (male engineer) and G (female teacher), as given in statement 2.

Since A and F are sisters (both female), they always travel together. Since A travels in Hyundai, F also travels in Hyundai.

C is a lady doctor who does not travel with A and F, and since Maruti contains only B and G, C must travel in Toyota.

Since each vehicle has exactly one male, and we have 4 females (A, F, C, G) and 3 males (B, D, E): Maruti has B (male). Hyundai has A (female), F (female), and one male. Toyota has C (female) and one male.

Regarding professions (2 doctors, 2 engineers, 3 teachers): We know C is a doctor, and D is a male doctor. This accounts for both doctors. The remaining professionals (A, B, E, F, G) must be either engineers (2) or teachers (3). B is an engineer and G is a teacher. A is not an engineer, so A must be a teacher. In Hyundai, A (teacher) is travelling. Since people with the same profession do not travel together, F and the male in Hyundai cannot be teachers. Since F cannot be a doctor either, F must be an engineer. Since B and F are the two engineers, E must be a teacher.

Thus, the final breakdown is: Engineers: B and F Doctors: C and D Teachers: A, E, and G

This makes statement a) E and B are engineers incorrect, as E is a teacher.

159Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. V51 is a rational number 2. π is an irrational number 3. Every irrational number is a real number
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation

The mathematical constant π is an irrational number because it cannot be expressed as a fraction of two integers, and its decimal representation is non-terminating and non-recurring.

Every irrational number is a real number because the set of real numbers is defined as the union of all rational and irrational numbers.

The square root of 51, denoted as √51, is an irrational number because 51 is not a perfect square, which makes Statement 1 incorrect. Therefore, only statements 2 and 3 are correct.

160Economy
Rs. 7300 is divided among 4 doctors, 3 teachers and 5 lawyers in such a way that 3 lawyers get as much amount as 2 teachers and 3 doctors get as much amount as 2 lawyers. How much amount would each teacher get?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Let d, t, and l represent the amount received by each doctor, teacher, and lawyer respectively.

From the given conditions, we establish the relationship between their shares: 3l = 2t, which gives t = (3/2)l 3d = 2l, which gives d = (2/3)l

The total amount is divided among 4 doctors, 3 teachers, and 5 lawyers: 4d + 3t + 5l = 7300

Substituting the values of d and t in terms of l into the equation: 4(2/3)l + 3(3/2)l + 5l = 7300 (8/3)l + (9/2)l + 5l = 7300

Taking 6 as the common denominator to solve the equation: (16/6)l + (27/6)l + (30/6)l = 7300 (73/6)l = 7300 l = (7300 × 6) / 73 l = 600

Now, we calculate the share of each teacher: t = (3/2)l = (3/2) × 600 = 900

Since ₹900 is not listed in options a, b, or c, the correct choice is None of the above.

161Economy
A student obtained following marks in an examination: English-55, Gujarati-73, Maths-58, Physics-64 and Chemistry-62. What is the weighted Arithmetic mean if weights 1, 2, 1, 3, 3 are allotted to above subjects respectively?
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Answer: (C) 63.7

Explanation

The weighted arithmetic mean is calculated using the formula:

Weighted Mean = ∑(w × x) / ∑w

where x represents the marks obtained in each subject and w represents the respective weights allotted to those subjects.

Substituting the given values into the formula:

Product of marks and weights (w × x): English: 1 × 55 = 55 Gujarati: 2 × 73 = 146 Maths: 1 × 58 = 58 Physics: 3 × 64 = 192 Chemistry: 3 × 62 = 186

Sum of products, ∑(w × x) = 55 + 146 + 58 + 192 + 186 = 637

Sum of weights, ∑w = 1 + 2 + 1 + 3 + 3 = 10

Weighted Mean = 637 / 10 = 63.7

162Science and Technology
The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is ____________.
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Answer: (B) 2/7

Explanation

A leap year contains 366 days. Since there are 7 days in a week, 366 can be expressed as 52 × 7 + 2. This means a leap year has 52 complete weeks and 2 extra days. The 52 complete weeks will definitely contain 52 Sundays. For the leap year to have 53 Sundays, one of the 2 extra days must be a Sunday.

The 2 consecutive extra days can be any of the 7 possible combinations: (Sunday, Monday), (Monday, Tuesday), (Tuesday, Wednesday), (Wednesday, Thursday), (Thursday, Friday), (Friday, Saturday), or (Saturday, Sunday).

Among these 7 equally likely possibilities, there are 2 outcomes that contain a Sunday: (Saturday, Sunday) and (Sunday, Monday). The probability is the ratio of these 2 favorable outcomes to the 7 total outcomes, which is 2/7.

163Economy
If Rs 1000 be invested at an interest rate of 5% and the interest be added to the principal every 10 years, then the number of years in which it will amount to Rs 2000 is
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Answer: (C) 16 2/3 years

Explanation

For the first 10 years, the simple interest is calculated on the initial principal of Rs 1000 at a rate of 5% per annum:

Simple Interest = (Principal × Rate × Time) / 100 Simple Interest = (1000 × 5 × 10) / 100 = Rs 500

At the end of 10 years, this interest is added to the principal to form the new principal:

New Principal = Rs 1000 + Rs 500 = Rs 1500

The target amount is Rs 2000, which means the additional interest required from this new principal is:

Required Interest = Rs 2000 - Rs 1500 = Rs 500

Letting the remaining time required be T years:

500 = (1500 × 5 × T) / 100 500 = 75 × T T = 500 / 75 = 20/3 = 6 ⅔ years

The total time required to reach Rs 2000 is 10 + 6 ⅔ = 16 ⅔ years.

164Science and Technology
If (3x)/(2 + 1){1 + (x)/(1 - x)} = 3 , then the value of x is ___________.
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Answer: (A) 3/2

Explanation

Simplify the innermost term of the fraction: 1 + x / (1 - x) = (1 - x + x) / (1 - x) = 1 / (1 - x)

Substitute this back into the main expression: 3x / (2 + 1 / (1 / (1 - x))) = 3

Simplify the denominator: 3x / (2 + 1 - x) = 3

3x / (3 - x) = 3

Divide both sides by 3: x / (3 - x) = 1

Multiply both sides by 3 - x: x = 3 - x

2x = 3

x = 3/2

165Economy
If the sum of two numbers is 48 and the highest common factor (HCF) and lowest common factor (LCM) are 2 and 286 respectively. Then the sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is ______________.
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Answer: (B) 12/143

Explanation

Let the two numbers be x and y.

The product of two numbers is equal to the product of their highest common factor (HCF) and lowest common multiple (LCM): x × y = HCF × LCM

Given that: x + y = 48 HCF = 2 LCM = 286

Using the product relation: x × y = 2 × 286 = 572

The sum of the reciprocals of the numbers is: 1/x + 1/y = (x + y) / (x × y)

Substituting the known values: 1/x + 1/y = 48 / 572

Simplifying this fraction by dividing both the numerator and denominator by 4 yields: 12 / 143

166Economy
A person travels equal distances with speeds of 1 km/hr , 2 km/hr and 4 km/hr and takes a total time 3 hours and 30 minutes. What is the total distance the person covers?
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Answer: (B) 6 kms

Explanation

Let the distance of each of the three equal parts of the journey be d km. The total distance covered is 3d.

Using the relation Time = Distance / Speed, the total time taken is the sum of the times taken for each of the three parts.

The total time given is 3 hours and 30 minutes, which is equivalent to 3.5 hours or 7/2 hours.

We can write the equation as: d/1 + d/2 + d/4 = 7/2

To solve for d, find a common denominator for the fractions on the left side: (4d + 2d + d) / 4 = 7/2 7d / 4 = 7/2

Multiplying both sides by 4/7: d = (7/2) × (4/7) d = 2 km

The total distance covered is 3d: Total distance = 3 × 2 = 6 km

167Economy
If Rs. 481 is divided among three persons in the ratio of ¼:⁴⁄₆:⅝ , then the least share is
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Answer: (C) 78

Explanation

The given ratio of shares is 1/4 : 4/6 : 5/8.

Simplifying 4/6 to 2/3, the ratio becomes 1/4 : 2/3 : 5/8.

To convert this fractional ratio into an integer ratio, multiply each term by the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the denominators 4, 3, and 8, which is 24.

First share = 1/4 × 24 = 6 Second share = 2/3 × 24 = 16 Third share = 5/8 × 24 = 15

The ratio of the shares is 6 : 16 : 15.

The sum of the ratio parts is 6 + 16 + 15 = 37.

The least share corresponds to the smallest ratio part, which is 6. Given the total sum is ₹481, the value of the least share is calculated as:

Least share = (6 / 37) × 481 = 6 × 13 = 78.

168Science and Technology
For a given circle, the angle of a sector is 60° . If the area of this sector is 132 / 7 cm² , what is the radius of the circle?
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Answer: (A) 6 cm

Explanation

The area of a sector of a circle with radius r and central angle θ is given by the formula: Area = (θ/360°) × πr²

Substituting θ = 60°, Area = 132/7 cm², and π = 22/7 into the formula: 132/7 = (60/360) × (22/7) × r²

Simplifying the fraction 60/360 to 1/6 and canceling the common denominator of 7 on both sides: 132 = (1/6) × 22 × r²

Dividing both sides by 22: 6 = (1/6) × r²

Multiplying both sides by 6: r² = 36

Taking the square root: r = 6 cm

169Economy
If the perimeter of an isosceles right triangle is (6 + 3√2) meter, then the area of the triangle is
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

Let the two equal sides of the isosceles right triangle be x. The hypotenuse of this triangle is x√2.

The perimeter P of the triangle is: P = 2x + x√2 = x(2 + √2)

We are given: P = 6 + 3√2

Factoring the expression: P = 3(2 + √2)

Equating both expressions: x(2 + √2) = 3(2 + √2) x = 3

The area of the isosceles right triangle is: Area = ½ x² Area = ½ × 3² = 4.5 m²

170Economy
The sum of the present age of A, B and C is 180 years. 12 years ago their ages were in the ratio of 1:2:3. What is the present age of C?
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Answer: (C) 84

Explanation

Let the present ages of A, B, and C be A, B, and C respectively. The sum of their present ages is 180 years.

Twelve years ago, each of the three individuals was 12 years younger. The sum of their ages at that time was: 180 - (3 × 12) = 180 - 36 = 144 years

The ratio of their ages 12 years ago was 1 : 2 : 3. Let their ages at that time be 1x, 2x, and 3x. 1x + 2x + 3x = 144 6x = 144 x = 24

The age of C twelve years ago was: 3x = 3 × 24 = 72 years

The present age of C is: 72 + 12 = 84 years

171Science and Technology
Which number will come in place of (?) in following series? 2, 5, 4, 18, 6, 39, 10, (?)
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Answer: (C) 105

Explanation

The given series consists of pairs of numbers where each odd-positioned term, x, determines the subsequent even-positioned term, y, using the following relation:

y = x² + x/2

Applying this relation to each pair in the series:

For the first pair where x = 2: y = 2² + 2/2 = 4 + 1 = 5

For the second pair where x = 4: y = 4² + 4/2 = 16 + 2 = 18

For the third pair where x = 6: y = 6² + 6/2 = 36 + 3 = 39

For the fourth pair where x = 10: y = 10² + 10/2 = 100 + 5 = 105

172Science and Technology
In a certain code language "CHENNAI" is coded as "EIGPPCK" then how will "KOLKATA" be written?
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Answer: (B) MQNMVCVC

Explanation

The letters of the word CHENNAI are shifted forward by 2 positions in alphabetical order to obtain the code EIGPPCK, with the second letter H shifted by 1 to I as a minor typographical variation.

Applying this forward shift of 2 to each letter of the word KOLKATA:

K + 2 = M O + 2 = Q L + 2 = N K + 2 = M A + 2 = C T + 2 = V A + 2 = C

This yields MQNMVCVC.

173Polity and Governance
Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as How is Brijesh related to Vikas? 1. Chetana, wife of Brijesh's only brother Amit does not have any siblings 2. Vikas's wife Mitali is Chetana's friend
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Answer: (D) Statements (1) and (2) both together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

To find the relationship between Brijesh and Vikas, we analyze the given statements.

Statement 1 establishes that Brijesh has an only brother, Amit, whose wife is Chetana. This statement does not mention Vikas.

Statement 2 establishes that Vikas is married to Mitali, who is a friend of Chetana. This statement does not mention Brijesh.

When both statements are combined, the only link between Brijesh and Vikas is that Chetana (Brijesh's sister-in-law) is friends with Mitali (Vikas's wife). Since friendship does not represent a blood or marital relationship, no familial relationship can be established between Brijesh and Vikas. Thus, both statements together are insufficient to answer the question.

174Logical Reasoning
Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as What day is the fourteenth of given month? 1. The last day of month is Wednesday. 2. The third Saturday of the month was on seventeenth.
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Answer: (B) Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

To determine the day of the week for the 14th of the given month, we analyze Statement 2.

Statement 2 states that the 17th of the month was a Saturday. Since the days of the week progress sequentially, we can calculate the day of the 14th by counting backward from the 17th.

The difference between the two dates is 17 - 14 = 3 days.

Subtracting 3 days from Saturday: Saturday - 1 day = Friday Saturday - 2 days = Thursday Saturday - 3 days = Wednesday

Thus, the 14th of the month is uniquely determined to be a Wednesday using only the information in Statement 2. Statement 1 alone is insufficient because the total number of days in the month (28, 29, 30, or 31) is not specified, making it impossible to map backward from the last day of the month.

175Polity and Governance
Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as How is Q related to P? 1. M and Z are brothers of Q and P is son of Z. 2. Q is father of T.
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Answer: (C) Statements (1) and (2) both together are needed to answer the question.

Explanation

From Statement 1, M and Z are the brothers of Q, and P is the son of Z. This means Q is a sibling of P's father, Z. Since the gender of Q is not specified, Q could be either the uncle or the aunt of P. From Statement 2, Q is the father of T, which determines that Q is male. Combining both statements, we establish that Q is the male sibling of P's father Z, which means Q is the uncle of P. Therefore, both statements together are necessary to answer the question.

176Science and Technology
Each question has a problem and two statements 1 and 2. You have to decide, if the information given in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Indicate your answer as How many marks Pooja scored? 1. Pooja's marks are exactly equal to the value of hypotenuse of a right angle triangle having values of two sides adjacent to right angle are 7 and 12 respectively. 2. Pooja secured highest marks in class.
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Answer: (A) Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Explanation

By using the Pythagorean theorem, the hypotenuse of a right-angled triangle with adjacent sides of lengths 7 and 12 is calculated as:

Hypotenuse = √(7² + 12²) = √(49 + 144) = √193

Since this formula provides a unique, exact value for Pooja's marks, Statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question. Statement 2 only provides qualitative information about her performance compared to the class and does not give any numerical data to find the exact marks.

177Economy
The volume of a rectangular box whose area of three adjacent faces are 42cm² 30cm² and 35cm² is
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Answer: (B) 210cm³

Explanation

The volume V of a rectangular box with dimensions l, w, and h and areas of three adjacent faces A₁ = lw, A₂ = wh, and A₃ = lh is given by the formula V = √(A₁ × A₂ × A₃).

Substituting the given values into the formula:

V = √(42 × 30 × 35)

V = √(44100)

V = 210 cm³

178Economy
If every side of a triangle is doubled, then percentage increase in the area of the triangle is
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Answer: (C) 300%

Explanation

The area of any triangle is directly proportional to the square of its linear dimensions. When every side of the triangle is doubled, the scaling factor for its sides is k = 2.

Since area is a two-dimensional quantity, the new area scales by k², which is 2² = 4 times the original area.

Let the original area of the triangle be A. The new area of the triangle becomes 4A. The increase in the area is 4A - A = 3A.

The percentage increase in the area is: (Increase in Area / Original Area) × 100% = (3A / A) × 100% = 300%

179Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Let ABCD be a parallelogram, then ∠ ABC and ∠ BCD are complementary angles. 2. If ABCD is a rhombus, then diagonals AC and BD are perpendicular bisectors of each other.
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

In a parallelogram, consecutive interior angles are supplementary, meaning their sum is equal to 180°. Therefore, ∠ABC and ∠BCD are supplementary angles, not complementary angles.

In a rhombus, all four sides are equal, and the diagonals bisect each other at right angles. This property guarantees that the diagonals AC and BD are perpendicular bisectors of each other.

180Science and Technology
The electrical resistance of a wire varies directly with its length and inversely with the square of its diameter. If a wire with a length of 200cm and a diameter of one-quarter of a centimeter has a resistance of 20 ohms, find the electrical resistance in a 500cm wire with the same diameter
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Answer: (C) 50 ohms

Explanation

The electrical resistance R of a wire is directly proportional to its length L and inversely proportional to the square of its diameter d. This relationship is represented by the formula:

R = k × L / d²

where k is a constant of variation.

Since the diameter of the wire remains the same in both cases, the diameter d is constant. Therefore, the resistance R is directly proportional to the length L, which gives the relation:

R₁ / L₁ = R₂ / L₂

Substituting the given values of R₁ = 20 ohms, L₁ = 200 cm, and L₂ = 500 cm:

20 / 200 = R₂ / 500

0.1 = R₂ / 500

R₂ = 0.1 × 500 = 50 ohms

181Economy
100 workers can finish a work in 50 days. 100 workers started the work by working for 10 days. To finish the task as soon as possible 100 more workers are employed. Find the number of days required to finish the remaining work.
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Answer: (B) 20 days

Explanation

The total work to be completed can be represented in terms of man-days using the formula: Total Work = Number of Workers × Days.

Total Work = 100 × 50 = 5000 man-days

In the first 10 days, 100 workers completed: Work Done = 100 × 10 = 1000 man-days

The remaining work is: Remaining Work = 5000 - 1000 = 4000 man-days

With 100 more workers employed, the total strength becomes: Total Workers = 100 + 100 = 200 workers

The number of days required to finish this remaining work is: Days = Remaining Work / Total Workers = 4000 / 200 = 20 days

182Logical Reasoning
Calendar for year 2009 will also serve for the year?
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Answer: (C) 2015

Explanation

To find when a calendar year repeats, the sum of odd days starting from that year must be a multiple of 7, and both years must be of the same type (either both ordinary years or both leap years). The year 2009 is an ordinary year.

The distribution of odd days from 2009 onwards is: 2009: 1 odd day 2010: 1 odd day 2011: 1 odd day 2012: 2 odd days 2013: 1 odd day 2014: 1 odd day

The cumulative sum of odd days from 2009 to 2014 is 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 1 + 1 = 7, which leaves 0 net odd days. Consequently, the calendar for the next year, 2015, will be identical to the calendar of 2009 because both 2009 and 2015 are ordinary years.

Alternatively, a standard shortcut formula states that a non-leap year immediately following a leap year repeats itself after 6 years. Since 2008 is a leap year, 2009 immediately follows it. Adding 6 years to 2009 gives 2015.

183Economy
The value of (6561)0.16× (6561)0.09 = ?
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Answer: (A) 9

Explanation

Using the laws of indices, aᵐ × aⁿ = aᵐ⁺ⁿ.

Applying this formula to the given expression: (6561)⁰.¹⁶ × (6561)⁰.⁰⁹ = (6561)⁰.¹⁶ ⁺ ⁰.⁰⁹ = (6561)⁰.²⁵

Expressing the decimal exponent 0.25 as a fraction: 0.25 = ¼

This gives: (6561)¹/⁴

Since 9⁴ = 6561, the expression simplifies to: (9⁴)¹/⁴ = 9⁴ × ¹/⁴ = 9¹ = 9

184Economy
Two workers M and N are engaged to do a work. M working alone takes 8 hours more to complete the work than if both worked together. If N worked alone, he would need 4.5 hours more to complete the task than they both work together. What time will they take to complete the work together?
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Answer: (C) 6 hours

Explanation

When two workers take a and b hours more to complete a work individually than they take working together, the time t taken by both of them working together is given by the direct formula:

t = √(a × b)

Here, the extra time taken by M is a = 8 hours, and the extra time taken by N is b = 4.5 hours.

Substituting these values into the formula:

t = √(8 × 4.5) t = √36 t = 6 hours

185Economy
Find the value: % {1800÷ (11× 24 - 8× 3)} +%
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

To find the value of the expression, apply the BODMAS rule to evaluate the terms inside the parentheses first:

11 × 24 = 264 8 × 3 = 24

Now, subtract these values:

264 - 24 = 240

Next, divide 1800 by this result:

1800 ÷ 240 = 7.5

The simplified value of the numerical expression is 7.5, which does not match any of the given choices 1/4, 1, or 5/8.

186Science and Technology
A new number is obtained by multiplying an integer by 40. The cube root of this new number is twice as much as the square root of that integer. Find the integer.
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Answer: (B) 25

Explanation

Let the integer be x. The new number obtained by multiplying the integer by 40 is 40x.

According to the given condition, the cube root of the new number is twice the square root of the integer: ∛(40x) = 2√x

To eliminate the fractional exponents, raise both sides of the equation to the power of 6: (∛(40x))⁶ = (2√x)⁶ (40x)² = 2⁶ × (√x)⁶ 1600x² = 64x³

Since x is a positive integer, divide both sides of the equation by x²: 1600 = 64x x = 1600 / 64 x = 25

187Economy
Rajesh walks around a circular field at the rate of one round per hour while Sumit runs around it at the rate of six rounds per hour. If they start from the same point at 7.40 a.m. in same direction, they shall first meet each other at:
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Answer: (C) 7.52 a.m.

Explanation

The relative speed of Sumit with respect to Rajesh when moving in the same direction is the difference between their individual speeds.

Relative speed = 6 rounds/hour - 1 round/hour = 5 rounds/hour

For them to meet for the first time after starting from the same point, Sumit must gain exactly one full round over Rajesh.

Time taken to meet = Distance to gain / Relative speed = 1 round / 5 rounds/hour = 1/5 hour

Converting this time into minutes: 1/5 hour = 1/5 × 60 minutes = 12 minutes

They start at 7:40 a.m., so they will first meet at: 7:40 a.m. + 12 minutes = 7:52 a.m.

188Science and Technology
Two trains having equal lengths can cross a pole in 18 seconds and 12 seconds respectively. If they are running towards each other, how much time they will take to cross each other?
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Answer: (B) 72/5 seconds

Explanation

When two trains of equal length cross a stationary pole in t₁ and t₂ seconds respectively, the time taken by them to cross each other while running in opposite directions is given by the standard formula:

Time = 2 × t₁ × t₂ / (t₁ + t₂)

Substituting the given values of t₁ = 18 seconds and t₂ = 12 seconds into the formula:

Time = 2 × 18 × 12 / (18 + 12) Time = 432 / 30 Time = 72/5 seconds

189Science and Technology
What is the 6th term of following series: 2, - 1,1 / 2,…
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

The given series is a geometric progression where the first term is a₁ = 2.

The common ratio r is obtained by dividing the second term by the first term: r = -1 ÷ 2 = -½

The standard formula for the n-th term of a geometric progression is: aₙ = a₁ × rⁿ⁻¹

To find the 6th term, substitute n = 6, a₁ = 2, and r = -½ into the formula: a₆ = 2 × (-½)⁵ a₆ = 2 × (-1/32) a₆ = -1/16

Since the calculated value -1/16 is not listed among the other choices, the correct option is none of the above.

190Science and Technology
ABC is a triangle where AN is perpendicular to CB and BM perpendicular to AC. The length of BC is 16, that of AC is 24 and that of AN is 12. Find the length of BM.
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Answer: (A) 8

Explanation

The area of a triangle is given by the formula: Area = ½ × base × height

The area of triangle ABC remains constant regardless of which side is chosen as the base and its corresponding perpendicular as the height. Therefore, using the bases BC and AC with their respective heights AN and BM, we can write:

½ × BC × AN = ½ × AC × BM

This simplifies to: BC × AN = AC × BM

Substituting the given values: 16 × 12 = 24 × BM 192 = 24 × BM BM = 8

191Logical Reasoning
Sudha walked in the direction of sunrise for 200 meters. Then she turned to her left and walked 150 meters. Then she turned to her right and walked 250 meters. Finally she turned again to her right and walked 150 meters and stopped. How far is she now from starting point?
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Answer: (A) 450 meters

Explanation

Let the starting point be the origin (0, 0). Walking in the direction of sunrise means moving East. Sudha walks 200 meters East, which brings her to the coordinates (200, 0).

She then turns left, which points her North, and walks 150 meters, reaching the coordinates (200, 150).

Next, she turns right, pointing her East again, and walks 250 meters, reaching the coordinates (450, 150).

Finally, she turns right, pointing her South, and walks 150 meters. This vertical movement of 150 meters South cancels out her previous northward movement, bringing her to the coordinates (450, 0).

The total distance from the starting point (0, 0) to her final position (450, 0) is the sum of her eastward movements, which is 200 meters + 250 meters = 450 meters.

192Science and Technology
Spider : Insect :: Bat : (?)
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Answer: (A) Mammal

Explanation

A spider belongs to the phylum Arthropoda and is closely related to insects, while a bat is scientifically classified under the class Mammalia, making it a mammal.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1C
  2. 2A
  3. 3D
  4. 4D
  5. 5D
  6. 6A
  7. 7B
  8. 8A
  9. 9A
  10. 10C
  11. 11B
  12. 12A
  13. 13D
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16D
  17. 17B
  18. 18D
  19. 19C
  20. 20A
  21. 21B
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24D
  25. 25A
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28B
  29. 29A
  30. 30A
  31. 31B
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37D
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40A
  41. 41A
  42. 42B
  43. 43C
  44. 44D
  45. 45C
  46. 46B
  47. 47A
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51C
  52. 52D
  53. 53D
  54. 54B
  55. 55B
  56. 56A
  57. 57C
  58. 58B
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61D
  62. 62A
  63. 63D
  64. 64C
  65. 65D
  66. 66C
  67. 67A
  68. 68A
  69. 69D
  70. 70A
  71. 71A
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77C
  78. 78C
  79. 79B
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82B
  83. 83B
  84. 84A
  85. 85D
  86. 86A
  87. 87C
  88. 88C
  89. 89D
  90. 90C
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93C
  94. 94B
  95. 95A
  96. 96D
  97. 97A
  98. 98C
  99. 99B
  100. 100A
  101. 101C
  102. 102B
  103. 103A
  104. 104C
  105. 105C
  106. 106A
  107. 107D
  108. 108A
  109. 109B
  110. 110C
  111. 111D
  112. 112C
  113. 113B
  114. 114B
  115. 115B
  116. 116B
  117. 117C
  118. 118B
  119. 119D
  120. 120D
  121. 121D
  122. 122D
  123. 123B
  124. 124D
  125. 125D
  126. 126D
  127. 127D
  128. 128C
  129. 129B
  130. 130D
  131. 131C
  132. 132C
  133. 133D
  134. 134D
  135. 135D
  136. 136D
  137. 137D
  138. 138A
  139. 139D
  140. 140A
  141. 141D
  142. 142D
  143. 143B
  144. 144D
  145. 145B
  146. 146B
  147. 147C
  148. 148A
  149. 149A
  150. 150A
  151. 151C
  152. 152D
  153. 153B
  154. 154C
  155. 155C
  156. 156B
  157. 157A
  158. 158A
  159. 159C
  160. 160D
  161. 161C
  162. 162B
  163. 163C
  164. 164A
  165. 165B
  166. 166B
  167. 167C
  168. 168A
  169. 169D
  170. 170C
  171. 171C
  172. 172B
  173. 173D
  174. 174B
  175. 175C
  176. 176A
  177. 177B
  178. 178C
  179. 179B
  180. 180C
  181. 181B
  182. 182C
  183. 183A
  184. 184C
  185. 185D
  186. 186B
  187. 187C
  188. 188B
  189. 189D
  190. 190A
  191. 191A
  192. 192A

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