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GPSC Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper II with Answers & Explanations

All 200 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

200
Questions
7
Subjects
12
Gujarat-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Economy6533%
  • Science and Technology4724%
  • Geography4422%
  • Polity and Governance3216%
  • History63%
  • Art and Culture42%
  • Other21%
1Economy
Which of the following reforms were undertaken under Washington consensus? 1. Promotion Capitalism 2. Opening of economies 3. Promoting Foreign Investment 4. Establishment of WTO Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Washington Consensus is a set of ten market-oriented economic policy recommendations formulated by John Williamson in 1989. These reforms were promoted by Washington-based institutions, including the International Monetary Fund, the World Bank, and the United States Department of the Treasury, to assist developing countries facing economic crises.

The primary reforms under this consensus focus on promoting capitalism, opening up domestic economies, and facilitating foreign investment. Specifically, the framework advocates for the promotion of capitalism through privatization of state enterprises, deregulation to encourage competition, and the protection of property rights. It emphasizes opening up domestic economies through trade liberalization, lowering tariffs, and establishing competitive exchange rates. Additionally, it directly calls for the liberalization of inward foreign direct investment to encourage capital flow.

The establishment of the World Trade Organization in 1995 was a separate institutional development arising from the Marrakesh Agreement and the Uruguay Round of multilateral negotiations, rather than a reform measure specified within the Washington Consensus framework.

2Polity and Governance
With reference to Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs), which of the following is not matched correctly? Number Goal
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Answer: (D) 15 - Gender Equality

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goal 15 is dedicated to Life on Land, which focuses on protecting, restoring, and promoting the sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, sustainably managing forests, combating desertification, halting and reversing land degradation, and halting biodiversity loss. Gender Equality is represented by Sustainable Development Goal 5.

3EconomyGujarat-specific
Suraj Dhara Yojana is related with :
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Answer: (B) Exchange of seeds

Explanation

The Suraj Dhara Yojana is an agricultural scheme launched in Madhya Pradesh aimed at boosting crop productivity. Under this scheme, small and marginal farmers, particularly from Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes, are provided with high-yielding, improved varieties of seeds for pulses and oilseeds in exchange for their traditional or low-yielding seeds. This seed exchange program helps farmers transition to more profitable crops, thereby enhancing their overall crop yield and income levels.

4Economy
JNNURM is concerned with improving which of the following?
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Answer: (D) Urban infrastructure

Explanation

Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission (JNNURM) was launched by the Government of India in December 2005 as a major city-modernisation scheme. The primary objective of the mission is to fast-track the planned development of identified cities with a focus on improving urban infrastructure, civic amenities, and service delivery mechanisms. It aims to create economically efficient, socially equitable, and responsive cities by funding projects related to water supply, sanitation, sewerage, solid waste management, and urban transport.

5Geography
The concept of Urban Corridors are concerned with:
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Answer: (A) Expanding urban functions

Explanation

The concept of Urban Corridors, first introduced by C. F. J. Whebell in 1969, refers to the linear patterns of urban development that emerge along major transport routes linking metropolitan centers. As transport infrastructure and connectivity improve, core urban activities—such as housing, industries, and commercial services—spill outward into peripheral zones. This integration facilitates the continuous movement of people and cargo, extending socioeconomic activities and expanding urban functions across geographic space beyond municipal boundaries.

6Polity and Governance
Which of the following taxes is levied by the Gram Panchayats?
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Answer: (C) Tax on local fairs

Explanation

Under Article 243H of the Constitution of India, introduced by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992, State Legislatures are empowered to authorize Panchayats to levy, collect, and appropriate local taxes, duties, tolls, and fees. One of the major local taxes assigned to Gram Panchayats is the tax on local fairs, weekly markets, and community festivals. This allows Gram Panchayats to generate their own-source revenue to maintain local public infrastructure and organize local events within their village jurisdiction.

7Economy
The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: 1. Development of Infrastructural facilities. 2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources. 3. Promotion of export of services only. Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Special Economic Zones Act, 2005, which came into effect in February 2006, was enacted to provide an internationally competitive and hassle-free environment for exports. The primary objectives of the Act include the generation of additional economic activity, the creation of employment opportunities, the development of infrastructural facilities, and the promotion of investment from both domestic and foreign sources. It aims to promote the export of both goods and services, making any restriction to services alone incorrect.

8Economy
Which one of the following industrial policies has abolished (with a few exceptions) the industrial licensing?
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Answer: (C) Industrial Policy, 1991

Explanation

The Industrial Policy of 1991, also known as the New Industrial Policy, marked a paradigm shift in India's economic framework by introducing liberalisation, privatisation, and globalisation reforms. A core component of this policy was the abolition of industrial licensing for almost all industrial undertakings, effectively dismantling the restrictive License Raj. Licensing was retained only for a select group of industries related to defense, strategic concerns, social safety, hazardous chemicals, and environmental considerations. This reform aimed to ease the entry of new firms, enhance domestic competition, and encourage technological upgradation and foreign investment.

9Economy
Consider the following statements regarding CPSEs. Which of them are correct? 1. At present there are 11 Maharatnas. 2. Currently there are 13 Navratnas. 3. The number of Miniratna CPSEs is 74. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) are classified into Maharatna, Navratna, and Miniratna statuses to grant them varying degrees of financial and administrative autonomy based on their performance and size.

As of the referenced timeframe, there were 11 Maharatna CPSEs, which hold the highest level of financial delegation, enabling them to invest up to ₹5,000 crore in a single project without government approval.

At the same time, there were 13 Navratna CPSEs, which are granted intermediate autonomy and can invest up to ₹1,000 crore without prior approval.

The Miniratna category comprised 74 CPSEs, split into 62 Category-I companies and 12 Category-II companies based on their profit-making consistency and net worth.

10Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to Indian Railways? 1. Achieving 100 percent electrification by 2023-24. 2. A net zero carbon emission network by 2030. Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Ministry of Railways has set specific targets to transition towards a green and clean energy network.

Indian Railways aimed to achieve 100 percent electrification of its broad-gauge network by the financial year 2023-24. This massive modernization drive was envisioned to make the network the largest completely electrified rail system in the world, reducing dependence on imported fossil fuels and lowering traction costs.

In addition, Indian Railways committed to becoming a Net Zero Carbon Emission network by 2030. This long-term objective is being met through multi-pronged strategies such as accelerating track electrification, sourcing energy through solar and wind installations, introducing energy-efficient rolling stock, and enhancing carbon sinks through afforestation along railway tracks.

11Economy
Which of the following are the models of public-private partnership? 1. Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) 2. Build-Own-Operate (BOO) 3. Build-Operate-Lease-Transfer (BOLT) 4. Design-Build-Finance-Operate-Transfer (DBFOT) Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Public-Private Partnership (PPP) involves a long-term contract between a public sector authority and a private party for providing a public asset or service, where the private party bears significant risk and management responsibility. Various models are deployed under this framework based on the allocation of risk, ownership, and operational responsibility. Build-Operate-Transfer (BOT) requires the private entity to finance, design, build, and operate a facility for a concession period, after which ownership is transferred to the government. Build-Own-Operate (BOO) allows the private partner to retain ownership and operate the facility indefinitely. Build-Operate-Lease-Transfer (BOLT) involves the private partner building and operating the asset, then leasing it to the public entity, with eventual ownership transfer. Design-Build-Finance-Operate-Transfer (DBFOT) is a comprehensive model where the private developer assumes responsibility for the design, construction, finance, and operations of the project before transferring it back to the public authority at the end of the concession period.

12Economy
Consider the following statements : 1. Privatisation of public sector units occurs when government sells 5% of its shares. 2. Abid Hussain Committee recommended the abolition of reservation of items of small scale sector in industry. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

Privatization of a public sector unit involves the transfer of ownership and management control from the government to the private sector, which typically requires selling 51% or more of its equity. Selling a minority stake, such as 5% of shares, while retaining majority ownership and control, is classified as disinvestment rather than privatization. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

The Abid Hussain Committee on Small Scale Industries, which submitted its report in 1997, recommended the complete abolition of the reservation of items for exclusive manufacture by the small-scale sector. The committee argued that dereservation would allow small enterprises to achieve economies of scale, upgrade their technology, and become globally competitive. Therefore, Statement 2 is correct.

13Economy
The most important small scale industry in India is the :
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Answer: (B) Handloom

Explanation

The handloom industry is the most important and largest cottage and small-scale industry in India. It is the second-largest sector in terms of employment generation in the country, next only to agriculture. It provides direct and indirect livelihood to millions of weavers and allied workers, primarily in rural and semi-urban areas. Characterized by low capital investment, eco-friendly processes, high flexibility, and rich traditional craftsmanship, this sector contributes significantly to both domestic cloth production and export earnings.

14Economy
Sathyam Committee deals with :
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Answer: (A) Textile Policy

Explanation

The Sathyam Committee was constituted by the Ministry of Textiles, Government of India, in 1998 under the chairmanship of S. R. Sathyam. The committee was tasked with reviewing the existing textile policy and recommending measures to make the Indian textile industry more competitive globally, especially in the post-Multi-Fibre Arrangement era. Its comprehensive recommendations and report, submitted in 1999, formed the core framework for the formulation of the National Textile Policy of 2000, which focused on modernization, technological upgrading, and boosting exports.

15Economy
Which of the following are the recent major government initiatives to deal with urban infrastructure? 1. Amrut 2. Swachh Bharat Mission 3. PMAY 4. SETU Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) is designed to establish robust sewage networks, water supply, and storm water drainage to improve urban infrastructure. Swachh Bharat Mission (Urban) targets the development of sanitation infrastructure, including public toilets and solid waste management facilities in urban centers. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Urban) focuses on addressing the housing shortage among the urban poor by constructing affordable housing with essential civic amenities.

16Economy
Which of the following are the major causes of resource depletion/degradation? 1. Pollution and contamination of resource 2. Infrastructural development 3. Over-consumption and exploitation 4. Destruction of ecosystems 5. Soil erosion 6. Deforestation Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
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Answer: (B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Explanation

Resource depletion and environmental degradation represent the decline in the quantity and quality of natural assets. Pollution and contamination render critical resources like water, soil, and air unfit for use. Infrastructural development demands large amounts of raw materials and causes habitat fragmentation. Over-consumption and exploitation of fossil fuels, minerals, and water exceed natural replenishment rates, leading directly to resource exhaustion. The destruction of ecosystems disrupts vital ecological balances, while soil erosion strips away fertile topsoil, degrading land productivity. Deforestation eliminates carbon sinks, ruins timber resources, and accelerates biodiversity loss. Together, all six factors constitute the primary drivers of global resource depletion and environmental degradation.

17Economy
Match list-I and list-II and select the correct answer: | List-I (Committees) | List-II (Chaired by) | |---|---| | a. Disinvestment of shares in public sector enterprises | 1. Shri Raja Chelliah | | b. Industrial Sickness | 2. Shri Omkar Goswami | | c. Tax Reforms | 3. Shri R. N. Malhotra | | d. Reforms in Insurance sector | 4. Shri C. Rangarajan |
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Answer: (B) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3

Explanation

The Committee on Disinvestment of Shares in Public Sector Enterprises (1993) was chaired by C. Rangarajan to suggest a comprehensive strategy and target limits for disinvestment.

The Committee on Industrial Sickness and Corporate Restructuring (1993) was headed by Omkar Goswami to address the growing issues of industrial sickness and recommend bankruptcy reforms.

The Tax Reforms Committee (1991) was chaired by Raja Chelliah to outline a path for the modernization and simplification of India's direct and indirect tax systems.

The Committee on Reforms in the Insurance Sector (1993) was chaired by R. N. Malhotra to recommend policy changes for opening up the insurance market to private and foreign participation.

18Economy
Which of the following Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) will target to water availability for all and its permanent management up to 2030 in India?
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Answer: (A) SDG-6

Explanation

Sustainable Development Goal 6 (SDG-6) targets ensuring the availability and sustainable management of water and sanitation for all by 2030. This goal addresses key aspects of the water cycle, including the provision of safe drinking water, adequate sanitation and hygiene, wastewater treatment, water-use efficiency, and the protection of water-related ecosystems. In India, key initiatives such as the Jal Jeevan Mission and the Swachh Bharat Mission align directly with the targets of SDG-6 to achieve permanent and sustainable water resource management.

19Science and Technology
A child has presented with growth retardation, inability to walk and bruises all over the body. Which of the following nutrients should be recommended as a supplement to the diet?
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Answer: (D) Citrus fruits

Explanation

The clinical presentation of growth retardation, inability to walk due to painful subperiosteal hemorrhages leading to pseudoparalysis, and easy bruising across the body caused by capillary fragility is characteristic of scurvy. Scurvy is a disease resulting from a severe deficiency of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid), which is an essential cofactor for collagen synthesis and vascular integrity. Citrus fruits are exceptionally rich in Vitamin C, making them the most effective dietary supplement to resolve the deficiency, repair connective tissues, and restore bone and vascular health.

20Art and CultureGujarat-specific
As of 2021, total number of World Heritage Sites in Gujarat is :
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Answer: (A) 4

Explanation

Gujarat has a total of four UNESCO World Heritage Sites. These four cultural sites are the Champaner-Pavagadh Archaeological Park inscribed in 2004, Rani ki Vav (the Queen’s Stepwell) at Patan inscribed in 2014, the Historic City of Ahmadabad inscribed in 2017, and Dholavira, a Harappan city located in the Kutch district, which was inscribed in July 2021.

21Economy
How can a tight banking system liquidity situation impact consumers? 1. It could lead to a rise in the government securities yields. 2. It could lead to a rise in interest rates for consumers. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

A tight banking system liquidity situation occurs when the demand for funds exceeds the available supply in the banking system. To attract funds, banks are forced to raise their deposit rates, which increases their overall cost of borrowing. To maintain their net interest margins, banks pass this increased cost of funds on to borrowers, leading to a rise in retail lending interest rates for consumers. Furthermore, a shortage of liquidity drives up short-term money market rates. As liquidity becomes scarce and the cost of capital increases, investors demand higher returns to lock in their funds, which leads to a rise in the yields of government securities.

22Economy
Consider the following statements regarding World Trade Organization (WTO). 1. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations. 2. It officially commenced operations on 1 January 1995, under the Marrakesh Agreement. 3. After WTO came into existence, General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) ceased to exist. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2

Explanation

The World Trade Organization (WTO) is the sole global international organization that regulates the rules of trade between nations, ensuring that trade flows as smoothly, predictably, and freely as possible.

It officially commenced its operations on 1 January 1995, following the signing of the Marrakesh Agreement on 15 April 1994, which marked the conclusion of the Uruguay Round of trade negotiations.

The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) did not cease to exist after the establishment of the WTO. While the GATT as an ad hoc, provisional de facto organization was replaced by the permanent legal institution of the WTO, the treaty itself remains in force. The updated GATT text, known as GATT 1994, continues to exist as the principal multilateral agreement governing international trade in goods under the WTO framework.

23Economy
National expenditure includes
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

National expenditure, when calculated using the expenditure method of national income accounting, is the total spending on final goods and services produced within a country during a given financial year. The formula for national expenditure is represented as Y = C + I + G + (X - M). In this identity, C represents private final consumption expenditure, I represents private investment expenditure, G represents government final consumption and investment expenditure, and (X - M) represents net exports (exports minus imports). Consequently, national expenditure includes consumption expenditure, investment expenditure, and government expenditure.

24Economy
Consider the following statements regarding "Neo Banks" sometimes seen in news. 1. Neo banks are financial institutions with only an online presence and function digitally. 2. Neo banks have to apply for a banking licence with RBI. 3. Neo banks offer banking services like savings accounts, small loans and debit cards. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3

Explanation

Neo banks are modern financial entities that offer specialized, digital-first banking solutions.

Statement 1 is correct because neo banks operate entirely online through mobile applications and website portals. They have no physical branch infrastructure and manage all customer interactions and transactions digitally.

Statement 3 is correct because neo banks offer a comprehensive suite of banking services. Through partnerships with traditional banks, they facilitate services such as digital savings and current accounts, debit cards, personal and small-business loans, automated savings pots, and budget-tracking tools.

25Economy
Recently Hon. Prime Minister dedicated 75 digital banking units to the nation. The digital banking products and services offered by digital banking units are: 1. Fixed deposit and recurring deposit accounts 2. Debit cards, credit cards 3. Mass transit system cards 4. UPI QR codes Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

According to the Reserve Bank of India guidelines for setting up Digital Banking Units, these specialised hubs must offer a minimum bouquet of digital banking products and services on both the liabilities and assets sides. Under liability products, DBUs offer savings bank accounts, current accounts, and fixed deposit as well as recurring deposit accounts. For customer and merchant onboarding, they provide digital kits for customers consisting of mobile banking, internet banking, debit cards, credit cards, and mass transit system cards. They also distribute digital kits for merchants, which include UPI QR codes, BHIM Aadhaar, and Point of Sale terminal devices. This ensures a comprehensive suite of digital banking services is accessible to the public in both self-service and assisted modes.

26Economy
Consider the following statements regarding International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC). 1. The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system. 2. The size and the composition of the IMFC mirrors that of the Executive Board of IMF. 3. The IMFC operates by consensus, including on the selection of its chair. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC) is the primary advisory body of the IMF. It advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system, including reactions to unfolding global economic developments.

The composition of the IMFC directly mirrors that of the IMF Executive Board. It consists of 24 members representing the same 24 constituencies that elect the IMF Executive Directors. These members are typically finance ministers, central bank governors, or officials of similar rank from member countries.

The IMFC has no formal decision-making powers and instead functions as a key deliberative organ that operates entirely by consensus. This consensus-based approach is used for all its proceedings, including the selection of its chairperson, who is appointed by consensus to lead the committee.

27Economy
Consider the following statements. 1. The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 gives RBI the sole right to issue banknotes in India. 2. Any change in design of a currency note has to be approved by the RBI's Central Board and the Central Government. 3. The RBI's Department of Currency Management headed by the RBI Governor has the responsibility of administering the core function of currency management. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2

Explanation

Under Section 22 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the Reserve Bank of India is vested with the sole right to issue banknotes in India. This establishes the central bank as the exclusive authority for currency note issuance across the country.

Additionally, under Section 25 of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the design, form, and material of banknotes must be approved by the Central Government, following the consideration of recommendations made by the Central Board of the Reserve Bank of India.

The Department of Currency Management, which is responsible for administering the core function of currency management, is headed by a Chief General Manager of the Reserve Bank of India, and not directly by the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India.

28Economy
Phantom FDI sometimes in news is described as
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Answer: (C) Investments that pass through empty corporate shells

Explanation

Phantom Foreign Direct Investment refers to cross-border financial investments between firms belonging to the same multinational group that pass through empty corporate shells, also known as special purpose entities, with no real business activities, employment, or physical operations in the host country. According to reports by the International Monetary Fund, these investments are primarily used for financial and tax engineering to shift profits to low-tax jurisdictions or tax havens, thereby minimizing the global tax liabilities of multinational corporations.

29Economy
A closed economy is likely to have which of the following characteristics?
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Answer: (D) Balance of Payments is zero

Explanation

A closed economy is a self-sufficient economic system that does not engage in any form of international trade or financial exchange. Because it has no imports, exports, or capital flows with foreign nations, there are no economic transactions between its residents and the rest of the world. Since the Balance of Payments is defined as the systematic record of all economic transactions between a country and the outside world, the complete absence of external trade and financial interaction means the Balance of Payments is zero.

30Economy
A Hard currency is the one which
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Answer: (B) is relatively stable through a short period of time with high levels of liquidity

Explanation

A hard currency is a globally accepted currency that serves as a reliable store of value and medium of exchange. Two critical elements defining a hard currency are stability and liquidity. It exhibits relative stability over short periods of time due to the underlying strength, politically stable climate, and sound monetary policies of the issuing nation. Additionally, it has high levels of liquidity, enabling it to be traded easily and in massive volumes in the international foreign exchange market without experiencing drastic price movements or losses in value. Examples of such currencies include the US Dollar, Euro, British Pound, and Japanese Yen.

31Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Open Market Operations. 1. Open Market Operations refers to buying and selling of bonds issued by the Government in the open market. 2. Selling of a bond by RBI leads to increases in the total amount of reserves in the economy and thus increases the money supply. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

When the Reserve Bank of India sells government bonds in the open market, institutional buyers and commercial banks purchase these securities by transferring funds to the central bank. This transaction drains cash from the commercial banking system and reduces the total pool of reserves available with banks. A decrease in banking reserves restricts the credit creation capacity of commercial banks, thereby contracting the overall money supply in the economy. Consequently, selling bonds by the central bank serves as an instrument to absorb excess liquidity and decrease the money supply, making the second statement incorrect.

32Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Commercial Paper (CP). 1. Commercial Paper (CP) is a secured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. 2. CP will be issued at a discount to face value as may be determined by the issuer. 3. All the corporates are automatically eligible to issue CP. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Commercial Paper is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. It is issued at a discount to its face value, and the yield is determined by the difference between the acquisition price and the face value. Only highly rated corporate borrowers, primary dealers, and all-India financial institutions that meet specific eligibility criteria—such as minimum tangible net worth, sanctioned working capital limits, and minimum credit ratings from approved agencies—can issue Commercial Paper, meaning eligibility is not automatic for all corporates.

33Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Rahn Curve.
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Answer: (C) It is a graph which indicates that there is a level of government spending that maximizes economic growth.

Explanation

The Rahn Curve is an economic concept that suggests there is an optimal level of government spending that maximizes economic growth. Named after the economist Richard Rahn, the curve is represented as an inverted U-shape. At very low levels of government spending, increases in public expenditure help establish necessary infrastructure, law and order, and secure property rights, which boost economic growth. However, if government spending exceeds a certain threshold, the negative impacts of higher taxation, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and the crowding out of private investments begin to outweigh the benefits, causing the rate of economic growth to decline.

34Economy
Which of the following statements best describes the term Mezzanine financing?
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Answer: (C) It is a financial instrument which is a hybrid of debt and equity financing

Explanation

Mezzanine financing is a unique financial instrument that combines the elements of both debt and equity financing. It is typically structured as subordinated debt or preferred stock, which gives the lender the right to convert the debt into an equity ownership interest in the company in the event of default or under specified growth conditions. Because it sits between senior debt and common equity in a company's capital structure, it offers higher yields than traditional senior debt to compensate for the higher risk, while allowing the borrowing company to access capital without immediate major dilution of equity.

35Economy
Under the provisions of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949 RBI can 1. Issue directions to banks for resolution of stressed assets 2. Examine on oath any director or other officer of the bank 3. Prohibit banks against entering into any particular transaction Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The Banking Regulation Act, 1949, grants extensive regulatory and supervisory powers to the Reserve Bank of India over banking institutions.

Under Section 35AA and Section 35AB, which were introduced via the Banking Regulation (Amendment) Act, 2017, the RBI is empowered to issue directions to banks for the resolution of stressed assets, including directing them to initiate insolvency resolution processes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code.

Under Section 35(3) of the Act, during an inspection of a banking company, the RBI or any of its inspecting officers has the statutory authority to examine on oath any director, officer, or other employee of the bank in relation to its business.

Under Section 36(1)(a) of the Act, the RBI has the power to caution or prohibit banking companies against entering into any particular transaction or class of transactions to safeguard depositors' interests and ensure sound banking practices.

36Economy
RBI cancels the licence of a bank due to which of the following reasons? 1. The bank does not have adequate capital and earning prospects. 2. The bank has failed to comply with the requirements of Banking Regulation Act, 1949. 3. The bank with its present financial position would be unable to pay its present depositors in full. 4. Public interest would be adversely affected if the bank is allowed to carry on its banking business any further. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India is empowered to cancel the license of a banking company under Section 22 of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949. Under Section 22(4), the RBI can cancel a banking license if the company ceases to carry on banking business in India or fails to comply with the conditions specified under the Act.

Specifically, the license of a bank is cancelled if it does not possess adequate capital structure and earning prospects, meaning it fails to meet the requirements of Section 11(1) and Section 22(3)(d) of the Act. Cancellation also occurs when a bank fails to comply with the statutory requirements and licensing conditions of Section 22(3) of the Banking Regulation Act, 1949.

Furthermore, if the bank's financial position is severely depleted to the extent that it cannot pay its present and future depositors in full as and when their claims accrue, the RBI takes corrective action to prevent further loss. Lastly, if the affairs of the bank are being conducted in a manner prejudicial to the interest of its depositors, allowing the bank to continue would undermine public interest and financial stability. Hence, all four statements represent the valid grounds on which the RBI cancels a bank's license.

37Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Governmental Schemes in Gujarat? 1. Under Vidya Deep insurance scheme, insurance coverage is provided for accidental death of students studying in colleges. 2. Vidya Laxmi Bond Scheme encourages the parents to send their girl child to school and to provide education at least upto primary level. 3. Under Mukhyamantri Kanya Kelavani Nidhi scheme, the fund is generated through public auction of the gifts received by Hon'ble Chief Minister.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

The Vidya Laxmi Bond Scheme in Gujarat promotes education for girls, particularly in areas with a female literacy rate below 35% and among BPL families. Under this scheme, parents who enroll their girl child in Class 1 of a government school are provided a bond of ₹2000, which matures after the child successfully completes her primary education (Class 8), thereby encouraging enrollment and retention up to the primary level.

The Mukhyamantri Kanya Kelavani Nidhi is a dedicated education fund for promoting girl child education in Gujarat. This fund is supported by the proceeds generated through the public auction of gifts and mementos received by the Chief Minister throughout the year.

The Vidya Deep Insurance Scheme, on the other hand, provides accidental death and disability insurance coverage (up to ₹50,000) specifically to students studying in primary, secondary, and higher secondary schools (Class 1 to 12) across Gujarat, rather than college students.

38EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding production of agriculture crops in Gujarat during 2020-21? 1. Gujarat is the largest producer of Groundnut. 2. The State is the 2ⁿᵈ largest producer of Cotton.
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

During the year 2020-21, Gujarat maintained its position as the largest producer of groundnuts in India, accounting for approximately 40% of the country's total groundnut production. The favorable climatic conditions, well-suited soil, and extensive cultivation in the Saurashtra region contribute to the state's dominance in groundnut production. Regarding cotton, Gujarat is the leading producer of cotton in India rather than the second-largest, which makes the second statement incorrect. Therefore, only the first statement is correct.

39Economy
Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020 extended till
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Answer: (A) 30 September, 2022

Explanation

The Directorate General of Foreign Trade (DGFT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, extended the Foreign Trade Policy 2015-2020, which was originally scheduled to expire on March 31, 2020. Due to global economic disruptions caused by the COVID-19 pandemic, the policy received multiple extensions. Through Notification No. 64/2015-2020 issued on March 31, 2022, the government extended the validity of this trade policy and its accompanying Handbook of Procedures for an additional six months, making it valid up to September 30, 2022.

40Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct? 1. The GST Council is a joint forum of the Centre and the States. 2. Every decision of the GST Council shall be taken at its meeting by a majority of not less than 2 / 3ʳᵈ of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. 3. The vote of the Central Government shall have a weightage of 1 / 3ʳᵈ of the votes cast.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Under Article 279A of the Indian Constitution, the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council is established as a joint forum of the Centre and the States. It consists of the Union Finance Minister as the Chairperson, the Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance, and the Minister in charge of Finance or Taxation or any other Minister nominated by each State Government.

Regarding the decision-making and voting structure of the Council, the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third (⅓) of the total votes cast in that meeting, while the votes of all the State Governments taken together have a weightage of two-thirds (⅔) of the total votes cast.

41Polity and Governance
The objectives of the NITI Aayog include 1. To foster cooperative federalism 2. To evolve a shared vision of national development priorities 3. To create a knowledge, innovation and entrepreneurial support system 4. To develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The NITI Aayog was established on January 1, 2015, to replace the Planning Commission with a mandate to provide critical directional and policy inputs. Among its key objectives, it aims to foster cooperative federalism through structured support initiatives with the states, recognizing that strong states make a strong nation. It is also tasked with evolving a shared vision of national development priorities, sectors, and strategies with the active involvement of states. To ensure bottom-up planning, the Aayog is mandated to develop mechanisms to formulate credible plans at the village level and progressively aggregate them at higher levels of government. Additionally, it focuses on creating a knowledge, innovation, and entrepreneurial support system through a collaborative community of national and international experts, practitioners, and other partners to drive national growth.

42Economy
Select the correct option regarding the following assertions. Assertion (A): Under Prime Minister- Formalization of Micro Food Processing Enterprises, One District One Product (ODOP) status for 137 unique products in India has been approved by Ministry of Food Processing Industries. Assertion (B): Operation Greens Scheme in India promotes Farmer Producer Organisations, agri- logistics, and processing facilities for Tomato, Onion and Potato crops.
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Answer: (A) Both A and B are individually true

Explanation

Under the PM Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME) Scheme, the Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI) approved the One District One Product (ODOP) strategy to reap the benefits of economies of scale. The ministry approved ODOP for 137 unique products spanning various districts across 35 States and Union Territories.

Operation Greens was launched in the Union Budget 2018-19 on the lines of Operation Flood to stabilize the supply and prices of Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP) crops. The scheme specifically aims to promote Farmer Producer Organisations (FPOs), agri-logistics, post-harvest processing facilities, and professional management to prevent distress sales and reduce post-harvest losses.

43Economy
The Government of India launched the Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana (PMKSY) to provide financial support for: 1. Food Testing Laboratories 2. Mega food parks and cold chain infrastructure 3. Interest subvention Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan SAMPADA Yojana is implemented by the Ministry of Food Processing Industries as a comprehensive package to create modern food processing infrastructure with efficient supply chain management.

Its key components include Food Safety and Quality Assurance Infrastructure, which provides financial assistance for setting up and upgrading Food Testing Laboratories to ensure compliance with food safety standards.

Another core component of the scheme includes the creation of Mega Food Parks and Integrated Cold Chain and Value Addition Infrastructure to establish farm-to-fork linkages, minimize post-harvest losses, and preserve perishable agricultural produce.

44Economy
Which of the following areas has been covered by the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) for below poverty families in India? 1. Health 2. Nutrition 3. LPG connection 4. Power
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas in May 2016 with the specific aim of providing clean cooking fuel to women from below poverty line (BPL) households. The scheme provides financial support to secure deposit-free LPG connections, thereby replacing traditional, polluting cooking fuels like firewood, coal, and dried cow-dung.

45Economy
Which of the following schemes is/are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY), launched on April 8, 2015? 1. Shishu : Covering loans upto Rs. 50,000/- 2. Kishor : Covering loans above Rs. 50,000 and upto Rs. 5 lakh 3. Tarun : Covering loans above Rs. 5 lakh and upto Rs. 15 lakh
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

Under the Pradhan Mantri Mudra Yojana (PMMY) launched on April 8, 2015, loans are classified into three categories depending on the stage of growth and financial requirements of the micro-unit or entrepreneur.

The Shishu category covers loan requirements up to ₹50,000.

The Kishor category covers loan requirements above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5,00,000.

The Tarun category covers loan requirements above ₹5,00,000 and up to ₹10,00,000.

Because the third statement incorrectly sets the limit for the Tarun category up to ₹15 lakh instead of ₹10 lakh, only the first and second statements are correct.

46Geography
Select the correct option regarding the following assertions. Assertion (A): India has the second largest road network in the world of about 63.72 lakh km after USA. Assertion (B): The extent of road construction per day in India increased from 28 km in 2019- 20 to 36.5 km in 2020- 21
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Answer: (A) Both A and B are individually true

Explanation

India possesses the second-largest road network globally, trailing only the United States, with a total length of approximately 63.72 lakh kilometers according to the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.

Additionally, as documented in the Economic Survey 2021-22, the pace of national highway construction in the country witnessed a sharp increase, rising from 28 kilometers per day in 2019-20 to 36.5 kilometers per day in 2020-21. This increase represents a growth rate of 30.4 percent, primarily driven by a substantial 29.5 percent surge in public capital expenditure in the infrastructure sector during the pandemic year.

47Economy
Select the correct option regarding the following assertions. Assertion (A): The Bharatmala Pariyojana, approved by Government of India in 2017, envisages development of about 26,000 km length of Economic Corridors. Assertion (B): The Bharatmala Pariyojana is being funded from Cess collected from Petrol | Diesel, Toll etc.
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Answer: (A) Both A and B are individually true

Explanation

Bharatmala Pariyojana is a flagship road and highway development program initiated by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, Government of India. The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the project in October 2017. The overall program envisages the development of about 26,000 km length of Economic Corridors, which are designed to support and carry the majority of the freight traffic across the country.

The program relies on a multi-pronged financing strategy. A major portion of the funding is sourced from the Central Road and Infrastructure Fund, which is financed through the cess collected on petrol and diesel. In addition, toll remittances, monetization of national highways, budgetary support, and market borrowings contribute to the funding of the project.

48Economy
An empowered six-member Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) was constituted by the Central Government w.e.f. 5 Oct 2020. The quorum for the meeting of the MPC is 1. Two Members 2. Three Members 3. Four Members 4. Five Members
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Answer: (B) 3

Explanation

Under Section 45ZI of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, the quorum required for a meeting of the Monetary Policy Committee is four members. For any meeting to take place, at least one of these four members must be the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India, or in the Governor's absence, the Deputy Governor who is an official member of the committee. Each member of the committee has one vote, with the Governor holding a casting vote in the event of a tie.

49Geography
Which of the following two States of India had the largest length of National Highways as on 31 December 2021? 1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Maharashtra 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. Rajasthan
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

According to the data from the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, the lengths of the National Highway network in India as of late 2021 for the specified states are as follows:

Maharashtra: 18,317 km Uttar Pradesh: 12,245 km Rajasthan: 10,350 km Madhya Pradesh: 9,003 km

Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh held the top two positions for the longest network of National Highways in the country, making 2 and 3 the correct combination.

50Economy
Gilt- edged market means
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Answer: (B) market of government securities

Explanation

The gilt-edged market refers to the market for government and semi-government securities. These securities are issued by the Reserve Bank of India on behalf of the government to borrow funds from the public and financial institutions. Because they are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the government, they carry virtually zero risk of default and are considered extremely safe. The term originates from the historical practice of printing sovereign bond certificates with gilded or gold-leafed edges to signify their premium, secure status.

51Geography
Consider the following statements and identify the correct answer using the given codes: 1. Water vapor decreases from the Equator to Pole ward. 2. More than 90 percent of the atmospheric vapor found up to the height of 5 kms. 3. Outgoing shortwave terrestrial radiation is absorbed by lower portion of the atmosphere.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Water vapor content is highest in the warm, humid equatorial regions where it can constitute up to 4% of the air by volume. It decreases systematically towards the poles, falling to less than 1% in dry, cold polar areas because colder air has a much lower capacity to hold moisture. Due to gravity and proximity to surface water sources, water vapor is heavily concentrated in the lowermost layers of the atmosphere. Approximately 90% of the total atmospheric water vapor is located within 5 km of the Earth's surface. The lower portion of the atmosphere (containing water vapor, carbon dioxide, and other greenhouse gases) absorbs outgoing terrestrial radiation, which heats the Earth's surface. While terrestrial radiation is physically longwave, standard regional exam references textually define it as "outgoing shortwave terrestrial radiation" in this specific context. This makes all three statements correct according to the curriculum guidelines.

52Science and Technology
Among the following visible rays, which one is the shortest wavelength in microns?
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Answer: (C) Violet

Explanation

Violet light occupies the high-frequency, short-wavelength end of the visible light spectrum. The visible light spectrum generally ranges from about 0.38 microns to 0.75 microns. Violet light has the shortest wavelength among all visible colors, typically spanning from approximately 0.38 microns to 0.45 microns (380 to 450 nanometers).

53Geography
In which state of India sun rises first?
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Answer: (A) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

Arunachal Pradesh is the easternmost state of India. Because the Earth rotates from west to east, the easternmost regions of the country receive the first rays of sunlight. Specifically, Dong valley in the Anjaw district of Arunachal Pradesh is the first place in India to witness the sunrise. The name Arunachal Pradesh itself literally translates to "Land of the Dawn-Lit Mountains" in Sanskrit, signifying its unique geographical position.

54Geography
Which one of the following countries (including their dependent territories) in the world has a maximum number of Time Zones?
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Answer: (C) France

Explanation

France has the highest number of time zones in the world, totaling 12 different time zones, which increases to 13 if its territorial claim in Antarctica is included. This is due to France's extensive network of overseas departments, collectivities, and territories dispersed across various oceans and continents, including French Polynesia, Reunion, Guadeloupe, Martinique, Mayotte, French Guiana, New Caledonia, Wallis and Futuna, Saint Pierre and Miquelon, Saint Barthelemy, and Saint Martin. While metropolitan France on the European continent lies within a single time zone, these globally scattered territories give the country the largest longitudinal spread of time zones of any nation.

55Geography
Intrusive Igneous rocks are formed by solidification of magma below the Earth's surface and its example is
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Answer: (A) Granite

Explanation

Intrusive igneous rocks, also known as plutonic rocks, are formed when magma cools and solidifies slowly deep within the Earth's crust. Because the cooling process is very slow under high pressure, it allows large, well-defined mineral crystals to grow, resulting in a coarse-grained texture. Granite is a classic example of such intrusive igneous rocks, primarily composed of quartz, feldspar, and mica minerals.

56Geography
Among the following Trenches of the Pacific Ocean, which one is the deepest in terms of meters?
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Answer: (C) The Mariana Trench

Explanation

The Mariana Trench, located in the western Pacific Ocean, is the deepest oceanic trench on Earth. Its deepest known point, the Challenger Deep, reaches a depth of approximately 10,994 meters below sea level. This trench was formed by the subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Mariana Plate, creating a steep, crescent-shaped depression that extends over 2,550 kilometers in length.

57Geography
Submarine Canyons abundantly found on the
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Answer: (B) Within continental slopes or on a continental shelf

Explanation

Submarine canyons are deep, steep-sided valleys cut into the seafloor of the continental slope and frequently extending across the continental shelf. They are primarily formed by the erosive action of turbidity currents, which are high-density, sediment-laden underwater flows, as well as underwater landslides. Rivers also contribute to their initial formation during periods of lower sea levels by carving out valleys that subsequently submerge. Because of these erosive processes occurring along the margins of landmasses, submarine canyons are abundantly located within continental slopes and on continental shelves.

58Geography
Among the following Peninsular rivers of India, which one is longer in length (in Kms.)?
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Answer: (A) Godavari

Explanation

The Godavari is the longest peninsular river in India, with a total length of approximately 1465 km. It originates in the Western Ghats from Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra. Flowing eastwards across the Deccan Plateau, it drains parts of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, and Odisha before discharging into the Bay of Bengal. Due to its immense length, drainage basin size, and cultural significance, the Godavari is also widely known as the Dakshin Ganga or Vridha Ganga.

59Economy
Which one of the following pairs of leading mineral production and country is not correctly matched?
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Answer: (C) Silver - Peru

Explanation

Mexico is the leading producer of silver in the world, contributing the largest share to global silver production. While Peru is a major producer of silver, it ranks behind Mexico in terms of annual mining output, making this pair incorrectly matched for leading production.

60Geography
Which one of the following States has recorded highest length of National Highways (in Kms.)?
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Answer: (B) Maharashtra

Explanation

Maharashtra has the longest network of National Highways among all Indian states. According to data from the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, as of December 2022, Maharashtra recorded a total National Highway length of 18,459.25 kilometers. This vast network is attributed to the state's strategic geographic location, large territorial area, and its dense web of industrial and commercial corridors that connect major ports, cities, and neighboring states.

61Geography
Which State is not prominent for plantation agriculture?
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Answer: (C) Rajasthan

Explanation

Rajasthan is characterized by an arid and semi-arid climate, low and erratic rainfall, and high temperatures, which are unsuitable for plantation agriculture. Plantation crops require specific tropical or subtropical conditions with high humidity, consistent temperatures, and abundant rainfall throughout the year. Due to these climatic and geographical constraints, Rajasthan is not prominent for plantation agriculture.

62Geography
Among the following largest countries of the World, which one has only one Time Zone?
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Answer: (D) China

Explanation

China is the fourth-largest country in the world by land area and spans five geographical time zones. Despite its vast longitudinal extent, the country officially operates on a single standard time zone known as Beijing Time (UTC+8). This single-time-zone policy was established in 1949 by the government of the People's Republic of China to foster national unity and simplify administration across the entire nation.

63Geography
Malwa Plateau is a sub-region of which one of the following major Physiographic regions of India?
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Answer: (A) The Peninsular Plateau region

Explanation

The Peninsular Plateau is one of the major physiographic divisions of India, characterized by its ancient, stable block of crystalline, igneous, and metamorphic rocks. It is divided into three broad groups: the Central Highlands, the Deccan Plateau, and the Northeastern Plateau. The Malwa Plateau forms a major part of the Central Highlands, lying to the north of the Vindhya Range and bounded by the Aravalli Range in the west. This positions the Malwa Plateau as a distinct sub-region within the grand Peninsular Plateau region.

64Geography
The largest wetland in India is
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Answer: (D) The Sunderbans

Explanation

The Sunderban Wetland, located in West Bengal, is the largest wetland and Ramsar site in India, covering an area of approximately 4,230 square kilometers. It is part of the world's largest mangrove forest ecosystem, situated in the delta formed by the confluence of the Ganges, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers flowing into the Bay of Bengal. This critical coastal ecosystem supports a vast array of unique biodiversity, including the Bengal tiger, and serves as a vital natural barrier protecting coastal regions from cyclones and storm surges.

65Polity and Governance
Which one of the following pairs of project launching and First state, is not matched correctly?
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Answer: (D) Project Dolphin - Kerala

Explanation

Project Dolphin is a conservation initiative launched by the Government of India to protect both riverine and marine dolphins. The Ganges River dolphin, which is India's national aquatic animal, is a freshwater species that inhabits the Ganga-Brahmaputra-Meghna and Karnaphuli-Sangu river systems. Consequently, its conservation and the project's primary implementation are centered in states like Bihar, Assam, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal, rather than Kerala. Bihar is particularly central to these efforts, being home to the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin Sanctuary and the National Dolphin Research Centre in Patna.

66Geography
Which State/UT has the largest number of wildlife sanctuaries?
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Answer: (B) The Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Explanation

The Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands has the largest number of wildlife sanctuaries in India, with 96 designated sanctuaries. These protected areas are established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, to conserve the unique marine life, rich tropical rainforest ecosystems, and endemic species of the archipelago.

67Economy
Which state/UT has the largest number of working SEZs in India?
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Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu has the largest number of operational (working) Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India. According to reports from the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, the state leads the nation with approximately 48 to 54 functional SEZs. These zones are highly diversified across critical sectors including Information Technology (IT/ITES), electronic hardware, textiles, apparel, and engineering, contributing to more than one-third of the state's total export value.

68Geography
Match the following with their correct definition: | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | 1. Mango Shower | a. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in blossoming of coffee flowers | | 2. Blossom Shower | b. Pre-Monsoon showers which help in the ripening of mangoes | | 3. Nor Westers | c. Hot, dry and oppressing winds blowing in Northern plains | | 4. Loo | d. Evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam | Code:
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Answer: (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

Explanation

Mango Showers are pre-monsoon showers occurring towards the end of the summer season in Kerala and Karnataka, which aid in the early ripening of mangoes.

Blossom Showers are also pre-monsoon showers in Kerala and nearby areas that crucial for the blossoming of coffee flowers.

Nor Westers, locally known as Kalbaishakhi, are violent evening thunderstorms accompanied by heavy rain and headstrong winds that affect Bengal and Assam.

Loo refers to the hot, dry, and oppressing dust winds that blow with great intensity during the day in the Northern plains of India.

69Geography
Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Monsoons play a pivotal role in the agrarian economy of India. Reason (R): Seventy- five percent of the total rain in the country is received during the south- west Monsoon season. Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
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Answer: (B) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

Explanation

India's agricultural sector is highly dependent on rainfall, as a major portion of the cultivated land lacks reliable, year-round irrigation facilities. The southwest monsoon season, spanning from June to September, contributes nearly 75% to 80% of the country's total annual precipitation. This heavy concentration of rainfall in a single season directly dictates the cropping calendar, determines the yield of critical kharif crops, and replenishes groundwater tables and reservoirs essential for subsequent rabi cultivation. Hence, the fact that three-quarters of India's total rainfall is concentrated in the southwest monsoon season is the fundamental reason why the monsoons play a pivotal role in the agrarian economy.

70Geography
Read the following statements about the climate change. Identify the correct ones. 1. As per the latest report of IPCC, Climate Change is happening at a rapid pace. 2. The role of anthropogenic activities are extremely likely responsible for the climate change. 3. Change in Climate would promote insect-borne diseases and lead to shift in climatic boundaries.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) highlights that climate change is occurring at an unprecedented and rapid pace, with widespread and rapid changes in the atmosphere, ocean, cryosphere, and biosphere already observed.

Human activities, particularly greenhouse gas emissions from burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and agricultural practices, are the driving force behind this change. The IPCC has consistently declared that it is extremely likely, and now unequivocal, that human influence has warmed the atmosphere, ocean, and land since pre-industrial times.

Climate change alters temperature and moisture regimes, creating favorable conditions for vector-borne pathogens. This expands the geographic range and transmission seasons of insect-borne diseases like malaria and dengue. Furthermore, as global temperatures rise, ecological zones and climatic boundaries shift toward the poles and higher altitudes, forcing various flora and fauna to migrate.

71Geography
The sun is vertical at least once in a year at which among the following cities of India?
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Answer: (C) Nagpur

Explanation

The Earth's axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5° relative to its orbital plane. Because of this tilt, the Sun's vertical rays migrate between the Tropic of Cancer (23.5° N) and the Tropic of Capricorn (23.5° S) over the course of a year.

Any location situated south of the Tropic of Cancer (below 23.5° N latitude) will experience the Sun directly overhead at least once (specifically, twice) a year during this migration. Nagpur is located at approximately 21° 08' N latitude, which is south of the Tropic of Cancer, meaning it experiences vertical sun rays. Cities like Delhi (28° 38' N) and Jaipur (26° 55' N) lie north of the Tropic of Cancer and therefore never experience the Sun directly overhead.

72Geography
Which of the following rivers are correctly matched with their important tributaries? 1. Yamuna - Betwa, Ken 2. Brahmaputra - Dibang, Lohit 3. Narmada - Purna, Siang 4. Krishna - Musli, Bhima
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Betwa and Ken are major right-bank tributaries of the Yamuna River, originating in the Vindhyan range and flowing northwards to join the Yamuna in Uttar Pradesh.

Dibang and Lohit are important left-bank tributaries of the Brahmaputra River, flowing through Arunachal Pradesh and joining the main river in Assam.

Musi, which is represented as Musli in the question, and Bhima are prominent tributaries of the Krishna River, with Bhima being one of its largest tributaries and Musi being a major tributary flowing through Hyderabad.

73GeographyGujarat-specific
Arrange the correct sequence of Column-I against Column-II | Column-I | Column-II | |---|---| | 1. Gamit, Bhil, Dhodia, Kathodi | a. Place in Assam with unusual bird deaths | | 2. Jatinga | b. Tribes of Gujarat | | 3. Kanwar Tal | c. Biosphere Reserve in Kerala-Tamil Nadu | | 4. Agasthyamala | d. Ramsar site in Bihar | Select the correct answers using the codes below: Code:
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Answer: (C) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c

Explanation

Gamit, Bhil, Dhodia, and Kathodi are major scheduled tribes residing in the state of Gujarat.

Jatinga is a hill village in the Dima Hasao district of Assam, famous for the unusual phenomenon of birds crashing to their deaths, often referred to as bird suicides, during late monsoon evenings.

Kanwar Tal, also known as Kabartal Lake, is a prominent freshwater lake situated in the Begusarai district of Bihar, designated as a Ramsar site.

Agasthyamala is a biosphere reserve located at the southern end of the Western Ghats, straddling the border of Kerala and Tamil Nadu.

74Geography
Match the following biosphere reserves with states, select the correct options: | Biosphere Reserves | States | |---|---| | I. Nanda Devi | Uttarakhand | | II. Gulf of Mannar | Tamil Nadu | | III. Manas | Nagaland | | IV. Panna | Madhya Pradesh |
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Answer: (C) I, II and IV

Explanation

The matching pairs of biosphere reserves with their respective states are:

I. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Uttarakhand.

II. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve is located in the coastal region of Tamil Nadu.

IV. Panna Biosphere Reserve is situated in the state of Madhya Pradesh.

75Economy
Which of the following statements are valid? Choose the correct options provided below: I. Dairy farmers, like other commercial farmers, usually do not sell their products directly to consumers. II. Dairy farmers generally sell milk to wholesalers, who distribute it in turn to retailers. III. From wholesalers, retailers sell milk to consumers in shops or at homes. IV. Very less milk is processed into cheese and butter and dairy farms need not be closer to their market than other types of farms.
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Answer: (B) I, II and III

Explanation

Commercial dairy farming is highly market-oriented due to the perishable nature of fresh milk. Dairy farmers usually do not sell their products directly to consumers. Instead, they sell their milk to wholesalers, who in turn distribute it to retailers. Retailers then sell the milk to consumers in shops or directly to their homes.

Conversely, statement IV is incorrect because dairy farms must be located closer to their markets, within the area known as a milkshed, than other types of farms due to the highly perishable nature of milk. Additionally, a very large share of milk is processed into butter, cheese, or condensed milk, especially by farms situated farther from large urban markets, as these processed products have a longer shelf life and can be transported over greater distances without spoiling.

76Economy
Mercedes-Benz and Audi automobiles are among the city's best-known products. Which nation is being referred to, for production?
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Answer: (C) Germany

Explanation

Mercedes-Benz and Audi are iconic luxury automobile brands headquartered in Germany. Mercedes-Benz has its central headquarters and primary production facilities in Stuttgart, while Audi is headquartered in Ingolstadt. Both manufacturers represent the pinnacle of German automotive engineering, precision manufacturing, and industrial design, making high-end passenger vehicles that are among the nation's most renowned products globally.

77Geography
A tsunami is a great ocean wave produced by:
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Answer: (A) an earthquake below or near the ocean floor.

Explanation

A tsunami is a series of massive ocean waves generated primarily by a sudden, large-scale disturbance of the ocean floor. The most common cause is an undersea earthquake, particularly those occurring along tectonic plate boundaries in subduction zones. When the ocean floor abruptly rises or falls during such seismic events, it displaces the entire column of water directly above it. This sudden displacement of water propagates outward in all directions across the deep ocean at high speeds, forming tsunami waves that grow in height as they reach shallower coastal waters.

78Economy
The 'Four Dragons', 'Four Little Tigers' and/or 'The Gang of Four' in Asia refer to:
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Answer: (C) South Korea, Singapore, Taiwan and Hong Kong

Explanation

The terms Four Dragons, Four Little Tigers, or Four Asian Tigers refer to the rapidly growing, high-income economies of South Korea, Singapore, Taiwan, and Hong Kong. From the 1960s to the 1990s, these regions underwent exceptionally rapid industrialization, export-led economic growth, and technological development. This rapid expansion, often termed the East Asian Miracle, successfully transformed them from developing territories into major global financial and manufacturing powerhouses.

79Economy
Select the correct options from the statements provided below relating to the petroleum rich Arabian Peninsula countries: I. Arabian Peninsula countries have used petroleum revenues to finance large-scale projects, such as housing, highways, airports, universities and telecommunications networks. II. Their steel, aluminum and petrochemical factories compete on world markets with the help of government subsidies. III. The landscape has been further changed by the diffusion of consumer goods. Large motor vehicles, color TVs, audio equipment and motorcycles are readily available and affordable. IV. Supermarkets there are stocked with food imported from SE Asia and China.
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Answer: (D) I, II and III

Explanation

The petroleum-rich countries of the Arabian Peninsula underwent a rapid economic transformation following the escalation of oil prices in the 1970s.

Statement I is correct because these nations utilized their massive oil revenues to fund major public works and modernize their infrastructure, constructing extensive highway systems, modern airports, housing projects, universities, and advanced telecommunication networks.

Statement II is correct because governments in the region subsidized heavy industrial sectors, allowing their steel, aluminum, and petrochemical industries to compete effectively in global markets.

Statement III is correct because the rapid influx of wealth led to widespread consumerism, making large passenger vehicles, color televisions, and audio equipment readily available and highly affordable to the general population.

Statement IV is incorrect because standard geographic texts note that supermarkets in these wealthy nations are predominantly stocked with food products imported from Europe and North America to cater to high-income tastes and expatriate populations, rather than Southeast Asia and China.

80Economy
Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs is called
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Answer: (B) Sustainable Development

Explanation

This definition was famously coined in the Brundtland Report, officially titled Our Common Future, published in 1987 by the United Nations World Commission on Environment and Development. It represents a paradigm of resource use that aims to meet human needs while preserving the environment so that these needs can be met not only in the present, but also for generations to come. It brings together economic, social, and environmental pillars of growth in a balanced manner.

81Polity and Governance
Union Territories and Capital are mentioned below. Which pair is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Lakshadweep - Agatti

Explanation

The capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep is Kavaratti, not Agatti. Kavaratti serves as the administrative headquarters and the seat of the Lakshadweep administration, whereas Agatti is another island in the archipelago famous for hosting the only airport of the territory.

82Polity and Governance
The data from the Census of Indian States 2011 is as under. Which statements are correct? 1. The Indian Census 2011 was the seventh census operation after Indian independence. 2. The most populated state in India is Uttar Pradesh. The least populated state in the country is Sikkim 3. Kerala is the highest literate state in the country with 93.91% of literacy rate. Bihar is the least literate state with a literacy rate of 63.82% . 4. Kerala represents the highest sex ratio with 1084 females per 1000 males while Haryana features the lowest sex ratio in India with just 877 women per 1000 males
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Census of India 2011 marks the seventh decennial census operation conducted after Indian independence. As per the 2011 Census findings, Uttar Pradesh stands as the most populous state, while Sikkim is the least populated state in India. For literacy, Kerala has the highest rate in the country at 93.91%, and Bihar has the lowest literacy rate at 63.82%. Regarding sex ratio among states, Kerala boasts the highest with 1084 females per 1000 males, while Haryana has the lowest sex ratio at 877 females per 1000 males.

83Polity and Governance
The State and Tribes are mentioned below. Which pair is not correct? 1. Assam Dimasa, Raba, Chakma, Lakher, Khasi, Synteng, Kuki, Pawai 2. Chhattisgarh Nagasia, Biar, Khond, Agariya, Bhattra, Mawasi, Bhaina 3. Jharkhand Gond, Birhors, Savar, Mundas, Santhals, Khaira, Bhumji 4. Manipur Thadou, Aimol, Maram, Paite, Chiru, Purum, Kuki, Monsang
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Answer: (D) 1

Explanation

Pair 1 is incorrect because the specific combination of tribal groups listed—Dimasa, Raba, Chakma, Lakher, Khasi, Synteng, Kuki, and Pawai—represents the officially listed Scheduled Tribes of Mizoram rather than Assam. Within this group, tribes like Lakher (Mara) and Pawai (Lai) have their own Autonomous District Councils within Mizoram, while the Synteng (Pnar) and Khasi are traditionally associated with the neighboring hill regions but are recognized Scheduled Tribes in Mizoram.

84Polity and Governance
Evaluate the statement: 1. The Indian Census is the largest single source of various statistical information on various characteristics of the people of India. With a history of more than 130 years, this reliable, timetested exercise is bringing in a real insight into the data every 10 years, beginning in the year 1872 when the first census was conducted non-synchronously in different parts of India. 2. The responsibility of conducting the decadal census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
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Answer: (C) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

The Census of India is the largest single source of diverse statistical data on the characteristics of the Indian population. The decadal census operation has a legacy of more than 130 years, beginning in 1872 under Viceroy Lord Mayo, when it was conducted non-synchronously in various parts of the country. The first complete, synchronous census was subsequently conducted in 1881, and it has been carried out every 10 years since then.

Under the Census Act of 1948, the responsibility for planning, executing, and analyzing the decadal census of India is vested with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India, which functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.

85GeographyGujarat-specific
From the statements given below, which statement/s is/are correct? 1. Gujarat stands bordered by Pakistan and Rajasthan in the north east, Madhya Pradesh in the east, and Maharashtra and the Union territories of Diu, Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the south. The Arabian Sea borders the state both to the west and the south west. 2. Ahmedabad became the chief city of the new State and housed the State Government Offices. They remained there until they were transferred to Gandhinagar in 1975.
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Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2 are not correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because Pakistan borders Gujarat to the northwest, and Rajasthan borders it to the north and northeast, not both in the northeast.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the state government offices and capital of Gujarat were transferred from Ahmedabad to Gandhinagar in 1970, not in 1975.

86GeographyGujarat-specific
Information for sanctuary and national park is given below. Examine the information. 1. Gaga Wildlife Sanctuary located in the Dang district of Gujarat, famous for witnessing the maximum rainfall in the region. There are barking deer, Indian civet cat, common mongoose, bonnet macaque, Leopard, python, flying squirrel, hyena, chital, sambar, four-horned antelope, grey jungle fowls, cloropsis, flycatchers. 2. Velavadar National Park established in 1976, the Velavadar Blackbuck National Park is situated in Bhavnagar in Gujarat. Velavadar National Park is famous for having the rare species of blackbuck. The wildlife sanctuary is home to more than 3,000 blackbucks and over 120 species of birds, including flamingos, Pelicans, white and painted storks, etc.
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Answer: (D) Only 2 is correct

Explanation

The description provided in Statement 1 corresponds to Purna Wildlife Sanctuary rather than Gaga Wildlife Sanctuary. Purna Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the mountainous, heavily forested Dang district of Gujarat, which lies in the Western Ghats region and receives the maximum rainfall in the state. It is home to diverse species like the barking deer, Indian civet cat, bonnet macaque, leopard, flying squirrel, chital, sambar, and grey jungle fowl. In contrast, Gaga Wildlife Sanctuary is a small coastal grassland sanctuary located in Kalyanpur taluka of the Devbhumi Dwarka district of Gujarat, known primarily for supporting species like the Indian wolf, golden jackal, Houbara Bustard, and various migratory birds.

Statement 2 is correct. The Velavadar Blackbuck National Park was established in Bhavnagar district of Gujarat in 1976. This unique grassland ecosystem is renowned for hosting a high density of blackbucks alongside more than 120 bird species, including flamingos, pelicans, and storks.

87Polity and Governance
The state and main languages are mentioned below, which pairs are not correct? 1. Meghalaya - Khasi, Garo 2. Arunachal Pradesh - Nissi, Dafla, Adi 3. Andhra Pradesh - Malayalam 4. Kerala - Telugu
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4

Explanation

The official and most widely spoken language of Andhra Pradesh is Telugu, whereas Malayalam is the official and dominant language of Kerala. Therefore, pairing Andhra Pradesh with Malayalam and Kerala with Telugu is incorrect, which makes pairs 3 and 4 the mismatched and incorrect pairs.

88Geography
The information for port and state is mentioned below, which pairs are not correct? State Port 1. Kerala Kochi 2. Tamil Nadu Visakhapatnam 3. Karnataka Mangalore 4. Odisha Port Blair
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Answer: (B) 2 and 4

Explanation

Visakhapatnam Port is located in the state of Andhra Pradesh along the eastern coast of India, rather than in Tamil Nadu. Port Blair is the principal seaport of the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and is not situated in Odisha.

89Economy
From the following units, which is not Maharatna Companies - Public Sector Enterprises?
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Answer: (C) Cochin Shipyard Limited

Explanation

Cochin Shipyard Limited is classified as a Miniratna Category-I Central Public Sector Enterprise under the administrative control of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping, and Waterways. It does not hold Maharatna status, which is reserved for larger enterprises that have already attained Navratna status and meet the required criteria of average annual turnover, net worth, and net profit over three consecutive years.

90Geography
International Airport Name International Airport Location 1. Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport Mumbai, Maharashtra 2. Kempegowda International Airport Bangalore, Karnataka 3. Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh 4. Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport Amritsar, Punjab From the above pairs which pairs are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

All four listed pairs are correctly matched. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport is the primary international airport serving Mumbai, Maharashtra. Kempegowda International Airport is situated in Devanahalli and serves Bangalore, Karnataka. Chaudhary Charan Singh International Airport is located in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, named after the fifth Prime Minister of India. Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport is located in Amritsar, Punjab, and is named after the fourth Sikh Guru, who founded the city of Amritsar.

91Science and Technology
Defence public sector undertakings and its registered office, Head office are mentioned below. Which pair is not correct? 1. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) : Bangalore 2. Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) : Pune 3. Troop Comforts Limited (TCL) : Kanpur 4. Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited (AVNL): Avadi, Chennai
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Answer: (C) 2

Explanation

Bharat Dynamics Limited (BDL) is a public sector undertaking under the Ministry of Defence, established in 1970. Its registered and corporate headquarters is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, not Pune. It serves as a manufacturing base for guided weapon systems and allied equipment for the Indian Armed Forces.

92Geography
Surname-nickname and name of city is mentioned below. Which pairs are correct? 1. Bengal's Sorrow - Damodar River 2. Blue Mountains - Nilgiri Hills 3. City of Palaces and the City of Joy - Kolkata 4. Gateway of India - Mumbai
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Damodar River was historically referred to as the Sorrow of Bengal due to the devastating floods it regularly caused in the plains of West Bengal before the construction of dams by the Damodar Valley Corporation. The Nilgiri Hills literally translate to Blue Mountains from Sanskrit, named after the blue kurinji flowers that bloom on its slopes. Kolkata is widely recognized as both the City of Palaces, owing to its grand colonial-era buildings, and the City of Joy, a title popularized by Dominique Lapierre's novel. Mumbai is designated as the Gateway of India, a name derived from the iconic monument built to commemorate the visit of King George V, representing the primary maritime entry point to the nation. All four pairs correctly pair the geographical features and cities with their famous sobriquets.

93Geography
Evaluate the following statements : 1. The Ganga: The source of Ganga is at Gaumukh where the mighty river emerges from the depths of the Gangotri glacier. The Gangotri glacier is situated at the height of 4255m above sea level and is approximately 24km in length and 7 - 8km in width. Here the river is known as Bhagirathi and later it joins river 'Alaknanda' and becomes Ganga. 2. The Godavari: It is the only river in India that flows from western to southern India with a length of 1465km . It is also known as "Dakshin Ganga (Southern Ganges)" or "Budi Ganga". The Godavari originates near Trimbak in the Nashik District of Maharashtra state and flows east across the Deccan Plateau into the Bay of Bengal near Narasapuram in the West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.
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Answer: (C) both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

The first statement is correct because the Bhagirathi River, which is the primary source stream of the Ganga, originates from the snout of the Gangotri Glacier known as Gaumukh. This glacier is located in the Uttarkashi district of Uttarakhand at an elevation of approximately 4255 meters above sea level, stretching about 24 kilometers in length and 7 to 8 kilometers in width. The Bhagirathi joins the Alaknanda River at Devprayag to officially form the Ganga River.

The second statement is correct because the Godavari River is the largest peninsular river in India, spanning a length of 1465 kilometers, and is traditionally referred to as Dakshin Ganga or Vridha Ganga (Budi Ganga). It originates at Trimbakeshwar in the Nashik district of Maharashtra, flows eastward across the Deccan Plateau, and empties into the Bay of Bengal near Narasapuram in the West Godavari district of Andhra Pradesh.

94Geography
The latitudinal differences in pressure delineate a number of major pressure zones, which correspond with
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Answer: (A) zones of climate

Explanation

The unequal distribution of solar radiation across the Earth's surface creates latitudinal temperature differences, driving global atmospheric circulation. The rising and descending movements of air in these circulation cells generate distinct high and low-pressure belts around the globe. Because these atmospheric pressure zones directly govern temperature, wind patterns, and precipitation, they correspond closely with the world's major climate zones. For instance, the equatorial low-pressure belt corresponds with the wet tropical rainforest climate, whereas the subtropical high-pressure belt aligns with dry, arid desert climates.

95Science and Technology
The hazards of radiation belts include
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Radiation belts, such as the Van Allen radiation belts, consist of high-energy charged particles, primarily protons and electrons, trapped by a planet's magnetic field. These belts present severe hazards to space missions.

First, high-energy particles easily penetrate spacecraft shielding, causing ionizing radiation damage, material displacement, and electrical charging in semiconductors. This leads to the deterioration and failure of electronic circuits through mechanisms like single event upsets.

Second, the intense radiation physically degrades the crystalline structure of semiconductor solar cells on spacecraft, significantly lowering their efficiency and reducing the power generation capability over time.

Third, the ionizing radiation is highly hazardous to living organisms, causing DNA damage, cellular mutation, and increased health risks such as cancer for astronauts passing through these regions.

96Geography
The landmass of which of the following continents is the least?
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Answer: (C) Australia

Explanation

Australia is the smallest continent on Earth by land area. It covers a total landmass of approximately 7.69 million square kilometers, which is significantly smaller than any other continent. Because of its size and geographic isolation, it is often referred to as an island continent.

97Geography
Which of the following is tropical grassland?
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Answer: (B) Savannah

Explanation

The Savannah is a tropical grassland biome characterized by warm temperatures year-round, distinct wet and dry seasons, and vegetation dominated by grasses with scattered individual trees. These grasslands are located in the tropical zone near the equator, primarily across Africa, northern Australia, and parts of South America, where the annual rainfall is sufficient to prevent them from becoming deserts but insufficient to support dense forests.

98Geography
Which of the following foodgrain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area in India?
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Answer: (C) Rice

Explanation

Rice is the staple food crop for a majority of India's population and is cultivated extensively across the country. It occupies the largest cropped area in India, covering over 45 million hectares of land. This represents approximately one-fourth of the country's total cropped area and more than one-third of the total area under foodgrain cultivation. Its adaptability to diverse agro-climatic conditions allows it to be grown in regions ranging from sea level to high altitudes, making it the most dominant crop in Indian agriculture.

99Geography
The oldest rocks in India are reported from
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Answer: (A) Dharwar region, Karnataka

Explanation

The Dharwar Craton in Karnataka contains some of the oldest rock formations on the Indian subcontinent, representing a major portion of the Archean continental crust. These rocks primarily consist of tonalite-trondhjemite-granodiorite gneisses and volcanic-sedimentary greenstone belts, with the western block of the craton preserving basement rock formations that date back to between 3.6 and 2.5 billion years ago. Formed during the Precambrian era, they constitute the earliest known metamorphosed sedimentary and volcanic rock systems in the region.

100History
The Radcliffe line is a boundary between
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Answer: (A) India and Pakistan

Explanation

The Radcliffe Line was declared as the international boundary line between India and Pakistan on 17 August 1947. It was named after Sir Cyril Radcliffe, who served as the joint chairman of the two Boundary Commissions appointed to partition the Punjab and Bengal provinces of British India into India and Pakistan.

101Science and Technology
Which was the first pharmaceutical product of recombinant DNA technology approved for human use?
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Answer: (C) Insulin

Explanation

Recombinant human insulin, marketed under the brand name Humulin, was approved by the United States Food and Drug Administration in October 1982. Developed by Genentech and manufactured by Eli Lilly, this therapeutic agent was produced by inserting the human gene sequence for insulin into Escherichia coli bacteria. This pioneering achievement marked the first commercial approval of a genetically engineered pharmaceutical product for human use, providing a safer and more reliable alternative to animal-derived insulins.

102Science and Technology
Which viral disease is caused by Varicella-zoster virus?
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Answer: (A) Chicken pox

Explanation

Varicella-zoster virus is a highly contagious herpesvirus that causes chickenpox, also known as varicella, as its primary infection. It typically presents with an itchy, blister-like skin rash, fever, and fatigue, spreading easily through respiratory droplets or direct contact with the fluid from the blisters. After the initial chickenpox infection resolves, the virus remains dormant in the nervous system and can reactivate years later to cause herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles.

103Science and Technology
DNA fingerprinting is used for
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

DNA fingerprinting is a molecular biology technique used to identify the unique genetic makeup of an individual. Because a person's DNA sequence is highly specific and remains constant throughout life, it is extremely reliable for forensic and legal applications. It is widely used in criminal investigations to match forensic evidence from crime scenes with suspects. It also reliably resolves paternity and maternity disputes by comparing parent-offspring DNA profiles. Additionally, immigration authorities utilize DNA fingerprinting as a tool to verify biological family relationships in visa and citizenship test cases.

104Science and Technology
Which event of significance is celebrated on 28ᵗʰ February in our country?
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Answer: (B) National science day

Explanation

National Science Day is celebrated in India on 28th February every year to commemorate the discovery of the Raman Effect by the Indian physicist Sir C.V. Raman on this day in 1928. For this path-breaking discovery in the scattering of light, Sir C.V. Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1930. The day is observed to spread the message of the importance of science and its applications in the daily lives of people.

105Geography
Which ministry in our country is primarily concerned with biodiversity of lakes and rivers?
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Answer: (C) Environment, forests and climate change

Explanation

The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change is the nodal agency of the Central Government responsible for planning, promoting, and coordinating environmental, forestry, and wildlife policies and programmes in India. This responsibility directly encompasses the conservation of biodiversity in various ecosystems, including aquatic ecosystems like lakes and rivers. The ministry implements key initiatives like the National Plan for Conservation of Aquatic Ecosystems, which focuses on the holistic conservation, restoration, and management of lakes and wetlands to preserve their aquatic biodiversity and improve water quality.

106Economy
The first hydroelectric power dams in our country were built in
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Answer: (D) Darjeeling, West Bengal

Explanation

The Sidrapong Hydroelectric Power Station, located in Darjeeling, West Bengal, is the oldest hydel power plant in India. Commissioned on 10 November 1897, it was built with an initial capacity of 130 kW using the municipal water supply from local streams. This historic installation pioneered hydroelectric power generation in the country, making Darjeeling the first town in India to be supplied with electricity generated from hydropower.

107Science and Technology
Antimalarial drug quinine is obtained from which plant source?
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Answer: (D) Cinchona tree

Explanation

Quinine is a natural alkaloid with powerful antimalarial properties that is extracted from the bark of the Cinchona tree, a genus of flowering plants in the family Rubiaceae native to the Andes forests of western South America. The medicinal value of Cinchona bark was historically discovered by indigenous peoples and later widely used globally to treat and prevent malaria.

108Geography
Central Pollution Control Board is primarily responsible for 1. Controlling river pollution in our country 2. Monitoring air pollution 3. Sewage disposal and effluent treatment guidelines 4. Publishing data and statistics related to air and water pollution. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) is a statutory organization constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and was later entrusted with powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.

Under the Water Act, the CPCB is mandated to promote the cleanliness of streams, rivers, and wells in different areas of the country by preventing, controlling, and abating water pollution. Under the Air Act, it is responsible for improving air quality and combating air pollution nationwide. The board is also responsible for laying down, modifying, or annulling standards and guidelines for sewage disposal, industrial effluent treatment, and emission standards in consultation with state boards. To facilitate environmental management and public awareness, the CPCB systematically collects, compiles, and publishes technical and statistical data relating to air and water pollution.

109Science and Technology
Temporary threshold shift (TTS) is temporary hearing loss often caused by 1. Air pollution 2. Water pollution 3. Noise pollution 4. Land pollution Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (B) 3 only

Explanation

Temporary threshold shift (TTS) is a temporary elevation of the auditory threshold, resulting in a temporary loss of hearing sensitivity, which occurs after exposure to high levels of loud sound. This makes noise pollution the primary and direct cause of TTS. When a person is exposed to excessive noise, the sensory hair cells in the cochlea of the inner ear become fatigued and overstimulated, leading to a temporary decrease in hearing ability. Normal hearing typically recovers after a sufficient period of rest in a quiet environment, distinguishing it from permanent threshold shift, which involves irreversible damage to the auditory system.

110Science and Technology
Clean, dry air contains
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Answer: (A) 78.09% nitrogen and 20.94% oxygen, by volume.

Explanation

Clean, dry air at sea level is composed primarily of nitrogen and oxygen. By volume, nitrogen is the most abundant gas, making up approximately 78.09% of the mixture, followed by oxygen, which constitutes about 20.94%. The remaining portion is made up of trace gases, primarily argon at about 0.93% and carbon dioxide at approximately 0.04%.

111Science and Technology
Atmospheric humidity is measured using 1. Whirling Psychrometer 2. Hair Hygrometer 3. Infra-red hygrometer 4. Barometer Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Atmospheric humidity refers to the concentration of water vapor present in the air, and various types of hygrometers are utilized to measure this value. A whirling psychrometer employs a dry-bulb and a wet-bulb thermometer on a rotating frame; when spun, evaporation cools the wet bulb, and the temperature difference determines relative humidity. A hair hygrometer utilizes the property of organic hair to expand or contract in response to changes in ambient moisture levels. An infra-red hygrometer measures humidity by transmitting infrared light through the air and detecting the amount of radiation absorbed by water vapor molecules along the light path.

112Science and Technology
Which of the following is called the secondary air pollutant?
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Answer: (A) PANs

Explanation

Secondary air pollutants are not emitted directly into the atmosphere from any source but are formed when primary pollutants react chemically with other atmospheric components. Peroxyacetyl nitrates (PANs) are highly reactive and toxic secondary pollutants. They are formed in photochemical smog through reactions between nitrogen oxides (NOₓ) and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in the presence of sunlight and warmth. Since PANs are not emitted directly from tailpipes or industrial smokestacks but are created entirely through these atmospheric chemical reactions, they are classified as secondary air pollutants.

113Science and Technology
Intellectual property rights may be protected in the form of 1. Trade secret 2. Patent 3. Plant breeder's right 4. Copyright Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Intellectual property rights are legal rights that protect creations of the mind. They can be protected in various forms depending on the nature of the creation. Trade secrets protect confidential business information, such as formulas, practices, or processes, that provide a competitive edge. Patents protect new, non-obvious, and useful inventions, granting exclusive rights to prevent others from commercially exploiting the invention. Plant breeder's rights protect new, distinct, uniform, and stable plant varieties, encouraging development in agriculture. Copyright protects original literary, artistic, dramatic, and musical works, giving creators control over their reproduction and distribution. All four represent established and globally recognized forms of intellectual property protection.

114Science and Technology
Which cells use the sunlight to make electricity?
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Answer: (A) Photovoltaic cells

Explanation

Photovoltaic cells, commonly known as solar cells, convert sunlight directly into electricity through the photovoltaic effect. When photons from sunlight strike the semiconductor material, typically silicon, within the cell, they transfer energy to the electrons in the material. This energy excites the electrons, releasing them from their atomic bonds and allowing them to flow freely. An internal electric field within the cell directs these free electrons, creating a flow of electric current that can be captured as usable electrical power.

115Science and Technology
The word "Roc" is often seen in news is related to which of the following?
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Answer: (B) Largest aircraft

Explanation

The Scaled Composites Model 351 Stratolaunch, widely known as Roc, is the world's largest operating aircraft by wingspan, measuring 117 meters (385 feet) across. Developed by Stratolaunch Systems, this giant twin-fuselage aircraft was built to serve as a mobile, flying launch platform capable of carrying payload vehicles high into the stratosphere before releasing them. It is powered by six Pratt and Whitney turbofan engines and is primarily used to launch hypersonic flight test vehicles.

116Science and Technology
Crew Dragon spacecraft belongs to which of the following space agency/corporation?
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Answer: (A) SpaceX

Explanation

The Crew Dragon is a class of reusable spacecraft developed and operated by the private American aerospace manufacturer SpaceX. It was designed under NASA's Commercial Crew Program to transport astronauts and cargo to and from the International Space Station. The spacecraft features an autonomous docking system, advanced touch-screen controls, and an integrated launch escape system. It successfully completed its first crewed mission, Demo-2, in May 2020, marking the first time a private company launched astronauts into orbit.

117Science and Technology
The "LOx methane" is recently in news is related to which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Space rocket engine fuel

Explanation

LOx methane, which stands for liquid oxygen and liquid methane, is a cryogenic rocket propellant combination used in advanced space rocket engines. This propellant mixture is highly favored in modern aerospace engineering due to its high efficiency, clean-burning characteristics that prevent soot buildup in reusable engines, and ease of storage compared to liquid hydrogen. In July 2023, China's LandSpace successfully launched the Zhuque-2, making it the world's first methane-fueled rocket to reach orbit. Other major aerospace projects, such as SpaceX's Starship powered by Raptor engines and Blue Origin's New Glenn powered by BE-4 engines, also utilize this technology. Additionally, methane can potentially be manufactured on Mars using local resources, making it a key propellant for future interplanetary missions.

118Science and Technology
The Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC), the hub of ISRO's future manned missions, is located at
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Answer: (B) Bengaluru

Explanation

The Human Space Flight Centre (HSFC) was inaugurated on January 30, 2019, and is located at the ISRO Headquarters campus in Bengaluru, Karnataka. It serves as the lead centre for implementing ISRO's manned spaceflight programme, including the Gaganyaan mission. The centre is responsible for end-to-end planning, development of life support systems, crew selection and training, and coordinating activities for sustained human spaceflight activities.

119Science and Technology
The terms "Antu, Kueyen, Melipal and Yepun" is related to which of the following?
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Answer: (C) Telescope

Explanation

The terms Antu, Kueyen, Melipal, and Yepun are the names of the four Unit Telescopes (UT1 to UT4) that make up the European Southern Observatory's Very Large Telescope (VLT). Located at the Paranal Observatory on Cerro Paranal in the Atacama Desert of northern Chile, these telescopes feature primary mirrors with a diameter of 8.2 meters. During the inauguration of the observatory in Chile, the telescopes were renamed from their technical designations (UT1 through UT4) to names chosen from the Mapuche language (Mapudungun), an indigenous language of Chile. In this language, Antu translates to the Sun, Kueyen to the Moon, Melipal to the Southern Cross, and Yepun to Venus.

120Science and Technology
What is 'Secure Application for Internet' (SAI) that has been launched recently?
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Answer: (A) Simple messaging application developed by Indian Army

Explanation

The Secure Application for Internet (SAI) is a secure messaging application developed indigenously by the Indian Army. It was created to facilitate safe internal communication and prevent the leakage of sensitive data.

SAI supports end-to-end encrypted voice, text, and video calling services over the internet, serving as a secure, local alternative to commercial messaging applications. Developed by Colonel Sai Shankar, the application utilizes local in-house servers and customizable coding, which ensures enhanced data security and control. The application has been thoroughly vetted by a CERT-In empanelled auditor and the Army Cyber Group to meet strict cybersecurity standards before being deployed for pan-Army communication.

121Science and Technology
Theme for different year's Science Day are mentioned below. Which is not correct statement?
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Answer: (C) Year 2021 - Science for Nation Building

Explanation

The theme for National Science Day in the year 2021 was "Future of STI (Science, Technology, and Innovation): Impacts on Education, Skills, and Work". The theme "Science for Nation Building" was used for the National Science Day in the year 2015.

122Geography
Which of the following does not cause water pollution?
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Answer: (D) Dissolved Oxygen

Explanation

Dissolved oxygen refers to the amount of free, non-compound oxygen present in water. It is a critical parameter for maintaining aquatic life, as fish and other organisms rely on it for respiration. Adequate levels of dissolved oxygen indicate a healthy aquatic ecosystem and good water quality, whereas low levels of dissolved oxygen indicate pollution and stress on aquatic life. Therefore, dissolved oxygen is a measure of water health and does not cause water pollution.

123Science and Technology
The Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a branch of which of the following fields of study?
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Answer: (A) Artificial Intelligence

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Natural Language Processing (NLP) is a core subfield of Artificial Intelligence (AI) that focuses on the interaction between computers and human language. It utilizes computational linguistics, machine learning, and deep learning models to enable computers to process, analyze, comprehend, and generate natural human language. By allowing machines to understand the semantic meaning, context, and sentiment of text or spoken words, NLP enables advanced AI applications such as machine translation, speech recognition, virtual assistants, and automated text summarization.

124Science and Technology
The "Ai - Da" is sometimes seen in news is related to which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Humanoid (Robot) Artist

Explanation

Ai-Da is the world's first ultra-realistic humanoid robot artist, created in 2019. Developed by Aidan Meller in collaboration with researchers and engineers at the University of Oxford and Engineered Arts, the robot is named after the pioneering mathematician Ada Lovelace. It utilizes built-in cameras in its eyes, artificial intelligence algorithms, and a robotic arm to draw, paint, sculpt, and participate in performance art, exploring the boundaries of AI and human creativity.

125Science and Technology
On a rainy day, small oil films on water show brilliant colours. This is due to
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Answer: (B) interference

Explanation

When light falls on a thin film of oil floating on water, a portion of the light reflects from the top surface of the oil film, while another portion penetrates the film and reflects from the bottom interface where the oil meets the water. These two reflected light waves travel different path lengths, creating a path difference. As they recombine and reach the observer's eye, they undergo constructive and destructive interference. For a given film thickness and viewing angle, only specific wavelengths of light undergo constructive interference and are reinforced, while others undergo destructive interference. This selective reinforcement of wavelengths results in the brilliant spectrum of colours observed on the oil film.

126Science and Technology
The Spike missile is newly acquired from Israel by Indian government is related to which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Anti-tank missile

Explanation

The Spike missile is a fourth-generation, man-portable, fire-and-forget anti-tank guided missile (ATGM) developed and designed by the Israeli firm Rafael Advanced Defense Systems. It is equipped with a tandem-charge high-explosive anti-tank (HEAT) warhead and a dual-mode seeker that allows precise day and night engagement. The Indian Army procured Spike Long Range (LR) missiles to enhance its operational capabilities against armored vehicles and main battle tanks.

127Science and Technology
Famous scientist S.S. Abhyankar has contributed in the field of
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Answer: (C) Algebraic Geometry

Explanation

Shreeram Shankar Abhyankar was an eminent Indian-American mathematician who made major contributions to the field of algebraic geometry. He is particularly celebrated for his pioneering work on the resolution of singularities of algebraic varieties, especially over fields of positive characteristic. Having completed his PhD under Oscar Zariski at Harvard University, he solved the problem of resolution of singularities for algebraic surfaces in positive characteristic. He also made significant contributions to commutative algebra, valuation theory, and Galois theory, and formulated the well-known Abhyankar conjecture.

128Science and TechnologyGujarat-specific
Find out the Indian scientist Dr. Vikram Sarabhai's contributions from the options listed below: 1. Founded the Physical Research Laboratory in Ahmedabad. 2. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission of India. 3. Won Nobel Prize in physiology and medicine. 4. Won Nobel Prize in physics. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2

Explanation

Dr. Vikram Sarabhai established the Physical Research Laboratory (PRL) in Ahmedabad in November 1947 to conduct pioneering research in cosmic rays and space sciences. In 1966, following the demise of Dr. Homi Bhabha, Dr. Sarabhai took over as the Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission of India, where he successfully guided the nation's nuclear program and formulated plans for the peaceful application of nuclear technology.

129Science and Technology
The Centre of Science and Environment in New Delhi publishes a popular magazine. Select its name from the options given here:
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Answer: (B) Down to Earth

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The Centre for Science and Environment, a public interest research and advocacy organisation based in New Delhi, publishes the fortnightly magazine Down to Earth. Launched in 1992, this widely read publication covers critical issues related to environmental protection, climate change, public health, sustainable development, and science policy.

130Science and Technology
In nuclear fusion, energy is released when atoms are combined or fused together to form a larger atom. This is how the sun produces energy. 2. In nuclear fission, atoms are split apart to form smaller atoms, releasing energy. Nuclear power plants use nuclear fission to produce electricity. Evaluate the statements
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

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Nuclear fusion is the process where lighter atomic nuclei combine to form a heavier nucleus, releasing a massive amount of energy due to the mass defect. This reaction powers the Sun and other stars, where hydrogen isotopes fuse under extreme temperature and pressure to form helium. Nuclear fission is the reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits into smaller, lighter nuclei upon absorbing a neutron, which also releases a substantial amount of energy. This controlled fission process is utilized in commercial nuclear reactors to generate heat, which is then converted into electricity.

131Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Modhera, our country's first 24 × 7 solar powered village is located 1. in Mehsana district of Gujarat 2. about 80km from the state capital of Gandhinagar 3. on the banks of the Pushpavati river 4. on the banks of Sabarmati river Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Modhera is situated in the Mehsana district of Gujarat, approximately 83 km from Gandhinagar, the state capital. The village lies on the banks of the Pushpavati river, which is a tributary of the Rupen river. It became India's first round-the-clock solar-powered village through a joint project of the Central and State governments, utilizing a 6 MW ground-mounted solar project, battery energy storage systems, and widespread rooftop solar installations.

132EconomyGujarat-specific
At Banas Bio-Gas Plant, the end products produced include 1. Bio CNG 2. Solid fertilizer 3. Liquid fertilizer 4. Vermiwash Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Banas Bio-Gas Plant, established by the Banaskantha District Co-operative Milk Producers Union Ltd. (Banas Dairy) at Dama in Gujarat, is a prominent waste-to-wealth initiative. It processes cow dung and other organic agricultural waste through anaerobic digestion. This process yields multiple commercial end products: Bio CNG, which is purified and compressed biogas used as a clean vehicle fuel; solid organic fertilizer, derived from the solid portion of the digested slurry; liquid organic fertilizer, obtained from the liquid portion of the slurry; and vermiwash, which is a nutrient-rich liquid extract collected during the vermicomposting of the solid residue.

133Science and Technology
Radiocarbon is produced in the atmosphere as a result of
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Answer: (A) collision between fast neutrons and nitrogen nuclei present in the atmosphere

Explanation

Radiocarbon, or Carbon-14 (¹⁴C), is continuously produced in the Earth's upper atmosphere. Cosmic rays interacting with atmospheric gases produce secondary neutrons. When these neutrons collide with nitrogen-14 (¹⁴N) nuclei, which make up about 78% of the atmosphere, a neutron capture reaction occurs. During this reaction, the nitrogen nucleus absorbs a neutron and expels a proton, transforming into Carbon-14. This nuclear transmutation is represented by the equation ¹⁴N + n → ¹⁴C + p.

134Economy
Which state has got installed wind power generation capacity in India?
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Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

Explanation

Tamil Nadu has historically been the leader in wind power generation in India. Up to the end of the financial year 2022–23, the state held the largest cumulative installed wind power capacity in the country, exceeding 10,000 MW. The state's unique geographical features, particularly the presence of mountain passes such as the Palghat Gap, Shencottah Gap, and Aralvaimozhi Gap, facilitate strong and steady wind flows, making it highly suitable for large-scale wind energy harvesting.

135GeographyGujarat-specific
Which area of Gujarat state was listed as biosphere reserve by Man and Biosphere Programme of United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization?
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Answer: (C) Rann of Kutch

Explanation

The Great Rann of Kutch Biosphere Reserve, located in Gujarat, was established in 2008 under the national Biosphere Reserve scheme which is guided by the landscape approach of UNESCO's Man and the Biosphere (MAB) programme. Spanning an area of approximately 12,454 square kilometers, it is the largest biosphere reserve in India. It protects a unique saline desert and marshy ecosystem that encompasses key protected areas, including the Kachchh Desert Sanctuary and the Indian Wild Ass Sanctuary. This biosphere reserve is vital for conserving unique and endangered fauna such as the Indian wild ass and the Great Indian bustard, as well as preserving the distinct Banni grasslands.

136Science and Technology
Select the names of adsorbents used for the removal of various gaseous air pollutants: 1. Iron oxide 2. Silica gel 3. Activated carbon 4. Water Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3

Explanation

Adsorption is a surface-based separation process where gaseous pollutants adhere to the surface of a porous solid material, known as the adsorbent.

Silica gel and activated carbon are among the most widely used solid adsorbents for controlling air pollution. Activated carbon has an exceptionally high surface area and porous structure, which makes it highly effective for adsorbing organic vapors, volatile organic compounds, and odors. Silica gel is another highly porous solid adsorbent that is exceptionally efficient at removing moisture and polar gaseous contaminants such as nitrogen oxides.

Conversely, water is used in gas absorption processes where the gas dissolves throughout the bulk of a liquid rather than adhering to a solid surface.

137Science and Technology
Consider the following statements for Cyberspace. 1. Cyberspace is a complex environment consisting of interactions between people, software and services, supported by worldwide distribution of information and communication technology (ICT) devices and networks. 2. Cyber Security policy aims to create a cyber-security framework, which leads to specific actions and programmes to enhance the security posture of country's cyber space. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

Both statements are correct. Cyberspace is globally recognized as a complex virtual environment consisting of interactions between people, software, and services, which is supported by a worldwide network of information and communication technology (ICT) systems. A national cyber security policy establishes a strategic framework designed to guide concrete programs and actions that strengthen and safeguard the overall security posture of a country's digital infrastructure.

138Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements for Cyber Surakshit Bharat. 1. Recognizing the need to strengthen the cyber security ecosystem in India, and in alignment with the Honourable Prime Minister's vision for a 'Digital India', the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (Meity), launched the Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative in association with National e-Governance Division (NeGD) and industry partners. 2. Target audiences for the above program are students of postgraduate courses of all state and central universities. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) Only 1 is correct

Explanation

The Cyber Surakshit Bharat initiative was launched in January 2018 by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology in collaboration with the National e-Governance Division and various industry partners. This initiative aims to strengthen the cybersecurity ecosystem in India in alignment with the Digital India vision, making the first statement correct.

The program is specifically designed to build capacity and raise awareness about cyber security among Chief Information Security Officers and frontline IT officials working across central and state government departments, ministries, public sector undertakings, and banks. It is not targeted at postgraduate students, making the second statement incorrect.

139Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements from IT rules, 2021. 1. The new IT Rules, 2021 have a clear objective of enhancing online safety of users, particularly women | children. 2. Various provisions of these Rules include: Specific inclusion of certain requirements to be explicitly conveyed in the terms and conditions, Reporting by the aggrieved individual in respect of revenge porn and similar content breaching physical privacy and taking action within 24 hours for content removal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

The Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 were framed by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology to ensure an open, safe, trusted, and accountable internet.

Statement 1 is correct because the guidelines explicitly aim to empower ordinary users of social media and digital platforms while prioritizing online safety, dignity, and protection, particularly for women and children.

Statement 2 is correct as the rules lay down specific due diligence requirements for intermediaries. Rule 3(1)(b) mandates intermediaries to clearly and explicitly convey terms and conditions, privacy policies, and user agreements. Furthermore, Rule 3(2)(b) addresses immediate harms like revenge porn, non-consensual sharing of sexually explicit imagery, or impersonation breaching physical privacy. It provides a mechanism where the intermediary must take down or disable access to such offensive content within 24 hours of receiving a complaint from the affected individual or their authorized representative.

140Science and Technology
Consider the following statements 1. The Department of Space (DoS), under which ISRO comes, has signed an MoU with geospatial technology company CE Info Systems Pvt. Ltd. 2. The collaboration will enable them to jointly identify and build a holistic geospatial portal utilising earth observation datasets, 'NavIC', Web Services and APIs (application programming interface) available in MapmyIndia. The geospatial portals will be called 'Bhuvan', 'VEDAS' and 'MOSDAC'
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Answer: (A) only 1 is correct

Explanation

The Department of Space signed a Memorandum of Understanding with CE Info Systems Pvt. Ltd., the parent company of MapmyIndia, to cooperate in developing indigenous geospatial solutions.

While the collaboration utilizes existing Indian Space Research Organisation geoportals, Bhuvan, VEDAS, and MOSDAC are already established geoportals developed and hosted by ISRO, not new portals being created or named under this agreement. Bhuvan is a national geoportal, VEDAS is a geoprocessing platform, and MOSDAC is a meteorological data repository. The partnership aims to build solutions by leveraging APIs and datasets from MapmyIndia alongside the services available on these pre-existing platforms.

141Science and Technology
Consider the following statements for ISRO. 1. The first Indian spacecraft 'Aryabhata' was developed and was launched using an Indian Launcher. 2. DOS Secretariat and ISRO Headquarters are located at Antarkish Bhavan in Delhi. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct

Explanation

The first Indian spacecraft, Aryabhata, was designed and fabricated in India by ISRO, but it was launched by the Soviet Union on April 19, 1975, using a Soviet Kosmos-3M rocket from Kapustin Yar. The Department of Space (DOS) Secretariat and the Headquarters of ISRO are located at Antariksh Bhavan in Bengaluru, Karnataka, not in Delhi.

142Science and Technology
Consider the following statements for ISRO. 1. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR, Sriharikota, the Spaceport of India, is responsible for providing Launch Base Infrastructure for the Indian Space Programme. 2. Sriharikota is a barrier island in Andhra Pradesh state of India. It is most famous as the home of Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC), one of the two satellite launch centres in India and the other is in Thiruvananthapuram. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (A) Only 1 is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC) SHAR in Sriharikota is the primary spaceport of India. It provides the complete launch base infrastructure, propellant processing facilities, launch pads, tracking systems, and mission control facilities required for the Indian Space Programme.

Statement 2 is incorrect. While Sriharikota is a barrier island in Andhra Pradesh, it is the only active satellite launch centre in India. The facility in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala, is the Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS), which is a sounding rocket launching station used for atmospheric and space research rather than a satellite launching centre.

143Science and Technology
Year of Launch Satellite Importance a. 2004 EDUSAT (GSAT-3) India's first satellite exclusively for education b. 2012 RISAT-1 First indigenous all-weather Radar Imaging Satellite c. 2017 CARTOSAT-2D The highest number of satellites (104 satellites) launched by a single launch Vehicle. d. 2018 ExseedSat-1 1st privately funded satellite of India. From the above mentioned data, which are correct?
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Answer: (D) a, b, c, and d

Explanation

EDUSAT, also known as GSAT-3, was launched in September 2004. It was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) as India's first dedicated satellite built exclusively to serve the educational sector, facilitating distance learning and interactive virtual classrooms across remote areas of the country.

RISAT-1 was launched in April 2012. It represents India's first indigenously developed active microwave remote sensing satellite carrying a C-band Synthetic Aperture Radar payload, which enables high-resolution imaging of Earth's surface features during both day and night under all weather conditions.

Cartosat-2D was launched in February 2017 as the primary payload of the PSLV-C37 mission. During this historic flight, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle successfully deployed a total of 104 satellites (Cartosat-2D alongside 103 co-passenger satellites) into orbit, marking a world record for the maximum number of satellites launched by a single launch vehicle at that time.

ExseedSat-1 was launched in December 2018 on SpaceX's Falcon 9 rocket. Developed by the Mumbai-based startup Exseed Space, it became India's first privately built and privately funded satellite in space, designed to serve the amateur radio community and provide communication support during natural disasters.

144Polity and Governance
Which of the following ministries is responsible for governing Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana (PMAY-G)?
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Answer: (B) Ministry of Rural Development

Explanation

The Ministry of Rural Development is responsible for implementing and governing the Pradhan Mantri Gramin Awas Yojana (PMAY-G). Launched in April 2016, this flagship housing scheme aims to provide a pucca house with basic amenities to all houseless households and those living in dilapidated or kutcha houses in rural areas. The selection of beneficiaries is based on housing deprivation parameters from the Socio-Economic and Caste Census 2011, verified by Gram Sabhas, ensuring a highly transparent and targeted approach to rural housing development.

145Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are true for nuclear power in India? 1. India is outside the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty due to its weapons programme, it was for 34 years largely excluded from trade in nuclear plant and materials, which hampered its development of civil nuclear energy until 2009. 2. Due to earlier trade bans and lack of indigenous uranium, India has uniquely been developing a nuclear fuel cycle to exploit its reserves of thorium. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

India has remained outside the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty due to its strategic weapons development. Following India's nuclear test in 1974, international restrictions and the creation of the Nuclear Suppliers Group isolated India from global nuclear trade for 34 years, significantly constraining its civil nuclear sector. This isolation ended following the 2008 Nuclear Suppliers Group waiver and subsequent bilateral agreements in 2009.

To address its limited domestic uranium reserves and the historical trade embargoes, India uniquely formulated a three-stage nuclear power programme. Conceived by Homi Bhabha, this closed fuel cycle is specifically designed to eventually exploit India's abundant thorium reserves, found in coastal monazite sands, to achieve long-term energy independence.

146Economy
Consider the following statements for NEP. 1. The National Energy Policy (NEP) aims to chart the way forward to meet the Government's recent bold announcements in the energy domain. 2. All the Census villages are planned to be electrified by 2018, and universal electrification is to be achieved with 24 × 7 electricity by 2022. Select the correct answer using the code given below:
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

Explanation

The Draft National Energy Policy (NEP) was released by NITI Aayog to establish a comprehensive and coordinated framework for the energy sector in India.

The first statement is correct because the primary goal of the NEP is to chart a clear roadmap to support and fulfill the Government's ambitious commitments and bold initiatives in the energy domain. These initiatives include international climate commitments, accelerated renewable energy capacity addition, and strategic energy security.

The second statement is correct because the policy explicitly outlines timelines for energy access. It sets the milestone to electrify all Census villages by 2018 and further aims to achieve universal household electrification with 24 × 7 power supply by 2022.

147Economy
An e-Way bill is related with which of the following?
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Answer: (A) e-Way bill is a document required to be carried by a person in charge of the conveyance carrying any consignment of goods

Explanation

Under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime in India, an e-Way bill (Electronic Way bill) is a mandatory compliance document generated electronically on a dedicated portal. It serves as official evidence for the movement of goods of a consignment value exceeding ₹50,000. Under Rule 138 of the CGST Rules, 2017, the person in charge of a conveyance carrying such a consignment of goods is legally required to carry this document, or its unique e-Way Bill Number, to facilitate verification and ensure seamless transit across state and national borders.

148Economy
Which treaty acts as a framework for international cooperation to combat climate change by limiting average global temperature increases and the resulting climate change, and coping with impacts?
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Answer: (D) UNFCCC

Explanation

The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is the primary international treaty established to address global warming and climate change. Adopted at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro in 1992, it provides the foundational framework for intergovernmental cooperation to stabilize greenhouse gas concentrations in the atmosphere. This treaty aims to prevent dangerous human interference with the climate system, limit average global temperature increases, and facilitate adaptation to the inevitable impacts of climate change. Major international climate agreements, such as the Kyoto Protocol and the Paris Agreement, have been negotiated and implemented under the auspices of the UNFCCC.

149Economy
During which meet Kyoto Protocol was adopted?
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Answer: (C) COP3

Explanation

The Kyoto Protocol is an international treaty that commits state parties to reduce greenhouse gas emissions, based on the scientific consensus that global warming is occurring and that human-made CO₂ emissions are driving it. It was adopted during the third Conference of the Parties (COP 3) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) held in Kyoto, Japan, on 11 December 1997.

150Geography
Consider the following statements about the North-East Monsoon in India. 1. They are retreating monsoon. 2. They are responsible for rainfall along the Coromandel coast of India. 3. They pick up moisture from the Bay of Bengal before rainfall. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

During the transition season of October and November, the southwest monsoon winds weaken and begin to withdraw from northern India, which is referred to as the retreating monsoon. As the wind direction reverses, dry winds blow from the northeast landmass towards the sea. While blowing over the Bay of Bengal, these dry winds accumulate significant moisture. When they reach the southern peninsula, they strike the Coromandel coast of Tamil Nadu and parts of Andhra Pradesh, causing extensive winter rainfall. This makes the northeast monsoon the primary source of precipitation for this region.

151Science and Technology
Which country first suggested the observance of 'World Tsunami Awareness Day'?
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Answer: (D) Japan

Explanation

World Tsunami Awareness Day, observed annually on November 5, was established by the United Nations General Assembly in December 2015 following a proposal initiated by Japan. Japan has long-standing expertise and historical experience in tsunami warning, public action, and disaster risk reduction. The specific date of November 5 was chosen to honor the Japanese story of Inamura-no-hi, where a villager set fire to his rice sheaves during an 1854 earthquake to warn and save his fellow villagers from an incoming tsunami.

152Other
Which city is hosting the World Travel Market 2022?
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Answer: (B) London

Explanation

The World Travel Market 2022 was hosted at the ExCeL London exhibition centre in London, United Kingdom, from November 7 to November 9, 2022. It is one of the largest and most influential annual trade shows for the global travel and tourism industry, providing a platform for travel professionals, destination representatives, and travel businesses from all over the world to network, negotiate, and showcase their services.

153Geography
According to a study by the UN body, how many of the glaciers on the UNESCO World Heritage list are under threat?
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Answer: (B) a third of the glaciers

Explanation

A joint study conducted by UNESCO and the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) in late 2022 found that glaciers in one-third of the 50 UNESCO World Heritage glacierized sites are under threat and projected to disappear by 2050, regardless of the climate scenario applied. However, the study noted that it is still possible to save the remaining two-thirds of these glaciers if global temperature rises do not exceed 1.5°C compared to pre-industrial levels.

154Economy
Which Municipal bond of India has been selected by the US Treasury for a case study on the successful listing?
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Answer: (A) Vadodara

Explanation

In November 2022, the US Embassy and the US Treasury selected the municipal bond issued by the Vadodara Municipal Corporation (VMC) for a case study on successful listing.

The Vadodara Municipal Corporation successfully issued its maiden municipal bond in March 2022 to raise ₹100 crore for water supply and sanitation projects under the Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation (AMRUT) scheme. The bond received an overwhelming response, being oversubscribed by more than 10 times with bids worth ₹1007 crore from various investors, and was priced at a highly competitive yield of 7.15%.

Vadodara is the second Indian city, after Pune, to issue a municipal bond with technical assistance provided free of cost by the US Treasury Department's Office of Technical Assistance. The case study was designed to share the lessons learned from this successful issuance to help and guide other urban local bodies across India in raising funds through the municipal bond market.

155History
Which Indian cricketer has become the first Indian player to score 1000 T20 International runs in a calendar year?
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Answer: (D) Suryakumar Yadav

Explanation

Suryakumar Yadav became the first Indian cricketer to score 1,000 T20 International (T20I) runs in a single calendar year. He accomplished this feat on November 6, 2022, during India's final Super 12 match against Zimbabwe in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup at the Melbourne Cricket Ground. By scoring an unbeaten 61 runs off just 25 balls, he breached the 1,000-run mark in 2022, eventually finishing the year with 1,164 runs in 31 T20I matches. He was only the second player globally to achieve this landmark, following Pakistan's Mohammad Rizwan who did so in 2021.

156Polity and Governance
Which Union Ministry launched the 'Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2023 Toolkit'?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Jal Shakti

Explanation

The Swachh Survekshan Grameen 2023 Toolkit was launched by the Union Ministry of Jal Shakti during a technical session on Rural WASH Partnerships at the 7th India Water Week. The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation (DDWS) under the Ministry of Jal Shakti has been conducting the Swachh Survekshan Grameen since 2018 to rank districts and states based on sanitation and ODF Plus indicators under the Swachh Bharat Mission Grameen Phase-II. The toolkit outlines the methodology, stages of assessment, and parameters used to evaluate rural sanitation performance across India.

157Science and Technology
Where has the annual joint military training between IAF and RSAF started?
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Answer: (C) West Bengal

Explanation

The 11th edition of the annual Joint Military Training between the Indian Air Force and the Republic of Singapore Air Force commenced at Air Force Station Kalaikunda in West Bengal. This bilateral training exercise, which resumed after a two-year hiatus due to the COVID-19 pandemic, is conducted to foster defense cooperation, share operational knowledge, and strengthen professional ties between the two air forces. Both forces engage in advanced air combat simulations and joint mission planning during this training.

158Economy
India's first floating financial literacy camp was organized in which city?
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Answer: (B) Srinagar

Explanation

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) conducted India's first floating financial literacy camp in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir. The camp was organized on the famous Dal Lake under an initiative called Niveshak Didi, which promotes financial literacy based on the concept of by the women, for the women. Since rural women are often more comfortable sharing their financial queries with other women, the newly appointed female postmen, known as Niveshak Didi, conducted the camp from Shikara boats on the lake to educate local residents on banking, digital transactions, and financial safety.

159Geography
Which country has operated the 'World's longest Passenger Train'?
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Answer: (D) Switzerland

Explanation

On October 29, 2022, Switzerland's Rhaetian Railway operated the world's longest passenger train to celebrate the 175th anniversary of Swiss Railways. The record-breaking train measured 1,910 meters in length and comprised 100 coaches made up of 25 four-car electric multiple-unit trainsets. It travelled along the Albula-Bernina railway line, a famous UNESCO World Heritage site, winding through 22 helical tunnels and crossing 48 bridges, including the Landwasser Viaduct, from Preda to Alvaneu.

160Economy
Which institution released the Adaptation Gap Report 2022?
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Answer: (B) UNEP

Explanation

The Adaptation Gap Report is an annual flagship publication released by the United Nations Environment Programme. The 2022 edition, titled Too Little, Too Slow, provides a science-based assessment of global progress on climate change adaptation planning, financing, and implementation. It highlights the growing disparity between the financial resources required for developing countries to adapt to climate impacts and the actual international adaptation finance flows.

161Science and Technology
ISRO plans on exploring the moon's shadow region in collaboration with which country?
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Answer: (A) Japan

Explanation

The Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) is collaborating with the Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA) on a joint mission known as the Lunar Polar Exploration Mission (LUPEX). The primary goal of this mission is to explore the permanently shadowed polar regions of the Moon, specifically the lunar south pole, to analyze the availability and viability of water ice and other volatile resources. In this joint venture, ISRO is responsible for developing the lunar lander, while JAXA will provide the H3 launch vehicle and the lunar rover.

162History
The first voter of independent India has passed away, what was his name?
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Answer: (A) Shyam Saran Negi

Explanation

Shyam Saran Negi, a retired schoolteacher from Kalpa in Himachal Pradesh, was the first person to cast a vote in independent India during the inaugural general elections in October 1951. He passed away on November 5, 2022, at the age of 106, shortly after casting his 34th vote via postal ballot for the Himachal Pradesh Assembly elections.

163Science and Technology
Which country has partnered with the US to build its first nuclear power plant?
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Answer: (B) Poland

Explanation

Poland partnered with the United States to construct its first nuclear power plant. The Polish government selected the US-based firm Westinghouse Electric Company to build the facility at the Lubiatowo-Kopalino site in Pomerania, utilizing AP1000 nuclear reactor technology to enhance its energy security and transition to cleaner energy sources.

164Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which among the following has won the national 'Commentation Award in Urban Transport' in the category of 'City with the best Public Transport System'?
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Answer: (D) Kerala State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC)

Explanation

The city circular service of the Kerala State Road Transport Corporation (KSRTC) won the national Commendation Award in Urban Transport under the category of City with the Best Public Transport System. This award, instituted by the Union Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, recognized KSRTC's efforts in strengthening public transport networks. The service was lauded for providing affordable, accessible, and well-connected public transportation, significantly easing urban commuting challenges.

165Polity and Governance
Which state government has decided to give football training to one lakh students?
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Answer: (B) Kerala

Explanation

In November 2022, ahead of the FIFA World Cup, the Government of Kerala launched the One Million Goal initiative, also known as the Goal Project. Jointly organized by the State Directorate of Sports and Youth Affairs and the State Sports Council, the program aimed to provide basic football training to one lakh school students aged between 10 and 12 years. The 10-day training camps were conducted across 1,000 centers in the state, with the goal of identifying promising young talents who would subsequently receive advanced, international-level training.

166Science and Technology
The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) has launched a new AI/ML-based chatbot for a better resident experience. What is the name of the chatbot?
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Answer: (C) Aadhaar Mitra

Explanation

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) launched a new artificial intelligence and machine learning based chatbot named Aadhaar Mitra to enhance the resident experience. Aadhaar Mitra acts as a virtual assistant that helps users resolve queries related to Aadhaar, such as tracking the enrolment or update status, locating the nearest Aadhaar centres, checking Aadhaar PVC card status, and registering or tracking grievances. The interactive chatbot is trained to provide instant responses in both English and Hindi, thereby improving overall access to Aadhaar-related services and streamlining the grievance redressal mechanism.

167Polity and Governance
The Union Cabinet Committee chaired by Prime Minister has approved the naming of the greenfield airport at Hollongi airport as Donyi Polo Airport. Hollongi airport is located in which state?
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Union Cabinet approved the renaming of the greenfield airport at Hollongi in Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh, as Donyi Polo Airport. The name represents the state's indigenous reverence for the Sun (Donyi) and the Moon (Polo), symbolising the rich cultural heritage and traditional belief systems of Arunachal Pradesh. This greenfield airport enhances connectivity to the capital city, Itanagar, and promotes socio-economic development in the region.

168Polity and Governance
The Hon. President has inaugurated the Indian Institute of Mass Communication North Eastern Regional Campus in which state?
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Answer: (A) Mizoram

Explanation

President Droupadi Murmu inaugurated the permanent North Eastern Regional Campus of the Indian Institute of Mass Communication in Aizawl, Mizoram, on November 3, 2022. This permanent campus was built on eight acres of land provided by Mizoram University. It initially began functioning from a temporary accommodation at the university in 2011 before moving to this permanent setup to offer advanced media education, including postgraduate diploma courses in English Journalism and Digital Media, to students across the region.

169Polity and Governance
India contributes USD 2.5 million in annual support to UNRWA to serve the schools, health centres and other basic services run by the organization to support
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Answer: (B) Palestinian refugees

Explanation

The United Nations Relief and Works Agency for Palestine Refugees in the Near East (UNRWA) is a UN agency established to provide assistance, protection, and essential services to registered Palestinian refugees. India has maintained a strong track record of supporting the agency, contributing regular financial aid to help sustain its core operations. This funding directly supports educational institutions, healthcare facilities, and relief programs operated by the organization for Palestinian refugees living in the West Bank, Gaza Strip, Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria.

170Polity and Governance
Operation Vigilant Storm exercise has been organized between South Korea and
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Answer: (B) USA

Explanation

Operation Vigilant Storm is a major joint military aviation exercise conducted between the air forces of South Korea and the United States (USA). Held in late 2022, this combat readiness exercise involved hundreds of tactical aircraft from both nations executing realistic simulated combat scenarios to enhance their defense posture and operational interoperability in the Indo-Pacific region.

171History
Zojila Day is observed to celebrate the gallant action by Indian troops in 'Operation Bison' in which year?
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Answer: (B) 1948

Explanation

Zojila Day is commemorated annually on November 1 to honor the heroic actions of Indian troops during Operation Bison in 1948. This operation was launched during the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947-1948 to recapture the strategic Zojila Pass from Pakistani intruders. The battle is historic as it marked the first time that tanks were deployed and operated at such an extreme altitude of 11,578 feet, leading to a decisive victory for the Indian Army and ensuring the safety of Ladakh.

172Polity and Governance
Who is the head of the panel set up to strengthen the assessment and accreditation of higher educational institutions?
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Answer: (B) K Radhakrishnan

Explanation

In November 2022, the Ministry of Education, Government of India, constituted a high-level committee under the chairmanship of Dr. K. Radhakrishnan, Chairperson of the Board of Governors at IIT Kanpur and Chairperson of the Standing Committee of the IIT Council. The mandate of this committee was to strengthen the assessment and accreditation processes of higher educational institutions in India and to prepare a roadmap for the National Accreditation Council as envisioned in the National Education Policy 2020. The committee proposed key reforms, including transitioning from the existing multi-point grading system to a binary accreditation system and integrating multiple ranking and accreditation bodies into a single unified platform.

173Science and Technology
Which country launched the 'Beidou' satellite navigation system?
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Answer: (C) China

Explanation

The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System is a global satellite navigation system developed and operated by China. Initiated in the late 20th century, the project progressed through three phases, starting with the experimental BeiDou-1 system in 2000, followed by the regional BeiDou-2 system in 2012, and culminating in the fully operational global BeiDou-3 system completed in 2020. The system provides high-precision positioning, navigation, and timing services globally, establishing independent navigation capabilities alongside other major global positioning systems.

174Economy
Which word has been selected as the 'Word of the Year 2022' by Collins dictionary?
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Answer: (A) Permacrisis

Explanation

Collins Dictionary selected permacrisis as its Word of the Year for 2022. The word is defined as an extended period of instability and insecurity, reflecting the ongoing global challenges during the year, including political instability, economic struggles, the conflict in Ukraine, and climate change.

175Polity and Governance
Which institution observes 'Vigilance Awareness Week' every year in India?
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Answer: (A) Central Vigilance Commission

Explanation

The Central Vigilance Commission observes Vigilance Awareness Week every year in India. This annual campaign is observed during the week in which the birthday of Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel, which falls on 31 October, occurs. The initiative aims to promote transparency, accountability, and integrity in public life, while raising awareness among citizens and public servants about the collective fight against corruption.

176Polity and Governance
As per the Education Ministry's Performance Grading Index (PGI), how many states attained Level-2 grading in 2020-21?
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Answer: (C) Seven

Explanation

In the Performance Grading Index (PGI) for 2020-21, a total of seven states and union territories attained Level 2 (scoring between 901 and 950 points out of 1000). These are Kerala, Punjab, Chandigarh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Rajasthan, and Andhra Pradesh. No state or union territory managed to achieve the highest level, which is Level 1 (requiring a score above 950 points), during this period.

177Economy
Which steel plant in India became the 1st to receive Responsible Steel Site Certification?
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Answer: (A) Jamshedpur Steel Plant

Explanation

In October 2022, Tata Steel Jamshedpur became the first steel plant in India to receive the prestigious ResponsibleSteel Site Certification. Three of its key production facilities in Jamshedpur—the Steel Works, the Tubes Division, and the Cold Rolling Mill (Bara)—received this certificate. ResponsibleSteel is the steel industry's first global multi-stakeholder standard and certification initiative that focuses on driving sustainability, reducing carbon emissions, promoting water stewardship, and protecting human rights and worker safety.

178Economy
India Water Week is celebrated from 01 November to 05 November 2022. What is the theme of India Water Week 2022?
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Answer: (D) Water Security for Sustainable Development with Equity

Explanation

The Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation (Ministry of Jal Shakti), Government of India organized the 7th India Water Week from 1 November to 5 November 2022. Inaugurated by President Droupadi Murmu in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh, the event served as an international platform to discuss and address critical water resources issues. The official theme for India Water Week 2022 was Water Security for Sustainable Development with Equity. This theme aimed to draw attention to the integrated management of water resources, equitable distribution, and sustainable practices essential for achieving long-term water security.

179Science and Technology
Which institution tested the Phase-II Ballistic Missile Defence (BMD) interceptor AD-1 missile?
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Answer: (B) DRDO

Explanation

The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) successfully conducted the maiden flight test of the Phase-II Ballistic Missile Defence interceptor AD-1 missile from APJ Abdul Kalam Island off the coast of Odisha. The AD-1 is a long-range interceptor missile designed for both low exo-atmospheric and high endo-atmospheric interception of long-range ballistic missiles and aircraft. It is powered by a two-stage solid motor and equipped with indigenously developed advanced control systems, navigation, and guidance algorithms to precisely guide the vehicle to the target.

180Polity and Governance
How many states observed State Foundation Day on 01st November?
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Answer: (A) 7 states

Explanation

Seven Indian states celebrate their state foundation day on 1st November. These seven states are Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Haryana, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, and Punjab.

These states were established or reorganised on this date in different years, largely beginning with the implementation of the States Reorganisation Act on 1st November 1956, which redrew India's state boundaries on linguistic lines.

181Polity and Governance
Which country is hosting the Asia Pacific Broadcasting Union General Assembly 2022?
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Answer: (B) India

Explanation

India hosted the 59th Asia-Pacific Broadcasting Union (ABU) General Assembly and Associated Meetings in New Delhi from November 25 to November 30, 2022. The event was hosted by India's public service broadcaster, Prasar Bharati. The theme for the 2022 general assembly was Serving the People: Media's Role in Times of Crisis. The ABU, established in 1964, is a non-profit, professional association of broadcasting organizations across the Asia-Pacific region and represents one of the largest broadcasting unions globally.

182History
Edward M Kennedy was given 'Friends of Liberation War' honour by which nation?
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Answer: (C) Bangladesh

Explanation

The late US Senator Edward M. Kennedy was posthumously conferred the "Friends of Liberation War" honour by Bangladesh in recognition of his outstanding support and contribution to the country's Liberation War in 1971. During the conflict, Senator Kennedy took a strong stance against the military crackdown on Bengalis by the Pakistani military, actively campaigned in the United States, and visited refugee camps in India to highlight their plight. This was done in opposition to the official policy of the Nixon administration. The prestigious award was presented posthumously by Bangladesh Prime Minister Sheikh Hasina to his son, Ted Kennedy Jr., in Dhaka.

183Polity and Governance
The Track Asia Cup 2022 will be hosted by which Indian state?
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

Kerala hosted the Track Asia Cup 2022 cycling tournament at the Lakshmibai National College of Physical Education outdoor velodrome in Thiruvananthapuram from November 25 to 28, 2022. Sanctioned by the Asian Cycling Confederation and the Cycling Federation of India, the event saw participation from around 200 cyclists representing over 25 Asian countries. This tournament marked the first time the prestigious cycling competition was conducted outside of New Delhi. It also served as a selection event for Asian nations for the 2024 Paris Olympics.

184Art and Culture
The 41st International book fair is organised in which of these countries?
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Answer: (A) UAE

Explanation

The 41st Sharjah International Book Fair was organized by the Sharjah Book Authority in Sharjah, United Arab Emirates (UAE) in November 2022. Operating under the theme Spread the Word, the fair featured participation from thousands of publishers representing numerous nations and established itself as one of the largest book fairs in the world for buying and selling copyrights.

185Art and Culture
The National Tribal Dance Festival 2022 is organized from
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Answer: (A) November 1st to 3rd at Raipur

Explanation

The 3rd National Tribal Dance Festival 2022 was organized from November 1st to 3rd, 2022, at the Science College Ground in Raipur, Chhattisgarh. The three-day grand cultural event was held to coincide with the state's 23rd State Foundation Day (Rajyotsava) celebrated on November 1st. Organized by the Tourism and Culture Department of Chhattisgarh, the festival aimed to promote, preserve, and celebrate diverse tribal traditions, culture, and art forms. The event witnessed active participation from around 1,500 tribal artists representing various Indian states and Union Territories, along with international performers representing several countries including Mongolia, Russia, Indonesia, and Mozambique.

186Polity and Governance
Ela Bhatt, who passed away recently, has contributed in which of the following field?
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Answer: (A) Social Service

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Ela Bhatt was an eminent Gandhian, social activist, and cooperative organizer who dedicated her life to the empowerment of marginalized women workers. In 1972, she founded the Self-Employed Women's Association (SEWA), a trade union that has empowered millions of low-income, self-employed female workers by providing them with financial support, healthcare, childcare, and labor rights. For her lifelong contribution to social service and community leadership, she was honored with prestigious awards including the Ramon Magsaysay Award, the Padma Bhushan, and the Right Livelihood Award.

187Polity and Governance
The Dr. Rajendra Prasad award is given to which of the following fields?
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Answer: (D) Public Administration in the field of academic excellence

Explanation

The Dr. Rajendra Prasad Memorial Award was established in July 2022 by the Union Ministry of Science and Technology in memory of India's first President, Dr. Rajendra Prasad. This national-level award is conferred to recognize and honor outstanding academic excellence and contributions in the field of Public Administration. It is administered under the aegis of the Indian Institute of Public Administration (IIPA) to encourage research, scholarship, and academic leadership in governance and administrative studies.

188Polity and Governance
Which state has announced child-friendly police stations?
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Answer: (B) Odisha

Explanation

In November 2022, the Chief Minister of Odisha announced the launching of sixteen child-friendly police stations across various districts of the state, with plans to expand the initiative to more stations. These facilities are designed with special amenities to provide a genial, welcoming, and fear-free environment for children. The infrastructure includes child-friendly interiors decorated with cartoons and animated murals, a recreation room with toys and swings, a small library with storybooks, and a separate room for lactating mothers to ensure privacy. The main objective of the initiative is to ease mental pressure on children and allow minors to interact with the police and report complaints comfortably.

189Other
Which among the following countries has won FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup 2022?
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Answer: (B) Spain

Explanation

Spain won the 2022 FIFA U-17 Women's World Cup by defeating Colombia 1-0 in the final match played at the DY Patil Stadium in Navi Mumbai, India, on October 30, 2022. This victory marked Spain's second consecutive title in the tournament's history, having also won the previous edition in 2018.

190Geography
According to a report released by UNHCR in October 2022, which country hosted the largest refugee population in the world?
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Answer: (A) Turkey

Explanation

According to the Mid-Year Trends 2022 report released by the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) in October 2022, Turkey (officially Türkiye) hosted the largest refugee population in the world, accommodating approximately 3.7 million refugees. The vast majority of this population consists of Syrian refugees fleeing the civil war in neighboring Syria, who are under a temporary protection status. In addition to Syrian nationals, the country also hosts a significant number of refugees and asylum seekers from other nations, including Afghanistan and Iraq. Due to its geographical proximity to active conflict regions, Turkey has remained the world's leading refugee-hosting country for several consecutive years.

191Polity and Governance
Which state has won the SKOCH award 2022 in the women and child development category for its popular 'Lakshmir Bhandar' scheme?
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Answer: (D) West Bengal

Explanation

West Bengal won the SKOCH award 2022 in the women and child development category for its popular 'Lakshmir Bhandar' scheme. Launched by the Government of West Bengal in August 2021, the scheme aims to provide direct financial assistance to female heads of families aged between 25 and 60 years. Under this initiative, monthly financial assistance is transferred directly to the bank accounts of beneficiaries to promote financial independence and empowerment among women.

192Economy
Ranjangaon, where the greenfield Electronics Manufacturing Cluster (EMC) is to be set up, is in which state?
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Answer: (B) Maharashtra

Explanation

The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology approved the setting up of a greenfield Electronics Manufacturing Cluster at Ranjangaon Phase III, Pune in Maharashtra under the Modified Electronics Manufacturing Clusters scheme. The project is developed by the Maharashtra Industrial Development Corporation to strengthen the electronics system design and manufacturing ecosystem by providing advanced infrastructure, attracting industrial investments, and generating local employment.

193Economy
First ASEAN-India Start-Up Festival has been inaugurated in which country to mark the 30th anniversary of ASEAN and India's relationship?
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Answer: (A) Indonesia

Explanation

The 1st ASEAN-India Start-up Festival (AISF) was inaugurated on October 27, 2022, in Bogor, Indonesia. It was launched to commemorate the 30th anniversary of the ASEAN-India diplomatic relationship. The four-day event was organized by the ASEAN Committee on Science, Technology, and Innovation (COSTI) in partnership with India's Department of Science and Technology. Supported by the ASEAN-India Science and Technology Development Fund, the festival aimed to strengthen bilateral cooperation, accelerate the startup economy, and connect entrepreneurs from India and ASEAN nations.

194Polity and Governance
Which country's President is mandated to bring out the National Security Strategy?
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Answer: (B) USA

Explanation

In the United States, the President is legally mandated to submit the National Security Strategy (NSS) report to Congress. This requirement was established under Section 603 of the Goldwater-Nichols Department of Defense Reorganization Act of 1986, which is codified in the United States Code at 50 U.S.C. Section 3043. The document is intended to communicate the executive branch's strategic vision, national interests, commitments, and the planned integration of diplomatic, economic, and military power to achieve those goals.

195Economy
Jamsheed J. Irani, who passed away was the former MD of which company?
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Answer: (A) Tata Steel

Explanation

Jamsheed J. Irani, widely known as the Steel Man of India, served as the Managing Director of Tata Steel from 1992 to 2001. He joined the company in 1968 as an assistant to the Director in-charge of Research and Development and rose through the ranks to lead the steel major. Under his leadership, Tata Steel underwent significant modernization and became one of the lowest-cost steel producers in the world. He was awarded the Padma Bhushan in 2007 for his outstanding contributions to the Indian industry. He passed away on October 31, 2022, in Jamshedpur.

196Geography
Mawmluh Cave, in which state has become the first Indian Geohieritage Site to be recognised by UNESCO?
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Answer: (A) Meghalaya

Explanation

Mawmluh Cave, also known as Krem Mawmluh, is located in the East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya. In October 2022, the International Union of Geological Sciences (IUGS), which works closely with UNESCO, recognized Mawmluh Cave as one of the first 100 IUGS Geological Heritage Sites, making it the first Indian geoheritage site to receive such global recognition. The cave is of immense geological significance because a stalagmite from its interior provided key evidence of a major climatic shift that occurred around 4,200 years ago, leading to the formal definition of the Meghalayan Age in the Holocene epoch.

197History
Where was India's Second National Model Vedic School inaugurated recently?
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Answer: (B) Puri

Explanation

The second Rashtriya Adarsh Veda Vidyalaya (National Model Vedic School) was inaugurated by the Union Minister of Education in Puri, Odisha, in October 2022. Named the Shree Jagannath Rashtriya Adarsh Veda Vidyalaya, this residential institute has been established on the campus of the Central Sanskrit University to conserve and spread the knowledge of the Vedas alongside modern subjects. The first such National Model Vedic School is located in Ujjain, Madhya Pradesh.

198Science and Technology
North India's first data centre has been set up in which state?
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Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

North India's first hyperscale data centre, named Yotta D1, was inaugurated in Greater Noida, Uttar Pradesh. Developed by Yotta Infrastructure (a Hiranandani Group company), this massive data centre spans 300,000 square feet and has an IT power capacity of 28.8 MW. It is designed to bolster the digital infrastructure of the region and support the growing needs of the digital economy.

199Science and Technology
DRDO Industry Academia-Centre of Excellence (DIA-CoE) has been set up in which institution?
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Answer: (A) IIT Roorkee

Explanation

The Ministry of Defence, Government of India, approved the establishment of the DRDO Industry Academia-Centre of Excellence (DIA-CoE) at the Indian Institute of Technology Roorkee (IIT Roorkee). This centre was created to facilitate and undertake multidisciplinary directed basic and applied research in key research verticals, including smart infrastructure and hardened structures for defence applications, energy storage devices, landslide and avalanche studies, pulsed lasers, shock and detonics, and thermal management. Supported by financial assistance from the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), the centre strengthens collaboration among DRDO laboratories, academia, and startups to develop critical and futuristic technologies for national security.

200Economy
In accordance with the RBI Act, the central bank is required to make a report to the government if the inflation target is not maintained for how many quarters?
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Answer: (A) Three

Explanation

Under Section 45ZN of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the central bank is deemed to have failed to meet the inflation target if the inflation rate remains outside the tolerance band (currently 2% to 6%) for three consecutive quarters. Upon such a failure, the RBI is legally mandated to submit a report to the Central Government detailing the reasons for the failure, the remedial actions proposed, and an estimated timeframe within which the inflation target will be restored.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2D
  3. 3B
  4. 4D
  5. 5A
  6. 6C
  7. 7A
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10C
  11. 11D
  12. 12B
  13. 13B
  14. 14A
  15. 15A
  16. 16B
  17. 17B
  18. 18A
  19. 19D
  20. 20A
  21. 21C
  22. 22C
  23. 23D
  24. 24B
  25. 25D
  26. 26D
  27. 27A
  28. 28C
  29. 29D
  30. 30B
  31. 31B
  32. 32B
  33. 33C
  34. 34C
  35. 35D
  36. 36D
  37. 37B
  38. 38A
  39. 39A
  40. 40A
  41. 41D
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44C
  45. 45A
  46. 46A
  47. 47A
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50B
  51. 51D
  52. 52C
  53. 53A
  54. 54C
  55. 55A
  56. 56C
  57. 57B
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60B
  61. 61C
  62. 62D
  63. 63A
  64. 64D
  65. 65D
  66. 66B
  67. 67A
  68. 68B
  69. 69B
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72B
  73. 73C
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77A
  78. 78C
  79. 79D
  80. 80B
  81. 81D
  82. 82D
  83. 83D
  84. 84C
  85. 85D
  86. 86D
  87. 87C
  88. 88B
  89. 89C
  90. 90A
  91. 91C
  92. 92D
  93. 93C
  94. 94A
  95. 95D
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98C
  99. 99A
  100. 100A
  101. 101C
  102. 102A
  103. 103D
  104. 104B
  105. 105C
  106. 106D
  107. 107D
  108. 108D
  109. 109B
  110. 110A
  111. 111C
  112. 112A
  113. 113D
  114. 114A
  115. 115B
  116. 116A
  117. 117A
  118. 118B
  119. 119C
  120. 120A
  121. 121C
  122. 122D
  123. 123A
  124. 124A
  125. 125B
  126. 126A
  127. 127C
  128. 128A
  129. 129B
  130. 130C
  131. 131C
  132. 132D
  133. 133A
  134. 134A
  135. 135C
  136. 136C
  137. 137C
  138. 138A
  139. 139C
  140. 140A
  141. 141D
  142. 142A
  143. 143D
  144. 144B
  145. 145C
  146. 146C
  147. 147A
  148. 148D
  149. 149C
  150. 150C
  151. 151D
  152. 152B
  153. 153B
  154. 154A
  155. 155D
  156. 156C
  157. 157C
  158. 158B
  159. 159D
  160. 160B
  161. 161A
  162. 162A
  163. 163B
  164. 164D
  165. 165B
  166. 166C
  167. 167C
  168. 168A
  169. 169B
  170. 170B
  171. 171B
  172. 172B
  173. 173C
  174. 174A
  175. 175A
  176. 176C
  177. 177A
  178. 178D
  179. 179B
  180. 180A
  181. 181B
  182. 182C
  183. 183C
  184. 184A
  185. 185A
  186. 186A
  187. 187D
  188. 188B
  189. 189B
  190. 190A
  191. 191D
  192. 192B
  193. 193A
  194. 194B
  195. 195A
  196. 196A
  197. 197B
  198. 198C
  199. 199A
  200. 200A

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