GPSC2024General Studies Paper II✓ Every question solved

GPSC Prelims 2024 General Studies Paper II with Answers & Explanations

All 200 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

200
Questions
6
Subjects
7
Gujarat-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Economy6332%
  • Science and Technology5628%
  • Geography5025%
  • Polity and Governance2312%
  • Art and Culture42%
  • History42%
1Economy
Which of the following is/are the Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) in India? 1. Life Insurance Corporation of India. 2. General Insurance Corporation of India 3. New India Assurance. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India (IRDAI) designates Domestic Systemically Important Insurers (D-SIIs) based on their size, market importance, and domestic and global interconnectedness. The three designated entities are Life Insurance Corporation of India, General Insurance Corporation of India, and New India Assurance. These insurers are perceived as too big to fail because their distress or failure would cause a significant dislocation in the domestic financial system. Consequently, they are subjected to enhanced regulatory supervision to promote robust risk management.

2Economy
Consider the following statements. 1. The First Advance Estimates (FAE) of GDP are the first official estimates of how GDP is expected to grow in that financial year. 2. They are released by the Ministry of Finance. 3. They are used to decide the next financial year's budget allocations. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1, 3

Explanation

First Advance Estimates of GDP are published in early January by the National Statistical Office (NSO) under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), rather than the Ministry of Finance. They represent the first official estimates of how the country's GDP is expected to grow in that ongoing financial year. Since the presentation of the Union Budget was shifted to February 1, these estimates are released early to serve as critical inputs for the Ministry of Finance to decide the next financial year's budget allocations and fiscal targets.

3Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI). 1. The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) is a law enforcement agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for fighting tax evasion in India. 2. Before the introduction of GST in 2017, the DGGI operated as Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI). Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) was indeed previously called the Directorate General of Central Excise Intelligence (DGCEI). It was renamed in 2017 following the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) to serve as the premier intelligence agency for preventing GST evasion. The agency operates under the Department of Revenue in the Ministry of Finance, rather than the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. This makes the second statement correct while the first statement is incorrect.

4Economy
Consider the following statements regarding E-Kuber. 1. E-Kuber is the core banking solution of the RBI that gives high degree of access to commercial banks to their current account with the RBI. 2. E-Kuber is used to conduct exercises like auctioning of government securities. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

E-Kuber is the Core Banking Solution of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). It provides commercial banks with a high degree of access to their current accounts maintained with the RBI. It allows for a single, consolidated current account for each bank across India, which can be securely accessed from anywhere at any time through portal-based services.

Additionally, E-Kuber is the platform used by the RBI to conduct primary market operations and auction financial instruments, including Central and State Government securities, Treasury Bills, and Sovereign Gold Bonds.

5Economy
Consider the following statements. 1. India's share in the global production of millets is more than 50% . 2. The top importers of millets from India are USA, Russia and China. 3. In India, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) has been working towards facilitating shipments of millets by Indian exporters and helping them make inroads into new markets. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 3 only

Explanation

The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) is the nodal agency under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry responsible for promoting the export of agricultural products from India. APEDA has actively worked to facilitate the shipment of millets through initiatives such as launching a dedicated Millets Portal, establishing the Indian Millet Exchange, and organizing trade promotion events, B2B meetings, and international food exhibitions to help Indian exporters access new global markets.

India accounts for approximately 41% of global millet production, which is below the 50% threshold. Furthermore, the top three destinations for millet exports from India are Nepal, the UAE, and Saudi Arabia. Therefore, only the third statement is correct.

6Economy
While recommending minimum support prices (MSPs), the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) looks at the following factors 1. The market price trends at both domestic and international level 2. The likely implications of an MSP on consumers of that product 3. A minimum of 30 per cent as the margin over the cost of production 4. Inter-crop price parity Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 4

Explanation

The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) considers several key parameters to recommend the Minimum Support Price (MSP). Among these, CACP analyzes both domestic and international market price trends to ensure that domestic support prices do not become completely decoupled from global market realities. It also evaluates the likely implications of MSP hikes on consumers, particularly regarding food inflation and the overall cost of living. To maintain agricultural balance and prevent overproduction of one crop at the expense of others, CACP ensures inter-crop price parity. Additionally, the mandated margin over the cost of production is set at a minimum of 50 percent of the cost of production (based on the A2+FL formula), rather than 30 percent.

7Economy
Consider the following statements regarding National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) 1. It is the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. 2. It functions under the Ministry of Agriculture. 3. It is the nodal procurement agency for pulses. Which of the statements given above are correct?
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation of India Ltd (NAFED) was established on 2 October 1958 as the apex organization of marketing cooperatives for agricultural produce in India. It is registered under the Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act and functions under the administrative oversight of the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. NAFED acts as the designated central nodal procurement agency of the Government of India for pulses and oilseeds under the Price Support Scheme (PSS) of the Pradhan Mantri Annadata Aay Sanrakshan Abhiyan (PM-AASHA), ensuring that farmers receive the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for their produce.

8Economy
Hard currency is usually preferred because 1. It is seen as politically and economically stable. 2. It is widely accepted around the world as a form of payment for goods and services. 3. It is not likely to depreciate or appreciate suddenly. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Hard currency refers to a globally accepted currency that serves as a reliable and stable store of value. It is typically issued by nations with strong political and economic stability, making it highly desirable and trusted worldwide. Because of the robust economic and political fundamentals of the issuing country, a hard currency is widely accepted for international transactions, trade, and as a reserve currency. Furthermore, its stability ensures that it is not prone to sudden or dramatic fluctuations in value, meaning it is unlikely to depreciate or appreciate rapidly, providing a secure and predictable medium for international trade and investment.

9Economy
The Fiscal Policy intends to 1. Control the price level in the country 2. Achieve full employment, or near full employment 3. Maintain the economy's growth rate Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Fiscal policy, managed by the government, uses taxation, public expenditure, and public borrowing to influence aggregate demand and manage the macroeconomic environment.

It aims to control the price level and ensure price stability by adjusting taxes and public spending to curb inflationary or deflationary pressures.

It works to achieve full or near full employment by stimulating demand and directly creating jobs through public works, infrastructure projects, and support for key employment-generating sectors.

It maintains and accelerates the economic growth rate by mobilizing savings, encouraging investment, and directing resources toward productive sectors to expand the productive capacity of the country.

10Economy
First Five Year Plan: It was launched for the duration of 1951 to 1956, it was based on the Harrod- Domar model with a few modifications. Its main focus was on the agricultural development of the country. 2. Second Five Year Plan: It was made for the duration of 1956 to 1961, it was based on the P.C. Mahalanobis Model. Its main focus was on the industrial development of the country. 3. Third Five Year Plan: It was made for the duration of 1961 to 1966, this Plan is also called 'Gadgil Yojana'. The main target of this Plan was to make the economy self reliant. The stress was laid on agriculture and the improvement in the production of wheat. 4. Eighth Five Year Plan: Its duration was from 1992 to 1997. The top priority was given to the development of human resources i.e. employment, education and public health. During this Plan, the Government launched the New Economic Policy of India. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct

Explanation

All four statements are correct descriptions of India's Five-Year Plans:

The First Five-Year Plan (1951 to 1956) was based on the Harrod-Domar model with modifications. It addressed the immediate needs of the nation post-independence by focusing on the agricultural sector, irrigation, and power projects to increase food grain production.

The Second Five-Year Plan (1956 to 1961) followed the Mahalanobis model, which advocated for rapid industrialization. It prioritized heavy industries, capital goods, and public sector enterprises to build a strong industrial base.

The Third Five-Year Plan (1961 to 1966) was also known as the Gadgil Yojana, named after D.R. Gadgil, the Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission. Its main goal was to establish a self-reliant economy, placing strong emphasis on agriculture and increasing wheat production to achieve self-sufficiency.

The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992 to 1997) gave top priority to human resource development, targeting employment generation, universalization of education, and public health. This plan was launched following the economic crisis of 1990-1991, and it officially implemented the structural reforms of India's New Economic Policy.

11Economy
Which of the following is not a non- tariff measure?
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Answer: (D) All of the above are non-tariff measures.

Explanation

Non-tariff measures encompass all policy interventions other than ordinary customs tariffs that can affect international trade. Under the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development classification, sanitary and phytosanitary measures, technical barriers to trade, and import licensing procedures are standard categories of non-tariff measures. Since every option listed represents a form of non-tariff measure rather than a tariff, the statement that all of them are indeed non-tariff measures is correct.

12Economy
Geographical Indication tags are typically given for 1. Agricultural products 2. Foodstuffs 3. Handicrafts 4. Wines and spirit drinks 5. Industrial products Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Explanation

Geographical Indications are governed by the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in India, which is in compliance with the WTO TRIPS Agreement. According to this framework, a GI tag can be registered for various goods originating from a specific geographical territory. This includes agricultural goods such as Darjeeling tea or Basmati rice, foodstuffs like Rasgulla, handicrafts and textiles like Chanderi sarees or Mysore silk, wines and spirit drinks such as Champagne or Goan Feni, and manufactured industrial products like Mysore Sandal Soap. Consequently, all five categories qualify for the assignment of a Geographical Indication tag.

13Economy
Which of the following lead to Demand-Pull Inflation? 1. A growing economy 2. Increase in Forex reserves 3. Deficit financing by the government 4. Depreciation of rupee
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Demand-pull inflation occurs when the aggregate demand for goods and services in an economy outpaces their aggregate supply, which is often described as too much money chasing too few goods. All four of the listed factors contribute to this phenomenon.

A growing economy leads to rising consumer confidence, higher employment, and increased disposable income, which encourages consumers to spend more, thereby driving up aggregate demand.

An increase in Forex reserves typically involves the central bank buying foreign currency by injecting domestic currency into the banking system, which expands the domestic money supply and fuels aggregate demand.

Deficit financing by the government, where the budget deficit is funded through borrowing or printing new money, directly increases public spending and injects liquidity into the market, leading to a rise in aggregate demand.

Depreciation of the rupee makes domestic exports cheaper and more competitive abroad, leading to a surge in foreign demand for domestic goods. At the same time, because imports become more expensive, domestic consumers shift their consumption toward local alternatives, further boosting domestic aggregate demand and leading to demand-pull inflation.

14Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Goods and Services Tax Council. 1. Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall be taken by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. 2. The vote of the Central Government in the GST council meeting shall have a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

Article 279A of the Constitution of India governs the Goods and Services Tax Council. According to Article 279A(9), every decision of the Council must be taken at a meeting by a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted votes of the members present and voting. Under this voting formula, the vote of the Central Government has a weightage of one-third of the total votes cast, whereas the votes of all State Governments taken together hold a weightage of two-thirds of the total votes cast in that meeting. This establishes the correctness of the first statement and the incorrectness of the second.

15Economy
The Digital Payments Index (DPI) is released by
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Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India constructed and publishes the composite RBI - Digital Payments Index to capture the extent of digitization of payments across the country. Launched in January 2021, the index measures the penetration of digital payments using five broad parameters: Payment Enablers, Payment Infrastructure (Demand-side factors), Payment Infrastructure (Supply-side factors), Payment Performance, and Consumer Centricity. It is released on a semi-annual basis with March 2018 set as the base period with a score of 100.

16Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF). 1. It has been constituted by RBI. 2. It conducts first level examination of all bank fraud cases. 3. It periodically carry out frauds analysis in the financial system and give inputs for any policy formulation related to the frauds. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 3 only

Explanation

The Advisory Board for Banking and Financial Frauds (ABBFF) is constituted by the Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) in consultation with the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), making statement 1 incorrect.

It does not conduct first-level examination for all bank fraud cases. Instead, it is tasked with the initial examination of fraud cases involving an amount of ₹3 crore and above in public sector banks, public sector financial institutions, and public sector insurance companies before criminal investigations are initiated, making statement 2 incorrect.

The board is also mandated to periodically carry out fraud analysis in the financial system and provide inputs to the RBI and CVC for policy formulation related to frauds, making statement 3 correct.

17Economy
Consider the following statements. 1. India is the world's largest crude oil importer, where nearly 80% of its needs are met through imports. 2. In the recent years, around one-fourth of India's crude oil imports come from Russia. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

China is the world's largest crude oil importer, while India is the third-largest consumer and importer of crude oil globally. Furthermore, India's import dependence for crude oil is much higher, with imports meeting nearly 85% to 87% of its domestic consumption needs. This makes Statement 1 incorrect.

Following the onset of the Russia-Ukraine conflict in 2022, Indian refiners shifted to importing discounted Russian crude oil. Russia quickly became India's largest supplier of crude oil, with its share rising from less than 1% before 2022 to more than 30% in recent fiscal years, effectively accounting for around one-fourth to over one-third of India's total crude oil imports. This makes Statement 2 correct.

18Economy
The term 'Unicorn Company' often seen in news means
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Answer: (B) Private start-up company valued at over US$ 1 billion

Explanation

The term unicorn is used in the venture capital industry to describe a privately held startup company with a valuation of over US1 billion. Coined in 2013 by venture capitalist Aileen Lee, the term utilizes the mythical creature to symbolize the statistical rarity of such highly successful business ventures. These companies are typically characterized by rapid growth, innovative business models, and significant funding from venture capitalists and private equity investors.

19Economy
In Economy, Kuznets' theory is related to
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Answer: (B) Inequality

Explanation

Simon Kuznets hypothesized that as an economy undergoes economic growth, inequality first increases and then decreases. This relationship is graphically represented as an inverted U-shaped curve known as the Kuznets Curve. In the early stages of development, rapid industrialization and urbanization shift labor from low-yielding agriculture to higher-yielding industrial sectors, which initially increases income inequality. As the economy matures and reaches higher levels of development, factors such as social welfare policies, democratization, and increased access to education lead to a redistribution of income, thereby reducing inequality.

20Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements. 1. Union Finance Commission tries to rectify the vertical and horizontal imbalances in resources and expenditure responsibilities between Union and States. 2. State Finance Commissions that supplement the resources of panchayats and municipalities are constituted along with Union Finance Commission. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

State Finance Commissions are constituted by the Governor of the respective state under Articles 243-I and 243-Y of the Constitution of India every five years to review the financial position of the panchayats and municipalities and make recommendations. These commissions are independent constitutional bodies established by the respective state governments and are not constituted along with or in synchronization with the Union Finance Commission, which is appointed by the President of India under Article 280.

21Economy
Which of the following are the examples of Footloose industry? 1. Diamonds industry 2. Sugar industry 3. Computer chips 4. Aluminium industry
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Answer: (B) 1, 3

Explanation

Footloose industries are characterized by their ability to locate in a wide variety of places because they are not tied to specific raw material sites, weight-losing resources, or heavy transport infrastructure. Their raw materials and finished products are typically lightweight, of extremely high value, and easy to transport, making transportation costs a negligible factor in their location decisions. The diamond industry and the computer chips industry are classic examples of footloose industries because they rely on highly skilled labor, advanced technology, and low-volume, high-value components that can be easily shipped anywhere in the world.

22Economy
Which of the following is the commercial crop in India?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Commercial crops, also known as cash crops, are agricultural crops grown primarily for sale in the market to generate profit rather than for direct consumption by the farmer. Mustard is a major oilseed crop cultivated extensively for commercial oil extraction and industrial processing. Tobacco is a high-value cash crop grown for its leaves, which undergo industrial processing for consumer goods. Jute, often referred to as the golden fiber, is a crucial commercial fiber crop used in the manufacturing of packaging materials, textiles, and ropes. All three of these crops are major pillars of agricultural commerce in India.

23Economy
Who approves the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane?
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Answer: (A) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs

Explanation

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA), chaired by the Prime Minister of India, approves the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) of sugarcane. The CCEA determines this price based on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) after consultations with state governments and various stakeholders in the sugar industry. The FRP is the minimum price that sugar mills are legally obligated to pay to sugarcane farmers for the cane purchased from them.

24Economy
When farmers pool their land, labour and capital and work jointly under the direction of an elected managing committee and divide the profit among themselves in proportion of land contributed and wages earned by each one of them. What is it called?
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Answer: (A) Co-operative farming

Explanation

Co-operative farming is a system where individual farmers voluntarily pool their land, labor, and capital to perform agricultural operations jointly under the direction of an elected managing committee. In this setup, each member farmer retains individual ownership of their land. The profits generated from the joint farming activities are distributed among the members in proportion to the size of the land they contributed and the wages earned for their labor. This system helps small and marginal farmers overcome the disadvantages of land fragmentation by leveraging the benefits of large-scale cultivation.

25Economy
Consider the following statements. 1. World Trade Organization (WTO) determines 'developed' and 'developing' countries based on its per capita GDP ratio. 2. WTO provides assistance to developing, least-developed and low-income countries in transition to adjust to WTO rules through technical cooperation and training. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The WTO does not have any definitions or criteria, such as per capita GDP ratio, to determine whether a member country is developed or developing. Instead, member countries self-designate their status, meaning they declare for themselves whether they are developed or developing, though other members can challenge this designation.

The WTO actively provides technical assistance and capacity building to developing countries, least-developed countries, and low-income countries in transition. This support is designed to help these nations adjust to WTO rules, meet their obligations, and fully participate in global trade. This assistance is delivered through specialized training courses, workshops, and technical cooperation programs coordinated by the WTO Secretariat.

26Economy
What does food security imply?
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Answer: (B) Access to food to all, at all times

Explanation

Food security is defined by the Food and Agriculture Organization as a state where all people, at all times, have physical, social, and economic access to sufficient, safe, and nutritious food to meet their dietary needs and food preferences for an active and healthy life. This definition emphasizes that mere availability of food is insufficient unless every individual has uninterrupted access to it, ensuring both physical and economic reachability at all times to prevent vulnerability to hunger and malnutrition.

27Economy
What does the phrase 'sustainability' imply?
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Answer: (D) All of the above

Explanation

Sustainability is a multi-dimensional concept that refers to meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. It emphasizes that human activities directly affect the well-being of ecosystems, requiring a shared global responsibility to preserve resources and maintain a high quality of life for both current and future populations. Therefore, it encompasses global cooperation, environmental stewardship, and long-term resource preservation.

28Science and Technology
Which chemical fertilizer is essential for better rhizobial nitrogen fixation?
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Answer: (D) Phosphorus

Explanation

Phosphorus is vital for biological nitrogen fixation because the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia by the nitrogenase enzyme in rhizobia is a highly energy-intensive process. This biochemical reaction requires a substantial supply of adenosine triphosphate (ATP), of which phosphorus is a core constituent. Adequate phosphorus availability ensures the production of sufficient energy (ATP) required for nitrogenase activity, enhances root development, and promotes successful nodule formation and functioning in host legumes.

29Science and Technology
Azolla is used as a bio-fertilizer as it possesses
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Answer: (D) Cyanobacteria

Explanation

Azolla is a free-floating aquatic fern that maintains a symbiotic relationship with the nitrogen-fixing cyanobacterium Anabaena azollae. The cyanobacteria reside in the leaf cavities of Azolla and fix atmospheric nitrogen into ammonia, which is readily absorbed by the fern. When incorporated into fields, particularly in flooded rice paddies, Azolla decomposes and releases this fixed nitrogen, acting as an efficient, eco-friendly bio-fertilizer that significantly boosts soil fertility and crop yields.

30Economy
Which government department is mainly responsible for policy issues relating to Public Sector Banks (PSBs) and Financial Institutions?
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Answer: (D) Department of Financial Services (DFS)

Explanation

The Department of Financial Services (DFS), operating under the Ministry of Finance, is the nodal agency responsible for formulating and implementing policies related to Public Sector Banks (PSBs), financial institutions, public sector insurance companies, and pension reforms. It oversees the functioning of these institutions, coordinates legislative proposals, and manages government initiatives related to financial inclusion, credit delivery, and banking operations in India.

31Economy
What are the criteria to be considered for grant of Maharatna status? 1. An average annual turnover of more than Rs. 25,000 crore during the last 3 years 2. An average annual net worth of more than Rs. 15,000 crore during the last 3 years 3. An average annual net profit after tax deduction of more than Rs. 5,000 crore during the last 3 years 4. Should have significant global presence / international operations
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

To qualify for Maharatna status, a Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) must meet specific financial and operational eligibility criteria laid down by the Department of Public Enterprises. These benchmarks include holding Navratna status and being listed on an Indian stock exchange with the minimum prescribed public shareholding under SEBI regulations. Additionally, the company must register an average annual turnover of more than ₹25,000 crore during the last 3 years. It must also maintain an average annual net worth of more than ₹15,000 crore over the same 3-year period. Furthermore, the CPSE must record an average annual net profit after tax of more than ₹5,000 crore during the last 3 years. Finally, the enterprise is required to have a significant global presence or active international operations to support its expansion into a global giant.

32Economy
Evaluate the statements. 1. MICRO ENTERPRISE-Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment not more than Rs.1 crore and Annual Turnover not more than Rs. 5 crore 2. SMALL ENTERPRISE-Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment not more than Rs.10 crore and Annual Turnover not more than Rs. 50 crore 3. MEDIUM ENTERPRISE-Investment in Plant and Machinery or Equipment not more than Rs.50 crore and Annual Turnover not more than Rs. 250 crore Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct

Explanation

The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises revised the classification criteria for MSMEs with effect from July 1, 2020. The revised classification is based on composite criteria of investment and annual turnover, which is applicable uniformly to both manufacturing and services sectors. A micro enterprise is defined as having an investment in plant and machinery or equipment of not more than Rs. 1 crore and an annual turnover of not more than Rs. 5 crore. A small enterprise has an investment of not more than Rs. 10 crore and an annual turnover of not more than Rs. 50 crore. A medium enterprise has an investment of not more than Rs. 50 crore and an annual turnover of not more than Rs. 250 crore.

33Economy
Evaluate the statements 1. The main objectives of the SEZ Scheme is generation of additional economic activity, promotion of exports of goods and services, promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources, creation of employment opportunities along with the development of infrastructure facilities. 2. All laws of India are not applicable in SEZ as it is governed by its own law. 3. Units may be set up in the SEZ manufacturing, trading or for service activity. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Explanation

The primary objectives of the Special Economic Zone scheme in India, as structured under the SEZ Act of 2005, include the generation of additional economic activity, promotion of exports of goods and services, promotion of investment from domestic and foreign sources, creation of employment opportunities, and development of infrastructure facilities.

Units set up within a Special Economic Zone are permitted to engage in manufacturing, trading, or rendering services.

Although SEZs are treated as deemed foreign territory for trade, tariff, and customs purposes, they are not exempt from the sovereign laws of India. General Indian laws, including criminal, civil, and labor laws, continue to apply in these zones, with exemptions restricted only to specific fiscal, customs, and regulatory matters defined under the Act. This makes statements 1 and 3 correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.

34Polity and Governance
Competition Commission of India was established by the Central Government with effect from 14th October 2003. 2. Competition Commission of India consists of a Chairperson and 6 members appointed by the Central Government. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (A) 1 and 2 both are correct

Explanation

The Competition Commission of India is a statutory body established by the Central Government under the provisions of the Competition Act, 2002. It was officially established with effect from 14 October 2003 to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure freedom of trade in India.

Under the Competition Act, 2002, the Commission is composed of a Chairperson and not less than two and not more than six other members. Therefore, the standard composition of the commission consists of a Chairperson and 6 members, all of whom are appointed by the Central Government.

35Economy
Social infrastructure includes
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Answer: (D) All activities mentioned in (A), (B) and (C).

Explanation

Social infrastructure consists of the fundamental assets and facilities that support the development of human capital and improve the overall quality of life. Unlike physical infrastructure which focuses on transport, energy, and communication, social infrastructure is centered on human resource development and welfare. It directly encompasses educational institutions and literacy programmes, healthcare facilities and public health services, and essential civic amenities such as affordable housing, clean drinking water, and sanitation. All these components are interconnected and essential for fostering a productive, healthy, and capable workforce.

36Economy
Consider the following statements regarding Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) Code. 1. It is a multipurpose international product nomenclature developed by the World Trade Organization (WTO). 2. It was developed with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the world in a systematic manner. 3. In India, HSN codes apply to Customs and GST. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2, 3

Explanation

The Harmonised System of Nomenclature (HSN) is a standardized numerical method of classifying traded products. It was developed and is maintained by the World Customs Organization (WCO) rather than the World Trade Organization (WTO), with the vision of facilitating the classification of goods all over the world in a systematic and uniform manner. In India, HSN codes are applied under both the Customs Act for international trade and the Goods and Services Tax (GST) system for domestic trade to ensure proper classification and tax levy.

37Economy
EIA- Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is defined as
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Answer: (A) A process of identifying, predicting and evaluating the likely impacts of a proposed project or development to define mitigation actions to reduce negative impacts and to provide positive contributions to the natural environment and well-being.

Explanation

Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is a systematic tool used to identify, predict, and evaluate the biophysical, social, and other relevant effects of a proposed development project prior to decision-making. By analyzing these potential consequences in the planning phase, the EIA process helps design effective mitigation measures to minimize adverse environmental degradation while maximizing positive contributions to the natural ecosystem and human well-being. This ensures that economic developmental projects are carried out in a sustainable manner.

38Economy
Which of the following statements is correct about the sources of energy (power) in India?
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Answer: (B) Thermal energy is the largest source of energy (power) generation in India

Explanation

Thermal power is the largest source of power generation in India, primarily driven by coal, along with lignite, gas, and diesel. It serves as the backbone of India's electricity grid, providing the essential baseload power required to meet the country's massive energy demands. As of 2024, thermal power contributes over 55% of the total installed power capacity and accounts for more than 70% of the actual electricity generated across the nation.

39Economy
Evaluate the statements: 1. Sagarmala Program is to reduce logistics cost for EXIM and domestic trade with minimal infrastructure investment. This includes: Reducing cost of transporting domestic cargo through optimizing modal mix, Improving export competitiveness by developing port proximate discrete manufacturing clusters, Optimizing time/cost of EXIM container movement. 2. Airports Authority of India (AAI) was constituted by an Act of Parliament and came into being on 1st April 1990. AAI manages a total of 137 airports which include 24 International airports, 10 Custom airports and 103 Domestic airports. From the above mentioned statements which statement/statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) only 1

Explanation

The Sagarmala Program is a flagship initiative of the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways aimed at promoting port-led development. Its core vision is to reduce logistics costs for domestic and EXIM cargo with minimal infrastructure investment. This objective is realized through key measures such as optimizing the transport modal mix for domestic cargo, establishing port-proximate discrete manufacturing clusters to enhance export competitiveness, and streamlining the movement of EXIM containers to minimize time and cost.

In contrast, the Airports Authority of India (AAI) is a statutory body that was established on 1st April 1995, rather than 1990. It was created by merging the International Airports Authority of India and the National Airports Authority under the Airports Authority of India Act, 1994.

40Economy
Naturalisation of humans means
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Answer: (A) Low level of technological development

Explanation

Naturalisation of humans refers to the stage of human development where human beings adapt entirely to the dictates of nature. In the early or primitive stages of human society, the level of technology was extremely low. Humans were heavily dependent on the physical environment for their survival, viewing nature as a powerful force to be feared, worshipped, and conserved. This complete dependence of humans on nature, coupled with their inability to modify the environment due to primitive tools and lack of scientific knowledge, is termed environmental determinism, which is characterized by a low level of technological development.

41Geography
Which of the following State has negative population growth according to Census 2011?
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Answer: (B) Nagaland

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland was the only state in the country to register a negative decadal population growth rate. Between 2001 and 2011, the population of Nagaland decreased from 1,990,036 to 1,978,502, representing a growth rate of -0.58%. This decline was largely attributed to the correction of previous census anomalies and inflation of population data in the 2001 census.

42Geography
According to Census 2011, which of the following State has the lowest population density in India?
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Answer: (C) Arunachal Pradesh

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, Arunachal Pradesh has the lowest population density in the country, with only 17 persons per square kilometer. This extremely low density is primarily attributed to the state's rugged mountainous terrain, dense forest cover, and vast geographical area relative to its small population.

43Polity and Governance
Match the following Articles of the Constitution of India with their provisions correctly. | Article | Provisions | |---|---| | a. 268 | 1. Surcharge on certain taxes and duties for purposes of the Centre. | | b. 270 | 2. Service tax levied by the Centre. | | c. 271 | 3. Taxes levied by the Centre but collected and appropriated by the States. | | d. 268-A | 4. Taxes levied and collected by the Centre but distributed between the Centre and the States. | Code: a b c d
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 1, 2

Explanation

Article 268 matches with 3 because it specifies stamp duties and other taxes that are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.

Article 270 matches with 4 because it covers taxes levied and collected by the Union but distributed between the Union and the States.

Article 271 matches with 1 as it permits Parliament to increase any of the duties or taxes referred to in Articles 269 and 270 by a surcharge for the purposes of the Union.

Article 268-A matches with 2 because it was inserted into the Constitution to govern the levy, collection, and appropriation of service tax.

44Polity and Governance
Which of the following is/are true? 1. A State government can avail external assistance from bilateral agencies for implementation of vital infrastructure projects. 2. State and local authorities can tax the corporations or the companies created by the Union government.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Union Cabinet approved policy guidelines allowing financially sound state government entities to borrow directly from bilateral agencies, such as Official Development Assistance partners, for the implementation of vital infrastructure projects.

Statement 2 is correct because under Article 285 of the Constitution of India, only the property of the Union is exempt from all taxes imposed by a State or local authority. Since statutory corporations or companies created by the Union government are distinct legal entities separate from the Central Government, their assets do not constitute Union property and are not exempt from state and local taxation. The Supreme Court has affirmed this principle in various rulings, allowing local authorities to levy taxes on such corporate entities.

45Economy
What is CRR? 1. It is a percentage of bank deposits that they keep with the RBI as gold deposits only 2. It is a deposit made by bank with RBI in the form of reserve or balances
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is a monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India to regulate liquidity in the economy. It represents the specified minimum percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that the bank must maintain as cash balances or reserves with the central bank. These deposits are held in cash or reserve balances with the Reserve Bank of India to maintain solvency and liquidity in the banking system.

46Economy
What are the major agriculture sector challenges of India? 1. Raising agricultural productivity per unit of land: increasing yields, diversification to higher value crops, and developing value chains to reduce marketing costs. 2. Reducing rural poverty through a socially inclusive strategy that comprises both agriculture as well as non-farm employment. 3. Ensuring that agricultural growth responds to food security needs
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The three statements represent the key agricultural challenges in India as identified by major development organizations, including the World Bank.

Raising productivity per unit of land is critical because virtually all cultivable land in India is already under cultivation, and water resources are increasingly scarce due to competing industrial and urban demands. Therefore, agricultural growth must rely on improving crop yields, moving toward high-value crops, and establishing efficient value chains to reduce post-harvest losses and marketing costs.

Reducing rural poverty requires a socially inclusive approach because a large portion of the rural poor, particularly landless laborers, women, scheduled castes, and scheduled tribes, live in underdeveloped rain-fed or low-fertility regions. Generating both farm and non-farm employment is vital to diversify income sources and sustainably uplift these vulnerable groups.

Ensuring agricultural growth meets food security needs remains paramount. While the Green Revolution achieved grain self-sufficiency, India must continue to maintain food security amidst growing population demands, nutritional security requirements, and changing climatic conditions. This requires steady, climate-resilient growth in food production.

47Economy
Evaluate the statements mentioned below. 1. Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana has been launched to motivate groups of farmers to take up organic farming. 2. Soil Health cards have been introduced to enhance productivity of specific crops in a sustainable manner. 3. Price Stabilisation Fund has been established to support market interventions for price control of perishable, agri-horticultural commodities 4. Gram Jyoti Yojana will provide uninterrupted electricity supply. This will not only boost production, but will also have a huge impact on the overall lives of the farmers, including cottage industries, education, etc. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

Paramparagat Krishi Vikas Yojana is a sub-component of the Soil Health Management scheme under the National Mission of Sustainable Agriculture. It is designed to support and promote organic farming via a cluster-based approach, motivating groups of farmers to adopt chemical-free and eco-friendly agricultural practices.

The Soil Health Card Scheme assists farmers by providing customized, crop-specific recommendations on the appropriate dosage of different nutrients and fertilizers required for their soil. This scientific application of inputs helps enhance the overall productivity of specific crops while ensuring long-term soil health and agricultural sustainability.

The Price Stabilisation Fund is a dedicated corpus established to mitigate extreme price volatility of highly perishable agri-horticultural commodities such as onions, potatoes, and pulses. It finances strategic market interventions, including procurement and buffer stock management, to control sudden price spikes.

Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana facilitates the separation of agricultural and non-agricultural power feeders in rural areas to ensure a continuous and uninterrupted electricity supply. This steady power supply boosts farm irrigation, enhances crop production, and significantly elevates the standard of living, fostering development in rural cottage industries and local education.

48Economy
EVALUATE THE STATEMENTS. 1. 65 per cent (2021 data) of the country's population lives in the rural areas and 47 per cent of the population is dependent on agriculture for livelihood. 2. The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM), aims to enable economically weak households to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. 3. Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was announced to be implemented in partnership with States, to provide tap water connection to every rural household and public institutions in villages like schools, Anganwadi centres, ashram shalas, health centres etc Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, approximately 65% of India's population resides in rural areas (using 2021 data), and about 47% of the country's population remains dependent on agriculture for their livelihood. This highlights the vital importance of the agriculture and rural sectors to the nation's overall economic well-being.

The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM), a flagship programme of the Ministry of Rural Development, is designed specifically to enable poor and economically vulnerable rural households to access gainful self-employment and skilled wage employment opportunities. This is achieved by organizing them into robust community institutions, primarily Self Help Groups (SHGs), and helping them build sustainable and diversified livelihoods.

The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), launched in August 2019, is being implemented in partnership with states and union territories. It aims to ensure regular, long-term supply of safe and adequate tap water to every rural household. In addition to individual households, the mission prioritizes providing functional tap water connections to public institutions in villages, such as schools, Anganwadi centres, health centres, wellness centres, Gram Panchayat buildings, and ashram shalas (tribal residential schools), to improve public health and the overall quality of life in rural India.

49Economy
Which of the following industry is known as sun rising industry?
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Answer: (B) Information Technology

Explanation

A sunrise industry is an emerging business sector that shows promise of rapid growth and high future potential. The Information Technology industry is classified as a sunrise industry because of its exponential growth trajectory, continuous innovation, global expansion, and its critical role in driving modern economic development and digital transformation worldwide.

50Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Evaluate the statements mentioned below. 1. Good Governance Index Gujarat has been ranked first for two consecutive years. 2. Export Preparedness Index 2021 Gujarat ranked first with a score of 78.86 attracted Foreign Direct Capital of Rs. 228833 crore (US$ 30660 million). 3. State Food Safety Index 2021-22 among the large 20 States, Gujarat ranked 2nd with 77.5 score. 4. As per DPIIT ranking, Gujarat ranked 1st in providing strong ecosystem for start-ups. Gujarat emerged as the Best Performer in A category of States in Start-up Ranking of States - 2021. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

According to official reports released by the Press Information Bureau and respective union ministries, all four statements regarding Gujarat's rankings are correct.

For Statement 1, Gujarat topped the composite rankings in the Good Governance Index prepared by the Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances.

For Statement 2, in NITI Aayog's Export Preparedness Index 2021, Gujarat retained the top spot among all states with a score of 78.86, while attracting a massive Foreign Direct Investment of ₹2,28,833 crore (approximately US30,660 million).

For Statement 3, in the 4th State Food Safety Index 2021-22 released by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India, Gujarat ranked second among the 20 large states with a score of 77.5, following Tamil Nadu.

For Statement 4, in the States' Startup Ranking 2021 released by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade, Gujarat emerged as the Best Performer in the Category-A states for establishing an exceptionally strong and supportive startup ecosystem.

51Geography
Kawal Tiger Reserve is located in
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Answer: (B) Telangana

Explanation

Kawal Tiger Reserve is situated in the northern region of Telangana, primarily spanning the Mancherial and Adilabad districts. Located in the catchment area of the Godavari River, it is part of the Deccan Peninsula central highlands. The sanctuary was established in 1965 and was subsequently declared a Tiger Reserve under Project Tiger in 2012. It features a diverse habitat dominated by dry deciduous teak forests and bamboo, serving as an important ecological corridor for tiger movement in the region.

52Geography
Which of the following is not a tributary of the River Indus?
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Answer: (C) Kameng River

Explanation

The Kameng River is a major right-bank tributary of the Brahmaputra River. It originates in the Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh from the glacial lake below the Gori Chen mountain peaks. The river flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam before emptying into the Brahmaputra River at Tezpur, making it entirely separate from the Indus River system.

53Geography
The factors that cause variations in insolation are: 1. The transparency of the atmosphere 2. The configuration of land in terms of its aspect 3. The length of the day Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Insolation, or incoming solar radiation, varies across the Earth's surface due to several astronomical and atmospheric factors.

The transparency of the atmosphere directly affects the amount of radiation reaching the Earth's surface. Atmospheric components like water vapor, ozone, dust particles, and clouds absorb, reflect, and scatter solar radiation. A highly transparent atmosphere with clear skies allows maximum insolation to reach the surface, whereas cloudy or polluted conditions reduce it.

The configuration of land in terms of its aspect refers to the direction a slope faces relative to the sun. In the Northern Hemisphere, south-facing slopes receive more direct sunlight and experience higher insolation than north-facing slopes, which are often shaded.

The length of the day determines the duration of exposure to solar radiation. Locations experiencing longer days receive a greater total amount of insolation than those with shorter daylight hours, a variation that is highly dependent on latitude and the season.

54Economy
The term demographic trap is used by demographers to describe which of the following combination? 1. Sub-replacement level fertility rates 2. High fertility rate 3. Declining mortality 4. Increasing Mortality Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

Explanation

The term demographic trap refers to a situation in the demographic transition model where a developing country experiences a combination of high fertility rates and declining mortality rates. This combination leads to rapid, explosive population growth that outpaces the country's economic development and carrying capacity.

During this stage, which typically corresponds to Stage 2 of the demographic transition, advancements in healthcare, sanitation, and food supply lead to a sharp decline in death rates. However, social norms, lack of education, and limited access to family planning cause birth rates to remain high. The resulting rapid population growth consumes economic gains and prevents improvements in living standards, which in turn hinders the country from transitioning to the lower fertility rates characteristic of later stages of development.

55Economy
While picking names for cyclones, countries need to follow some rules. Which of the following are the guidelines adopted while naming cyclones? 1. The proposed name should be neutral to religious believes and cultures. 2. The maximum length of the name will be five letters. 3. The name should be new and will not be repeated. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 1, 3

Explanation

The guidelines formulated by the WMO/ESCAP Panel on Tropical Cyclones (PTC) specify that:

The proposed name must be completely neutral to politics, political figures, religious beliefs, cultures, and gender. It should be chosen in a manner that ensures it does not hurt the sentiments of any population group globally.

The maximum length of the proposed cyclone name is limited to eight letters, making the second statement incorrect.

The name of a tropical cyclone over the North Indian Ocean cannot be repeated. Once a name is used, it ceases to be used again, which means the name must be entirely new and unique.

56Geography
Consider the following statements. 1. The total length of the coastline of India's mainland, Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar Islands together is more than the length of India's land frontier. 2. Sri Lanka is separated from India by a narrow channel of sea formed by the Palk Strait and the Gulf of Mannar. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

India has a land frontier of approximately 15,200 km. In contrast, the total coastline of the mainland, Lakshadweep Islands, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands combined measures about 7,516.6 km. This makes the coastline length significantly shorter than the land frontier.

Sri Lanka is situated off the southeastern coast of India and is separated from the Indian mainland by a shallow, narrow channel of water formed by the Palk Strait in the north and the Gulf of Mannar in the south.

57Geography
Consider the following statements regarding Acidic Rocks. 1. These rocks are poor in silica. 2. These rocks cool fast and it does not spread far away. 3. Granite, quartz and feldspar are the examples of Acidic Rocks. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

Explanation

Acidic rocks are characterized by a high content of silica, ranging up to 80%, which means they are highly rich in silica rather than poor. Due to this high silica content, acidic magma is highly viscous, which causes it to flow very slowly, cool fast, and solidify without spreading far away. Granite, quartz, and feldspar are typical examples of these rocks and their dominant mineral constituents.

58Geography
Consider the following statements. 1. Western Ghats are comparatively higher in elevation than the Eastern Ghats. 2. Western Ghats are more discontinuous than the Eastern Ghats and are highly eroded. 3. Javadi hills, the Palconda range and the Nallamala hills are part of Western Ghats. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

Explanation

The Western Ghats are significantly higher in elevation compared to the Eastern Ghats, with an average elevation ranging between 900 and 1600 meters, whereas the Eastern Ghats have a much lower average elevation of about 600 meters. The Western Ghats form a continuous wall-like barrier that can only be crossed through specific passes such as the Thalghat, Bhorghat, and Palghat. In contrast, the Eastern Ghats are highly discontinuous, irregular, and dissected by major peninsular rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri draining into the Bay of Bengal. Furthermore, prominent hill ranges such as the Javadi hills, Palconda range, and Nallamala hills are situated in the Eastern Ghats, not the Western Ghats.

59Geography
Consider the following statements regarding the Winter Solstice: 1. It is the day when the North Pole is most tilted away from the Sun. 2. The Sun is directly overhead of the Tropic of Capricorn in the Southern Hemisphere. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

During the winter solstice, which occurs around December 21 or 22, the Earth's axis is tilted such that the North Pole is tilted at its maximum angle of 23.5° away from the Sun. This positioning results in the minimum solar radiation reaching the Northern Hemisphere, making it the shortest day of the year there. Concurrently, the Sun's rays fall vertically and are directly overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn, which is located at 23.5° S latitude in the Southern Hemisphere, bringing the maximum amount of sunlight and marking the commencement of summer in that hemisphere.

60Geography
Ten degree channel is found between
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Answer: (C) Little Andaman and Car Nicobar

Explanation

The Ten Degree Channel is a major channel in the Indian Ocean that lies on the 10-degree latitude line north of the equator. It geographically separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal. Specifically, this channel runs between the southernmost island of the Andaman group, which is Little Andaman, and the northernmost island of the Nicobar group, which is Car Nicobar. It is approximately 150 kilometers wide from north to south and serves as an important shipping route.

61Geography
Satluj river enters India through which of the following passes?
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Answer: (C) Shipki La Pass

Explanation

The Satluj River originates from the Rakshastal Lake near Mount Kailash in Tibet, where it is known as the Langqen Zangbo. It flows westward and enters India through the Shipki La Pass, which is a high mountain pass located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh on the India-China border.

62Geography
Consider the following statements regarding North-eastern Plateau. 1. North-eastern Plateau is disassociated from the main Peninsular plateau. 2. Meghalaya plateau receives maximum rainfall from the southwest monsoon, as a result of which it has a highly eroded surface. 3. Due to its geographical conditions, coal and uranium reserves are not present in Meghalaya plateau. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2

Explanation

The North-eastern Plateau, which includes the Meghalaya and Karbi Anglong plateaus, is an extension of the main Peninsular block but is disassociated from it by a massive fault known as the Malda Gap or Garo-Rajmahal Gap in West Bengal.

The Meghalaya plateau receives maximum rainfall from the southwest monsoon. Due to this extremely heavy precipitation, the region has been subjected to intense weathering and severe erosion, resulting in a highly dissected landscape characterized by bare rock surfaces, especially around Cherrapunji.

The Meghalaya plateau is rich in mineral resources. Significant reserves of coal, iron ore, sillimanite, limestone, and uranium are present in the region, contrary to the claim of their absence. For instance, coal is found in the Garo, Khasi, and Jaintia Hills, while major uranium deposits are located in the West Khasi Hills district.

63Geography
Which of the following rivers do not form 'deltas'? 1. Tapi 2. Mahanadi 3. Narmada 4. Godavari Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 3

Explanation

The Narmada and Tapi are major west-flowing rivers in India that flow through deep and narrow rift valleys. Because they flow over a hard, rocky bed with a steep gradient, they have a high velocity and carry very little silt or sediment. Upon reaching the Arabian Sea, the fast-moving river currents directly meet the sea, preventing the deposition of sediment. As a result, they form deep estuaries at their mouths instead of deltas.

64Geography
Podu is a form of shifting cultivation practised mainly in
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Answer: (A) Odisha

Explanation

Podu is a traditional form of shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, practiced extensively by tribal communities in the hilly tracts of Odisha, particularly across the Eastern Ghats region. Under this agricultural system, forest patches on hill slopes are cleared by cutting and burning the vegetation. The ash is mixed with the soil to enrich its fertility, and crops such as millets, pulses, and vegetables are grown. After cultivating the plot for a few years, when the soil fertility declines, the land is left fallow to regenerate naturally while the farmers move to a new forest patch to repeat the cycle.

65Geography
Which of the following are the reasons that can be attributed to the frequent landslides and debris avalanches in Himalayan region? 1. The Himalayas are tectonically stable. 2. The slopes are very steep. 3. They are mostly made up of sedimentary rocks and unconsolidated deposits. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

Explanation

The Himalayan region is highly susceptible to frequent landslides and debris avalanches due to its unique geological and topographical features. The mountain range is tectonically active and unstable because it is still rising due to the ongoing collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates. The slopes in this region are exceptionally steep, which enhances the gravitational pull on rock and soil masses. Furthermore, the Himalayas are primarily composed of sedimentary rocks, semi-consolidated materials, and unconsolidated deposits. These weak geological formations easily lose their cohesion when saturated with water during heavy monsoon rains or when shaken by seismic activity, leading to widespread mass wasting and debris flows.

66GeographyGujarat-specific
Gujarat stands bordered by 1. Pakistan and Rajasthan in the north and north west. 2. Madhya Pradesh in the east. 3. Maharashtra and the Union territories of Diu, Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli in the south. 4. The Arabian Sea borders the State both to the west and the south west. Evaluate the statements.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation

The state of Gujarat has well-defined geographical boundaries that align with all four statements.

Gujarat shares its northern and northwestern borders with Rajasthan and Pakistan.

To the east, the state is bordered by Madhya Pradesh.

To the south, it is bounded by Maharashtra and the Union territories of Diu, Daman, Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

To the west and southwest, the vast coastline of Gujarat is bordered by the Arabian Sea.

67Geography
Which of the following geographical term is related to a naturally formed, narrow, typically navigable waterway that connects two larger bodies of water?
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Answer: (C) Strait

Explanation

A strait is a naturally formed, narrow waterway that connects two larger bodies of water, such as seas or oceans. These channels are typically navigable and serve as crucial maritime pathways for global trade, often acting as strategic passages between major water bodies.

68Geography
Which of the following is a suitable definition of 'Archipelago'?
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Answer: (B) A chain or set of islands grouped together.

Explanation

An archipelago refers to a cluster, chain, or group of islands scattered across a body of water, typically an ocean or a sea. The term originates from the Greek word arkhipelagos, which historically referred to the Aegean Sea and its vast collection of islands. Notable global examples of archipelagos include Indonesia, Japan, the Philippines, and the Galapagos Islands, which represent distinct geographic regions composed of multiple closely grouped islands and their surrounding waters.

69Geography
The planet known as the "Earth's Twin" is
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Answer: (C) Venus

Explanation

Venus is often referred to as Earth's twin because it is very similar to Earth in size, mass, density, and basic composition. Both planets are terrestrial, rocky bodies that formed in the same general region of the solar system, resulting in highly comparable gravitational pulls and structural characteristics.

70Geography
Arrange the following gases of the atmosphere in increasing order by volume: 1. Nitrogen 2. Oxygen 3. Carbon dioxide 4. Argon
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Answer: (C) 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation

The Earth's atmosphere consists of a mixture of different gases, with a few major components making up the vast majority of its volume. In dry air, the composition of these gases by volume is:

Carbon dioxide: 0.04% Argon: 0.93% Oxygen: 20.95% Nitrogen: 78.08%

Arranging these gases in increasing order of their concentration by volume yields Carbon dioxide (3), followed by Argon (4), Oxygen (2), and Nitrogen (1), which represents the sequence 3, 4, 2, 1.

71Polity and Governance
The National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is headed by
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Answer: (C) Prime Minister of India

Explanation

Under Section 3(2)(a) of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA) is established as the apex statutory body for disaster management in India, and the Prime Minister of India serves as its ex-officio Chairperson. The NDMA is responsible for laying down policies, plans, and guidelines for disaster management to ensure a timely and effective response to both natural and man-made disasters across the country.

72Geography
Tsunamis can occur only during
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Answer: (C) Any time of the day or night

Explanation

Tsunamis are series of giant ocean waves primarily triggered by large-scale underwater disturbances such as earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, landslides, or meteorite impacts. Because these geological and tectonic events are driven by internal Earth processes, they are entirely independent of atmospheric conditions, tides, or solar position. Consequently, tsunamis can occur at any time of the day or night.

73Science and Technology
Which planet was named after the Roman God Zeus?
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Answer: (D) Jupiter

Explanation

Jupiter is named after the king of the ancient Roman gods, Jupiter, who is the Roman mythological counterpart to the Greek god Zeus. As the largest and most massive planet in the solar system, it was fittingly associated with the supreme deity of the Roman pantheon, the god of the sky and thunder.

74Science and Technology
The outermost layer of the sun is called
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Answer: (D) Corona

Explanation

The corona is the outermost layer of the solar atmosphere, extending millions of kilometers into space. It is composed of extremely hot, highly ionized plasma with temperatures ranging from 1 million to 3 million degrees Celsius. Due to its very low density, the corona is normally invisible against the bright light of the Sun, but it becomes clearly visible to the naked eye as a pearly white, glowing halo during a total solar eclipse.

75Science and Technology
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists | List-I (Planets) | List-II (Satellites) | |---|---| | a. Mars | | | b. Jupiter | | | c. Saturn | | | d. Uranus | | Code:
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Answer: (B) a-2,b-3,c-1,d-4

Explanation

The correct pairing of planets with their respective satellites is as follows:

Mars matches with Deimos, which is the smaller and outermost of the two natural satellites of Mars.

Jupiter matches with Europa, one of the four giant Galilean moons with a surface made of water ice.

Saturn matches with Tethys, a mid-sized moon composed almost entirely of water ice.

Uranus matches with Titania, which is the largest of the moons orbiting Uranus.

This yields the correct matching code of a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4.

76Geography
Match the following: | List-I (Peaks) | List-II (Range) | |---|---| | a. Gurushikhar | 1. Anaimalai | | b. Doddabetta | 2. Aravali | | c. Anamudi | 3. Nilgiri | | d. Dhupgarh | 4. Satpura | Code:
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Answer: (B) a-2,b-3,c-1,d-4

Explanation

Gurushikhar, at an elevation of 1722 meters, is the highest peak of the Aravali Range in Rajasthan.

Doddabetta, rising to 2637 meters, is the highest peak in the Nilgiri Mountains of Tamil Nadu.

Anamudi, with an elevation of 2695 meters, is the highest peak in the Western Ghats and specifically belongs to the Anaimalai Hills.

Dhupgarh, reaching 1350 meters, is the highest peak of the Satpura Range located in Madhya Pradesh.

77Geography
Consider the following statements about our country India: 1. India has an area of about 3.28 million sq. km. 2. India is located in the south-eastern hemisphere. 3. The latitudinal extent of India is 8°4^′N and 37°6^′N latitudes. 4. The longitudinal extent of India is 68°7^′E and 97°25^′E longitudes. Of these statements:
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Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation

India lies entirely in the northern and eastern hemispheres, making it situated in the north-eastern hemisphere. Its total landmass covers an area of about 3.28 million square kilometers, accounting for nearly 2.4% of the world's total geographical area. The main land of India extends latitudinally between 8°4'N and 37°6'N, and longitudinally between 68°7'E and 97°25'E. Consequently, statements 1, 3, and 4 accurately describe the geographical coordinates and area of the country, while statement 2 is incorrect because India is in the north-eastern hemisphere.

78Geography
What is the other name of the highest range in the Western Ghats?
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Answer: (C) Sahyadris

Explanation

The Western Ghats, a continuous mountain range running parallel to the western coast of India, are also known as the Sahyadri mountain range or Sahyadris. This range stretches over a distance of about 1600 kilometers from the Tapti river valley in the north down to Kanyakumari in the south, traversing through the states of Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. The name Sahyadri has historical and cultural significance, particularly in Maharashtra and Karnataka, where the northern section of these ghats is prominently referred to by this name.

79Geography
Consider the following regions of India 1. Western Ghats 2. Aravali Hills 3. Eastern Himalayas Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot spots?
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3

Explanation

India houses four of the global biodiversity hotspots, which include the Himalayas and the Western Ghats. The Western Ghats run along the western coast of the Indian peninsula and are exceptionally rich in endemic species of flora and fauna. The Eastern Himalayas, which form a major part of the Himalayan biodiversity hotspot, exhibit high species richness and endemism due to their unique geographical location, high rainfall, and varied altitudinal zones. Both of these regions meet the strict criteria of containing at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics and having lost at least 70% of their original primary vegetation.

80Geography
In which one of the following islands of India is an active volcano found?
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Answer: (C) Barren Island

Explanation

Barren Island, located in the Andaman Sea within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, contains the only active volcano in India and the entire South Asian region. It lies along the active volcanic arc that extends from Sumatra to Myanmar, and its recorded eruptions date back to 1787, with several active phases continuing into the twenty-first century.

81Geography
Tiger Reserve and the States pairs are mentioned above. Which pair is not correct? No. Name of Tiger Reserve State
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Answer: (D) Valmiki Tiger Reserve Chhattisgarh

Explanation

Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in the West Champaran district of Bihar, not Chhattisgarh. It shares a border with Nepal and is contiguous with Chitwan National Park, making it the sole tiger reserve in the state of Bihar.

82Geography
What is the term used to describe the movement of people from rural to urban areas?
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Answer: (C) Urbanisation

Explanation

Urbanisation is the process by which large numbers of people permanently concentrate in relatively small areas, forming cities. It refers to the shifting of the population from rural to urban areas, leading to an increase in the proportion of people living in towns and cities. This shift is primarily driven by people seeking better economic opportunities, superior infrastructure, educational facilities, and improved healthcare, which are more readily available in urban settings.

83Economy
Which of the following ministries is responsible for the report on India's national and per capita income?
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Answer: (C) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

Explanation

The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation is responsible for releasing estimates of national income, including gross domestic product, net national product, and per capita income. These macroeconomic indicators are compiled and published by the National Statistical Office, which functions as the core statistical wing under this ministry. The National Statistical Office utilizes comprehensive data from various sectors, administrative records, and periodic surveys to calculate these statistics, which serve as key inputs for policy planning and economic analysis.

84Geography
The Bhil are one of the largest tribal groups living in Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Rajasthan. 2. The Baiga, meaning sorcerers, are one of the particularly vulnerable tribal groups and are spread across Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. 3. The Madia live in Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha. 4. The Santhal are the largest and one of the oldest tribes in India. They are spread across Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha and West Bengal. From the above mentioned statements, which statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Explanation

All four statements are correct as per the official publication Tribal Faces in India by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, Government of India.

The Bhils are among the largest tribal groups in India, traditionally known as skilled archers, and are spread across several states including Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

The Baiga tribe, whose name translates to "sorcerers" or medicine men, is officially designated as a Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group (PVTG). They have a presence across central and eastern states, including Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar, Odisha, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh.

The Madia tribe is concentrated in central-eastern India and lives across Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, and Odisha.

The Santhals represent one of the largest and oldest tribal communities in India. They are extensively distributed in the eastern and northeastern parts of the country, spanning Assam, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Odisha, and West Bengal.

85Polity and Governance
Pairs showing States and major languages are as under. Which pair is not correct?
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Answer: (A) Andhra Pradesh - Konkani

Explanation

Konkani is the official language of Goa and is primarily spoken in the Konkan region along the western coast of India, spanning Goa, coastal Karnataka, Maharashtra, and parts of Kerala. It is not a major or native language of Andhra Pradesh, where Telugu is the official and predominant language.

86Geography
A mega-city is an urban area of population greater than
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Answer: (C) ten million

Explanation

According to the United Nations, a megacity is defined as a continuous urban agglomeration or metropolitan area with a total population exceeding 10 million people. This demographic threshold is used globally by international organizations, including the United Nations Department of Economic and Social Affairs, to monitor and analyze urbanization trends.

87Economy
GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. What does it show? Pick up the correct statement given below
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Answer: (A) It shows how big the economy of a country is in a given year in terms of its total output.

Explanation

Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measures the monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific period, typically a year. By aggregating the total value of this domestic production, GDP serves as the primary indicator of the overall size, scale, and health of a nation's economy.

88Economy
Which one of the following countries is giving stiff competition to India with regard to jute industry?
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Answer: (B) Bangladesh

Explanation

Bangladesh possesses natural geographical advantages, including fertile deltaic soil in the Ganges-Brahmaputra basin and an abundant water supply, which are ideal for cultivation of high-quality raw jute. Along with these natural factors, Bangladesh benefits from lower cost of labor and supportive government policies such as export subsidies. These advantages enable it to produce superior quality jute goods at a lower cost, making its exports highly competitive against Indian jute products in the global market.

89EconomyGujarat-specific
Which is the first State in India to launch a policy to establish Special Agricultural Zones (SAZs)?
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Answer: (D) Uttarakhand

Explanation

Uttarakhand was the first state in India to establish Special Agricultural Zones (SAZs) in 2011. Modeled on the lines of Special Economic Zones (SEZs), the initiative was designed to promote region-centric development and sustainable agricultural practices. The policy encourages farmers to adopt integrated farming systems, develop high-quality crop seeds suited to hilly terrains, and improve productivity through targeted support and infrastructure.

90Geography
Which of the following factors can lead to land subsidence? 1. Earthquakes 2. Soil erosion 3. Obstruction of the natural flow of water 4. Soil compaction 5. Hydel power activities Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Explanation

Land subsidence is the sinking or settling of the ground surface due to the movement or displacement of underground materials. It occurs due to a combination of natural and anthropogenic factors.

Earthquakes trigger land subsidence by causing the shifting, settling, and compaction of underground sediment layers.

Soil erosion, especially subsurface or internal erosion, washes away underlying soil and sediment, creating subterranean voids that eventually collapse and cause the surface to sink.

The obstruction of the natural flow of water, often due to unplanned urban construction and inadequate drainage, forces water to pool or find new pathways, weakening the geological foundation.

Soil compaction, which frequently results from heavy structural loads on the surface or from the excessive extraction of groundwater and natural gas, reduces pore space within the soil, causing it to pack tightly and settle downward.

Hydel power activities, such as reservoir construction and the excavation of underground tunnels, alter hydrological pressure, puncture aquifers, and destabilize local geological structures, leading to subsidence.

91Geography
In States like Assam, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year.
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Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation

In states like Assam, West Bengal, and Odisha, three crops of paddy are grown in a year because the warm and humid climate, along with abundant water availability, supports continuous cultivation throughout different seasons. These three seasonal paddy crops are locally known as Aus, Aman, and Boro. Aus is the autumn crop sown in May-June and harvested in September-October. Aman is the primary winter crop sown in June-July and harvested in November-December. Boro is the summer crop sown in November-December and harvested in April-May.

92Economy
The Mines and Minerals (Regulation and Development) Act, 1957 was enacted so as to provide for the regulation of mines and development of minerals under the control of the Union. The aforesaid Act was amended in the years 1958, 1972, 1986, 1987, 1994 and 1999. 2. The First National Mineral Policy was enunciated by the Central Government in 1993 paving way for liberalisation of the mining sector. 3. Government of India, replaced the National Mineral Policy, 1993 with a National Mineral Policy, 2008 on 13th March, 2008. 4. National Mineral Policy, 2021 (For non-fuel and non-coal minerals) was introduced. The goal of the National Mineral Policy, 2021 is to create a more meaningful, implementable, and effective policy that promotes more openness, better regulation, enforcement, and balanced society along with economic growth and sustainable mining practices. From the above mentioned statements, which statement is not correct?
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Answer: (A) 4

Explanation

The National Mineral Policy, 2019 was approved by the Union Cabinet in February 2019, replacing the previous National Mineral Policy, 2008. There is no National Mineral Policy, 2021. The actual policy introduced for non-fuel and non-coal minerals to promote transparency, better regulation, enforcement, balanced social and economic growth, and sustainable mining practices is the National Mineral Policy, 2019.

93Economy
From the statements mentioned below which statement is not correct?
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Answer: (C) In 1980, the forest policy was revised and it is in operation.

Explanation

The statement in option c is incorrect because India revised its National Forest Policy in 1988, not in 1980. Although the central government enacted the landmark Forest Conservation Act in 1980 to regulate the diversion of forest land for non-forest purposes, the formal revision of the National Forest Policy itself occurred in 1988. This 1988 policy remains the guiding framework in operation today, prioritizing environmental stability, ecological balance, and the preservation of natural heritage over commercial exploitation.

94Geography
Interior of the Deccan plateau receives an annual rainfall of less than 60~cm , mainly because
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Answer: (A) It is a rain shadow zone/region.

Explanation

The interior of the Deccan plateau lies on the leeward side of the Western Ghats. When the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds strike the Western Ghats, they are forced to rise, leading to heavy orographic precipitation on the windward side. As these winds cross the mountain range and descend onto the Deccan plateau, they dry out and warm adiabatically, which reduces their relative humidity and limits cloud formation. This geographical positioning creates a prominent rain shadow zone, leaving the interior of the plateau with semi-arid conditions and a low annual rainfall of less than 60 cm.

95Geography
Which of the following statements about Nathu La Pass are correct? 1. It links Sikkim with Tibet 2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk Route 3. It was reopened in the year 2006 Select the correct answer using the codes given below
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Nathu La is a Himalayan mountain pass situated at an elevation of approximately 4310 meters. It serves as a vital geographic link connecting the Indian state of Sikkim with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.

Historically, Nathu La functioned as a key offshoot and main artery of the ancient Silk Route, facilitating thriving trade of commodities like wool, silk, and gold, as well as cultural interactions between India and China.

Following the Sino-Indian War of 1962, the pass was closed. After bilateral negotiations and agreements to enhance land-based trade routes between the two nations, Nathu La was officially reopened on July 6, 2006.

96Geography
Match List-I with List-II | List-I (Pass) | List-II (State) | |---|---| | a. Zoji La Pass | 4. Ladakh | | b. Bara Lacha Pass | 3. Himachal Pradesh | | c. Jelep La Pass | 1. Sikkim | | d. Niti Pass | 2. Uttarakhand | Code:
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Answer: (C) a-4,b-3,c-1,d-2

Explanation

Zoji La Pass is located in the Union Territory of Ladakh, connecting Srinagar with Leh.

Bara Lacha Pass is situated in Himachal Pradesh and connects the Lahaul district to Leh in Ladakh.

Jelep La Pass is a high mountain pass located in Sikkim, linking India with the Tibet Autonomous Region.

Niti Pass is located in Uttarakhand, linking the state with Tibet.

97Geography
Which of the following divides India into northern and southern parts?
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Answer: (B) Tropic of cancer

Explanation

The Tropic of Cancer is a major line of latitude located at approximately 23.5° N of the Equator. It passes through the middle of India, effectively dividing the country into almost two equal northern and southern parts. The region situated south of this line experiences a tropical climate, whereas the region to the north falls under the sub-tropical zone. This line passes through eight Indian states: Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.

98Geography
Where a band of wind called 'Jet Stream' is found?
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Answer: (C) The upper levels of the atmosphere

Explanation

Jet streams are narrow bands of strong, fast-flowing winds that blow from west to east in the upper troposphere and lower stratosphere, typically at altitudes between 9 and 16 km above the Earth's surface. These high-altitude wind currents are located near the tropopause, which is the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere, where the temperature gradient between cold polar air and warm tropical air is at its steepest. This sharp temperature contrast creates significant pressure differences that drive the high-velocity winds constituting the jet streams.

99Geography
Which of the following scales is used to measure the damage caused by a hurricane?
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Answer: (A) Saffir-Simpson Scale

Explanation

The Saffir-Simpson Hurricane Wind Scale is a 1 to 5 rating system based on a hurricane's maximum sustained wind speed. Developed in 1969 by civil engineer Herbert Saffir and meteorologist Robert Simpson, this scale is primarily used to estimate potential property damage and flooding expected when a hurricane makes landfall. Category 1 represents the lowest wind speeds with minimal damage, while Category 5 represents the highest wind speeds exceeding 252 kilometers per hour, which can cause catastrophic damage to residential structures, power grids, and vegetation.

100Geography
What is the most important element of climate?
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Answer: (B) Temperature

Explanation

Temperature is the most critical element of climate because it acts as the primary driver of almost all other meteorological and atmospheric phenomena. Variations in temperature directly cause differences in atmospheric pressure, creating the pressure gradients that generate wind patterns. Furthermore, temperature controls the rate of evaporation, which determines air humidity, and dictates the overall capacity of the air to hold moisture, leading directly to condensation and precipitation. Because all other climatic factors are highly temperature-dependent, it serves as the foundational element of climate.

101Geography
Consider the following statements. 1. The Tamil Nadu government recently launched Nilgiri Tahr conservation project, an initiative for the conservation of the Nilgiri Tahr. 2. There are multiple references to the Nilgiri Tahr in Tamil Sangam literature. 3. Nilgiri Tahr is an endangered species, endemic to western ghats. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The Tamil Nadu government launched Project Nilgiri Tahr to conserve and protect the state animal, Nilgiri Tahr. The initiative aims to develop a better understanding of the species population, estimate their numbers through synchronized surveys, and reintroduce them to their historic habitats.

The Nilgiri Tahr, locally known as Varai Aadu, has a deep cultural connect with Tamil Nadu, with multiple references found in ancient Tamil Sangam literature. Works such as Silappatikaram, Civaka Cintamani, and Pathrupathu describe the animal, its behavior, and its mountainous habitat.

The Nilgiri Tahr is endemic to the Western Ghats, specifically inhabiting the high-altitude grasslands and rocky cliffs of Tamil Nadu and Kerala. It is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species and is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, due to threats like habitat fragmentation and invasive species.

102Economy
Consider the following statements regarding net-zero emission. 1. Net-zero emission means country would bring down its greenhouse gas emissions to near zero. 2. Countries are setting their Net-zero emission goal based on the 2015 Paris Agreement guidelines. 3. Net-zero emission can be achieved by creating more carbon sinks such as forests and relying on futuristic technologies such as carbon capture and storage. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Net-zero emissions, or carbon neutrality, refers to a state where greenhouse gas emissions released into the atmosphere are balanced by an equivalent amount of emissions removed. Achieving net-zero requires countries to deeply reduce their greenhouse gas emissions to as close to zero as possible. Under the 2015 Paris Agreement, nations aim to limit global warming to well below 2°C, and preferably to 1.5°C. To meet this target, Article 4 of the agreement guides countries to achieve a balance between anthropogenic emissions and removals by sinks. This balance is achieved through a combination of expanding natural carbon sinks, such as forests and oceans, and adopting technological solutions, such as carbon capture, utilization, and storage, to remove remaining unavoidable emissions from the atmosphere.

103Economy
The term 'Brute Force Acquisition' is related to
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Answer: (C) Mobile device forensics

Explanation

Brute Force Acquisition is a technique used in mobile device forensics to bypass passcode or PIN protection on locked mobile devices. It involves utilizing specialized third-party hardware or software tools that automatically send a series of passcode and password combinations to the mobile device in a trial-and-error manner until the correct combination is identified. This process allows forensic examiners to authenticate and unlock the device to extract and preserve critical digital evidence, making it a key method during the data acquisition phase of mobile forensic investigations.

104Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) and Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). 1. GSLV was developed to launch low-Earth Orbit satellites into polar and sun synchronous orbits. 2. PSLV was developed to launch the heavier INSAT class of geosynchronous satellites into orbit. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) was developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to launch Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites into sun-synchronous polar orbits. Conversely, the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV) was designed and developed to launch heavier, communication satellites of the INSAT class into geosynchronous transfer orbits. Both statements swap the functions of the two launch vehicles, making both statements incorrect.

105Science and Technology
With respect to various computing environments and their applications which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Cloud computing: Building datasets for AI-based applications 2. Edge computing: Municipal Solid Waste Management 3. Fog computing: Autonomous Vehicles Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Cloud computing offers the vast storage capacity, high-performance graphics processing units, and parallel processing frameworks needed to aggregate, clean, and build massive datasets for training complex AI-based applications.

Edge computing is utilized in smart Municipal Solid Waste Management systems. IoT sensors installed on smart trash bins process fill-level and temperature data locally at the edge, allowing for immediate alert generation and optimized collection route planning without sending constant raw data streams to a central server.

Fog computing acts as an intermediate layer between the cloud and edge devices, which is highly suited for Autonomous Vehicles. Localized fog nodes like roadside units process real-time telemetry, sensor inputs, and localized traffic data with extremely low latency, ensuring the immediate decision-making and coordination essential for safe self-driving operations.

106Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding nitrous oxide. 1. Being a short-lived greenhouse gas, it substantially contributes to global warming. 2. When it reaches the stratosphere, it reacts with ozone and depletes it, with an impact comparable to that of CFCs. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

Nitrous oxide is a long-lived greenhouse gas with an atmospheric lifetime of approximately 110 to 120 years, meaning it persists in the atmosphere for over a century. Thus, the assertion that it is a short-lived greenhouse gas is incorrect.

When nitrous oxide reaches the stratosphere, it is broken down by ultraviolet radiation and reacts with excited oxygen atoms to produce nitrogen oxides. These nitrogen oxides act as catalysts that destroy ozone molecules. Following the phase-out of chlorofluorocarbons under the Montreal Protocol, nitrous oxide has become the leading human-emitted ozone-depleting substance, with an overall ozone depletion impact comparable to that of CFCs. This makes the second statement correct.

107Science and Technology
Param Pravega is a
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Answer: (B) Supercomputer

Explanation

Param Pravega is a supercomputer, installed and commissioned at the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bengaluru, under the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), a joint initiative of the Department of Science and Technology and the Ministry of Electronics and IT. It provides high-performance computing capacity for research in areas such as climate modelling, computational chemistry, and materials science. It is not a radio telescope (e.g., the GMRT), a satellite launch vehicle (like the PSLV/GSLV), or India's first quantum computer, ruling out options A, C, and D.

108Science and Technology
Software that enables a user to obtain secret information about another computer's activities?
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Answer: (C) Spyware

Explanation

Spyware is a type of malicious software installed on a device without the user's knowledge or consent. It secretly monitors and records the user's activities, including keystrokes, internet browsing habits, and login credentials, and transmits this sensitive data to third parties.

109Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding Nanotechnology. 1. Nanotechnology is the understanding and control of matter at the Nano scale, at dimensions between approximately 1 and 1000 nanometres. 2. Stained-glass windows are an example of how nanotechnology was used in the pre-modern era. 3. Nanostructured materials can have different magnetic properties compared to other forms or sizes of the same material. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

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Nanotechnology is defined as the understanding, manipulation, and control of matter at the nanoscale, which spans dimensions between approximately 1 and 100 nanometres. Defining the scale up to 1000 nanometres is incorrect, which makes the first statement false.

Medieval artisans unknowingly utilized nanotechnology when creating stained-glass windows. By trapping gold and silver nanoparticles of varying sizes within the glass matrix, they produced different vibrant colors. This occurs because nanoscale metallic particles scatter and absorb light differently than bulk metals, making this a classic historical example of nanotechnology.

At the nanoscale, materials exhibit unique physical, chemical, and magnetic properties that differ dramatically from their bulk forms. For example, bulk gold is non-magnetic, but gold nanoparticles can show magnetic properties. Similarly, ferromagnetic materials can become superparamagnetic at nanoscale dimensions, where thermal energy can randomly flip the direction of magnetization.

110Science and Technology
Which of the following are the applications of Earth Observation Satellites? 1. Urban planning 2. Mineral prospecting 3. Ocean resources management 4. Disaster management. Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

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Earth Observation Satellites, also known as remote sensing satellites, capture crucial data about the physical, chemical, and biological systems of our planet, which is highly valuable across diverse sectors.

In urban planning, high-resolution satellite imagery is utilized to map land use and land cover, monitor urban sprawl, plan infrastructure, and manage utility networks.

For mineral prospecting, satellites equipped with multispectral and hyperspectral sensors detect the unique spectral signatures of minerals on the Earth's surface, which helps geologists identify potential mining and exploration zones.

In ocean resources management, these satellites monitor ocean color, sea surface temperature, and chlorophyll concentration, which are essential for mapping potential fishing zones, tracking marine pollution, and managing coastal ecosystems.

For disaster management, satellite-based remote sensing provides real-time and multi-temporal data to monitor natural hazards such as floods, cyclones, landslides, and forest fires, enabling effective disaster mitigation, rescue, and rehabilitation operations.

111Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding Indian Space Programme 1. Aryabhata was the first Indian satellite and it carried scientific experiments to investigate X-ray astronomy and solar neutrons. 2. Mars Orbiter Mission was ISRO's first interplanetary mission. 3. ADITYA-L1-The spacecraft has escaped the sphere of Earth's influence on its way to the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1(L1). Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3

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Aryabhata, launched on April 19, 1975, was India's first satellite. It was designed and built indigenously by ISRO and carried three scientific payloads to conduct experiments in X-ray astronomy, aeronomy, and the detection of solar neutrons and gamma rays.

The Mars Orbiter Mission, also known as Mangalyaan, was launched on November 5, 2013, and successfully entered orbit around Mars on September 24, 2014. This was ISRO's first interplanetary mission.

Aditya-L1, India's first space-based solar observatory, successfully escaped the sphere of Earth's influence on September 30, 2023, after traveling a distance of 9.2 lakh kilometers on its way to the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1).

112Science and Technology
Consider the following statements. 1. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change formulated policy on managing waste that results from used solar panels. 2. Generally the Solar panels have an estimated life of 100 years. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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Statement 1 is correct: the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change has addressed end-of-life solar panel/module waste by bringing it under the ambit of the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2022, which mandate extended producer responsibility for disposal and recycling of discarded solar photovoltaic modules/cells/panels. Statement 2 is incorrect: solar panels do not last anywhere near 100 years; their typical operational/warranted lifespan is about 25-30 years, after which efficiency degrades significantly and they are decommissioned. Since only statement 1 is correct, option A ("1 only") is the right answer.

113Science and Technology
The most common chemicals used for cloud seeding are 1. Silver iodide 2. Potassium iodide 3. Dry ice 4. Sodium Chloride Select the correct answer code:
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

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Cloud seeding is a weather modification technique used to stimulate precipitation. The process utilizes different chemicals depending on the temperature and nature of the clouds. For glaciogenic cloud seeding in supercooled clouds, silver iodide and potassium iodide are commonly employed because their crystalline structures closely resemble that of natural ice, acting as highly efficient ice nuclei. Dry ice, which is solid carbon dioxide, is also used in supercooled clouds to rapidly lower the temperature, inducing the spontaneous formation of ice crystals. For warm clouds, hygroscopic seeding is performed using sodium chloride, or common salt, which readily absorbs moisture and accelerates the growth of water droplets to promote coalescence and subsequent rainfall.

114Economy
Which of the following are the main contributors of the e-waste in the world? 1. Refrigerators/freezers, washing machines, dishwashers 2. Small household appliances (toasters, coffee makers, irons, hair dryers) 3. Personal computers, telephones, mobile phones, laptops, printers, scanners, photocopiers 4. Gas cylinder, chimneys | home appliances
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Answer: (A) Only 1, 2, 3

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According to global standards such as the United Nations Global E-waste Monitor, electronic waste is categorized into distinct classes of electrical and electronic equipment. Large household appliances and temperature exchange equipment, which include refrigerators, freezers, washing machines, and dishwashers, account for a major portion of e-waste by weight. Small household appliances, such as toasters, coffee makers, irons, and hair dryers, represent a high volume of discarded consumer electronics. Information technology and telecommunications equipment, which includes personal computers, telephones, mobile phones, laptops, printers, scanners, and photocopiers, is one of the fastest-growing categories of e-waste globally due to rapid technological obsolescence and short lifespans. Together, these three categories form the primary bulk of global e-waste generation.

115Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements regarding Community Reserve 1. Community Reserves are established under Environment Protection Act, 1986. 2. Any State government can declare community-owned forest area as "community reserve" if locals are willing to participate in conservation efforts for same. 3. Community reserves receive same legal protection as National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2, 3

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Community Reserves are established under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (through the 2002 amendment inserting Section 36C), not under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, so Statement 1 is incorrect. Under this provision, a State Government may declare any community-owned land or private land as a "community reserve" where the community or an individual has volunteered to conserve wildlife and its habitat, making Statement 2 correct. Community Reserves fall within the "Protected Area" network defined by the Wildlife (Protection) Act (along with National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Conservation Reserves) and enjoy the same legal protection against hunting and habitat destruction as National Parks and Sanctuaries, while allowing continued traditional use by the local community — this makes Statement 3 correct. Hence only Statements 2 and 3 are correct, corresponding to option B.

116Geography
Consider the following statements. 1. Signatories to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) meet annually to work on a global plan to halt biodiversity loss and restore natural ecosystems. 2. The 15th Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) delivered a new agreement called the Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF), which contains goals and targets that need to be achieved by 2030. 3. Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was the outcome of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

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The governing body of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) is the Conference of the Parties (COP). Following a change in the rules of procedure in 2000, these ordinary meetings are held biennially (every two years), rather than annually. Therefore, Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct because the 15th Conference of the Parties (COP 15) to the CBD, held in December 2022, successfully adopted the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework (GBF). This framework includes 4 long-term goals for 2050 and 23 action-oriented global targets to be achieved by 2030 to halt and reverse biodiversity loss.

Statement 3 is correct because the CBD is a multilateral treaty that was opened for signature at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, also known as the Rio Earth Summit, in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992, and subsequently entered into force on 29 December 1993.

117Science and Technology
Consider the following statements. 1. Fortification is the practice of deliberately increasing the content of an essential micronutrient, i.e. vitamins and minerals in food. 2. Biofortification aims to increase nutrient levels in food crops mainly through manual means during processing of the crops. 3. Biofortification of rice, beans, sweet potato and legumes is possible. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 3

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Fortification refers to the practice of deliberately increasing the content of essential micronutrients like vitamins and minerals in food to improve its nutritional quality and provide a public health benefit, which makes Statement 1 correct.

Biofortification differs from conventional fortification as it focuses on making food crops more nutritious while they are growing, rather than adding nutrients manually during the post-harvest processing stage. This is achieved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or genetic engineering, which makes Statement 2 incorrect.

Biofortification is successfully applied to a variety of staple crops. Examples include zinc-enriched rice, iron-rich beans, beta-carotene-enriched orange-fleshed sweet potato, and nutrient-dense legumes, making Statement 3 correct.

118Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding S-400 air defence system. 1. It is a long-range surface-to-air missile system. 2. S-400 can engage intruding aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles. 3. India became the first country to receive S-400 missile from Russia. Which of the above statements are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1, 2

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The S-400 Triumf is a mobile, long-range surface-to-air missile system designed by Russia. It is engineered to engage a diverse set of aerial threats, including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, cruise missiles, and ballistic missiles. While India has acquired this air defence system, China was the first foreign nation to purchase and receive the S-400 from Russia, with deliveries beginning in 2018. Turkey also received the system before India.

119Geography
Consider the following statements. 1. The ocean warming increases the frequency of tropical cyclone winds and rainfall. 2. The productivity of the oceans increases when the carbon emission from the atmosphere are sunk by it. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) 1 only

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Ocean warming directly increases sea surface temperatures, which provides more thermal energy and moisture to the atmosphere. This process fuels tropical cyclones, leading to an increase in their wind speeds, intensity, and moisture-carrying capacity, which results in heavier rainfall.

Conversely, when the oceans absorb excess carbon emissions from the atmosphere, it triggers ocean acidification. The absorption of carbon dioxide reduces the pH of seawater and decreases the concentration of carbonate ions, which are vital for calcifying organisms such as corals, shellfish, and plankton to construct their shells and skeletons. This disruption to the marine food web degrades ecosystems and decreases overall ocean productivity.

120Science and Technology
Phytorid Technology is related to
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Answer: (C) Waste water treatment plant

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Phytorid is a patented, subsurface flow constructed wetland technology developed by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research-National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (CSIR-NEERI). It is used for the eco-friendly and sustainable treatment of municipal, domestic, and industrial wastewater. This system mimics natural wetland ecosystems by using specific plants, such as elephant grass, cattails, and reeds, along with their root-associated microorganisms, to filter, adsorb, and biodegrade organic pollutants and suspended solids in sewage. It is a self-sustainable, low-cost, and low-energy alternative to conventional energy-intensive wastewater treatment plants.

121Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding cyber security. 1. Trojan horses are used to create back-doors so that a hacker can have access to the secure network. 2. Unlike viruses, computer worms are malicious programs that copy themselves from system to system, rather than infiltrating legitimate files. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Both statements are correct. A Trojan horse is a malware program that disguises itself as legitimate software but, once executed, opens a hidden 'back door' on the infected system, allowing a hacker remote/unauthorized access to the secure network. A computer worm, unlike a virus, is a standalone malicious program that self-replicates and spreads across networks or systems on its own, without needing to attach itself to or infect an existing legitimate file/host program (which is how a virus operates). Since both descriptions accurately match standard cybersecurity definitions of Trojans and worms, option C (Both 1 and 2) is correct.

122Geography
Consider the following statements regarding Urban heat island. 1. An urban heat island is experienced when certain areas within a city experience higher heat load than surrounding areas on the same day. 2. It is a local and temporary phenomenon. 3. Construction of high-rise buildings rather than two storey building help in reducing the Urban heat island. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 1, 2

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An urban heat island is a local and temporary meteorological phenomenon where certain pockets within an urban area experience a significantly higher heat load and temperature than surrounding suburban or rural areas on the same day. This temperature variation can range between 3 to 5 °C and is highly localized, often fluctuating based on the time of day, wind conditions, and seasonal weather patterns.

Conversely, the construction of high-rise buildings rather than low-rise two-storey structures intensifies the urban heat island effect. Tall and closely spaced buildings create urban canyons that block wind flow and absorb solar radiation, trapping heat within the city streets and preventing it from radiating back into the atmosphere.

123Science and Technology
Consider the following statements. 1. INS Viraat is India's first Indigenous Aircraft Carrier (IAC-I). 2. Agni-P is a canisterised missile that has a range of upto 2000 km. 3. Canisterisation of missiles reduces the time required to launch the missile while improving the storage and ease of handling. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) 2, 3

Explanation

Agni-P is a next-generation nuclear-capable ballistic missile designed as a canisterised system with a strike range capability between 1000 and 2000 km. Canisterisation of missiles implies storing and launching the missile from a hermetically sealed, protective canister. This technique protects the missile from external environmental elements, ensures a longer shelf-life, and allows for the pre-mating of the warhead with the missile. Consequently, this drastically reduces the time required to prepare and launch the missile while greatly enhancing operational mobility, safety, and ease of handling during transport.

124Economy
Consider the following statements regarding India Innovation Index, 2022. 1. India Innovation Index was released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MOSPI) 2. It determines innovation capacities at the sub-national level. 3. At present India is among the top 25 nations in the Global Innovation Index. Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (B) 2 only

Explanation

The India Innovation Index is a comprehensive tool developed by NITI Aayog in partnership with the Institute for Competitiveness. Its primary objective is to evaluate and rank India's states and union territories on their innovation performance, thereby effectively determining innovation capacities at the sub-national level.

The first statement is incorrect because the index is released by NITI Aayog, not the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation.

The third statement is incorrect because India was ranked 40th in the Global Innovation Index 2022, meaning it is not among the top 25 nations.

125Science and Technology
The main policy goal for The new Science, Technology and Innovation Policy (STI) is:
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Answer: (A) SRISHTI is the main policy goal to led path for India.

Explanation

The main policy goal of India's Science, Technology and Innovation (STI) Policy is the establishment of a strong and viable Science, Research and Innovation System for High Technology-led path for India, known by the acronym SRISHTI. The policy aims to align science, technology, and innovation with the aspirational goals of the country, accelerating the pace of discovery and delivering science-led solutions to drive faster, sustainable, and inclusive development.

126Science and Technology
From the statements mentioned below, which statement is not correct?
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Answer: (A) The Maharashtra Association for the Cultivation of Science Research Institute was founded in 1964.

Explanation

Option A is the incorrect statement, making it the correct answer to this "which is NOT correct" question. The Maharashtra Association for the Cultivation of Science (MACS) Research Institute, Pune, was actually founded in 1946, not 1964. It was renamed the Agharkar Research Institute (ARI) in 1992 in honour of Prof. S. P. Agharkar, correctly stated in option B. ARI's current research thrust areas do include Animal Science, Microbial Science and Plant Science (option C), and it also serves as an ICAR-recognized centre for wheat, soybean and grape breeding (option D), so both C and D are accurate statements.

127Science and Technology
Evaluate the below mentioned statements. 1. National Innovation Foundation - India - NIF is an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India. NIF became an autonomous body of the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India in the year 2010. 2. NIF's mission is to help India become a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators. 3. NIF also organizes IGNITE, an annual national competition to harness the creative and innovative spirit of school children. 4. NIF has been able to build up a database of more than 2,00,000 technological ideas, innovations and traditional knowledge practices. Micro Venture Innovation Fund (MVIF), set up at NIF with the support of SIDBI has provided risk capital to 193 projects which are at different stages of incubation. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

Explanation

The National Innovation Foundation - India (NIF) was established in March 2000 as India's national initiative to strengthen grassroots technological innovations and outstanding traditional knowledge. In 2010, NIF became an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India.

The primary mission of NIF is to facilitate India's transition into a creative and knowledge-based society by expanding the policy and institutional space for grassroots technological innovators.

To cultivate a spirit of creativity and innovation among the youth, NIF organizes the Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam IGNITE competition, which is an annual national contest open to school children.

NIF has built a massive database containing over 2,00,000 technological ideas, innovations, and traditional knowledge practices documented from over 575 districts across India. To support these grassroots innovations, the Micro Venture Innovation Fund (MVIF) was set up at NIF with the assistance of the Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) in 2003. This dedicated risk capital fund provided financial support to 193 projects during its primary phase to help incubate and commercialize grassroots technologies.

128Science and Technology
From the following, which pair is not correct ? Name of the Autonomous Body Place
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Answer: (D) Raman Research Institute (RRI) Thiruvananthapuram

Explanation

The Raman Research Institute (RRI) is an autonomous research institute funded by the Department of Science and Technology, Government of India. It was founded in 1948 by the Nobel laureate Sir C. V. Raman. The institute is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka, and not in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala.

129Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements Statement 1 : The use of ICT in organizing teaching- learning programmes in the universities has the potential to optimise the learning outcomes Statement 2 : Formative assessment provides support to enhancing the quality of teaching- learning sessions. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
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Answer: (A) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct

Explanation

The integration of Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in higher education institutions enhances accessibility, supports interactive pedagogy, and provides diverse digital resources tailored to different learning styles. This integration creates a more engaging, collaborative, and flexible environment, which directly optimizes academic performance and learning outcomes.

Formative assessment refers to the continuous, diagnostic evaluations conducted during the ongoing instructional process, such as short quizzes, classroom discussions, and regular feedback. This assessment method provides immediate insight into students understanding and learning gaps, allowing educators to adjust their teaching strategies dynamically and students to improve their learning methods, thereby significantly enhancing the quality of teaching-learning sessions.

130Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. N.K.N stands for New Knowledge Network 2. MOOCs are offline courses 3. National Supercomputing Mission is a Government of India initiative 4. Param Shivay is a super computer Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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Answer: (A) 3 and 4 only

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Statement 3 is correct: the National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) is a joint initiative of the Government of India's Department of Science | Technology and MeitY to build a network of supercomputers. Statement 4 is correct: Param Shivay, installed at IIT-BHU, was the first supercomputer assembled indigenously under the NSM. Statement 1 is wrong because NKN stands for National Knowledge Network, not "New Knowledge Network." Statement 2 is wrong because MOOCs (Massive Open Online Courses) are online, not offline, courses. Hence only statements 3 and 4 are correct, making option A the right answer.

131Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
E-Governance steps by Government of Gujarat 1. Government has provided VSAT-based "Broadband" connectivity to all the Village Panchayats in the State through e-Gram Vishwagram Society. 2. All Village Panchayats have been provided with the computers, printers and other necessary hardware so as to enable the village level computer operators to deliver government services to the people. 3. State government has also decided to set up Common Service Centres (CSCs) in 6000 villages. State Portal will accept citizen's request for various services and deliver these services through front ends such as broadband connected village panchayats/ CSCs/ cyber cafes in the State. From the above statements, which statements are correct?
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

All three statements accurately describe Gujarat's e-Gram Vishwagram initiative for rural e-governance. Statement 1 is correct: the state provided VSAT-based broadband connectivity to all Village Panchayats through the e-Gram Vishwagram Society, linking remote villages to state networks. Statement 2 is correct: computers, printers and other hardware were supplied to Panchayats so that trained Village Computer Entrepreneurs (VCEs) could deliver e-services to citizens. Statement 3 is correct: the government also set up Common Service Centres (CSCs) in about 6000 villages, and the State Portal routes citizens' service requests through front ends like broadband-connected panchayats, CSCs and cyber cafes. Since all three statements are factually correct, option D ("1, 2 and 3") is the right answer, and the other options are incorrect for omitting one or more true statements.

132Science and Technology
Which of the following is the hacking approach where cyber-criminals design fake websites or pages for tricking or gaining additional traffic?
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Answer: (A) Pharming

Explanation

Pharming is a cyberattack where malicious actors redirect users to spoofed or fake websites in order to steal credentials, obtain sensitive information, or divert internet traffic for illicit gain. This type of attack is typically executed by changing the local hosts file on a user's computer or by exploiting vulnerabilities in Domain Name System (DNS) server software, commonly referred to as DNS cache poisoning. Because the redirection happens at the DNS or system level, users are forwarded to the fraudulent website even if they type the correct URL into their web browser, making it a highly effective method for tricking unsuspecting targets and capturing high volumes of web traffic.

133Science and Technology
Evaluate the below mentioned statements. 1. Gaganyaan project envisages demonstration of human spaceflight capability by launching crew of 3 members to an orbit of 400km for a 3-day mission and bring them back safely to earth, by landing in Indian sea waters 2. NASA-ISRO SAR (NISAR) is a Low Earth Orbit (LEO) observatory being jointly developed by NASA and ISRO. NISAR will map the entire globe in 12 days and provide spatially and temporarily consistent data for understanding changes in Earth's ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, groundwater and natural hazards including earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes and landslides. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (C) both 1 and 2 are correct

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Statement 1 is correct because ISRO's Gaganyaan project aims to demonstrate India's human spaceflight capability. The mission is designed to launch a three-member crew into a Low Earth Orbit of 400 km for a three-day duration, followed by a safe return to Earth with a splashdown landing in Indian sea waters.

Statement 2 is correct because the NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar (NISAR) is a joint Low Earth Orbit observatory developed by NASA and ISRO. It utilizes a dual-frequency synthetic aperture radar to map the entire globe every 12 days. This observatory provides spatially and temporally consistent data to monitor global environmental processes and natural hazards, including changes in ecosystems, ice mass, vegetation biomass, sea level rise, groundwater, earthquakes, tsunamis, volcanoes, and landslides.

134Economy
Evaluate the below mentioned statements. 1. In line with Prime Minister's announcement at COP26, Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is working towards achieving 500 GW of installed electricity capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030 2. India stands 2nd globally in Renewable Energy Installed Capacity (including Large Hydro), 2nd in Wind Power capacity | 24th in Solar Power capacity Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (A) only 1 is correct

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: at COP26 (2021), India's Prime Minister announced enhanced climate targets, and the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has since been working to achieve 500 GW of installed electric capacity from non-fossil (renewable) sources by 2030. Statement 2 is incorrect: as per Ministry of Power/MNRE data around 2023-24, India ranks 4th globally in Renewable Energy installed capacity (including large hydro), 4th in Wind Power capacity, and 4th in Solar Power capacity — not 2nd, 2nd, and 24th as stated. Since only statement 1 is correct, option A is the right answer.

135Science and TechnologyGujarat-specific
Evaluate the statements 1. Solarisation of sun-temple and town of Modhera, Gujarat: On 09.10.2022, Prime Minister dedicated to the nation, India's first Battery Storage and Solar Power-based 'Suryagram' - "Modhera". 2. National Bioenergy Programme: The National Bioenergy Programme was launched on 2.11.2022. 3. Vayu mitra and Jalmitra Skill Development Programmes under Human Resource Development Scheme were launched in 2022. 4. PM-KUSUM Scheme: Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Uthaan Mahaabhiyan (PM-KUSUM): To provide energy and water security, de-dieselise the farm sector and also generate additional income for farmers by producing solar power. Select the correct answer code :
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 all are correct

Explanation

All four statements are factually correct. Modhera in Gujarat was indeed declared India's first solar-powered "Suryagram" village, with the Sun Temple and the town solarised using rooftop solar panels and a Battery Energy Storage System, dedicated to the nation by the Prime Minister on 9 October 2022. The National Bioenergy Programme (covering the Waste to Energy, Biomass, and Biogas programmes) was approved/launched around late 2022 under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy to promote bioenergy use. Vayu Mitra and Jal Mitra are indeed skill development/training programmes launched in 2022 under the Human Resource Development Scheme of MNRE, aimed at building skilled manpower for wind and small hydro sectors. PM-KUSUM correctly aims to provide farmers energy and water security, de-dieselise the farm sector, and generate additional income through solar power generation, exactly as described. Since none of the statements contain an error, option A (all four correct) is the right choice.

136Geography
Trapped heat inside the earth is known as
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Answer: (C) Geothermal energy

Explanation

The heat energy trapped and stored beneath the Earth's surface, originating from the planet's formation and radioactive decay of minerals in the core and mantle, is specifically termed geothermal energy. While terms like heat energy or thermal energy describe the general form of energy, "geothermal" (geo = earth, thermal = heat) is the precise scientific term used for this internal heat source, which is harnessed for geothermal power generation. Kinetic energy, being energy of motion, is unrelated to this stored internal heat. Hence, option C is correct.

137Geography
Pairs showing Environment treaties and Environmental Conventions are mentioned below. Which pair is not correct?
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Answer: (D) Rotterdam Convention It is an international environment protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS) to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). It was adopted in 2010. It came into force in 2014.

Explanation

Option D is the incorrect pairing, making it the answer. The description given — "Access to Genetic Resources and Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization (ABS)," adopted in 2010 and in force from 2014 — actually describes the Nagoya Protocol to the Convention on Biological Diversity, not the Rotterdam Convention. The Rotterdam Convention (1998, in force 2004) actually deals with Prior Informed Consent (PIC) for trade in certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides, an entirely different subject. The other pairs are correctly matched: the Ramsar Convention (1971/1975) concerns wetlands conservation, the CBD (1992/1993) concerns biodiversity conservation, and the Vienna Convention (1985/1988) concerns protection of the ozone layer.

138Polity and Governance
India's Domestic Legal Framework for Wildlife Conservation: Constitutional Provisions for Wildlife. 1. The 42ⁿᵈ Amendment Act, 1976 : Forests and Protection of Wild Animals and Birds was transferred from State to Concurrent List. 2. Article 51 A(b) of the Constitution states that it shall be the fundamental duty of every citizen to protect and improve the natural environment including forests and Wildlife. 3. Article 48(b) in the Directive Principles of State policy mandates that the State shall endeavour to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
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Answer: (A) only 1

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 transferred "Forests" and "Protection of Wild Animals and Birds" from the State List to the Concurrent List (Entries 17A and 17B of the Seventh Schedule), enabling both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on these subjects. Statement 2 is incorrect: the fundamental duty to protect and improve the natural environment, including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, is laid down in Article 51A(g), not Article 51A(b) (which deals with cherishing the ideals of the freedom struggle). Statement 3 is incorrect: the Directive Principle mandating the State to protect and improve the environment and safeguard forests and wildlife is Article 48A, not Article 48(b) (Article 48 deals with organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry). Hence, only statement 1 is correct, making option A the right answer.

139Economy
Which Ministry has undertaken the National Mission for a "Green India"?
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Answer: (B) Ministry of Environment | Forest

Explanation

The National Mission for a Green India is one of the eight missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change. It was launched with the objective of protecting, restoring, and enhancing India's forest cover while responding to climate change through a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change serves as the nodal ministry responsible for the implementation and administration of this mission across the country.

140Geography
The 2023 UN Climate Change Conference was convened in Dubai, United Arab Emirates (UAE). It is also known as
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Answer: (B) COP 28

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The 2023 United Nations Climate Change Conference, commonly referred to as COP 28, was the 28th annual Conference of the Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). Held at Expo City, Dubai, United Arab Emirates, from 30 November to 13 December 2023, the summit brought together global leaders to coordinate action on climate change, culminating in the UAE Consensus which called for transitioning away from fossil fuels in energy systems.

141Science and Technology
Bacteria protect themselves from viruses by fragmenting viral DNA with
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Answer: (B) Endonuclease

Explanation

Bacteria have evolved a natural defense mechanism known as the restriction-modification system to protect themselves against invading viruses. In this defense mechanism, bacteria produce restriction endonucleases, which are specialized enzymes that recognize specific nucleotide sequences within the foreign viral DNA. Upon identifying these target sites, the endonucleases cleave the internal phosphodiester bonds of the viral DNA, fragmenting the genetic material and rendering the virus harmless. The bacterium protects its own chromosomal DNA from being cleaved by methylating its own corresponding recognition sequences, ensuring that the endonuclease enzymes selectively target and destroy only the incoming viral DNA.

142Science and Technology
The first transgenic plant produced was
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Answer: (B) Tobacco

Explanation

The first transgenic plant ever produced was tobacco (Nicotiana tabacum) in 1982. Researchers successfully engineered this genetically modified plant using Agrobacterium tumefaciens to insert a chimeric gene conferring resistance to antibiotics. This pioneering work demonstrated that foreign genes could be stably integrated and expressed in plant genomes, laying the foundation for modern agricultural biotechnology. Tobacco also became the first genetically engineered crop to be grown commercially, introduced in China in the early 1990s.

143Science and Technology
Excision and insertion of a gene is called
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Answer: (B) Genetic engineering

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Genetic engineering involves the direct manipulation of an organism's genome using biotechnology. It specifically encompasses the techniques of cutting or excising a target gene from one organism's DNA using molecular scissors called restriction enzymes, and inserting it into the DNA of another organism or vector using DNA ligase. This precise manipulation of genetic material creates recombinant DNA, allowing scientists to introduce new, desirable traits into the recipient organism.

144Science and Technology
The concept of SSNM in rice was developed in cooperation with researchers across
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Answer: (C) Asia

Explanation

The concept of Site-Specific Nutrient Management (SSNM) in rice was developed by the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI) in partnership with national agricultural research and extension systems across major rice-growing countries in Asia. Formulated and refined since the mid-1990s, this approach provides the scientific principles required to dynamically adjust fertilizer applications (specifically nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium) to meet the exact crop needs of a specific field and season. This collaboration across Asian nations has enabled smallholder farmers to optimize nutrient use efficiency, enhance crop yields, and increase overall profitability.

145Science and Technology
The word Nano came from
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Answer: (A) Greek word

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The word "Nano" is derived from the Greek word "nanos" (νᾶνος), meaning "dwarf" or extremely small. It is used as a prefix in the metric system to denote one-billionth (10⁻⁹) of a unit, as in nanometre or nanotechnology, reflecting the minuscule scale it represents. The term did not originate from Italian, Latin, or French, making options B, C, and D incorrect.

146Geography
The process of identifying a location by one or more attributes from a base layer is
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Answer: (D) Geocode

Explanation

Geocoding is the process of converting descriptive location attributes (such as an address or place name) associated with a base layer into a geographic location (coordinates) that can be identified and mapped, which matches the question's description exactly. Georeferencing (A) instead refers to aligning a raster image or dataset to real-world coordinates using known reference points, not identifying a location from attributes. A Geoid (B) is the equipotential gravitational surface used as the reference for elevation measurements, and GIS (C) is the broader system/software for capturing, storing, and analyzing all spatial data, of which geocoding is just one specific function. Hence option D, Geocode, is the correct answer.

147Science and Technology
A pillar like structure on the wing of an aircraft used for carrying an engine, weapon or other load is
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Answer: (A) Pylon

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A pylon is the pillar-like structural fitting attached beneath or on the wing (or fuselage) of an aircraft that is used to mount and carry an engine, weapon, fuel tank, or other external load. It is designed to bear the aerodynamic and structural loads of these attachments while keeping them clear of the wing surface. 'Pilose' refers to hairiness in biology and is unrelated to aviation, while 'boot' and 'cabin' denote storage/luggage space and the passenger compartment respectively, none of which describe a load-carrying wing structure. Hence, 'Pylon' is the correct term.

148Science and Technology
The organism which is used for gene transfer in higher organism is
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Answer: (A) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

Explanation

Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a naturally occurring soil bacterium widely used as a vector for gene transfer in higher plants. It possesses a tumor-inducing plasmid, known as the Ti plasmid, which contains a segment called T-DNA (transfer DNA). This bacterium has the natural ability to infect plant cells and integrate its T-DNA directly into the host plant genome. In genetic engineering, the disease-causing genes of the Ti plasmid are deactivated or removed and replaced with the desired foreign genes of interest. This modified plasmid then acts as an efficient vector, delivering and integrating the new genetic material into the plant genome to generate transgenic plants.

149Science and Technology
What is the other name for infectious diseases?
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Answer: (B) Communicable diseases

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Infectious diseases are caused by pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, or parasites and can spread from one person to another, either directly or through vectors, food, or water; hence they are also called communicable diseases. Non-communicable diseases (option A), in contrast, are not spread from person to person and are typically caused by genetic, lifestyle, or environmental factors (e.g., diabetes, cancer). "Non-transmissible" (C) is essentially a restatement of non-communicable and does not apply to infectious diseases, while "heredity diseases" (D) refers to conditions passed genetically from parents to offspring, unrelated to infection.

150Economy
The current rates of disease are increasing at alarming speeds and most are closely linked with
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Answer: (A) Carcinogens

Explanation

Modern lifestyle and environmental changes have led to increasing exposure to carcinogens — substances or agents (industrial chemicals, tobacco smoke, air pollutants, processed food additives, radiation, etc.) that promote the development of cancer and other chronic diseases. The rising incidence of cancers and related ailments worldwide is closely linked to growing human exposure to such carcinogenic agents in food, water, air, and the workplace. The other options are unrelated or the opposite of the trend: "invigorating" describes health-enhancing rather than disease-causing factors, while "organic farming" and a "balanced diet" are protective/preventive practices associated with reducing disease risk, not increasing it. Hence, option A (Carcinogens) correctly identifies the factor linked with rising disease rates.

151Polity and Governance
Who is the first woman to hold the position of Director General Hospital Services (Armed Forces) in the Indian military?
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Answer: (D) Air Marshal Sadhna S Nair

Explanation

Air Marshal Sadhna S Nair assumed charge as the Director General Hospital Services (Armed Forces) on October 23, 2023, making her the first woman officer to hold this prestigious appointment. An alumna of the Armed Forces Medical College, Pune, she was commissioned into the Army Medical Corps in December 1985. Throughout her distinguished military career, she has achieved several milestones, including serving as the first woman Principal Medical Officer of both the Western Air Command and the Training Command of the Indian Air Force.

152Science and Technology
Which Indian State is planning to set up a R 237 crore graphene production facility?
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Answer: (A) Kerala

Explanation

In October 2023, the Kerala government approved a proposal to establish a pilot graphene production facility under a Public-Private Partnership model with an estimated investment of ₹237 crore. Often referred to as a wonder material due to its extraordinary electrical, thermal, and mechanical properties, graphene is a key focus area for the state's high-tech industrial policy. The Digital University Kerala serves as the implementing agency for this project, while the Kerala Industrial Infrastructure Development Corporation (KINFRA) has been designated as the special purpose vehicle to facilitate infrastructure development and secure investments.

153Science and Technology
Which country is building the world's largest neutrino-detecting telescope, "Trident"?
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Answer: (A) China

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China is building "Trident" (TRopIcal DEep-sea Neutrino Telescope), which is planned to become the world's largest underwater neutrino-detecting telescope, located in the South China Sea. It is designed to observe high-energy cosmic neutrinos using an array of optical sensors deployed at great depth, complementing facilities like IceCube (USA, at the South Pole) and KM3NeT (led by European nations). Japan (Super-Kamiokande/Hyper-Kamiokande) and the United States (IceCube) operate other prominent neutrino observatories, but neither matches the scale planned for China's Trident project, and Russia does not host a comparable large-scale neutrino telescope of this kind. Hence, China is the correct answer.

154Polity and Governance
Which organization conducted a first joint naval exercise with India in the Gulf of Guinea?
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Answer: (A) European Union (EU)

Explanation

The European Union (EU) and India conducted their first-ever joint naval exercise in the Gulf of Guinea in October 2023, as part of enhanced maritime security cooperation aimed at combating piracy and ensuring safety of sea lanes off the West African coast. This exercise involved the EU's Coordinated Maritime Presence (CMP) mission and Indian Navy ships operating in the region. The UN (option B) does not conduct bilateral naval exercises, NATO (option C) has not held a joint naval drill with India in the Gulf of Guinea, and the SCO (option D) is a Eurasian security/economic bloc with no naval presence in that region, making these options incorrect.

155Science and Technology
Where is the Indian Army's first Vertical Wind Tunnel (VWT) located?
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Answer: (C) Himachal Pradesh

Explanation

The Indian Army's first Vertical Wind Tunnel (VWT) was inaugurated at the Special Forces Training School (SFTS) in Bakloh, Himachal Pradesh, to provide indoor free-fall and skydiving simulation training for para-commandos without the risks and weather dependency of actual jumps. This facility allows soldiers to practise body control and formation skills year-round in a controlled environment. The other states listed - Jammu and Kashmir, Uttarakhand, and Arunachal Pradesh - do not house this particular facility, making option C the correct answer.

156Economy
Which country is experiencing a severe demographic crisis, with the number of births hitting a new low this year?
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Answer: (D) Italy

Explanation

Italy is experiencing a severe demographic crisis characterized by a long-term decline in birth rates. In recent years, including 2024, the Italian National Institute of Statistics (ISTAT) reported that the total number of births in the country hit a new record low of approximately 370,000. This marked the 16th consecutive annual drop in births, representing the lowest annual figure recorded since the unification of Italy in 1861. The fertility rate in Italy has plunged to around 1.18 children per woman, which is significantly below the replacement level of 2.1 required to maintain a stable population. This sharp decline in newborns, alongside an aging population, has turned the demographic crisis into a major national emergency for Italy.

157Science and Technology
Which French aero engine company signed an MoU with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in October 2023 to enhance industrial cooperation in aerospace?
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Answer: (C) Safran Aircraft Engines

Explanation

In October 2023, Safran Aircraft Engines (a French aerospace major) signed a Memorandum of Understanding with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) to deepen industrial cooperation in aero-engine technology, including potential joint development and manufacturing of engines for India's future fighter and helicopter programmes. Dassault Systèmes is a French software company (3D design/PLM), Airbus is a European aircraft manufacturer that has separate cooperation agreements with India (mainly on transport aircraft like the C-295), and Thales Group is a French defence electronics and avionics firm — none of these signed this specific HAL MoU. Hence, Safran Aircraft Engines (option C) is correct.

158Economy
Which company was the official sponsor of the 37th National Games in 2023?
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Answer: (C) Paytm

Explanation

Paytm was announced as the official sponsor (payments partner) of the 37th National Games, held in Goa from 26 October to 9 November 2023. As part of this sponsorship, Paytm's branding and digital payment solutions were used across the Games' ticketing and transaction infrastructure. The other options, Google Pay, PhonePe and Amazon Pay, were not associated with sponsoring this edition of the National Games, making option C the correct answer.

159Polity and Governance
Who received the 2023 USIPF Global Leadership Award for Philanthropy and Corporate Social Responsibility?
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Answer: (C) Nita Ambani

Explanation

The US-India Strategic Partnership Forum presented the 2023 Global Leadership Award for Philanthropy and Corporate Social Responsibility to Nita Ambani, who is the Founder and Chairperson of the Reliance Foundation. The award recognizes her extensive contributions to social development, healthcare, education, and sports at the grassroots level in India, as well as her efforts in promoting and preserving Indian arts and culture on a global platform.

160Economy
Which Indian State is the first to have a hallmark center in every district?
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Answer: (D) Kerala

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Kerala became the first state in India to have a BIS-recognized hallmarking centre in every one of its 14 districts, ensuring that jewellery hallmarking facilities were accessible across the entire state. This was part of the push under the BIS Hallmarking (Compulsory) scheme to expand purity certification of gold jewellery nationwide. Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Maharashtra, though having a large number of hallmarking centres due to their sizeable jewellery trade, did not achieve full district-wise coverage as early as Kerala, making option D the correct answer.

161Science and Technology
Which country had hosted the AI Safety Summit 2023?
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Answer: (D) UK

Explanation

The inaugural AI Safety Summit 2023 was hosted by the United Kingdom at Bletchley Park, Buckinghamshire, in November 2023, bringing together government leaders, tech companies, and researchers to discuss risks from frontier AI. It resulted in the 'Bletchley Declaration,' signed by 28 countries including the USA, China, and India, committing to international cooperation on AI safety. USA, China, and India were participants/signatories but not the host nation, making UK (option D) the correct answer.

162Art and Culture
Which Indian city was recently named the 'City of Literature' by UNESCO, making it the first city in India to receive this distinction?
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Answer: (C) Kozhikode

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Kozhikode in Kerala was officially designated as India's first City of Literature by UNESCO under the UNESCO Creative Cities Network. This prestigious recognition, announced on World Cities Day in October 2023 and formally declared in the city in June 2024, honors Kozhikode's vibrant literary culture. The city is renowned for its rich history of producing legendary writers, its highly active community of readers, a massive network of over five hundred libraries, and hosting prominent cultural events like the Kerala Literature Festival.

163Art and Culture
On what date was Halloween Day celebrated in 2023?
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Answer: (A) October 31

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Halloween is a traditional celebration observed annually on October 31, the eve of the Western Christian feast of All Hallows' Day. In 2023, Halloween was celebrated on October 31, continuing this long-standing global tradition.

164History
What was the theme of the 4th edition of Goa Maritime Conclave 2023?
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Answer: (A) Maritime Security in the Indian Ocean Region: Converting Common Maritime Priorities into Collaborative Mitigating Frameworks.

Explanation

The 4th edition of the Goa Maritime Conclave (GMC-23), hosted by the Indian Navy in November 2023, was conducted under the theme "Maritime Security in the Indian Ocean Region: Converting Common Maritime Priorities into Collaborative Mitigating Frameworks." The conclave brought together chiefs of navies and maritime agencies of Indian Ocean Region (IOR) littoral states to build on the shared understanding from earlier editions and move toward concrete, cooperative frameworks for addressing common maritime security challenges. Option B reflects an earlier GMC theme (on non-traditional threats), and option C describes a general aim rather than the specific 2023 theme, making them incorrect distractors.

165Science and Technology
What is the name of the submersible used in India's Deep Ocean Mission (DOM)?
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Answer: (D) Samudrayaan

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The Deep Ocean Mission is India's flagship initiative led by the Ministry of Earth Sciences to explore the deep ocean for resources and develop deep-sea technologies. Under this mission, the Samudrayaan project is India's first manned ocean exploration endeavor. It is designed to send three human aquanauts in a specialized self-propelled deep-submergence vehicle to a depth of 6,000 meters to explore mineral-rich regions in the Indian Ocean. The program is developed by the National Institute of Ocean Technology in Chennai and is named in alignment with the country's human spaceflight mission, Gaganyaan.

166Science and Technology
The term "Kavach" often seen in the news refers to
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Answer: (A) The indigenously developed train collision avoidance system

Explanation

"Kavach" is India's indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, designed by the Research Design and Standards Organisation (RDSO) along with Indian industry partners, to prevent train-to-train collisions by automatically applying brakes if the driver fails to control the train's speed or ignores a signal. It uses SIL-4 (Safety Integrity Level 4) certified technology and works via ultra-high radio frequency communication between locomotives, stations, and signalling systems. It is unrelated to Army armour, DRDO's anti-missile systems (like the actual "Kavach" missile decoy system used by the Navy/Air Force, which is a different context), or an ISRO satellite, making B, C, and D incorrect.

167Polity and Governance
Which country has officially embedded its nuclear weapons status in its Constitution?
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Answer: (D) North Korea

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North Korea is the correct answer. In September 2023, North Korea's Supreme People's Assembly amended the country's Constitution to explicitly declare it a nuclear weapons state and enshrine the policy of continuously strengthening its nuclear forces, making the nuclear status a permanent, irreversible constitutional commitment. This formalized what North Korea had earlier only stated through domestic law (a 2013 self-declaration) and leader Kim Jong Un's statements. China and Russia, though established nuclear powers under the NPT, have not written their nuclear weapons status into their constitutions. South Korea does not possess nuclear weapons at all, ruling out option C.

168Polity and Governance
Which of the following organizations is set to launch its "One Nation, One Registration platform"?
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Answer: (B) National Medical Commission

Explanation

The National Medical Commission (NMC) is set to launch the "One Nation, One Registration" platform, a unified digital registry that will maintain a single national database of all registered doctors in India, replacing the fragmented state-wise medical registers. This initiative aims to curb fraudulent practitioners, ease verification of doctors' credentials, and enable seamless mobility of registration across states. The other options are unrelated to medical registration: the Election Commission of India manages voter rolls and elections, the RBI regulates banking, and the NHRC deals with human rights protection.

169Science and Technology
Who were awarded the prestigious White House National Medal for Technology and Innovation and the National Medal of Science by US President Joe Biden?
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Answer: (A) Ashok Gadgil and Subra Suresh

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In October 2023, US President Joe Biden honored Indian-American scientists Ashok Gadgil and Subra Suresh at the White House. Ashok Gadgil, a physicist known for his work on water purification and clean cookstove technologies for developing countries, received the National Medal of Technology and Innovation, while Subra Suresh, a materials scientist and former director of the US National Science Foundation, received the National Medal of Science. The other options (Sundar Pichai and Satya Nadella, Arvind Krishna and Shantanu Narayan, Parag Agrawal and Neal Mohan) are all well-known Indian-origin technology company CEOs but were not recipients of these particular White House science and technology medals.

170Polity and Governance
Who has been appointed as a member of the Strategic and Technical Advisory Group (STAG) for Tuberculosis by the World Health Organization (WHO)?
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Answer: (C) Sarang Deo

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Professor Sarang Deo, Professor of Operations Management and Executive Director of the Max Institute of Healthcare Management at the Indian School of Business, was appointed as a member of the Strategic and Technical Advisory Group for Tuberculosis by the World Health Organization. This advisory body provides scientific and technical administration to the WHO on global efforts to eliminate tuberculosis. His research focuses on healthcare operations, particularly the design and delivery of healthcare services in developing nations, making him a key contributor to this global health initiative.

171History
Who won the British Academy Book Prize for Global Cultural Understanding in 2023 for his / her debut book, 'Courting India: England, Mughal India, and the Origins of Empire'?
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Answer: (D) Nandini Das

Explanation

Nandini Das, a professor of English literature at the University of Oxford, won the 2023 British Academy Book Prize for Global Cultural Understanding for her debut book 'Courting India: England, Mughal India, and the Origins of Empire'. The book examines the first English embassy to the Mughal court of Jahangir in the early 17th century, reframing the early history of Anglo-Indian relations. The other options (Arjun Patel, Rahul Khan, Priya Sharma) are fictitious names invented as distractors and are not associated with this award.

172Economy
According to Statista, what is India's rank in the number of fintech unicorns worldwide?
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Answer: (A) Third

Explanation

As per Statista data, India ranks third in the world in terms of the number of fintech unicorns, trailing only the United States and the United Kingdom. This reflects India's rapidly growing fintech ecosystem, driven by digital payments (UPI), lending platforms, and insurtech startups attracting significant venture capital. The other options (First, Second, Fourth) do not match Statista's reported ranking, since the US leads with the highest number of fintech unicorns followed by the UK, placing India third.

173Geography
Which city is known as the "Tea City of India"?
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Answer: (D) Dibrugarh

Explanation

Dibrugarh is globally recognized as the Tea City of India because it is the largest tea-producing district in the country. Situated on the banks of the Brahmaputra River in Assam, the city is surrounded by an extensive network of sprawling, lush green tea gardens, some of which date back to the British colonial era. It serves as the primary hub for the cultivation, processing, harvesting, and packaging of Assam tea, which is famous worldwide for its rich, full-bodied flavor and deep color.

174Economy
Who won the 2023 Ballon d'Or for men?
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Answer: (B) Lionel Messi

Explanation

Lionel Messi won the 2023 Ballon d'Or, his record-extending eighth title, awarded largely on the strength of leading Argentina to the 2022 FIFA World Cup title and his performances for Paris Saint-Germain/Inter Miami. The other nominees named — Cristiano Ronaldo, Kylian Mbappe, and Erling Haaland — were strong contenders (Haaland had a treble-winning season with Manchester City) but none matched Messi's World Cup-winning achievement that year, so they finished behind him in the voting.

175Science and Technology
Which global technology leader partnered with TATA Play Fiber to launch India's first WiFi6-ready broadband network?
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Answer: (C) Nokia

Explanation

Nokia partnered with Tata Play Fiber to launch India's first WiFi 6-ready broadband network, aimed at delivering faster, more reliable, and congestion-free home Wi-Fi connectivity by leveraging the advanced WiFi 6 standard. This collaboration combined Nokia's networking and Wi-Fi technology expertise with Tata Play Fiber's fixed broadband service to enhance customer experience through better speed, coverage, and support for multiple connected devices. The other options are incorrect: Samsung, Apple, and Huawei are technology majors but were not the partner in this specific Tata Play Fiber broadband initiative.

176Science and Technology
Which comet is also known as the Orionid meteor shower?
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Answer: (D) Halley's

Explanation

The Orionid meteor shower, visible every October, is produced when Earth passes through the trail of dust and debris left behind by Halley's Comet as it orbits the Sun. These tiny particles burn up in Earth's atmosphere, creating the characteristic streaks of the Orionids, which appear to radiate from the constellation Orion. The other options are unrelated comets: Comet Hyakutake and Comet Hale-Bopp were notable bright comets of the 1990s but are linked to different meteor showers (or none prominent), and "Newise" is not a recognized comet associated with any major meteor shower. Hence, Halley's Comet is correctly identified as the source of the Orionids.

177Science and Technology
Where is the headquarters of the ICAR-Indian Institute of Soil and Water Conservation (ICAR-IISWC) located?
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Answer: (B) Dehradun

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The ICAR-Indian Institute of Soil and Water Conservation (ICAR-IISWC) is headquartered in Dehradun, Uttarakhand. Originally established in 1954 as the Soil Conservation Research, Demonstration and Training Centre, it was transferred to the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) in 1967. The institute conducts research and provides training in soil and water conservation, watershed management, and resource-efficient farming technologies to combat land degradation and promote sustainable agriculture.

178Science and Technology
Who broke the world record in the javelin throw in the F64 category at the 2023 Asian Para Games?
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Answer: (D) Sumit Antil

Explanation

Sumit Antil, India's Paralympic and World champion javelin thrower in the F64 category, broke his own world record at the 2023 Asian Para Games held in Hangzhou, China, with a massive throw exceeding 70 metres, further cementing his dominance in the event. The other options are also accomplished Indian para-athletes but compete in different categories/events: Devendra Jhajharia (javelin, F46 category), Sundar Singh Gurjar (javelin, F46 category), and Praveen Kumar (high jump, T64 category) - none of whom set the F64 javelin world record at that event. Hence, option D, Sumit Antil, is correct.

179Economy
Which food delivery app introduced maternity insurance for women delivery partners ASA STEP FOR WOMAN EMPOWERMENT?
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Answer: (C) Zomato

Explanation

Zomato introduced a maternity benefit policy for its women delivery partners in 2023, offering paid leave and financial support around childbirth as part of its women-empowerment initiatives — making Zomato the correct answer. Swiggy, another Indian food-delivery platform, and Foodpanda are competitors but did not launch this particular maternity insurance scheme; DoorDash is a US-based food delivery company and not relevant to this Indian initiative.

180History
Where did the Indian Army mark the 76th 'Shaurya Diwas'?
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Answer: (A) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

The Indian Army marked the 76th Shaurya Diwas in Srinagar, Jammu and Kashmir, on October 27, 2023. This day is commemorated annually to mark the anniversary of the landing of the Indian Army's 1st Battalion of the Sikh Regiment at Budgam Airport in 1947. This historic deployment, which took place a day after Maharaja Hari Singh signed the Instrument of Accession, was the first military operation of independent India and successfully repelled Pakistani invaders from the Kashmir Valley.

181Science and Technology
How many S-400 air defense missile squadrons has the IAF deployed along the borders with China and Pakistan?
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Answer: (A) Three

Explanation

India signed a deal with Russia in 2018 for five S-400 'Triumf' air defense squadrons, but only three have been delivered and operationalized so far. The Indian Air Force has deployed these three squadrons along its borders with Pakistan and China to strengthen air defense against aerial threats, including aircraft, missiles, and drones. The remaining two squadrons are yet to be delivered due to supply constraints. Hence, the correct answer is "Three," not four, five, or six.

182Art and Culture
Who was the chairman of the international jury panel for the 54th edition of the International Film Festival of India (IFFI)?
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Answer: (B) Shekhar Kapur

Explanation

Renowned Indian filmmaker Shekhar Kapur, known for films like 'Mr. India' and 'Bandit Queen', was appointed as the chairman of the international jury panel for the 54th International Film Festival of India (IFFI), held in Goa in November 2023. He led an international panel of filmmakers who evaluated entries in the festival's competitive sections. Steven Spielberg, Quentin Tarantino, and Martin Scorsese are all internationally acclaimed directors but were not associated with chairing this jury panel, making options A, C, and D incorrect.

183Science and Technology
Which Indian aerospace organization unveiled its Vikram-1 orbital rocket in October 2023?
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Answer: (D) Skyroot Aerospace

Explanation

Skyroot Aerospace, a private Indian space-tech startup founded by former ISRO scientists, unveiled its Vikram-1 orbital launch vehicle in October 2023, positioning it as India's first privately developed orbital rocket capable of carrying satellites into low Earth orbit. ISRO (option A) is the government space agency and did not unveil Vikram-1, though Skyroot's rockets are named after ISRO founder Vikram Sarabhai. Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (option B) is a public-sector heavy engineering firm with no rocket-launch role, and Bharat Dynamics Limited (option C) manufactures missiles and defence systems, not orbital launch vehicles. Hence, Skyroot Aerospace is correctly identified as the organisation behind Vikram-1.

184Science and Technology
Which Indian Institute of Technology has partnered with Airbus to promote aerospace education and innovation in India?
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Answer: (D) IIT Kanpur

Explanation

In 2023, Airbus signed a Memorandum of Understanding with IIT Kanpur to promote aerospace education, research and innovation in India, including collaboration on advanced flight systems, materials, and skill development for the aerospace sector. This partnership positions IIT Kanpur as a key academic hub for Airbus's engagement with Indian aerospace R | D. IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, and IIT Madras, while prominent in engineering research, were not the institutes named in this specific Airbus collaboration, making option D the correct answer.

185Polity and Governance
Which Indian teacher was named a finalist for the Global Teacher Prize 2023?
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Answer: (A) Deep Narayan

Explanation

Deep Narayan Nayak, a teacher from West Bengal known for his environment-friendly, waste-material-based teaching methods, was named one of the ten finalists for the Global Teacher Prize 2023, organised by the Varkey Foundation. Ranjitsinh Disale, though an earlier (2020) Global Teacher Prize winner from India, was not the 2023 finalist, ruling out option B. Sonam Wangchuk and Arvind Gupta are noted Indian innovators/educators but were not associated with the Global Teacher Prize 2023 shortlist, making options C and D incorrect. Hence, the correct answer is Deep Narayan (Nayak).

186Science and Technology
In which Indian State was a new mushroom species 'Candolleomyces albosquamosus' discovered?
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Answer: (C) Kerala

Explanation

The new mushroom species Candolleomyces albosquamosus was discovered on the campus of the Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanic Garden and Research Institute (JNTBGRI) at Palode in Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala. It was identified as a distinct new species based on its unique morphological and molecular (DNA barcoding) characteristics, distinguishing it from other Candolleomyces species. Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu, though biodiversity-rich states, are not the location associated with this particular discovery, making option C, Kerala, the correct answer.

187Science and Technology
What is the paintbrush swift (Baoris farri)?
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Answer: (C) Butterfly

Explanation

The paintbrush swift (Baoris farri) is a species of skipper butterfly (family Hesperiidae) that was recently recorded/rediscovered in India, notably from Himachal Pradesh, making it a species of conservation and taxonomic interest in current affairs. It is not a bird, flower, or snake, ruling out options A, B, and D. Hence, "Butterfly" (option C) is the correct answer.

188Geography
Who won the top prize in the '10 years and under' category at the Wildlife Photographer of the Year (WPY) competition?
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Answer: (D) Vihaan Talya Vikas

Explanation

The correct answer is Vihaan Talya Vikas (Option D). This ten-year-old photographer from Bengaluru, India, won the top prize in the '10 years and under' category of the Wildlife Photographer of the Year (WPY) competition, organised by London's Natural History Museum, for his striking image of a tent spider. The other names listed—Rohan Sharma, Aarav Patel, and Zara Khan—are fictional distractors and were not associated with this award.

189Economy
Which Indian State has received approval for the Jamrani Dam Multipurpose Project, with the Indian government allocating Rs. 1,557 crore for its completion?
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Answer: (B) Uttarakhand

Explanation

The Jamrani Dam Multipurpose Project is being constructed on the Gola River, a tributary of the Ramganga River, in the Nainital district of Uttarakhand. In October 2023, the Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs approved the inclusion of this project under the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana - Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme. The Central Government approved central support of Rs. 1,557.18 crore to Uttarakhand for the project, which is designed to provide irrigation to over 57,000 hectares of land, supply 42.70 million cubic meters of drinking water to Haldwani and nearby areas, and generate 14 MW of hydropower.

190Economy
Which city hosted the Green Tourism Conclave in October 2023?
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Answer: (B) Shillong

Explanation

The Green Tourism Conclave was held in Shillong, Meghalaya, on October 19, 2023. This conclave focused on promoting sustainable and responsible tourism practices in the Northeastern region of India, emphasizing the preservation of the region's rich biodiversity and cultural heritage while fostering economic growth through eco-friendly tourism initiatives.

191Polity and Governance
The 43rd edition of PRAGATI, chaired by Hon'ble Prime Minister, involved a review of eight projects that are crucial for various States in India. What does PRAGATI stand for?
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Answer: (D) Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation

Explanation

PRAGATI stands for Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation. Launched in March 2015, it is a multi-purpose and multi-modal platform aimed at addressing common man's grievances and monitoring major projects of the Government of India as well as state governments. The platform is chaired by the Prime Minister and integrates three advanced technologies: digital data management, video conferencing, and geo-spatial technology to promote active governance and ensure the timely execution of key development projects.

192Geography
Which city is known as the "Sweet City of India"?
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Answer: (C) Muzaffarpur

Explanation

Muzaffarpur is famously known as the Sweet City of India, as well as the Litchi Kingdom, due to its exceptional and abundant production of high-quality Shahi Litchis. The geographic and climatic conditions of the region, characterized by the fertile alluvial soil of the Burhi Gandak River basin, are uniquely suited for the cultivation of this fruit. The Shahi Litchi of Muzaffarpur is highly prized for its sweet taste, juicy pulp, and distinct aroma, and it has also been granted the Geographical Indication (GI) tag, cementing the city's reputation as the sweet capital of the country.

193Polity and Governance
Which of the following countries is/are not recognized by the United Nations?
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Answer: (D) All of these

Explanation

The United Nations only recognizes sovereign states that meet the criteria of statehood under international law and have been admitted as member states through a General Assembly vote. Sealand is a self-proclaimed micronation located on an abandoned World War II sea fort in the North Sea, which has never received diplomatic recognition from any UN member state. Christiania is an intentional community and commune in Copenhagen, Denmark, which has self-proclaimed autonomous status but is not a sovereign state. Crimea is a peninsula internationally recognized by the United Nations as part of Ukraine, and it is not recognized as an independent sovereign country. Consequently, none of these entities are recognized as sovereign nations by the United Nations.

194Economy
The "Champions of Earth" award was conferred by which of the following organisation?
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Answer: (B) United Nations Environment Programme

Explanation

The Champions of the Earth award is the highest environmental honor of the United Nations, established by the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) in 2005. It recognizes outstanding leaders from government, civil society, and the private sector whose actions have had a transformative and positive impact on the environment across categories such as Policy Leadership, Inspiration and Action, Entrepreneurial Vision, and Science and Innovation.

195Polity and Governance
Which actor is appointed by The Election Commission of India (ECI) as its 'National Icon' to inspire voters to cast votes?
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Answer: (D) Rajkummar Rao

Explanation

In October 2023, the Election Commission of India appointed actor Rajkummar Rao as its National Icon. This designation aimed to leverage his popularity to promote voter awareness and encourage participation, particularly among youth, for the 2024 general elections and preceding state assembly elections. His portrayal of an upright election official in the critically acclaimed, National Award-winning film Newton made him a fitting choice for this civic responsibility.

196History
Which Union territory of India celebrates Accession Day on October 26?
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Answer: (A) Jammu and Kashmir

Explanation

Accession Day is celebrated in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir on October 26 to commemorate the signing of the Instrument of Accession by Maharaja Hari Singh in 1947. This historic document formally integrated the princely state of Jammu and Kashmir into the Dominion of India. Following the reorganization of the state into Union Territories, Accession Day was declared an official public holiday in Jammu and Kashmir in 2020, marked by various official celebrations and commemorative events across the region.

197Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which village of Gujarat is awarded as the Best Tourism Village by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO).
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Answer: (A) Dhordo

Explanation

Dhordo village, located in the Great Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, was recognized as one of the Best Tourism Villages by the United Nations World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) in October 2023. This prestigious accolade highlights the village for its outstanding contribution to rural development, preservation of cultural heritage, traditional art, and sustainable tourism practices, notably celebrated through the annual Rann Utsav.

198Science and TechnologyGujarat-specific
Hon'ble CM of Gujarat recently unveiled the warship of Indian Navy named after a city of Gujarat. What is the name of that warship?
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Answer: (A) Surat

Explanation

The guided-missile destroyer of the Indian Navy, INS Surat, is the fourth and final ship of the Project 15B stealth destroyers and is named after the city of Surat in Gujarat. This is the first capital warship to be named after a city in Gujarat. The crest of the warship was officially unveiled by the Chief Minister of Gujarat, Bhupendra Patel, in a ceremony held in Surat in November 2023, commemorating the rich maritime history and ship-building heritage of the city.

199Science and Technology
On which date is World Polio Day celebrated every year to raise awareness about the importance of polio vaccination?
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Answer: (A) October 24

Explanation

World Polio Day is celebrated annually on October 24 to raise awareness about the importance of polio vaccination and to eradicate the disease globally. This date was chosen to commemorate the birth of Jonas Salk, who led the first team to develop a vaccine against poliomyelitis.

200Science and Technology
Who won the women's singles event at the Abu Dhabi Masters 2023?
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Answer: (A) Unnati Hooda

Explanation

Unnati Hooda won the women's singles title at the Abu Dhabi Masters 2023 badminton tournament, which was held in October 2023 in Abu Dhabi, United Arab Emirates. She secured the title by defeating fellow Indian player Samiya Imad Farooqui in the final match, marking her second BWF World Tour Super 100 title.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1D
  2. 2C
  3. 3B
  4. 4C
  5. 5B
  6. 6C
  7. 7C
  8. 8C
  9. 9D
  10. 10D
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14A
  15. 15B
  16. 16C
  17. 17B
  18. 18B
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21B
  22. 22D
  23. 23A
  24. 24A
  25. 25B
  26. 26B
  27. 27D
  28. 28D
  29. 29D
  30. 30D
  31. 31D
  32. 32D
  33. 33C
  34. 34A
  35. 35D
  36. 36B
  37. 37A
  38. 38B
  39. 39A
  40. 40A
  41. 41B
  42. 42C
  43. 43C
  44. 44C
  45. 45B
  46. 46D
  47. 47D
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50D
  51. 51B
  52. 52C
  53. 53D
  54. 54C
  55. 55C
  56. 56B
  57. 57C
  58. 58A
  59. 59C
  60. 60C
  61. 61C
  62. 62A
  63. 63D
  64. 64A
  65. 65C
  66. 66D
  67. 67C
  68. 68B
  69. 69C
  70. 70C
  71. 71C
  72. 72C
  73. 73D
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76B
  77. 77D
  78. 78C
  79. 79B
  80. 80C
  81. 81D
  82. 82C
  83. 83C
  84. 84D
  85. 85A
  86. 86C
  87. 87A
  88. 88B
  89. 89D
  90. 90D
  91. 91B
  92. 92A
  93. 93C
  94. 94A
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97B
  98. 98C
  99. 99A
  100. 100B
  101. 101D
  102. 102D
  103. 103C
  104. 104D
  105. 105D
  106. 106B
  107. 107B
  108. 108C
  109. 109C
  110. 110D
  111. 111D
  112. 112A
  113. 113D
  114. 114A
  115. 115B
  116. 116C
  117. 117B
  118. 118A
  119. 119A
  120. 120C
  121. 121C
  122. 122B
  123. 123C
  124. 124B
  125. 125A
  126. 126A
  127. 127D
  128. 128D
  129. 129A
  130. 130A
  131. 131D
  132. 132A
  133. 133C
  134. 134A
  135. 135A
  136. 136C
  137. 137D
  138. 138A
  139. 139B
  140. 140B
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143B
  144. 144C
  145. 145A
  146. 146D
  147. 147A
  148. 148A
  149. 149B
  150. 150A
  151. 151D
  152. 152A
  153. 153A
  154. 154A
  155. 155C
  156. 156D
  157. 157C
  158. 158C
  159. 159C
  160. 160D
  161. 161D
  162. 162C
  163. 163A
  164. 164A
  165. 165D
  166. 166A
  167. 167D
  168. 168B
  169. 169A
  170. 170C
  171. 171D
  172. 172A
  173. 173D
  174. 174B
  175. 175C
  176. 176D
  177. 177B
  178. 178D
  179. 179C
  180. 180A
  181. 181A
  182. 182B
  183. 183D
  184. 184D
  185. 185A
  186. 186C
  187. 187C
  188. 188D
  189. 189B
  190. 190B
  191. 191D
  192. 192C
  193. 193D
  194. 194B
  195. 195D
  196. 196A
  197. 197A
  198. 198A
  199. 199A
  200. 200A

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