GPSC Prelims 2020 General Studies Paper II with Answers & Explanations

Explanation

The National Project on Organic Farming (NPOF) is a central sector scheme launched by the Government of India in October 2004, which falls during the Tenth Five-Year Plan (2002–2007). The project was initiated with the objective of promoting organic farming across the country through technical capacity building, the establishment of production units for organic inputs, the development of organic standards, and quality control of organic and biological fertilizers.

Explanation

During the economic reforms initiated in 1991, the Government of India adopted two primary methods of disinvestment for Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs).

The first method involved the sale of minority shares in select PSUs to financial institutions, mutual funds, and the public while keeping majority ownership with the government. This method was the primary approach utilized during the first phase of disinvestment from 1991-92 to 1998-99.

The second method was strategic disinvestment, which involved the sale of a substantial portion of government shares along with the transfer of management control of a PSU to a private sector strategic partner through competitive bidding. This second method was primarily utilized during the phase from 1999-2000 to 2003-04.

Since all the provided statements accurately describe these two methods and their respective timelines, statements 1, 2, 3, and 4 are correct.

Explanation

The Mahalwari system of land revenue, introduced by Holt Mackenzie in 1822, treated the entire village or estate, known as a Mahal, as a single unit for revenue assessment and collection. Under this tenure system, the land revenue was settled collectively with the entire village community, and the village headman or a committee of village elders was made responsible for collecting and depositing the revenue to the government on behalf of all the landholders in that village.

Explanation

The National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO) does not define or measure unemployment using a monthly reference period. The standard concepts of measuring unemployment in NSSO surveys are confined to usual status, current weekly status, and current daily status. There is no official designation or methodology under the NSSO that corresponds to a Current Monthly Status of Unemployment, making it an invalid concept in the measurement of Indian labor statistics.

Explanation

The Economic Reforms initiated in India in 1991 are broadly classified into macroeconomic stabilization measures and structural adjustment programs.

Structural reforms are long-term, supply-side management measures aimed at improving the efficiency of the economy, increasing international competitiveness, and removing rigidities in various sectors.

Fiscal adjustment, along with monetary policy, represents short-term demand-side management. These stabilization measures focus on controlling inflation, reducing the fiscal deficit, and correcting the balance of payments by regulating aggregate demand in the economy.

Explanation

The Bank Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India bills or lends long-term funds to commercial banks without any collateral. It is aligned with the Marginal Standing Facility rate and is kept higher than the Repo Rate to act as a penal rate.

The Cash Reserve Ratio is the percentage of a bank's total deposits that it must maintain with the Reserve Bank of India in the form of liquid cash, which is typically kept at a lower percentage than the Repo Rate to manage liquidity and money supply in the economy.

The Repo Rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India lends short-term money to commercial banks, whereas the Reverse Repo Rate is the rate at which it absorbs liquidity from them. The Repo Rate is always kept higher than the Reverse Repo Rate, making the first statement incorrect.

Explanation

The canon of elasticity in public finance dictates that the expenditure policy of the government must be elastic. This flexibility ensures that public authorities can dynamically vary, scale up, or scale down expenditures depending on the prevailing economic circumstances, national requirements, and emergencies. For example, during times of economic recession, natural disasters, or crises, an elastic policy allows the government to rapidly increase spending to stimulate aggregate demand and provide relief. Conversely, during periods of high inflation, the government can curtail non-essential expenditures to stabilize the economy. An elastic expenditure policy is therefore essential for effective fiscal management and responsive governance.

Explanation

Sterilization is a monetary policy operation undertaken by a central bank to neutralize the impact of foreign capital inflows or outflows on the domestic money supply and inflation.

When there is an excess inflow of foreign investment into the economy, the demand for the domestic currency rises, which can lead to rapid currency appreciation. To maintain exchange rate stability and protect export competitiveness, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) intervenes by purchasing foreign currency.

This purchase of foreign assets injects an equivalent amount of domestic currency into the banking system, which increases domestic liquidity and creates inflationary pressures. To offset or sterilize this liquidity expansion, the RBI simultaneously sells government securities in the open market through Open Market Operations (OMOs), thereby absorbing the surplus domestic currency from the system and maintaining price stability.

Explanation

Entrepot ports function as collection and redistribution centers where goods are imported from various countries, stored, and subsequently re-exported to other destinations. These ports play a vital role in global trade by acting as intermediary hubs that facilitate the transshipment of cargo, often offering duty-free storage and processing facilities to streamline international supply chains. Classic examples of entrepot ports include Singapore, Rotterdam, and Hong Kong, which manage vast volumes of transit goods destined for regional and global markets.

Explanation

The SENSEX is a market-capitalization-weighted index comprising 30 of the largest and most actively traded stocks on the Bombay Stock Exchange. A rise in SENSEX reflects an overall increase in the share prices of only these 30 select companies, rather than all companies listed on the exchange. This makes option d the correct choice.

Explanation

Prior to 1991, India's inward-looking trade strategy of import substitution protected domestic industries through heavy quantitative restrictions and high tariffs. While this nurtured domestic firms, it also insulated them from global advancements, leading to widespread technological obsolescence and low product quality.

During the 1991 economic reforms, import liberalisation was introduced to dismantle these barriers. By easing the import of capital goods, raw materials, and machinery, the policy enabled domestic manufacturers to access state-of-the-art global machinery and foreign technology. This facilitation of modern inputs was essential to modernise the industrial sector, elevate production standards, and bring about comprehensive technological upgradation to make Indian goods internationally competitive.

Explanation

The Balance of Payments Capital Account tracks transactions that cause a change in the foreign assets and liabilities of a country. External commercial borrowings represent debt liabilities raised by domestic entities from non-resident lenders. Foreign Direct Investment and Foreign Portfolio Investment represent non-debt capital flows where foreign entities acquire equity, shares, or ownership in domestic enterprises and financial assets. Because all three components directly alter the asset and liability position of the country with the rest of the world, they are classified under the Capital Account.

Explanation

Indirect taxes are levied on goods and services, meaning they are ultimately passed on to the final consumers. This addition to the cost of production and distribution directly causes an increase in the retail prices of commodities, leading to a rise in the overall price level.

Additionally, indirect taxes are regressive. Because the tax rate on any given item is uniform regardless of the purchaser's income, a lower-income individual pays the exact same amount of tax on a product as a wealthy individual. Consequently, this tax represents a much larger percentage of a poor person's total income, imposing a significantly higher taxation burden on the poor.

Explanation

Purchasing Power Parity is an economic metric used to compare the relative value of different currencies. It represents the rate at which the currency of one country needs to be converted into that of another to purchase the exact same basket of goods and services in both countries. By adjusting for differences in local price levels, it provides a more realistic measure of a nation's standard of living and economic output than market exchange rates alone.

Explanation

The formulas for calculating nominal and real Gross Domestic Product (GDP) are:

Nominal GDP = ∑(Pₜ × Qₜ) Real GDP = ∑(P₀ × Qₜ)

where Pₜ represents the current year prices, P₀ represents the base year prices, and Qₜ represents the quantity of goods and services produced in the current year.

When we multiply the current production of goods and services by their current prices, we obtain Nominal GDP. This measure reflects the market value of goods and services at prevailing market prices without adjusting for inflation.

When we multiply the current production of goods and services by the constant prices of a selected base year, we obtain Real GDP. This measure adjusts for price changes over time, allowing for a more accurate comparison of actual economic output.

Explanation

Inclusive growth is defined as economic growth that is broad-based across sectors and inclusive of the large majority of the country's labor force. It ensures that the benefits of economic progress are shared equitably among all sections of society, including everyone regardless of their economic class or social background. It inherently takes a long-term perspective because it focuses on structural and sustainable transformations of the economy rather than short-term fixes. Additionally, the approach prioritizes the creation of productive and decent employment opportunities as the primary means of reducing poverty and sharing prosperity, rather than focusing solely on the redistribution of income.

Explanation

Slowdown matches with reduction in growth rate of the economy because a slowdown implies that while the GDP is still growing, the pace or rate of this expansion has decreased compared to the previous period.

Recession matches with economy is reducing in size because a recession represents a period of negative economic growth, typically defined as two consecutive quarters of contracting GDP, meaning the actual size of the economic output is shrinking.

Boom matches with increase in the growth rate of the economy because a boom is a phase of rapid economic expansion characterized by a significant acceleration in the growth rate, rising employment, and strong consumer demand.

Meltdown matches with a sudden down in economy because an economic or financial meltdown represents a sudden, sharp, and catastrophic collapse of the financial system, asset prices, or overall market activity.

Explanation

Value Added Tax (VAT) is a multi-point tax levied on the value addition at each stage of the production and distribution chain, and it is applicable only to intra-state transactions (sales within a single state). In contrast, the tax levied on the inter-state sale of goods is called Central Sales Tax (CST). Therefore, mapping VAT to inter-state sale is incorrect.

Explanation

In the 32nd GST Council meeting held in January 2019, key changes were introduced to the registration and exemption thresholds under GST, which came into effect on April 1, 2019:

First, for businesses and individuals engaged exclusively in the supply of goods in normal category states, the threshold limit for GST registration and exemption was increased from ₹20 lakhs to ₹40 lakhs in a financial year.

Second, for special category states, including hilly and northeastern states, the threshold limit for goods suppliers was doubled from ₹10 lakhs to ₹20 lakhs.

Third, the threshold limits for service providers remained unchanged. The GST exemption for businesses engaged in the supply of services continued to be ₹20 lakhs for normal category states and ₹10 lakhs for hilly and northeastern states.

Explanation

The revenue budget deals with the day-to-day operational transactions of the government which do not create assets or reduce liabilities. These transactions have short-term implications, typically lasting up to one fiscal year.

The capital budget, by contrast, focuses on transactions that impact the assets and liabilities of the government. These transactions are long-term in nature and have implications extending beyond one fiscal year.

Both the revenue budget and the capital budget consist of receipts and expenditures. The revenue budget includes revenue receipts and revenue expenditure, while the capital budget comprises capital receipts, such as market borrowings, recoveries of loans, and disinvestment, as well as capital expenditure, such as infrastructure development and machinery acquisition.

Explanation

Debtors gain during inflation because they repay their debts with money that has lower purchasing power than when it was originally borrowed. Conversely, creditors lose because the real value of the money they receive back is less than its original value. Fixed-income individuals suffer a loss during inflation because the purchasing power of their fixed nominal income declines as the prices of goods and services increase, making it harder to maintain their standard of living.

Explanation

Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) was launched on 25 December 2000 to provide highly subsidized food grains to the poorest of the poor families. Initially, the scheme provided 25 kg of food grains per family per month, which was increased to 35 kg per family per month in April 2002. The target group of the scheme includes landless agricultural labourers, marginal farmers, rural artisans and craftsmen, such as potters, tanners, weavers, blacksmiths, carpenters, and slum dwellers. Additionally, during the expansion of the scheme in 2003, it was extended to cover all households of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (formerly known as primitive tribal households), ensuring food security for these highly marginalized communities.

Explanation

The Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI) was established as a statutory authority on 12 July 2016 under the provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016. Prior to gaining statutory status, it functioned as an attached office under the Planning Commission from January 2009. The administrative setup of the authority includes its headquarters in New Delhi, 8 regional offices across various cities, and 2 data centers situated in Hebbal (Bengaluru) and Manesar (Gurugram). All of these facts are accurate, meaning there are no incorrect statements.

Explanation

Revenue Deficit represents the excess of the government's revenue expenditure over its revenue receipts. To bridge this gap, the government must utilize capital receipts. This is done either through market borrowings from the public by floating government securities or through disinvestments of public sector enterprises.

Fiscal Deficit measures the difference between the total expenditure of the government and its non-debt receipts. It indicates the total borrowing requirements of the government from all internal and external sources, which determines the actual liability of the government accumulated at a certain point of time.

Monetised Deficit represents the increase in the net credit provided by the Reserve Bank of India to the government. This reflects the portion of the deficit that is financed through direct borrowing from the central bank, which leads to the creation of new money, rather than through borrowing from the private market.

Explanation

Visvesvaraya Plan (1934) matches with shifting from agriculture to industrialization (a) as Sir M. Visvesvaraya proposed a ten-year plan that emphasized rapid industrialization and reducing the proportion of population dependent on agriculture to double the national income.

Bombay Plan (1944) matches with sponsored by top industries of Bombay (b) because it was drafted by a group of eight influential Bombay-based industrialists, including J.R.D. Tata and G.D. Birla, who proposed state intervention to develop key heavy industries.

Gandhian Plan (1944) matches with small-scale and cottage industries (c) because this plan, drafted by Shriman Narayan Agarwal, was based on Gandhian economic principles which strongly advocated for economic decentralization, rural development, and self-reliance through the promotion of cottage and village-scale industries.

Economic Programme Committee (1947) matches with recommended for Planning Commission (d) as this committee was formed under the chairmanship of Jawaharlal Nehru by the All India Congress Committee and explicitly recommended the establishment of a permanent Planning Commission to systematically design and execute development plans in independent India.

Explanation

Payments banks can issue ATM/debit cards and provide payment and remittance services (domestic money transfers, utility bill payments, etc.), but cannot issue credit cards or extend loans/credit — making option (b) correct. Option (a) is wrong because payments banks can accept demand deposits only up to Rs.2,00,000 per individual customer, not Rs.10,00,000. Option (c) is wrong because payments banks, like other scheduled banks, are required to maintain the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) with the RBI. Since (a) and (c) are incorrect, option (d) "All of the above" is also incorrect.

Explanation

The Government of India adopted the 4R strategy to comprehensively address the issue of rising Non-Performing Assets in the banking system, specifically in public sector banks. The four elements of this strategy are Recognition, Resolution, Recapitalisation, and Reforms. Recognition refers to the transparent identification of stressed assets, which was significantly propelled by the Reserve Bank of India through the Asset Quality Review initiated in 2015. Resolution involves the speedy recovery and rehabilitation of value from stressed accounts using mechanisms like the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code and the SARFAESI Act. Recapitalisation entails infusing financial capital into distressed banks to safeguard their capital adequacy and boost their capacity to lend. Reforms focus on establishing robust governance, credit discipline, and technological integration across the financial ecosystem to prevent future slippages and ensure responsible lending.

Explanation

Treasury bills are highly liquid short-term debt instruments issued by the Government of India. Their high liquidity stems from their short maturities, which are ninety-one days, one hundred eighty-two days, and three hundred sixty-four days, combined with an active secondary market and the absolute safety of a sovereign guarantee.

Regarding the other statements, Treasury bills are issued exclusively by the Central Government of India, while State Governments issue State Development Loans to meet their budgetary requirements. Additionally, participation in Treasury bills is open to a wide range of entities including individuals, corporates, trusts, and financial institutions, rather than being restricted solely to the Reserve Bank of India and commercial banks.

Explanation

Equity shares represent ownership in a company, granting holders voting rights and a residual claim on the company's net earnings and profits, which are shared through dividends or capital appreciation. Preference shares carry a preferential right over equity shares regarding dividend distribution, allowing holders to receive a fixed rate of dividend. Because this dividend rate is predetermined, preference shares primarily earn their holders these fixed dividends, making both statements correct.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched in 2016 to provide comprehensive risk insurance for farmers against crop damage. Statement 1 is correct because the scheme offers coverage across the entire crop cycle, including pre-sowing (prevented sowing), standing crop (from sowing to harvesting) losses, and post-harvest losses (for up to 14 days after harvesting for crops left in the field for drying) caused by non-preventable natural risks.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the scheme explicitly covers yield losses caused by pests and diseases, which are classified as non-preventable natural risks.

Statement 3 is incorrect because increasing the insurance coverage from 23% to 50% of the gross cropped area was a targeted objective of the scheme rather than an achieved milestone by 2020.

Explanation

The money multiplier represents the ratio of the total money supply to the monetary base in an economy. It is mathematically expressed as m = (1 + c) / (c + r), where c is the currency-to-deposit ratio (the proportion of money held by the public as currency relative to bank deposits) and r is the reserve-to-deposit ratio.

An increase in the banking habits of the population means people choose to keep a larger proportion of their money in bank deposits rather than holding it as cash. This leads to a decline in the currency-to-deposit ratio (c). As deposits in the banking system rise, commercial banks gain a larger pool of loanable funds. Through the process of fractional reserve banking, banks lend these funds out, which are then redeposited into the banking system to generate further loans. This continuous cycle of credit creation expands the overall money supply relative to the monetary base, thereby increasing the money multiplier.

Explanation

The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) is compiled and released monthly by the Labour Bureau, which is an attached office of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. This index measures the temporal change in the retail prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by industrial workers. It serves as the primary benchmark for regulating the dearness allowance of government employees and workers in the industrial sector, as well as for fixing and revising minimum wages in scheduled employments.

Explanation

The Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-1985) initiated a transition in India's industrial development strategy. While the earlier plans, particularly from the Second Five Year Plan onwards, heavily prioritized the establishment of capital-intensive basic and heavy industries under the Mahalanobis model, the Sixth Plan shifted the focus toward strengthening infrastructure to support sustained economic growth.

Under this plan, there was a relative reduction in the emphasis and public sector outlay on heavy manufacturing industries, while resources were increasingly directed toward crucial infrastructure sectors such as energy, power, transport, and communications. The plan also marked the beginning of a gradual process of economic liberalization, prioritizing efficiency, the modernization of existing industrial capacities, and increased public investment in social infrastructure and poverty alleviation.

Explanation

A population pyramid, also known as an age-sex pyramid, is a graphical representation of the age and sex distribution of a population. By standard convention, males are represented on the left side of the graph and females on the right side. The vertical Y-axis represents the age groups, typically in five-year cohorts, while the horizontal X-axis shows the population size, either as absolute numbers or percentages of the total population.

Additionally, India benefits from a demographic dividend, meaning it has a large portion of its population in the working-age group of 15 to 64 years. This results in a total age dependency ratio for India that is significantly lower than the global average dependency ratio. Since all of these statements are accurate, they collectively make the choice representing all of the above the correct answer.

Explanation

Statement (a) is incorrect: the United States remains the largest IMF member by quota and voting share (about 17.4%), not China, even after the 14th General Review of Quotas (effective January 2016). Statement (b) is correct: under the 14th Review, India holds a quota of about 2.76% and a voting share of about 2.64% (SDR 13,114.4 million), making it the 8th largest quota holder. Statement (c) is incorrect: IMF lending facilities are available only to its member countries, not to non-members. Since only statement (b) is correct, option D ("All of the above") is wrong, and the correct answer is B.

Explanation

In January 2019, the Reserve Bank of India rationalized the External Commercial Borrowings framework to improve the ease of doing business and expand the avenues for attracting overseas funds. Under these updated guidelines, the list of eligible borrowers was significantly expanded to include all entities eligible to receive Foreign Direct Investment. In addition to FDI-eligible entities, the guidelines specifically designated certain other organizations as eligible to raise capital via this route, including Port Trusts, units in Special Economic Zones, the Small Industries Development Bank of India, and the Export-Import Bank of India.

Explanation

Under the Foreign Exchange Management (Non-debt Instruments) Rules, any investment made by a person resident outside India in the equity instruments of an unlisted Indian company is treated as Foreign Direct Investment (FDI), regardless of the percentage of shareholding. For listed companies, the investment is classified as FDI only if it is 10% or more of the post-issue paid-up equity capital on a fully diluted basis.

Explanation

National Waterways 4 and 5 remain under development and are not yet fully operational. Project Unnati is a major port modernization initiative launched by the Ministry of Shipping to benchmark operational efficiency and identify improvement opportunities across India's 12 major ports. Under the flagship Sagarmala programme, more than 500 projects spanning port modernization, connectivity, port-led industrialization, and coastal community development have been identified for phased implementation up to 2035. Setu Bharatam is a scheme launched in 2016 to construct rail overbridges and underbridges to make all National Highways free of railway level crossings, rather than for waterway development.

Explanation

The Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana is a social security scheme launched to provide death and disability cover to rural landless households and unorganized sector workers.

Under this scheme, the head of the family or one earning member of a rural landless household is eligible for insurance cover. The age of the covered member must be between 18 and 59 years. The annual premium under the scheme is ₹200 per member, which is shared equally (50:50) by the Central Government (through the Social Security Fund) and the respective State Government or Union Territory. In the event of the natural death of the insured member, a sum of ₹30,000 is paid to the nominee or family.

Explanation

The Second National Commission on Labour (2002) recommended consolidating existing complex labour laws into broader groups, which led to the creation of the Code on Wages, 2019. This code consolidates the Payment of Wages Act, 1936, the Minimum Wages Act, 1948, the Payment of Bonus Act, 1965, and the Equal Remuneration Act, 1976.

The Code significantly expands the coverage of minimum wages and timely payment protections. It extends benefits to around 50 crore workers in both the organized and unorganized sectors, specifically covering previously unprotected unorganized sector workers like agricultural workers, painters, chowkidars, and workers in dhabas and restaurants.

Workers under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS) are excluded from the purview of this Code, making them the only major group of wage employment scheme workers left out of its coverage.

Additionally, the Code covers all employees regardless of their wage payment interval, including those employed on daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly bases, by specifying explicit timelines for payment for each category. For example, daily wagers must be paid on the same day and weekly wagers on the last day of the week, meaning it does not apply only to monthly-paid employees.

Explanation

The Balance of Payments is divided into the Current Account and the Capital Account. The Current Account tracks the inflow and outflow of goods, services, and transfers between a country and the rest of the world. It includes the export and import of goods (merchandise trade) and services (invisible trade), as well as unilateral transfer payments and income receipts.

In contrast, the Capital Account records transactions that lead to a change in the assets and liabilities of residents of a country or its government. Foreign investments (such as Foreign Direct Investment and Foreign Portfolio Investment) and external assistance (such as concessional loans and external borrowings) represent capital flows that alter the asset-liability position, placing them under the Capital Account rather than the Current Account.

Explanation

Under the Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) policy of India, the automatic route is a liberalized entry pathway where a non-resident investor or an Indian company does not require any prior approval or clearance from the Government of India or the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) before making an investment. The investor or the Indian enterprise is only required to comply with the sectoral caps, pricing guidelines, and report the transaction details to the RBI within the stipulated timeframe after the remittance of funds and allotment of shares.

Explanation

The approximate percentage of gross irrigated area to the total agricultural area (gross cropped area) in Gujarat is about 47%. Gujarat has made significant progress in developing its irrigation infrastructure, particularly through major canal systems such as the Sardar Sarovar Narmada Canal project, alongside a widespread network of tube wells and wells. This development has successfully raised the state's irrigation ratio from around 27.5% in the early 1990s to approximately 47%. The enhanced water availability supports intensive cultivation and diverse cropping patterns, substantially improving overall agricultural productivity across the state's diverse agro-climatic regions.

Explanation

The Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, launched in May 2020, is built on five key pillars that serve as its foundation. These five pillars are economy, which aims for a quantum jump rather than incremental growth; infrastructure, which represents the identity of modern India; technology-driven systems, which utilize modern technology for governance and development; vibrant demography, which acts as the core strength of a self-reliant nation; and demand, which focuses on harnessing the power of the domestic demand and supply chain.

Explanation

The Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI-IW) has undergone a revision where the base year was updated to 2016.

Dearness Allowance (DA) is directly linked to CPI-IW and is revised periodically to offset the impact of inflation on wages. By changing the base year to 2016, the index represents contemporary consumption patterns more accurately, resulting in an increase in DA over time.

Additionally, the Labour Bureau intends to keep revising the series every five years to align with international standards and ensure that the consumption basket remains representative of the target population's contemporary spending habits.

Explanation

The Kuposhan Mukt Gujarat Maha-Abhiyan is a major health and nutrition initiative launched by the Government of Gujarat to systematically combat and eliminate malnutrition.

Under this program, active screening of children under five years of age is systematically carried out by frontline health workers, including Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs) and Accredited Social Health Activists (ASHAs), to identify cases of Severe Acute Malnutrition (SAM).

The campaign focuses on critical vulnerable groups by covering children in the age group of six months to six years, as well as pregnant women and lactating mothers, to provide them with the necessary nutritional support and monitoring to improve health standards and eradicate malnutrition.

Explanation

The Anna Triveni Scheme is an initiative implemented by the Government of Gujarat to improve educational outcomes among tribal communities. The scheme aims to increase classroom attendance and reduce the dropout rate of tribal girl students up to Class 8. Under this program, free foodgrains totaling 60 kg annually are provided directly to the parents or guardians of tribal girl students who achieve at least 70% school attendance. This annual entitlement is distributed as 15 kg of wheat and 15 kg of rice per semester across two semesters.

Explanation

Goods and Services Tax is a destination-based tax where the tax revenue is collected by the state where the final consumption of goods or services takes place. In contrast, an origin-based tax system collects revenue at the point of manufacture or origin of the goods and services. Because GST shifts the tax collection authority to the consuming jurisdiction rather than the producing jurisdiction, characterizing it as an origin-based tax is incorrect.

Explanation

Indias foreign exchange reserves are managed by the Reserve Bank of India and consist of four distinct components. These components are foreign currency assets, gold reserves, Special Drawing Rights with the International Monetary Fund, and the Reserve Position in the International Monetary Fund. Since foreign currency assets, gold reserves, and Special Drawing Rights are all integral parts of these reserves, none of the listed items is excluded from the foreign exchange reserves of India.

Explanation

Customs Duty is an indirect tax levied on goods imported into and exported from India. When the Goods and Services Tax (GST) was implemented, Basic Customs Duty (BCD) was kept outside the purview of GST and continues to be levied separately under the Customs Act, 1962. While imports are subject to Integrated GST (IGST) to align them with domestic taxation, the core Basic Customs Duty remains a distinct, non-subsumed indirect tax collected by the Central Government.

Explanation

The correct pairing of the tribes of Gujarat with their corresponding demographic and geographical descriptions is as follows:

The Siddi tribe is the lowest populated primitive tribe (Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Group or PVTG) in Gujarat, with a population of around 8,661.

The Kolgha tribe has the highest population among the five primitive tribes of Gujarat, numbering around 67,119.

The Padhar tribe is a PVTG primarily located in the wetland areas around the Nal Sarovar lake, situated in the Ahmedabad and Surendranagar districts.

The Patelia tribe is categorized as the smallest populated tribe in Gujarat.

This establishes the correct sequence as 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c, 4 - d.

Explanation

India has a coastline stretching over 7500 km, touching 9 coastal states which are Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal, along with 4 Union Territories which are Daman and Diu, Puducherry, Lakshadweep, and Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

The Eastern coastline is located between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal, extending from the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta in the north down to Kanyakumari in the south.

The Western coastline lies between the Western Ghats and the Arabian Sea, stretching from the Rann of Kutch in Gujarat in the north to Kanyakumari in the south.

The Western coast is divided into the Kathiawar, Konkan, Kannada, and Malabar coasts, while the Andhra coast is situated on the Eastern coast of India, making the fourth statement incorrect.

Explanation

The South Gujarat region comprises districts such as Surat, Bharuch, Valsad, Tapi, Navsari, Narmada, and Dang, making statement 1 correct.

The North Gujarat region includes districts like Banaskantha, Sabarkantha, Mehsana, Patan, Gandhinagar, and Aravalli, which aligns with statement 3.

The Saurashtra region covers the peninsular territory of Gujarat, which includes districts like Amreli, Bhavnagar, Jamnagar, Junagadh, Porbandar, Rajkot, Devbhumi Dwarka, Gir Somnath, Botad, Morbi, and Surendranagar, making statement 4 correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect because Surendranagar is a district of the Saurashtra region, whereas the Central Gujarat region consists of districts like Kheda, Anand, Panchmahal, Dahod, Vadodara, Ahmedabad, Mahisagar, and Chhota Udaipur.

Explanation

Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests match with a because they occur in regions receiving high annual rainfall of over 1200 mm, predominantly in the southernmost districts of Gujarat such as The Dangs, Valsad, and Surat.

The Mangrove Forests match with b because these coastal tidal ecosystems are distributed across 15 coastal districts of Gujarat, with the largest cover located in Kachchh.

Northern Tropical Thorn Forests match with c because they are characteristic of arid and semi-arid environments that receive low annual precipitation of less than 600 mm, typically found in Kachchh, Saurashtra, and North Gujarat.

Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests match with d because they thrive in moderate rainfall zones (600 mm to 1200 mm) and are prominently found in the forest tracts of central and eastern Gujarat, including Bharuch, Vadodara, and Panchmahal.

Explanation

Gujarat is located in the Agro Climatic Zone-XIII, known as the Gujarat Plains and Hills region. Most of the state falls under the mega-thermic thermal regime, which is characterized by a mean soil temperature exceeding 28°C. This high soil temperature is characteristic of the tropical and subtropical climate dominating the state.

The air temperature variations in Gujarat are also distinct between the winter and summer seasons. During the winter, the climate is relatively mild, and the minimum air temperature in January normally remains above 10°C across the state. In contrast, the summer season features intense heat, particularly in the arid and semi-arid northern plains. In the month of May, the maximum air temperature routinely goes over 40°C in the North and North-west regions of Gujarat, such as Kutch and the northern border districts.

Explanation

Brown Gold refers to lignite, which is also commonly known as brown coal. Tamil Nadu is the largest producer of lignite in India, while Gujarat is the second-largest producer.

Devbhumi Dwarka district is highly rich in bauxite deposits and stands as a major source of bauxite production in Gujarat.

Manganese reserves and mining areas are found in Gujarat, particularly at Shivrajpur, Bamankuva, and Pani in the Panchmahal and Vadodara districts.

Fluorspar mines are situated at Ambadungar near Kadipani, which is located in the Chhota Udepur district of Gujarat.

Explanation

Khari River (1) matches with Meets in Arabian Sea (b) because the Khari River of Kutch, Gujarat, flows southwestward and empties into the Arabian Sea.

Daman Ganga (2) matches with Madhuban Dam (a) because the Madhuban Dam is a major reservoir constructed across the Daman Ganga River near Vapi on the border of Gujarat and Dadra and Nagar Haveli.

Banas (3) matches with Meets Little Rann of Kutch (d) because the West Banas River originates in the Aravalli hills, flows through northern Gujarat, and terminates by draining into the seasonal wetland of the Little Rann of Kutch.

Shetrunji (4) matches with Meets in Bay of Cambay (c) because this river flows eastward through the Bhavnagar district in the Saurashtra region and drains directly into the Bay of Cambay.

Explanation

North East Indian tribes are distributed across all eight states of North East India, which include Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Assam, and Sikkim.

These tribes are ethnically, linguistically, and culturally associated with the Indo-Mongoloids, Tibeto-Burmese, and Proto-Australoid stocks, acting as a historical bridge between India and other parts of Asia like Southeast Asia and Tibet.

Among these diverse groups, the Garos, Khasis, and Kukis are highly prominent tribal groups. While the Khasi and Garo tribes reside primarily in Meghalaya, the Kukis are spread across Manipur, Mizoram, Assam, and other neighboring regions.

The Garo people represent the second largest tribal community of Meghalaya, after the Khasi tribe, rather than Manipur.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: India's mainland is divided into four physical regions - the great mountain zone, the plains of the Ganga and Indus, the desert, and the Southern Peninsula. Statement 4 is correct: the Southern Peninsula (Deccan Plateau) is flanked by the Eastern Ghats on one side and the Western Ghats on the other. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Ganga-Indus plains are formed by the basins of three distinct river systems - the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra - not the Cauvery, which lies entirely within the Southern Peninsula. Statement 3 is incorrect because the "Little Desert" (Rann-adjacent arid tract) extends from the edge of the Rann of Kutch beyond the Luni river southwards, not northwards. Hence only statements 1 and 4 are correct, making option D the answer.

Explanation

Igneous rocks are formed when molten rock, known as magma when beneath the Earth's surface, cools and solidifies. This crystallization process can occur deep within the Earth's crust or at the surface.

Metamorphism is the alteration of pre-existing rocks through heat, pressure, and chemically active fluids. Marble is a metamorphic rock that arises from the recrystallization of limestone under high temperature and pressure conditions. Quartzite is a hard, metamorphic rock that forms from the alteration of quartz sandstone.

Explanation

The temperature in the Earth's interior increases with depth due to the heat remaining from the planet's formation and the radioactive decay of elements like uranium, thorium, and potassium. In the upper crust, this rise in temperature occurs at an average geothermal gradient of 1°C for every 32 meters of depth.

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct: the Andaman and Nicobar Islands enjoy an equatorial climate due to their proximity to the equator, giving warm, humid conditions and high rainfall year-round.\n\nStatement 2 is correct: Barren Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands hosts India's only active volcano (Narcondam Island has a dormant one).\n\nStatement 3 is incorrect: coral reefs/beds are not unique to Andaman and Nicobar; they are also found in Lakshadweep, the Gulf of Mannar, and the Gulf of Kutch.\n\nHence, only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option A the right answer.

Explanation

A cyclone is an atmospheric system characterized by a low-pressure center surrounded by higher pressure. According to the pressure gradient force, wind always moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure. Consequently, in a temperate cyclone, the wind blows from the surrounding high-pressure region on the periphery towards the low-pressure center. Under the influence of the Coriolis force, these incoming winds are deflected, resulting in a counterclockwise circulation in the Northern Hemisphere and a clockwise circulation in the Southern Hemisphere, while maintaining their inward direction from the periphery to the centre.

Explanation

Moist Tropical Forests are typical of regions receiving very high rainfall and maintaining warm temperatures. These include areas in Upper Assam and the lower slopes of the Eastern Himalayas.

Dry Tropical Forests are distributed in areas with moderate rainfall, notably spanning the Northern Hilly regions and several states across South India where seasonal dryness is prominent.

Montane Temperate Forests are found in high-altitude areas experiencing cool temperatures and high humidity, which include the higher ranges of the Western Ghats (often known as Sholas) as well as the mountainous tracts of Northeast Indian states like Assam, Nagaland, and Mizoram.

Montane Sub-tropical Forests generally occur at elevations of 1000 to 2000 metres in the humid regions of the Eastern Himalayas and the Khasi hills of Northeast India. They are absent in the Trans-Himalayan region, which is a cold desert dominated by arid alpine scrub and dry steppe vegetation.

Explanation

Wular Lake, situated in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir, is the largest freshwater lake in India. It is a natural lake formed due to tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River.

Sardar Sarovar is a large reservoir but does not rank as the third largest lake in India by surface area. Hamirsar Lake, located in Bhuj, Gujarat, is a man-made water body built during the reign of Rao Hamir to meet the city's water needs, rather than a natural lake. Vembanad Lake in Kerala is the longest lake in India, situated near sea level, while Cholamu Lake in Sikkim is the highest lake in India.

Explanation

The Himalayas act as a formidable physical barrier shielding the Indian subcontinent from the bitterly cold and dry winds that blow from Central Asia and Siberia during the winter. This barrier effect ensures that the Indian subcontinent experiences comparatively milder winters than other regions at the same latitudes. Consequently, the mountain range serves as a major climatic divide, separating the monsoon-influenced climate of the Indian subcontinent from the dry, temperate climate of Central Asia.

Explanation

The Cold Desert Biosphere Reserve, situated in the Lahaul-Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh, is geographically located in the Trans-Himalayan biogeographic zone of India. It does not belong to the Western Himalayas biogeographical province. The Trans-Himalayas constitute a distinct rain-shadow area characterized by hyper-arid conditions, extreme cold temperatures, and sparse alpine dry scrub vegetation.

Explanation

The correct order of west-flowing peninsular rivers in India by increasing length is Sabarmati, followed by Mahi, then Tapi, and finally Narmada.

Sabarmati is the shortest among the four, with a total length of approximately 371 km. It originates in the Aravalli Range of Udaipur district, Rajasthan, and flows through Gujarat into the Gulf of Khambhat.

Mahi has a total length of approximately 583 km. It originates in the Vindhya Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows through Rajasthan and Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Khambhat.

Tapi has a total length of approximately 724 km. It originates in the Multai reserve forest in the Satpura Range of Madhya Pradesh and flows through Maharashtra and Gujarat into the Arabian Sea.

Narmada is the longest west-flowing river in India, with a total length of approximately 1,312 km. It originates near the Amarkantak Plateau in Madhya Pradesh and flows through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before emptying into the Gulf of Khambhat.

Explanation

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is constructed across the Krishna River on the border between Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The dam is named after the nearby historic Buddhist site Nagarjunakonda, which itself was named after the second-century Mahayana Buddhist philosopher Acharya Nagarjuna, rather than a river of that name.

Explanation

Peaty soils are formed in regions experiencing heavy rainfall and high humidity, which promote abundant vegetation growth. Under these wet conditions, the accumulation of dead organic matter occurs rapidly, while its decomposition is slow, resulting in soils that are rich in humus and organic content.

Usara soils, also known as saline soils, contain a high proportion of sodium, potassium, and magnesium. The excessive accumulation of these salts, often due to dry climatic conditions and poor drainage, renders the soil infertile and unsupportive of significant plant life.

Explanation

The North Eastern Region of India is situated in Seismic Zone V, which is the highest-risk seismic zone according to the Bureau of Indian Standards seismic zonation map. This region is located at the highly active convergent plate boundary where the Indian Plate collides with the Eurasian Plate to the north and subducts under the Burmese Plate to the east. This complex tectonic setting with active fault networks makes the area exceptionally susceptible to high-intensity earthquakes. In contrast, the Indo Gangetic Basin lies primarily in moderate to high-risk zones, and the Vindhyan Region is part of the relatively stable peninsular shield located in lower seismic risk zones.

Explanation

The equatorial forests, most notably the Amazon rainforest, are commonly referred to as the Lungs of the Planet Earth. These dense, highly diverse tropical regions contain an immense volume of vegetation that continuously undergoes photosynthesis on a massive scale. During this process, they absorb immense amounts of atmospheric carbon dioxide, a major greenhouse gas, and release a significant portion of the global oxygen supply. This crucial role in regulating the Earth's atmosphere, cycling carbon, and producing oxygen is why they are vital to maintaining the planet's climate and overall habitability.

Explanation

A wildlife sanctuary is a protected area established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, aimed at conserving specific species of flora or fauna, where human activities are restricted but allowed to a certain extent.

A national park, also established under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, has a broader scope focused on the conservation of the entire ecosystem, including the flora, fauna, landscape, and geomorphological features, with a complete prohibition on resource exploitation and human interference.

Under the Indian Forest Act, 1927, reserved forests are the most restricted forests where all activities, such as cattle grazing and timber collection, are prohibited by default unless explicitly permitted by forest officials.

In protected forests, the legal framework is reversed, meaning local communities are permitted to graze cattle and collect fuel wood and minor forest produce unless such activities are explicitly prohibited by the government.

Explanation

Gujarat has diverse agro-climatic conditions that perfectly support the cultivation of bajra, cotton, and tobacco. Bajra is a hardy millet crop that requires minimal rainfall between 30 and 50 cm and warm weather, making it highly suited to the dry regions of North Gujarat and Saurashtra. Cotton, the premier cash crop of the state, requires a warm climate with temperatures of 21 to 30°C and moderate rainfall of 50 to 75 cm, which matches Gujarat's semi-arid and black soil regions. Tobacco cultivation demands well-drained sandy loam soil and warm climatic conditions, which are extensively present in the fertile Charotar region of central Gujarat.

Explanation

Saturn is well-known for its prominent and extensive ring system, which is organized into seven main rings. In order of their discovery, these rings are designated alphabetically as the A, B, C, D, E, F, and G rings. They are composed of billions of particles of water ice, rocky debris, and dust orbiting the planet.

Explanation

The Frigid zones are the coldest regions on Earth, situated in the high latitudes of the polar regions. In the Northern Hemisphere, the North Frigid Zone lies between the Arctic Circle at 66.5° N latitude and the North Pole at 90° N latitude. Because of the tilt of the Earth's axis, the Sun's rays always fall at a highly slanted angle in this area. This means the solar energy spreads over a large surface area and passes through a thicker layer of the atmosphere, delivering very little heat. Consequently, this zone experiences extremely cold temperatures throughout the year, with a large portion of the region permanently covered in ice and snow.

Explanation

Basalt is a fine-grained, dark-colored mafic extrusive igneous rock. Chemically, silica (SiO₂) is the most abundant constituent in basalt, typically making up about 45% to 52% of its total composition by weight. This high concentration of silica forms the primary framework of the rock's silicate mineral structure, outweighing all other elemental oxides such as alumina or iron oxides.

Explanation

Aquatic ecosystems and lakes are classified based on their salinity levels, which are typically measured in parts per thousand (ppt):

Freshwater lakes have very low salt concentrations, with a salinity level up to 5 ppt.

Brackish lakes represent an intermediate zone where fresh water mixes with saltier water, resulting in a salinity level between 5 ppt and 35 ppt.

Saline lakes contain high concentrations of dissolved salts, with a salinity level of 35 ppt or more, which is comparable to or exceeds the average salinity of seawater.

Explanation

In the mesosphere, which lies above the stratosphere and extends up to an altitude of about 80 km, the temperature decreases with increasing height. This decrease occurs because there is a lack of solar radiation absorption since ozone concentration is negligible in this layer. Temperatures in the mesosphere drop to as low as -90 °C near the mesopause, making it the coldest region of Earth's atmosphere.

Explanation

Albedo is the measure of the reflectivity of a surface, defined as the ratio of reflected solar radiation to the incident solar radiation. Land covered with fresh snow has an exceptionally high albedo, reflecting about 80% to 90% of the incoming sunlight back into space. This high reflectivity is due to the clean, crystalline, and highly white structure of newly fallen snow, which prevents the surface from absorbing most of the solar energy it receives.

Explanation

In the Indian Ocean, including the Bay of Bengal and the Arabian Sea, intense low-pressure atmospheric systems that develop over warm tropical waters are scientifically and locally referred to as Tropical Cyclones. These storms are characterized by a low-pressure center, strong winds, and heavy rainfall.

Explanation

Sex ratio is a fundamental demographic metric used to describe the gender composition of a population. In standard demographic practice and specifically within the Indian Census framework, the sex ratio is defined as the number of females per 1,000 males in the population. This indicator is crucial for understanding gender distribution, social development, and population dynamics over time.

Explanation

Tropical cyclones require warm ocean waters of at least 27°C to sustain the large amounts of latent heat of condensation needed for their development and intensity. They quickly dissipate when they make landfall because their moisture source is cut off. In contrast, temperate or extra-tropical cyclones are front-based systems that originate from the collision of distinct cold and warm air masses, enabling them to form over both land and sea surfaces. Furthermore, tropical cyclones are highly seasonal and typically develop during late summer and early autumn when sea surface temperatures are peak warm. Temperate cyclones, driven by strong temperature gradients between polar and tropical air masses, are most pronounced and frequent during the winter season.

Explanation

Low clouds are categorized based on their cloud base height, which typically forms below an altitude of 2,000 meters (approximately 6,500 feet). This altitude group includes Stratus, Stratocumulus, Cumulus, and Cumulonimbus. Stratus clouds are uniform, low-hanging layered clouds. Although Cumulus and Cumulonimbus clouds possess significant vertical development that can extend deep into the upper troposphere, they are classified as low clouds because their condensation bases originate in the low altitude zone.

Explanation

Waves are disturbances that travel through the water, moving energy across the ocean surface. While the water itself primarily moves in vertical circular paths rather than traveling forward, the wave energy and the wave shape actively propagate across the ocean surface over vast distances.

Tides are the regular, periodic rise and fall of large water bodies, primarily the oceans. They are generated by the gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun acting upon the rotating Earth, creating tidal bulges that result in high and low tides twice a day in most coastal regions.

Explanation

A dendritic drainage pattern is an irregular, tree-like branching network of streams that develops on uniform, homogeneous rock with no strong structural control; tributaries join the main stream at acute angles, as seen in the Godavari and Krishna basins on the stable Deccan Plateau. The other pairings are incorrect: the Mahanadi and Cauvery are not classic examples of parallel drainage (parallel drainage is typical of the short, swift west-flowing streams of the Western Ghats); the Ganga and its tributaries form a dendritic, not radial, pattern (radial drainage instead develops around a central elevated point, such as the Amarkantak plateau, from which the Narmada, Son and Mahanadi diverge). Since options B and C are wrong, option D ("All of the above") is also wrong, and only option A is a correctly matched pair.

Explanation

The Amazon River flows primarily through Peru and Brazil, originating in the Andes of Peru and emptying into the Atlantic Ocean through Brazil.

The Patagonia Desert is a large, arid region located almost entirely in Argentina, extending between the Andes Mountains and the Atlantic Ocean.

The Sinai Peninsula is a peninsula in Egypt, positioned between the Mediterranean Sea to the north and the Red Sea to the south, serving as a land bridge between Asia and Africa.

The Strait of Hormuz is a strategically vital waterway that separates Iran from the Arabian Peninsula, specifically separating the landmasses of Iran and the United Arab Emirates.

Explanation

Drip irrigation is also known as trickle irrigation because it involves the slow, precise application of water drop by drop (or in a trickle) directly to the root zone of plants through a network of pipes, tubing, valves, and emitters. This method minimizes water waste due to evaporation and runoff, making it highly efficient for crop cultivation.

Explanation

According to the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India, the spatial distribution of annual rainfall across the country is classified into distinct categories. The dry category, which represents regions receiving annual rainfall between 0 and 750 mm, covers approximately 30% of India's total geographical area. The remaining areas are classified as medium rainfall regions receiving between 750 mm and 2000 mm which make up about 62%, and high rainfall regions receiving greater than 2000 mm which make up about 8%. This indicates that nearly one-third of the country receives less than 750 mm of rain annually, primarily encompassing the arid and semi-arid parts of northwest India and the rain-shadow regions of the Deccan Plateau.

Explanation

The Mahi river originates in the Vindhya Range near Dhar district of Madhya Pradesh. It flows northwards through Madhya Pradesh and enters Rajasthan, where it turns southwest to flow into Gujarat before finally draining into the Gulf of Khambhat. This distinctive U-shaped course causes the river to intersect the Tropic of Cancer twice, first during its northward flow and then during its southwestward turn.

Explanation

The geographical areas of the given Union Territories are as follows:

Lakshadweep: 32 sq km Daman and Diu: 112 sq km Puducherry: 479 sq km Dadra and Nagar Haveli: 491 sq km

Arranging them in ascending order of their area yields Lakshadweep (3) < Daman and Diu (4) < Puducherry (2) < Dadra and Nagar Haveli (1).

Explanation

The master answer key clearly highlights option (A) "1, 2 and 3" in yellow for Q092. Per Census 2011, West Bengal was indeed the least urbanized major state, absolute urban population growth (91 million) exceeded absolute rural growth (90.5 million) between 2001-2011, and Sikkim had the lowest population density among Indian states - making all three statements correct, consistent with the official key.

Explanation

The Riasi (Reasi) coalfield is located in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and belongs to the Tertiary coal system of India. Unlike the ancient Permian-era coal deposits of the Gondwana system, the coal deposits in Riasi were formed during the Tertiary period (specifically the Eocene to Oligocene epochs) about 15 to 60 million years ago. These deposits are associated with the Subathu and Murree formations, consisting of younger, highly folded sedimentary strata that typically yield lignite, low-grade bituminous, or locally metamorphosed semi-anthracite coal.

Explanation

The Mahanadi River originates from the Sihawa highlands located in the Dhamtari district of Chhattisgarh. It flows eastwards through Chhattisgarh and Odisha to drain into the Bay of Bengal. Its source is part of the Dandakaranya range in Central India, rather than the Western Ghats.

Explanation

Marble is a metamorphic rock that forms when carbonate sedimentary rocks are subjected to high heat and pressure. Dolomite, a sedimentary rock composed primarily of the mineral dolomite, calcium magnesium carbonate, CaMg(CO₃)₂, undergoes recrystallization during this metamorphic process. The original mineral grains recrystallize and grow into a tightly interlocking mosaic of carbonate crystals, transforming the rock into dolomitic marble.

Explanation

A Blue Moon is an astronomical phenomenon defined as the occurrence of a second full moon within a single calendar month. The lunar cycle, or synodic month, lasts approximately 29.53 days, which is slightly shorter than the length of most calendar months. Because of this difference, about once every 2.7 years, two full moons fall in the same calendar month, and the second of these full moons is designated as a Blue Moon.

Explanation

Air movement, commonly known as wind, is primarily driven by the pressure gradient force, which arises due to the difference in air pressure between two regions. Atmospheric pressure varies across the Earth surface because of uneven solar heating. To correct this imbalance, air naturally moves from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure. This horizontal movement of air from high-pressure zones to low-pressure zones is the fundamental cause of wind and general air circulation in the troposphere.

Explanation

Oceanic research widely recognizes five major oceans on Earth, which are the Pacific, Atlantic, Indian, Arctic, and Southern oceans. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest of these basins, covering about 165 million square kilometers, which constitutes approximately one-third of the total surface of the globe and holds the largest volume of water. The Indian Ocean is the third-largest ocean basin, covering roughly 70.56 million square kilometers, which translates to about 20% or one-fifth of the total global ocean surface area. The Arctic Ocean is the smallest of the five major oceans, making the fourth statement incorrect.

Explanation

Wheat is one of the most widely cultivated and consumed cereal grains globally. It is highly adaptable but thrives best in temperate regions with moderate annual rainfall ranging between 30 and 90 cm. Physically, a typical wheat kernel consists of roughly 12% water, 70% carbohydrates, and 12% protein. China is the largest wheat producing country in the world, while India is the second-largest producer.

Explanation

Myanmar shares its international land borders with five sovereign nations. These bordering countries are China to the north and northeast, India to the northwest, Bangladesh to the west, Laos to the east, and Thailand to the southeast. Excluding India and China, the countries that share a land border with Myanmar are Bangladesh, Laos, and Thailand.

Explanation

Food irradiation utilizes ionizing radiation (such as gamma rays, X-rays, or high-energy electron beams) to kill foodborne pathogens, insects, and microorganisms. This process significantly improves safety and extends the shelf life of the products.

The technology is termed a cold process because it does not generate significant heat, meaning the physical and chemical state of the food remains close to its natural raw form, unlike traditional thermal processing methods like canning or pasteurization.

Cobalt-60 is the most commonly used radioisotope source for generating highly penetrating gamma rays in commercial food irradiation facilities.

The treatment does not eliminate chemical contaminants, pesticides, or pre-existing bacterial toxins (such as those produced by Clostridium botulinum) that are already present in the food prior to processing.

Explanation

The standard binary computer memory storage hierarchy grows sequentially by factors of 1024.

One Terabyte (TB) equals 1024 Gigabytes (GB). One Exabyte (EB) equals 1024 Petabytes (PB). One Zettabyte (ZB) equals 1024 Exabytes (EB).

These three relationships are correct, establishing the validity of the first three statements.

The fourth statement is incorrect because 1024 Zettabytes is equal to 1 Yottabyte (YB). A Geopbyte is a much larger unit of digital storage, equal to 1024 Brontobytes, whereas one Brontobyte equals 1024 Yottabytes.

Explanation

Cholesterol is a waxy, fat-like substance that plays a vital role in the body, but high levels of it can lead to plaque buildup inside the arterial walls. This accumulation of cholesterol, calcium, and other substances causes the arteries to become thick, stiff, and narrow, a medical condition known as atherosclerosis or hardening of the arteries. Over time, this restriction of blood flow can lead to cardiovascular diseases, including heart attacks and strokes.

Explanation

Lightning is a giant electrostatic discharge that occurs between clouds or between a cloud and the ground. It carries a tremendous amount of electric energy, consisting of millions of volts and tens of thousands of amperes of electric current. When this powerful electric current passes through a tree, the natural electrical resistance of the wood and bark converts the electric energy into intense heat. This sudden, extreme thermal energy vaporizes the moisture inside the tree and ignites the organic matter, causing the tree to burn or explode.

Explanation

A geostationary satellite is placed in a circular orbit directly above the Earth equator. To appear stationary relative to a fixed point on the Earth surface, the satellite must orbit in the same direction as the Earth rotation, which is from West to East. Additionally, its orbital period of revolution must match the Earth rotation period, which is approximately 24 hours (specifically, one sidereal day of 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4 seconds). This synchronization allows the satellite to maintain a constant position relative to observers on the ground.

Explanation

When a light source, such as a bulb, is placed at the focus of a concave mirror, the light rays originating from this point strike the curved reflective surface. According to the laws of reflection for spherical mirrors, rays originating from the principal focus of a concave mirror emerge parallel to the principal axis after reflection. This produces a strong, concentrated, and parallel beam of light that can travel long distances, illuminating the road ahead clearly and improving visibility for the driver.

Explanation

X-rays possess high penetration power which makes them ideal for security screening to scan the contents of bags at airports. Gamma rays carry immense energy capable of killing cancer cells and shrinking tumors, which is why they are widely used in specialized medical radiotherapy. Visible light waves lie in the range of the electromagnetic spectrum that human eyes can detect, which directly enables us to see the physical world around us.

Explanation

Chandrayaan-1, India's first lunar mission launched in October 2008, was designed to perform comprehensive scientific investigations of the Moon. One of its main goals was to create a high-resolution, three-dimensional (3D) atlas of both the near and far sides of the lunar surface using the Terrain Mapping Camera (TMC).

The mission also aimed to identify different geological and lithological units through systematic chemical and mineralogical mapping. Instruments like the Chandrayaan-1 X-ray Spectrometer (C1XS) and the Hyper Spectral Imager (HySI) were used to map major elements such as magnesium, aluminium, silicon, calcium, iron, and titanium.

These maps and data sets directly helped scientists determine the chemical stratigraphy, composition, and nature of the lunar crust, leading to a better understanding of the origin and tectonic evolution of the Moon.

Explanation

A glacier is a massive, persistent body of dense ice and compacted snow that forms in regions where the accumulation of snow exceeds its melting over many years. Under the force of gravity, this enormous weight causes the mass to slowly flow and slide downslope through mountain valleys. As the glacier moves to lower altitudes, it eventually passes below the snow line, where warmer temperatures prevail, causing the ice and snow to gradually melt and feed into streams and rivers.

Explanation

AstroSat is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space astronomy observatory, launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in September 2015. Under ISRO's classification of satellites based on their application, AstroSat is categorized as a scientific spacecraft. The primary objective of AstroSat is to perform high-end scientific research by observing the universe and studying celestial sources in the X-ray, optical, and ultraviolet spectral bands simultaneously. Its operations and observations are proposal-driven, serving the global and national scientific communities to conduct advanced research in the field of astrophysics.

Explanation

The Nuclear Suppliers Group granted a historic clean waiver to India in September 2008. This waiver allowed India to engage in international civil nuclear cooperation and trade with other countries, despite not being a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty. As a result of this exemption, India gained access to the global nuclear market to import uranium fuel, nuclear technology, and commercial reactors to meet its growing energy demands.

Explanation

The Nagoya Protocol is a supplementary agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD). Its full name is the Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization. It provides a transparent legal framework for the effective implementation of one of the three core objectives of the CBD, which is the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of the utilization of genetic resources. India ratified the protocol in 2012, and it officially entered into force on 12 October 2014, thereby strengthening global and national frameworks for biodiversity conservation.

Explanation

Chandrayaan-1, India's first lunar exploration mission launched by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) in October 2008, played a historic role in confirming the presence of water molecules on the Moon. The spacecraft carried NASA's Moon Mineralogy Mapper (M3) instrument, an imaging spectrometer designed to map the chemical composition of the lunar surface. In September 2009, data collected by this instrument detected distinct spectral absorption features near the 3.0 μm wavelength, which are characteristic of water (H₂O) and hydroxyl (OH) molecules. This provided the first definitive, widespread evidence of water molecules and ice bound within the lunar soil, particularly concentrated near the cooler polar regions.

Explanation

The Widal test is a serological test used for the diagnosis of typhoid fever. Developed by Georges-Fernand Widal in 1896, this diagnostic method detects the presence of specific agglutinating antibodies against the somatic O antigen and flagellar H antigen of Salmonella enterica serovar Typhi, the bacterium responsible for typhoid, in the blood serum of infected individuals. A significant rise in these antibody titres confirms active typhoid infection.

Explanation

The Moon's axial tilt with respect to the ecliptic plane is only about 1.5°. Due to this small tilt, the Sun always hovers near the horizon at the lunar poles, casting extremely long shadows. Deep craters and topographic depressions in these polar regions never receive direct sunlight, resulting in permanently shadowed regions. The South Pole has a highly rugged terrain with larger and deeper craters, primarily due to its proximity to the massive South Pole-Aitken basin. This complex topography creates a significantly larger total area of permanently shadowed regions at the South Pole compared to the North Pole.

Explanation

PARIVESH, which stands for Pro-Active and Responsive facilitation by Interactive, Virtuous and Environmental Single-window Hub, is a web-based, role-based workflow application developed by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. Launched in 2018, this single-window integrated system automates the entire process of submitting, tracking, and monitoring proposals for obtaining Environment, Forest, Wildlife, and Coastal Regulation Zone clearances from Central, State, and district-level authorities. By bringing all these clearance processes onto a single platform, it facilitates a seamless, transparent, and efficient mechanism for project proponents to obtain necessary clearances, thereby enhancing the ease of doing business while maintaining environmental safeguards.

Explanation

The Soil Health Management (SHM) component under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA) aims to facilitate Integrated Nutrient Management (INM). This approach improves soil health and agricultural productivity by combining the judicious use of chemical fertilizers—including secondary and micronutrients—with organic manures and bio-fertilizers.

Explanation

The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) Scheme was approved in 2019 by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). The primary objective of the scheme is to de-dieselise the agricultural sector, provide energy and water security to farmers, enhance their income, and curb environmental pollution. Under the scheme, farmers are supported in replacing their high-cost and polluting diesel-powered agricultural pumps with clean, standalone solar-powered pumps. This effectively transitions the farm sector's energy needs from fossil fuels to sustainable, renewable solar energy.

Explanation

The Department of Telecommunications under the Ministry of Communications launched the Central Equipment Identity Register web portal to curb the menace of mobile phone theft and facilitate the tracing of lost or stolen devices. The portal acts as a central database of International Mobile Equipment Identity numbers across all telecom networks in India. When a user reports a mobile phone as lost or stolen on the portal, its IMEI number is blacklisted, preventing the device from accessing any cellular network in the country, even if the SIM card is replaced.

Explanation

Under the Central Motor Vehicles Rules, 1989, which are framed under the Motor Vehicles Act, the permissible noise range for horns has been legally fixed between 93 decibels (dB) and 112 decibels (dB). This sound pressure level is measured under standard testing conditions at a distance of 7.5 meters from the horn of the vehicle and at a height ranging from 0.5 to 1.5 meters. This regulation is designed to prevent excessive noise pollution and protect public health while ensuring that horns remain sufficiently audible for safety.

Explanation

The Muntra (Mission Unmanned Tracked) is India's first unmanned tracked armored vehicle developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

There are three distinct variants designed for specific roles. Muntra-S is developed for unmanned surveillance missions, Muntra-M is built for detecting and clearing landmines, and Muntra-N is meant for reconnaissance in areas contaminated with nuclear, chemical, or biological hazards.

This unmanned tracked vehicle was developed at the Combat Vehicles Research and Development Establishment (CVRDE), a premier DRDO laboratory located in Avadi, Chennai. Since it was developed in Chennai and not Pune, only statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The National Action Plan on Climate Change was launched by the Government of India in 2008 with eight core national missions to address climate change challenges. Among these, the urban-centric initiative is the National Mission on Sustainable Habitat, which focuses on promoting sustainability in urban planning, public transport, waste management, and energy efficiency in buildings. There is no mission named the National Mission for Sustainable Urban Ecosystem under this plan.

Explanation

The State of the World's Forests is a flagship biennial publication of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations. It offers a comprehensive, data-driven analysis of global forest ecosystems, trends in forest cover, deforestation rates, and the critical role of forests in biodiversity conservation, local livelihoods, and sustainable development.

Explanation

The National Air Quality Index (AQI) was launched in October 2014 as an initiative under the Swachh Bharat Abhiyan to make air quality information easily accessible.

It is structured around a "One Number-One Colour-One Description" format to help the general public easily understand air quality in their vicinity.

The index is calculated using eight pollutants: PM₁₀, PM₂.₅, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃, and Pb. Although twelve pollutants are specified under the National Ambient Air Quality Standards, only eight are included in the daily AQI assessment.

The index classifies air quality into six categories based on health breakpoints. The highest band with a range of 401 to 500 is classified as Severe, representing the most harmful level of air pollution.

Explanation

The National Electric Mobility Mission Plan (NEMMP) 2020 was launched by the Government of India with the prime objective of encouraging the development, manufacturing, and faster adoption of hybrid and electric vehicles in the country. This makes statement 1 correct.

To implement the plan, the Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid | ) Electric Vehicles (FAME India) scheme was formulated under NEMMP 2020. This scheme was structured with four focus areas: technology development, demand creation, pilot projects, and charging infrastructure, which validates statement 2.

The Government of India, along with NITI Aayog, set a target to achieve a 30% electric vehicle penetration rate for private passenger cars by 2030, rather than 40%. The 40% target is instead designated for public buses. This makes statement 3 incorrect.

Explanation

E-waste refers to discarded electrical or electronic devices, such as computers, televisions, mobile phones, and household appliances. Lead, cadmium, mercury, chromium, barium, and beryllium are chemical elements and heavy metals rather than e-waste itself. While these toxic materials are hazardous constituents commonly found inside electronic components, they are classified as chemical pollutants and not as a type of e-waste.

Explanation

Human cloning is performed using Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer (SCNT), which involves transferring the nucleus of a somatic cell into an egg cell that has had its own nucleus removed. A somatic cell refers to any cell of the body of a multicellular organism other than the reproductive cells, which are the sperm and egg (germ cells). Because this cloning process utilizes the nuclear genetic material from only a single individual, the resulting clone is a genetic duplicate of that single parent and carries their nuclear DNA. In reproductive cloning, the newly created embryo is cloned and then implanted into the uterus of a surrogate female to allow it to develop and be born, rather than being grown in a test tube.

Explanation

DNA vaccines are a modern class of vaccines that work by injecting genetically engineered plasmid DNA into the body.

Statement 1 is correct because DNA vaccines utilize a plasmid, which is a small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecule distinct from chromosomal DNA and typically derived from bacteria.

Statement 2 is correct because the plasmid DNA containing the genetic sequence of the specific antigen (the protein from the pathogen that triggers an immune response) is directly administered to the human host.

Statement 3 is correct because once the plasmid DNA enters the host's cells, it utilizes the host cell machinery to synthesize and express the target antigen. This expressed antigen is recognized by the immune system, thereby activating both humoral (antibody) and cellular (T-cell) immune responses to provide protection against the pathogen.

Explanation

Statement 2 is correct because satellites in a nearly circular low Earth orbit, such as a polar orbit (typically at altitudes around 700 to 800 kilometers), have an orbital speed that allows them to complete one full revolution around the Earth in approximately 99 minutes. Statement 3 is correct because as a satellite travels along this orbit, it views the sunlit daytime side of the Earth during one half of its trajectory, and upon crossing the pole, it views the dark nighttime side of the Earth during the other half of the orbit.

Explanation

The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) is a versatile four-stage expendable launch vehicle designed and operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). It is configured with four propulsion stages that alternate between solid and liquid fuels. The first stage (PS1) utilizes a solid rocket motor based on hydroxyl-terminated polybutadiene (HTPB). The second stage (PS2) uses the liquid Vikas engine powered by unsymmetrical dimethylhydrazine (UDMH) and nitrogen tetroxide (N₂O₄). The third stage (PS3) is a solid rocket motor. The fourth and final stage (PS4) comprises two liquid engines using monomethylhydrazine (MMH) and mixed oxides of nitrogen (MON). This unique alternating solid-liquid staging provides the precise thrust control required to place satellites into sun-synchronous polar orbits and geosynchronous transfer orbits.

Explanation

Barak-8 is a joint Indo-Israeli long-range surface-to-air missile system designed to defend naval platforms, including frigates and destroyers, against various aerial threats. K-4 is an intermediate-range, nuclear-capable, submarine-launched ballistic missile developed by India to be integrated into the Arihant-class nuclear-powered submarines. Akash is an indigenous medium-range mobile surface-to-air missile defense system where a standard combat group comprises four multi-missile launchers operating in tandem with the Rajendra passive electronically scanned array radar.

Explanation

Bacteria are incredibly resilient unicellular organisms found in almost every environment on Earth, from radioactive waste and hot springs to the internal organs, gut, and skin of humans, where they play essential roles in health and disease. Viruses lack their own metabolic machinery and cannot reproduce outside a host. They are obligate intracellular parasites that must hijack the cellular machinery of a living host cell or tissue to replicate. While viral infections are contagious, many bacterial infections are also highly contagious and easily spread from person to person through coughing, sneezing, or direct contact, such as strep throat, tuberculosis, and whooping cough.

Explanation

The Ecomark scheme was launched in 1991 by the Government of India to designate and promote environment-friendly consumer products. The Bureau of Indian Standards is the national body responsible for implementing, administering, and certifying products under this scheme. The Bureau of Indian Standards assesses the product against specified environmental and quality criteria, conducts inspections, tests samples, and awards the Ecomark label to eligible products.

Explanation

Agenda 21 is a comprehensive, non-binding action plan of the United Nations designed to promote global sustainable development. It was formally adopted by 178 governments at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, commonly referred to as the Rio Earth Summit, which was held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992. The number 21 in Agenda 21 signifies the global action plan to address environmental and development challenges in the 21st century.

Explanation

RDX is a powerful synthetic organic compound widely utilized as a military high explosive. Statement 1 is correct as RDX stands for both Research Department Explosive and Royal Demolition Explosive. Statement 2 is correct because the compound is internationally recognized by alternative names, being commonly referred to as cyclonite in the United States and hexogen in Germany. Statement 3 is correct because its chemical formula is C₃H₆N₆O₆ and its chemical name is hexahydro-1,3,5-trinitro-1,3,5-triazine, frequently written as 1,3,5-trinitro-1,3,5-triazine. In its pure form, RDX is a highly explosive, white crystalline powder.

Explanation

The International Space Station is a collaborative venture whose design represents a merger of several major space station programs planned during the late twentieth century. These include NASA's Space Station Freedom, the Soviet/Russian Mir-2 project, the European Space Agency's Columbus laboratory, and Japan's Kibō experiment module.

The station is positioned in a low Earth orbit where it is maintained at an altitude between 278 km and 460 km. At this altitude, it experiences atmospheric drag and must periodically undergo re-boost maneuvers to maintain its operational orbit, traveling at an average speed of approximately 27600 km/h and completing about 15.7 orbits per day.

As an orbital outpost, the station functions as a microgravity and space environment research laboratory. This unique microgravity environment allows scientists to conduct long-term research in biology, human physiology, physical sciences, and materials science that cannot be replicated under normal gravitational conditions on Earth.

Explanation

Aryabhata was India's first satellite, completely designed and fabricated by ISRO and launched on April 19, 1975, from Kapustin Yar using a Soviet Kosmos-3M launch vehicle.

The first satellite to be successfully launched into orbit by an Indian-made launch vehicle, SLV-3, was the Rohini satellite (RS-1) on July 18, 1980. APPLE was launched by a European Ariane-1 rocket from French Guiana in 1981.

ISRO's Mars Orbiter Mission, also known as Mangalyaan, successfully entered Mars orbit on September 24, 2014, making ISRO the first Asian space agency to reach Martian orbit and the first in the world to do so on its maiden attempt.

Explanation

The MH-60R Seahawk helicopter, commonly referred to as the Sikorsky Romeo, is manufactured by Sikorsky, a Lockheed Martin company based in the United States. In February 2020, India signed a government-to-government deal with the United States to acquire 24 of these multi-role helicopters for the Indian Navy to boost its anti-submarine and anti-surface warfare capabilities.

Explanation

EOS-01 is an Earth observation satellite launched by ISRO on November 7, 2020, aboard the PSLV-C49 rocket from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota. It is a Radar Imaging Satellite designed to provide high-quality imagery under all weather conditions, during both day and night. Its primary applications are to support activities in agriculture, forestry, and disaster management support, including flood monitoring and soil moisture estimation.

Explanation

All three pairs are correctly matched. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant in Tamil Nadu uses Water-Water Energetic Reactors, also known as VVER, which are advanced pressurized water reactors developed by Russia. The Kaiga Atomic Power Station in Karnataka uses indigenous Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors that utilize natural uranium as fuel and heavy water as both moderator and coolant. The Tarapur Atomic Power Station in Maharashtra features a combination of technologies, where units 1 and 2 are Boiling Water Reactors built with foreign assistance, while units 3 and 4 are indigenous Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors.

Explanation

Trachoma is an infectious eye disease caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, which is a bacterium. This bacterial infection is the leading infectious cause of blindness globally. It is transmitted through direct contact with discharge from the eyes or nose of infected individuals, sharing of towels or clothes, and through eye-seeking flies. India was declared free from infective trachoma in 2017 following the successful implementation of the World Health Organization-recommended SAFE strategy, which stands for Surgery, Antibiotics, Facial cleanliness, and Environmental improvement.

Explanation

The CEPA programme of the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands stands for Communication, Education, Participation and Awareness. It is designed to foster international and local action for the conservation and wise use of wetlands by educating communities, enhancing communication channels, and encouraging active public participation in wetland management and decision-making processes.

Explanation

The targets for the first commitment period of the Kyoto Protocol (2008 to 2012) covered the emissions of six main greenhouse gases listed in Annex A. These six gases are carbon dioxide (CO₂), methane (CH₄), nitrous oxide (N₂O), hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), perfluorocarbons (PFCs), and sulfur hexafluoride (SF₆). These specific gases were targeted because of their significant contribution to global warming and anthropogenic climate change. A seventh gas, nitrogen trifluoride (NF₃), was only added later for the second commitment period under the Doha Amendment.

Explanation

The National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG) was established with key mandates to rejuvenate the river and maintain its ecological integrity. To achieve this, maintaining minimum ecological flows is a vital objective. The maintenance of minimum ecological flows is aimed at ensuring adequate water quality by allowing the river to self-purify and dilute pollutants. At the same time, maintaining these flows supports environmentally sustainable development in the basin by preserving the aquatic biodiversity, maintaining groundwater recharge, and balancing the needs of human development with river ecology.

Explanation

The Internet of Things (IoT) is characterized by several fundamental properties that define its architecture and operation.

Interconnectivity is a core characteristic of IoT, enabling diverse physical devices, sensors, and actuators to connect with each other and with the global communication infrastructure to share data and collaborate.

Enormous scale is another defining characteristic, as the number of devices connected to the IoT network is massive, numbering in the tens of billions, which is several orders of magnitude larger than the number of traditional computers connected to the internet.

In contrast, IoT devices are inherently dynamic, constantly changing their state, connection, and context, making undynamic changes incorrect. They are also highly heterogeneous, consisting of a vast variety of hardware platforms, networks, and operating systems, which makes homogeneity incorrect.

Explanation

Lead and chromium lack the necessary nuclear properties, such as being fissile or fertile isotopes, required to initiate or sustain a self-supporting nuclear fission chain reaction. Lead is a highly stable heavy element commonly utilized in nuclear facilities for radiation shielding and as a coolant in advanced liquid metal-cooled reactors due to its low neutron absorption cross-section. Chromium is primarily used as an alloying agent in structural steels and nuclear fuel cladding to provide high-temperature strength and corrosion resistance under extreme radiation. Neither of these materials can undergo fission to release thermal energy, which prevents them from being utilized as atomic fuel.

Explanation

Diclofenac is a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug used in veterinary medicine to treat pain, fever, and inflammation in livestock. When vultures feed on the carcasses of animals that were recently treated with diclofenac, they ingest the drug, which is highly toxic to them. It causes acute kidney failure in vultures, leading to a condition called visceral gout where uric acid accumulates on their internal organs, resulting in rapid death. The widespread veterinary use of diclofenac led to a catastrophic decline of over ninety-nine percent in vulture populations across India and South Asia, which prompted a ban on its veterinary formulation in 2006.

Explanation

Mars and Venus are terrestrial planets with atmospheres dominated by carbon dioxide. The atmosphere of Venus is extremely dense and consists of approximately 96.5% carbon dioxide. Similarly, the thin atmosphere of Mars is composed of about 95% carbon dioxide. Both planets lack the active geological and biological cycles, such as the carbonate-silicate cycle and photosynthesis found on Earth, which would otherwise remove carbon dioxide from their atmospheres and store it in rocks or organic matter.

Explanation

The coronavirus disease 2019, commonly known as COVID-19, is caused by Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome Coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). This virus is a highly contagious novel coronavirus that was first identified in Wuhan, China, in late 2019. It is an enveloped, positive-sense, single-stranded RNA virus that belongs to the family Coronaviridae and primarily targets the respiratory system of humans.

Explanation

Alcohol-based hand sanitizers are formulated with specific alcohols that serve as effective antiseptic agents. Ethanol, isopropanol, and n-propanol are widely approved and used for this purpose because they safely and rapidly destroy a broad spectrum of pathogens by denaturing their proteins and dissolving lipid membranes. Methanol is highly toxic, causing severe systemic poisoning, blindness, and other health hazards when absorbed through the skin or ingested, and is therefore strictly prohibited in hand sanitizers.

Explanation

The India Meteorological Department (IMD) announced the establishment of the country's first thunderstorm research testbed in Balasore, Odisha. The facility is being set up in collaboration with the Ministry of Earth Sciences, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO), and the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO). The primary objective of this state-of-the-art testbed is to study and accurately predict severe weather systems, especially thunderstorms and lightning strikes. This is aimed at improving early warning capabilities to minimize human casualties and property damage in the eastern region, including Odisha, West Bengal, Bihar, and Jharkhand, which are highly prone to frequent lightning strikes.

Explanation

The 51st World Economic Forum annual meeting, known as The Davos Agenda 2021, was held virtually from 25 to 29 January 2021. The overarching theme of this meeting was "A Crucial Year to Rebuild Trust". The event brought together global leaders from governments, businesses, and civil society to address critical economic, environmental, social, and technological challenges in the wake of the COVID-19 pandemic, focusing on restoring public confidence and enhancing international cooperation to foster a robust recovery.

Explanation

Shaheed Diwas (Martyrs' Day) is observed across India on 30 January to mark the death anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi, who was assassinated on this day in 1948. The day is dedicated to honoring the Father of the Nation and remembering the sacrifices of all freedom fighters who laid down their lives for the country's independence.

Explanation

The Akash-NG (New Generation) is a state-of-the-art mobile Surface-to-Air Missile defense system designed and developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO).

The weapon system has been engineered to intercept highly maneuverable, low radar cross-section aerial threats. It boasts a high degree of self-reliance, having been developed with approximately 96% indigenous content involving extensive collaboration with various Indian public and private defense manufacturers.

Explanation

During the 72nd Republic Day Parade in 2021, Gujarat’s tableau depicted the famous Sun Temple at Modhera in the Mehsana district. The tableau showcased the assembly hall (Sabhamandap) with its 52 pillars denoting the 52 weeks of a solar year, along with Kirti Torans from the Solanki period.

In this parade, the first prize was won by Uttar Pradesh for its tableau themed on Ayodhya, while Tripura and Uttarakhand secured the second and third positions respectively. Additionally, the artists accompanying the Gujarat tableau performed the traditional Tippani folk dance rather than Garba. Therefore, only the first statement is correct.

Explanation

According to the report titled Ageing Water Storage Infrastructure: An Emerging Global Risk, compiled by the United Nations University Institute for Water, Environment and Health, India has over 1,115 large dams that will reach the 50-year-old threshold by the year 2025. Over 4,250 large dams in the country will exceed this 50-year-mark by the year 2050, highlighting potential safety concerns, increasing maintenance costs, and decreasing storage capacity due to siltation.

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution on December 3, 2018, proclaiming January 24 as the International Day of Education. This day is observed annually to celebrate and highlight the crucial role that education plays in bringing about global peace, sustainable development, and human rights. The first-ever International Day of Education was celebrated on January 24, 2019, to emphasize education as a fundamental human right and a public good.

Explanation

The Government of Gujarat signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Adani Ports and Special Economic Zone Limited (APSEZ), and not Reliance Logistics India Limited, to set up India's largest multi-modal logistics park.

The park is being established at Virochan Nagar near Sanand in the Ahmedabad district of Gujarat. Spanning across 1,450 acres, the project involves an estimated investment of ₹50,000 crores, which is projected to be invested with construction starting in 2021 and slated for completion by 2023.

Explanation

The Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW) is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons.

Statement 1 is correct because the treaty was adopted by a United Nations conference on 7 July 2017 and officially entered into force on 22 January 2021 after securing its 50th ratification.

Statement 2 is correct because Article 1 of the treaty prohibits states parties from the development, testing, production, manufacturing, acquisition, possession, stockpiling, transfer, use, or threat of use of nuclear weapons.

Statement 3 is incorrect because none of the five recognized nuclear-weapon states under the Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT)—the United States, Russia, the United Kingdom, China, and France—have signed the treaty.

Statement 4 is correct because other nuclear-armed countries, including India, Pakistan, Israel, and North Korea, have also not signed the treaty.

Explanation

India signed a 5.43 billion USD agreement with Russia in October 2018 during the 19th India-Russia Bilateral Summit to purchase 5 squadrons of the S-400 Triumf air defence missile system.

The S-400 Triumf is a highly advanced mobile surface-to-air missile system developed by Russia. It was designed as an upgrade of the S-300 family of surface-to-air missile systems to engage a wider range of targets, including stealth aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles, and ballistic and cruise missiles.

The delivery of all five missile systems is officially scheduled to be completed by 2025.

Explanation

The Smart Anti-Airfield Weapon (SAAW) is an indigenously designed and developed precision-guided stand-off glide bomb.

DRDO successfully conducted captive and release trials of the SAAW from Hindustan Aeronautics Limited's Hawk-i aircraft off the coast of Odisha. SAAW is a lightweight weapon belonging to the 125 kg class rather than the 1000 kg category, and it features an operational range of up to 100 km instead of 1000 km. It is designed to engage and destroy critical ground-based enemy airfield assets such as radars, bunkers, taxi tracks, and runways with high accuracy, ensuring the launching aircraft remains safe outside the range of enemy air defenses.

Explanation

In the second edition of the India Innovation Index 2020 released by NITI Aayog, Karnataka topped the major states category, while Delhi achieved the first rank among the Union Territories. Maharashtra secured the second rank in the major states category, whereas Gujarat was positioned eighth. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Explanation

The Square Kilometre Array is an international initiative aimed at building the world's largest radio telescope. It consists of thousands of antennas and radio receivers installed across designated sites in South Africa and Australia. By combining the signals from this vast network of receivers, the telescope achieves an effective collecting area of approximately one square kilometer, providing unprecedented sensitivity and resolution to study cosmic phenomena.

Explanation

National Deworming Day is observed twice a year on 10 February and 10 August as a biannual mass campaign by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India. The objective is to deworm all children and adolescents aged 1 to 19 years to improve their overall health, nutritional status, and cognitive development.

The World Health Organization (WHO) has approved and recommended the use of Albendazole tablets as a safe and effective mass drug administration treatment for intestinal worms.

Soil-Transmitted Helminths (STH) are the parasitic intestinal worms (such as roundworms, whipworms, and hookworms) transmitted through contaminated soil, rather than the name of the deworming day itself.

Explanation

The Central Sector Scheme for "Formation and Promotion of 10,000 Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs)" was launched in February 2020 to leverage economies of scale in agriculture.

Under this scheme, 10,000 new FPOs are to be developed across the country to improve market linkages, reduce cultivation costs, and increase farmers' income.

Since nearly 86% of Indian farmers belong to the small and marginal categories, the program specifically targets the integration of small, marginal, and landless farmers. By aggregating them into member-based institutions, the scheme enhances their bargaining power and access to finance, quality inputs, and modern technologies.

Explanation

Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL) bagged the contract to supply Super Rapid Gun Mounts (SRGM) for the frontline warships of the Indian Navy. The SRGM is a 76/62 caliber weapon system that serves as the main gun standardized for all major warships of the Indian Navy. It is manufactured by BHEL at its Heavy Electrical Equipment Plant (HEEP) in Haridwar, utilizing dedicated indigenous manufacturing, testing, and lifecycle support facilities to support the Indian Navy's fleet modernization and self-reliance goals.

Explanation

The Vigyan Jyoti Programme was launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) in December 2019. Its primary objective is to promote and ensure STEM (Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics) education among meritorious girl students from Class IX to XII, with the aim of creating a level playing field in fields where women are underrepresented.

Initially, the programme commenced and ran successfully across 50 Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalayas (JNVs) as knowledge centres, targeting selected girl students rather than targeting all students of the country.

Explanation

Under sub-rule 11 of Rule 54 of the Central Civil Services (Pension) Rules, 1972, in the event that both husband and wife are Government servants governed by these pension rules, the surviving child is eligible to receive two family pensions after the demise of both parents.

Following the implementation of the 7th Central Pay Commission recommendations, the highest pay scale in the Central Government was revised to Rs. 2,50,000 per month. Consequently, the Department of Pension and Pensioners Welfare revised the upper ceiling limit for two family pensions payable to a surviving child or children. The maximum limit for the pensions was raised from Rs. 45,000 per month to Rs. 1,25,000 per month, which represents 50% of the revised highest pay of Rs. 2,50,000. Additionally, the limit was set to Rs. 75,000 per month at the ordinary rate of 30% of the highest pay. This reform significantly enhances the financial security and ease of living for surviving children of deceased government employees.

Explanation

The Mandarin duck (Aix galericulata), a highly colourful and ornate bird native to East Asia, was spotted in Assam's Maguri-Motapung Beel in the Tinsukia district. This sighting was highly significant as the bird was recorded in Assam after a gap of around 118 years, having last been documented in the region in 1902. The duck rarely visits India because the subcontinent does not fall within its typical migratory route. The Maguri-Motapung Beel is an Important Bird Area situated near the Dibru-Saikhowa National Park.

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key highlights option (D) as correct: Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Tripura were the five states (along with Goa as the sixth) that completed the Urban Local Bodies Reforms mandated by the Department of Expenditure, Government of India, under the COVID-19 stimulus package borrowing conditions. Options A, B and C list combinations of states that do not match the actual set of five states named in the government's reform completion announcements.

Explanation

The United Arab Emirates launched the Hope spacecraft, also known as Al-Amal, in July 2020. The mission successfully entered Mars orbit on February 9, 2021. With this milestone, the nation became the fifth in the world, and the first in the Arab world, to successfully reach Mars. The primary scientific objective of the Hope probe is to study the Martian atmosphere, tracking weather patterns and daily and seasonal changes across the entire planet.

Explanation

World Radio Day is celebrated annually on 13 February to highlight the importance of radio as a key communication medium.

The theme for the 10th edition of World Radio Day in 2021 was New World, New Radio. UNESCO marked this edition with three sub-themes: Evolution, Innovation, and Connection, which represent the resilience, technological adaptability, and community-binding nature of radio.

The first World Radio Day was celebrated in 2012, after being proclaimed by the Member States of UNESCO in 2011 and subsequently adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 2012. The date of 13 February was chosen to commemorate the day in 1946 when United Nations Radio was established.

Explanation

During the financial year 2019-20, the Reserve Bank of India administered three distinct grievance redressal mechanisms: the Banking Ombudsman Scheme established in 2006, the Ombudsman Scheme for Non-Banking Financial Companies established in 2018, and the Ombudsman Scheme for Digital Transactions established in 2019. No separate Ombudsman for Cooperative Societies was established during this period; primary cooperative banks with a deposit size of ₹50 crore and above were later brought under the integrated scheme in late 2021.

Explanation

India and Afghanistan signed a Memorandum of Understanding for the construction of the Lalandar (Shahtoot) Dam. The dam is designed to be built on the Maidan River, which is a tributary of the Kabul River in Afghanistan. This joint infrastructure initiative is part of the development partnership between India and Afghanistan, aiming to provide safe and clean drinking water to approximately two million residents of Kabul city, while also aiding in irrigation, flood management, and local electricity needs.

Explanation

In December 2020, the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) notified the Food Safety and Standards (Prohibition and Restrictions on Sales) Regulations. Through this amendment, the regulatory body capped the permissible amount of industrial trans fatty acids (TFA) in food products, oils, and fats to 3% by weight for the year 2021, effective from January 1, 2021. The regulation also mandated a further reduction of the TFA limit to 2% from January 1, 2022, down from the previous limit of 5%.

Explanation

Ngozi Okonjo-Iweala, a Nigerian-American economist and international development expert, was selected as the Director-General of the World Trade Organization. Her historic appointment made her both the first woman and the first African to lead the global trade body, succeeding Roberto Azevedo.

Explanation

The Combat Air Teaming System (CATS) is a state-of-the-art manned-unmanned teaming technology being developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) in collaboration with the National Aerospace Laboratories (NAL) and a private start-up company.

In this first-of-its-kind project, a manned fighter jet serves as the mother ship, remaining safely inside friendly territory, while controlling multiple autonomous unmanned combat aerial vehicles (such as the CATS Warrior) that penetrate deep into the enemy zone to carry out strikes.

The CATS Warrior drone is designed to strike targets directly at a distance of 700 kilometers, or navigate up to 350 kilometers into enemy territory and safely return to its base.

Additionally, the system features a solar-powered High Altitude Pseudo Satellite (HAPS) designed to fly at altitudes of around 70,000 feet for up to three months, serving as a continuous surveillance and communication relay station.

Explanation

In the Democracy Index 2020 published by the Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU), India ranked 53rd among 167 countries, slipping two places from its 51st position in 2019. India received an overall score of 6.61 out of 10, classifying it as a flawed democracy. This index evaluates the state of democracy across the globe based on five core categories: electoral process and pluralism, civil liberties, functioning of government, political participation, and political culture.