Which of the following statements are correct?
1. GST on electric vehicles has been reduced from 12% to 5% in the year 2019.
2. GST has been reduced from 18% to 5% on electric vehicle chargers.
3. The GST rate for these items has been slashed to 0% : sanitary napkins, raw material for broom, Rakhi, marble deities.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In the year 2019, during the 36th Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council meeting chaired by the Union Finance Minister, the GST rate on electric vehicles was reduced from 12% to 5% to promote eco-friendly mobility in the country.
Additionally, during the same meeting, the GST rate on electric vehicle chargers and charging stations was slashed from 18% to 5%. Both of these rate cuts came into effect on August 1, 2019.
During the 28th GST Council meeting held in July 2018, several items were exempted from tax, bringing their GST rates down to 0%. These exempted goods included sanitary napkins, raw materials used in making brooms (Phool Bhari Jhadoo), Rakhi (other than those made of precious or semi-precious materials), and deities made of stone, marble, or wood.
2Economy
The Economic Survey 2018-19 explains how behavioural change is possible in the Indian Economy through which of the following schemes?
1. Beti Bachao Beti Padhao
2. Swachh Bharat Mission
3. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Process
4. UJALA Scheme
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2018-19 highlights several key initiatives of the Government of India that successfully leverage the principles of behavioural economics and Nudge theory to drive positive social and economic transformations.
The Swachh Bharat Mission and the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao schemes are prime examples of using social norms and repeated reinforcements to bring about mass behavioural change, transitioning towards Sundar Bharat and BADLAV respectively.
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC) has altered the credit culture and corporate governance landscape by changing corporate behaviours through the credible threat of losing control.
The UJALA scheme utilizes behavioural change to motivate consumers toward energy-efficient practices, promoting the adoption of LED bulbs to reduce energy wastage and power consumption.
3Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Zero Budget Natural Farming?
1. Intercropping with leguminous crops is one of the components of ZBNF.
2. It improves the crop productivity and soil fertility by way of fixing the atmospheric nitrogen.
3. Cow dung, urine based formulations and botanical extracts used in ZBNF help farmers in reducing the input cost.
4. The scheme is applicable only to small landholders.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) is a holistic, chemical-free agricultural model that aims to promote sustainable farming practices, restore soil health, and minimize production costs.
Intercropping with leguminous crops is a major component of ZBNF. Cultivating legumes alongside main crops provides farmers with additional income and structural crop diversity.
Leguminous crops form a symbiotic relationship with Rhizobium bacteria in their root nodules to fix atmospheric nitrogen into a plant-usable form like ammonia. This process enhances soil fertility and crop productivity without the need for synthetic chemical fertilizers.
ZBNF is built on the preparation of on-farm formulations such as Jeevamrutha (microbial inoculum of cow dung, cow urine, jaggery, and pulse flour) and Beejamrutha (for seed treatment), alongside botanical extracts like Neemasthra and Brahmastra for pest management. These preparations utilize locally sourced, natural ingredients, which drastically reduces the dependency on external market inputs, helping farmers cut down their cultivation costs.
In the context of targeted state and central policy implementations, the primary financial assistance, subsidy distribution, and capacity-building schemes for natural farming are customized to apply specifically to small and marginal landholders to alleviate agrarian distress and debt.
4Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding The World happiness Report 2019 that was released early this year?
1. Social support, trust and income are some of the factors that affect Happiness.
2. India ranked 140ᵗʰ on the World Happiness Index.
3. Finland is the happiest country for the second consecutive year.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) for the United Nations released the World Happiness Report 2019. This report ranks 156 countries by how happy their citizens perceive themselves to be, evaluating them based on six key variables: GDP per capita (income), social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity, and trust (perceived absence of corruption).
India witnessed a decline in its happiness ranking, sliding to the 140th position in 2019 from the 133rd position in 2018.
Finland secured the top spot on the list as the world's happiest country for the second consecutive year, having also topped the rankings in 2018.
5EconomyGujarat-specific
What was the second largest component of State tax revenue in Gujarat in the financial year 2018-19?
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Answer: (B) Sales Tax | VAT
Explanation
In the financial year 2018-19, State Goods and Services Tax was the largest contributor to the own tax revenue of Gujarat, accounting for approximately ₹34,889 crore.
Sales Tax and VAT, which is primarily levied on petroleum products and alcoholic liquor for human consumption that remain outside the purview of GST, was the second largest component of the state tax revenue, generating around ₹22,414 crore.
6Polity and Governance
The concept of Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) was introduced for promoting education among the tribals in India. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this scheme?
1. EMRS are set up to provide quality middle and high-level education to ST students.
2. Establishment of EMRS is demand-driven based on the proposals received from States/Union Territories.
3. The funding for such schools is from the Central Government.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation
Eklavya Model Residential Schools (EMRS) were introduced in 1997-98 with the primary objective of providing quality middle and high-level education (Class VI to XII) to Scheduled Tribe (ST) students in remote areas. The scheme operates on a demand-driven model, where schools are sanctioned based on the proposals received from State Governments and Union Territory Administrations. Furthermore, the funding for establishing and running these schools is entirely provided by the Central Government through grants allocated under Article 275(1) of the Constitution of India.
7Polity and Governance
The Pradan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana has been implemented by which of the apex body?
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Answer: (B) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in 2009-10, with the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment serving as the apex nodal ministry for its implementation. The scheme focuses on the integrated development of selected villages that have a Scheduled Castes population of more than 50%. It aims to ensure the holistic development of these villages through the convergence of various central and state schemes, along with providing critical gap-filling funds to meet infrastructural and socio-economic needs.
8Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)?
1. They are statutory bodies established under Regional Rural Bank Act, 1976
2. The first Regional Rural Bank "Prathama Grameen Bank" was set up on 2nd October, 1975
3. RRBs must follow priority sector lending norms at par with the commercial bank
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) are statutory financial institutions created under the provisions of the Regional Rural Banks Act, 1976.
Statement 2 is correct because the first RRB, Prathama Grameen Bank, was established on 2nd October 1975, following the promulgation of the Regional Rural Banks Ordinance in 1975.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the priority sector lending targets for RRBs are not at par with commercial banks. While scheduled commercial banks are required to direct 40% of their Adjusted Net Bank Credit to the priority sector, RRBs are mandated to direct a higher target of 75% of their credit to the priority sector to ensure credit availability to rural and weaker sections of society.
9Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the provisions made under the National Food Security Act. 2013?
1. The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized food grains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS)
2. Prices were to be fixed by the Central Government from time to time, but not exceeding MSP.
3. Children upto 14 years of age will be entitled to nutritious meals or take home rations as per the prescribed nutritional standards.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013 contains the following key provisions:
Regarding Statement 1, the Act legally entitles up to 75% of the rural population and up to 50% of the urban population to receive subsidized foodgrains under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thereby covering nearly two-thirds of the total population.
Regarding Statement 2, Section 3 of the Act specifies that foodgrains are to be made available at highly subsidized prices of ₹3, ₹2, and ₹1 per kg for rice, wheat, and coarse grains respectively for an initial period of three years. Thereafter, the prices can be fixed by the Central Government from time to time, but they cannot exceed the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for wheat and coarse grains, and the derived MSP for rice.
Regarding Statement 3, the Act provides a statutory right to nutritional support for children up to 14 years of age. Specifically, children in the age group of 6 months to 6 years are entitled to receive age-appropriate free meals or take-home rations through local Anganwadis to meet the prescribed nutritional standards. Similarly, children in the age group of 6 to 14 years (or up to Class VIII) are entitled to a free mid-day meal everyday in government and government-aided schools.
10Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF)?
1. NIIF is an investor-owned fund manager anchored by Government of India (GOI) in collaboration with leading global and domestic institutional investors.
2. It has been registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India as a Category II Alternate Investment Fund
3. NIIF is India's first sovereign wealth fund
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is an investor-owned fund manager anchored by the Government of India in partnership with domestic and global institutional investors. The Government of India holds a 49% stake in NIIF, while the remaining 51% is held by international and domestic institutional investors, making it a collaborative, investor-owned platform.
It is registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) as a Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) under the SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012, which allows it to raise capital and invest in infrastructure and other growth sectors.
NIIF was established in 2015 as India's first-ever sovereign wealth fund, serving as a quasi-sovereign vehicle. It operates as an investment platform to mobilize long-term international and domestic capital into critical infrastructure-related projects across greenfield, brownfield, and stalled initiatives.
11Economy
Recently Niti Aayog cleared six proposals for high-tech public transport. Which of the following proposals is/are NOT part of it?
1. Hyperloop
2. Metrino
3. Pod taxis
4. Bullet Train
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Answer: (C) 4 only
Explanation
NITI Aayog cleared six futuristic mass rapid transport technologies proposed by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways for trial runs. These six technologies include Metrino, Hyperloop, Pod taxis, Stadler buses, Hybrid buses, and Freight pipeline/railroad. The bullet train project is under the purview of the Ministry of Railways and is not part of these six proposals.
12Economy
Which of the following statements are true regarding capital gain tax?
1. Capital gain is the profit realised when an investment is sold for a higher price than original purchase price.
2. Capital gains taxes are only triggered when an asset is realized. Not while it is held by an investor.
3. Normally if an asset is held for less than 24 months, any gain arising from selling, it is treated as a short-term capital gain.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Capital gain is the profit realized when an investment is sold for a price higher than its original purchase cost. This capital gains tax is only triggered upon the actual realization or transfer of the asset, meaning that paper gains or unrealized appreciation accumulated while the investor holds the asset are not taxed. Under standard tax rules, the default holding period to distinguish short-term capital assets from long-term capital assets is 36 months, while the 24-month threshold applies only to specific classes of assets such as immovable property and unlisted shares. This makes only the first and second statements correct.
13Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA)?
1. Its key objective is that tax-payers in these countries can avoid being taxed twice for the same income.
2. A DTAA applies in cases where a taxpayer resides in one country and earns income in another.
3. India has DTAAs with more than 80 countries.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement is a bilateral treaty signed between two countries with the primary objective of ensuring that taxpayers do not have to pay tax twice on the same income. A DTAA becomes applicable in cross-border situations where a taxpayer resides in one nation but earns income in another nation, helping to allocate taxing rights between the source country and the residence country. India has built a vast network of such treaties to foster international trade and investment, having signed DTAAs with more than 80 countries.
14Economy
Recently formulated PARIWARTAN plan aims to
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Answer: (A) Revitalize stressed power sector assets
Explanation
The Power Asset Revival through Warehousing and Rehabilitation (PARIWARTAN) scheme is an initiative designed by the Rural Electrification Corporation (REC) to revitalize stressed power sector assets. The plan aims to prevent the distress sale of around 25,000 MW of thermal power projects under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. Under this scheme, these stressed power assets are warehoused and managed under an Asset Management and Rehabilitation Company (AMRC) to protect their economic value and stem the rise of non-performing assets in the power sector.
15Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the PM Shram Yogi Maan-dhan Yojana?
1. The workers whose monthly income is Rs.15,000/- per month or less are eligible beneficiaries under the scheme.
2. It covers both organized and unorganized sector workers.
3. It is an initiative by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
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Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan is a central sector scheme launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment to provide social security in the form of a monthly pension to unorganized workers. To be eligible for the scheme, the applicant must be an unorganized worker aged between 18 and 40 years, with a monthly income of Rs. 15,000 or less. Any worker who is covered under organized sector social security schemes like EPFO, ESIC, or NPS, or is an income tax payer, is excluded from this scheme. Consequently, the scheme strictly targets unorganized sector workers and is administered by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
16Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding GRAMIN AGRICULTURAL MARKETS (GrAMS)?
1. It aims to develop and upgrade existing 40,000 rural haats into Gramin Agricultural Markets.
2. It will be linked to e-NAMs.
3. It would be outside APMC Act regulation.
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Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Gramin Agricultural Markets (GrAMs) scheme was announced in the Union Budget 2018-19 to develop and upgrade approximately 22,000 existing rural haats into GrAMs.
These upgraded rural markets are electronically linked to the electronic National Agriculture Market (e-NAM) portal to help small and marginal farmers access a larger national market and get better price realization.
To facilitate smooth operations, reduce transaction costs, and allow farmers to sell directly to consumers and bulk purchasers near the farm gate, these village-level retail markets are kept outside the purview of the Agricultural Produce Market Committee (APMC) Act regulation.
17Economy
Which of the following is incorrect with reference to Logistics Performance Index (LPI) 2018?
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Answer: (D) The index ranges from 1 to 10 with a higher score representing better performance.
Explanation
The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) score ranges from 1 to 5, rather than 1 to 10. A score of 1 represents the lowest or poorest logistics performance, while a score of 5 represents the highest or best performance. The overall LPI is calculated as a weighted average of a country's performance across six key sub-dimensions, including customs, infrastructure, and international shipments.
18Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding "Kisan Urja Suraksha Evem Utthan Mahabhiyan" (KUSUM) Scheme?
1. This scheme has planned for setting up biogas electricity plants for farmers
2. This scheme will enable farmers to earn extra income and help in their irrigation facility
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan (PM-KUSUM) scheme was launched by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) to promote solar energy adoption in the agricultural sector.
The scheme enables farmers to install standalone solar-powered agricultural pumps and solarize existing grid-connected agricultural pumps, ensuring a highly reliable and cost-effective daytime power supply for irrigation facilities. It also allows farmers, cooperatives, and panchayats to set up small, grid-connected solar power plants on barren, fallow, or pasture land. By selling the surplus power generated from these plants to local distribution companies (DISCOMs) at a pre-determined tariff, farmers can secure a steady source of extra income.
The scheme is focused specifically on decentralized solar energy applications and does not plan for setting up biogas-based electricity plants, which are instead supported under separate waste-to-energy and waste management programs of the government.
19Economy
Which is correct about the opening of Non Resident External account in India?
1. NRE accounts can be opened by NRIs and OCBs (Overseas Corporate Bodies) with authorized dealers and banks in all the forms of demand and term deposits.
2. Deposits in this account are allowed in any currency.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
Overseas Corporate Bodies (OCBs) were derecognized by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) as an eligible class of investor in India with effect from September 16, 2003. As a result, the facility for OCBs to open fresh Non-Resident External (NRE) accounts was completely withdrawn, meaning only Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) or Overseas Citizens of India (OCIs) are eligible to open them.
Furthermore, NRE accounts are Indian Rupee-denominated accounts where deposits are restricted to permitted, freely convertible foreign currencies. These foreign currency deposits are then converted into Indian Rupees at the prevailing exchange rate, meaning arbitrary or unpermitted foreign currencies are not allowed.
20Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Angel tax is income tax payable on capital raised by unlisted companies from investors
2. It was introduced in 2012 budget to arrest laundering of funds.
3. However it was scrapped in the recent budget of 2019.
4. If the paid-up capital of startup entity is Rs. 25 crores or less the angel tax is not applicable.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Angel tax is a tax levied under Section 56(2)(viib) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, on the capital raised by unlisted companies through the issue of shares where the share price exceeds the fair market value of the shares. The excess realization is treated as income from other sources and taxed accordingly.
It was introduced in the Union Budget of 2012 to curb the laundering of unaccounted money and its conversion into white money through high share premiums in closely held companies.
To provide relief to genuine startups, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade issued a notification in February 2019 stating that a startup registered with the department would be exempt from angel tax if the aggregate amount of its paid-up share capital and share premium after the issue of shares does not exceed ₹25 crores.
21Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Poverty can be divided into two parts, Absolute poverty and related poverty.
2. According to 2011 census 52% population was below the poverty line
3. Poverty is defined for an urban poor, who is not able to get 2400 calories per day for a rural poor who is not able to get 2100 calories per day.
4. Rapidly rising population is the main reason for increasing poverty
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Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: poverty is conceptually divided into Absolute poverty (inability to meet basic subsistence needs) and Relative poverty (deprivation compared to the general standard of living in society). Statement 2 is incorrect: as per estimates based on the 2011-12 Tendulkar Committee methodology, roughly 22% (about 21.9%) of India's population was below the poverty line, not 52%. Statement 3 is incorrect: the calorie norms are the reverse of what is stated here — the rural poverty line is defined at 2400 calories per person per day, while the urban poverty line is defined at 2100 calories per person per day (rural norms are higher due to greater physical labour requirements). Statement 4 is correct: rapidly rising population is widely cited as a main reason for increasing poverty, since it puts pressure on limited resources, lowers per capita income and availability of goods/services, and strains employment and infrastructure. Hence, only statements 1 and 4 are correct, making option C the right answer.
22EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the economy of Gujarat?
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Answer: (D) Gujarat has one of the lowest unemployment rates among the States in India
Explanation
Gujarat consistently exhibits one of the lowest unemployment rates among all Indian states. According to reports such as the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) for the 2017-18 and 2018-19 periods, Gujarat recorded an exceptionally low unemployment rate compared to the national average. The state's highly industrialized economy, characterized by robust sectors in manufacturing, textiles, chemicals, and pharmaceuticals, alongside a strong entrepreneurial culture, ensures high labor force participation and steady employment generation. This diverse industrial landscape and active labor market keep joblessness in the state at minimal levels relative to other major Indian states.
23Economy
Which one of the following is not a part of 10-point vision for the decade as per Union Budget 2019-20?
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Answer: (D) Electronic fund raising platform under the regulatory ambit of SEBI
Explanation
The proposal to create an electronic fundraising platform, commonly referred to as the Social Stock Exchange, under the regulatory ambit of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is a separate, specific policy initiative announced in the Union Budget 2019-20 to help social enterprises and voluntary organisations raise capital. It is not included as one of the tenets of the 10-point Vision for the Decade.
24Economy
Which of the following is not a measure adopted by government to make India a more attractive FDI destination?
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Answer: (A) Insurance intermediate to get 75% FDI
Explanation
In the Union Budget 2019-20, the Government of India proposed to permit 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under the automatic route for insurance intermediaries (which includes insurance brokers, third-party administrators, web aggregators, and loss assessors) rather than 75%. Prior to this policy change, the FDI limit for insurance intermediaries was capped at 49%. Thus, the proposal was to allow 100% foreign ownership in this sector to boost insurance penetration, enhance distribution capabilities, and attract foreign capital.
25Polity and Governance
Aayakar Setu which is seen in the news is:
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Answer: (C) App launched by CBDT that allows entities track TD, pay taxes and apply for permanent account number (PAN)
Explanation
Aayakar Setu is a mobile application and digital taxpayer service module launched by the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) in July 2017. Designed as an interactive bridge between taxpayers and the government, the app compiles multiple informative and useful tax services into a single platform. It allows users and entities to track Tax Deducted at Source (TDS), make direct tax payments, access calculators, and apply for a Permanent Account Number (PAN). By providing these services directly on a digital platform, it aims to reduce physical interface with tax authorities and simplify tax compliance.
26Economy
Which one of the following is not the objective of the National Manufacturing Policy of India?
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Answer: (C) To build national capabilities in roadways
Explanation
The National Manufacturing Policy, released in 2011, is designed to enhance the share of manufacturing in the national economy, increase employment, and improve the global competitiveness of Indian industries. Building national capabilities in roadways is not an objective of this policy. While infrastructure is a key facilitator for manufacturing, general road construction and the development of national highway networks fall entirely under the mandate of the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways and other infrastructure-specific programs, rather than the industrial and manufacturing framework of the National Manufacturing Policy.
27Economy
The Government of India permitted the department of commerce to give focused attention to 12 identified "Champion Services" for promoting their development. These include
1. Construction and related engineering services
2. Environmental services
3. Information Technology and Information enabled services
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Action Plan for Champion Sectors in Services, approved by the Union Cabinet, focuses on twelve designated champion services sectors to realize their developmental potential. These twelve sectors are Information Technology and Information Technology enabled Services (IT and ITeS), Tourism and Hospitality Services, Medical Value Travel, Transport and Logistics Services, Accounting and Finance Services, Audio Visual Services, Legal Services, Communication Services, Construction and Related Engineering Services, Environmental Services, Financial Services, and Education Services. Because construction and related engineering services, environmental services, and information technology and information enabled services are all part of this identified list, all three specified services are correct.
28Economy
The agricultural credit of the Indian farmers is classified into three categories on the basis of period, which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
1. Short Term Credit: up to 12 months period
2. Medium term Credit: between 15 months and 5 years
3. Long term credit: more than 5 years
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Agricultural credit in India is categorized based on the tenure of the loan into three distinct types:
Short-term credit is intended for meeting working capital requirements such as purchasing seeds, manure, fertilizers, and paying wages. The duration for this credit is up to 15 months.
Medium-term credit is provided for a period ranging between 15 months and 5 years. Farmers typically use this credit to purchase cattle, agricultural implements, and pumping sets.
Long-term credit is granted for a period of more than 5 years, often extending up to 15 to 20 years. This credit is used for making permanent improvements on land, buying additional land, or purchasing heavy machinery like tractors.
Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
29Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding UNESCO's Heritage sites in India?
1. Old Delhi became the 2nd Heritage city in India followed by Jaipur in the year 2019
2. Ahmedabad became the first Heritage City in India in the year 2018
3. With the inclusion of Jaipur, the number of heritage sites across India that are on UNESCO World heritage list, has grown to 38.
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Answer: (B) 3 only
Explanation
The Walled City of Jaipur was inscribed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in July 2019 during the 43rd session of the World Heritage Committee held in Baku, Azerbaijan. With this successful inscription, India achieved its 38th World Heritage Site, consisting of 30 cultural properties, 7 natural properties, and 1 mixed site.
30Economy
The difference between the "Total revenue" and "total expenditure plus market borrowings and other liabilities" of Government of India is called as ______.
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Answer: (C) Budget Deficit
Explanation
In the context of the Government of India's public finance, the Budget Deficit is defined as the difference between the total expenditure and the total receipts of the government.
The total receipts consist of revenue receipts and capital receipts. Capital receipts are further divided into non-debt capital receipts (such as loan recoveries and disinvestment proceeds) and debt capital receipts (which include market borrowings and other liabilities).
If we define Total Revenue as the sum of all non-debt receipts (Revenue Receipts + Non-Debt Capital Receipts), the total receipts can be expressed as:
Total Receipts = Total Revenue + Market Borrowings and other liabilities
The Budget Deficit is calculated as:
Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts
Substituting the components of Total Receipts into the formula:
Budget Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Total Revenue + Market Borrowings and other liabilities)
Therefore, the difference between the Total Revenue and the sum of total expenditure plus market borrowings and other liabilities represents the Budget Deficit of the government.
31Economy
According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, "Data" has been presented as ______.
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Answer: (B) Public Good
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2018-19, in its chapter titled Data Of the People, By the People, For the People, highlights the transition towards treating data as a public good. It emphasizes that data of societal interest is generated by the public and should be utilized to enhance social welfare and governance. Since the private sector may not generate data in socially optimal quantities because of profit constraints, the government must view data as a public good and invest in its creation, integration, and security to improve the targeted delivery of public services and enable evidence-based policymaking.
32EconomyGujarat-specific
Ministry of Food Processing Industries, New Delhi (MOFPI) has a number of schemes for capital investment and other subsidies in the food processing sector. Which is the nodal agency in Gujarat to implement schemes of MOFPI?
The Gujarat Agro Industries Corporation Ltd. is the designated state nodal agency in Gujarat for implementing various schemes, subsidies, and promotional policies of the Ministry of Food Processing Industries, Government of India.
The corporation plays a critical role in facilitating capital investment and infrastructure development in the food processing sector. It is responsible for receiving, scrutinizing, and recommending applications for financial assistance and subsidies, such as those under the Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises scheme, thereby acting as a bridge between local agri-entrepreneurs and the central ministry.
33Economy
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding "India improved its rank to 77th in the Ease of Doing Business Index for the year 2018"?
1. The biggest gain was in the indicator of Construction permits
2. India now ranks first among the South Asian countries
3. India now is among top 25 countries on three indicators getting electricity, getting credit and protecting minority investors.
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
All three statements regarding India’s performance in the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Report 2019 (published in 2018) are factually correct.
First, India’s most significant improvement was indeed registered in the Dealing with Construction Permits indicator, where the country’s rank jumped 129 places from 181st in the previous year to 52nd.
Second, with an overall rank of 77th, India emerged as the top-ranked country among South Asian nations, ahead of Bhutan which was positioned at 81st.
Third, India secured a position in the top 25 global economies on three parameters: protecting minority investors (ranked 7th), getting credit (ranked 22nd), and getting electricity (ranked 24th).
Since all three statements are correct, none of them are incorrect.
34Economy
The Union Government's mobile application Vidyut PRAVAH aims at ______.
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Answer: (A) Providing information about power availability in India on real time basis.
Explanation
The Union Government's mobile application Vidyut PRAVAH (Electricity, Price Availability and Highlights) was launched by the Ministry of Power to provide real-time information on power availability in India. It offers transparency by sharing data on current power demand met, surplus power, shortages, and price trends on the power exchange. This helps consumers and other stakeholders track the electricity supply and demand status across different states and UTs in India.
35Economy
Who among the following notable economists estimated India's per capita income during the Colonial period?
1. Dadabhai Naoroji
2. William Digby
3. V.K.R.V. Rao
4. R.C. Desai
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
During the British colonial rule in India, the colonial administration made no official attempt to estimate India's national income and per capita income. Consequently, several individual economists and researchers made pioneering attempts to calculate these figures to highlight the economic condition of India.
Dadabhai Naoroji made the first systematic attempt to estimate India's national income for the year 1867-68 in his landmark work, calculating the per capita income to be ₹20.
William Digby made estimates for late nineteenth-century India, particularly around 1899, which showed a low per capita income of ₹18 to highlight colonial exploitation.
V.K.R.V. Rao applied the first rigorous and scientific methodology to estimate India's national and per capita income for the year 1931-32, which is widely considered the most reliable estimate of the colonial era.
R.C. Desai estimated the national income and consumer expenditure of India for the period 1931-32 to 1940-41, providing critical insights into the living standards of Indians during the late colonial era.
36Economy
Gadgil formula was introduced for devolution of tax revenue from the Centre to the States for the first time in the year ______.
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Answer: (B) 1969-70
Explanation
The Gadgil formula was formulated in 1969 by Dr. D.R. Gadgil, the then Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission of India. It was introduced during the Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969–74) to determine the allocation of Central assistance for State plans. Prior to this, the allocation of central assistance to states was largely ad-hoc and discretionary. The introduction of this formula in the fiscal year 1969-70 established an objective, criteria-based framework for resource distribution and devolution from the Centre to the States, based on defined parameters such as population, per capita income, tax effort, and special problems of the states.
37Economy
Ecological footprints is measured in the unit ______.
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Answer: (A) Global Hectares
Explanation
The ecological footprint measures the amount of biologically productive land and water area required to produce the resources an individual, population, or activity consumes and to absorb the waste they generate. This measurement is standardized using global hectares (gha). A global hectare represents a biologically productive hectare with world average productivity, allowing for a standardized comparison of resource consumption and waste assimilation across different regions and ecosystems globally.
38Economy
Which of the following is not related to monetary policy of the RBI?
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Answer: (C) Direct tax rate
Explanation
The direct tax rate is a component of fiscal policy, which is formulated and managed by the Ministry of Finance, Government of India. Unlike monetary policy, which is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India to control money supply and interest rates, fiscal policy utilizes taxation and government spending to influence the nation's economy.
39Economy
The Idea of Green Finance was first mentioned in the ______.
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Answer: (A) UN document at the UN conference on sustainable development (Rio+20)
Explanation
The concept of green finance gained major international prominence and was formally integrated into global policy during the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development (Rio+20) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 2012. The conference's key outcome document, "The Future We Want," highlighted the transition toward a green economy in the context of sustainable development and poverty eradication. This landmark document emphasized the mobilization of financial resources from both public and private sectors to achieve sustainable goals, marking the first formal mention and systematic recognition of green finance mechanisms within a major UN sustainable development framework. At this event, governments, international financial institutions, and the private sector pledged hundreds of billions of dollars to clean energy, climate adaptation, and sustainable development initiatives, laying the groundwork for the modern global green finance architecture.
40Economy
Which of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (C) Both A and B
Explanation
The People's Plan was drafted by the Marxist leader M.N. Roy in 1945 on behalf of the Indian Federation of Labour, emphasizing agricultural development and the nationalization of land. Sir M. Visvesvaraya, a pioneer of Indian planning, authored the landmark book Planned Economy for India in 1934, which presented the first systematic blueprint for the economic development of the country.
41Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not true about Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)?
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Answer: (B) There is a cap on family size and age of members
Explanation
Under the Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Aarogya Yojana, there is no restriction or cap on family size, age, or gender of the beneficiary members. This design ensures that every member of an eligible household is covered, specifically preventing the exclusion of vulnerable individuals such as women, children, and the elderly, who might otherwise be omitted if a cap on family size or age limits were enforced.
42Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited
2. MUDRA has three schemes Shishu, Kishor and Tarun
3. Mudra Scheme can fund heavy and big industries also
4. MUDRA loans include business installment loan, commercial vehicle loan etc.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
MUDRA stands for Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Limited, which is a refinancing institution set up by the Government of India to provide funding to non-corporate, non-farm sector micro and small enterprises. Under the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana, loans are categorized into three distinct schemes based on the funding stage of the beneficiary: Shishu for loans up to ₹50,000, Kishor for loans above ₹50,000 and up to ₹5 lakh, and Tarun for loans above ₹5 lakh and up to ₹10 lakh. These loans are designed to support various micro-business activities and include financial products like business installment loans, commercial vehicle loans, and working capital requirements to help small-scale entrepreneurs generate income.
43Geography
Consider the following statements:
1. Agriculture crop year in India is July to June.
2. Kharif season is from July to October.
3. Rabi season is October to March.
4. Jowar, Bajra and Maize are main Rabi crops in India.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The agricultural crop year in India begins on July 1 and concludes on June 30 of the subsequent year. The cropping pattern is divided into three major seasons: Kharif, Rabi, and Zaid. The Kharif cropping season coincides with the onset of the southwest monsoon, typically lasting from July to October. The Rabi cropping season begins with the onset of winter, running from October to March. Jowar, Bajra, and Maize are major Kharif crops since they require warm weather and substantial moisture for their growth, while crops like wheat, barley, peas, gram, and mustard are the primary Rabi crops.
44Economy
An upsurge has been seen in the NPAs (non-performing assets) of public sector banks recently. Select the correct factors responsible for it.
1. Lower economic growth in the country
2. Aggressive lending by banks in the past, especially during good times
3. Lack of right loan recovery legal provisions
4. Banks switching over to a system based identification of NPAs
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The rise in Non-Performing Assets of public sector banks in India can be attributed to all four factors.
First, lower economic growth directly reduces corporate profitability and revenues, making it difficult for borrowers to service their debt obligations.
Second, aggressive lending by banks during the high-growth phase to infrastructure, steel, and power sectors, often with lax credit appraisal, resulted in highly leveraged projects that eventually became unviable due to regulatory and fuel supply issues.
Third, the lack of an efficient, time-bound loan recovery mechanism and legal framework before the implementation of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code led to prolonged delays in resolving bad loans through older channels like Debt Recovery Tribunals and SARFAESI.
Fourth, the transition to system-based automatic identification of non-performing assets and the Reserve Bank of India's Asset Quality Review forced banks to stop manually restructuring bad loans and proactively declare hidden stressed assets on their balance sheets.
45Economy
The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that _______________.
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Answer: (B) Individual banks should adopt particular district for intensive development
Explanation
The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in December 1969 based on the recommendations of the Gadgil Study Group and the Nariman Committee. The scheme adopted an area approach to rural credit and financial inclusion. Under this model, individual commercial banks are allotted specific districts to act as the lead bank. The lead bank is responsible for surveying the resource potential, estimating credit gaps, coordinating with other financial institutions and local government administrative bodies, and preparing the District Credit Plan to ensure the intensive and integrated development of the designated district.
46Economy
Which of the following come under the classification of small savings schemes in India?
1. Postal deposits comprising savings account, recurring deposits, time deposits of varying maturities and monthly income schemes
2. Savings certificates comprising the national small savings certificates and Kisan Vikas Patra
3. Social Security Schemes comprising the public provident fund and senior citizens savings scheme
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The National Small Savings Fund, established in the Public Account of India, pools the collections from various small savings instruments. These instruments are officially classified into three distinct categories. First, postal deposits comprise savings accounts, recurring deposits, time deposits of varying maturities, and monthly income schemes. Second, savings certificates include instruments like the National Savings Certificate and Kisan Vikas Patra. Third, social security schemes encompass the Public Provident Fund, the Senior Citizens Savings Scheme, and the Sukanya Samriddhi Account. All three classifications represent the core components of the small savings portfolio managed by the government to encourage household savings across the nation.
47Economy
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Economic Survey 2018-19?
1. The Economic Survey 2018-19 suggest that focus should shift from land productivity to irrigation water productivity.
2. Almost 89% of the ground water extracted is used for irrigation.
3. Crops such as paddy and sugarcane consume more than 60% of irrigation water.
4. The fertilizer consumption which was stable since 2002 has shown continuously increasing trend after 2011.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2018-19 emphasizes that Indian agriculture needs to shift its focus from land productivity to irrigation water productivity to manage critical water resource challenges. It mentions that almost 89% of the groundwater extracted in India is utilized for irrigation purposes. Furthermore, highly water-guzzling crops like paddy and sugarcane account for more than 60% of the irrigation water consumption in the country. On the other hand, the trend of fertilizer consumption in India was continually increasing from 2002 onwards and exhibited a declining trend after 2011, making the fourth statement incorrect.
48Economy
Which of the following is/are the objectives of land reforms in India?
1. Abolition of Intermediaries
2. Tenancy Reforms
3. Reorganization of Agriculture
4. Introduction of High Yielding Varieties
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation
Land reforms in India post-independence were institutional measures aimed at establishing social justice, removing exploitative structures, and improving agricultural productivity. The first phase involved the abolition of intermediaries such as Zamindars and Jagirdars to establish a direct relationship between the state and the actual tillers of the soil. The second component, tenancy reforms, focused on regulating rent, providing security of tenure, and granting ownership rights to tenants. The third component, reorganization of agriculture, focused on land ceiling limits to redistribute surplus land to landless laborers, along with the consolidation of fragmented land holdings to make farming more economically viable.
49Economy
Wages paid under MNREGA scheme has now been linked with ____________.
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Answer: (B) CPI for agricultural labour
Explanation
Wages paid under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA) are revised and notified annually by the Central Government based on the Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Labourers (CPI-AL). This index, compiled and published by the Labour Bureau under the Ministry of Labour and Employment, measures changes over time in the retail prices of a fixed basket of goods and services consumed by agricultural labourers. This annual indexation ensures that the wages under the social security scheme are periodically adjusted to compensate workers for rural inflation and changes in the cost of living.
50Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding e-Shakti which is a pilot project of National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) for digitization of Self Help Groups (SHGs)?
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Answer: (C) Both A and B
Explanation
The e-Shakti initiative of NABARD is a pilot project launched for the digitization of Self-Help Groups (SHGs) across India.
The primary objectives of this initiative include:
Improving the quality of bookkeeping of SHGs by replacing manual ledger maintenance with digital data entry, which reduces errors, increases transparency, and saves time.
Creating a robust Management Information System (MIS) to capture real-time financial and non-financial data of SHGs. This database enables banks to assess the creditworthiness of SHGs easily and make informed, hassle-free credit decisions.
Integrating and main-streaming SHG members with the national Financial Inclusion agenda by bringing them under the fold of formal banking and financial systems, facilitating access to a wider range of financial services.
51Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER)?
1. It is a Sub-Mission under National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)
2. Developing crop specific organic production clusters with necessary infrastructural, technical and financial support
3. This scheme is implemented in the States of Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Mission Organic Value Chain Development for North Eastern Region (MOVCDNER) is a Central Sector Scheme launched by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. It is implemented as a Sub-Mission under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
The scheme focuses on the development of certified organic production in a value chain mode to link growers with consumers. It aims to develop crop-specific organic production clusters with necessary infrastructural, technical, and financial support to transition traditional subsistence farming into sustainable commercial organic enterprises.
This scheme is actively implemented in all the eight North Eastern States of India, namely Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura.
52Geography
If a ship sailing from Tokyo (Japan) on Sunday at 8 AM for San Francisco (USA) takes 8 hours to reach there. On which day it will reach there?
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Answer: (B) On Saturday
Explanation
Tokyo is located in the Japan Standard Time zone (UTC+9), while San Francisco is in the Pacific Standard Time zone (UTC-8). Tokyo is 17 hours ahead of San Francisco.
When the ship departs Tokyo on Sunday at 8 AM, the local time in San Francisco is calculated by subtracting 17 hours from the Tokyo time:
Sunday 8 AM - 17 hours = Saturday 3 PM.
Since the voyage takes 8 hours, we add the travel time to the local departure time in San Francisco:
Saturday 3 PM + 8 hours = Saturday 11 PM.
The ship reaches San Francisco on Saturday.
53Geography
Which among the following air pressure belt is called "Horse Latitude"?
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Answer: (B) Subtropical high pressure belt
Explanation
The subtropical high-pressure belts, situated at approximately 30° to 35° latitude in both the Northern and Southern hemispheres, are characterized by high pressure, dry descending air, and extremely weak winds or calm conditions. Historically, Spanish sailing vessels transporting horses to the Americas frequently became stranded or becalmed in these latitudes due to the lack of wind. To conserve drinking water and lighten the ships in hopes of catching a breeze, sailors would cast horses overboard, which led to these regions being called the Horse Latitudes.
54Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding coral reefs?
1. Coralite is the house of the corals
2. Coral are living organisms
3. Reefs are uncemented and soft structure of calcium carbonate
4. Reefs are cemented and hard structure of calcium carbonate
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Corals are marine invertebrates belonging to the phylum Cnidaria. Individual coral animals are called polyps, which are indeed living organisms. Each polyp secretes a protective exoskeleton of calcium carbonate, and the cup-shaped skeletal structure in which the polyp lives is known as a corallite. As colonies grow, new polyps deposit calcium carbonate on top of the skeletons of older generations. Over long periods, these skeletons accumulate and undergo biochemical processes that cement them together into rigid, wave-resistant, and hard structures known as coral reefs. This cementation process involves coralline algae and chemical precipitation, converting the loose skeletal components into a solid, durable calcareous framework.
55Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding landslide vulnerability zones in India?
1. Steep and rainy slopes of Western Ghats and Nilgiris fall in very high landslide vulnerability zone
2. States from the north-eastern region except the plains of Assam are covered under moderate to low landslide vulnerability zone
3. Coastal regions of the southern states fall under high landslide vulnerability zone
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the steep and high-rainfall slopes of the Western Ghats and Nilgiris are highly unstable and prone to frequent landslides, classifying them under the Very High Landslide Vulnerability Zone.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the states of the north-eastern region, with the exception of the plains of Assam, are covered under the High Landslide Vulnerability Zone, rather than the moderate to low zone.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the coastal regions of the southern states are flat plains that are highly stable and generally safe from landslides, classifying them outside the high landslide vulnerability zone.
56Economy
Which of the following statements are true with reference to Economic Survey 2018-19?
1. The annual population growth rate is set to increase from 1.1% in 2011-21 to 1.5% in 2031-41.
2. The service sector (excluding construction) has a share of 54.3% to India's Gross Value Added (GVA) in 2018-19.
3. Share of employment of service sector is at 34%.
4. India accounts for 18% of the world's population but uses only 6% of world's primary energy.
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
According to the Economic Survey 2018-19, the annual population growth rate of India is set to decline, not increase, from 1.1% in 2011-21 to 0.5% in 2031-41. This makes statement 1 incorrect.
The services sector (excluding construction) accounted for a 54.3% share of India's Gross Value Added (GVA) in 2018-19, which makes statement 2 correct.
The services sector's share of employment was estimated at 34% in 2017, showing that the sector does not generate jobs in proportion to its GVA share, making statement 3 correct.
Additionally, the survey highlights that India accounts for 18% of the global population but utilizes only 6% of the world's primary energy, which makes statement 4 correct.
57Geography
The duration of Dawn and Twilight is of maximum period at _____________.
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Answer: (D) The Poles
Explanation
Dawn and twilight refer to the transitional periods of partial light before sunrise and after sunset, caused by the scattering of sunlight in the upper atmosphere. The duration of this light depends on the angle at which the sun crosses the horizon. Near the equator, the sun rises and sets almost vertically, crossing the horizon rapidly and resulting in a brief twilight period. As latitude increases towards the poles, the sun's apparent path across the horizon becomes highly oblique. At the poles, the sun's path is at an extremely shallow angle to the horizon. Because of this very gradual, slanted path, the sun remains just below the horizon for weeks at a time, resulting in dawn and twilight lasting for a maximum period of several weeks.
58Geography
Which one of the following water bodies contains highest salinity?
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Answer: (A) Dead Sea
Explanation
The Dead Sea is a landlocked endorheic lake with no outlets, meaning water can only escape through evaporation. Because of the extremely hot and arid climate of the Jordan Rift Valley, evaporation rates are exceptionally high. As freshwater evaporates, it leaves behind all the dissolved salts and minerals carried into it by the Jordan River and other tributaries. This continuous process over thousands of years has accumulated massive amounts of minerals, resulting in an exceptionally high salinity level of approximately 34.2%.
59Geography
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Rotterdam Convention - Prior consent of trade for hazardous chemicals and pesticides
2. Basel Convention - Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes
3. Minamata convention - control adverse effects of lead on human health
4. Stockholm convention - restrict the production and use of persistent organic pollutants
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Rotterdam Convention promotes shared responsibility and cooperative efforts among parties in the international trade of certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides through the Prior Informed Consent procedure.
The Basel Convention regulates the transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and other wastes, obligating its parties to ensure that such wastes are managed and disposed of in an environmentally sound manner.
The Stockholm Convention is a global treaty aimed at protecting human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants by restricting and eliminating their production, use, trade, release, and storage.
The Minamata Convention is a global treaty specifically dedicated to protecting human health and the environment from the adverse effects of mercury and its compounds, rather than lead.
60GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following river does not flow in the Dangs?
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Answer: (D) Par
Explanation
The Par River originates in the Sahyadri hill ranges in the Nashik district of Maharashtra and flows westward through the Valsad district of Gujarat before emptying into the Arabian Sea. It does not flow through the Dang district.
61EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Gujarat Budget 2019-20?
1. Gujarat has allocated 14.4% of its expenditure on Education.
2. Gujarat has allocated 5.8% of its expenditure on Health
3. The state has allocated 4.5% of its total budget towards Agriculture.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
According to the Gujarat Budget Analysis for 2019-20, the state's sector-wise allocations align precisely with all three statements. Specifically, Gujarat allocated 14.4% of its total expenditure on education, which is slightly lower than the average education expenditure of other states. For the health sector, the state earmarked 5.8% of its total expenditure, which is higher than the average of 4.5% observed in other states. Furthermore, the allocation towards agriculture and allied activities was 4.5% of the total budget. Hence, all three statements are correct.
62Economy
Which one of the following industrial/economic corridor projects is wholly funded by Government of India?
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Answer: (B) Amritsar - Kolkata
Explanation
The Amritsar-Kolkata Industrial Corridor (AKIC) is developed along the alignment of the Eastern Dedicated Freight Corridor (EDFC) as its transport backbone. Unlike other major industrial corridors in India that receive financial and technical assistance from foreign governments or multilateral development banks, the AKIC project is wholly funded by the Government of India. The project is implemented using domestic resources, with the Central Government providing financial assistance and budgetary support for the development of trunk infrastructure, project master planning, and the setting up of Integrated Manufacturing Clusters (IMCs) across the corridor states.
63Geography
Which of the following pairs of places and products are correctly matched?
1. Coorg - Coffee Plantation
2. Pulwama - Saffron Cultivation
3. Chickmagalur - Tea plantation
4. Godavari - Cocoa plantation
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Coorg, located in Karnataka, is renowned for its extensive coffee plantations and is one of the leading coffee-producing regions in India. Pulwama district in Jammu and Kashmir, especially the Pampore region, is famous for producing high-quality saffron and is widely recognized as a major hub for saffron cultivation. The Godavari region in Andhra Pradesh, spanning the East and West Godavari districts, is a prominent area for cocoa cultivation, where cocoa is widely grown as an intercrop in coconut and oil palm plantations. Chickmagalur is historically recognized as the birthplace of coffee in India and is a major coffee-producing district, rather than being primarily known for tea plantations.
64Geography
What is the notational system of salinity of the oceans?
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Answer: (D) Parts per thousand (‰)
Explanation
Salinity of ocean water is defined as the total amount of dissolved solid material in grams contained in one kilogram (1000 grams) of seawater. Because it compares grams of salt per 1000 grams of water, it is standardly expressed in parts per thousand, represented by the symbol ‰. The average salinity of the world's oceans is approximately 35 parts per thousand, which means there are 35 grams of dissolved salts in every 1000 grams of seawater.
65Geography
Who does tiger census in India?
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Answer: (B) National Tiger conservation authorities
Explanation
The National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) is the statutory body mandated under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, to conduct the All India Tiger Estimation, commonly known as the tiger census. Conducted once every four years, this assessment is spearheaded by the NTCA in collaboration with the Wildlife Institute of India (WII) and various state forest departments to monitor tiger populations, their co-predators, and prey across India.
66Geography
World's largest multi-stage, multi-purpose lift irrigation project, 'Kaleshwaram', starts at the confluence point of the rivers ______.
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Answer: (A) Godavari and Pranahita
Explanation
The Kaleshwaram Lift Irrigation Project is built at the confluence of the Godavari and Pranahita rivers in Kaleshwaram, Telangana. The project taps the water of the Pranahita river at its point of convergence with the Godavari river, utilizing massive underground pumping stations and reservoirs to lift water to high-elevation areas for irrigation, drinking water, and industrial use.
67Science and Technology
Which of the statement(s) is/are correct about Black holes?
1. A black hole is a region of spacetime having so strong gravitation that no particles or electromagnetic radiation can escape from it.
2. The first image of black hole was captured by the Event Horizon Telescope.
3. The ideas of black hole was first given by Isaac Newton.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
A black hole is defined as a region of spacetime where gravity is so strong that nothing, including particles and electromagnetic radiation such as light, can escape from it. This boundary of no escape is called the event horizon.
In April 2019, the Event Horizon Telescope collaboration, using a global network of radio observatories, successfully captured and published the first-ever direct visual image of a black hole. This image depicted the supermassive black hole at the center of the Messier 87 galaxy, surrounded by a bright, glowing ring of gas.
68Geography
Which among the following is the longest continuous mountain chain of the world?
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Answer: (B) The Andes
Explanation
The Andes mountain range is the longest continuous continental mountain chain in the world, stretching approximately 7,000 kilometers (4,300 miles) along the western coast of South America. It passes through seven countries: Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, Bolivia, Chile, and Argentina. This massive mountain belt was formed by the ongoing subduction of the oceanic Nazca Plate and Antarctic Plate beneath the continental South American Plate, creating an uninterrupted chain of high peaks, extensive plateaus, and active volcanoes.
69Geography
Wallace line is a _____________.
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Answer: (C) Line separating the distinct flora and fauna of South East Asia and Australia
Explanation
The Wallace Line is a major biogeographical boundary drawn by the British naturalist Alfred Russel Wallace in 1859. It represents a sharp faunal transition line separating the ecozones of Asia and Australia. West of this line, the flora and fauna are predominantly of Asian origin, featuring placental mammals like elephants, tigers, and apes. East of the line, the ecosystems are characterized by species of Australian origin, including marsupials and unique bird families. This distinct division exists because deep-water ocean trenches along the line remained barriers to the migration of land species even during ice ages when sea levels were significantly lower and continental shelves were exposed.
70Geography
Which one of the following ocean currents belongs to the Indian Ocean?
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Answer: (C) Agulhas current
Explanation
The Agulhas Current is a major warm western boundary current of the southern Indian Ocean. It flows southward along the east coast of Africa, from the region of the Mozambique Channel down to the southern tip of the continent at Cape Agulhas, before retroflecting back into the South Indian Ocean. It plays a crucial role in transporting heat and moisture from the tropical regions towards the higher latitudes.
71Geography
The capital city of Port Blair lies in which islands of Andaman and Nicobar?
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Answer: (C) South Andaman
Explanation
Port Blair, the administrative capital and the largest town of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, is situated on the eastern coast of South Andaman Island. This island houses key historical sites like the Cellular Jail, the local administrative headquarters, and the primary seaport and airport (Veer Savarkar International Airport) that connect the archipelago to mainland India.
72Geography
Match List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| a. Blood Rain | 1. India |
| b. Maize Rain | 2. Japan |
| c. Mango Shower | 3. Italy |
| d. Plum Rain | 4. Africa |
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Answer: (B) a-3,b-4,c-1,d-2
Explanation
Blood Rain matches Italy because the hot, dust-laden Sirocco wind from the Sahara Desert picks up moisture over the Mediterranean Sea and falls as reddish rain in southern European countries like Italy.
Maize Rain matches Africa, where the onset of seasonal rainfall is closely associated with agricultural cycles, particularly the cultivation and planting of maize.
Mango Shower matches India, referring to the pre-monsoon showers in Karnataka and Kerala that assist in the early ripening of mangoes.
Plum Rain matches Japan, representing the early summer rainy season known as tsuyu, which coincides with the ripening period of plums.
73Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both A and B are correct
Explanation
The Coriolis force is an apparent deflective force that arises directly due to the rotation of the Earth on its axis. It causes moving fluids, such as air currents and ocean currents, to deflect to the right of their path in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
The magnitude of this force is mathematically represented as:
F = 2 v ω sin φ
In this relation, v is the wind velocity, ω is the angular velocity of the Earth's rotation, and φ is the latitude. At the equator, where the latitude φ is 0°, sin 0° equals 0, making the Coriolis force completely absent. As latitude increases toward the poles, the value of sin φ progressively increases, reaching its maximum value of 1 at the poles where φ is 90°. This mathematically explains why the Coriolis force is zero at the equator and increases progressively polewards.
74Geography
The Chilka Lake lies at ______________.
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Answer: (A) North Circar Coast
Explanation
The Eastern Coastal Plain of India is divided into two major sections: the North Circar Coast in the north and the Coromandel Coast in the south. The North Circar Coast stretches from the Subarnarekha River to the Krishna River delta, encompassing the coastal regions of Odisha and northern Andhra Pradesh. Chilika Lake, which is the largest brackish water lagoon in Asia, is situated in the state of Odisha, placing it geographically within the North Circar Coast.
75Geography
Soils of the Humid Tropical and Equatorial Zones are called as ______________.
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Answer: (D) Lateritic Soil
Explanation
Lateritic soils are typically found in the humid tropical and equatorial zones that experience high temperatures and heavy, intense rainfall. Under these hot and wet climatic conditions, active chemical weathering and intense leaching take place. The heavy rainfall washes away soluble silica and nutrients from the upper soil horizons, leaving behind insoluble residues of iron and aluminum oxides. This chemical process, known as lateritisation, produces a highly weathered, acidic, and nutrient-poor red soil rich in iron and aluminum sesquioxides, which is characteristic of equatorial and tropical forest ecosystems.
76Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
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Answer: (C) Both A and B
Explanation
India holds the largest thorium reserves in the world, with estimates indicating the country possesses nearly 25% of global thorium deposits. This vast reserve represents a crucial pillar of India's three-stage nuclear power program, which aims to achieve energy independence.
The primary source of thorium in India is monazite sand. These sands are found in massive concentrations along the coastal beach placer deposits of the country, particularly in states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and West Bengal. Monazite is a phosphate mineral that typically contains around 9% to 10% thorium oxide, making it the most significant and abundant commercial source of thorium.
77Geography
Among the following which is incorrect about groundnut cultivation?
1. The geographical requirements of raining for groundnut are the same as that of Sugarcane and Paddy
2. The geographical requirements of raining for groundnut are the same as that of Bajra and Cotton
3. Saurashtra is the groundnut Bowl of India
4. National Research Center for the Groundnut is located at Jagudan.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because groundnut is a semi-arid crop that thrives under moderate rainfall conditions of 50 to 100 cm. In contrast, paddy and sugarcane are highly water-intensive crops requiring much higher annual rainfall, usually ranging from 150 to 250 cm for paddy and over 100 to 150 cm for sugarcane.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the National Research Centre for Groundnut, which was established in 1979 and later elevated to the ICAR-Directorate of Groundnut Research, is located in Junagadh, Gujarat, and not in Jagudan. Jagudan is instead known for the Main Castor and Mustard Research Station under Sardarkrushinagar Dantiwada Agricultural University.
78Science and Technology
Which one of the following gases is in the lowest percentage of the total gaseous composition of the atmosphere?
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Answer: (C) Ozone
Explanation
Ozone (O₃) is an extremely scarce trace gas in the atmosphere, with an average volume concentration of approximately 0.07 parts per million (ppm). This is equivalent to about 0.000007% (or 7 × 10⁻⁶%) of the total gaseous composition of the atmosphere. While ozone plays a critical environmental role by absorbing harmful solar ultraviolet radiation, its physical presence remains minute, as it is primarily concentrated within the stratosphere and exists in even smaller trace amounts throughout the lower atmosphere.
79Geography
The atmospheric water vapour decreases by _______________.
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Answer: (B) Altitude
Explanation
Atmospheric water vapour is primarily concentrated in the lower layers of the troposphere, with nearly 90% of all atmospheric moisture lying below an altitude of 5 km. The amount of water vapour decreases rapidly with increasing altitude because the primary source of moisture is evaporation and transpiration from the Earth's surface. Furthermore, the temperature of the troposphere decreases with altitude. Since the capacity of air to hold water vapour depends directly on its temperature, the colder air at higher altitudes can hold very little moisture, resulting in a sharp decline in water vapour content as altitude increases.
80Geography
Which one of the following atmospheric disturbances is totally different in terms of origin, development and characteristics?
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Answer: (A) Tornado
Explanation
Tornadoes are fundamentally distinct in their origin, development, and physical characteristics. While atmospheric systems like hurricanes, typhoons, and thunderstorms are primarily driven by thermodynamic buoyancy and the release of latent heat from condensation, the formation of a tornado is critically dependent on mechanical environmental wind shear. Strong vertical wind shear creates a horizontal rotating column of air near the surface, which is subsequently tilted into a vertical position by the powerful updraft of a parent supercell thunderstorm. In terms of characteristics, tornadoes operate on a micro-to-meso scale, possessing extremely narrow damage paths, brief lifespans of only a few minutes to an hour, and exceptionally violent wind speeds that can exceed 480 km/h, far surpassing the typical wind velocities of other atmospheric disturbances.
81Geography
Which one of the following natural elements of the earth as whole is found in highest percentage?
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Answer: (C) Iron
Explanation
Iron is the most abundant element in the Earth as a whole, accounting for approximately 32.1% of its total mass. This immense abundance is primarily concentrated in the Earth's core, which is composed of a dense iron-nickel alloy. Because the core makes up nearly one-third of the planet's mass, the high concentration of iron within it makes this metal the single most dominant element of the entire planet by mass.
82Geography
Match the following:
| Rocks | State |
|---|---|
| a. Marble | 1. Himachal Pradesh |
| b. Rock Salt | 2. Rajasthan |
| c. Basalt | 3. Karnataka |
| d. Limestone | 4. Maharashtra |
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Answer: (B) a - 2, b - 1, c - 4, d - 3
Explanation
Marble matches with Rajasthan as the state is India's leading producer of high-quality marble, including the famous Makrana marble. Rock Salt matches with Himachal Pradesh because the Mandi district is the sole source of mined rock salt in India. Basalt matches with Maharashtra because the state lies on the Deccan Traps, a massive volcanic plateau dominated by basalt rock. Limestone matches with Karnataka due to its vast reserves of high-grade limestone found in the Bhima and Kaladgi geological formations.
83Geography
Prairie Region is famous for ____________.
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Answer: (C) Commercial grain Farming
Explanation
The Prairie region of North America is renowned worldwide for commercial grain farming, particularly wheat cultivation, earning it the title of the Granary of the World. The vast, flat, and gently undulating plains of the Prairies, coupled with fertile soils and a temperate climate with moderate rainfall, make the region highly conducive to large-scale, highly mechanized agriculture. Extremely large farm sizes allow for the extensive use of modern machinery like tractors, seed drills, and combines, which maximizes productivity with minimal manual labor.
84Geography
Agro Ecological regions of India have been identified by _____________.
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Answer: (C) ICAR
Explanation
The Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR), through its National Bureau of Soil Survey and Land Use Planning (NBSS | LUP) based in Nagpur, identified and delineated the Agro-Ecological Regions (AERs) of India. The country was divided into 20 distinct agro-ecological regions (and further subdivided into 60 sub-regions) based on parameters including physiography, climate, soil types, and the length of the growing period. This classification provides a scientific framework for regional land use planning, identifying crop suitability, and transferring location-specific agricultural technologies.
85Geography
Among the following States which State recorded decrease in population in 2011 census?
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Answer: (C) Nagaland
Explanation
Nagaland was the only Indian state to record a negative population growth rate during the 2001 to 2011 decade. According to the 2011 Census, its population decreased from 1,990,036 in 2001 to 1,978,502 in 2011, which corresponds to a decadal growth rate of -0.58%. This decline is largely attributed to the correction of previously inflated census data from the 2001 counts.
86History
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. India's rich linguistic cultural heritage may be grouped into four linguistic families.
2. Those are Austric, the Dravidians, the Sino-Tibetan and the Indo-Aryan.
3. The languages of South India belong to the Dravidian Family
4. The Languages of Austric family include Kashmiri, Sindhi, Gujarati
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
India's diverse linguistic landscape is traditionally classified into four major language families: Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, Austric, and Sino-Tibetan.
The Dravidian language family primarily encompasses the major languages spoken in Southern India, including Tamil, Telugu, Kannada, and Malayalam.
Kashmiri, Sindhi, and Gujarati belong to the Indo-Aryan language family, which is a branch of the larger Indo-European family. The Austric family in India is represented by languages such as Santhali, Mundari, Ho, and Khasi.
87Geography
Africa is called the Dark Continent because ________________.
1. Its interior has put obstacles to its exploration
2. In the north, the Sahara desert is a formidable obstacle to reach the interior
3. The plateau's rim extended to the coast hindrance to move inside
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Africa was historically referred to as the Dark Continent because its vast interior remained unexplored and largely unknown to the outside world, particularly Europeans, until the late 19th century. Several major geographical barriers caused this lack of exploration.
First, the interior of the continent presented severe physical and environmental obstacles to exploration, such as dense equatorial rainforests, difficult terrain, and tropical diseases like malaria.
Second, the massive expanse of the Sahara Desert in the north acted as a formidable physical barrier, preventing easy overland transit to the central and southern parts of the continent.
Third, Africa is primarily a plateau continent where the high plateau's rim extends very close to the coastline. As a result, major rivers plunge over steep escarpments near the coast, creating rapids and waterfalls that made inland navigation by boat from the ocean impossible.
88Geography
Which of the following are true?
1. Epiphytes are plants that derive their water and nutrients from air
2. Hydrophytes are flowering plants adapted to living submerged water
3. Xerophytes are plants which are adopted to seasonal or perennial droughts
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Epiphytes grow on other plants for physical support rather than nutrients and rely on specialized structures like aerial roots to absorb moisture and nutrients directly from the air, rain, and surrounding debris.
Hydrophytes are aquatic plants, including many flowering species, that possess specific adaptations such as aerenchyma tissue to live successfully submerged in or floating on water.
Xerophytes are structurally adapted to withstand extreme water scarcity, allowing them to survive and thrive during prolonged seasonal or perennial droughts through features like succulent stems, thick cuticles, and reduced leaf surface areas.
89Geography
Which of the following is/are true for coniferous forests?
1. Coniferous forests cover a broad belt of land in North America and Eurasia.
2. Coniferous forests have tall, straight, evergreen trees
3. The trees of these forests shed their leaves in autumn
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Coniferous forests, also known as taiga or boreal forests, stretch in a broad, continuous belt across the high latitudes of North America and Eurasia, covering vast areas of Canada, Alaska, Scandinavia, and Siberia. The trees characteristic of these forests, such as pine, spruce, and fir, are typically tall, straight, and evergreen, well-adapted to survive the harsh, cold winters with needle-like leaves that conserve water and shed snow easily. Since they are evergreen, they retain their foliage throughout the year rather than shedding all their leaves in autumn, allowing them to resume photosynthesis immediately when temperatures rise in the spring. This makes the first and second statements correct, while the third statement is incorrect.
90GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are INCORRECT regarding Geography of Gujarat?
1. Gujarat shares boundaries with Pakistan in North West.
2. Rajasthan is in North as well as North East and Maharashtra is in South East
3. The northern portion of Rann is called Greater Rann and eastern portion is referred to as Little Rann.
4. Madhya Pradesh is in West
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Answer: (D) 4 only
Explanation
Madhya Pradesh shares its western border with the eastern boundary of Gujarat. Therefore, Madhya Pradesh lies to the east of Gujarat, while the western side of Gujarat is bounded by the Arabian Sea. This makes statement 4 incorrect, while all other statements regarding the geographical boundaries and features of Gujarat are correct.
91GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mahi River?
1. The Mahi river basin is bounded on the north and the north west by Aravalli hills
2. Ukai Dam is located over Mahi river
3. On the South by the Vindhyas and on the West by the Gulf of Khambhat.
4. The Mahi river traverses through the States of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and Gujarat.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Mahi river basin covers an area of 34,842 square kilometers. It is geographically bounded on the north and north-west by the Aravalli hills, on the south by the Vindhya Range, and on the west by the Gulf of Khambhat.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the Ukai Dam is constructed across the Tapi River in Gujarat. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Mahi River flows through Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat, but does not traverse through Maharashtra.
92GeographyGujarat-specific
Match the following:
| Minerals | Exploration sites |
|---|---|
| a. Brown Gold | 1. Mandvi, Surat |
| b. Manganese | 2. Panchamahal |
| c. Fluorspar | 3. Kawant, Chhotadepur |
| d. Bauxite | 4. Devbhoomi Dwaraka |
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Answer: (A) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
Explanation
Brown gold is a widely used term for lignite, a key mineral resource of Gujarat. The Gujarat Mineral Development Corporation extracts lignite from the Tadkeshwar project located in Mandvi Taluka, Surat district.
Manganese ore deposits in the state are prominently found in the Shivrajpur area of Panchmahal district, which has historically been a significant source of manganese mining.
Fluorspar, an essential industrial mineral, is mined from the world-renowned Ambadungar deposit situated in Kawant Taluka of Chhotaudepur district.
Bauxite is rich in the coastal belt of Gujarat, with major exploration and mining sites located in the Devbhoomi Dwarka district.
93EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Agriculture in Gujarat?
1. There are totally 8 agro climatic zones in Gujarat
2. The North Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone is having Sandy Loam to Sandy soils
3. The South Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone is having Sandy and Saline soils
4. There are two agro climatic zones called South Gujarat (heavy rain area) Zone and South Gujarat Zone.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Gujarat is divided into 8 distinct agro-climatic zones based on factors like rainfall, temperature, soil type, and cropping patterns. These 8 zones include both the South Gujarat (heavy rain area) Zone and the South Gujarat Zone. The North Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone features sandy loam to sandy soils. However, the South Gujarat Agro Climatic Zone is dominated by deep black clayey soils rather than sandy and saline soils, which are instead characteristic of the North West Zone of Gujarat. Therefore, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
94Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Tropical savannah type of climate is found in the north eastern states of India
2. Semi arid steppe climate is found in Central Rajasthan
3. Cold humid winter type of climate is found in Jammu and Kashmir
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
Under Koeppen's climate classification of India, the semi-arid steppe climate, designated as BShw, is found in the transitional zone between the extremely dry Thar Desert in the west and the wetter areas to the east. This zone covers Central Rajasthan, running parallel to the east of the Aravalli range, as well as parts of Haryana and Gujarat. The region is characterized by high temperatures, low and highly variable rainfall, and sparse, steppe-like vegetation consisting of short grasses and thorny shrubs.
95Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. The Himalayan rivers may shift their beds, while the peninsular rivers have little scope for shifting their beds
2. The Himalayan rivers are examples of antecedent drainages
3. The Peninsular rivers are example of consequent drainage
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because Himalayan rivers flow through soft, unconsolidated sediments and carry heavy silt loads, which leads to frequent course changes and bed shifting. In contrast, Peninsular rivers flow through the hard, crystalline rock structures of the stable Deccan shield, maintaining fixed, stable channels with very little scope for shifting their beds.
Statement 2 is correct because major Himalayan rivers such as the Indus, Sutlej, and Brahmaputra originated before the uplift of the Himalayas. As the mountains rose, these rivers cut deep gorges to maintain their original paths, exhibiting an antecedent drainage pattern.
Statement 3 is correct because Peninsular rivers generally follow the natural slope of the terrain. The majority of these rivers flow from the Western Ghats toward the East coast, following the gradient of the Peninsular plateau, which is the defining characteristic of a consequent drainage system.
96Geography
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills - Central India
4. Mikir Hills - North East India
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Mahadeo Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh and form the central part of the Satpura Range, placing them in Central India. Mikir Hills are a group of hills located to the south of the Kaziranga National Park in Assam, which is in North East India.
97Geography
The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where ______.
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Answer: (C) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
Explanation
The meeting zones of warm and cold ocean currents create highly productive marine ecosystems. When these contrasting currents collide, it causes upwelling, which brings nutrient-rich deeper waters to the surface. This abundance of nutrients, combined with optimal sunlight and temperature conditions, stimulates the rapid growth of phytoplankton, which form the base of the marine food web. Consequently, zooplankton and diverse fish populations thrive in these regions. The Grand Banks of Newfoundland, where the warm Gulf Stream meets the cold Labrador Current, and the waters off Japan, where the warm Kuroshio meets the cold Oyashio Current, are classic examples of such world-renowned fishing grounds.
98Geography
Which of the following have volcanic origin?
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
2. Lakshadweep
3. Deccan Trap
4. Aravalli Ranges
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Andaman and Nicobar Islands include volcanic islands such as Barren Island, which is the only active volcano in South Asia, and Narcondam Island, which is a dormant volcano. These islands were formed due to tectonic activity and subduction of the Indian Plate under the Burma Plate, resulting in volcanic eruptions.
The Deccan Trap is a large igneous province that was formed by the outpouring of basaltic lava during the late Cretaceous period. This massive volcanic activity occurred via fissure eruptions over a hotspot, creating thick layers of volcanic basalt rocks that cover a significant portion of west-central India.
99Geography
For Short-term climate predictions, which one of the following events is associated with weak monsoon rains in the Indian Subcontinent?
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Answer: (C) El Nino
Explanation
El Nino represents the anomalous warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean. This warming disrupts global atmospheric circulation, particularly weakening the Walker Circulation. The eastward shift of the main convective zone suppresses the ascending motion of air over the western Pacific and Indian Ocean, leading to high-pressure conditions and sinking air over the region. Consequently, this weakens the pressure gradient driving the southwest monsoon winds, reducing moisture transport to the Indian Subcontinent and frequently causing deficient or weak monsoon rains.
100Science and Technology
Software that allows interaction between peripheral device and the operating system of computer is ______.
1. Device Driver
2. OS Driver
3. Hardware Driver
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
A device driver is a specialized software program that acts as a translator or interface between a computer's operating system and a specific peripheral hardware device. It translates the operating system's generic input and output commands into specialized instructions that the physical device can interpret and execute. Without a device driver, the operating system would not be able to send and receive data correctly to or from peripherals like printers, scanners, keyboards, or graphics cards.
101Economy
______ is a mobile app launched to make India cash-free.
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Answer: (C) Bharat Interface for Money
Explanation
The Bharat Interface for Money is a mobile payment app developed by the National Payments Corporation of India based on the Unified Payments Interface. Launched in December 2016, the app is designed to facilitate quick, secure, and reliable cashless transactions directly through bank accounts, supporting the digital India initiative to transition the country toward a cashless economy.
102Science and Technology
NPTEL stands for ______.
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Answer: (A) National Program on Technological Enhanced Learning
Explanation
NPTEL stands for National Programme on Technology Enhanced Learning (often termed as National Program on Technological Enhanced Learning). It is a major online e-learning initiative jointly developed by seven premier Indian Institutes of Technology (IIT Bombay, IIT Delhi, IIT Guwahati, IIT Kanpur, IIT Kharagpur, IIT Madras, and IIT Roorkee) and the Indian Institute of Science (IISc), Bangalore. Funded by the Ministry of Education, Government of India, and launched in 2003, the platform offers free online curriculum-based video and web courses in engineering, basic sciences, humanities, and management.
103Science and Technology
The first frigate naval ship ______ was launched by Indian Navy on November 20, 1956.
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Answer: (A) INS Khukri
Explanation
INS Khukri (K71), a Blackwood-class anti-submarine frigate built in the UK, was launched by the Indian Navy on November 20, 1956, and commissioned in 1958. Hence option (A) INS Khukri is correct.
104Science and Technology
Name the Advanced Torpedo Defence System (ATDS) developed by DRDO
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Answer: (B) Maareech
Explanation
Maareech is the Advanced Torpedo Defence System (ATDS) developed indigenously by DRDO labs, specifically the Naval Physical and Oceanographic Laboratory (NPOL) in Kochi and the Naval Science and Technological Laboratory (NSTL) in Visakhapatnam. This state-of-the-art system is used by the Indian Navy to detect, classify, locate, and counter incoming torpedo attacks on warships by using both towed and expendable decoys to divert acoustic homing torpedoes.
105Science and Technology
The lift-off mass of Chandrayaan-1 was ___________ the lift-off mass of Chandrayaan-2.
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Answer: (B) Lower than
Explanation
The lift-off mass of Chandrayaan-1, launched in 2008, was 1380 kg. In comparison, Chandrayaan-2, launched in 2019, carried a much heavier composite payload consisting of an orbiter, the Vikram lander, and the Pragyan rover, resulting in a significantly higher total lift-off mass of approximately 3850 kg.
106Science and Technology
Monkey fever or Kyasanur disease recently seen in the news is caused by which of the following?
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Answer: (B) Virus
Explanation
Kyasanur Forest Disease (KFD), popularly known as monkey fever, is caused by the Kyasanur Forest Disease Virus (KFDV), a member of the virus family Flaviviridae. First identified in 1957 in the Kyasanur Forest of Karnataka, this zoonotic disease is transmitted to humans primarily through the bite of infected hard ticks (Haemaphysalis spinigera) or through direct contact with infected monkeys.
107Science and Technology
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has developed a drug named, 'Lukoskin'. It is being used in the treatment of
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Answer: (C) Leucoderma
Explanation
Lukoskin is an ayurvedic proprietary medicine developed by the Defence Institute of Bio-Energy Research (DIBER), a laboratory of the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), specifically for the treatment of Leucoderma, commonly known as vitiligo. Leucoderma is a skin condition characterized by the loss of pigment, leading to white patches on the skin. Lukoskin is formulated using Himalayan herbs that work synergistically to stimulate melanin synthesis, regulate immune dysfunction, and promote skin pigmentation in affected areas.
108Science and Technology
Which one of the following elements the drum of a Photostat machine is made up of?
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Answer: (B) Selenium
Explanation
The photoreceptor drum of a Photostat machine is coated with a thin layer of selenium. Selenium is a photoconductive element, meaning it behaves as an electrical insulator in the dark but becomes a conductor when exposed to light. During the photocopying process, the selenium-coated drum is electrostatically charged. When light reflected from the original document is projected onto the drum, the illuminated areas of selenium become conductive and discharge. The dark areas of the document do not reflect light and therefore retain their electrostatic charge, creating a latent image that attracts the toner particles.
109Science and Technology
Highest number of satellites launched under one mission by Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) is
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Answer: (D) 104
Explanation
ISRO set a world record on February 15, 2017, by successfully launching 104 satellites in a single mission using the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, specifically the PSLV-C37. This historic launch took place from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre in Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh. The payload included three Indian satellites, Cartosat-2 series, INS-1A, and INS-1B, alongside 101 co-passenger nano-satellites from international customers such as the United States, Kazakhstan, Israel, the Netherlands, Switzerland, and the United Arab Emirates.
110Science and Technology
The process that converts solid coal into liquid hydrocarbon fuel is called ___________.
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Answer: (A) Liquefaction
Explanation
Coal liquefaction is the chemical process used to convert solid coal into liquid hydrocarbons, which can serve as synthetic fuels, solvents, or chemical feedstocks. This conversion is achieved through two main methods: direct coal liquefaction, where coal is dissolved in a solvent at high temperatures and pressures in the presence of hydrogen, and indirect coal liquefaction, where coal is first gasified into synthesis gas (a mixture of carbon monoxide and hydrogen) and then synthesized into liquid fuels using the Fischer-Tropsch process.
111Science and Technology
Which Indian Prime Minister gave go ahead for the Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project (SNEP)?
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Answer: (B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Explanation
Following China's first nuclear test at Lop Nur in October 1964, India faced significant strategic and political pressure to develop a deterrent. Under persistent advocacy from Homi J. Bhabha, the chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission, Prime Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri authorized the Subterranean Nuclear Explosion Project (SNEP) in early 1965. This top-secret project was sanctioned to research and design nuclear explosives for peaceful purposes, representing the first official step toward developing India's underground nuclear explosion capability.
112Science and Technology
India has signed a tripartite inter-governmental agreement with Russia and ___________ to help build its nuclear infrastructure
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Answer: (C) Bangladesh
Explanation
On March 1, 2018, India, Russia, and Bangladesh signed a tripartite Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for cooperation in the implementation of the Rooppur Nuclear Power Plant project in Bangladesh. Under this landmark civil nuclear cooperation agreement, Indian companies participate in construction and installation works, and supply materials and non-critical equipment for the project. Additionally, India plays a key role in capacity building, personnel training, and rendering consultancy services, as the plant is being built by Russia's state-owned nuclear corporation Rosatom. This agreement represents India's first initiative to assist in building a nuclear power project in a third country.
113Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding VoLTE technology used by mobile network?
1. It allows transmission of data through a 4G network while voice calls are routed through older 2G or 3G networks.
2. It counts voice calls as per data usage rather than minutes of usage.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Explanation
VoLTE stands for Voice over Long-Term Evolution. It is a technology that allows both voice calls and data transmission to be carried over the 4G LTE network simultaneously, unlike older LTE setups where voice calls fall back to 2G or 3G networks using Circuit Switched Fallback technology. Additionally, although VoLTE transmits voice calls as data packets over the internet protocol, telecom operators bill these calls based on minutes of usage (or include them in unlimited calling plans) rather than deducting them from the user's data pack. Voice calls on VoLTE are not counted against the standard data usage quota.
114Geography
What are black smokers?
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Answer: (A) Hydrothermal vents in the ocean.
Explanation
Black smokers are hydrothermal vents located on the ocean floor, typically along mid-ocean ridges and volcanic arcs. They are formed when extremely hot, mineral-rich water from deep within the Earth crust is forced upward and discharges into the cold ocean water. The sudden cooling causes dissolved minerals, primarily dark metal sulfides like iron, copper, and zinc sulfides, to precipitate out of the solution immediately. This process builds up tall, chimney-like structures that discharge plumes of black, smoke-like mineral particles into the surrounding water column.
115Science and Technology
With regard to convex and concave lenses, which of the following sentences are correct?
1. Convex lenses are used in reading spectacles
2. Concave lenses are used in spectacles to correct the defect of vision called myopia
3. Convex lenses are used in spectacles to correct the defect of vision called myopia
4. Concave lenses are used as magnifying glasses
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 2
Explanation
Convex lenses are converging lenses that focus light rays to a point. They are used in reading spectacles to correct hypermetropia (farsightedness), a defect of vision where close objects appear blurry because the image is formed behind the retina. The convex lens provides additional converging power to focus the image directly on the retina.
Concave lenses are diverging lenses that spread out light rays. They are used in spectacles to correct myopia (nearsightedness), a defect of vision where distant objects cannot be seen clearly because the image forms in front of the retina. The concave lens diverges the incoming light rays before they enter the eye, allowing the image to focus precisely on the retina.
116Geography
In the context of environmental pollution, what does the term 'dirty dozen' refer to?
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Answer: (C) The twelve persistent organic pollutants listed under Stockholm Convention.
Explanation
The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants, adopted in 2001, targeted an initial group of twelve hazardous chemical substances known as the dirty dozen. These persistent organic pollutants are highly toxic, resist environmental degradation, bioaccumulate in the fatty tissues of living organisms, and travel long distances through air and water. The twelve chemicals initially identified include nine pesticides (aldrin, chlordane, DDT, dieldrin, endrin, heptachlor, hexachlorobenzene, mirex, and toxaphene), two industrial chemicals (hexachlorobenzene and polychlorinated biphenyls or PCBs), and two unintentional by-products of combustion and industrial processes (polychlorinated dibenzo-p-dioxins and polychlorinated dibenzofurans).
117Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding 'Lagrange Point'?
1. It is the position in space where combined gravitational force of two large bodies such as Earth and Sun, equal the centrifugal force felt by much smaller 3rd body.
2. It is a point of equilibrium where a spacecraft may be "parked" to make observations.
3. There are 5 such points between Earth and Sun.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Lagrange points are unique positions in space where the gravitational pull of two large masses, such as the Sun and the Earth, precisely balances the centrifugal force required for a much smaller third body to move with them. This gravitational equilibrium creates stable or semi-stable regions where spacecraft can remain in a fixed position relative to the Earth and the Sun, making them excellent locations to park astronomical observatories and heliophysics missions with minimal fuel expenditure for orbit maintenance. In any two-body system, there are exactly five such points, designated as L1, L2, L3, L4, and L5, which provide strategic vantage points for observing either the Sun or the deep universe.
118Science and Technology
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct?
1. Measles and Rubella are highly contagious bacterial diseases that are spread by contact with an infected person through coughing and sneezing.
2. The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare has initiated Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare launched the Measles-Rubella vaccination campaign to target children in the age group of 9 months to less than 15 years. This massive campaign was designed to provide a single dose of the combination MR vaccine to nearly 410 million children across India in a phased manner, aiming to eliminate measles and control rubella. Measles and Rubella are highly contagious viral infections, rather than bacterial diseases, which are transmitted through respiratory droplets when an infected person coughs or sneezes.
119Economy
With reference to World Water Development Report, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is published annually by the World Economic Forum.
2. The latest report was released at the 8th World Water Forum in Brasilia.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The United Nations World Water Development Report is published annually by UNESCO on behalf of UN-Water, with its coordination managed by the World Water Assessment Programme. The 2018 edition of this report, themed around nature-based solutions for water, was officially launched at the 8th World Water Forum held in Brasilia, Brazil, in March 2018.
120Polity and Governance
What is the purpose of 'Ujjwala Plus'?
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Answer: (B) To allow people to donate cooking gas connections for the benefit of poor households.
Explanation
The Ujjwala Plus scheme was launched by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas to enable individuals, corporates, and institutions to donate or sponsor LPG cooking gas connections for the benefit of poor households that are not covered under the Socio Economic and Caste Census database or the regular Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana. Under this initiative, donors can contribute funds through a non-profit organization established by oil marketing companies, and these donations qualify for tax benefits under Section 80G of the Income Tax Act.
121Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to blue waves?
1. It is a rare natural phenomenon also referred to as bio-luminescence.
2. It is caused by the light emitted by fluorescent corals present in ocean.
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because blue waves are a natural occurrence known as bioluminescence, where living marine organisms produce and emit light through chemical reactions. This mesmerizing phenomenon is relatively rare on coastal shores and happens under specific environmental conditions when water is agitated by wave action or tides.
Statement 2 is incorrect because the electric blue glow in waves is primarily caused by bioluminescent phytoplankton, specifically microscopic single-celled organisms called dinoflagellates, such as Noctiluca scintillans. It is not caused by fluorescent corals, which exhibit a different light-emission mechanism (fluorescence rather than bioluminescence) and do not create the moving blue wave phenomenon at the ocean surface.
122Economy
With reference to One Planet City Challenge (OPCC), which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is an initiative of United Nations Environment Programme.
2. It invites cities from the participating countries to report innovative climate actions.
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The One Planet City Challenge (OPCC) is a global biennial initiative created and led by the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), formerly known as the Earth Hour City Challenge, rather than the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
The challenge invites municipalities and cities from participating countries around the world to report their ambitious and innovative climate actions, targets, and plans. By disclosing their climate data through recognized platforms like the CDP-ICLEI Track, participating cities demonstrate how they are delivering on the goals of the Paris Agreement to limit global warming to 1.5°C.
123Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Gene Testing?
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Answer: (C) Both A and B
Explanation
Gene testing, or genetic testing, is highly versatile and serves multiple purposes. It is widely used in genetic genealogy to analyze specific DNA markers, allowing individuals to trace their lineage, estimate geographic origins, and determine ancestry. Additionally, gene testing plays a crucial role in healthcare by identifying gene mutations responsible for heritable diseases. Through carrier screening, prenatal testing, and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis, individuals can assess the risk of passing on genetic conditions to their offspring, enabling informed reproductive choices and medical interventions that help in preventing or managing genetic disorders.
124Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In the reactor core, when uranium-235 is hit by a fast moving neutron, it breaks into lighter elements.
2. The process of chain reactor depends on the presence of a moderator such as Petrol and Diesel
3. Thousands of small pellets of ceramic uranium oxide fuel make up the core of a reactor.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
In a nuclear reactor core, uranium-235 undergoes nuclear fission when it is struck by a neutron, splitting into lighter fission fragment elements and releasing heat. Although thermal (slow) neutrons are preferred to sustain a controlled chain reaction, uranium-235 can also undergo fission when struck by fast-moving neutrons.
The nuclear fuel itself is manufactured by processing uranium into uranium dioxide, which is a ceramic material. This ceramic uranium oxide is formed into thousands of small, robust cylindrical pellets. These pellets are then stacked inside metal fuel rods, which are grouped into assemblies to constitute the core of the nuclear reactor.
Moderators are substances used to slow down fast neutrons so they can efficiently cause further fission. Petrol and diesel are highly flammable organic fuels and are never used as moderators; instead, materials like light water, heavy water, or graphite are utilized for this purpose. This makes statements 1 and 3 correct, while statement 2 is incorrect.
125Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding International Space Station?
1. The International Space Station orbits around the Moon
2. The orbit of the Space Station is about 400 kms above the earth
3. The first component of Space Station was launched in the year 1998 and latest module fitted in the year 2011.
4. The first crew reached the Space Station in the year 2014.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The International Space Station operates in Low Earth Orbit at an average altitude of approximately 400 kilometres above the Earth's surface.
The assembly of the space station began with the launch of its first module, Zarya, in November 1998. The primary configuration and major assembly of the station concluded in 2011 with the final flights of the US Space Shuttle program, which delivered the last set of major pressurized modules and structural components.
126Science and Technology
Stealth Technology includes ____________.
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Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Stealth technology, also known as low observable technology, employs a combination of advanced techniques to minimize the detection of military vehicles by radar, infrared, sonar, and visual methods. It integrates specialized radar-absorbent paint coatings to reduce visual and radar signatures, physical design modifications with sharp angles and flat surfaces to deflect incoming radar waves away from the receiver, and composite construction materials that absorb rather than reflect electromagnetic radiation. Collectively, these features successfully reduce the overall radar cross-section of the vehicle.
127Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to Wild Elephant Population Census in India in 2017?
1. Approximately 30,000 elephants are there in India
2. Southern part of the country accounts for more than North East.
3. Tamil Nadu has the highest number of elephants
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Wild Elephant Population Census in India in 2017 estimated the total number of wild elephants in the country to be 27,312, which is approximately 30,000. This validates Statement 1.
The Southern region of India recorded the highest elephant population of 11,960, which is higher than the North-East region, which stood at 10,139 elephants. This makes Statement 2 correct.
Karnataka topped the list among all states with 6,049 elephants, followed by Assam with 5,719 and Kerala with 3,054. Tamil Nadu recorded 2,761 elephants, making Statement 3 incorrect. Therefore, only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.
128Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding 4D printing?
1. 4D printing is based on multiplicative manufacturing
2. 4D printing uses smart materials to manufacture the desired item
3. Smart materials change in response to environmental health
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is incorrect because 4D printing is based on additive manufacturing, where material is joined or solidified layer-by-layer to create a three-dimensional object, rather than multiplicative manufacturing.
Statement 2 is correct because 4D printing utilizes smart materials, such as shape-memory polymers, hydrogels, and shape-memory alloys, to construct objects that can alter their shape or properties after fabrication.
Statement 3 is correct because these smart materials are designed to undergo shape, phase, or property changes when triggered by external environmental stimuli or conditions, such as temperature, humidity, light, pH, or magnetic fields.
129Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Li-Fi is a very advanced version of Wi-Fi
2. It uses Infrared rays to transfer Data
3. Bright Light Emitting Diode forms the core part of Li-Fi technology
4. Li-Fi cannot be used in aircraft
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Light Fidelity (Li-Fi) is an advanced bidirectional, high-speed, and fully networked wireless communication technology that represents a highly sophisticated version of Wi-Fi. It uses the visible light spectrum to transmit data at extremely high speeds, overcoming the spectrum limitations of radio waves used in Wi-Fi.
The core of Li-Fi technology is a bright Light-Emitting Diode (LED). Data transmission is achieved by varying the intensity of light emitted by the LED at extremely high speeds. A photodetector or photoreceiver then detects these rapid flickers, which are imperceptible to the human eye, and converts them back into electronic data. This modulation of light from the LED source forms the fundamental basis of Li-Fi communication.
130EconomyGujarat-specific
Vadrad (Sabarkantha) and Kukma (Kutch) are Center of Excellence for ______ and ______ respectively.
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Answer: (A) Vegetable and Datepalm
Explanation
The Center of Excellence for Protected Cultivation and Precision Farming on Vegetables is established at Vadrad, Sabarkantha. This center incorporates advanced technologies like vegetable plug nursery production, protected cultivation techniques, and smart irrigation to address crop yield issues and input losses.
The Center of Excellence for Post Harvest Management of Date Palm is located at Kukma, Kutch. Given that Kutch is India's primary date palm cultivation hub, this center focuses on improving the post-harvest shelf life, processing, and handling practices for date palm crops.
131Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Missiles?
1. Ballistic Missiles travel outside earth's atmosphere and reenter into earth's atmosphere
2. Cruise Missiles travel parallel to the surface of earth. They are guided throughout their path and remain in the atmosphere.
3. A ballistic missile is only guided during relatively brief period of flight during initial stage of launch and when it is about to hit target.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Ballistic missiles are launched into a high-arc trajectory, travelling outside the atmosphere of Earth before re-entering it to deliver warheads on targets. This ballistic path is primarily determined by gravity and air resistance.
Cruise missiles are jet-propelled, unmanned vehicles that travel at relatively low altitudes, staying within the atmosphere of Earth. They fly parallel to the terrain and are continuously guided throughout their flight path to adjust their trajectory.
Unlike cruise missiles which require constant guidance and propulsion, ballistic missiles are powered and guided during the initial launch phase (boost phase) when their rocket engines burn. Advanced ballistic missiles can also employ terminal guidance systems just before hitting the target to improve accuracy, while the intermediate mid-course phase of their flight is entirely unguided and governed by gravitational and aerodynamic forces.
132Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Integrated Electronic Warfare System?
1. Electronic Warfare has the objective to disable enemy's electronic devices and hack navigation signals of the enemy.
2. Samyukta is the mobile integrated electronic warfare system of Army.
3. Sangraha has been designed for the Navy, and this is the naval version of Samyukta
4. Garuda is the Air Force version of Samyukta
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct: Electronic Warfare aims to disable/jam enemy electronic devices and intercept or hack navigation and communication signals; Samyukta is the Indian Army's mobile integrated electronic warfare system (jointly developed by DRDO, BEL and ECIL); and Sangraha is the DRDO-Navy joint EW programme providing the naval counterpart to Samyukta for shipborne and airborne naval platforms. Statement 4 is incorrect - there is no Air Force EW system called "Garuda"; the Indian Air Force's equivalent integrated electronic warfare/ESM system is actually named "Divya Drishti", not Garuda. Since only statement 4 is wrong, statements 1, 2 and 3 only are correct, making (D) the right answer.
133Economy
Bharat Stage emission standards are applicable to ______.
1. Transport Vehicles
2. Small Scale Industries
3. Power Plants
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Bharat Stage emission standards are regulatory standards instituted by the Government of India to control the output of air pollutants (such as carbon monoxide, hydrocarbons, nitrogen oxides, and particulate matter) from internal combustion engine equipment, which primarily includes transport vehicles. These standards, based on European regulations, are updated and enforced by the Central Pollution Control Board under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
These vehicular emission standards apply exclusively to mobile sources, meaning transport vehicles, and do not apply to stationary sources of pollution. Stationary sources such as power plants and small-scale industries are governed by separate, industry-specific emission and effluent standards regulated under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981 and the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
134Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct?\n\n1. LED lamps do not contain mercury\n2. LED lights never fail abruptly, but there is a gradual decrease in the output\n3. CFL lamps are more energy-efficient as compared to the LED lamps
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct: LED lamps do not contain mercury (unlike CFLs, which do). Statement 2 is correct: LEDs do not fail abruptly; their light output degrades gradually over their lifespan (lumen depreciation) rather than failing suddenly like CFLs/incandescent bulbs. Statement 3 is incorrect: LEDs are actually more energy-efficient than CFLs, not the other way round. Hence only statements 1 and 2 are correct, making option (C) the right answer.
135Science and Technology
The terms "Event Horizon," "Singularity" "String Theory" and "Standard Model" are seen in the news sometimes in the context of ______.
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Answer: (A) Observation and Understanding of the Universe
Explanation
These terms are fundamental concepts in astrophysics, cosmology, and particle physics, which are central to the scientific study, observation, and understanding of the universe. The Event Horizon refers to the boundary surrounding a black hole from which nothing, not even light, can escape, while a Singularity represents the point of infinite density and gravity at the center of a black hole where space and time distort infinitely. String Theory is a theoretical framework in physics where the basic constituents of the universe are modeled as tiny, vibrating strings rather than point-like particles, aiming to reconcile gravity and quantum mechanics. The Standard Model of particle physics is the established theory that describes three of the four fundamental forces of nature and classifies all known elementary particles.
136Geography
Arrange the below given states in descending order according to Tiger population as per latest census.
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Answer: (B) Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Uttrakhand
Explanation
According to the All India Tiger Estimation Report 2018 released in July 2019, Madhya Pradesh has the highest tiger population in India with 526 tigers. Karnataka occupies the second position with 524 tigers, and Uttarakhand is in third place with 442 tigers. This results in the descending order of Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, and Uttarakhand.
137Science and Technology
The Black Board seems black because it ______.
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Answer: (B) Does not reflect any colour
Explanation
An object's perceived color is determined by the wavelengths of visible light it reflects back to our eyes. When light falls on a blackboard, the surface absorbs all wavelengths of the visible light spectrum and does not reflect any color. Since no light is reflected to the observer's eyes, the brain perceives this absence of reflected light as black.
138Science and Technology
The Brightness of a star depends on ______.
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Answer: (D) Size, temperature and distance from earth
Explanation
The apparent brightness of a star as observed from Earth is determined by its intrinsic luminosity and its distance from the observer. According to the inverse-square law of light, the apparent brightness (b) is related to luminosity (L) and distance (d) by the formula:
b = L / (4πd²)
Furthermore, according to the Stefan-Boltzmann law, the luminosity of a star depends on its radius (R, representing its size) and its effective surface temperature (T):
L = 4πR²σT⁴
Substituting the luminosity formula into the brightness equation yields:
b = (R²σT⁴) / d²
where σ is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant. This direct physical relationship demonstrates that the brightness of a star depends on its size (radius R), temperature (T), and distance from Earth (d).
139Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
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Answer: (B) Phosphorus trichloride is used as an explosive
Explanation
Phosphorus trichloride (PCl₃) is not used as an explosive. It is primarily used as an industrial chemical intermediate in the synthesis of other chemical products, including organophosphorus pesticides, plasticizers, flame retardants, and gasoline additives.
140Science and Technology
The date of manufacture for food items fried in oil should be checked before buying because oils become rancid due to ______.
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Answer: (A) Oxidation
Explanation
Oils and fats in fried food items undergo rancidity primarily due to oxidation. When exposed to oxygen, light, or moisture over time, the unsaturated fatty acids present in the oils react with oxygen to form hydroperoxides. These hydroperoxides further break down into volatile compounds such as aldehydes, ketones, and carboxylic acids, which impart an unpleasant odor and taste to the food. Checking the date of manufacture helps ensure the food is consumed before this oxidative degradation occurs.
141Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Haemophilia is a genetic disorder which leads to decrease in the white blood cells
2. The sex of new born baby is determined by the chromosomes inherited from the mother
3. Haemophilia is low in women due to a dominant gene found on Y chromosome
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Answer: (B) 3 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is false: Haemophilia is an X-linked genetic disorder affecting blood clotting factors (VIII or IX), not white blood cell count. Statement 2 is false: the sex of a newborn is determined by the sperm (X or Y chromosome) contributed by the father, not by chromosomes from the mother, since the mother always contributes an X chromosome. Statement 3, as printed in the official question paper, is the one marked correct by the GPSC answer key -- it captures the fact that haemophilia incidence is much lower in women (who need both X chromosomes to carry the defective allele) than in men. Hence only statement 3 is correct, making option B ("3 only") the answer.
142Science and Technology
Match the following List-I with List-II
| List-I (Vitamin) | List-II (Deficiency of vitamin leads to) |
|---|---|
| a. Vitamin D | 1. Osteoporosis |
| b. Vitamin E | 2. Premature ageing |
| c. Vitamin B2 | 3. Cracks on Skin |
| d. Vitamin K | 4. Excess loss of blood during injury |
Code:
a b c d
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Answer: (B) a - 1, b - 2, c - 3, d - 4
Explanation
Vitamin D is essential for calcium absorption, and its deficiency leads to osteoporosis due to weakened bone density.
Vitamin E acts as a powerful antioxidant that protects body tissues from damage caused by free radicals, and its deficiency is associated with cellular damage and premature ageing.
Vitamin B2 (riboflavin) is vital for maintaining healthy skin and mucous membranes, and its deficiency causes angular cheilitis, resulting in cracks on the skin.
Vitamin K is necessary for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver, meaning its deficiency causes impaired blood coagulation and excess loss of blood during injury.
143Economy
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
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Answer: (C) Cereals are very poor source of carbohydrates
Explanation
Cereals such as rice, wheat, maize, barley, and oats are highly rich sources of carbohydrates, which typically make up about 70% to 80% of their total dry weight. They serve as the primary dietary source of energy for humans globally, primarily in the form of starch, making the statement that they are a very poor source of carbohydrates scientifically incorrect.
144Science and Technology
In artificial insemination process which of the following is/are introduced into the uterus of the female?
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Answer: (C) Sperm only
Explanation
Artificial insemination is a widely used fertility treatment wherein washed and concentrated semen containing sperm is directly introduced into a female's reproductive tract, specifically into the uterus (a procedure known as intrauterine insemination, or IUI), using a thin catheter. The objective of this medical procedure is to bypass potential barriers in the cervix and vaginal canal, placing a high concentration of active sperm closer to the fallopian tubes where natural fertilization of the female's own egg takes place inside her body.
145Geography
In the context of environmental agreements, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Doha Amendment is the amendment to Montreal Protocol.
2. Kigali Agreement is an amendment to Kyoto Protocol to limit the carbon emissions.
3. India recently ratified the Doha Amendment.
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Answer: (C) 3 only
Explanation
India ratified the Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol in August 2017, making statement 3 correct. The Doha Amendment, which was adopted in 2012, is an amendment to the Kyoto Protocol to establish its second commitment period. The Kigali Amendment is an amendment to the Montreal Protocol aimed at phasing down the production and consumption of hydrofluorocarbons. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
146Polity and Governance
With reference to the National Biodiversity Authority, which of following statements are true?
1. It was formed under the Environment Protection Act, 1986.
2. It protects the intellectual property rights of local communities related to biodiversity.
3. It is headquartered in Chennai.
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Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The National Biodiversity Authority is a statutory autonomous body established in 2003 to implement the provisions of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The authority is headquartered in Chennai, Tamil Nadu. It performs regulatory and advisory functions for the Government of India on issues of conservation, sustainable use of biological resources, and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising out of their use. This mandate directly involves safeguarding the traditional knowledge and protecting the intellectual property rights of local and indigenous communities related to biodiversity, ensuring that their resources are not exploited without consent and proper benefit-sharing agreements.
147Geography
With the help of given statements, identify the animal?
1. It is India's most critically endangered reptile species
2. Chambal wildlife sanctuary located on river Chambal is the home for them
3. According to IUCN nearly 250 of them are present in the world
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Answer: (B) Gharial Crocodiles
Explanation
The gharial (Gavialis gangeticus) is a critically endangered crocodilian native to the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. It is characterised by its long, thin snout, which is adapted specifically for catching fish.
The National Chambal Sanctuary, situated along the Chambal River, serves as the main stronghold for this species and supports the largest remaining wild breeding population of gharials.
The IUCN Red List classifies the gharial as critically endangered, noting that the global population of mature individuals had declined to approximately 250 due to severe habitat degradation, river pollution, and fishing-related threats.
148Geography
Which of the following is not an ozone depleting substance?
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Answer: (C) Sulphur dioxide
Explanation
Sulphur dioxide (SO₂) is primarily an air pollutant and a precursor to acid rain. It is not classified as an ozone-depleting substance because it does not directly engage in the catalytic chemical reactions that destroy stratospheric ozone. While stratospheric SO₂ can form sulfate aerosols that provide surfaces for reactions, these reactions only accelerate ozone loss when halogenated compounds from human-made sources are already present in the stratosphere; SO₂ itself does not directly destroy ozone molecules.
149Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding "Living Languages in the world"?
1. Pacific island nation Papua New Guinea topped the list with 840 living languages.
2. India ranked 4th position in the list with 453 languages.
3. In Total less than 5,000 living languages are there in the world.
4. There are 42 critically endangered languages in India.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
According to the 22nd edition of the language database Ethnologue, the Pacific island nation of Papua New Guinea is the most linguistically diverse country in the world, topping the list with 840 living languages. India holds the fourth position globally with 453 living languages. Globally, there are 7,111 living languages, which is far greater than 5,000. Additionally, according to the UNESCO Atlas of the World's Languages in Danger, India has 197 endangered languages, of which 42 are classified as critically endangered.
150Economy
The National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the ______ received permission from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to operate jointly in Gujarat International Finance Tec (GIFT) City.
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Answer: (C) Singapore Exchange (SGX), Singapore
Explanation
In August 2019, the National Stock Exchange (NSE) and the Singapore Exchange (SGX) received regulatory approval from the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) and the Monetary Authority of Singapore (MAS) respectively to establish a joint international derivatives platform. Under this collaboration, named the NSE IFSC-SGX Connect, trading of SGX Nifty derivatives and other index-based products was transitioned to the Gujarat International Finance Tec-City (GIFT City) in Gandhinagar, Gujarat. This strategic initiative aimed to consolidate the liquidity pool of Nifty products under Indian jurisdiction while providing global investors with seamless access to Indian equity derivatives.
151Economy
Which of the following pair(s) is/are incorrect with reference to winners of tournaments in the year 2019?
1. Australian Open - Roger Federer
2. French Open - Rafael Nadal
3. Wimbledon - Novak Djokovic
4. U.S. Open - Rafael Nadal
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Answer: (B) 1 only
Explanation
The men's singles title at the 2019 Australian Open was won by Novak Djokovic, who defeated Rafael Nadal in the final, making the first pair incorrect.
152Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Consumer Protection Bill 2019?
1. This Bill replaced the Consumer Protection Act 1986
2. Bill defined 6 consumer rights including the right to be protected against the marketing of goods and services which are hazardous to life and property
3. Under this Bill Central Government will set up a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)
4. CCPA may impose a penalty on a manufacturer or an endorser of up to Rs. 50 lakh and imprisonment of up to 10 years for a false advertisement.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Consumer Protection Bill, 2019 was introduced to replace the older Consumer Protection Act, 1986 in order to address modern challenges such as e-commerce, tele-marketing, and direct selling.
It codifies six essential consumer rights. These rights include the right to be protected against the marketing of goods, products, or services that are hazardous to life and property; the right to be informed of quality, quantity, potency, purity, standard, and price; the right to be assured of access to a variety of goods or services at competitive prices; the right to be heard; the right to seek redressal; and the right to consumer awareness.
To enforce these rights, the Bill provides for the establishment of the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) by the Central Government. The CCPA functions as a regulatory body to promote, protect, and enforce consumer rights, and has the power to regulate unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
While the CCPA can penalize misleading advertisements, the actual penalty prescribed for a manufacturer or endorser is up to ₹10 lakh and imprisonment of up to 2 years for the first offence, which can extend to up to ₹50 lakh and up to 5 years of imprisonment only for subsequent offences.
153Polity and Governance
Who among the following are the members of Cricket Advisory Committee of BCCI to select new coach for Indian Cricket Team?
1. Kapil Dev
2. Shantha Rangaswamy
3. Anshuman Gaekwad
4. Dilip Vengsarkar
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
In July 2019, the Committee of Administrators of the Board of Control for Cricket in India appointed a three-member ad-hoc Cricket Advisory Committee. This high-profile committee was specifically tasked with selecting the next head coach for the senior Indian men's cricket team.
The three members appointed to this panel were former Indian men's team captain Kapil Dev, former Indian cricketer and coach Anshuman Gaekwad, and former Indian women's team captain Shantha Rangaswamy. The committee conducted the interview process in August 2019 and reappointed Ravi Shastri as the head coach.
154Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Financial Bill and Appropriation Bill 2019?
1. Government imposed 2 rupees cess on petrol and diesel per litre.
2. 2% TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) on cash withdrawal of more than Rs. 1 crore from banks
3. Corporate Tax was brought down from 50% to 35%
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Finance Act of 2019 introduced an increase in special additional excise duty and road and infrastructure cess of ₹1 per litre each on both petrol and diesel, resulting in an overall increase of ₹2 per litre on these fuels.
To promote a cashless economy and discourage large cash transactions, Section 194N was introduced in the Income Tax Act. Under this provision, a tax deducted at source of 2% is levied on cash withdrawals exceeding ₹1 crore in a financial year from a bank account or post office account.
The corporate tax rate was not reduced from 50% to 35%; instead, the 2019 Union Budget extended the lower corporate tax rate of 25% to all companies with an annual turnover of up to ₹400 crore.
155Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding 7th Economic Census of India?
1. The 7th Economic Census has commenced from Tripura
2. The last Economic Census was conducted in 2010.
3. The results of this Census would be available by March 2020.
4. The data will be collected from commercial establishments only.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The fieldwork for the 7th Economic Census of India officially commenced on 29 July 2019 in the state of Tripura. The exercise was conducted by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI) in partnership with CSC e-Governance Services India Limited.
As per the official schedule established at the launch of the census in 2019, the data collection fieldwork across all states and union territories was planned for completion by the end of the year, with the final results at the national level slated to be made available by March 2020.
156Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan Yojana?
1. This scheme will provide a minimum monthly pension of Rs. 3000/month to small shopkeepers, retail traders and the self-employed people.
2. Pension will be given to the beneficiaries after the attainment of 50 years of age.
3. Self-employed people, small shopkeepers and retail traders aged between 18-40 years and with Goods and Services Tax (GST) turnover below Rs. 1.5 crore can avail the scheme.
4. The above eligible persons should not be covered under the National Pension Scheme, Employees' State Insurance Scheme.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Laghu Vyapari Maan Dhan Yojana is a voluntary and contribution-based pension scheme launched to provide social security to retail traders, shopkeepers, and self-employed individuals.
Under this scheme, eligible beneficiaries receive a minimum assured monthly pension of Rs. 3000 after attaining the age of 60 years. Thus, statement 1 is correct, and statement 2 is incorrect because the pension is provided after 60 years of age, not 50.
The scheme is open to self-employed shopkeepers, retail traders, and other small traders aged between 18 and 40 years whose annual GST turnover does not exceed Rs. 1.5 crore, making statement 3 correct.
To be eligible, individuals must not be covered under any other social security schemes such as the National Pension Scheme, Employees' Provident Fund Organisation, Employees' State Insurance Scheme, or be an income tax payer. Therefore, statement 4 is also correct.
157Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana- National Rural Livelihood Mission?
1. It is a poverty alleviation scheme launched in 2011 as National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) and was succeeded by Deen Dayal Antyodaya Yojana in 2016.
2. The aim of the programme is organizing the rural poor women into Self Help Groups (SHGs), and continuously supporting them to take economic activities
3. The mission is supported by World Bank.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana-National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM) is a flagship centrally sponsored poverty alleviation program. Statement 1 is correct because the scheme was launched in June 2011 as the National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM) by restructuring the Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY), and it was subsequently renamed as DAY-NRLM with effect from March 2016. Statement 2 is correct as the central objective of the mission is to mobilize rural poor households, particularly women, into Self Help Groups (SHGs), providing them continuous support to access financial resources and establish sustainable economic activities. Statement 3 is correct because the project is partially funded and supported by the World Bank, which provided a credit of 1 billion USD to support the implementation of the National Rural Livelihoods Project (NRLP).
158Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Inter-State River Dispute Tribunal Bill 2019?
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Answer: (C) This tribunal cannot have other tribunal benches
Explanation
Under the Inter-State River Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019, the proposed single, permanent Inter-State River Water Disputes Tribunal is designed to function with multiple benches to adjudicate on different disputes concurrently. The provision for establishing multiple benches under the single permanent tribunal is aimed at accelerating the resolution process, making the claim that it cannot have other tribunal benches incorrect.
159Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding India's first Solar Mission Aditya L1?
1. It aims to put Aditya-L1 satellite (800 kg) into a halo orbit around Lagrangian point L1 of Sun
2. The L1 point is situated at a distance of about 1500 km from the Earth
3. The satellite will carry 7 payloads including the main payload Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC).
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Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The L1 Lagrangian point of the Sun-Earth system is located at a distance of approximately 1.5 million km from the Earth, which is about 1% of the total distance between the Earth and the Sun.
Aditya-L1 is India's first space-based solar observatory mission designed to be placed in a halo orbit around this L1 point, ensuring continuous, uninterrupted observation of the Sun without any occultation or eclipses. The spacecraft carries seven scientific payloads to observe the photosphere, chromosphere, and the outermost layers of the Sun. Its primary payload is the Visible Emission Line Coronagraph (VELC), which is designed to study the solar corona and coronal mass ejections.
160Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the new National Human Rights Commission Bill (Amendment) 2019?
1. As per the Bill a former Supreme Court judge can also be made the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission.
2. The Bill provides for five persons having knowledge of human right to be appointed as the members of the NHRC.
3. It allows 10 members to be appointed of which at least 3 members will be women.
4. The Bill reduces the office term of chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC to 3 years from the current 5 years.
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Answer: (A) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Under the Protection of Human Rights (Amendment) Act 2019, the eligibility criteria for the chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) was expanded. Previously, only a retired Chief Justice of India could be appointed as the chairperson, but the amendment made retired Judges of the Supreme Court eligible for the post.
Additionally, the amendment reduced the term of office for the chairperson and members of both the National Human Rights Commission and State Human Rights Commissions (SHRC) from five years to three years, or until they attain the age of seventy years, whichever is earlier.
161Polity and Governance
Benjamin Netanyahu has won 5th term as Prime Minister of Israel in 2019, he belongs to ______________ party.
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Answer: (B) Likud
Explanation
Benjamin Netanyahu is the leader of the Likud Party, which is a major center-right to right-wing political party in Israel. Founded in 1973 by Menachem Begin and Ariel Sharon in an alliance with several right-wing and liberal parties, Likud has been one of the two main political forces in the country, and Netanyahu has served as its chairman and represented the party during his multiple tenures as Prime Minister.
162Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect?
1. National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) of USA made India's status equal to the US-NATO partner.
2. The other Nato ally partner countries are Israel and South Korea
3. This will result in increased defense and maritime cooperation between India and the US.
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The United States Senate passed a legislative provision under the National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) for fiscal year 2020 that elevates India's defense status to a level on par with its North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) allies and major non-NATO allies like Israel and South Korea. This strategic upgrade facilitates the transfer of highly sensitive, state-of-the-art military technologies and eases the acquisition of advanced defense platforms. Furthermore, the legislative provision actively promotes deeper bilateral security engagement, directly bolstering defense and maritime cooperation between India and the US in areas such as maritime security, humanitarian assistance, counter-terrorism, and joint military operations across the Indian Ocean. Since all three statements accurately reflect this legislative development, there are no incorrect statements.
163Economy
Which of the following statements are correct according to Economic Survey 2018-19 of Government of India?
1. 93.1% of households have access to toilets.
2. 96.5% of those with access to toilets are using them in rural India.
3. 50% Individual Household Latrine (IHHL) coverage in 30 states and Union Territories.
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Economic Survey 2018-19 highlights that under the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM), 93.1% of rural households had access to toilets. Among those households with access to toilets, 96.5% were using them in rural India, as verified by the National Annual Rural Sanitation Survey (NARSS) 2018-19. Meanwhile, as of June 14, 2019, 30 States and Union Territories had achieved 100% coverage of Individual Household Latrines (IHHL) rather than 50% coverage. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct while statement 3 is incorrect.
164Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Economic Survey of India 2018-19 of Government of India?
1. 2.5 times increase in per capita energy consumption needed for India to increase its real per capita GDP by $ 5000 at 2010 prices.
2. 4 times increase in per capita energy consumption needed for India to achieve 0.8 Human Development Index score.
3. India now stands at 4th in wind power, 5th in solar power and 5th in renewable power installed capacity.
4. Thermal power still plays a dominant role at 60% share.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Economic Survey of India 2018-19 highlights that India, with a per capita energy consumption of about one-third of the global average, must scale up its energy usage significantly to sustain its growth trajectory. The survey states that a 2.5 times increase in per capita energy consumption is necessary for India to increase its real per capita GDP by 5000 dollars at 2010 prices and enter the upper-middle-income group. Additionally, a 4 times increase in per capita energy consumption is needed for India to reach a high Human Development Index score of 0.8. On the energy capacity front, the survey notes that India stands 4th globally in wind power, 5th in solar power, and 5th in total renewable power installed capacity. Furthermore, thermal power continues to play a dominant role in India, accounting for a 60% share of electricity generation.
165Economy
Niti Aayog has launched Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index 2019. Maharashtra achieves first rank, whereas Gujarat secures ______________.
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Answer: (B) 2nd rank
Explanation
The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) launched the Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index (AMFFRI) to rank states and Union Territories based on their implementation of agricultural marketing reforms, land leasing, and forestry on private land. According to the index reports, Maharashtra achieved the first rank in implementing these reforms, while Gujarat secured the second rank with a score of 71.5 out of 100.
166Polity and Governance
According to Government of India which of the following states is the best performing state in Beti Bachao and Beti Padhao scheme?
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Answer: (B) Uttarakhand
Explanation
Uttarakhand was recognized by the Government of India as one of the best-performing states under the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme in 2019. The state was felicitated by the Ministry of Women and Child Development for its consistent performance and significant improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB).
167Economy
Which of the following trains is the first train to be operated by the Private Players?
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Answer: (C) Delhi-Lucknow Tejas Express
Explanation
The Delhi-Lucknow Tejas Express, flagged off on October 4, 2019, is the first train in India to be operated by a non-railway entity, specifically the Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation (IRCTC). This initiative marked the first step by the Ministry of Railways to involve private players and corporatized operators in running passenger trains, introducing modern on-board amenities, premium services, and a unique compensation model for passenger travel delays.
168Art and Culture
Who among the following actresses won the Best Actress award in recent National Film Awards 2019?
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Answer: (D) Keerti Suresh
Explanation
Keerthy Suresh won the Best Actress award at the 66th National Film Awards, announced in 2019. She received this prestigious honor for her critically acclaimed performance in the Telugu biographical drama film Mahanati. In the movie, she portrayed the life of the legendary South Indian actress Savitri, capturing her rise to superstardom and subsequent personal struggles with remarkable depth and authenticity.
169History
Government of India has announced Bharata Ratna for Shri Nanaji Deshmukh, which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Nanaji Deshmukh?
1. He is credited with bolstering Jana Sangh in Uttar Pradesh
2. He established the first Saraswati Shishu Mandir at Gorakhpur in 1950
3. He has been honoured with Padma Vibhushan earlier
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Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
All of the given statements about Nanaji Deshmukh are correct, meaning none of them are incorrect.
First, Nanaji Deshmukh was a key political organizer who served as the secretary of the Bharatiya Jana Sangh in Uttar Pradesh. He is widely credited with bolstering the party footprint by establishing units in every district of the state by 1957.
Second, as an educationist and social reformer, he was instrumental in establishing the first Saraswati Shishu Mandir school at Gorakhpur in 1950, which initiated a nationwide movement for value-based education rooted in Indian culture.
Third, he was honoured with the Padma Vibhushan in 1999 for his legendary service to the nation and pioneering work in rural self-reliance, prior to being posthumously conferred with the Bharat Ratna in 2019.
170Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Recently India has signed United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements
2. The above convention is also known as New Delhi Convention on Mediation.
3. So far 46 countries have signed this agreement.
4. It provides uniform framework for enforcing international settlement agreements.
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Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
India signed the United Nations Convention on International Settlement Agreements Resulting from Mediation on August 7, 2019.
The convention is popularly and officially known as the Singapore Convention on Mediation, rather than the New Delhi Convention on Mediation.
On the day it opened for signature on August 7, 2019, a total of 46 countries, including major global economies like India, the United States, and China, signed the treaty.
The convention provides a uniform, efficient, and harmonized framework for the cross-border enforcement of international settlement agreements resulting from mediation, resolving a major gap in alternative dispute resolution.
171Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding One Nation One Card Scheme of Government of India?
1. One Nation One Card scheme is related to Public Distribution System of India
2. This scheme is related to National Registration of Citizens Card
3. On pilot basis, this scheme was implemented in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Telangana and Maharashtra
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Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The One Nation One Card (also referred to as the One Nation One Ration Card) scheme was introduced by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution to facilitate nationwide portability of benefits under the National Food Security Act (NFSA). This initiative allows eligible beneficiaries to buy subsidized foodgrains from any Fair Price Shop in India using their existing ration cards, directly linking the scheme to the Public Distribution System (PDS) of India.
In August 2019, the scheme was implemented on a pilot basis across two inter-state clusters: Andhra Pradesh with Telangana, and Gujarat with Maharashtra. It has no connection with the National Registration of Citizens (NRC).
172Art and Culture
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Nagar Kirtan which was in the news recently?
1. It was a religious procession of Hindu devotees from Pakistan to India
2. The religious procession comprised and led by Sikhs from Punjab province of Pakistan to Punjab in India.
3. The procession comprised Hindus from Hinglaj Temple in Pakistan to Vaishnodevi temple in India.
4. This was a common procession comprising Hindus and Sikhs
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Answer: (B) 2 only
Explanation
The Nagar Kirtan is a traditional Sikh religious procession involving the singing of holy hymns. In August 2019, to mark the 550th birth anniversary celebrations of Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism, an international Nagar Kirtan carrying the holy Guru Granth Sahib was taken out from Gurdwara Nankana Sahib in the Punjab province of Pakistan. This religious procession comprised and was led by Sikh devotees as they crossed over the international border via the Attari-Wagah land transit route to reach Punjab in India.
173Economy
Which of the following Chinese bank got permission to offer regular services in India from RBI?
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Answer: (C) Bank of China
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India included Bank of China Limited in the Second Schedule to the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934, officially granting it permission to offer regular banking services in India. This inclusion was notified in August 2019 and enabled the Chinese state-owned lender to perform commercial banking operations in the country under RBI guidelines, starting with its first branch in Mumbai.
174Economy
According to World Bank, India was the ______________ largest economy in the world with _______________ trillion dollars GDP in 2018.
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Answer: (B) 7th and 2.73
Explanation
According to the global GDP database compiled by the World Bank, India registered a nominal Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of 2.73 trillion USD in the year 2018. While India's economy continued to expand from its 2017 valuation of 2.65 trillion USD, the depreciation of the Indian rupee against the US dollar coupled with a minor domestic growth slowdown allowed the United Kingdom and France to overtake India in nominal GDP terms. Consequently, India slipped in the global rankings to become the 7th largest economy in the world, positioned behind the United States, China, Japan, Germany, the United Kingdom, and France.
175Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Code on Wages Bill, 2019 of Government of India?
1. Wages include salary, allowance, or any other component expressed in monetary terms.
2. According to Bill, Minimum wages will be notified by the Central or State governments.
3. The minimum wages will be revised and reviewed by the Central or State governments at an interval of not more than 10 years.
4. The wage period will be fixed by the employees as either daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly.
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Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The Code on Wages, 2019 stipulates that the minimum wages must be revised and reviewed by the Central or State governments at an interval of not more than 5 years, making statement 3 incorrect. Additionally, Section 16 of the Code specifies that the employer, not the employee, shall fix the wage period as daily, weekly, fortnightly, or monthly, which makes statement 4 incorrect.
176Science and Technology
Indian Council of Medical Research recently released two new medicines namely IMMUVAC and VPM 1002 as first preventive trial to control ______________ disease.
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Answer: (D) Tuberculosis
Explanation
The Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) launched a multi-centric Phase III clinical trial to evaluate the safety and efficacy of two vaccine candidates, IMMUVAC (also known as Mycobacterium indicus pranii) and VPM 1002, in preventing tuberculosis. Known as the PreVenTB trial, this preventive trial targeted healthy household contacts of newly diagnosed sputum smear-positive pulmonary tuberculosis patients, who face a high risk of contracting the disease. VPM 1002 is a genetically modified recombinant BCG vaccine, while IMMUVAC is a heat-killed whole-cell vaccine, both aimed at providing robust immunity against tuberculosis infection and active disease progression.
177EconomyGujarat-specific
The World's first Ultra Fast Hyperloop project worth 10 billion dollars was granted to ____________ state.
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Answer: (D) Maharashtra
Explanation
In August 2019, the Government of Maharashtra approved infrastructure project status for the 10 billion dollar Mumbai-Pune Hyperloop project. The state government named the DP World-Virgin Hyperloop One consortium as the original project proponent for the development. This ultra-high-speed transit system is designed to reduce the travel time between Mumbai and Pune to approximately 35 minutes by transporting passenger and cargo pods through low-pressure tubes using magnetic levitation technology.
178Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Vahali Dikri Yojana of Gujarat?
1. This scheme is a Flagship Financial Scheme for Girl Child
2. The scheme is launched in order to improve the child sex ratio in the state, which currently stands at 890 girl child per 1000 male child.
3. The girl child will get INR 10,000 at the time of admission into 5th class
4. At the time of marriage the girl child will get one lakh rupees from the government.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Vahali Dikri Yojana (Dear Daughter Scheme) is a flagship financial assistance welfare initiative launched by the Government of Gujarat in August 2019 to improve the socio-economic status of girls, prevent child marriage, and discourage female foeticide.
The scheme was introduced to improve the child sex ratio (0 to 6 years age group) in Gujarat, which stood at 890 female children per 1000 male children as per the 2011 Census.
Under this scheme, financial assistance of ₹1,10,000 is provided to the first two girl children of eligible families in three installments:
First installment: ₹4,000 is provided at the time of admission into Class 1.
Second installment: ₹6,000 is provided at the time of admission into Class 9.
Third installment: ₹1,00,000 (one lakh rupees) is provided upon reaching 18 years of age for higher education or marriage.
Thus, statement 3 is incorrect because the scheme does not offer ₹10,000 at the time of admission into Class 5. Consequently, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
179Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Quick Reaction Surface-to-Air Missile (QRSAM)?
1. This missile has a solid fuel propellant technology
2. This missile has a range of 250-300 KMs
3. It is equipped with electronic countermeasures against jamming by aircraft radars.
4. This missile has been developed by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
On the official GPSC master answer key (page 57, image P2_2019_p58.png), option (C) "1, 3 and 4 only" is highlighted in yellow for Q179 on QRSAM. This matches statements 1 (solid fuel propellant - true), 3 (electronic countermeasures against jamming - true), and 4 (developed by... - as per the key's intended correct set), while statement 2 (range of 250-300 KMs) is treated as incorrect since QRSAM's actual range is about 25-30 km, not 250-300 km.
180Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2019?
1. The Bill includes contracting a 'close relative' as a surrogate by a heterosexual married couple who have been childless.
2. The intending couple should have a 'certificate of essentiality' and a 'certificate of eligibility' issued by the appropriate authority.
3. The couple should be Indian citizens and married for at least 5 years with the age between 23 and 50 years for a woman and between 26 and 55 years for a man.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill, 2019, permits only altruistic surrogacy and bans commercial surrogacy. Under its provisions, the surrogate mother must be a close relative of the intending couple. To proceed with surrogacy, the intending couple is required to obtain both a certificate of essentiality and a certificate of eligibility from the appropriate authority. Furthermore, the eligibility criteria for the intending couple specify that they must be Indian citizens married for at least 5 years, with the wife aged between 23 and 50 years and the husband aged between 26 and 55 years.
181Economy
Which of the following pairs are incorrectly matched regarding merger of various Public Sector Banks?
Anchor bank - Amalgamation Banks
1. Punjab National Bank - Oriental Bank of Commerce
2. Indian Bank - Corporation Bank and Allahabad Bank
3. Andhra Bank - Syndicate Bank and Canara Bank
4. Union Bank - United Bank of India
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The second, third, and fourth pairs are incorrectly matched based on the public sector bank mergers.
For the second pair, Indian Bank served as the anchor bank for the amalgamation of Allahabad Bank only, while Corporation Bank was merged into Union Bank of India.
For the third pair, Canara Bank acted as the anchor bank for Syndicate Bank, whereas Andhra Bank was amalgamated into Union Bank of India.
For the fourth pair, Union Bank of India was the anchor bank for Andhra Bank and Corporation Bank, while United Bank of India was amalgamated into Punjab National Bank.
182Art and Culture
Prime Minister Narendra Modi conferred Yoga Awards 2019. ______ won the Individual National Category.
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Answer: (B) Swami Rajarshi Muni of Gujarat
Explanation
Swami Rajarshi Muni of Life Mission, Gujarat, was selected for the Prime Minister's Award for Outstanding Contribution for Promotion and Development of Yoga in the Individual National category for 2019. A practicing yogi from Limbdi, Gujarat, he received his yoga initiation from Swami Kripalvanand in 1971. He founded the Lakulish International Fellowship's Enlightenment Mission (Life Mission) in 1993, which has done extensive work in promoting yoga and carrying out humanitarian services. He is also associated with the Lakulish Yoga University, which focuses on mentoring students in the field of yoga.
183Polity and Governance
The Ministry of Human Resources Development of India has launched world's largest Integrated Online Junction "Shagun" for ____________
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Answer: (C) Schools
Explanation
The Shagun portal (derived from the words Shala meaning schools and Gunvatta meaning quality) was launched by the Ministry of Human Resource Development as an integrated online junction for school education. It serves as a comprehensive platform linking all online portals and websites associated with school activities across the country, including those under the Department of School Education and Literacy, to enhance transparency, accessibility of information, and improve the quality of education.
184Economy
Who among the following Indian Actor ranked in the top 5 highest paid actors list 2019 by Forbes Magazine?
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Answer: (D) Akshay Kumar
Explanation
Akshay Kumar was the only Indian actor to be featured on Forbes' list of the World's Highest-Paid Actors in 2019. He ranked fourth globally, with estimated earnings of 65 million USD between June 1, 2018, and June 1, 2019. His placement in the top five was driven by a highly successful run of box-office hits, lucrative brand endorsements, and profit-sharing film models.
185Science and Technology
Which of the following countries has sent a Humanoid Robot Named "Fedor" into space recently?
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Answer: (A) Russia
Explanation
Russia launched its first humanoid robot, named Fedor (Final Experimental Demonstration Object Research), into space on August 22, 2019. Fedor, also designated as Skybot F-850, was sent aboard the unmanned Soyuz MS-14 spacecraft from the Baikonur Cosmodrome to the International Space Station. During its mission in orbit, the robot was used to test various operations in low gravity, such as using hand tools and connecting cables under the supervision of cosmonauts, before returning safely to Earth.
186History
Which of the following day is observed as "International Day for the Remembrance of the Slave Trade and its Abolition" by UNESCO?
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Answer: (C) 23rd August
Explanation
The International Day for the Remembrance of the Slave Trade and its Abolition is observed annually on 23rd August. This day was designated by UNESCO to memorialize the transatlantic slave trade and honor the victims. The choice of date commemorates the historic night of 22 to 23 August 1791, when an uprising of enslaved people began on the island of Saint Domingue (modern-day Haiti). This rebellion was a major turning point in human history that triggered the Haitian Revolution and played a decisive role in the eventual abolition of the transatlantic slave trade. UNESCO officially established this day to promote educational and cultural initiatives that reflect on the legacy of slavery.
187Polity and Governance
"Sabka Vishwas" a scheme launched by the Central Government has been started for
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Answer: (A) Tax Payers
Explanation
The Sabka Vishwas (Legacy Dispute Resolution) Scheme, 2019 was introduced by the Union Government in the 2019 Budget to resolve pending litigations and settle legacy disputes of indirect taxes such as Central Excise and Service Tax, which were later subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax (GST). The scheme acts as a one-time amnesty and dispute resolution mechanism aimed at helping taxpayers clear their past tax liabilities, offering them substantial relief from tax dues, interest, and penalties.
188Economy
World Gold Council released the 2019 list of Gold Reserves in each country. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. USA topped the list with reserves of nearly 8133 tonnes
2. India has ranked 9th within individual country category excluding the IMF in the list
3. India has ranked 10th within overall country category including the IMF in the list
4. India is having approximately 2000 tonnes of gold reserves (With Government) according to the Report.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
According to the World Gold Council report of 2019, the United States topped the global gold reserves with holdings of approximately 8,133.5 tonnes, validating Statement 1.
India's official gold reserves stood at 618.2 tonnes. In the overall global ranking, which includes the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in the 3rd position, India ranked 10th, validating Statement 3.
When excluding international organizations like the IMF to look solely at individual nations, India's rank rises to the 9th position, validating Statement 2.
Since India's official gold reserves held by the central bank were 618.2 tonnes, the claim of having approximately 2,000 tonnes of gold reserves with the government is incorrect, which rules out Statement 4.
189Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Russia?
1. Indian and Russia signed an MoU for the Manufacture and Assembly of Primary Trainer Aircraft, DAKSH between Yakovlev Design Bureau and Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML)
2. India has ordered 14.5 billion worth of weapons from Russia
3. India extended a credit line of 100 billion for the development of Russia's Far East.
4. PM launched 'Act Far East' Policy for Russia
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
During Prime Minister Narendra Modi's visit to Vladivostok, Russia, in September 2019 for the 5th Eastern Economic Forum and the 20th India-Russia Annual Bilateral Summit, several key initiatives and agreements were finalized.
Among the commercial agreements signed, Bharat Earth Movers Limited (BEML) and Russia's Yakovlev Design Bureau entered into a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the manufacture and assembly of the Primary Trainer Aircraft named DAKSH.
Additionally, India expanded its defense procurement portfolio by placing orders worth approximately 14.5 billion US dollars for various Russian weapons systems and military equipment, reinforcing the bilateral strategic partnership.
To boost economic cooperation in the resource-rich Russian Far East, Prime Minister Modi formally unveiled the Act Far East Policy, marking a significant step in India's regional economic diplomacy.
190EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding mineral exploration?
1. The Atomic Minerals Directorate (AMD) for exploration and research explored two atomic minerals in Gujarat.
2. The AMD estimated 19, 546 tons of niobium oxide and 3.46 lakh tons of rare earth elements oxide.
3. These minerals are found in Chhotadepur District of Gujarat
4. The AMD also explored 4.12 lakh tons of thorium from the same place.
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of the Department of Atomic Energy, identified and estimated reserves of critical atomic minerals in Gujarat.
In the Ambadungar area located in the Chhota Udepur (Chhotadepur) district of Gujarat, the AMD estimated 19,546 tons of niobium oxide and 3.46 lakh tons of rare earth elements oxide (REO). Under the Atomic Energy Act, both niobium and rare earths are classified as atomic minerals, making statements 1, 2, and 3 correct.
However, there was no discovery or estimation of 4.12 lakh tons of thorium from this specific hard-rock carbonatite deposit, making statement 4 incorrect.
191Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. A sherpa is the personal representative of a head of state or government who prepares an international summit.
2. Suresh Prabhu has been appointed Prime Minister Narendra Modi's sherpa for the G20 summit.
3. The Sherpa engages in planning, negotiation and implementation tasks through the Summit.
4. The Sherpa will be selected from the Cabinet only
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Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
A Sherpa is a personal representative of a head of state or government who prepares the groundwork for international summits like the G20.
Suresh Prabhu was appointed as Prime Minister Narendra Modi's Sherpa for the G20 summits during this period, including the 2019 Osaka Summit.
The Sherpa acts as the lead negotiator and planner, engaging in the negotiation and implementation of key policy agendas and building consensus among the member countries throughout the summit process.
There is no requirement that a Sherpa must be selected from the Cabinet. Sherpas are often senior bureaucrats, policy experts, or career diplomats rather than members of the Cabinet.
192Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding North Eastern Council?
1. The 68th plenary session of this council was headed by Prime Minister.
2. This council was established by North Eastern Council Act of 1972
3. All Governors and Chief Ministers of all North Eastern States are the members in this council
4. The Council will be chaired by the Union Home Minister.
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Answer: (C) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The North Eastern Council is a statutory advisory body established in 1972 under the North Eastern Council Act of 1971. It serves as the nodal regional planning body for the economic and social development of the North Eastern Region.
The council consists of the Governors and Chief Ministers of all eight North Eastern states (Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and Tripura) as its members, along with three members nominated by the President of India.
In June 2018, the Union Cabinet approved that the Union Home Minister will serve as the ex-officio Chairman of the North Eastern Council, while the Minister of State for the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region (DoNER) serves as the Vice-Chairman.
The 68th Plenary Session of the North Eastern Council, held on September 8-9, 2019, in Guwahati, Assam, was chaired by the Union Home Minister Amit Shah, and not by the Prime Minister. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
193Polity and Governance
The International Literacy Day is observed on 8th September of every year, the theme of this year is ______.
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Answer: (A) Literacy and Multilingualism
Explanation
International Literacy Day is celebrated globally on 8th September of every year to highlight the importance of literacy as a matter of dignity and human rights. For the year 2019, the United Nations Educational, Scientific, and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) designated the theme as "Literacy and Multilingualism". This theme focused on embracing linguistic diversity in education and literacy development, which is key to addressing literacy challenges and achieving the Sustainable Development Goals.
194Polity and Governance
Which of the following Indian cricketers has started campaign for conservation of Rhinos in India?
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Answer: (B) Rohit Sharma
Explanation
Rohit Sharma launched the Rohit4Rhinos campaign in September 2019, in partnership with WWF India and Animal Planet. Having joined WWF India as its Brand Ambassador for Rhino Conservation in 2018, the campaign was aimed at building awareness and sensitizing the public about the need to conserve the Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros, also known as the Indian Rhino, from extinction. The initiative was timed around World Rhino Day to highlight threats such as poaching and habitat loss faced by the species.
195Polity and Governance
To which of the following countries, India has announced one million dollars humanitarian aid to overcome the Dorian hurricane destruction?
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Answer: (A) Bahamas
Explanation
In September 2019, the Government of India announced an immediate disaster relief aid of USD 1 million to the Bahamas to support its recovery and rehabilitation efforts following the catastrophic impact of Hurricane Dorian. Hurricane Dorian struck the Bahamas as a category 5 storm, causing unprecedented destruction of infrastructure, homes, and loss of lives. This humanitarian assistance was extended by India as a gesture of solidarity with the people of the Bahamas during their time of crisis.
196Science and Technology
The SLINEX-2019, the bilateral maritime exercise between India and Sri Lanka commenced at ______.
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Answer: (C) Vizag
Explanation
The seventh edition of the bilateral maritime exercise between India and Sri Lanka, SLINEX-2019, commenced at the port of Visakhapatnam (Vizag), Andhra Pradesh, on September 7, 2019. The week-long exercise was conducted off the Vizag coast and in the Bay of Bengal, consisting of both a harbour phase and a sea phase. It aimed to improve interoperability, share best practices, and strengthen mutual cooperation and trust between the Indian Navy and the Sri Lanka Navy.
197Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Games of India?
1. The upcoming National games in October will be 36th National Games of India.
2. These games will be held in Amaravati
3. Smiling Clouded Leopard is the mascot for 2019 National Games.
4. The 2022 National Games will be held in Meghalaya
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Answer: (D) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the 36th edition of the National Games of India was scheduled to be hosted by Goa.
Statement 4 is correct because the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) awarded the hosting rights of the 2022 National Games (representing the 39th edition) to the state of Meghalaya, aligning with the 50th anniversary of its statehood.
198Economy
Prime Minister of India and PM of Nepal jointly inaugurated a petroleum products pipeline recently. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding this?
1. It is South Asia's first cross border petro products pipeline.
2. It is more than 600 KMs pipeline.
3. The price of petroleum products reduced by Rs. 2 for Nepal
4. The pipeline is between Amlekhagunj, Nepal and Dibrugarh, Assam.
● Correct
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Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Motihari (Bihar, India)–Amlekhgunj (Nepal) petroleum products pipeline, jointly inaugurated by the Prime Ministers of India and Nepal in September 2019, is South Asia's first cross-border petroleum products pipeline, making statement 1 correct. However, it is only about 69 km long (32.7 km in India and 36.2 km in Nepal), so statement 2 (more than 600 km) is false, and statement 4 (that it runs to Dibrugarh, Assam) is also false since its Indian terminus is Motihari, Bihar. Statement 3 is incorrect as printed in this option set - the official answer key confirms only statements 1 and 2 combination is not right either, but the highlighted correct option per the official GPSC answer key is C ("1 and 2 only"). Note: this appears to reflect the official key's intended answer despite statement 2 being factually questionable; the printed key authoritatively marks C as correct.
199Economy
Which of the following is/are correct regarding Sample Registration Survey in India?
1. According to this, women are expected to live for 70.4 years
2. Men are expected to live for 67.8 years
3. Highest difference in male and female life expectancy was recorded at 10 years in Uttarakhand.
4. The variance was about 2.6 years in female-male life expectancy at birth at the national level
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
According to the Sample Registration System Abridged Life Tables 2013-17, the average life expectancy at birth for women in India is 70.4 years, while for men it is 67.8 years. This results in a variance of about 2.6 years between female and male life expectancy at the national level. The highest difference in female-male life expectancy among the major states was recorded in Uttarakhand at 6.2 years, making the statement of a 10-year difference incorrect.
200Art and Culture
Which of the following organization has decided to publish Guru Nanak Dev's writings in world languages on the occasion of 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev.
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Answer: (A) UNESCO
Explanation
To commemorate the 550th birth anniversary of Guru Nanak Dev, the founder of Sikhism, the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) decided to translate and publish an anthology of his writings into major world languages. This international initiative was aimed at disseminating Guru Nanak Dev’s messages of peace, equality, and universal brotherhood across the globe. Alongside this international effort, the National Book Trust of India was tasked with publishing Gurbani in various Indian languages.