GPSC2018General Studies Paper II✓ Every question solved

GPSC Prelims 2018 General Studies Paper II with Answers & Explanations

All 200 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

200
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7
Subjects
18
Gujarat-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

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  • Geography5427%
  • Science and Technology4221%
  • Polity and Governance2714%
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  • Other11%
1Economy
Which of the following statements is correct with reference to the economic growth of Indian Economy in 2017-18 as compared to 2016-17?
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Answer: (B) Growth of Indian economy was decelerating while that of world economy was accelerating.

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, the Indian economy experienced a temporary decoupling from the global trend, characterized by a deceleration in domestic growth while the global economy accelerated.

India's real GDP growth slowed down from 7.1% in 2016-17 to an estimated 6.5% to 6.75% in 2017-18. This deceleration was primarily a result of transitional challenges following major policy reforms, including demonetisation and the implementation of the Goods and Services Tax (GST).

In contrast, the global economy embarked on a synchronous recovery during the same period, with world economic growth accelerating from 3.2% in 2016 to approximately 3.7% in 2017.

2Polity and Governance
Financial Action Task Force (FATF) has recently decided to put up which of the following countries under its Grey List?
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Answer: (A) Pakistan

Explanation

In June 2018, the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) placed Pakistan on its Grey List (officially known as the list of Jurisdictions under Increased Monitoring). This decision was taken during the FATF plenary meeting in Paris, after the global watchdog identified strategic deficiencies in Pakistan's Anti-Money Laundering (AML) and Combating the Financing of Terrorism (CFT) frameworks. Pakistan was consequently given a 27-point action plan to address these vulnerabilities and prevent terrorist financing.

3Economy
India has become a ___________________ as per Central Electricity Authority during the year 2016-17.
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Answer: (A) Net Exporter of Power

Explanation

As per the Central Electricity Authority (CEA), India turned from a net importer of electricity to a net exporter of electricity for the first time during the financial year 2016-17. Between April 2016 and February 2017, India exported approximately 5,798 million units (MU) of electricity to neighboring countries like Nepal, Bangladesh, and Myanmar. This volume was 213 MU higher than the import of 5,585 MU from Bhutan. This milestone marked a significant turnaround since cross-border power trade began in the mid-1980s, during which India had traditionally been a net importer of electricity due to large imports from Bhutanese hydroelectric projects.

4Economy
Which of the following indicators is also used while calculating Multidimensional Poverty Index?
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Answer: (A) Access to Electricity

Explanation

The Global Multidimensional Poverty Index, developed by the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative and the United Nations Development Programme, is constructed using three dimensions: Health, Education, and Standard of Living. These dimensions are further divided into ten specific indicators. The Standard of Living dimension is measured through six household-level indicators: cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, housing, assets, and electricity. Under the index criteria, a household is considered deprived if it does not have access to electricity, which makes this indicator a core component of the poverty measurement.

5Economy
Union minister talked about newly revamped department DIPAM in the budget of 2018. It is related to ___________.
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Answer: (A) Investment and Public Asset Management

Explanation

The Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) functions under the Ministry of Finance. It was renamed from the Department of Disinvestment in the Union Budget of 2016-17 to better represent its expanded mandate, which includes managing the central government investments in equity, realizing value from public assets through disinvestment or closure, and structuring financial decisions for Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs).

6Economy
The Health Dimension in Human Development Index is assessed by _________.
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Answer: (B) Life Expectancy Rate

Explanation

The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite index developed by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to measure average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development: a long and healthy life, knowledge, and a decent standard of living. The health dimension of the HDI is measured specifically by life expectancy at birth. This indicator estimates the average number of years a newborn is expected to live under current mortality patterns, acting as a comprehensive reflection of a population's overall healthcare, nutrition, and sanitary conditions.

7Economy
Which of the following were launched by the Government of India following the advice of the World Bank? 1. New Agricultural Strategy 2. Food Corporation of India 3. Public Distribution System 4. Agricultural Prices Commission
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

In the mid-1960s, amidst a severe food crisis and heavy reliance on foreign food imports, the World Bank appointed the Bernard Bell Mission to assess India's economic development and agricultural policies. The agricultural component of this mission, led by Sir John Crawford, recommended a complete overhaul of India's food management system to achieve self-sufficiency.

Following this advice, the Government of India adopted a series of interconnected policy measures. The New Agricultural Strategy was launched to introduce high-yielding varieties of seeds and a package of modern inputs, initiating the Green Revolution. To support this strategy with price incentives, the Agricultural Prices Commission was set up in January 1965 to recommend minimum support prices based on the cost of cultivation. Alongside this, the Food Corporation of India was established in 1965 to manage public sector procurement, storage, and transport of foodgrains. The Public Distribution System was systematically integrated to ensure the distribution of these grains. Later, in 1997, the government transitioned the PDS into the Targeted Public Distribution System following World Bank recommendations to curb food subsidies and ensure better targeting.

8Economy
Which of the following statements are correct? 1. NHB Residex is India's first official Housing Price Index launched in 2007. 2. Ahmedabad has shown a consistent rise in its index value since the launch. 3. The calculation is based on four quarter moving average and the index is an initiative of National Housing Bank.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The NHB RESIDEX is India's first official housing price index, launched in July 2007 by the National Housing Bank to track residential property prices across major Indian cities. Thus, statement 1 is correct.

While many metropolitan areas have seen long-term property appreciation, the index value for Ahmedabad has not shown a consistent, uninterrupted rise since launch. Instead, the real estate market in Ahmedabad has experienced periods of stagnation, decline, and recovery, mirroring cyclical economic and demand shifts. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

The calculation of the revamped NHB RESIDEX indices utilizes a four-quarter moving average to smooth out quarterly variations, and the index is designed and maintained as an initiative of the National Housing Bank. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

9Economy
Which of the following has/have launched Agricultural Marketing and Farm Friendly Reforms Index? 1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers' Welfare 2. The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) 3. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
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Answer: (A) Only 2

Explanation

The National Institution for Transforming India (NITI Aayog) launched the Agricultural Marketing and Farmer Friendly Reforms Index (AMFFRI) in October 2016. The index is designed to assess and rank Indian states and union territories based on the implementation of various reforms in the agricultural sector. It evaluates state-level performances across three main parameters: agricultural market reforms, land lease reforms, and the liberalization of regulations related to forestry on private land, such as the felling and transit of trees. The index assigns a score from 0 to 100 to represent the ease of doing agribusiness and the overall progressiveness of agricultural marketing in each state.

10Economy
Identify recent developments in the area of fiscal prudence and consolidation from the following options: 1. Devising the twin concepts of 'Monetized Deficit' and 'Primary Deficit' 2. Redefining the Idea of 'Fiscal Deficit' 3. Abolishing the classification of development and non-development categories of expenditures
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The classification of expenditure that was abolished in the Union Budget 2017-18 was Plan and Non-Plan expenditure, not development and non-development expenditure. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

Devising the twin concepts of Monetized Deficit and Primary Deficit, as well as redefining the concept of Fiscal Deficit, are major milestones in India's fiscal reforms. The concept of Fiscal Deficit was adopted following the recommendations of the Sukhamoy Chakravarty Committee to present a comprehensive picture of the government's total borrowing requirements. The concept of Primary Deficit, which is calculated as Fiscal Deficit minus Interest Payments, was introduced in the late 1990s to measure the fiscal stance excluding past debt service obligations. Monetized Deficit measures the credit extended by the Reserve Bank of India to the government to finance its deficit. Together, these redefined fiscal metrics have formed the core of India's fiscal prudence, discipline, and consolidation framework under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act.

11Economy
The difference between the Gross National Product (GNP) and Net National Product (NNP) is equal to the ________
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Answer: (D) Capital Depreciation

Explanation

Net National Product is calculated by subtracting depreciation from Gross National Product according to the standard macroeconomic relation:

NNP = GNP - Depreciation

Rearranging the formula to find the difference between Gross National Product and Net National Product yields:

GNP - NNP = Depreciation

Depreciation, also known as capital depreciation or capital consumption allowance, represents the monetary value of the wear and tear, obsolescence, and gradual consumption of fixed assets used during the production of goods and services. Subtracting this loss of asset value from the gross measure gives the net value of the national product.

12Economy
Which of the following is (are) covered under non-Plan expenditure with reference to Union Budget? 1. Defence Expenditure 2. Interest Payments 3. Salaries and Pensions
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Under the classification of government expenditure in India prior to its reform in the 2017-18 budget, Non-Plan expenditure represented the committed obligations and routine operational expenses of the government. This category was distinct from Plan expenditure, which was linked to five-year plans and development programs. Non-Plan expenditure included critical recurring liabilities such as interest payments on public debt, defense services, subsidies, and salaries and pensions of government employees. Since all three listed components represent recurring administrative and committed liabilities, they are all covered under Non-Plan expenditure.

13Economy
It is proposed to impose a Social Welfare Surcharge by abolishing which of the following Cess as per the Union Budget 2018-19? 1. Education Cess 2. Coal Cess 3. Swachh Bharat Cess 4. Secondary and Higher Education Cess
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 4

Explanation

In the Union Budget 2018-19, the Government of India proposed to abolish the Education Cess and the Secondary and Higher Education Cess on imported goods. In their place, a Social Welfare Surcharge was introduced at a rate of 10% on the aggregate duties of customs on imported goods to help finance the government's social welfare, health, and education schemes.

14Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to India's Wholesale Price Index (WPI)? 1. The base year of WPI has been revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12. 2. In the revised services, WPI will continue to constitute two major groups namely primary articles and manufactured products. 3. Prices used for compilation don't include indirect taxes in order to remove impact of fiscal policy in the new series of WPI.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The base year of the Wholesale Price Index (WPI) was revised from 2004-05 to 2011-12 in May 2017 to better reflect the changing structure of the economy. The revised series of WPI comprises three major groups rather than two, which are Primary Articles, Fuel and Power, and Manufactured Products. Additionally, the compilation of the new series uses basic prices that exclude indirect taxes, thereby eliminating the impact of fiscal policy changes on inflation measurements and aligning the index with global statistical standards.

15Economy
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the estimation of poverty in India? 1. The poverty line in India is income based. 2. The poverty line was originally fixed in terms of Income|food requirements in 1978. 3. Food requirements were based on calories standards for individuals in rural and urban areas in 1980 and the cost of procuring the food grains equivalent to calories was fixed as the poverty line.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is incorrect because poverty estimation in India is based on Monthly Per Capita Consumption Expenditure (MPCE) rather than income levels, due to the difficulty in capturing volatile incomes in the informal sector.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the first official calorie-based poverty line was recommended by the Y. K. Alagh Committee, which was constituted in 1977 and submitted its report in 1979, not 1978.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the daily calorie standards of 2400 kcal for rural areas and 2100 kcal for urban areas were proposed by the Alagh Committee in 1979, not 1980. Moreover, the poverty line was defined based on the total per capita consumption expenditure required to meet these calorie needs (which includes non-food expenses), rather than solely on the cost of procuring equivalent food grains.

16Economy
According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, which of the following is(are) the vital factor(s) for economic development of India? 1. Promoting inclusive employment-intensive industry 2. Building resilient infrastructure 3. Promoting sustainable development goals of UNO
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, Volume 2, Chapter 8 (Industry and Infrastructure), promoting inclusive employment-intensive industry and building resilient infrastructure are explicitly stated as vital factors for the economic growth and development of India. The government has pursued these through various policy interventions and structural reforms in key employment-generating sectors such as apparel, leather, and steel.

Furthermore, in Volume 2, Chapter 5 (Sustainable Development, Energy and Climate Change), the Survey highlights India's deep commitment to the UN Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). It emphasizes that the developmental pathway chosen by India is closely aligned with these global targets, rendering the promotion of the SDGs central to achieving sustainable, balanced, and inclusive economic growth in the country.

17Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Under the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS), farmers can avail of short-term crop loans up to Rs 3 Lakhs payable within one year at only 7% per annum. 2. The ISS also provides for an additional subvention of 3% for prompt repayment within a year. 3. The ISS is given by Central Government to NABARD for refinance to public sector banks, private sector banks, cooperative banks and regional rural banks.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Under the Interest Subvention Scheme (ISS), the Central Government provides short-term crop loans up to ₹3 Lakhs to farmers at a subsidized interest rate of 7% per annum for a period of one year.

To encourage timely payment, the government offers an additional 3% subvention as a Prompt Repayment Incentive (PRI). This reduces the effective interest rate to 4% per annum for farmers who repay their loans promptly within a year.

The interest subvention is provided directly to public sector banks, private sector banks, cooperative banks, and regional rural banks (RRBs) on the use of their own funds. The government provides subvention to NABARD specifically for refinancing cooperative banks and RRBs, rather than for refinancing public sector or private sector banks. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect while Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

18Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Universal Basic Income (UBI) is a welfare programme in which all citizens receive an unconditional sum of money from the government. 2. Financial inclusion is crucial for the success of UBI in India.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Universal Basic Income is characterized by five key principles: periodicity, cash payment, individuality, universality (meaning it is paid to all citizens), and unconditionality (meaning there are no requirements or obligations to receive it). This makes the first statement correct.

For the successful implementation of such a direct cash transfer system across India, financial inclusion is absolutely essential. It ensures that every citizen, especially those in remote and marginalized communities, has access to a bank account. Without robust financial inclusion, facilitated by initiatives like the JAM (Jan Dhan-Aadhaar-Mobile) trinity, the government cannot distribute unconditional cash transfers directly, transparently, and without leakages to all beneficiaries. This makes the second statement correct.

19Economy
Balanced Budget means a budget with zero ______________. 1. Monetized Deficit 2. Fiscal Deficit 3. Revenue Deficit 4. Primary Deficit
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

A balanced budget is defined as a financial plan where the estimated total government expenditure is exactly equal to the estimated total government receipts, excluding borrowings, in a financial year.

Fiscal deficit represents the difference between the total expenditure of the government and its total non-debt receipts. When total expenditure equals total non-debt receipts, the government does not need to borrow money to meet its expenses. Consequently, the fiscal deficit becomes exactly zero, which is the defining characteristic of a balanced budget.

20Economy
The concept of 'Mahalnobis Distance' was developed to ___________.
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Answer: (A) Guess the production capacity of an area and expected yield

Explanation

Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis, the pioneer of Indian statistics, introduced the Mahalanobis Distance (D² statistic) in 1936 as a multi-dimensional measurement metric. In the context of large-scale sample surveys in India, Mahalanobis successfully applied statistical methodologies and random sampling techniques to agricultural statistics. This was particularly utilized in conducting crop-cutting experiments and analyzing multivariate data to accurately estimate the agricultural production capacity of a region and predict expected crop yields. This scientific methodology laid the foundation for modern agricultural forecasting, crop area estimation, and spatial planning in India.

21Economy
The major driver of the GDP growth between 2012-13 and 2015-16 and again in 2016-17 has been __________.
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Answer: (B) Consumption Expenditure

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey of India, consumption expenditure, specifically Private Final Consumption Expenditure (PFCE), served as the primary engine of India's real GDP growth during this period. For the six years between 2011-12 and 2016-17, the share of Private Final Consumption Expenditure averaged 57.5% of the total GDP, with its growth rate averaging 6.8%. This consumption-led demand became particularly critical in 2016-17, when it contributed nearly two-thirds of the overall GDP growth, helping sustain economic expansion despite a simultaneous slowdown in corporate investment and private fixed capital formation.

22Economy
Which of the following statement(s) regarding Treasury bill in India is(are) correct? 1. It is issued by Government of India. 2. It is issued by Reserve Bank of India. 3. It is issued to raise short-term funds for private sector. 4. It is issued to raise short-term funds for Government of India.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 4

Explanation

Treasury bills, or T-bills, are short-term money market instruments issued by the Government of India to meet its short-term financial requirements. Although the Reserve Bank of India manages the bidding and auction process on behalf of the government, T-bills represent the direct debt obligations of the central government itself, meaning they are issued by the Government of India. These bills are specifically designed to raise short-term funds for the Government of India to bridge temporary mismatches between its receipts and expenditures. They are issued at a discount to their face value and redeemed at par upon maturity, with tenors of 91 days, 182 days, and 364 days.

23Economy
The main aim of National Mission for Green India (GIM) is to -
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Answer: (A) Protect, restore and enhance India's diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change

Explanation

The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight key missions launched under India's National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC) in February 2014. The primary objective of the mission is to protect, restore, and enhance India's diminishing forest cover and respond to climate change through a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. It aims to improve the quality of existing forest cover as well as increase forest and tree cover across the country, thereby enhancing ecosystem services like biodiversity, hydrological services, and carbon sequestration.

24Economy
Asia's first EPZ was set up in ___________________.
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Answer: (B) Kandla, India

Explanation

Asia's first Export Processing Zone (EPZ) was established in Kandla, India, in 1965. Located on the Gulf of Kutch in Gujarat, the Kandla Free Trade Zone (KAFTZ) was set up as a multi-product zone to promote exports, attract foreign direct investment, and utilize the region's geographical advantage. This pioneering initiative made India one of the first countries in Asia to recognize and implement the EPZ model as a tool for economic growth and export promotion, which later paved the way for the development of Special Economic Zones (SEZs).

25EconomyGujarat-specific
According to the quick estimates of 2016-17, the highest share in the State economy of Gujarat is of ______________.
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Answer: (C) Secondary Sector

Explanation

According to the quick estimates of 2016-17, the secondary sector (industrial sector) contributed the highest share to the state economy of Gujarat, accounting for approximately 44.92% of the Gross State Value Added. This is primarily driven by Gujarat's robust manufacturing industries, petrochemical complexes, and well-developed industrial infrastructure. The tertiary (services) sector followed with a share of around 35.16%, while the primary (agriculture and allied) sector accounted for about 19.92%.

26Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
According to which of the following scheme(s) Government of Gujarat will provide interest subvention upto 6% to train 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled workers in rural areas? 1. Mukhyamantri Gramoday Yojana 2. Mukhyamantri Apprenticeship Yojana 3. The Bajpai Bankable Scheme 4. Manav Kalyan Yojana
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Answer: (B) Only 1

Explanation

During the presentation of the Gujarat State Budget for 2018–19, the government announced the Mukhyamantri Gramoday Yojana. Under this scheme, the state provides interest subvention of up to 6% to train and support 50,000 skilled and semi-skilled workers, as well as micro-entrepreneurs, in rural areas to promote self-employment in traditional occupations such as carpentry, masonry, pottery, and shoemaking. Additionally, an extra 2% interest subvention is offered to women, Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and persons with disabilities.

27Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to free trade agreement (FTA)? 1. FTAs are arrangements between two or more countries or trading blocs that primarily agree to reduce or eliminate customs tariff and no tariff barriers on substantial trade between them. 2. Each member sets its own tariffs on imports from non-member.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an arrangement between two or more countries or trading blocs designed to reduce or eliminate customs tariffs and non-tariff barriers on substantial trade between the participating entities. This facilitates smoother trade flows and market access among member countries.

Furthermore, unlike a customs union which establishes a common external tariff for non-members, members of an FTA maintain their individual sovereignty over trade policy with outside nations. This means each member state retains the authority to set its own separate tariff rates on imports coming from non-member countries.

28Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is (are) correct with reference to the reason(s) for Cyclical Unemployment? 1. Cyclical nature of business 2. Recession in global market 3. People keep changing from one job to another 4. Mismatch between the jobs available and the skill levels of the unemployed
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Cyclical unemployment is directly linked to the macroeconomic cycles of economic upturns and downturns, also known as business cycles.

Statement 1 is correct because cyclical unemployment is caused by the cyclical nature of business. During periods of economic contraction or recession, aggregate demand for goods and services declines, forcing businesses to scale down production and lay off workers.

Statement 2 is correct because a recession in the global market leads to a decline in international trade, reduced export demand, and an overall slowdown in economic activities, which subsequently reduces the demand for labor and drives up cyclical unemployment.

29EconomyGujarat-specific
What is the main theme of Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit 2019?
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Answer: (D) Shaping of a new India

Explanation

The 9th edition of the Vibrant Gujarat Global Summit, held in January 2019 at Gandhinagar, was organized around the primary theme of Shaping of a New India. The summit served as a key platform for brainstorming on global, national, and state-level socio-economic development, showcasing India's economic potential, and facilitating international partnerships and investment opportunities.

30Economy
Recently which of the following sectors has been granted infrastructure status by the Government?
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Answer: (B) Logistics Sector

Explanation

In November 2017, the Ministry of Finance, Government of India, granted infrastructure status to the logistics sector by including it in the Harmonized Master List of Infrastructure Sub-sectors. This was accomplished by widening the category of "Transport" to "Transport and Logistics".

The inclusion of logistics infrastructure—which encompasses multi-modal logistics parks, cold chain facilities, and large-scale warehousing facilities meeting specific investment and area thresholds—allows the sector to access infrastructure lending at easier terms and enhanced limits. It also enables logistics companies to raise longer-tenure funds from insurance companies and pension funds, access larger amounts of capital via External Commercial Borrowings (ECB), and borrow from the India Infrastructure Financing Company Limited (IIFCL).

31Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Gender Development Index? 1. The index measures gender gaps in human development achievements 2. It accounts for disparities between women and men in three basic dimensions of human development - health, knowledge and living standards 3. It is released by World Economic Forum
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The Gender Development Index (GDI) is designed to measure gender gaps in human development achievements. It calculates the ratio of female to male Human Development Index (HDI) values, thereby highlighting disparities between women and men. It evaluates these gaps across three basic dimensions of human development: health, measured by life expectancy at birth; knowledge, measured by expected and mean years of schooling; and living standards, measured by estimated gross national income per capita. This index is officially compiled and released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) as part of its Human Development Reports, while the World Economic Forum publishes the Global Gender Gap Index.

32Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the National Population Policy introduced in India in the year 2000? 1. The immediate objective was to meet needs of contraception, health infrastructure, health personnel and to provide integrated services for basic reproductive and child health care. 2. The medium term objective was to lower down the total fertility rates to the replacement level by 2010. 3. The long term objective was to achieve a stable population by 2045.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The National Population Policy (NPP) 2000 was formulated with three distinct objectives targeting different timelines. The immediate objective focused on meeting the unmet needs of contraception, health infrastructure, and health personnel, while providing integrated service delivery for basic reproductive and child healthcare. The medium-term objective aimed to lower the Total Fertility Rate to the replacement level of 2.1 by 2010. The long-term objective targeted achieving a stable population by 2045, balancing population growth with sustainable economic progress, social development, and environmental protection.

33EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following Vision Documents represents BIG 2020 of Government of Gujarat?
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Answer: (B) Blueprint for infrastructure in Gujarat 2020

Explanation

The BIG 2020 stands for the Blueprint for Infrastructure in Gujarat 2020. It is a long-term vision document launched by the Government of Gujarat, prepared by the Gujarat Infrastructure Development Board (GIDB). The document serves as a comprehensive infrastructure development plan, outlining a proposed investment of approximately Rs. 11.8 lakh crore across 19 different infrastructure sectors, including transport, energy, water, urban development, and social infrastructure, to ensure sustainable and high-growth economic development across the state.

34Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Special category States have some common characteristics like having special socio-economic or geographical problems, high cost of production, etc. 2. The special incentives packages for such States are also implemented by Ministry of Commerce and Industry. 3. Himachal Pradesh, Odisha, the North Eastern States are included in this category.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Special Category Status is a classification granted by the Central Government to assist states facing geographical and socio-economic disadvantages. The features defining these states include hilly and difficult terrain, low population density, a significant tribal population, strategic international border locations, economic and infrastructural backwardness, non-viable state finances, and a high cost of production.

To boost economic development in these regions, the Ministry of Commerce and Industry implements special industrial incentive packages, such as the Industrial Development Schemes, which provide capital investment development subsidies and other fiscal incentives.

While Himachal Pradesh and the North Eastern States hold Special Category Status, Odisha does not have this status, which makes the first and second statements the only correct statements.

35EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Socio-Economic Survey of Gujarat (2017-18)? 1. Gujarat is the 3rd largest producer of milk in the country. 2. Gujarat is the 2nd largest producer of cotton, groundnut and condiments and spices in India. 3. Gujarat has higher unemployment rate among the States of India.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

According to the Socio-Economic Review of Gujarat State (2017-18), Gujarat is the third largest producer of milk in India. The state contributes approximately 7.9% to the total national milk production, supported by a highly robust cooperative dairy network.

36Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the certain steps taken by the Government of Gujarat to mitigate different kinds of risks in the state? 1. 'Apadamitra' involves training of community volunteers in conducting basic search and rescue operations during emergencies. 2. National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project to construct 100 multipurpose cyclone shelters in collaboration with IMF and Japan. 3. Five emergency response centers to be constructed at Rajkot, Surat, Vadodara, Gandhidham and Gandhinagar.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The Apadamitra scheme is a community-focused disaster risk mitigation initiative that trains local community volunteers to become first responders, enabling them to conduct basic search and rescue operations, administer primary first aid, and assist the administration during emergencies.

To improve regional response times and capability, the Government of Gujarat, through the Gujarat State Disaster Management Authority, established five Regional Emergency Response Centres at strategically located sites across the state: Rajkot, Surat, Vadodara, Gandhidham, and Gandhinagar. These centres are equipped with advanced search and rescue equipment and trained personnel to act effectively during the critical golden hour of any disaster.

The National Cyclone Risk Mitigation Project is implemented in coastal states, including Gujarat, with the financial assistance and collaboration of the World Bank, rather than the International Monetary Fund and Japan.

37Economy
What is the Liquidity Adjustment Facility Corridor in India?
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Answer: (C) The Difference between Repo rate and Reverse Repo rate

Explanation

The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) corridor is defined as the difference between the Repo rate and the Reverse Repo rate. Under this monetary framework managed by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the Repo rate represents the interest rate at which the central bank injects liquidity into the banking system, whereas the Reverse Repo rate represents the rate at which the RBI absorbs excess liquidity from banks. The spread between these two interest rates forms the corridor, which serves to stabilize short-term money market rates and align them with the policy targets.

38Economy
Which of the following includes the correct Indicators of the Economic Development? 1. Real Gross Domestic Product 2. Real per Capita Income 3. Unemployment 4. Poverty 5. Human Development Index
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 5

Explanation

Economic development is a multidimensional process that involves quantitative growth alongside qualitative improvements in the standard of living, health, education, and institutional structures. The standard metrics used globally to measure and compare the level of economic development of nations include Real Gross Domestic Product, Real Per Capita Income, and the Human Development Index.

Real Gross Domestic Product indicates the overall size and growth of the economy adjusted for inflation, providing a measure of aggregate output.

Real Per Capita Income acts as a measure of the average income earned per person in a country, also adjusted for inflation, reflecting the material standard of living and purchasing power of the citizens.

The Human Development Index is a composite index introduced by the United Nations Development Programme that measures development across three key dimensions: a long and healthy life, access to knowledge, and a decent standard of living.

These three metrics directly measure the economic output, average economic well-being, and social welfare aspects of development, making them the primary positive indicators of economic development.

39Economy
A systematic record in the form of double entry book keeping balance sheet comprising all economic transactions between one country and rest of the world during any given period time is called as
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Answer: (D) Balance of Payments

Explanation

The Balance of Payments is a systematic record of all economic transactions, including trade in goods, services, and financial assets, between the residents of a country and the rest of the world over a specific period, usually a year. It is structured on the double-entry bookkeeping system, meaning every transaction is recorded as having both a credit entry and a corresponding debit entry, ensuring the overall balance sheet mathematically balances to zero.

40Economy
The Public Revenue and Public Expenditure, including public debt, are designed to achieve social economic and sustainable economic development with low inflation and lower unemployment is denoted by ___________.
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Answer: (A) Fiscal Policy

Explanation

Fiscal policy is the key economic framework used by a government to influence and monitor the nation's economy. It primarily operates through three main instruments: public revenue, public expenditure, and public debt management. By strategically adjusting taxation rates to generate public revenue and directing public expenditure toward development, infrastructure, and social welfare, the government manages aggregate demand. The utilization of public debt helps finance deficits during periods of resource shortages. The ultimate objectives of fiscal policy are to achieve sustainable economic growth, foster social-economic development, maintain price stability by controlling inflation, and reduce unemployment.

41Economy
Which of the following are the parts of the Social Infrastructure in India? 1. Transport 2. Housing 3. Health, Sanitation 4. Energy 5. Education
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Answer: (A) Only 2, 3 and 5

Explanation

Infrastructure in an economy is categorized into economic infrastructure and social infrastructure. Social infrastructure refers to the channels and systems that support and improve the quality of human life, which indirectly increases economic productivity by building human capital. Housing, health, sanitation, and education are the core components of social infrastructure as they directly contribute to human resource development, health outcomes, and basic living standards. On the other hand, transport and energy are classified as economic infrastructure because they directly facilitate production, distribution, and physical connectivity within the economy.

42Economy
SEZs are not exempted from which of the following taxes?
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Answer: (B) Minimum Alternative Tax

Explanation

Minimum Alternate Tax (MAT) was levied on Special Economic Zone (SEZ) developers and units with effect from April 1, 2012, through the Finance Act, 2011. This amendment to Section 115JB of the Income-tax Act, 1961, withdrew the previous MAT exemption for SEZs to ensure that corporate taxpayers generating significant profits contribute a minimum tax to the exchequer.

43Economy
Which of the following rate of inflation directly affects the end-consumer behavior?
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Answer: (B) Consumer price Index

Explanation

The Consumer Price Index measures the average change over time in the prices paid by retail consumers for a basket of goods and services. Because it reflects the actual retail prices that individuals pay in the market, any change in this index directly alters the cost of living and the purchasing power of households. Consequently, changes in the Consumer Price Index directly shape consumer expectations, disposable income, and spending patterns, directly influencing end-consumer behavior.

44EconomyGujarat-specific
Per Capita income of Gujarat at current prices, in comparison to per capita income of India, at current prices is _____________.
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Answer: (B) Higher

Explanation

During the financial year 2017 to 2018, the per capita income of Gujarat at current prices stood at approximately ₹1,73,079. In comparison, the national average per capita income of India at current prices during the same period was around ₹1,14,958. This substantial difference demonstrates that Gujarats per capita income is higher than the national average, driven by robust industrial growth, manufacturing output, and service sector expansion in the state.

45Economy
The Indian monetary system is based on which of the following methods?
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Answer: (B) Minimum Reserve System

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) operates the currency issuance under the Minimum Reserve System. Adopted in 1957, this system requires the RBI to maintain a minimum reserve of ₹200 crore at all times to back the domestic currency in circulation. Within this statutory minimum, the value of gold coins and gold bullion must not be less than ₹115 crore, while the remaining balance of at least ₹85 crore is held in the form of foreign securities. After establishing and maintaining this minimum reserve, the RBI is empowered to issue currency to any extent required by the economic transactions and growth requirements of the nation. This framework ensures confidence in the domestic currency while providing the necessary flexibility to meet expanding monetary demands.

46Economy
The Phrase - 'Zero Defect and Zero Effect' is associated with the campaign -
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Answer: (D) Make in India

Explanation

The phrase Zero Defect and Zero Effect was coined by Prime Minister Narendra Modi during his Independence Day address in 2014 and is key to the Make in India initiative. This slogan was designed to elevate the quality of Indian manufacturing while protecting the environment. Zero Defect signifies that goods manufactured in India should have no defects and meet high international standards, ensuring they are not rejected in global markets. Zero Effect ensures that the manufacturing processes have no adverse ecological footprint, focusing on sustainable development, waste reduction, and energy efficiency.

47Polity and Governance
To whom of the following does the Aam Admi Yojana provide social security?
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Answer: (C) Persons between the age group of 18 years and 59 years under 48 identified vocational/ occupational groups/rural landless households

Explanation

The Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana is a national social security scheme designed to provide life insurance protection and disability coverage to rural landless households and workers belonging to 48 identified vocational and occupational categories. The eligibility criteria for the scheme require the beneficiary to be the head of the family or an earning member in a family below the poverty line or marginally above the poverty line under the identified occupations, falling within the age group of 18 years to 59 years. Administered through the Life Insurance Corporation of India, the scheme provides vital financial security against natural death, accidental death, and permanent or partial disability to these vulnerable groups.

48Economy
Funds collected through provident fund and small savings are part of which funds of the Government?
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Answer: (D) Public Account Fund

Explanation

Under Article 266(2) of the Constitution of India, all public moneys received by or on behalf of the Government of India, which are not part of the Consolidated Fund of India, are credited to the Public Account of India. This fund represents transactions where the government acts as a banker or custodian rather than the owner of the money. The funds collected through provident funds, small savings schemes, postal deposits, and other savings certificates are credited to this account because they are liabilities of the government that must eventually be repaid to the depositors. Since this money does not belong to the government, expenditures or withdrawals from the Public Account do not require the authorization or appropriation of the Parliament.

49Economy
From the following which of the five States together accounted for 70% exports of India in 2017-18?
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Answer: (B) Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Telangana and Maharashtra

Explanation

According to the Economic Survey 2017-18, five states namely Maharashtra, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Telangana together account for 70% of India's total international exports. This was highlighted using the newly integrated data from the Goods and Services Tax Network, which enabled the mapping of state-level contributions to international trade. Individually, Maharashtra contributed 22.3%, Gujarat contributed 17.2%, Karnataka contributed 12.7%, Tamil Nadu contributed 11.5%, and Telangana contributed 6.4% to the country's export basket.

50Economy
In Budget speech of 2018-19, The Finance Minister referred to 'Operation Green'. This term includes:
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Answer: (A) Tomato, Onion and Potatoes

Explanation

In the Union Budget 2018-19, the Government of India announced Operation Greens on the lines of Operation Flood with an outlay of ₹500 crore. The initiative was launched to address the price volatility of three essential kitchen staples, namely Tomato, Onion, and Potato (TOP). The primary objective of the scheme is to promote Farmer Producers Organizations, build agri-logistics, and establish processing facilities to ensure year-round availability of these crops and stabilize their prices for consumers while ensuring fair prices for farmers.

51Science and Technology
Which one of the following planets doesn't go around Sun from west to east?
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Answer: (D) Venus

Explanation

Venus rotates on its axis from east to west, which is known as retrograde rotation. While all planets in the solar system orbit the Sun in a counter-clockwise direction, Venus is unique in having a clockwise axial rotation. Consequently, on Venus, the Sun rises in the west and sets in the east.

52Geography
Some heat is received by atmosphere even after sunset from ______________.
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Answer: (A) Terrestrial radiation

Explanation

During the day, the Earth's surface absorbs energy from shortwave incoming solar radiation. After sunset, the Earth cools down by radiating this absorbed energy back into space in the form of longwave radiation, which is known as terrestrial radiation. The greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide, and water vapor present in the atmosphere are highly effective at absorbing this longwave terrestrial radiation, warming the air from below. This continuous emission of heat from the ground ensures that the atmosphere receives heat even in the absence of direct sunlight.

53Geography
Among the following types of forest, which has the highest species diversity?
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Answer: (B) Tropical forests

Explanation

Tropical forests, particularly tropical rainforests, exhibit the highest species diversity among all terrestrial ecosystems. This exceptional biodiversity is driven by their location near the equator, which ensures warm temperatures and abundant rainfall throughout the year. The lack of harsh seasonal variations creates a highly stable environment that allows for niche specialization and continuous reproduction. Furthermore, the multi-layered canopy structure of tropical forests provides a wide array of vertical habitats, supporting a vast number of plant, insect, bird, and mammal species.

54Geography
Maximum number of Indian islands are located in ___________.
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Answer: (A) Bay of Bengal

Explanation

India has a total of 1,382 off-shore identified islands, with the largest concentration located in the Bay of Bengal. The Andaman and Nicobar archipelago alone consists of approximately 572 islands, islets, and rocks, representing the vast majority of the country's total islands. These islands are the elevated portions of submarine mountains, stretching in a north-to-south arc-like pattern.

55Geography
The mighty civilizations of Roman and Greek flourished in _________.
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Answer: (C) Mediterranean Region

Explanation

The ancient Greek and Roman civilizations developed and flourished in the basin of the Mediterranean Sea, which defines the Mediterranean Region. The unique Mediterranean climate, characterized by mild, wet winters and warm, dry summers, supported the cultivation of key crops like olives, grapes, and grains that formed the agricultural backbone of these societies. Furthermore, the enclosed nature of the Mediterranean Sea provided a natural maritime highway that facilitated extensive trade, naval expansion, and cultural exchange, allowing these classical empires to thrive and project their influence across three continents.

56GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements regarding 2011 census for Gujarat is(are) correct? 1. The growth rate of population during the period from 1901 to 2011 is 564% 2. The lowest sex ratio was observed in Tapi District. 3. Anand and Surat were the districts in top five in terms of literacy rate.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

According to the 1901 census, the population of Gujarat was 9,094,748. By the 2011 census, the population increased to 60,439,692. The growth rate of the population during this period is calculated as:

(60,439,692 - 9,094,748) ÷ 9,094,748 × 100 ≈ 564.55%

This confirms that the growth rate during the period from 1901 to 2011 is approximately 564%.

In terms of literacy, the 2011 Census records the top five districts in Gujarat with the highest literacy rates as Surat (85.53%), Ahmedabad (85.31%), Anand (84.37%), Gandhinagar (84.16%), and Navsari (83.88%). Since Surat ranks first and Anand ranks third, both districts are within the top five in terms of literacy rate.

57Geography
Consider the following statements related to Lakshadweep islands and choose the correct ones: 1. The Eleven Degree channel separates the Amindivi Island in the north and Cannannore Islands in the south. 2. Lakshadweep group of islands are of tectonic origin. 3. Minicoy is the largest island in the Lakshadweep group of islands.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The Eleven Degree channel separates the northern Amindivi Islands from the southern Cannanore Islands of the Lakshadweep archipelago.

While the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are of tectonic origin, representing the elevated portions of submarine mountains, the Lakshadweep group of islands are entirely of coral origin, formed by coral deposits.

According to standard geographical textbooks, Minicoy is considered the largest island in the Lakshadweep group.

58GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Marine National Parks? 1. Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch is situated on the southern shore of the Gulf in the Devbhumi Dwaraka District of Gujarat and it is the first National Marine Park of India. 2. Gahirmatha is the first and the only Marine Sanctuary of Orissa, where Olive Ridely sea turtles migrate in huge numbers.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct because the Marine National Park and Sanctuary in the Gulf of Kutch was established as India’s first marine protected area, with the sanctuary declared in 1980 and the national park in 1982. It is situated along the southern shore of the Gulf of Kutch, covering the coastal waters and islands of the Devbhumi Dwarka and Jamnagar districts in Gujarat.

Statement 2 is correct because Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary, designated in 1997, is the first and only marine sanctuary in Odisha. It is globally renowned as the world's largest nesting beach for the migratory Olive Ridley sea turtles, which arrive here in massive numbers for mass nesting, a phenomenon known as Arribada.

59Geography
The Himalayan drainage system has evolved through a long geological history. These rivers are responsible for different erosional as well as depositional structures during their course. Which of the following are results of depositional activity of the Himalayan Rivers? 1. River Terraces 2. Ox-bow lakes 3. Braided channels 4. Alluvial Fans 5. Natural Leaves
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Answer: (C) Only 2, 3, 4 and 5

Explanation

The Himalayan rivers carry a massive load of sediments from the mountains which they deposit along their course as their velocity decreases in the plains, forming several distinct depositional landforms.

Ox-bow lakes are formed in the mature stage of the river when a meander loop is cut off from the main channel due to continuous deposition of silt at the neck of the loop.

Braided channels develop when a river deposits its heavy sediment load within its own bed, creating mid-channel bars that split the river into multiple shifting, interwoven streams.

Alluvial fans are fan-shaped deposits of sand and gravel formed at the foot of the mountains where the river transitions from a steep slope to a flat plain, causing a sudden drop in speed and deposition of its load.

Natural levees are low, linear ridges formed along the river banks due to the deposition of coarse sediments when the river overflows during floods.

These landforms are all direct consequences of the depositional processes of the river system.

60Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct in relation to Western Ghats? 1. The Western Ghats are the main reason for the monsoon rain in the western coast of India. 2. Western Ghats are locally known as Sahyadri in Tamil Nadu and Nilgiri hills in Telangana. 3. Heights of the Western Ghats decrease from north to south.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

The Western Ghats act as a continuous mountain barrier perpendicular to the moisture-laden southwest monsoon winds coming from the Arabian Sea. This orographic barrier forces the winds to ascend, cooling the air and causing heavy rainfall on the windward side, which makes them the primary reason for the monsoon rain along the western coast of India.

The elevation of the Western Ghats increases progressively from north to south, culminating in Anamudi, which is the highest peak situated in the southern region in Kerala. Geographically, the Western Ghats do not extend into Telangana. They are locally referred to as the Sahyadri in Maharashtra and Karnataka, while the Nilgiri hills are located at the junction of Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Karnataka.

61Geography
________________ have no natural satellites 1. Mercury and Venus 2. Earth and Mars 3. Jupiter and Saturn 4. Uranus and Neptune
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

Mercury and Venus are the only two planets in our solar system that do not possess any natural satellites. Their proximity to the Sun and the immense gravitational pull of the Sun make it extremely difficult for smaller bodies to form or be captured into stable orbits around these two inner planets, resulting in them having zero moons.

62Geography
Out of the five southern States: Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and Telangana, which state shares boundaries with the maximum number of Indian States?
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Answer: (B) Karnataka only

Explanation

Karnataka shares its land borders with six Indian states, which is the highest number among the southern states. The states that border Karnataka are Maharashtra to the north, Goa to the northwest, Telangana to the northeast, Andhra Pradesh to the east, Tamil Nadu to the southeast, and Kerala to the southwest. This extensive border connectivity makes Karnataka the southern state sharing boundaries with the maximum number of neighboring Indian states.

63Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Net Sown Area (NSA) of any region? 1. The net sown area and the area sown more than once together are called gross cultivated area. 2. The total land area on which crops are grown in a region is called net sown area. 3. In India, about 47% of total reporting area is under the net sown area.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Gross cultivated area, also known as gross cropped area, is defined as the sum of the net sown area and the area sown more than once in a given agricultural year.

Net sown area represents the actual physical land area on which crops are grown and harvested, with each field being counted only once regardless of how many times it is cropped during the year.

In India, land-use data indicates that the net sown area occupies approximately 46% to 47% of the total reporting area of the country.

64Geography
There is a place 'A' with longitude 45° east. There is another place 'B' with longitude 75° east. If local time at place 'A' is 1100 Hrs, what would be local time at Place 'B'?
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Answer: (B) 1300 Hrs

Explanation

The Earth rotates 360° in 24 hours, which means it covers 15° of longitude in 1 hour, or 1° of longitude in 4 minutes.

The difference in longitude between place B and place A is: 75° E - 45° E = 30°

Since 15° equals 1 hour of time difference, 30° corresponds to: 30° / 15° = 2 hours

Because place B is located further east than place A, its time is ahead of place A. Adding 2 hours to the local time of place A: 1100 Hrs + 2 hours = 1300 Hrs

65Geography
The tribal population in Andaman island largely belongs to the ____________.
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Answer: (D) Negrito race

Explanation

The indigenous tribal communities of the Andaman Islands, which include the Jarawas, Sentinelese, Onges, and Great Andamanese, belong to the Negrito racial group. These populations are characterized by physical traits such as short stature, dark skin, and frizzy hair. They are considered to be among the earliest human inhabitants of the region, having migrated out of Africa tens of thousands of years ago and remained largely isolated on the islands, preserving their unique hunter-gatherer lifestyle and genetic lineage.

66Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about the rocks in the Earth? 1. Rocks are commonly divided into igneous rocks, sedimentary rocks and metamorphic rocks. 2. Igneous rocks are formed by cooling, solidification and crystallization of hot and molten magma found below the earth crust. 3. Sedimentary rocks are formed by changes in pre-existing rocks under the influence of high temperature, pressure and chemically active solutions.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Rocks are aggregate solids of minerals making up the Earth's crust, commonly classified into three primary types: igneous, sedimentary, and metamorphic. This establishes Statement 1 as correct.

Igneous rocks are formed through the cooling, solidification, and crystallization of molten rock. When this process occurs beneath the Earth's crust using molten magma, it forms intrusive igneous rocks such as granite. This establishes Statement 2 as correct.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the alteration of pre-existing rocks under high temperature, pressure, and chemically active solutions describes the process of metamorphism, which forms metamorphic rocks. Sedimentary rocks, on the other hand, are formed by the accumulation, compaction, and cementation of mineral and organic particles over time.

67Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about the Forests in India? 1. Major regions of Tropical Evergreen Forests in India are Western Ghats, Plateau of Shillong, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Lakshadweep. 2. Major trees in the Tropical Deciduous Forests are Teak, Sal, Mango, Bamboo and Sandal. 3. Tropical Evergreen Forests are also called Monsoon Forest. 4. The National Forest Policy of 1988 proposed 33% of the total geographical area should be under forest/tree cover.
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Tropical evergreen forests in India thrive in regions with high annual rainfall exceeding 200 cm, which naturally includes the windward slopes of the Western Ghats, the Shillong Plateau of the northeastern hills, and the island territories of Lakshadweep and Andaman and Nicobar.

Tropical deciduous forests are the most widespread forest type in India and are also known as monsoon forests because the trees shed their leaves during the dry season. Major commercial tree species found in these forests include teak, sal, bamboo, mango, and sandalwood.

The National Forest Policy of 1988 was formulated with the primary aim of maintaining environmental stability and ecological balance, recommending that a minimum of 33% of the country's total geographical area should be maintained under forest or tree cover.

68Geography
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Coral Reefs in India? 1. Coral reefs are the counterpart to the tropical rain forest in terms of species diversity and biological productivity in the Ocean. 2. The major reef formations in India are restricted to the Gulf of Mannar, Pal bay, Gulf of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands and the Lakshadweep Islands. 3. All the coral reefs in India are fringing reefs. 4. The coral formations of the Gulf of Kutch represent one of the extreme northern limits of corals in the Indian Ocean.
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Answer: (B) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Coral reefs are highly productive marine ecosystems characterized by massive biodiversity, earning them the designation of the counterparts to tropical rainforests in the ocean. In India, the major coral reef formations are restricted to specific regions, namely the Gulf of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch, Andaman and Nicobar Islands, and the Lakshadweep Islands. Among these, the reefs of Lakshadweep are atolls, which invalidates the claim that all Indian reefs are fringing reefs. Furthermore, the coral formations of the Gulf of Kutch are situated at a high latitude near 22 degrees North, representing one of the northernmost geographical limits of coral reefs in the entire Indian Ocean.

69Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the Biodiversity Hotspot? 1. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeography region with significant levels of biodiversity that is threatened with destruction. 2. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at least 500 species of vascular plants as endemic and it has to have lost at least 50% of its primary vegetation. 3. Western Ghats is a biodiversity hotspot in India.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The concept of a biodiversity hotspot was developed by Norman Myers to identify regions of high conservation priority. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region characterized by significant levels of biodiversity that is under constant threat of destruction. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must meet two strict criteria defined by Conservation International. First, it must contain at least 1,500 species of vascular plants as endemics, which is more than 0.5% of the world's total. Second, it must have lost at least 70% of its original native habitat or primary vegetation. Thus, the thresholds of 500 species and 50% habitat loss are incorrect. The Western Ghats is recognized as one of the four major biodiversity hotspots in India due to its exceptionally high level of species endemism and severe habitat fragmentation.

70Geography
Which of the following match(es) is(are) incorrect? 1. Nathu La pass : Sikkim and Tibet 2. Palakkad gap pass : Kerala and Tamil Nadu 3. Shipki La pass : Arunachal Pradesh and China 4. Zoji La pass : Kashmir Valley and Ladak
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Answer: (B) Only 3

Explanation

Shipki La is a mountain pass and border post located in the Kinnaur district of Himachal Pradesh, India. It connects the state of Himachal Pradesh with the Tibet Autonomous Region of China, making its match with Arunachal Pradesh incorrect.

71Geography
Singapore lies in ______________ zone.
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Answer: (A) Equatorial rain

Explanation

Singapore is located approximately 1.35 degrees north of the equator. Due to its geographic position, it has an equatorial climate characterized by uniform temperatures, high humidity, and abundant rainfall throughout the year. The region does not experience distinct dry or wet seasons, receiving heavy precipitation year-round, which places it in the equatorial rain zone.

72Economy
In India, which among the following decades are referred as the period of population explosion?
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Answer: (D) 1951-1981

Explanation

The decades from 1951 to 1981 are referred to as the period of population explosion in India. During this phase, India experienced a rapid decline in the mortality rate due to improved sanitation, better healthcare facilities, control of epidemics, and efficient food distribution, while the birth rate remained consistently high. This sharp divergence between falling death rates and high birth rates resulted in an unprecedented growth rate of the population.

73Geography
Which of the following statements isn't correct?
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Answer: (C) The disruption of Gondwana land began in Cenozoic Era.

Explanation

The disruption of Gondwana land began during the Mesozoic Era, specifically in the Jurassic Period around 180 million years ago. The Cenozoic Era, which began approximately 66 million years ago, occurred long after the initial breakup and fragmentation of Gondwana land had already commenced.

74Geography
Which of the following statements isn't correct?
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Answer: (D) Sutlej originates from Rohtang Pass.

Explanation

The Sutlej River originates from the Rakshastal Lake, which is situated near Mount Kailash in the southwestern Tibetan Plateau at an altitude of about 4,570 meters. It enters India through the Shipki La pass in Himachal Pradesh. The Rohtang Pass in Himachal Pradesh is the source of the Beas River, and the Ravi River also rises nearby in the Bara Bhangal area of Himachal Pradesh, not the Sutlej.

75Geography
The soda granite rocks belonging to the Dharwar system in the Subaranrekha river valley of Chhotanagpur has ________________.
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Answer: (B) Mainly copper and uranium deposits

Explanation

The soda granite rocks belonging to the Dharwar system in the Subarnarekha river valley of the Chhotanagpur plateau are well-known for hosting rich copper and uranium deposits. This geological zone, commonly referred to as the Singhbhum Shear Zone or Singhbhum Copper Belt, contains highly deformed metamorphosed rocks including albite-rich soda granite. These rocks act as the primary host for copper ores like chalcopyrite (extensively mined in the Mosabani and Rakha areas) and uranium minerals like uraninite (mined at Jaduguda, Narwapahar, and Turamdih).

76Geography
Which one of the following pairs of the states of India is associated with the highest and the lowest sex ratio respectively as per the 2011 Census of India?
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Answer: (C) Kerala and Haryana

Explanation

As per the 2011 Census of India, Kerala recorded the highest sex ratio among all Indian states with 1084 females per 1000 males. Conversely, Haryana recorded the lowest sex ratio among all Indian states with 879 females per 1000 males.

77Geography
Which of the following groups of rivers of India originates beyond India?
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Answer: (B) Bharamputra, Kosi and Lohit

Explanation

The Brahmaputra, Kosi, and Lohit rivers all have their sources located outside the geographic boundaries of India. The Brahmaputra originates in the Angsi Glacier of Tibet, situated near Mount Kailash. The Kosi River is a transboundary system whose primary headwaters, such as the Arun River, originate in the Tibetan Plateau and Nepal. The Lohit River, which is a major tributary of the Brahmaputra, has its source in the Zayul region of Eastern Tibet before flowing into Arunachal Pradesh.

78Economy
The term Green Bonus is related with _________________.
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Answer: (B) Environment and Forest

Explanation

The term Green Bonus refers to the financial compensation or special central assistance demanded by and provided to states, particularly the Himalayan states of India, for conserving their forest cover and maintaining ecological resources. Since these forest-rich regions provide vital ecosystem services such as carbon sequestration, water cycle regulation, and biodiversity conservation to the rest of the nation, they face developmental restrictions and significant opportunity costs. The Green Bonus acts as an incentive mechanism to compensate these states for protecting their environment and forests rather than exploiting them for commercial or industrial development.

79Geography
Which of the following statements is correct about the Datum Line?
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Answer: (D) It is an imaginary horizontal line used as a reference for measuring heights | depths.

Explanation

A datum line is a standard reference surface or imaginary horizontal line used by surveyors, cartographers, and engineers to measure and record vertical distances, such as elevations, heights, and depths. In most geographic and geodetic applications, Mean Sea Level is adopted as the primary datum line. By establishing this baseline as the zero-elevation point, it ensures consistent and accurate measurements across different regions and topographic surveys.

80Economy
Kalol, Singereni, Tehri and Kurnool are serially associated with -
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Answer: (A) Petroleum, Coal, Hydro electricity, Solar Power

Explanation

Kalol in Gujarat is highly renowned for petroleum and natural gas reserves. Singareni in Telangana is famous for the Singareni Collieries Company Limited, which is a major coal mining hub in southern India. Tehri in Uttarakhand is the location of the major Tehri Dam project on the Bhagirathi River, which generates significant hydro electricity. Kurnool in Andhra Pradesh is home to the Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park, which has a massive solar power generation capacity.

81GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following cities of Gujarat lies in the north of Tropical of Cancer?
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Answer: (D) Mehesana

Explanation

Mehesana is geographically positioned at a latitude of approximately 23° 36' N. The Tropic of Cancer is located at a latitude of approximately 23° 26' N. Because the latitude of Mehesana is greater than that of the Tropic of Cancer, the city lies to its north.

82Geography
Which of the following two are linked by the Sethusamundram Ship Channel?
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Answer: (A) Gulf of Mannar | Palk Strait

Explanation

The Sethusamudram Shipping Canal Project is designed to create a continuous navigable sea route around the Indian peninsula. It connects the Gulf of Mannar with the Palk Strait by dredging a channel through the shallow waters of the Rama Sethu (Adam's Bridge) region. This enables vessels to transit directly between the west coast and the east coast of India, bypassing the need to circumnavigate the island of Sri Lanka.

83Geography
What types of rocks are found in Chhotanagpur plateau?
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Answer: (C) Metamorphic rocks

Explanation

The Chhotanagpur plateau is a continental plateau in eastern India, predominantly composed of ancient Precambrian crystalline rocks dating back to the Archaean era. These rocks have undergone extensive metamorphism over billions of years due to intense heat and pressure. The geological structure is dominated by metamorphic rocks, such as gneiss, schist, and granulites, alongside granitic intrusions. The widespread presence of these highly altered rocks forms the bedrock of the plateau and accounts for its rugged terrain and rich mineral deposits.

84Geography
The name Hurricane is given to tropical cyclone in
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Answer: (C) The North Atlantic Ocean

Explanation

Tropical cyclones are powerful, rotating storm systems that develop over warm tropical waters. In the North Atlantic Ocean and the northeastern Pacific Ocean, these storms are called hurricanes once their sustained winds reach 119 kilometers per hour (74 miles per hour) or higher. The name is derived from Huracan, the ancient Mayan and Carib god of wind and storm.

85Geography
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Nainital lake - Tectonic wetland 2. Loktak lake - Oxbow wetland 3. Lonar lake - Crater wetland 4. Chilka lake - Lagoon wetland
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Nainital lake is located in the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand. It is a natural freshwater lake formed due to tectonic movements and faulting in the Himalayan region, which classifies it as a tectonic wetland.

Loktak lake in Manipur is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India. It functions as an oxbow wetland, which was formed by the meandering actions and shifting courses of the Manipur River and its associated tributaries.

Lonar lake in the Buldhana district of Maharashtra is a high-velocity impact crater formed on a basaltic rock platform by a meteorite collision during the Pleistocene epoch, making it a well-known crater wetland.

Chilika lake in Odisha is the largest brackish water lake on the east coast of India. It is separated from the Bay of Bengal by sand bars, spits, and barrier islands, classifying it as a classic lagoon wetland.

86Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the difference between Himalayan Rivers and Peninsular Rivers? 1. The Himalayan Rivers rise in the snowfields and carry water throughout the year whereas the Peninsular are rainfed. 2. Due to difference in character of the landforms the rivers of the Himalayan region follow highly serpentine courses whereas the rivers of the peninsular plateau flow through mostly straight channels.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The Himalayan rivers originate from glaciers and snowfields in the high mountains, supplying them with water during the dry summer season through snowmelt, and receive monsoon rainfall, making them perennial. Peninsular rivers rely solely on monsoon rainfall and experience significantly reduced flow or dry up during summer, making them rainfed and seasonal.

The geological characteristics of their respective basins also influence their flow paths. The Himalayan rivers flow through the soft, pliable alluvial deposits of the Indo-Gangetic plains, allowing them to erode laterally and meander in highly serpentine courses. Meanwhile, Peninsular rivers flow over the hard, rigid, and stable crystalline geological structures of the ancient Deccan plateau, which restricts lateral erosion and confines the rivers to relatively straight and stable channels.

87Geography
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the Alluvial Soils? 1. These soils have occupied the whole of the northern Great Plains except the arid tracts of Rajasthan. 2. These soils are fertile and utilized for growing Wheat and Rice. 3. These soils are called regur.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Alluvial soils are depositional soils, formed by the deposition of silt by rivers. They cover the vast northern Great Plains of India, extending from Punjab in the west to Assam in the east, excluding the arid and sandy tracts of Rajasthan where desert soils predominate. Due to their rich mineral content and fine texture, alluvial soils are highly fertile and support intensive agriculture, making them ideal for cultivating water-and-nutrient-intensive crops such as wheat and rice. Regur is the term used specifically for black clayey soils, which are found mainly in the Deccan trap region.

88Economy
How Immigration is different from Emigration? Identify the correct option. 1. Migration of people into an area from outside is called immigration, whereas movement out of an area to other regions is called emigration. 2. People moving from one area to another in search of seasonal employment is immigration while movement of people daily from one area to another area for employment purpose is emigration.
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Answer: (B) Only 1

Explanation

Immigration refers to the movement of people into a new country or region from outside to settle there permanently or semi-permanently, representing in-migration. Emigration is the act of leaving one's own country or region to settle in another, representing out-migration. Statement 1 correctly defines both concepts based on the direction of movement. Statement 2 is incorrect because seasonal or daily movement for work represents seasonal migration and commuting respectively, not immigration or emigration.

89Geography
How the weather is different from climate? Identify the correct option. 1. Weather deals with average occurrence of the various weather elements. 2. Climate deals with the day-to-day regional variations of climatic elements.
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Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

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Weather and climate differ primarily in their timeframes. Weather represents the short-term, day-to-day, or even hour-to-hour atmospheric conditions at a specific place, characterized by elements such as temperature, humidity, precipitation, and wind speed. Conversely, climate is the long-term average pattern of these weather elements over a larger region, typically calculated over a period of 30 years or more.

Since statement 1 defines climate instead of weather, and statement 2 defines weather instead of climate, both statements are incorrect because their definitions have been interchanged.

90Geography
Which of the following continents is known as a hollow continent because its population is very low in the central areas and concentrated around its margins?
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Answer: (C) South America

Explanation

South America is referred to as a hollow continent because its demographic distribution features a heavily populated outer rim with a sparsely populated interior. The vast majority of its population is concentrated in coastal cities and highland regions near the margins, while the geographic center—dominated by the Amazon Basin, tropical rainforests, and lack of extensive transport infrastructure—remains largely empty. This pattern of settlement is a legacy of colonial history, where major administrative and economic centers were established along the coast to facilitate trade with Europe, combined with physical barriers that historically restricted movement into the deep interior.

91Geography
Which of the following constituents of salinity of seawater shares the least concentration?
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Answer: (C) Potassium

Explanation

The average salinity of seawater is approximately 35 parts per thousand, which is dominated by a few major dissolved ions. The relative concentrations by weight of the ions listed are as follows:

Chloride (Cl⁻): 55.07% Sulphate (SO₄²⁻): 7.72% Magnesium (Mg²⁺): 3.68% Potassium (K⁺): 1.10%

Potassium has the lowest concentration among these major constituents.

92Geography
Which of the following statements are correct in context with Himalayan and Peninsular Rivers of India? 1. The Brahmaputra is an antecedent river. 2. The Himalayan river courses are more or less straight. 3. The peninsular river courses are serpentine. 4. The peninsular river valley courses are not deep.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 4

Explanation

The Brahmaputra is an antecedent river because it originated before the upliftment of the Himalayas. As the mountain range rose, the river cut deep gorges through the mountains to maintain its original flow, demonstrating antecedent drainage. Peninsular rivers are geologically older and have achieved a mature stage of development. They flow through broad, shallow, and graded valleys, which makes their valley courses not deep compared to the deep, V-shaped valleys and gorges of youthful Himalayan rivers.

93Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to 2011 Census of India? 1. Urban population in India was 31.15% to its total population. 2. Rural population in Gujarat State was 57.40% to its total population. 3. Kerala has the highest urban population to its total population.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

According to the 2011 Census of India, the urban population of India stood at 37.71 crore (377.1 million), which constitutes 31.15% of the total population of 121.08 crore. Thus, Statement 1 is correct.

In Gujarat, the total population was 6.04 crore, with the rural population making up 3.47 crore. This constitutes exactly 57.40% of the state's total population, while the urban population made up the remaining 42.60%. Thus, Statement 2 is correct.

Among the states in India, Goa has the highest proportion of urban population to its total population at 62.17%, followed by Mizoram at 52.11% and Tamil Nadu at 48.40%. Kerala's urban population percentage is 47.72%, meaning it does not have the highest proportion. Thus, Statement 3 is incorrect.

94Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) with reference to Gujarati language is(are) correct? 1. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Western. 2. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Central. 3. Gujarati language speakers are at the sixth position among major languages spoken in India as per the 2011 Census of India. 4. Gujarati language speakers are equal to the number of Urdu language speakers in India as per the 2011 Census of India.
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Answer: (D) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

Gujarati belongs to the Western Indo-Aryan subgroup of the Indo-Aryan language family, along with other regional languages like Rajasthani and Bhili.

According to the official 2011 Census of India, Gujarati is the sixth most spoken language in the country, with approximately 5.54 crore native speakers, making up 4.58% of the total population. It ranks behind Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Telugu, and Tamil.

95Geography
Which of the following statements is(are) correct? 1. Onam shifting cultivation is practised in Kerala. 2. Podu shifting cultivation is practised in Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. 3. Jhurn shifting cultivation is practised in Madhya Pradesh. 4. Penda shifting cultivation is practised in Assam.
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Answer: (A) Only 2

Explanation

Podu is a traditional form of shifting cultivation, also known as slash-and-burn agriculture, widely practiced by indigenous tribal communities on the hill slopes of Andhra Pradesh and Odisha. In this farming system, a patch of forest land is cleared of vegetation by cutting and burning, and crops are grown on the ash-enriched soil. After a few years, as the soil fertility declines, the land is left fallow to regenerate its natural vegetation, and the cultivators move to a new forest patch.

96Economy
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Iron and Steel industry in India? 1. Rourkela Steel plant was built by the German technical cooperation. 2. The Visvesvaraya Iron and Steel plant at Bhadravati was set up with the Canadian assistance. 3. The Hindustan Steel Limited's plant at Bhilai was set up under the Russian collaboration. 4. Bokaro Steel plant was built under the British collaboration.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The Rourkela Steel Plant in Odisha was established in 1959 with German technical and financial cooperation, specifically involving the German consortia of Krupp and Demag. The Bhilai Steel Plant in Chhattisgarh was set up in 1955 through a historic agreement with the Soviet Union (Russia), which provided the necessary technical and financial assistance during India's Second Five-Year Plan.

97Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to the revised allotment of the identity numbers of the National Highways of India (NHs)? 1. All North-South National Highways now have even numbers. 2. All East-West National Highways now have odd numbers. 3. The new number for the longest NH in India is NH 44.
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Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Under the systematic numbering system adopted by the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways, all North-South oriented National Highways are assigned even numbers, which increase sequentially from East to West. All East-West oriented National Highways are assigned odd numbers, which increase sequentially from North to South. Additionally, NH 44 is the longest National Highway in India, running from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir to Kanyakumari in Tamil Nadu, spanning over 3,745 kilometers and integrating several older highway routes.

98Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect? 1. Cyclones are usually associated with belts of rain, clouds and snow whereas anticyclones are generally free from precipitation. 2. Cyclones are violent storms characterized by high wind rotating around a calm centre of low atmospheric pressure. 3. The lifespan of a tropical cyclone may vary from one to three weeks.
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Answer: (C) Only 3

Explanation

Statement 3 is incorrect because the average lifespan of a tropical cyclone is about 5 to 10 days. They rarely persist for up to three weeks. Tropical cyclones derive their primary energy from the latent heat of condensation released by the evaporation of warm ocean waters (usually above 26.5 °C). As a result, once a tropical cyclone makes landfall or moves over colder waters, its thermal energy source is abruptly cut off, and the storm rapidly weakens and dissipates within a few days due to land friction and reduced moisture.

99Geography
Waves generated by earthquake, volcanic eruptions or underwater landslides reaching 15 meters or more in height devastating coastal communities are called __________________-.
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Answer: (B) Tsunamis

Explanation

Tsunamis are a series of giant ocean waves caused by the sudden and rapid displacement of a large volume of water. This displacement is most commonly triggered by underwater earthquakes, submarine volcanic eruptions, or coastal and underwater landslides. While tsunamis have extremely long wavelengths and low heights in the deep ocean, their speed decreases and their height increases dramatically as they enter shallow coastal waters. This shoaling effect can cause the waves to swell to heights of 15 meters or more, allowing them to strike coastal areas with immense force and cause widespread devastation to coastal communities.

100Geography
Murray-Darling system, one amongst the greatest rivers in the world, is in which country?
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Answer: (C) Australia

Explanation

The Murray-Darling river system is the longest and most significant river system in Australia. Spanning across the southeastern part of the continent, it comprises the Murray River and its major tributary, the Darling River. This system drains a massive catchment area known as the Murray-Darling Basin, which covers about one-seventh of Australia's total land mass and serves as the country's most vital agricultural region.

101Science and Technology
The Multi Application Solar Telescope (MAST) is at ______ Solar Observatory.
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Answer: (D) Udaipur

Explanation

The Multi Application Solar Telescope is installed at the Udaipur Solar Observatory, which is located on an island in the Fateh Sagar Lake in Udaipur, Rajasthan. Operationalized in June 2015 under the management of the Physical Research Laboratory, Ahmedabad, this 50 cm aperture telescope is designed for high-resolution studies of solar photospheric and chromospheric activity. Udaipur provides highly favorable sky conditions for solar observations, as the surrounding water body minimizes the air turbulence caused by ground heating, leading to sharp and accurate solar imaging.

102Science and Technology
A ______ is intended for natural resources monitoring and management and it operates from a Sun Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO).
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Answer: (C) Remote Sensing Satellite

Explanation

Remote sensing satellites are designed to gather information about the Earth's surface from a distance by detecting and measuring reflected or emitted electromagnetic radiation. This capability makes them highly effective for applications such as monitoring agricultural crops, forest cover, water bodies, soil moisture, and mineral resources. Placing these satellites in a Sun-Synchronous Polar Orbit (SSPO) ensures they pass over any given location on Earth at the same local solar time each day. This provides consistent lighting and shadow conditions, which is essential for accurate multi-temporal analysis, change detection, and effective mapping and management of natural resources.

103Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect? 1. Computer is capable of processing only Digital signals. 2. Appropriate software is required for processing the data. 3. Computer is capable of processing Digital as well as Analog signals. 4. Computer is capable of analyzing both quantitative and qualitative data.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

Computers are not restricted to processing only digital signals. Analog computers are designed to process continuous physical quantities such as voltage, pressure, temperature, and electrical current, which are analog in nature. Furthermore, hybrid computers combine the characteristics of both analog and digital computers to process both continuous and discrete signals. Because computers are capable of handling both digital and analog signals, statement 1 is incorrect.

104Science and Technology
According to the Information Technology Act (2008) CERT-In has been designated to serve as the national agency to perform which of the following functions in the area of cyber security? 1. Collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents 2. Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents 3. Emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents 4. Coordination of cyber incident response activities
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Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

Under Section 70B(4) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 (as amended by the Information Technology Amendment Act, 2008), the Indian Computer Emergency Response Team (CERT-In) is designated as the national nodal agency to handle cyber security challenges in India. The statute explicitly empowers CERT-In to perform several key functions, including the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information on cyber incidents, providing forecasts and alerts of cyber security incidents, taking emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents, and coordinating cyber incident response activities. Furthermore, it is responsible for issuing guidelines, advisories, and vulnerability notes related to information security practices.

105Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is correct?
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Answer: (A) Dissolved Oxygen of a water body is expected to be high when its temperature is low.

Explanation

The solubility of oxygen in water has an inverse relationship with water temperature. As the temperature of a water body decreases, the kinetic energy of the water molecules also decreases, reducing the rate at which gas molecules escape from the liquid. This physical property allows colder water to dissolve and retain a higher concentration of oxygen compared to warmer water.

106Science and Technology
Polar Stratospheric Clouds are associated with which of the following?
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Answer: (A) Ozone layer depletion

Explanation

Polar Stratospheric Clouds, also known as nacreous clouds, form in the extremely cold winter stratosphere over polar regions at temperatures below -78 °C. These clouds provide catalytic surfaces that convert inactive chlorine reservoir species into highly reactive, ozone-destroying chlorine radicals. When sunlight returns in the spring, ultraviolet radiation triggers photolytic reactions with these active chlorine species, leading to rapid and widespread catalytic destruction of ozone molecules in the stratosphere.

107Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Mangalyaan is India's Mars orbiter Mission, which was launched towards the Red planet in November 2013. 2. Mangalyaan made India the third Asian Nation to reach Mars Orbit. 3. The total cost of the mission is around INR 450 crore, which is the least expensive Mars Mission till date.
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

India launched its landmark Mars Orbiter Mission, popularly known as Mangalyaan, on 5 November 2013 from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre using the PSLV-C25 rocket. The entire project was completed with a highly economical budget of approximately ₹450 crore, earning global recognition as the least expensive Mars mission ever executed. While India successfully entered Mars orbit on 24 September 2014, it did so as the first Asian nation to achieve this feat, rather than the third, alongside being the first country in the world to succeed on its very first attempt. This confirms the validity of the first and third statements.

108Science and Technology
Which of the following statements isn't correct?
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Answer: (B) Increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere will lead to decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is a primary substrate required for photosynthesis in plants. An increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide levels generally enhances the rate of photosynthesis, a phenomenon known as the carbon dioxide fertilization effect, especially in C₃ plants. Therefore, an increase in carbon dioxide levels does not lead to a decrease in the rate of photosynthesis.

109EconomyGujarat-specific
The Gujarat Livelihood Promotion Company (GLPC) has joined hands with Central Salt Marine and Chemical Research Institute (CSMCRI) to encourage seaweed cultivation along the state coast. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the same? 1. In Gujarat, Seaweed culture can be best developed along the coast lines of Amreli and Kutch districts. 2. Seaweeds provide valuable source of raw material for industries like health, food, medicine, pharmaceuticals, textiles, fertilizers and animal feed. 3. Chemicals from red seaweeds such as alginicacid, mannitol, laminarin, fucoidin and iodine are extracted on a commercial basis. 4. Seaweeds are rich in minerals, vitamins, trace elements and bioactive substances and called as medical food of the 21ˢᵗ century.
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

Seaweed cultivation has emerged as a promising alternative livelihood for coastal communities in Gujarat. Amreli and Kutch districts possess ideal coastal geography, making them the primary zones for implementing these cultivation initiatives. Seaweeds serve as a vital source of raw materials across food, pharmaceutical, and textile industries. They are highly nutrient-dense, containing essential vitamins and minerals, which classifies them as the medical food of the 21st century. In contrast, chemicals like alginic acid, mannitol, laminarin, fucoidan, and iodine are extracted from brown seaweeds rather than red seaweeds, which instead yield agar and carrageenan.

110Economy
With respect to electricity generation and transmission, Wheeling Charges refers to _____________.
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Answer: (B) Charges for transmission of electricity from one place to another through transmission lines or grid

Explanation

Wheeling charges are the transit fees levied by transmission utilities or distribution licensees for transporting electricity from a generation source to the consumer's premises through their network. Under open access regulations, power producers or consumers can utilize existing grid infrastructure owned by a third party to transmit electricity by paying these regulated charges. This mechanism enables competition in the electricity market, allowing bulk consumers to procure power directly from distant generators without the need to construct private, dedicated transmission lines.

111Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Geographical Indication (GI): 1. A geographical Indication is primarily an agricultural, natural or a manufactured product originating from a definite geographical territory. 2. As of now Kachchhi Kharek, Gir Kesar Mango and Bhalia Wheat are the only three agricultural products having geographical indications in Gujarat.
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Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

A Geographical Indication is a name or sign used on products that correspond to a specific geographical origin and possess qualities, reputation, or characteristics essentially attributable to that territory. According to Section 2(e) of the Geographical Indications of Goods Registration and Protection Act, 1999, a GI applies primarily to agricultural, natural, or manufactured goods originating from a definite geographical territory. This makes Statement 1 correct.

In Gujarat, the key agricultural products carrying Geographical Indications are Gir Kesar Mango, celebrated for its unique aroma and saffron color; Bhalia Wheat, known for its high protein content and drought resistance; and Kachchhi Kharek, the indigenous date variety of Kutch harvested at the fresh khalal stage. Because these constitute the agricultural GI products of the state, Statement 2 is also correct.

112Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to the National Biotechnology Department Strategy (2015-2020) (Strategy-II)? 1. Establish India as a world-class Biomanufacturing hub for developing and developed markets. 2. Empower, scientifically and technologically India's incomparable human resources. 3. Discourage usage of inspired discovery research.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The National Biotechnology Development Strategy (2015-2020), also referred to as Strategy-II, was unveiled by the Department of Biotechnology to drive the growth of India's biotechnology sector.

The strategy seeks to establish India as a world-class biomanufacturing hub for developed and developing markets. It focuses on creating a robust infrastructure for research, development, and commercialization to facilitate a transition towards affordable and accessible technology.

It aims to scientifically and technologically empower India's incomparable human resources. This is driven by building a skilled workforce, nurturing leadership, and revitalizing the knowledge environment.

The strategy actively encourages use-inspired discovery research as one of its key guiding principles to align scientific advancements with inclusive development goals.

113Polity and Governance
India is not yet a member of which of the following multilateral groups? 1. Nuclear Suppliers group 2. Wassanar Arrangement 3. Australia Group 4. Zanger Group
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 4

Explanation

India is not a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group and the Zangger Committee. Admission to both of these nuclear export control regimes is heavily linked to the Non-Proliferation Treaty. Since India is not a signatory to the Non-Proliferation Treaty, its bid for Nuclear Suppliers Group membership is blocked due to the lack of consensus among the member states, and it remains excluded from the Zangger Committee for similar NPT-related criteria.

114Economy
Which of the following challenges are envisaged in the agriculture policy: Vision 2020? 1. Bridging yield crops 2. Emphasis on rain-fed ecosystems 3. Disintegrated nutrient management
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

The Indian Agricultural Research Institute policy paper on Agriculture Policy: Vision 2020 outlines key strategies and challenges for sustainable agricultural growth. Bridging yield gaps, referred to in the question as bridging yield crops, is crucial to realizing the untapped potential of crop cultivation in states where productivity remains below national averages. An emphasis on rain-fed ecosystems is also a key objective because rain-fed agriculture is highly vulnerable but critical to overall national food security. The policy recommends integrated nutrient management to sustain soil fertility and environmental health, rendering the concept of disintegrated nutrient management incorrect.

115Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct with reference to Kharai Camel? 1. These camels are well adapted to both Dry Land as well as coastal ecosystem and can thrive on high saline water and tolerate high TDS (Total Dissolved Salts). 2. They have excellent swimming capacity in sea water. 3. They graze mainly on mangrove and other saline species.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Kharai camel is a unique breed native to the coastal Kutch region of Gujarat. These camels are uniquely adapted to thrive in both dry land and wet coastal ecosystems, and they possess a high tolerance for water with high salinity and total dissolved salts. They are renowned for their exceptional ability to swim long distances, often up to three kilometers in sea water, to navigate between the mainland and offshore islands. Their primary source of food is mangrove vegetation and other saline-tolerant plant species found along the coastal belt, making mangroves essential for their survival and sustenance.

116Geography
The Montreux Record is a register of ________________. 1. Wetland sites under threat of anthropogenic activities. 2. Endangered species of tropical and subtropical Fauna. 3. Coastal cities under direct threat of consequences of global warming.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

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The Montreux Record is a register of wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Importance where changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result of technological developments, pollution, or other human interference. Maintained as part of the Ramsar List under the Ramsar Convention, it identifies and highlights specific international wetlands that require urgent conservation attention due to the threats posed by anthropogenic activities.

117Science and Technology
Terminator Gene is _______________.
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Answer: (B) Help in terminating seed germination.

Explanation

Terminator gene technology, technically known as Genetic Use Restriction Technology (GURT), is a biotechnology method where a genetically engineered sequence is inserted into a plant's genome. This genetic modification is designed to prevent the development of a viable embryo in the seeds produced by the crop. Consequently, the harvested seeds are sterile and cannot germinate if planted for a second generation, thereby terminating subsequent seed germination.

118Geography
A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in ___________________.
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Answer: (C) Death of fish due to lack of Oxygen

Explanation

When domestic sewage rich in organic waste enters a lake, it serves as an abundant source of food for aerobic decomposers, primarily bacteria. These microorganisms multiply rapidly and consume vast amounts of dissolved oxygen during the process of decomposing the organic matter. This dramatic increase in oxygen consumption leads to a sharp decline in the dissolved oxygen levels of the water body, causing a high Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD). As the dissolved oxygen levels drop critically low, fish and other aquatic organisms perish due to suffocation.

119Science and TechnologyGujarat-specific
The planned Chhaya Mithi Virdi nuclear power project in Gujarat which has been shifted to Kovada (Andhra Pradesh) will be constructed in collaboration with which foreign industrial house?
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Answer: (B) Westinghouse Electric

Explanation

The Chhaya Mithi Virdi nuclear power project, originally planned for the Bhavnagar district of Gujarat, was designated for development in technical cooperation with the US-based Westinghouse Electric Company to construct six AP1000 pressurized water reactors. Due to local protests and land acquisition delays at the Gujarat site, the project was relocated to Kovvada in the Srikakulam district of Andhra Pradesh, where Westinghouse Electric Company continues to be the foreign industrial collaborator for the reactor construction.

120Economy
Solar energy in India is more efficient __________________. 1. If we fix the orientation of the solar panels towards eastern direction 2. If we fix the orientation of the solar panels towards western direction 3. If we fix orientation of the solar panels towards southern direction 4. If we fix orientation of the solar panels towards Northern Direction
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Answer: (C) Only 3

Explanation

India is geographically located in the Northern Hemisphere, entirely north of the equator. Due to this position, the sun path is always angled towards the south for most of the year. To capture the maximum amount of solar radiation throughout the day and maximize energy generation efficiency, solar panels in India must be installed facing true south. This southern orientation ensures that the panels receive the most direct and consistent sunlight as the sun traverses the sky from east to west.

121Science and Technology
In our homes, the typical electric power parameters are _________________ in India.
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Answer: (C) 220V AC, 50 Hz frequency

Explanation

In India, the domestic electrical power transmission and distribution system supplies single-phase alternating current to households at a nominal voltage of 220V and a standard frequency of 50 Hz. This specification is standardized across the country by national regulatory bodies to ensure that all consumer electronic appliances operate safely, efficiently, and uniformly.

122Economy
Which of the following are the main air pollutants from the industry through usage of conventional energy sources?
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Answer: (D) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide

Explanation

The combustion of conventional fossil fuels like coal, petroleum, and natural gas in industrial boilers and power plants releases massive quantities of sulfur and nitrogen oxides into the atmosphere. Coal and crude oil naturally contain sulfur and nitrogen impurities which, when burned at high temperatures, oxidize to form sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and various nitrogen oxides, including nitrous oxide (N₂O). These two gases constitute the primary and most harmful air pollutants emitted by heavy industries relying on traditional energy sources, leading directly to acid rain, photochemical smog, and severe respiratory degradation.

123Economy
The main role of Bureau of Energy Efficiency is _______________.
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Answer: (B) To prepare standards and labels of appliances and specify accreditation procedure

Explanation

The Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) is a statutory body established under the provisions of the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, under the Ministry of Power, Government of India. One of its primary regulatory functions is to develop, formulate, and prepare energy efficiency standards and labeling programs (such as the Star Labeling program) for household appliances and other equipment. Additionally, the BEE is responsible for specifying the necessary certification and accreditation procedures for energy auditors and testing laboratories to ensure compliance with these energy efficiency norms.

124Economy
According to 2014 estimations, India is __________________ in the list of countries regarding the amount of CO₂ emissions from fossil fuel combustion.
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Answer: (D) Fourth

Explanation

The official GPSC master answer key clearly circles option (D) "Fourth" for Q124. This aligns with the Trends in Global CO2 Emissions 2014 report (PBL Netherlands Environmental Assessment Agency / EU Joint Research Centre), which ranked India fourth in CO2 emissions from fossil fuel combustion, behind China, the United States, and the European Union (or India ranked behind China, US, and Russia depending on the specific year's data), not third as originally listed in the dataset.

125Science and Technology
What is the name of NASA's Solar Probe launched recently to explore corona region of the Sun?
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Answer: (D) Parker Solar Probe

Explanation

NASA's Parker Solar Probe was launched on August 12, 2018, with the primary scientific mission of exploring the Sun's outer corona. It is the first NASA spacecraft named after a living person, astrophysicist Eugene Parker, who proposed the existence of the solar wind in 1958. The probe is designed to trace how energy and heat move through the solar corona and to explore what accelerates the solar wind and solar energetic particles. To withstand the extreme heat and radiation of the Sun's outer atmosphere, the spacecraft is equipped with a custom-designed carbon-composite heat shield that allows it to collect critical data closer to the Sun than any previous mission.

126Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. A block-chain is a growing list of records, called blocks, which are linked using Cryptography. 2. Block-chains which are readable by the public are widely used by crypto currencies.
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Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

A blockchain is a decentralized, distributed ledger that consists of a continuously growing list of records, known as blocks, which are linked and secured using cryptography. Each block contains a cryptographic hash of the previous block, a timestamp, and transaction data, ensuring the integrity and chronological order of the data. Public blockchains, which are permissionless networks readable and accessible by any member of the public, serve as the underlying infrastructure for major cryptocurrencies like Bitcoin and Ethereum, where transparency and open participation are fundamental.

127Science and Technology
Which of the following virus infections during pregnancy can cause infants born with microcephaly?
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Answer: (B) Zika

Explanation

Zika virus infection during pregnancy is a confirmed cause of congenital brain abnormalities, most notably microcephaly, a condition where infants are born with abnormally small heads and underdeveloped brains. The virus is primarily transmitted through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes and can be passed from a pregnant mother to her fetus. Once the virus crosses the placenta, it selectively targets and destroys neural progenitor cells in the developing fetal brain, disrupting normal cortical development and leading to severe neurological complications.

128Polity and Governance
Under Indian Forest Act (1927) which of the following is the correct classification of forest?
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Answer: (D) Protected Forests, Reserved Forests, Village Forests

Explanation

The Indian Forest Act, 1927 was enacted to consolidate the laws relating to forests, the transit of forest-produce, and the duties leviable on timber and other forest-produce. Chapter II, Chapter III, and Chapter IV of this Act establish a three-tier classification of forests. Reserved Forests are the most restricted category, where local people are generally prohibited from entering unless specifically permitted by a forest officer. Protected Forests are those where the state government retains proprietary rights, but certain activities like fuel wood collection or grazing are allowed unless specifically prohibited. Village Forests are created when the state government assigns the rights of the government over any land constituted as a reserved forest to a village community.

129Science and Technology
Which of the following is(are) not example(s) of Cloud Service? 1. Google Drive 2. MeghRaj 3. Dropbox 4. Windows Explorer
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Answer: (B) Only 4

Explanation

Windows Explorer is a local file manager application and graphical user interface included with the Microsoft Windows operating system. It runs locally on the user's computer to navigate and manage files and folders stored on the local hard drive or local network, making it a system utility software rather than a cloud-based service or cloud storage platform.

130Science and Technology
The phenomenon of exchange of genetic material between two chromosomes during sexual reproduction is called
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Answer: (B) Chromosomal crossover

Explanation

During sexual reproduction, gametes are formed through the process of cell division known as meiosis. During prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes align closely together. During this alignment, non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes can physically overlap, break, and swap corresponding segments of their genetic material. This physical exchange of DNA segments is called chromosomal crossover. It is a critical biological mechanism that breaks the linkage between genes on the same chromosome, resulting in new combinations of alleles and driving genetic diversity in the offspring.

131Science and Technology
Which of the following types of Laser is used in Laser Printer?
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Answer: (A) Semiconductor Laser

Explanation

Semiconductor lasers, commonly referred to as laser diodes, are used in laser printers because of their compact size, low power requirements, and ability to be rapidly switched on and off. In a laser printer, the semiconductor laser emits a highly focused light beam that scans across a rotating photosensitive drum to create an electrostatic image of the page to be printed, which then attracts the toner particles to transfer onto the paper.

132Geography
Ozone layer prevents entry of which of the following rays in the atmosphere?
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Answer: (D) Both UV-B and UV-C

Explanation

The stratospheric ozone layer acts as a protective shield by absorbing harmful solar ultraviolet radiation before it can penetrate into the lower atmosphere. It completely blocks highly energetic and hazardous UV-C radiation, which spans wavelengths from 100 to 280 nm. It also filters out the vast majority of UV-B radiation, which has wavelengths ranging from 280 to 315 nm and is known to cause genetic damage, skin cancers, and cataracts. Meanwhile, UV-A radiation, which has the longest wavelengths from 315 to 400 nm, is not significantly absorbed by ozone and reaches the Earth's surface. By absorbing the entirety of UV-C and the major portion of UV-B, the ozone layer prevents these harmful rays from entering the atmosphere.

133Science and Technology
Which of the following fuels has minimum Nitrogen content?
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Answer: (C) LPG

Explanation

LPG is composed primarily of propane and butane, which are pure hydrocarbons. During the petroleum refining and gas processing stages, these hydrocarbons are liquefied under moderate pressure. Because nitrogen has a very low critical temperature of -146.9 °C, it cannot be liquefied at ambient temperatures even under high pressure. Consequently, nitrogen remains in the gaseous phase and is separated during the liquefaction process, leaving LPG with virtually zero or negligible nitrogen content.

134Science and Technology
Which of the following is an artificial non-saccharide sweetner used as a sugar substitute?
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Answer: (D) Aspartame

Explanation

Aspartame is an artificial, non-saccharide sweetener synthesized from two amino acids, L-aspartic acid and L-phenylalanine. It is a dipeptide methyl ester that is approximately 200 times sweeter than regular table sugar (sucrose). Since it is highly intense in sweetness, only a minute quantity is required to achieve the desired sweet taste, which contributes virtually zero calories to the diet. This property makes it widely used as a sugar substitute in low-calorie and diet foods, carbonated beverages, and sugar-free products.

135Science and Technology
Homes in urban areas have satellite TV Dishes. What is the most common frequency band of DTH signals?
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Answer: (D) Ku

Explanation

Direct-to-Home (DTH) satellite television transmissions primarily utilize the Ku-band, which spans the frequency range of 12 GHz to 18 GHz. This frequency band is highly preferred for consumer satellite broadcasting because its higher frequencies and shorter wavelengths allow high-gain reception using relatively small and compact dish antennas. This compact equipment size makes it highly suitable for easy installation on residential balconies, walls, and rooftops in crowded urban environments.

136Science and Technology
Polar orbits are preferred for remote sensing of Earth due to ______________
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Answer: (A) Global Coverage

Explanation

Polar orbits are low-altitude orbits that pass over or near both poles of the Earth. As the satellite travels in a near-meridional direction from pole to pole, the Earth rotates on its axis beneath it. This relative perpendicular motion allows the onboard sensors to systematically observe and image different longitudinal swaths of the planet over successive orbital passes. Consequently, the satellite can achieve complete global coverage of the Earth's surface over a repeating cycle of days, making polar orbits the most preferred orbit for comprehensive remote sensing, mapping, and Earth observation.

137Geography
If we examine a winter night thermal image of an area, water bodies will appear _________________ compared to land.
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Answer: (A) Brighter

Explanation

Water has a much higher specific heat capacity than land, meaning it absorbs and releases heat at a much slower rate. During a winter night, the land surface cools down rapidly by radiating its heat into the atmosphere. In contrast, water bodies retain their warmth and remain at a significantly higher temperature than the surrounding land. Because thermal infrared imaging sensors detect emitted thermal radiation, which is proportional to temperature, warmer objects emit more energy and are depicted as lighter or brighter tones. Consequently, the warmer water bodies stand out as brighter features against the colder, darker land on a winter night thermal image.

138Science and Technology
ISRO has retrieved a module in Bay of Bengal under space capsule recovery experiment. This experiment is going to help ISRO in _________________________.
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Answer: (A) Manned space Mission

Explanation

The Space Capsule Recovery Experiment (SRE-1) was designed to demonstrate and test crucial technologies required for retrieving an orbiting spacecraft back to Earth. Launched in January 2007 and safely recovered from the Bay of Bengal, SRE-1 successfully tested essential capabilities including re-entry aero-thermodynamics, thermal protection systems, navigation, guidance, and control during atmospheric entry, deceleration, flotation, and aquatic recovery operations. These technological milestones are fundamental building blocks and precursor requirements for developing India's human spaceflight capabilities, making them vital for manned space missions.

139Science and Technology
INSAT-3D is a satellite placed in geostationary orbit. It is primarily used for _______________.
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Answer: (D) Weather forecast

Explanation

INSAT-3D is an advanced, multi-spectral meteorological satellite developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO). Launched in July 2013 and placed in a geostationary orbit, it is equipped with a high-resolution 6-channel Imager and a 19-channel Sounder. These payloads are specifically designed to monitor earth and ocean surfaces, profile atmospheric temperature and humidity, and track vertical profiles of moisture, thereby providing vital data for weather forecasting, climate monitoring, and disaster warning systems.

140Geography
Prediction of potential fishing zones in maritime States of India is based on the derivation of which of the following parameters from satellite?
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Answer: (B) Temperature and ocean color

Explanation

The generation of Potential Fishing Zone (PFZ) advisories for the maritime states of India is based on the extraction of Sea Surface Temperature (SST) and ocean color from satellite data. The Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, processes this real-time satellite imagery to identify areas of fish aggregation.

Sea surface temperature is derived using thermal infrared sensors to map ocean temperature gradients and fronts where fish aggregate. Ocean color is observed via optical sensors to estimate chlorophyll concentration, which acts as a proxy for phytoplankton density—the primary food source in the marine food chain. The conjunction of favorable thermal boundaries and high biological productivity indicates high fish concentrations, making temperature and ocean color the key parameters for predicting potential fishing zones.

141Science and Technology
Scientists from the Botanical Survey of India have identified new plant species and named it as Drypetes Kalami after the name of Dr. A. P. J Abdul Kalam. From which State was this specie discovered?
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Answer: (B) West Bengal

Explanation

Drypetes kalami is a plant species discovered by scientists from the Botanical Survey of India in West Bengal. It was found in the Buxa and Jaldapara National Parks located in the Alipurduar district of the state.

This small, unisexual shrub grows to a height of about 1 meter and is closely related to Drypetes ellisii. The species was named in honor of the former President of India, Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam, to inspire young researchers and students. Due to its highly restricted distribution, the species has been provisionally assessed as critically endangered under IUCN guidelines.

142Science and Technology
What are the Third Generation Biofuels?
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Answer: (B) They are produced using specially engineered energy crops as its energy source.

Explanation

Third-generation biofuels utilize specially engineered energy crops, most notably microalgae, as their primary feedstock. These crops are specifically grown and optimized to serve as a high-yield, low-cost, and entirely renewable source of energy. Microalgae can produce substantially higher quantities of lipids and biomass per acre than conventional crops, and they can be cultivated on non-arable land or in various water bodies like wastewater and marine environments, ensuring they do not compete with food production.

143Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Nuclear Fusion can provide more energy than Nuclear Fission. 2. The radioactive pollution generated in the Nuclear Fission is harmful for living organisms. 3. Fuels required for Nuclear Fission reaction are difficult to obtain.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Nuclear fusion releases significantly more energy per unit mass of fuel compared to nuclear fission. Fusing lighter isotopes like deuterium and tritium produces roughly four times as much energy as fissioning a comparable mass of heavy elements like uranium.

The nuclear fission process generates highly radioactive waste and byproducts, such as strontium-90 and cesium-137, which emit ionizing radiation that damages DNA and living tissues, posing severe long-term biological hazards.

Fission fuels, particularly the fissile isotope uranium-235, are extremely difficult to obtain. Natural uranium contains only about 0.72% of uranium-235, requiring highly advanced, expensive, and tightly controlled isotopic enrichment technology to extract and concentrate it for reactor use.

144Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
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Answer: (D) None of the above

Explanation

All the given pairs are correctly matched. INS Chakra is a nuclear-powered attack submarine leased from Russia. The Sindhughosh-class represents a class of diesel-electric submarines of the Kilo class in active service. INS Kalvari is the first of the Scorpene-class diesel-electric attack submarines commissioned into the Indian Navy. Since all three submarines are correctly matched with their respective propulsion and class types, there are no incorrectly matched pairs.

145Science and Technology
Which of the following waves can be used to study the universe outside the Earth's atmosphere? 1. Microwaves 2. Gamma-Rays 3. Sound Waves
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Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Electromagnetic waves can travel through the vacuum of space, allowing instruments to observe and study celestial phenomena outside the Earth's atmosphere. Microwaves are extensively used to study the Cosmic Microwave Background radiation, which is the thermal relic of the Big Bang and provides crucial details about the structure and evolution of the early universe. Gamma-rays, representing the most energetic form of electromagnetic radiation, are used to detect and analyze extremely high-energy cosmic events such as gamma-ray bursts, supermassive black holes, and supernovae. Conversely, sound waves are mechanical waves that require a material medium to propagate and therefore cannot travel through the vacuum of outer space to carry information from distant cosmic sources to Earth-based or space-based detectors.

146Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. In IVF or test tube baby an egg is fertilized by a sperm and transferred into the uterus. 2. IVF child is genetically identical to his/her parents. 3. In IVF the child carries the DNA of his/her mother only.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

In Vitro Fertilization (IVF) is an assisted reproductive technology where a female's egg is fertilized by a male's sperm in a controlled laboratory environment outside the body. After successful fertilization and early embryonic development, the resulting embryo is transferred into the uterus to establish a pregnancy. The child conceived through IVF inherits half of its genetic material from the maternal egg and the other half from the paternal sperm, resulting in a genetically unique individual who is not identical to either parent.

147Science and Technology
In which of the following ailments is Stem Cell Therapy not useful?
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Answer: (B) Hypertension

Explanation

Hypertension, commonly known as high blood pressure, is a systemic cardiovascular condition characterized by persistently elevated force of blood against the arterial walls. It is primarily managed through lifestyle modifications, dietary changes, physical exercise, and pharmacological interventions using antihypertensive medications. Since primary hypertension is a hemodynamic disorder rather than a disease characterized by localized cellular loss or organ tissue degeneration that requires cellular regeneration, stem cell therapy is not useful or indicated for its treatment.

148Science and Technology
Which of the_following statement(s) is(are) correct? 1. Lasers can be made from a solid or a liquid medium but not from a gaseous medium. 2. Lasers are highly collimated beams of light.
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

Lasers produce highly collimated beams of light, meaning the emitted light waves propagate in a nearly parallel direction with minimal divergence, allowing the beam to remain narrow over great distances.

Laser mediums can exist in solid, liquid, gas, or semiconductor states. Gaseous mediums are widely used in various laser systems, such as Helium-Neon (He-Ne) lasers, Carbon Dioxide (CO₂) lasers, and Argon-ion lasers, which demonstrates that lasers can indeed be made from a gaseous medium.

149Geography
In which one of the following categories of protected areas in India local people aren't allowed to own private lands?
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Answer: (B) National Parks

Explanation

Under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, National Parks are designated as highly protected areas where human activities, including habitat manipulation, grazing, and resource exploitation, are strictly prohibited. Once an area is declared a National Park, the state government must acquire all private land holdings within its boundaries, effectively extinguishing any pre-existing private land rights. Consequently, local people are not permitted to own private land inside the boundaries of a National Park to ensure the absolute preservation of the wildlife and ecosystem.

150Geography
Which of the following places has maximum biodiversity and endemic animals?
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Answer: (B) Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas

Explanation

The Western Ghats and the Eastern Himalayas are two of the major globally recognized biodiversity hotspots in India, characterized by exceptionally high levels of species richness and endemism. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must support a vast number of endemic species that are found nowhere else on Earth. The Western Ghats exhibit high endemism among amphibians, reptiles, and plants, featuring unique species such as the Nilgiri tahr and the Lion-tailed macaque. The Eastern Himalayas feature a diverse range of ecosystems across steep altitudinal gradients, supporting a unique assemblage of endemic flora and fauna due to its position at the junction of the Palearctic and Indo-Malayan biogeographic realms.

151Polity and Governance
Which of the following sentences are correct with reference to Ease of Living Index 2018 by Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India? 1. The Survey was carried out in 111 cities of India. 2. Kolkata didn't participate in the survey. 3. Ease of Living Index framework comprises four pillars, i.e Institutional, Economical, Social and Physical.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Ease of Living Index 2018 was launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs to help cities assess their liveability vis-a-vis global and national benchmarks.

The index covered 111 cities across India, making the first statement correct.

Kolkata and other cities from West Bengal chose not to participate in the assessment, making the second statement correct.

The evaluation framework was built upon four main pillars, which are Institutional, Social, Economic, and Physical, consisting of 15 categories and 78 indicators, making the third statement correct.

152EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements regarding Water Aerodromes to improve air connectivity is(are) correct? 1. Places in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Assam and Maharashtra have been identified for this scheme. 2. A water Aerodrome licence would be valid for 5 years. 3. Sabarmati River Front and Sardar Sarovar Dam have been identified under this scheme.
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Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

Explanation

The Ministry of Civil Aviation approved a proposal to set up water aerodromes in the country to improve regional air connectivity under the UDAN scheme. Under this initiative, several sites across states including Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Assam, and Maharashtra were identified.

According to the regulations issued by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation, a water aerodrome license is valid for a period of 2 years. Initially, a provisional license is issued for a period of 6 months to monitor operations before a regular license is accorded.

For the initial phase of development, Chilika Lake in Odisha, alongside the Sardar Sarovar Dam and the Sabarmati River Front in Gujarat, were formally identified.

153Science and Technology
The two new Space Research Technology Centers proposed by the Central Government are at ______________.
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Answer: (A) Jammu and Agartala

Explanation

In August 2018, the Central Government announced that Jammu and Agartala would get new Space Research Technology Centres to extend academic and research programs in space science to wider regions of the country.

The centre in Jammu was designated to function under the Central University of Jammu, serving as a full-fledged space research and academic centre in North India.

The centre in Agartala was established as a Space Technology Incubation Centre at the National Institute of Technology, Agartala, to encourage space-related research activities, innovations, and startup development in the North-Eastern region.

154Economy
According to Quality Council of India (QCI) which of the following railway stations ranked top among the A1 category Railway stations?
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Answer: (C) Jodhpur

Explanation

In the 2018 cleanliness survey (Swachh Rail, Swachh Bharat) conducted by the Quality Council of India (QCI) on behalf of the Ministry of Railways, Jodhpur railway station was ranked first in the A1 category. The third-party audit evaluated 407 major stations (comprising 75 A1 category and 332 A category stations) based on three key parameters: process evaluation, direct observation, and passenger feedback. Under this survey, Jodhpur scored the highest in the A1 category, while Marwar (also in Rajasthan) topped the A category.

155Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) with reference to recently passed Criminal Law Act (Amendment) 2018 are correct? 1. Life imprisonment or Death Sentence has been provided for rapist of girl under 12 years. 2. The minimum punishment in case of rape of women has been increased from seven years to 10 years, extendable to life imprisonment. 3. The punishment for gang rape of a girl below 16 years will be imprisonment for the rest of life of the convict. 4. In case of rape of a girl under 16 years, the minimum punishment has been increased from 10 years to 20 years, extendable to life imprisonment.
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018 introduced several stringent measures to address sexual offenses in India, validating all four statements.

Under the provisions of the amended Section 376AB of the Indian Penal Code, anyone convicted of raping a girl under 12 years of age can be punished with a minimum of 20 years of rigorous imprisonment, which can extend to life imprisonment for the remainder of that person's natural life, or with the death penalty.

Under Section 376(1), the minimum punishment for the rape of a woman was raised from 7 years to 10 years of rigorous imprisonment, extendable to life imprisonment.

According to Section 376DA, the punishment for the gang rape of a girl under 16 years of age is mandatory imprisonment for life, which specifically means imprisonment for the remainder of the convict's natural life.

Under Section 376(3), in case of the rape of a girl under 16 years of age, the minimum punishment was enhanced from 10 years to 20 years of rigorous imprisonment, which may extend to life imprisonment for the remainder of the convict's natural life.

156Art and Culture
Which of the following tribal languages of India got its own Wikipedia edition in its own OL Chiki script?
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Answer: (C) Santhali (Santali)

Explanation

The Santali Wikipedia was officially launched on August 2, 2018. This made Santali the first Indian tribal language to have its own dedicated Wikipedia edition written entirely in its own indigenous script, Ol Chiki. The Ol Chiki script was developed in 1925 by Pandit Raghunath Murmu specifically for the Santali language, which is an Austroasiatic language spoken by millions of people across states like Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, and Bihar, as well as in Bangladesh and Nepal.

157Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect? 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes Bill was passed by 123ʳᵈ Amendment. 2. The Commission would supersede the rights of State Governments related to Backward Classes. 3. The Bill repealed the National Commission for Backward Classes Act(1993).
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Answer: (C) Only 2

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Statement 2 is incorrect because the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) does not supersede the rights of state governments regarding backward classes. The state governments continue to maintain their own separate state lists of Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and retain their respective state-level backward classes commissions. The constitutional status granted to the NCBC does not encroach upon the powers or administrative rights of the states to identify and declare backward classes for reservation in state-level public services and state-run educational institutions.

158Science and Technology
Central Government proposed to use hologram-based colored stickers to indicate nature of fuel in vehicles. In this regard which of the following pairs is(are) incorrectly matched? 1. Light Blue Colour- Petrol and CNG vehicles 2. Orange - Diesel vehicles 3. Green-Electric vehicles 4. Black-Air Fuel
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Answer: (B) Only 3 and 4

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The Ministry of Road Transport and Highways proposed a colour-coding system using hologram-based stickers to easily identify the type of fuel used by vehicles. Under this scheme, a light blue sticker is used for petrol and CNG vehicles, and an orange sticker is used for diesel vehicles.

In contrast, electric vehicles are assigned green registration plates rather than green stickers. Furthermore, there is no category or proposal for a black sticker for air fuel. This makes pairs 3 and 4 incorrectly matched.

159Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct about Aditya-L1 mission of India? 1. It is ISRO's first mission to study the solar corona. 2. It is an Intercontinental Ballistic Missile developed by India and Russia. 3. It will be launched by the year 2025.
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Answer: (A) Only 1

Explanation

Aditya-L1 is the first dedicated space-based Indian mission designed and developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to study the Sun. The primary scientific objective of this observatory-class spacecraft is to study the outermost layers of the solar atmosphere, specifically the dynamics of the solar corona, chromosphere, and photosphere, along with coronal heating, coronal mass ejections, and space weather.

160Economy
India pitches for declaring 2019 as international year of __________________ with the Food and Agriculture Organization of UN.
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Answer: (D) Millets

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The Government of India proposed to the Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations to declare 2019 as the International Year of Millets. This proposal aimed to garner wider global attention, action, and awareness regarding the cultivation, consumption, and nutritional benefits of millets, which are highly climate-resilient nutri-cereals. To promote these crops domestically, India also celebrated 2018 as the National Year of Millets.

161Economy
To which of the following countries did India provide financial assistance for the construction of Postal Highway Project?
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Answer: (C) Nepal

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India provided financial assistance for the construction of the Postal Highway Project, also known as Hulaki Rajmarg, in Nepal. This road corridor runs across the Terai region in the southern plains of Nepal, connecting major towns and linking the East-West Highway with the Indo-Nepal border. The Government of India has provided significant grant assistance to finance the construction of multiple road packages under this project to enhance bilateral connectivity, trade, and economic cooperation between the two neighboring countries.

162Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect with reference to Missile Helina? 1. It is an indigenously developed guided missile. 2. The missile is guided by an Infrared Imaging Seeker. 3. It is a helicopter-launched version of the Prithvi Missile.
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Answer: (B) Only 3

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Statement 3 is incorrect because the Helina missile is the helicopter-launched variant of the Nag anti-tank guided missile, rather than the Prithvi missile. Prithvi is a surface-to-surface short-range ballistic missile.

163EconomyGujarat-specific
Recently Bureau of Energy Efficiency and Alliance for an Energy Efficient Economy released the State Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index. Gujarat is _________________ in this index.
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Answer: (A) Achiever

Explanation

In the inaugural State Energy Efficiency Preparedness Index 2018, jointly released by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency and NITI Aayog, Gujarat is classified under the Achiever category. Gujarat achieved this status by demonstrating strong performance in adopting energy efficiency policies and regulations across major sectors, notably being one of the few states to mandate energy audits for specific industries beyond those covered under the federal Perform Achieve and Trade scheme.

164Polity and Governance
Ministry of Culture, Government of India recently launched Seva Bhoj Yojana. Which of the following agencies [institutions is(are) eligible under this scheme?
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Answer: (B) Religious and Charitable Institutions

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The Ministry of Culture, Government of India launched the Seva Bhoj Yojana to reduce the financial burden on religious and charitable institutions that provide free food, langar, prasad, or bhandara to the general public and devotees without any discrimination. Under this scheme, the Central Government reimburses the Central Goods and Services Tax and the Central Government share of Integrated Goods and Services Tax paid on the purchase of specific raw food items such as ghee, edible oil, sugar, spices, atta, maida, rava, and pulses. To qualify for this financial assistance, the religious and charitable institutions must be in existence for at least three years and must serve free food to at least 5000 people in a month.

165Economy
Logo and Tagline for Geographical Indications was launched by Government of India. Which of the following is its tagline?
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Answer: (D) Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India

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In August 2018, the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry launched a common logo and tagline for Geographical Indications of India. The official tagline is Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India, which translates in Hindi as Atulya Bharat Ki Amulya Nidhi. This initiative aims to protect, promote, and market unique regional products of India that possess a specific geographical origin, thereby boosting the rural economy and encouraging tourism.

166Geography
Which of the following Indian State is hosting 2018 Men's Hockey World Cup?
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Answer: (C) Odisha

Explanation

The 14th edition of the Men's Hockey World Cup was hosted by the state of Odisha from November 28 to December 16, 2018. The international tournament took place at the iconic Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar, with sixteen participating nations competing for the title. This event marked a significant milestone as Odisha became the first Indian state to actively sponsor and host a major international hockey tournament of this scale.

167Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect with reference to the Outstanding Parliamentarian Award in India? 1. Only Lok Sabha members are eligible to get this award. 2. Members from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha are eligible to get this award. 3. President of India will select the awardees for this award. 4. The Award committee will be headed by Vice-President of India.
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 3 and 4

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Statement 1 is incorrect because members of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha (either house of Parliament) are eligible to receive the Outstanding Parliamentarian Award.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the awardees are selected by a dedicated Award Committee constituted by the Executive Committee of the Indian Parliamentary Group, rather than by the President of India.

Statement 4 is incorrect because the Award Committee is headed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not by the Vice-President of India.

168Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect regarding the Government of India Notification of health warnings on all tobacco product packets? 1. 'Tobacco Causes Cancer' 2. 'Tobacco or Your Family-Any one' 3. 'Tobacco Causes Painful Death' 4. 'Quit Today Call 1800-11-2356'
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Answer: (B) Only 2

Explanation

The Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products (Packaging and Labelling) Second Amendment Rules, 2018, issued by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, mandates specific textual warnings and a helpline number on all tobacco packets. The specified textual warnings are 'Tobacco Causes Cancer' and 'Tobacco Causes Painful Death', alongside the toll-free national quitline helpline number 'Quit Today Call 1800-11-2356'. The message 'Tobacco or Your Family-Any one' is not a designated warning under this notification.

169Economy
Five thematic reports on Sustainable Development in Indian Himalayas Region were launched by ___________________.
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Answer: (C) NITI Aayog

Explanation

On August 23, 2018, NITI Aayog released five thematic reports aimed at promoting sustainable development in the Indian Himalayan Region. These reports were prepared by five dedicated working groups constituted by the think tank to establish a robust roadmap of action. The reports address five vital thematic areas: the inventory and revival of springs in the Himalayas for water security, sustainable tourism in the Indian Himalayan Region, a transformative approach to shifting cultivation, strengthening the skill and entrepreneurship landscape in the Himalayas, and establishing reliable data and information systems for informed decision-making.

170Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
According to the Public Affairs Index 2018, Gujarat ranked ______________ in best governed State in the Country.
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Answer: (A) 5th

Explanation

The Public Affairs Index 2018, released by the Bengaluru-based think tank Public Affairs Centre, evaluated the governance of Indian states using ten broad themes, thirty focus subjects, and one hundred indicators. Among the eighteen large states evaluated in the index, Kerala was ranked first, followed by Tamil Nadu in second place, Telangana in third, Karnataka in fourth, and Gujarat in the fifth position.

171Art and Culture
Which of the following Indian indigenous sport(s) has(have) received the recognition from Olympic Council of Asia recently?
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Answer: (B) Kho Kho

Explanation

The Olympic Council of Asia officially recognized Kho Kho during its General Assembly held in Jakarta, Indonesia, on August 19, 2018. Following this landmark decision, the sport was recommended to be featured as a demonstration event in the Asian Indoor Games, paving the way for its eventual promotion and development across other Asian nations.

172Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are incorrect about National Register of Citizens? 1. The cut-off date for the membership claim under NRC is midnight of March 24, 1971. 2. Assam and Tripura are the only States in the country that have NRC. 3. Assam Accord was signed between the Centre and the Assam Government that promised identification and deportation of illegal immigrants. 4. Supreme Court directed the Government to update the NRC in a time-bound manner under the Citizenship Rules 2003.
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Answer: (A) Only 2 and 3

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Statement 2 is incorrect because Assam is the only state in India that has updated its National Register of Citizens (NRC). Tripura does not have an NRC.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Assam Accord of 1985 was a tripartite agreement. It was signed between the Government of India, the State Government of Assam, and the leaders of the Assam Movement, specifically the All Assam Students Union (AASU) and the All Assam Gana Sangram Parishad (AAGSP), rather than simply being an agreement between the Centre and the State Government of Assam.

173GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following cities of Gujarat is placed in the list of top 10 of Overall Emissions and Energy Consumption Rankings released by Centre for Science and Environment?
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Answer: (B) Ahmedabad

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The Centre for Science and Environment released a report titled The Urban Commute and How It Contributes to Pollution and Energy Consumption. The study evaluated 14 major Indian cities, comprising six megacities and eight metropolitan cities, to analyze how daily commuting patterns contribute to air pollution and energy usage.

The cities were ranked based on their overall emissions of particulate matter, nitrogen oxides, carbon dioxide, and energy consumption. Bhopal topped the list with the lowest overall emissions, followed by Vijayawada, Chandigarh, Lucknow, Kochi, Jaipur, and Kolkata. Ahmedabad secured the eighth position in this ranking, placing it within the top 10 best-performing cities on this index.

174Polity and Governance
Which of the following States has bagged first rank in the assessment by National Level Ranking Framework for implementation of Amrut Scheme?
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Answer: (C) Andhra Pradesh

Explanation

Andhra Pradesh bagged the first rank in the assessment by the National Level Ranking Framework for implementation of the AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) scheme, as per the official GPSC answer key. Hence, option (C) Andhra Pradesh is correct.

175Economy
Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding India Post Payments Bank? 1. India Post Payments Bank started under Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications. 2. India Post Payments Bank started with 51% of Government of India equity. 3. India Post Payments Bank can accept up to rupees one lakh per account from Individuals. 4. India Post Payments Bank is not offering any current accounts under this scheme.
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 4

Explanation

India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) was incorporated as a public sector company under the Department of Posts, Ministry of Communications, with 100% equity held by the Government of India. This makes statement 2 incorrect. Additionally, payments banks are authorized by the Reserve Bank of India to offer both savings and current accounts. IPPB provides current account services tailored for small businesses, merchants, and local traders, which makes statement 4 incorrect as well.

176Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements about Arogymatras under Pradhan Mantri Arogya Yojana is(are) correct? 1. National Skill Development Corporation will train the Arogymatras through Skill Development Centers. 2. The Arogymatras will act as an interface between the beneficiaries and system. 3. One crore Arogymatras will be trained under this scheme.
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Answer: (C) Only 1 and 2

Explanation

Under the Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY), a Memorandum of Understanding was signed between the National Health Agency (NHA) and the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC) to facilitate capacity building.

Under this agreement, the NSDC is responsible for ensuring the training of Arogyamitras through its network of Skill Development Centres operating under the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) and Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Kendras (PMKK).

These Arogyamitras are positioned at empanelled hospitals to serve as the primary point of contact and act as a direct interface between the beneficiaries and the healthcare system, assisting them with verification, enrollment, and navigating the treatment process.

The initial targeted scale of training for Arogyamitras under this collaboration was 1 lakh individuals.

177Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect about India's first Biofuel flight? 1. It travelled from Shimla to Delhi. 2. The flight was operated by Air India. 3. It used completely Biofuel during its travel. 4. This Biofuel was developed by IIT Delhi
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Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Explanation

India's first biofuel-powered flight, which took place in August 2018, was operated by SpiceJet using a Bombardier Q400 aircraft on the Dehradun to Delhi route. The flight ran on a blend containing 75% conventional aviation turbine fuel and 25% bio-jet fuel derived from jatropha seeds. This bio-jet fuel was developed by the CSIR-Indian Institute of Petroleum in Dehradun. Since all four statements in the question contain factual errors, option a is correct as it identifies all of them as incorrect.

178Polity and Governance
The 1st Edition of BIMSTEC Military Exercise MILEX-18 was inaugurated in Pune (India). Which of the following two BIMSTEC countries didn't send their troops?
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Answer: (C) Thailand and Nepal

Explanation

The inaugural edition of the BIMSTEC military field training exercise, MILEX-18, was held at the Aundh Military Station in Pune, Maharashtra, in September 2018. While member nations like India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Myanmar, and Sri Lanka sent active platoon-sized troop contingents to participate in the counter-terrorism drill, Nepal and Thailand did not send any combat troops.

Nepal decided to withdraw its contingent following internal political opposition in Kathmandu, sending only a three-member observer team. Thailand also opted not to deploy troops, citing prior military commitments, and participated solely through military observers.

179Polity and Governance
India signed an MoU with 6 States for Lakhwar Yamuna Basin Project in Uttarakhand for Project management. Which of the following States isn't in the list?
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Answer: (D) Madhya Pradesh

Explanation

Madhya Pradesh is not a basin state of the upper Yamuna region involved in the Lakhwar project. The Memorandum of Understanding for the construction of the Lakhwar multi-purpose project in Uttarakhand was signed in August 2018 by the Union Minister for Water Resources along with the Chief Ministers of the six basin states: Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Delhi. Since Madhya Pradesh does not lie in the upper Yamuna basin and is not a beneficiary of this specific water resources project, it is not included in the agreement.

180Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) incorrect regarding the recently declared Drone Regulations 1.0 by Government of India? 1. Air Space has been portioned into 3 zones. 2. Yellow Zone is considered as No Flying Zone. 3. Green Zone is considered as Automatic Permission Zone. 4. Users will be required to do registration every time whenever they use drones.
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 4

Explanation

Under the Drone Regulations 1.0 announced by the Government of India in 2018, the airspace is partitioned into three distinct zones: Red, Yellow, and Green.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the Red Zone is designated as the No Flying Zone where flight is not permitted. The Yellow Zone is controlled airspace where operations are restricted and require prior airspace clearance.

Statement 4 is incorrect because users are required to complete a one-time registration of their drones, pilots, and owners to obtain a Unique Identification Number (UIN). Although flight permission must be requested before each flight via the Digital Sky platform, drone registration itself is not repeated for every flight.

181Geography
Bombay Natural History Society opened its first regional centre at ____________.
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Answer: (A) Chilka Lake

Explanation

The Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), a premier nature conservation and research organisation based in Mumbai, opened its first-ever regional centre at the Wetland Research and Training Centre near Chilika Lake in Odisha on August 27, 2018.

The regional centre was established in collaboration with the Chilika Development Authority (CDA) to facilitate continuous, long-term research and monitoring of migratory birds. Its operations include documenting the species-wise population of birds at major congregation sites, imparting training to wildlife staff and volunteers on bird migration, studying avian diseases, and reviewing the ecological conditions of the Nalabana Bird Sanctuary. Chilika Lake is Asia's largest brackish water lagoon and a vital wintering ground for migratory birds, making it a critical habitat for the bird-ringing and migration studies carried out by the BNHS.

182Science and Technology
Which of the following naval ships of India took part in KAKADU 2018 in Australia?
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Answer: (B) INS Sahyadri

Explanation

INS Sahyadri, an indigenously built Shivalik-class stealth multi-role frigate of the Indian Navy, participated in the 14th edition of Exercise KAKADU held in Darwin, Australia, in 2018. Hosted biennially by the Royal Australian Navy, KAKADU is a premier multilateral regional maritime engagement exercise aimed at enhancing interoperability and developing a common understanding of maritime operations. Prior to arriving in Australia, INS Sahyadri was on a long-term deployment in the South China Sea and the Pacific Ocean, where it also represented the Indian Navy in multinational exercises like MALABAR 18 and RIMPAC 18. During KAKADU 2018, the ship and its crew successfully engaged in diverse maritime activities and won the KAKADU 18 Cup.

183Polity and Governance
With which of the following countries did India sign an agreement Mobilize Your City for Urban Planning?
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Answer: (A) France

Explanation

India signed the implementation agreement for the Mobilise Your City initiative with France in September 2018. The pact was signed between India's Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs and the French Development Agency, Agence Française de Développement.

The program supports three pilot cities in India—Nagpur, Kochi, and Ahmedabad—to help them implement sustainable urban mobility plans and reduce greenhouse gas emissions related to urban transport. Originally launched at the COP21 climate conference in Paris, the global initiative facilitates technical assistance and investment support for sustainable transport infrastructure and policy planning.

184Economy
Which of the following countries announced 120 million Euros for Clean Ganga Mission?
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Answer: (D) Germany

Explanation

In August 2018, Germany announced a soft loan of 120 million Euros (approximately ₹990 crore) to India to support the Clean Ganga Mission. This funding, provided through the German Development Bank KfW, was directed toward strengthening the sewage water treatment infrastructure in Uttarakhand. The project focused on constructing sewage treatment plants, building sewage pumping stations, and extending the sewerage system to significantly reduce the inflow of untreated wastewater into the Ganga.

185Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct about ISRO's Gaganyaan Mission? 1. The manned mission to space will have 3 crew members. 2. It will be in space for nearly one week and conduct experiments on Micro gravity. 3. India will be the 4th country after the USA, Russia and China to send humans to space. 4. India's Gaganyaan programme for manned space flight will be launched by 2025.
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Answer: (D) Only 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Following the official announcement of the Gaganyaan Mission in 2018, ISRO detailed that India's maiden human spaceflight programme would send a three-member crew to a low Earth orbit of 300 to 400 km. The crew is scheduled to stay in space for approximately five to seven days (nearly one week) to perform microgravity experiments. Achieving this milestone will make India the fourth nation to independently launch humans into space, following the United States, Russia, and China. At the time of the mission's announcement in 2018, the targeted launch timeline was set for 2022 to mark the 75th year of India's independence, rather than 2025.

186Geography
India opened Zokhawthar immigration check-post recently along the ______ border.
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Answer: (D) Myanmar

Explanation

In August 2018, the Government of India opened the Zokhawthar land border crossing and designated it as an authorized immigration check-post along the Indo-Myanmar border. Located in the Champhai district of Mizoram, Zokhawthar serves as a key transit point connecting to Rihkhawdar in Myanmar's Chin State. This initiative was aimed at facilitating travel and trade between the two countries, particularly under the bilateral Agreement on Land Border Crossing.

187History
Moving On, Moving Forward - A Year in Office book was written by ______.
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Answer: (B) Venkaiah Naidu

Explanation

The book titled Moving On, Moving Forward - A Year in Office was authored by M. Venkaiah Naidu, who served as the Vice President of India. Published in September 2018, the book chronicles his experiences, extensive travels, and official activities during his first year in office as the Vice President and the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. It details his public interactions and focus on key areas such as agriculture, youth empowerment, science, and technology.

188Economy
According to the report of UN World Tourism Organization, India stands at ______ rank in South Asian Region in number of Tourists in the year 2017.
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Answer: (A) First

Explanation

According to the UN World Tourism Organization (UNWTO) Tourism Highlights (2018 Edition), India recorded 15.54 million international tourist arrivals in 2017. Out of the total 26.57 million tourist arrivals in the South Asian region, India accounted for more than half of the share, making it the top destination and securing the first rank in the subregion.

189Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following recent bill(s) of Government of Gujarat was(were) rejected by the President of India?
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Answer: (D) Neither A nor B

Explanation

The official GPSC answer key circles option (D) for this question, indicating that neither the 2015 nor the 2017 version of the Gujarat Agricultural Lands Ceiling (Amendment) Bill was rejected by the President. Both bills were in fact returned/withheld for reconsideration rather than outright rejected, or were otherwise not formally rejected by the President as of the exam's reference period, which is why the key marks "Neither A nor B" as correct. Options A, B, and C incorrectly assert that one or both bills were rejected.

190Polity and Governance
Recently 10 states along the international borders were identified for developing forward areas as a part of Border Area Development Programme (BADP) for 2018-19. Which of the following States is not in the list?
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Answer: (B) Gujarat

Explanation

In September 2018, the Central Government released funds under the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) specifically for the development of forward areas in 10 identified border states. These 10 states were Jammu and Kashmir, Assam, Himachal Pradesh, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, and West Bengal. Gujarat was not included in this list of 10 states identified for the development of forward areas during that period.

191Science and Technology
IOWave18 is a mock drill started under IOC/UNESCO. This mock drill is related to _______________.
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Answer: (C) Tsunami

Explanation

IOWave18 is a major Indian Ocean-wide tsunami mock exercise organized by the Intergovernmental Oceanographic Commission (IOC) of UNESCO. Conducted in September 2018, the drill simulated massive undersea earthquakes to generate virtual tsunamis. The primary goal of the exercise was to evaluate and improve the Indian Ocean Tsunami Warning and Mitigation System (IOTWMS), testing the standard operating procedures, communication links, and community preparedness of participating nations, including India.

192Economy
Every year National Nutrition Week is observed during 1st to 7th September. The theme of year 2018 is ______________.
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Answer: (A) Go further with Food

Explanation

National Nutrition Week is observed annually in India from 1st to 7th September to raise awareness about the critical role of nutrition and a healthy lifestyle. Initiated in 1982 by the Food and Nutrition Board under the Ministry of Women and Child Development, the campaign seeks to educate citizens about adopting sustainable and healthy dietary habits. For the year 2018, the chosen theme was "Go Further with Food," which focused on encouraging individuals to make informed food decisions, select nutrient-dense foods, and minimize food wastage to ensure better health outcomes.

193Polity and Governance
Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare released draft charter of Patients' Rights. In this regard which of the following statements are correct? 1. This was prepared by National Human Rights Commission (NHRC). 2. The patients have 17 rights. 3. It was recommended by the National Council of Clinical Establishments.
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Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The draft Charter of Patients' Rights was prepared by the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) and released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare in August 2018.

The charter delineates 17 specific rights for patients. These include the right to information, right to records and reports, right to emergency medical care, right to informed consent, right to confidentiality, and right to a second opinion.

The ministry released the draft for public feedback following the recommendations of the National Council of Clinical Establishments. The National Council of Clinical Establishments is a statutory body constituted under the Clinical Establishments (Registration and Regulation) Act, 2010.

194Economy
Which of the following Indian players is brand ambassador of Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL)?
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Answer: (B) Mary Kom

Explanation

The state-run telecommunications company, Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL), appointed Indian boxer MC Mary Kom as its brand ambassador in September 2018. She was signed for a period of two years to endorse and promote BSNL's various telecom services across the country.

195Science and Technology
Which of the following US companies collaborated with TATA to make F-16 jet wings in India by TASL?
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Answer: (C) Lockheed Martin

Explanation

In September 2018, the US-based security and aerospace giant Lockheed Martin entered into an agreement with Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL) to manufacture F-16 fighter jet wings in India. Under this partnership, the manufacturing of these highly complex wings is carried out at their joint facility in India, positioning TASL as a key provider of wings for the global F-16 supply chain and supporting the Make in India initiative.

196Polity and Governance
With which of the following countries has India signed the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) in September this year?
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Answer: (B) USA

Explanation

India and the USA signed the Communications Compatibility and Security Agreement (COMCASA) on September 6, 2018, during the inaugural 2+2 Ministerial Dialogue held in New Delhi. COMCASA is an India-specific variant of the Communication and Information Security Memorandum of Agreement (CISMOA). The agreement facilitates the transfer of specialized, encrypted communication equipment and secure real-time data links, thereby enhancing defense interoperability and enabling secure communication between the armed forces of both nations.

197Polity and Governance
What is the name of the 2018 anti-terrorism military exercise of Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) in which both India and Pakistan took part along with other partners?
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Answer: (A) Peace Mission

Explanation

The Peace Mission is a biennial multilateral joint counter-terrorism military exercise conducted under the framework of the Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO). The 2018 edition of the exercise was held in Chebarkul, Russia in August 2018. It marked a historic milestone as it was the first time that both India and Pakistan participated together in a joint military exercise after becoming full members of the SCO in June 2017. The primary objective of the exercise was to enhance defense cooperation, interoperability, and coordination among the armed forces of the member nations to counter the threats of terrorism and extremism in urban scenarios.

198Economy
To showcase the innovation and build a platform to shape the future of mobility, NITI Aayog has hosted the first summit in New Delhi named _________________.
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Answer: (A) Move: Global Mobility Summit 2018

Explanation

NITI Aayog hosted MOVE: Global Mobility Summit 2018 on September 7 and 8, 2018, at Vigyan Bhawan in New Delhi. Inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, this first-of-its-kind summit served as a global platform to showcase innovation, brainstorm transformative ideas, and shape the future of mobility. The event brought together stakeholders from across the globe to deliberate on key aspects of transport and infrastructure, with a strong focus on promoting electric vehicles, shared mobility, public transport integration, and sustainable energy solutions.

199Polity and Governance
Which of the following districts are covered by Aspirational Districts Programme? 1. Dang 2. Narmada 3. Chhota Udaipur 4. Dahod
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Answer: (B) Only 2 and 4

Explanation

Under the Transformation of Aspirational Districts Programme launched by NITI Aayog in January 2018, 112 districts across the country were identified for rapid socio-economic development based on parameters like health, education, and basic infrastructure. From the state of Gujarat, only two districts, Narmada and Dahod, were selected to participate in this initiative to address their developmental challenges.

200Other
Which among the following was(were) the mascot of 2018 Asian Games? (1) Kaka (2) Atung (3) Bhin-Bhin (4) Zhim
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Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The 2018 Asian Games, held in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia, featured three official mascots: Bhin Bhin, Atung, and Kaka. These mascots represent different regions of Indonesia and embody distinct athletic values. Bhin Bhin is a greater bird-of-paradise representing strategy, Atung is a Bawean deer representing speed, and Kaka is a Javan rhinoceros representing strength. Their names are collectively derived from the Indonesian national motto, Bhinneka Tunggal Ika, which means Unity in Diversity.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2A
  3. 3A
  4. 4A
  5. 5A
  6. 6B
  7. 7D
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10A
  11. 11D
  12. 12C
  13. 13C
  14. 14B
  15. 15D
  16. 16D
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20A
  21. 21B
  22. 22C
  23. 23A
  24. 24B
  25. 25C
  26. 26B
  27. 27C
  28. 28A
  29. 29D
  30. 30B
  31. 31A
  32. 32D
  33. 33B
  34. 34A
  35. 35A
  36. 36C
  37. 37C
  38. 38C
  39. 39D
  40. 40A
  41. 41A
  42. 42B
  43. 43B
  44. 44B
  45. 45B
  46. 46D
  47. 47C
  48. 48D
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51D
  52. 52A
  53. 53B
  54. 54A
  55. 55C
  56. 56C
  57. 57C
  58. 58C
  59. 59C
  60. 60A
  61. 61A
  62. 62B
  63. 63D
  64. 64B
  65. 65D
  66. 66A
  67. 67B
  68. 68B
  69. 69A
  70. 70B
  71. 71A
  72. 72D
  73. 73C
  74. 74D
  75. 75B
  76. 76C
  77. 77B
  78. 78B
  79. 79D
  80. 80A
  81. 81D
  82. 82A
  83. 83C
  84. 84C
  85. 85D
  86. 86C
  87. 87A
  88. 88B
  89. 89D
  90. 90C
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93A
  94. 94D
  95. 95A
  96. 96C
  97. 97C
  98. 98C
  99. 99B
  100. 100C
  101. 101D
  102. 102C
  103. 103A
  104. 104D
  105. 105A
  106. 106A
  107. 107A
  108. 108B
  109. 109C
  110. 110B
  111. 111C
  112. 112C
  113. 113C
  114. 114C
  115. 115D
  116. 116A
  117. 117B
  118. 118C
  119. 119B
  120. 120C
  121. 121C
  122. 122D
  123. 123B
  124. 124D
  125. 125D
  126. 126A
  127. 127B
  128. 128D
  129. 129B
  130. 130B
  131. 131A
  132. 132D
  133. 133C
  134. 134D
  135. 135D
  136. 136A
  137. 137A
  138. 138A
  139. 139D
  140. 140B
  141. 141B
  142. 142B
  143. 143D
  144. 144D
  145. 145A
  146. 146A
  147. 147B
  148. 148B
  149. 149B
  150. 150B
  151. 151D
  152. 152B
  153. 153A
  154. 154C
  155. 155A
  156. 156C
  157. 157C
  158. 158B
  159. 159A
  160. 160D
  161. 161C
  162. 162B
  163. 163A
  164. 164B
  165. 165D
  166. 166C
  167. 167D
  168. 168B
  169. 169C
  170. 170A
  171. 171B
  172. 172A
  173. 173B
  174. 174C
  175. 175B
  176. 176C
  177. 177A
  178. 178C
  179. 179D
  180. 180B
  181. 181A
  182. 182B
  183. 183A
  184. 184D
  185. 185D
  186. 186D
  187. 187B
  188. 188A
  189. 189D
  190. 190B
  191. 191C
  192. 192A
  193. 193D
  194. 194B
  195. 195C
  196. 196B
  197. 197A
  198. 198A
  199. 199B
  200. 200C

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