Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Aadarsh Gram Yojana (PMAGY)?
1. The Scheme aims at integrated development of villages in which the population of Scheduled Castes is above 50% .
2. The particulars of the 50 Monitorable Indicators under 10 domains are listed under this scheme
3. Under the scheme the villages would have all such infrastructure and its residents will have access to all such basic services that are necessary for a dignified living.
4. For each selected village the Scheme provides for a total of Rs. 1 crore.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana aims for the integrated development of villages where the Scheduled Castes population is above 50%. The scheme targets overall development using 50 monitorable indicators categorized under 10 key domains such as education, sanitation, health, and roads. Through convergence with other welfare schemes, it ensures that these villages have essential physical and social infrastructure and basic services to enable residents to lead a dignified living. Instead of ₹1 crore, the scheme provides central assistance of ₹21 lakh per village, which includes ₹20 lakh for gap-filling funds and ₹1 lakh for administrative expenses.
2Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Public Expenditure?
1. Revenue Expenditure is of recurring type which is incurred year after year
2. High revenue expenditure indicates poverty and backwardness of the economy
3. High capital expenditure indicates high private investment of company
4. Capital expenditure results in the acquisition of a tangible or intangible asset or payment liabilities
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
Revenue expenditure represents the recurring operational costs of the government, including salaries, pensions, subsidies, and interest payments, which do not result in asset creation or liability reduction and must be incurred year after year to maintain administrative functions.
A high share of revenue expenditure relative to capital expenditure suggests that a substantial portion of national resources is consumed by routine or welfare-subsidy spending. This structural trend indicates high welfare dependency, poverty, and backwardness in the economy, as resources are diverted away from productive capital creation.
Capital expenditure consists of non-recurring disbursements that alter the asset-liability status of the government. It directly leads to the acquisition of tangible assets such as physical infrastructure, intangible assets like intellectual property, or the settlement of outstanding debt liabilities.
3Economy
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding computing methods of National Income?
1. Product method is also called as Output Method or Value added method
2. Expenditure Method is also called Distribution Method
3. Income method is also called as Total Outlay method
4. Expenditure method is the most used method due to the easy availability of data
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The product method of estimating national income is also known as the output method or the value-added method. This method measures national income by summing up the value added by all productive enterprises in the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year. Value added is calculated as the value of output minus intermediate consumption, which prevents the double counting of goods and services. This direct focus on the net contribution of each production unit makes the terms output method and value-added method interchangeable with the product method.
4Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched regarding Multi Dimensional Poverty Index?
Dimension of Poverty - Indicators
1. Education - Years of schooling, School Attendance
2. Health - Maternal Mortality rate, Infant Mortality rate and life expectancy rate
3. Standard of Living - Drinking Water, Housing, Cooking Fuel, Assets
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) assesses poverty at the individual level across three dimensions: Education, Health, and Standard of Living.
For the Education dimension, the indicators are years of schooling and school attendance.
For the Standard of Living dimension, the indicators include cooking fuel, sanitation, drinking water, electricity, housing, and assets.
For the Health dimension, the index utilizes nutrition and child mortality as its indicators, whereas parameters like maternal mortality, infant mortality, and life expectancy are used in other indices such as the Human Development Index or Gender Inequality Index. This makes only the first and third pairs correct.
5Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Committees - Estimated Poverty
1. D. T. Lakdawala Committee - 54.9%
2. Suresh Tendulkar Committee - 37.2%
3. Rangarajan Committee - 29.5%
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Suresh Tendulkar Committee was appointed in 2005 and submitted its report in 2009. Using a revised methodology that shifted from calorie-based norms to spending on food, health, education, and clothing, it estimated India's national poverty headcount ratio for the year 2004–05 at 37.2%.
The C. Rangarajan Committee was set up in 2012 and submitted its report in 2014. Reverting to separate rural and urban poverty baskets and incorporating updated nutritional and non-food requirements, it estimated India's poverty headcount ratio for the year 2011–12 at 29.5%.
The D.T. Lakdawala Committee, which submitted its report in 1993, estimated the national poverty ratio for the year 1993–94 at 36%. The figure of 54.9% corresponds to the poverty ratio estimated for the year 1973–74, meaning the first pair is incorrectly matched.
6Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding taxes?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
Direct taxes reduce disposable income in the hands of consumers, which decreases aggregate demand and helps control demand-pull inflation. Indirect taxes are added to the cost of goods and services, which increases their retail prices and directly contributes to cost-push inflation. For indirect taxes, the statutory liability to pay the tax to the government is on the producer or seller, but they shift the actual economic burden of the tax to the final consumer by incorporating it into the sales price.
7Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding taxes subsumed under GST?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Central Surcharges and Cess relating to supply of Goods and Services not subsumed under GST
Explanation
Central surcharges and cesses, in so far as they relate to the supply of goods and services, were indeed subsumed under the Goods and Services Tax (GST) upon its implementation on July 1, 2017. This integration included various levies such as the Krishi Kalyan Cess, Swachh Bharat Cess, and Education Cess, ensuring a unified indirect tax structure across the country. Consequently, stating that these central surcharges and cesses were not subsumed under GST is incorrect.
8Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding different deficits of Indian Budget System?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
Revenue Deficit occurs when the government's revenue expenditure exceeds its revenue receipts. To bridge this gap, the government can use capital receipts like borrowing from the public or initiating disinvestment of public sector enterprises, or it can directly reduce its revenue expenditure.
Primary Deficit is calculated as the Fiscal Deficit minus interest payments on previous borrowings. Since interest payments on past loans are subtracted, it does not carry the load of past liabilities. Additionally, Fiscal Deficit represents the total borrowing requirements for the current financial year rather than the total accumulated liabilities of the government.
9Economy
Match the following List-I with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. Bombay Plan | a) Emphasized on Industrialization |
| 2. M.Visvesvaraya Plan | b) Aimed to double the national income in 10 years |
| 3. Sarvodaya Plan | c) Drafted by Jayprakash Narayan |
| 4. Gandhian Plan | d) Drafted by SN Agarwal |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
Explanation
Bombay Plan was formulated in 1944 by leading industrialists and emphasized rapid industrialization with a focus on basic and heavy industries.
M. Visvesvaraya Plan was proposed in 1934 by Sir M. Visvesvaraya, aiming to double the national income of India within ten years.
Sarvodaya Plan was drafted by Jayaprakash Narayan in 1950, drawing inspiration from Vinoba Bhave and Mahatma Gandhi's principles.
Gandhian Plan was drafted by S. N. Agarwal in 1944, emphasizing decentralized economic development and cottage industries.
10Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : Open market operations refer to the buying and selling of Government Securities in the open market by RBI
Statement 2 : By selling Government securities, RBI reduces the money supply
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Open market operations are market-based monetary policy instruments used by the Reserve Bank of India to regulate the money supply and interest rates in the economy. Statement 1 is correct because these operations specifically involve the outright purchase and sale of government securities in the open market.
Statement 2 is also correct because when the RBI sells government securities, commercial banks and public investors buy them, leading to an outflow of cash reserves from the banking system to the RBI. This contraction of bank liquidity directly reduces the overall money supply and credit creation capacity in the economy.
While both statements are factually correct, Statement 2 describes one of the specific mechanisms and consequences of these transactions rather than providing the underlying cause or explanation for the definition of open market operations given in Statement 1.
11Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
Name of the Instrument - In order to reduce inflation
1. Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) - Increase CRR
2. Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) - Decrease SLR
3. Bank Rate - Increase Bank rate
4. Reverse Repo Rate (RRR) - Decrease RRR
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
To control inflation, the Reserve Bank of India employs contractionary monetary policy tools to reduce the overall money supply and credit creation in the economy.
Increasing the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) forces commercial banks to keep a larger portion of their liquid cash deposits with the central bank, which directly decreases their credit creation capacity and lowers the money supply.
Increasing the Bank Rate raises the cost of borrowing for commercial banks from the RBI. This increase is passed on to consumers as higher interest rates, which dampens the demand for credit, reduces consumption and investment, and helps in lowering inflation.
12Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI)?
1. It is an initiative of RBI and Indian Banks Association
2. It was incorporated as a 'Not for Profit' Company in 2008
3. UPI, RuPay Card, and BHIM app are the major products of NPCI
4. This is an umbrella organization to operate Retail Payments and Settlement System in India
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established as a joint initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks Association (IBA) under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007. It serves as the umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems across the country. It was incorporated in December 2008 as a Not-for-Profit company under Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now registered under Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013) to build a robust physical and electronic payment infrastructure. To facilitate digital transactions, NPCI has launched several highly successful retail payment systems and services, including the Unified Payments Interface (UPI), the RuPay Card scheme, the Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) mobile application, the Immediate Payment Service (IMPS), and the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC).
13Economy
Match the following List-1 with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. Onsite ATM | a) this type of ATM situated within or near to the Branch |
| 2. White label ATM | b) lease of the ATM is owned by the Service provider |
| 3. Brown Label ATM | c) ATMs set up, owned, operated by Non-Banking institutions |
| 4. Worksite ATM | d) located within the premises of an organization for their employees |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d
Explanation
Onsite ATMs are established directly within or in close proximity to a bank branch, making them convenient for direct branch customers.
White label ATMs are owned, set up, and operated by non-banking financial entities to expand ATM access, especially in rural and semi-urban regions.
Brown label ATMs involve a partnership where a service provider owns the hardware lease and maintains the machine, while a sponsor bank handles cash management and banking network integration.
Worksite ATMs are situated within the office or factory premises of a corporate organization, intended specifically for the use of that organization's staff.
14Economy
Which of the following are the strategic objectives identified by the RBI, as part of the National Strategy for Financial Inclusion (2019-2024)?
1. Universal Access to Financial Services
2. Customer Protection and Grievance Redressal
3. Effective Coordination
4. Access to Basic Health Needs
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The National Strategy for Financial Inclusion 2019-2024, formulated by the Reserve Bank of India, outlines six key strategic objectives to guide financial inclusion policies in India. These core objectives are universal access to financial services, providing a basic bouquet of financial services, livelihood and skill development, financial literacy and education, customer protection and grievance redressal, and effective coordination. While improving access to financial services can indirectly assist in managing health-related expenses, providing access to basic health needs itself is a social and healthcare policy goal and is not a strategic objective of this financial inclusion framework.
15Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Mutual Funds in India?
Statement 1 : Net Asset Value of Mutual funds represents the current Investment value of the Mutual Funds
Statement 2 : Liquidity is high as the mutual funds can be sold easily
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
The Net Asset Value (NAV) of a mutual fund represents the per-share or per-unit market value of the fund's assets minus its liabilities. It signifies the current investment value of a single unit of the mutual fund scheme, calculated at the close of every trading day based on the market value of its underlying securities.
Mutual funds, particularly open-ended schemes, offer high liquidity to investors. This is because investors can easily buy or sell (redeem) their units directly with the fund house or through stock exchanges at the prevailing NAV on any working day.
While both statements are factually correct, the liquidity and ease of selling mutual funds (Statement 2) is a structural feature of the fund type and does not serve as the reason or explanation for how or why the NAV represents the investment value of the fund (Statement 1).
16Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : T-Bills, Commercial papers and certificates of deposits are instruments of money markets
Statement 2 : Equity shares, preference shares, debentures and bonds are the instruments of Capital markets
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Money market instruments are short-term debt instruments with a maturity period of up to one year, which are highly liquid and safe. Treasury Bills, Commercial Papers, and Certificates of Deposit perfectly fit this definition as they are used to meet short-term funding requirements. On the other hand, capital market instruments are long-term investment avenues with a maturity period exceeding one year. Equity shares, preference shares, debentures, and bonds are primary instruments used to raise long-term capital for businesses and governments. While both statements are individually true, they describe entirely different segments of the financial market. The classification of capital market instruments does not explain or determine the classification of money market instruments, meaning the second statement is not the correct explanation for the first.
17Economy
Which one of the following is not a highlight of the 10th agriculture census 2015-16?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) The total area under farming increased substantially
Explanation
The total operated area in India actually decreased from 159.59 million hectares in 2010-11 to 157.82 million hectares in 2015-16, representing a decline of 1.11%. This decline in farming area makes the statement of it increasing substantially incorrect.
18Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Mixed cropping - Different crops at the same time without definite pattern
2. Intercropping - Different crops at the same time with definite pattern
3. Sequence cropping - Second crop is planted into the first crop before harvest
4. Relay cropping - Second crop is planted after harvest of first crop
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Mixed cropping is the practice of growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land where seeds are mixed together and sown without any definite row arrangement or spatial pattern.
Intercropping involves growing two or more crops simultaneously on the same piece of land in a definite row pattern or spatial arrangement, which helps in optimizing resource use and reducing competition among the crops.
19Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?
1. It is based on the principle of One Nation-One Scheme
2. It has increased the insurance coverage from 23% to 90% of the Gross Cropped Area of the Country
3. The scheme is being implemented on Area Approach Basis
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched in 2016 in line with the One Nation-One Scheme theme. It replaced previous crop insurance programmes, specifically the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and the Modified National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (MNAIS), incorporating their best features and removing earlier drawbacks to provide a uniform, simplified scheme for farmers across the nation.
The scheme is implemented on an Area Approach Basis. Under this approach, a defined area, which is typically a Village or Village Panchayat for major crops, is treated as a single Insurance Unit. It operates on the assumption that all insured farmers within this designated unit face similar risk exposures, experience comparable crop losses, and incur similar costs of production.
The scheme aimed to increase crop insurance coverage from the then-existing level of about 23% to 50% of the Gross Cropped Area of the country, making the 90% target figure incorrect.
20Polity and Governance
Which of the following rights are assured for the consumers under The Consumer Protection Act 2019?
1. Right to Choose
2. Right to Safety
3. Right to be Informed
4. Right to be Heard
5. Right to Grievance redressal in 30 days
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The Consumer Protection Act 2019 defines six distinct consumer rights under Section 2(9). These include the right to safety, which protects consumers against the marketing of goods and services hazardous to life and property; the right to be informed about the quality, quantity, standard, and price of goods; the right to choose from a variety of goods and services at competitive prices; and the right to be heard to ensure consumer interests receive due consideration at appropriate forums. The remaining two rights defined under the Act are the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices and the right to consumer awareness. While the Act establishes dispute redressal commissions with specific timelines for resolving complaints, there is no statutory consumer right defined specifically as the right to grievance redressal within thirty days.
21History
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Zamindari System- Zamindars were recognized as owners of the land
2. Mahalwari System- Ownerships rights on land was vested with the peasant
3. Zamindari system - Under this system rate of revenue imposed was 50% for dry lands | 60% for irrigated lands
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Under the Zamindari System (Permanent Settlement), introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793 in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha, the zamindars were recognized as the absolute and hereditary owners of the land. They were given the right to collect rent from the peasants on behalf of the East India Company.
Under the Mahalwari System, introduced in 1822 by Holt Mackenzie in the North-West Frontier Province, Punjab, Agra, and the Gangetic Valley, the land revenue assessment was done collectively on a village-by-village or estate (mahal) basis. Within this communal framework, the individual peasants retained the ownership rights over their respective lands, while the collective responsibility of collecting and paying the revenue was assigned to the village community or the village headman (lambardar).
Statement 3 is incorrect because the exceptionally high revenue rates of 50% for dry lands and 60% for irrigated lands were characteristic of the Ryotwari System (introduced by Sir Thomas Munro in Madras and Bombay), not the Zamindari System.
22Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : New Industrial Policy of 1991 aimed to correct the distortion and weaknesses of the industrial structure of the country
Statement 2 : This policy gave more importance to development than regulation
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
The New Industrial Policy of 1991 was introduced to dismantle the License Raj and rectify the structural distortions, inefficiencies, and weaknesses that had accumulated in the Indian industrial sector over decades of highly restrictive controls.
This objective of correcting industrial distortions was achieved because the policy fundamentally shifted the role of the government from a regulatory authority to a facilitator of development. By reducing licensing requirements, relaxing foreign investment norms, and dismantling monopoly controls, the policy prioritized market-driven development over bureaucratic regulation, which served as the key mechanism to correct the historical weaknesses of the industrial structure.
23Economy
Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding industrial policies in India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The policy of 1977 encouraged foreign investment in all areas
Explanation
The Industrial Policy Statement of 1977, introduced by the Janata Party government, took a highly restrictive and selective approach towards foreign capital rather than encouraging it in all areas. The policy prohibited foreign investment in non-priority or unnecessary areas where domestic technology and production capabilities were already well-developed. Furthermore, it strictly enforced the provisions of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act of 1973, requiring multinational corporations to dilute their foreign equity to 40% to be treated at par with Indian companies. This stringent stance forced major multinational companies like Coca-Cola and IBM to shut down their operations and leave India.
24Economy
Which of the following is/are component(s) of Foreign exchange reserves of India?
1. Foreign Currency Assets
2. Monetary Gold
3. Reserve Tranche Position
4. Special Drawing Rights
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
India's foreign exchange reserves are foreign assets held by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the nation. They are classified into four main components.
Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) constitute the largest portion of these reserves. They are held in the form of major international currencies such as the US Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling, and Japanese Yen, and are invested in foreign government securities, treasury bills, and deposits with foreign central banks.
Monetary Gold is the second component, representing physical gold reserves maintained by the RBI to diversify assets, hedge against inflation, and provide economic stability.
Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) are international reserve assets created by the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and allocated to member countries based on their IMF quotas.
The Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) is the portion of India's quota at the IMF that can be withdrawn at any time without any fee or policy conditions, functioning as a readily accessible reserve asset.
25Economy
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : Convertibility means that currency of a country can be freely converted into another currency in foreign exchange market.
Statement 2 : Rupee is made fully convertible on current account and partially convertible on capital account.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Convertibility of a currency is the ease with which it can be converted into another currency at market-determined exchange rates, facilitating international trade and investment. The Indian rupee has been made fully convertible on the current account since 1994, allowing free conversion for trade in goods and services, remittances, and short-term transactions. On the capital account, which deals with financial assets and liabilities, the rupee is only partially convertible to prevent high volatility and protect the domestic economy from sudden capital flights. While both statements are factually correct, the second statement describes the specific convertibility status of the Indian rupee, which does not serve as the definition or explanation of the concept of convertibility outlined in the first statement.
26Economy
Match the following List-I with List-II:
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. IMF | a) World Bank Group |
| 2. IBRD | b) Autonomous Organization of United Nations |
| 3. New Development Bank | c) Japan holds the largest portion |
| 4. Asian Development Bank | d) Shanghai, 2015 |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - d, 4 - c
Explanation
IMF is an autonomous specialized agency of the United Nations that works to foster global monetary cooperation and secure financial stability.
IBRD is the founding institution of the World Bank Group that offers loans to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries.
New Development Bank was established by the BRICS countries in 2015 and is headquartered in Shanghai, China.
Asian Development Bank was established in 1966, where Japan along with the United States holds the largest proportion of subscribed capital.
27Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Trade Organization (WTO)?
1. India is the founder member of the WTO
2. A WTO member must be a customs territory with full autonomy in conduct of external commercial relations
3. WTO follows voting rights according to the monetary share of the countries, means no equal voting rights
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
India is a founding member of both the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) of 1947 and the World Trade Organization (WTO) which succeeded it on January 1, 1995.
According to the Marrakesh Agreement, membership of the WTO is open to any state or separate customs territory possessing full autonomy in the conduct of its external commercial relations and of other matters provided for in the WTO Agreement. This enables autonomous customs territories like Hong Kong, Macau, and the European Union to be full members in their own right.
Decisions in the WTO are made by consensus, and when voting occurs, it operates under the principle of one member, one vote. Unlike the International Monetary Fund or the World Bank, there is no weighted voting based on monetary shares or financial contributions, meaning all member nations have equal voting rights.
28Economy
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched regarding the theory of demographic transition?
1. Stage-I-Almost Zero Population Growth
2. Stage-II-Population grows at a diminishing rate
3. Stage-III-Low Death rate and Low Birth rate
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
In the first stage of the demographic transition theory, both birth rates and death rates are extremely high. Because these two rates are nearly equal, the population remains stable and experiences almost zero or very slow growth. In the third stage, both birth rates and death rates decline considerably and become low due to urbanization, literacy, and industrialization, which also leads to a stable or slowly growing population. In contrast, the second stage is characterized by high birth rates and rapidly declining death rates, which results in a high population growth rate rather than a diminishing one.
29Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : Child Sex Ratio is defined as the number of girls per 1000 boys in the age group of 0- 6 years
Statement 2 : In India there is a sharp increase in child sex ratio between 2001 and 2011.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Child Sex Ratio is defined as the number of female children per 1000 male children in the age group of 0 to 6 years. In India, the child sex ratio declined from 927 in the 2001 Census to 919 in the 2011 Census. This represents a decrease rather than an increase over the decade.
30Economy
In an open economy, the National Income (Y) of the economy is (C, I, G, X, M stand for consumption, investment, government expenditure, total exports, and total imports, respectively.) _______________
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Y = C + I + G + (X - M)
Explanation
In an open economy, the national income (Y) is determined by the total expenditure on domestically produced goods and services, which consists of private consumption (C), investment (I), government expenditure (G), and net exports. Net exports represent the difference between total exports (X) and total imports (M), written as (X - M).
By applying the expenditure method, the identity for national income is expressed as:
Y = C + I + G + (X - M)
In this formula, (X - M) represents the net foreign demand. Subtracting imports (M) ensures that expenditures on foreign-produced goods are excluded from domestic output calculations, while adding exports (X) includes foreign spending on domestic production.
31Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Soil Health Card Scheme?
1. This is implemented by the State Governments through collection of soil sample
2. Details of 12 parameters are mentioned in the card given to farmer
3. The first cycle was conducted from 2015 to 2017 and the second cycle was conducted from 2017 to 2019
4. These cards have three macro nutrients i.e N, P and K
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Soil Health Card Scheme is a cooperative federal scheme where the Department of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare provides funding, while the actual implementation, soil sample collection, and testing are carried out by the respective State Governments.
Each Soil Health Card contains 12 essential parameters to assess the soil quality. These include the three primary macronutrients, Nitrogen, Phosphorus, and Potassium, the secondary nutrient Sulphur, five micronutrients which are Zinc, Iron, Copper, Manganese, and Boron, and three physical parameters, namely pH, Electrical Conductivity, and Organic Carbon.
The scheme operates on a cycle basis to monitor changes in soil health over time. The first cycle of the scheme was implemented during the period from 2015 to 2017, and the second cycle followed from 2017 to 2019.
32Economy
Match the following List-1 with List-II
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. Navaratna | a) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited |
| 2. Category-I Miniratna | b) Financial autonomy to incur capital expenditure without government approval up to Rs. 300 crores |
| 3. Category-II Miniratna | c) Financial autonomy to incur capital expenditure without government approval up to Rs. 150 crores |
| 4. Maharatna | d) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
Explanation
Navaratna matches with a) Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited. Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited (RINL), also known as Vizag Steel, is a Navaratna Central Public Sector Enterprise (CPSE) under the Ministry of Steel, having been granted the status in November 2010.
Category-I Miniratna matches with b) Financial autonomy to incur capital expenditure without government approval up to Rs. 300 crores. According to the Department of Public Enterprises guidelines, Category-I Miniratna CPSEs enjoy the delegated power to incur capital expenditure on new projects or modernization without government approval up to ₹300 crores, or an amount equal to their net worth, whichever is lower.
Category-II Miniratna matches with c) Financial autonomy to incur capital expenditure without government approval up to Rs. 150 crores. The boards of Category-II Miniratna CPSEs have the financial autonomy to incur capital expenditure without government approval up to ₹150 crores, or up to 50% of their net worth, whichever is lower.
Maharatna matches with d) Power Grid Corporation of India Limited. Power Grid Corporation of India Limited (POWERGRID) was accorded the Maharatna status by the Government of India in October 2019, giving it the highest tier of financial and operational autonomy.
33Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect regarding Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in India?
1. The SEZs Act was passed by Parliament in 2004
2. The SEZs Act envisages key role for the State Governments in Export Promotion and creation of related infrastructure
3. The SEZ rules provide for different minimum land requirement for different class of SEZs.
4. SEZ rules provide for single window clearance for setting up of an SEZ
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 only
Explanation
The Special Economic Zones (SEZ) Act was passed by the Parliament of India in May 2005, received the Presidential assent on 23 June 2005, and came into effect on 10 February 2006 along with the SEZ Rules. Therefore, the first statement asserting that the Act was passed in 2004 is incorrect.
34Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Telecommunication in India?
1. Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was set up on February 20, 1997
2. New Telecom Policy 1999 has opened the National Long Distance Service to private operators without any restrictions on the number of operators.
3. The thrust of National Telecom Policy 2012 was on raising the competitiveness of India's Telecom Sector.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Telecom Regulatory Authority of India was established on February 20, 1997, under the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India Act, 1997, to regulate telecom services and foster their growth.
The New Telecom Policy 1999 reorganized the telecom sector by opening up National Long Distance services to private operators. This policy removed limits on the number of operators, which increased competition and lowered tariffs.
The National Telecom Policy 2012 aimed to enhance the competitiveness of India's telecom sector globally. Its core thrust was on delivering secure, affordable, and high-quality converged communication services, while promoting domestic equipment manufacturing and simplifying the regulatory and licensing frameworks.
35Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Essential Commodities Act?
1. The Essential Commodities Act was first passed in 1955 and then government passed Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act 2020.
2. In March 2020, the Union Government brought masks and hand sanitizers under this Act.
3. The purpose of this Act is to check hoarding and black marketing.
4. Under this Act, the government can also fix Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of any packed product that it declares as essential commodity.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Essential Commodities Act was enacted in 1955 to control and regulate the trade, price, production, and supply of goods declared as essential. To reform agricultural marketing, the government passed the Essential Commodities (Amendment) Act in 2020.
In March 2020, in response to the COVID-19 pandemic, the Union Government brought hand sanitizers and masks (surgical and N95 masks) under the purview of this Act to ensure their availability and quality at reasonable prices.
The central aim of the Act is to safeguard consumer interests by checking unfair trade practices like hoarding and black marketing, which artificially increase the prices of essential goods.
Additionally, under the legal framework of this Act, the government has the authority to intervene and fix the Maximum Retail Price (MRP) of any packaged product that is declared an essential commodity to prevent retailers from overcharging consumers during emergencies or supply distortions.
36Economy
Which of the following are most likely to cause current account deficit in India?
1. Reduced excise duties on sports utility vehicles.
2. Reduced customs duties on gold.
3. Ban on exports of onions.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Current Account Deficit (CAD) measures the gap between the value of goods and services imported and those exported. Any policy that increases imports or decreases exports will widen the CAD.
Reducing customs duties on gold makes imported gold cheaper in the domestic market, which stimulates domestic demand and leads to a surge in gold imports. Since gold is one of the largest import items for India, this significantly increases the import bill and widens the trade deficit.
Banning the export of onions directly halts the outflow of this agricultural product to foreign markets. This reduces India's overall export volume and decreases export earnings, thereby widening the gap between imports and exports and contributing to a higher CAD.
37Economy
Which of the following is/are a function or functions of SIDBI?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) All of the above
Explanation
The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established in 1990 as the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing, and development of the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises sector. Its mandate covers a wide range of financial activities to support small businesses. This includes providing refinance assistance to primary lending institutions such as commercial banks and State Financial Corporations, offering discounting and rediscounting facilities for trade bills to maintain liquidity, and extending seed capital or soft loans to meet the initial equity requirements of early-stage enterprises and start-ups.
38Polity and Governance
Which of the following is not an objective of the National Population Policy, 2000?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) To promote joint family system
Explanation
The National Population Policy, 2000, was formulated by the Government of India to address reproductive health, contraception, and maternal and child healthcare needs. It focuses on achieving demographic goals such as stabilizing the population, promoting the small family norm, improving immunization coverage, and lowering maternal and infant mortality rates. Promoting a joint family system is a traditional social and cultural structure that does not form part of the policy's demographic, medical, or health-oriented objectives.
39Economy
Which of the following redistributive policy/policies the government will not adopt if it wants to bridge 'economic inequality'?
1. Rationalizing subsidies
2. Progressive tax policies
3. Regressive expenditures.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 3 only
Explanation
Regressive expenditure refers to public spending policies where the benefits accrue disproportionately to high-income groups rather than low-income groups, which serves to widen rather than bridge the gap between the rich and the poor. To reduce economic inequality, a government aims for progressive expenditure, where public resources are targeted towards the welfare and development of the economically weaker sections. Therefore, the government will not adopt regressive expenditure policies when its objective is to reduce economic disparity. In contrast, progressive taxation and rationalizing subsidies are actively adopted as they redistribute wealth and ensure that benefits are directed toward those who need them most.
40Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct with regard to Green box subsidies?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
Green box subsidies under the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture refer to domestic support policies that cause no, or at most minimal, trade-distorting effects on production. These subsidies must be government-funded and must not involve price support. They include public service programmes such as research, training, pest and disease control, and general infrastructural services like roads, electricity grids, and water supply. Because they do not distort trade, they are permitted without any financial limitations under WTO regulations.
41Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding targets of Union Budget 2021-22 Estimates?
1. Fiscal deficit - 6.8% of GDP
2. Revenue deficit - 4.1% of GDP
3. Primary deficit - 3.1% of GDP
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Union Budget 2021-22 Budget Estimates set the Fiscal Deficit target at 6.8% of GDP, making the first statement correct. The Primary Deficit, which is the fiscal deficit minus interest payments, was estimated at 3.1% of GDP, making the third statement correct. The Revenue Deficit was targeted at 5.1% of GDP, whereas 4.1% of GDP was the target for the Effective Revenue Deficit, which makes the second statement incorrect.
42Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Explanation
A tax system in which the rate of tax increases with an increase in income up to a certain limit, after which the rate remains constant, is termed a degressive tax. A regressive tax is defined as a tax where the rate of taxation decreases as the taxpayer's income increases.
Public loans that the government never repays, but on which it continues to pay interest indefinitely, are called irredeemable or perpetual debt. Redeemable debt refers to loans that the government promises to repay after a specific period of time.
43Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Sample Registration System (SRS) Bulletins May 2020 of India?
1. The natural growth rate of population was 13.8 per cent.
2. The birth rate of rural population was less than urban population.
3. The Infant Mortality Rate was 32.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
According to the Sample Registration System bulletin released in May 2020 for the reference year 2018, the national-level natural growth rate of the population was 13.8 per thousand.
The birth rate in rural areas was 21.6 per thousand, which was higher than the urban birth rate of 16.7 per thousand.
The Infant Mortality Rate at the national level was 32 deaths per thousand live births, which represented a continuous decline over the past decades.
44Economy
The construction of National Highways under 'Bharatmalia Pariyojana' is funded from
1. Cess collected from Petrol and Diesel
2. Amount collected from Toll
3. External assistance
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Bharatmala Pariyojana is a centrally sponsored and funded road and highways project of the Government of India. The funding for this ambitious program is mobilized from a combination of diverse financial sources. First, the Central Road and Infrastructure Fund, which is primarily financed through the cess levied on petrol and diesel, acts as a major source of revenue for national highway development. Second, toll revenues collected from operational national highways, along with innovative monetization models like the Toll-Operate-Transfer scheme, contribute significantly to the funding pool. Third, external budgetary resources, including external assistance from multilateral development banks like the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank, are actively utilized to bridge the investment gap and finance various corridors under this scheme.
45EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
According to the crop production statistics of the Government of Gujarat, the total rice production in the state increased from 19.83 lakh tonnes in 2019-20 to 21.44 lakh tonnes in 2020-21, indicating a positive growth in rice production during 2020-21.
As per the Socio-Economic Review of Gujarat, the agriculture sector accounted for 10.8% of the real Gross State Value Added (GSVA) of Gujarat at constant (2011-12) prices during the year 2019-20.
46EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. During 2019-20, the real per capita income of Gujarat was Rs. 1,65,359 as compared to Rs. 94,566 of India.
2. Around 23 percent of India's industrial output is produced in Gujarat.
3. The share of secondary sector in Gujarat's GSDP was 44.5 percent during 2019-20.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
During 2019-20, the real per capita income of Gujarat at constant 2011-12 prices was estimated at ₹1,65,359, while the real per capita net national income of India for the same period stood at ₹94,566. Gujarat accounts for approximately 17% to 18% of India's total industrial output rather than 23%. According to the Gujarat State Socio-Economic Review, the secondary sector contributed 44.5% to the Gross State Value Added (GSVA) at current prices in 2019-20.
47Economy
The Goods and Services Tax Bill comprises _________
1. The CGST Bill - The Central Goods and Services Tax Bill 2017.
2. The IGST Bill - The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill 2017.
3. The UTGST Bill - The Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill 2017.
4. The Compensation Bill - The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to the States) Bill 2017.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) regime was implemented in India through a package of four primary legislations passed by the Parliament in 2017. These comprise the Central Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017, which enables the Central Government to levy tax on intra-state supplies; the Integrated Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017, which governs the tax levy on inter-state trade and commerce; the Union Territory Goods and Services Tax Bill, 2017, which enables tax collection on intra-state transactions in Union Territories without a legislative assembly; and the Goods and Services Tax (Compensation to States) Bill, 2017, which facilitates compensation to states for any revenue loss suffered during the transition to the GST regime. Together, these four bills formed the complete legislative package enacted by the Parliament to roll out the unified indirect tax system across the country.
48Economy
There has been a persistent deficit in budget year after year in India. Which of the following actions can be taken by the government to reduce the deficit?
1. Reducing revenue expenditure.
2. Introducing new welfare schemes.
3. Rationalizing subsidies.
4. Expanding industries.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
To reduce a persistent budget deficit, the government must either increase its revenue receipts or decrease its expenditures.
Reducing revenue expenditure directly decreases the government's operational and non-developmental spending, which directly helps in lowering the fiscal deficit.
Rationalizing subsidies involves targeting them to the actual needy and eliminating leakages, which significantly curtails the government's subsidy bill, thereby reducing overall revenue expenditure and narrowing the budget deficit.
Conversely, introducing new welfare schemes or expanding public industries involves additional government expenditure, which increases the fiscal deficit rather than reducing it. Thus, only reducing revenue expenditure and rationalizing subsidies are effective direct measures to control the budget deficit.
49Economy
The main difference between Monetization Pipeline (as announced on 7ᵗʰ September, 2021 by Finance Minister) and disinvestment is ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Disinvestment affects change in ownership while Monetization does not.
Explanation
Asset monetization under the National Monetisation Pipeline involves leasing out operational public infrastructure assets to private operators for a fixed tenure through structures like concession agreements, public-private partnerships, or investment trusts. Crucially, the government retains ultimate ownership of these assets, which are handed back to the public sector once the contract period expires. In contrast, disinvestment involves selling the government's equity or stakes in public sector enterprises to private entities, which permanently transfers ownership and control either partially or completely to the buyer. Therefore, disinvestment leads to a change in ownership, whereas monetization does not involve any transfer of ownership.
50Science and Technology
What is not true regarding India's proposed ambitious 'One Sun, One World, One Grid' (OSOWOG) Project?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The idea of OSOWOG was first floated by PM Modi in October, 2017 during the first assembly of International Solar Alliance (ISA).
Explanation
The proposal for the One Sun, One World, One Grid (OSOWOG) initiative was first introduced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2018 during the inaugural First Assembly of the International Solar Alliance (ISA), rather than in October 2017.
51EconomyGujarat-specific
Gujarat Budget Estimates 2021-22 demonstrate a Revenue Surplus/Revenue Deficit of Rs. ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) +1209 Crores (0.06% of GSDP)
Explanation
In the Gujarat State Budget presented for the financial year 2021-22, the Finance Minister estimated a revenue surplus of Rs. 1,209 crore. This estimated revenue surplus represents 0.06% of the projected Gross State Domestic Product of Rs. 18,79,826 crore at current prices.
52Polity and Governance
As per India's National Population Policy 2000, by which of the following years we aim to attain population stabilization?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2045
Explanation
The National Population Policy 2000 was formulated to provide a framework for meeting the reproductive and child health needs of the people of India. It outlines three sets of objectives: immediate, medium-term, and long-term. The long-term objective of the policy is to achieve a stable population by the year 2045, at a level consistent with the requirements of sustainable economic growth, social development, and environmental protection.
53Geography
According to Census 2011, which one of the following is not a criterion to qualify as an urban area?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Industrial workforce in the area
Explanation
The Census of India defines urban areas using specific demographic and occupational parameters, which include a minimum population threshold, a minimum population density, and a minimum percentage of the male main working population engaged in non-agricultural pursuits. The specific size, percentage, or presence of an industrial workforce is not a criterion used by the Census to qualify an area as urban.
54GeographyGujarat-specific
Consider the following regarding types of lands in Gujarat.
1. Alluvial soils
2. Sandy soil
3. Laterite soil
4. Alkaline soil
5. Black soil
Which of the following is the correct choice of the above types of soils in ascending order depending on their geographical area?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 3-2-4-5-1
Explanation
The correct ascending order of soil types in Gujarat based on their geographical area (from smallest to largest) is Laterite soil, Sandy soil, Alkaline soil, Black soil, and Alluvial soil.
Laterite soil covers the smallest geographical area in Gujarat, confined to very restricted patches in parts of Valsad, Sabarkantha, and bauxite-rich pockets of coastal Saurashtra and Kutch.
Sandy soil has a slightly larger area than laterite, predominantly occurring in the arid and semi-arid regions of Kutch and North Gujarat districts like Banaskantha and Patan.
Alkaline and saline soil is highly extensive in the state, covering vast tracts of the Rann of Kutch, the coastal strip along the Gulf of Khambhat, and low-lying inland areas with drainage issues.
Black soil is one of the most prominent soil groups in Gujarat, dominating the Saurashtra peninsula and South Gujarat districts like Vadodara, Bharuch, and Surat, providing highly fertile ground for cotton and groundnut.
Alluvial soil, including the local sandy loam Goradu soil, forms the largest soil group in Gujarat. It spans the extensive plains of Central and North Gujarat across the rich river basins of the Narmada, Tapi, Mahi, and Sabarmati.
55EconomyGujarat-specific
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : A Silver is a precious metal and it is extracted from Argentine and Chlorargyrite ores.
Statement 2 : The largest silver production takes place in Chittorgarh (Rajasthan) next comes the Bharuch region of Gujarat.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct as silver is a precious metal primarily extracted from ores like argentite (silver sulfide, Ag₂S) and chlorargyrite (horn silver, AgCl).
Statement 2 is incorrect because the major silver mining and production in India occurs in the Rajsamand (Sindesar Khurd mine) and Udaipur (Zawar mines) districts of Rajasthan, rather than Chittorgarh. Additionally, the second-largest silver producer in India is Karnataka (extracted as a by-product of gold refining), not the Bharuch region of Gujarat.
56Geography
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : In winter season, North India is severely affected by Cold waves.
Statement 2 : Heavy snowfall occurs in Himalayan region due to western depressions.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
During the winter season, North India experiences severe cold waves. These cold waves are caused by the inflow of chilly, dry northerly winds from the snow-covered Himalayan region into the plains. The heavy snowfall in the Himalayas is brought about by western depressions, also known as Western Disturbances, which move across northern India. Once these depressions pass, they leave behind freshly snow-clad mountain ranges. The subsequent blowing of cold winds over this snow-covered terrain towards the plains directly triggers the sudden drop in temperature and severe cold wave conditions in North India.
57Geography
If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of states within India through which you can travel, including the origin and destination?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 7
Explanation
To travel from Kohima to Kottayam by the shortest road route, one must traverse a minimum of seven states. Kohima is located in Nagaland and Kottayam is located in Kerala. Starting the journey from Nagaland, the route goes through Assam to reach West Bengal via the Siliguri Corridor. From West Bengal, the route continues southward along the eastern coast through Odisha and Andhra Pradesh. From Andhra Pradesh, one can enter Tamil Nadu and then cross into Kerala to reach Kottayam. Alternatively, from Andhra Pradesh, one can pass through Karnataka to enter Kerala. In both cases, the sequence of states is Nagaland, Assam, West Bengal, Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu or Karnataka, and Kerala, making the minimum number of states exactly seven, including both the origin and destination.
58Geography
Which of the following is the world's largest landlocked country in terms of area?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Kazakhstan
Explanation
Kazakhstan is the largest landlocked country in the world, covering an area of approximately 2,724,900 square kilometers. It is situated primarily in Central Asia, with a small western portion extending into Eastern Europe. Although it borders the Caspian Sea, the Caspian is an endorheic basin with no natural outlet to the world's open oceans, meaning Kazakhstan remains entirely landlocked in terms of global maritime access.
59Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Earthquake?
1. The intensity of an earthquake is measured on the Mercalli Scale.
2. The magnitude of an earthquake is a measure of energy released.
3. The magnitude of an earthquake is based on the measures of the direct amplitude of earthquake waves.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The intensity of an earthquake represents the visible damage and impact on human lives and structures, which is measured quantitatively on the Mercalli scale ranging from I to XII. In contrast, the magnitude is a precise measure of the energy released at the source of the earthquake. This magnitude value is calculated logarithmically using the maximum direct amplitude of seismic waves recorded on a seismograph, making all three statements correct.
60Geography
Which of the following ocean current is associated with Indian Ocean?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Agulhas Current
Explanation
The Agulhas Current is a major warm western boundary current flowing southward along the east coast of Africa in the Southwest Indian Ocean. It originates from the confluence of the East Madagascar Current and the Mozambique Current, transporting warm tropical waters from the equatorial Indian Ocean toward the southern tip of Africa before retroflecting back into the southern Indian Ocean. This current plays a vital role in regional climate regulation and global oceanic heat transport.
61Science and Technology
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : In the atmosphere, the boiling point of water decreases with the increase of altitude. Statement 2 : The atmospheric pressure increases with altitude.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is Incorrect
Explanation
The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapor pressure equals the surrounding atmospheric pressure. As altitude increases, the atmospheric pressure decreases because the density of air molecules and the weight of the air column above decrease. Since the atmospheric pressure is lower at higher altitudes, water requires less thermal energy for its vapor pressure to equal the external pressure. Therefore, water boils at a lower temperature, which makes Statement 1 correct.
Atmospheric pressure decreases with altitude rather than increasing, which makes Statement 2 incorrect. Gravity pulls air molecules closer to the Earth's surface, creating a denser and heavier atmosphere at lower elevations. As one ascends, the atmosphere becomes thinner and exerts less pressure.
62GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following is correct ascending order of districts of Gujarat state on the basis of percentage of total forest covered area to their geographical area?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Tapi, Valsad, Narmada, Dang
Explanation
According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2019, the percentage of total forest cover to the geographical area for these districts of Gujarat is as follows:
Arranging these districts in ascending order of their forest cover percentages yields Tapi, Valsad, Narmada, and Dang.
63Geography
Which one of the following is incorrectly matched?
Name of reservoir Project on river
1. Gobind Sagar - Sutlej
2. Rana Pratap Sagar - Narmada
3. Gandhi Sagar - Chambal
4. Covid Ballab Pant Sagar - Rihand
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The reservoirs Gobind Sagar, Gandhi Sagar, and Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar are correctly matched with their respective rivers. Gobind Sagar is located on the Sutlej River in Himachal Pradesh and is formed by the Bhakra Dam. Gandhi Sagar is built on the Chambal River in Madhya Pradesh. Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar is situated on the Rihand River in Uttar Pradesh. Conversely, Rana Pratap Sagar is built on the Chambal River in Rajasthan, meaning it is incorrectly matched with the Narmada River. Therefore, 1, 3, and 4 represent the correctly matched pairs.
64Economy
Khetri, Kolar, Sindri and Barakar are respectively associated with
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Copper, Gold, Fertilizer and Coal
Explanation
Khetri, located in Rajasthan, is widely known for its significant copper reserves and is home to the Khetri Copper Complex. Kolar, situated in Karnataka, is historically renowned for the Kolar Gold Fields which were among the deepest and most productive gold mines in the world. Sindri, located in Jharkhand, is famous for its pioneering fertilizer plant established shortly after independence under the Fertilizer Corporation of India. Barakar, situated on the border of Jharkhand and West Bengal, is highly significant for its extensive coal deposits, giving its name to the major coal-bearing geological Barakar Stage of the Damodar valley.
65Geography
The formation of 'Rift valley' is the result of which of the following?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Faulting
Explanation
A rift valley is a linear-shaped lowland between several highlands or mountain ranges created by the action of geologic faulting. Under the influence of tensional tectonic forces, the Earth's crust is pulled apart, leading to the creation of parallel faults. The central block of land between these parallel faults subsequently subsides or sinks relative to the surrounding blocks. This subsided block, geologically termed as a graben, forms the rift valley, bounded by steep fault scarps on either side.
66Geography
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Folded mountains are the youngest mountains on the Earth's surface.
2. Folded mountains are found along the margins of the continents facing oceans
3. Folded mountains are generally found in arc shape having one side concave slope and other side convex slope
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Folded mountains are the youngest mountains on Earth because they were formed during the most recent orogenic cycles, particularly the Alpine-Himalayan and Circum-Pacific tertiary mountain-building periods. They are found along continental margins facing oceans because they typically form at convergent plate boundaries, where the subduction of an oceanic plate beneath a continental plate squeezes and uplifts sedimentary deposits accumulated in geosynclines near the coast. Furthermore, the asymmetric application of compressive tectonic forces against rigid continental masses pushes the mountain ranges into curved, arcuate shapes, resulting in an asymmetrical profile with one side forming a concave slope and the other a convex slope.
67Geography
Which of the following are Igneous rock types?
1. Granite
2. Diorite
3. Gabbro
4. Marble
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Igneous rocks are formed through the cooling and solidification of magma or lava. Granite, diorite, and gabbro are all examples of intrusive or plutonic igneous rocks, which form beneath the Earth's surface from the slow cooling of magma. Granite is a felsic igneous rock high in silica, quartz, and feldspar. Diorite is an intermediate igneous rock composed mostly of plagioclase feldspar and hornblende. Gabbro is a mafic igneous rock dominated by calcium-rich plagioclase and pyroxene. Marble is a metamorphic rock that develops when sedimentary carbonate rocks, such as limestone, undergo recrystallization under high temperatures and pressures.
68GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Gujarat?
1. The large Kathiawar Peninsula lies between the Gulf of Kachchh and the Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay)
2. The Gujarat State reaches its highest elevation, at 3,665 feet (1,117 meters), in the Girnar Hills
3. Southeastern Gujarat can be crossed from South to North by crossing the Narmada and then the Tapti
4. The Rann of Kachchh is India's only nesting ground of the greater flamingo.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Kathiawar Peninsula is geographically situated between the Gulf of Kachchh to its northwest and the Gulf of Khambhat to its southeast.
The highest point in Gujarat is Mount Girnar, situated in the Girnar Hills near Junagadh, which reaches an elevation of 1,117 meters (3,665 feet).
Traveling from South to North through southeastern Gujarat requires crossing the Tapti River first (which flows near Surat) and then the Narmada River (which flows further north near Bharuch).
The Great Rann of Kachchh, particularly the area known as Flamingo City, is the only established breeding and nesting ground of the greater flamingo in India.
69Geography
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Caucasoids include the European people, the semitic people and Indo-Aryan people.
2. The Negroids live chiefly in Africa South of Sahara.
3. Mongoloids inhabit northern, eastern and south-eastern Asia
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The classical anthropological classification of human races divides humanity into major groups based on geographical distribution and physical characteristics.
Caucasoids encompass a broad group that includes European populations, Semitic peoples of the Middle East, and Indo-Aryans of the Indian subcontinent, all sharing similar cranial and facial morphology.
Negroids are geographically associated with the African continent, residing predominantly south of the Sahara Desert.
Mongoloids are characterized by distinct physical traits, including the epicanthic fold, and historically inhabit northern, eastern, and south-eastern Asia.
70Economy
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. People engaged in Quaternary services are called white-collar workers
2. People engaged in Quinary activities are called gold-collar workers
3. People engaged in Tertiary activities are called pink-collar workers
4. People engaged in Primary activities are called blue-collar workers
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Economic activities are classified into distinct categories based on their nature, with corresponding color-coded collars representing their workforce.
Statement 1 is correct because Quaternary activities represent a specialized segment of the service sector focused on intellectual and knowledge-based services, such as information processing, research, and education. The professionals engaged in these office-based environments are known as white-collar workers.
Statement 2 is correct because Quinary activities involve the highest level of decision-making, policy formulation, and executive leadership in an economy. The highly skilled professionals who occupy these top roles, such as senior executives and research scientists, are referred to as gold-collar workers.
Statement 3 is correct because Tertiary activities encompass the broader service sector, including retail, trade, transport, and personal services. Workers engaged in these service occupations are traditionally categorized as pink-collar workers.
Primary activities, which involve direct extraction from nature such as agriculture and mining, are performed by red-collar workers due to the outdoor nature of their work. Blue-collar workers, on the other hand, are associated with manufacturing and secondary industrial activities.
71Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding National highways?
1. NH-1 and NH-2 are collectively called as Grand Trunk Road
2. The Jawahar Tunnel is located at Banihal Pass connecting Jammu and Srinagar
3. The smallest National Highway of India is NH-47A
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The historic Grand Trunk Road, one of Asia's oldest and longest major routes, has historically been represented in India's highway network by the combination of NH-1, which runs from Delhi to Amritsar, and NH-2, which connects Delhi to Kolkata.
The Jawahar Tunnel, engineered to facilitate reliable year-round connectivity, is located at the Banihal Pass within the Pir Panjal mountain range and serves as the vital road link connecting Jammu with Srinagar.
NH-47A is the shortest National Highway in India, covering a distance of only 6 km. It connects Kundannoor to the seaport of Willingdon Island in Kochi, Kerala.
72Geography
Meghalayan Age refers to
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) In the geologic time scale, it is the latest age or uppermost stage of the Quaternary
Explanation
The Meghalayan Age is the current and youngest geological age within the Holocene epoch of the Quaternary period. Officially classified by the International Commission on Stratigraphy in 2018, it began approximately 4,200 years ago during a severe, worldwide megadrought that caused a major collapse of agricultural civilizations. The age is named after a stalagmite found in Mawmluh Cave in Meghalaya, India, which served as the global boundary stratotype section and point to define the beginning of this age based on oxygen isotope signature changes.
73GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Coal reserves in Gujarat?
1. In Gujarat coal is found in Bharouch district and Kutch. The coal is of poor quality with about 35% carbon and more moisture.
2. In Gujarat coal is found in Bharouch district. Its carbon and moisture contents are 80 - 90% and 10% , respectively.
3. Superior quality anthracite and bituminous coal is found in Bharouch district of Gujarat.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
Gujarat's coal reserves primarily consist of lignite, which is a low-grade brown coal. The major deposits of this lignite are located in the Kutch and Bharuch districts of the state, such as the Rajpardi mine in Bharuch. As a tertiary deposit, this lignite is of poor quality, containing a low carbon content of approximately 25% to 35% and a very high moisture content.
74GeographyGujarat-specific
Match the following List-I with List-II regarding Forests of Gujarat
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests | a. Teak, Haldu, Sisam and Katas |
| 2. Mangrove Forests | b. Single species i.e Avicennia marina. |
| 3. Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests | c. 600-1200 mm rainfall |
| 4. North Tropical Forests | d. Banaskantha, Parts of Bhavnagar, Kutchh |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - d
Explanation
Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests correspond to (a) Teak, Haldu, Sisam, and Katas. These represent the main commercial timber species found in high-rainfall zones (exceeding 1200 mm) of Southern Gujarat.
Mangrove Forests correspond to (b) Single species i.e. Avicennia marina. This highly dominant species comprises over 95% of the total mangrove cover in the intertidal regions of the state.
Tropical Dry Deciduous Forests correspond to (c) 600-1200 mm rainfall. This forest ecosystem thrives under moderate rainfall conditions across Central Gujarat and Saurashtra.
North Tropical Forests (Thorn Forests) correspond to (d) Banaskantha, Parts of Bhavnagar, and Kutchh. These regions experience arid to semi-arid climates, supporting dry, thorny scrub vegetation.
75GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched regarding Forests in Gujarat?
1. Reserved Forests- 14769.58 km² area
2. Unclassed Forest- 3001.40 km² area
3. Protected Forest- 4102.44 km² area
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 only
Explanation
Per official Gujarat Forest Department statistics, Reserved Forest area in Gujarat is 14,769.58 km², which matches statement 1. However, the figures given for statement 2 (Unclassed Forest - 3001.40 km²) and statement 3 (Protected Forest - 4102.44 km²) are swapped in the actual records: Unclassed Forest is actually 4102.44 km² and Protected Forest is 3001.40 km². Therefore only statement 1 is correctly matched, making option (B) "1 only" the correct answer.
76GeographyGujarat-specific
Match the following List-I with List-II regarding the minerals availability in Gujarat.
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| 1. Lignite | a. Bhavnagar |
| 2. Manganese | b. Kutch and Devbhoomi Dwarka |
| 3. Bauxite | c. Panchmahal, Vadodara |
| 4. Fluorspar | d. Chhotaudepur |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b, 4 - d
Explanation
Lignite matches with Bhavnagar because key lignite mining blocks and deposits in Gujarat are situated in the Bhavnagar district, such as those in Ghogha.
Manganese matches with Panchmahal, Vadodara because manganese ore in Gujarat is predominantly concentrated in the districts of Panchmahal and Vadodara.
Bauxite matches with Kutch and Devbhoomi Dwarka because these regions host the largest and highest-grade deposits of chemical and metallurgical grade bauxite in the state.
Fluorspar matches with Chhotaudepur because the famous Ambadungar mining area, which contains extensive reserves of fluorspar, is located in the Chhotaudepur district.
77GeographyGujarat-specific
Match the following List-I with List-II
| List-I (Rivers) | List-II (Tributaries) |
|---|---|
| 1. Sabarmati | a. Wakal, Dhamni and Khari |
| 2. Mahi | b. Panam, Kun and Bhadar |
| 3. Rupen | c. Ver |
| 4. Tapi | d. Pushpavati and Khari |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 - a, 2 - b, 3 - d, 4 - c
Explanation
Sabarmati has tributaries such as the Wakal, Dhamni, and Khari, which originate in the Aravalli Range and flow into Gujarat.
Mahi receives waters from tributaries like the Panam, Kun, and Bhadar, which significantly enhance the flow of its basin across Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat.
Rupen is an ephemeral river in northern Gujarat whose prominent tributaries include the Pushpavati and Khari rivers.
Tapi is fed by the Ver river in its lower basin, representing a key drainage component of this major west-flowing river system in Gujarat.
78GeographyGujarat-specific
Match the following List-I with List-II
| List-I (Wildlife Sanctuaries) | List-II (District) |
|---|---|
| 1. Khijadia Bird Sanctuary | a. Amreli |
| 2. Rampara Sanctuary | b. Morbi |
| 3. Purna Wildlife Sanctuary | c. Dangs |
| 4. Pania Wildlife Sanctuary | d. Jamnagar |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 - d, 2 - b, 3 - c, 4 - a
Explanation
Khijadia Bird Sanctuary is located in Jamnagar district. It is a seasonal wetland featuring unique freshwater and saltwater habitats.
Rampara Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Morbi district. It represents an important shrubby grassland ecosystem providing habitat to diverse flora and fauna.
Purna Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Dangs district. It is known for its dense moist deciduous forests and rich biodiversity in Southern Gujarat.
Pania Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Amreli district. It is an integral part of the Gir ecosystem and is specially noted for Chinkara (Indian gazelle).
79GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Gujarat?
1. The Kutch peninsula is also notable for being an active example of fold and thrust tectonism
2. In Saurashtra and Kathiawar, there is a presence of miliolite limestone found in carbonate rocks known as Porbandar stone
3. Western Kutch is also home to the Chari Formation, a Jurassic formation of limestone, siltstone
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Kutch peninsula is notable for active fold and thrust tectonism, featuring numerous hill ranges shaped by active fault-propagation folding in an intraplate compressive environment.
In Saurashtra and Kathiawar, the extensively occurring Pleistocene miliolite limestone is commercially and historically known as Porbandar stone. This carbonate rock consists of fine-grained calcretes and wind-blown bioclastic remains of minute foraminifers cemented by calcite.
The Chari Formation in western and mainland Kutch is a well-known Middle to Upper Jurassic sedimentary succession. It is predominantly composed of shale, fossiliferous limestone, siltstone, sandstone, and oolite, highly renowned for its rich yield of marine fossil assemblages.
80Geography
Identify the State with the help of following statements.
Statement 1 : It is bounded to the north by the state of Sikkim and the country of Bhutan
Statement 2 : It is bounded to the northeast by the state of Assam, to the east by the country of Bangladesh
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) West Bengal
Explanation
West Bengal shares its northern boundary with the state of Sikkim and the country of Bhutan. To its northeast, it is bordered by the Indian state of Assam, and to its east, it shares a long international boundary with Bangladesh.
81Geography
Identify the correct answer with the help of following statements.
1. A person started from Ahmedabad to New York by flight on 1ˢᵗ March 2020 at 8pm Indian Standard Time (IST).
2. The total travel time is 24 hours
Then the person reaches New York on ___________
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2ⁿᵈ March 2020 at 8 pm IST
Explanation
To find the arrival time in Indian Standard Time (IST), add the travel duration directly to the departure time:
Departure Time = 1st March 2020 at 8:00 pm IST
Travel Duration = 24 hours
Arrival Time (IST) = 1st March 2020 at 8:00 pm IST + 24 hours
Arrival Time (IST) = 2nd March 2020 at 8:00 pm IST
82Geography
If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because of ___________
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) The soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients.
Explanation
The soil of a tropical rainforest is highly deficient in nutrients. In this ecosystem, the vast majority of nutrients are stored within the living vegetation and biomass rather than in the soil. Because of the consistently hot and humid climate, organic matter on the forest floor decomposes extremely rapidly due to intense microbial activity. The released nutrients are almost immediately taken up by the dense, shallow root systems of the existing trees. Any remaining soluble nutrients are quickly washed away deep into the soil profile by heavy, continuous rainfall through the process of leaching. Consequently, when a rainforest is cleared, the primary reservoir of nutrients stored in the vegetation is permanently lost, leaving behind nutrient-depleted, acidic soils that are unable to support rapid forest regeneration.
83Geography
Which of the following statements regarding Laterite soils of India are correct?
1. They are generally red in colour.
2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
4. Tapioca and cashewnuts grow well on these soils.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 4 only
Explanation
Laterite soils are formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods, which leads to intense leaching of silica and lime. They are generally red in colour due to the presence of iron oxides, which are left behind after the soluble silica is leached away. With appropriate application of fertilizers and manure, red laterite soils in states like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala are highly suitable for growing tree crops and plantation crops such as cashewnuts and tapioca.
84Geography
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Moist Tropical Forest are found along the Western Coast, in Upper Assam and lower slopes of the eastern Himalaya.
2. Dry Tropical Forests mainly found in Indian Northern Hilly regions and some states of Southern India
3. Alpine Forests start at an elevation of above 3000 m grow up to the region just below the snowline.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Moist tropical forests, which include wet evergreen, semi-evergreen, and moist deciduous forests, are found in regions with high annual rainfall and warm temperatures, prominently along the Western Ghats of the Western Coast, the northeastern parts of India including Upper Assam, and the lower slopes of the eastern Himalayas. Alpine vegetation in India begins at elevations above 3000 meters and extends up to the snowline, transitioning from sub-alpine forests of silver fir, pine, and birch to alpine pastures and scrub near the snow limit.
85Geography
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Cardamom Hills - Coromandel Coast
2. Kaimur Hills - Konkan Coast
3. Mahadeo Hills - Central India
4. Mikir Hills - North East India
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Mahadeo Hills are located in Madhya Pradesh, forming a critical part of the Satpura Range in Central India. Mikir Hills are situated in Assam, making them an integral geographical feature of North East India. Thus, these two pairs are accurately described by their respective regions.
86Art and CultureGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements with reference to Gujarati language are correct?
1. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Western.
2. Gujarati language belongs to the family of Indo-Aryan Central.
3. Gujarati language speakers are at the sixth position among major languages spoken in India as per the 2011 Census of India.
4. Gujarati language speakers are almost equal to the number of Urdu language speakers in India as per the 2011 Census of India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The Gujarati language belongs to the Western Indo-Aryan branch of the Indo-European language family.
According to the 2011 Census of India, Gujarati is the sixth most widely spoken language in the country, with approximately 5.55 crore speakers, making up about 4.58% of the total population of India.
The number of Gujarati speakers is almost equal to the number of Urdu speakers, who are the seventh most spoken group in India with approximately 5.08 crore speakers, making up 4.19% of the total population.
87Geography
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Nainital lake - Tectonic wetlands
2. Loktak lake - Oxbow wetlands
3. Lonar lake - Crater wetlands
4. Chilka lake - Lagoon wetlands
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
According to the official GPSC answer key, option (D) "1, 2, 3 and 4" is marked correct — the exam setters treat all four pairs as correctly matched. Nainital Lake is indeed a tectonic-origin lake, Lonar Lake is a crater lake, and Chilka Lake is a lagoon, matching pairs 1, 3, and 4. Although Loktak Lake is more precisely classified as a tectonic/fresh-water swamp lake rather than a strict oxbow lake, the GPSC key evidently accepted pair 2 as correct as well, making all four pairs correct per
88Geography
Match List-I with List-II and select correct combination
| List-I - Indigenous Tribes | List-II - Characteristics |
|---|---|
| 1. Khasis | a) Mongoloid features |
| 2. Todas | b) Jhoom cultivation |
| 3. Jaunsaries | c) Pastoralists |
| 4. Tharus | d) Aryan descendants |
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - d, 4 - a
Explanation
Khasis are an indigenous group of Meghalaya in Northeast India who traditionally practice shifting agriculture, which is commonly referred to as Jhoom cultivation.
Todas are a small pastoral tribe residing in the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, whose economy and cultural practices are centered around herding water buffaloes.
Jaunsaries are a tribal community in the Jaunsar-Bawar region of Uttarakhand who are traditionally considered to be of Aryan descent, tracing their ancestry to the Pandavas.
Tharus are indigenous people living in the Terai region of India and Nepal, possessing distinct Mongoloid physical characteristics.
89Geography
Which of the statements truly represent 'Breaks' in the Indian Monsoons?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
During the southwest monsoon season, rainfall is not continuous. Instead, the monsoon is characterized by wet and dry spells, meaning that monsoon rains take place only for a few days at a time and are interspersed with rainless intervals. These temporary dry periods are referred to as breaks in the monsoon, and they are primarily related to the fluctuating movement of the monsoon trough over northern India.
90Geography
Consider the following statements:
Statement 1 : The black soils are clayey, which swell and become sticky when wet but shrink when dry.
Statement 2 : This soil develop wide crack during dry season and become 'self ploughing'.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Black soils are highly clayey and impermeable, rich in clay minerals like montmorillonite which give them a high shrink-swell capacity. This capacity causes the soil to swell and become extremely sticky when wet, and to shrink significantly when dry.
During the dry season, the loss of moisture and subsequent shrinkage lead to the formation of deep, wide cracks. This phenomenon facilitates a natural aeration and mixing process known as self-ploughing, where dry soil from the surface falls into the cracks. Both statements are scientifically accurate, but the development of cracks and self-ploughing in Statement 2 is a consequence of the shrinking behavior described in Statement 1, meaning Statement 2 does not serve as the explanation for Statement 1.
91Geography
Consider the following statements with reference to sea water.
Statement 1 : At a certain temperature the density increases with increasing salinity.
Statement 2 : The components of salinity have a greater density than the distilled water.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct and statement 2 is the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Density is defined as mass per unit volume (ρ = m/V). When salts (the components of salinity) are dissolved in water, they add extra mass to the solution without significantly increasing its total volume. Because the components of salinity, such as sodium, chloride, sulfate, and magnesium ions, are inherently much denser than pure distilled water, their dissolution increases the overall mass of the mixture. Consequently, at a constant temperature, as the concentration of these higher-density saline components increases, the overall density of the seawater increases. This makes both statements correct and establishes Statement 2 as the correct explanation for Statement 1.
92Economy
Identify the Industry which is characterized by the following features
1. Generally produce in small quantity, but require good accessibility.
2. Not dependent on specific raw materials
3. Generally considered as non-polluting establishments.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Footloose Industry
Explanation
Footloose industries are economic activities that can be placed and located at any place without being constrained by factors of production such as localized raw materials, heavy power supplies, or specialized land requirements. Since they depend primarily on pre-assembled component parts that are lightweight and easily sourced from anywhere, their transport costs do not vary significantly with location. These industries generally manufacture high-value products in small quantities with a highly skilled but relatively small labour force, which makes good accessibility by road, air, or internet networks their main locational requirement. Because they are clean assembly or service-oriented processes like electronics, software development, and precision instrument manufacturing, they are fundamentally non-polluting.
93Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Atal Tunnel?
1. It connects Manali to Lahul-Spiti Valley
2. It is built under Shipki La pass.
3. It is the world's longest tunnel with a total length of 8km
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 only
Explanation
The Atal Tunnel is a highway tunnel built under the Rohtang Pass in the eastern Pir Panjal range of the Himalayas on the Leh-Manali Highway. It provides year-round, all-weather connectivity between Manali and the Lahaul-Spiti valley, reducing the travel time and distance significantly.
94Economy
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The chief pearl fisheries of the world lie in the tropical waters, temperate seas and fresh water.
2. Pearls are obtained from oysters or mussels
3. India produces cultured pearls along the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
4. Tuticorin is an important pearl fishing port on the eastern coast of India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because pearl-producing bivalves are widely distributed and can be found in tropical regions, temperate seas, and freshwater bodies. The major global fisheries and farming zones span these distinct aquatic environments.
Statement 2 is correct because pearls are organic gemstones produced by bivalve mollusks. Both marine oysters and freshwater mussels secrete layers of nacre around an irritant, which eventually forms a pearl.
Statement 3 is correct because marine and freshwater cultured pearl production has been successfully carried out along the eastern coast of India, particularly in the states of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh, supported by research organizations like the Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute.
Statement 4 is correct because Tuticorin, situated on the eastern coast of Tamil Nadu along the Gulf of Mannar, is a historic hub for pearl diving, trading, and culture, commonly referred to as the Pearl City of India.
95GeographyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Sometimes the corals in the Gulf of Kutch have been bleached due to situation.
2. The soil texture of Kutch region belongs to the sandy class.
3. The soils found in South Gujarat and Saurashtra are predominantly clayey.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct. The Gulf of Kutch hosts marginal coral reefs that are subject to extreme temperature fluctuations, high sediment load, and tidal exposure. Mass coral bleaching events have been observed in this region during years such as 1998, 2010, 2014, and 2016 due to situations of extreme thermal stress and elevated sea surface temperatures.
Statement 2 is correct. The arid and semi-arid Kutch region of Gujarat is characterized by desert and saline soils, where the soil texture predominantly belongs to the sandy and sandy loam class.
Statement 3 is correct. South Gujarat and Saurashtra are characterized by medium to deep black soils (regur soils) of basaltic origin, which are rich in clay content, making the soils in these regions predominantly clayey in texture.
96Geography
Persistent haze that extends from about November to April, covers Arabian Sea, Bay of Bengal and South Asian region is related with ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Asian brown clouds
Explanation
The Asian brown cloud is a massive layer of air pollution containing aerosols, dust, soot, and other pollutants that hovers over South Asia and the northern Indian Ocean, including the Arabian Sea and the Bay of Bengal. This phenomenon occurs annually during the dry winter monsoon season from November to April when lack of rainfall allows pollutants to accumulate in the atmosphere. The brown cloud is primarily caused by emissions from biomass burning, agricultural waste combustion, fossil fuel burning, and industrial activities across the region.
97Geography
Which of the following is the right sequence of mountain ranges from North to South?
The geographical alignment of these mountain ranges and peaks from North to South follows their respective latitudinal positions. The Kailash Range lies furthest north in the Trans-Himalayas of Tibet at approximately 31° N latitude. Moving southwards, Dhaulagiri is a prominent mountain mass of the Himalayas in Nepal, situated around 28.6° N latitude. Further south, the Vindhyachal Range spans across Central India at roughly 24° N latitude. Finally, Dodabetta represents the southernmost point in this sequence, located in the Nilgiri Hills of Southern India at about 11.4° N latitude. This sequence perfectly traces a path from the high-altitude Tibetan plateau down to the Southern Peninsula of India.
98Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indus river?
1. The Indus river's conventional name derives from the Tibetan and Sanskrit name Sindhu
2. The ultimate source of the Indus is on the Tibetan plateau in the vicinity of Lake Mansarovar
3. The Indus and its five tributaries together make up the Indus Basin, which spans four countries and support more than 200 million people
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The conventional name of the Indus River is derived from its ancient Tibetan and Sanskrit name Sindhu. The river originates on the southwestern Tibetan Plateau in the vicinity of Lake Mansarovar, beginning near the confluence of the Sengge and Gar rivers. Furthermore, the extensive Indus River Basin, composed of the main river and its principal tributaries, spans across four countries, namely China, India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan, and supports a population of more than 200 million people who rely on its waters for agriculture, drinking, and energy.
99Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian Census of 2011?
1. Population density of India is 582 per sq. km
2. Total absolute increase in population during 2001-2011 is 18.19 crores
3. Literacy rate of India has gone up to 83.0 percent from previous figure of 74.83 percent
4. Child population in the age group 0-6 years in 2011 Census is 164.5 million
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
During the decade 2001 to 2011, the absolute population of India grew by 181.96 million, which translates to 18.19 crores.
The child population in the age group of 0 to 6 years stood at 164.5 million in the 2011 Census, showing a marginal increase of 0.4% over the 163.8 million recorded in the 2001 Census.
100Geography
Which of the following are the effects of Himalayas on India's climate?
1. Preventing North India from becoming a cold desert
2. Precipitation in North India
3. Moderating effect on climate in Peninsular India
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Himalayas act as an exceptionally effective climatic barrier for the Indian subcontinent.
Firstly, they block the frigid, dry polar winds blowing southwards from Central Asia and Siberia during winter. This shielding effect ensures that northern India maintains relatively warmer temperatures compared to other regions at similar latitudes, effectively preventing it from becoming a cold desert.
Secondly, during the summer, the towering height of the Himalayas acts as a physical barrier to the moisture-laden Southwest Monsoon winds originating from the Indian Ocean. By obstructing these winds, the mountains force them to rise, cool, and condense, resulting in widespread orographic precipitation across northern and northeastern India.
The climate of Peninsular India is moderated by the surrounding maritime bodies—the Arabian Sea, the Bay of Bengal, and the Indian Ocean—rather than the Himalayas.
101Geography
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bhitarkanika National Park?
1. It is the second largest mangrove system in India.
2. It is recognized under the Ramsar Convention.
3. Olive Ridley turtles migrate to lay eggs on the beaches of this area.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Bhitarkanika National Park, located in Kendrapara district of Odisha, is the second largest mangrove ecosystem in India after the Sundarbans. It was designated as a Ramsar Wetland of International Importance in August 2002 for its highly diverse mangrove ecosystem and rich biodiversity. The park is bounded on the east by Gahirmatha Beach, which is globally recognized as the largest mass nesting site, known as arribada, for Olive Ridley sea turtles that migrate to these coastal waters annually to lay eggs.
102Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Heavy Water?
1. Heavy water occurs naturally or it is produced by the process of electrolysis.
2. Pure heavy water is radioactive.
3. Heavy water is used in nuclear power plants as a coolant.
4. Though algae and bacteria can live using 100% heavy water, but consumption of heavy water by humans may cause sterilisation.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Heavy water (D₂O) occurs naturally in trace amounts in ordinary water (approximately 1 part in 6,400) and can be produced on an industrial scale through the electrolysis of water, since ordinary hydrogen gas is liberated at the cathode faster than deuterium.
Deuterium is a stable, non-radioactive isotope of hydrogen containing one proton and one neutron. Consequently, pure heavy water is not radioactive.
In nuclear energy, heavy water is widely utilized in pressurized heavy water reactors (PHWRs) where it serves both as a neutron moderator to slow down fission neutrons and as a coolant to transfer heat away from the reactor core.
Certain lower organisms, such as various bacteria and algae, are capable of adapting to and living in 100% heavy water. In contrast, higher organisms and humans cannot tolerate high levels of deuterium. Due to the kinetic isotope effect, deuterium forms stronger hydrogen bonds than light hydrogen, which interferes with biochemical pathways and cell division (mitosis). In mammals and humans, replacing 20% to 25% of body water with heavy water disrupts the mitotic spindle and causes sterilization, while replacing 50% of body water is lethal.
103Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Helina of Indian Defence system?
1. HELINA (Helicopter based NAG) is a third generation fire and forget class anti-tank guided missile
2. Its system has all weather day and night capability and can defeat battle tanks with conventional armour as well as explosive reactive armour
3. A variant of HELINA Weapon System called DHRUVASTRA is being inducted into the Indian Navy.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
HELINA is a third-generation, lock-on before launch, fire-and-forget class anti-tank guided missile system developed indigenously by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It serves as the helicopter-launched variant of the Nag missile system.
The weapon system utilizes an imaging infrared seeker which grants it all-weather, day-and-night operational capabilities. It is armed with a tandem high-explosive anti-tank warhead designed to successfully defeat modern battle tanks equipped with both conventional armour and explosive reactive armour.
While HELINA is the designated version for the Indian Army, its variant named Dhruvastra is developed for the Indian Air Force, not the Indian Navy.
104Science and Technology
'Biotechnology' is controlled and deliberate application of simple biological agents to derive human welfare. These biological agents include ______.
1. Enzymes
2. Plant cells cultured in vitro
3. Genetically engineered microbes
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Biotechnology involves the practical use of biological systems or their components to produce goods and services. Enzymes act as cellular components and biological catalysts utilized in industrial, clinical, and recombinant DNA applications. Plant cells cultured in vitro are biological units grown in artificial media to propagate plants or produce valuable secondary metabolites. Genetically engineered microbes are altered microorganisms used to manufacture therapeutic proteins, biofuels, and agricultural solutions. All three represent biological agents manipulated deliberately for human welfare.
105Science and Technology
RT-PCR is a ______.
1. Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction
2. The use of PCR is to produce a large number of cDNA copies of mRNA
3. It is to produce millions of copies of the DNA from RNA
4. It is used for the diagnosis of COVID – 19 infection
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
RT-PCR, which stands for Reverse Transcription Polymerase Chain Reaction, is a molecular biology technique that combines the reverse transcription of RNA into complementary DNA (cDNA) with the amplification of specific DNA targets using polymerase chain reaction. During this process, the enzyme reverse transcriptase uses an mRNA template to synthesize cDNA, which is subsequently amplified to generate millions of DNA copies of the original RNA target. This method is highly specific and is extensively utilized globally as the gold standard diagnostic tool for detecting the genetic material of SARS-CoV-2, the virus responsible for COVID-19 infection.
106Science and Technology
Whole virus vaccines are of two types: 1. Inactivated 2. Attenuated, these are ______.
1. Attenuation means drastic reduction in the virulence.
2. Inactivated vaccine uses killed pathogenic cells.
3. Covaxin is our indigenous, inactivated vaccine.
4. Covaxin is developed by attenuation of corona virus.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Attenuation refers to the process of weakening a pathogen to drastically reduce its virulence, ensuring it remains viable but cannot cause severe disease. Inactivated vaccines are created by killing the pathogenic cells using heat, radiation, or chemicals, which deprives them of their replication capacity while preserving their structural integrity for immune recognition. Covaxin is India's indigenous vaccine against COVID-19, developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research. It is classified as an inactivated vaccine because it is manufactured using killed SARS-CoV-2 viral particles.
107Science and Technology
Sewage treatments generally involve ______.
1. Algal-bacterial symbiosis
2. Photosynthetic oxygenation
3. Biodegradation of organic matter
4. Ex-situ biolaching
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1, 2, and 3 only
Explanation
Sewage treatment generally involves physical, chemical, and biological processes to remove contaminants from wastewater. During the biological secondary treatment stage, biodegradation of organic matter is the central process where heterotrophic micro-organisms break down dissolved and suspended organic pollutants.
In common treatment systems such as waste stabilization ponds, oxidation ponds, and high-rate algal ponds, algal-bacterial symbiosis plays a fundamental role. In this mutualistic relationship, aerobic bacteria decompose organic waste and release carbon dioxide, ammonia, and other nutrients. Microalgae utilize these inorganic compounds to grow and perform photosynthesis.
Photosynthetic oxygenation is the process through which these microalgae produce and release dissolved oxygen into the water. This biological oxygen generation meets the oxygen demands of aerobic bacteria for decomposing organic matter, eliminating the need for energy-intensive mechanical aeration.
Ex-situ bioleaching, however, is a highly specialized biotechnological process used primarily for metal extraction from ores, mine tailings, or heavy metal removal from industrial sludge, and is not a general step in municipal sewage treatment.
108Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding India's first indigenous COVID-19 vaccine COVAXIN?
1. COVAXIN is developed by Bharat Biotech
2. Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) was involved in the development of COVAXIN
3. National Institute of Virology was involved in the development of COVAXIN
4. COVAXIN is made up of viral spike protein only.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
COVAXIN is India's first indigenous COVID-19 vaccine, developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the National Institute of Virology (NIV). The NIV, an institute under the ICMR, successfully isolated the SARS-CoV-2 strain and transferred it to Bharat Biotech for vaccine formulation. COVAXIN is an inactivated vaccine containing the dead whole-virion of the virus to trigger an immune response, rather than utilizing only the viral spike protein. This validates statements 1, 2, and 3, while statement 4 is incorrect.
109Science and Technology
Select the nuclear power plant whose gross power (Mwe) is less than 220 ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Rajasthan Atomic Power Plant - 2, Rajasthan
Explanation
Rajasthan Atomic Power Plant - 2, located at Rawatbhata in Rajasthan, has a gross power capacity of 200 MWe, which is less than 220 MWe. This Pressurised Heavy Water Reactor commenced commercial operations on 1 April 1981.
110Science and Technology
The Solar Study Lamp Scheme of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is implemented by ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
The official GPSC master answer key clearly highlights option (C) "Both (A) and (B)" in yellow for Q111. The Solar Study Lamp Scheme under the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy is jointly implemented by Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL), which handles procurement/distribution, and IIT Bombay, which serves as the technical/coordinating agency — so neither (A) nor (B) alone is correct, making (C) the right choice.
111Economy
Which of the following are the objectives of the PM JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana?
1. Provide remunerative income to farmers for their otherwise waste agriculture residues.
2. To create rural and urban employment opportunities.
3. Address concerns of environmental pollution caused by burning of biomass/agriculture residues.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan - Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana was launched in March 2019 by the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas to provide financial support via Viability Gap Funding to integrated second-generation (2G) bioethanol projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
The primary objectives of the scheme include:
Providing farmers with a direct and remunerative source of income for agricultural residues that would otherwise go to waste as agricultural crop residues.
Creating local employment opportunities in both rural and urban areas within the 2G ethanol projects and the extensive biomass collection and supply chain.
Addressing critical environmental pollution concerns caused by the open burning of biomass and agricultural crop residues (such as stubble burning), thereby improving air quality, soil health, and public health.
In addition, the scheme aims to reduce India's import dependency on crude oil by substituting fossil fuels with biofuels and supporting the national Ethanol Blended Petrol Programme.
112Science and Technology
Blockchain can broadly be defined as a type of network infrastructure that create trust in networks by introducing ______.
1. Distributed verifiability
2. Auditability
3. Consensus
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Blockchain technology is a decentralized, distributed ledger system designed to establish trust, security, and transparency within networks. It achieves this by introducing three core characteristics. First, distributed verifiability ensures that every participant in the peer-to-peer network can independently verify and validate transactions without relying on a central intermediary. Second, auditability is maintained because all transactions are cryptographically signed, timestamped, and stored sequentially in immutable blocks, creating a permanent and tamper-proof trail that can be audited at any time. Third, consensus mechanisms, such as Proof of Work or Proof of Stake, enable all nodes in the network to agree on the single true state of the ledger, preventing double-spending and unauthorized modifications. Together, these features foster trust among untrusted parties.
113Science and Technology
The National Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020, is ______ national science, technology and innovation policy of India.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Fifth
Explanation
The Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy 2020 is the fifth national science and technology policy of India. It was initiated jointly by the Office of the Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India and the Department of Science and Technology. This policy succeeded four previous national policies: the Scientific Policy Resolution of 1958, the Technology Policy Statement of 1983, the Science and Technology Policy of 2003, and the Science, Technology, and Innovation Policy of 2013. The 2020 policy formulation process was designed to be decentralized, bottom-up, and inclusive, aiming to reorient priorities and strategies toward larger socio-economic welfare and technological self-reliance.
114Science and Technology
Thumba Rocket Station was selected as a Rocket Launching Station as it is located on ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Very close to Geomagnetic Equator
Explanation
Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) was established at Thumba, Thiruvananthapuram, because of its unique geographical positioning very close to the Earth's geomagnetic equator. This location makes it exceptionally suitable for conducting low-latitude ionospheric and atmospheric research. Specifically, the equatorial electrojet—a strong current of electricity flowing eastward in the ionosphere—exists directly over the geomagnetic equator, allowing scientists to launch sounding rockets to directly study these upper-atmosphere electrical phenomena.
115Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are incorrect stage in the three stages of nuclear power programme?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
India's three-stage nuclear power programme was formulated by Homi Bhabha to utilize the country's vast thorium resources for long-term energy security. The first stage uses Pressurized Heavy Water Reactors fueled by natural uranium to generate power while producing plutonium-239 as a byproduct. The second stage uses Fast Breeder Reactors fueled by plutonium-239 to breed more fuel and initiate the utilization of thorium. The third stage is based on the thorium-232 to uranium-233 fuel cycle to achieve self-sustaining energy production. Since all three descriptions of the stages are completely accurate, none of the statements are incorrect.
116Geography
Which of the following statements is correct regarding Troposphere?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Troposphere is thicker at the equator than at the poles
Explanation
The troposphere is the lowest layer of Earth's atmosphere, and its thickness varies significantly with latitude, being much thicker at the equator (approximately 18 km) than at the poles (approximately 8 km). This variation is primarily driven by intense solar heating at the equator, which causes warm air to expand and rise via strong convective currents, pushing the tropopause higher. Conversely, the air at the poles is extremely cold and dense, leading to sinking air masses that compress the tropospheric layer.
117Geography
Which is the calm part of a tropical cyclone?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Eye
Explanation
The eye of a tropical cyclone is a roughly circular area of comparatively light winds and fair weather found at the geometric center of the storm. It is characterized by the lowest atmospheric pressure of the cyclone, warm temperatures aloft, and gently descending air currents. This sinking air suppresses the formation of clouds, resulting in clear or partly cloudy skies and remarkably calm conditions, which contrast sharply with the violent winds and torrential rains of the surrounding eyewall.
118Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mucormycosis?
1. It is an invasive systemic, immune-metabolic infection.
2. This is a very common human infection also earlier called zygomycosis.
3. Mucormycosis is caused by multiple different fungal species including Mucor, Rhizopus and Rhizomucor.
4. All humans are exposed to their spores on almost daily basis.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
Mucormycosis is an invasive systemic, immune-metabolic infection that primarily affects individuals with compromised immune systems or altered metabolic states, such as those with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus or individuals undergoing immunosuppressive therapies. The disease is caused by a group of environmental molds called mucormycetes, which belong to the order Mucorales. Multiple distinct fungal species are responsible for causing this infection, with the most common genera being Rhizopus, Mucor, and Rhizomucor. These fungi are ubiquitous in nature, occurring naturally in soil, air, dust, and decaying organic matter like compost or rotten wood. Consequently, humans are exposed to their microscopic spores on an almost daily basis through inhalation or direct contact. While historically referred to as zygomycosis, the infection is highly opportunistic and remains rare in healthy individuals, meaning it is not a very common human infection.
119Geography
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Latitude is an important factor in determining the amount of energy received
2. The electromagnetic spectrum includes X-rays, heat rays, light rays and radio waves.
3. Radiation is the means by which insolation reaches us.
4. Heat is also transferred in the atmosphere by Convection.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Latitude determines the angle of sun rays; near the equator, vertical rays concentrate solar energy, while slanting rays toward the poles distribute it over larger areas, making latitude crucial for energy received. The electromagnetic spectrum spans all wavelengths of electromagnetic radiation, which correctly includes X-rays, heat rays (infrared), visible light, and radio waves. Because space is a vacuum, solar insolation must travel through electromagnetic waves, meaning radiation is the mechanism by which this energy reaches the earth. Once this energy reaches the earth, vertical heat transfer in the atmosphere occurs via convection, as heated air near the surface rises and transfers thermal energy upward.
120Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding "Geothermal energy"?
1. Geothermal plants do not release any carbon dioxide and sulphur compounds while generating electricity.
2. Geothermal power plants use scrubbers to remove the hydrogen sulfide naturally found in geothermal reservoirs
3. Geothermal power plants do not burn fuel to generate electricity
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
Geothermal power plants do not burn any fuel to generate electricity. Instead, they harness natural heat directly from reservoirs of hot water and steam beneath the Earth's surface to spin turbines and drive generators.
While geothermal energy is highly sustainable, geothermal reservoirs naturally contain non-condensable gases dissolved in the underground fluids. Consequently, geothermal plants do release small quantities of carbon dioxide and sulfur compounds during operation, even though these emissions are significantly lower than those from fossil fuel-fired power stations.
To mitigate the environmental and health impacts of these naturally occurring gases, particularly hydrogen sulfide which is toxic and has a strong odor, geothermal power plants use specialized scrubbers and chemical abatement systems to remove the hydrogen sulfide from the steam and non-condensable gases before they are discharged.
121Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. pH of the human body is slightly acidic.
2. During the indigestion the stomach produces too much acid, which causes pain and irritation.
3. Milk of magnesia can be used to get rid of the excessive acidity.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The human body functions within a narrow pH range of 7.35 to 7.45, meaning it is slightly basic or alkaline, not acidic.
During indigestion, the stomach produces an excess of hydrochloric acid, which leads to acidity, pain, and irritation.
Milk of magnesia, which consists of magnesium hydroxide, is a mild base. When consumed, it acts as an antacid by reacting with and neutralizing the excess stomach acid, providing relief from pain and irritation.
122Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Japanese Encephalitis?
1. Japanese Encephalitis (JE) is a viral disease.
2. JE is related with the inflammation of brain.
3. It is a zoonosis and spreads among human beings by Culex mosquitoes.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Japanese Encephalitis is a viral disease caused by the Japanese encephalitis virus, which belongs to the Flaviviridae family. The infection leads to the inflammation of the brain, medically termed encephalitis, causing symptoms like high fever, headache, neck stiffness, and cognitive impairment. It is a zoonotic disease that cycles between animals and mosquitoes, with domestic pigs and wading birds serving as the primary reservoirs. The virus is transmitted to humans, who act as dead-end hosts, through the bites of infected Culex mosquitoes, particularly Culex tritaeniorhynchus, which typically breed in flooded rice fields and stagnant water bodies.
123Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. Disease causing agents include protozoa and parasitic worms
2. Escherichia coli normally grows in the large intestine of human beings
3. Water soluble radioactive isotopes don't create water pollution
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Disease-causing agents, or pathogens, encompass a diverse group of organisms including viruses, bacteria, fungi, protozoans, and multicellular parasites like parasitic worms. Protozoa are responsible for diseases such as malaria and amoebiasis, while parasitic worms cause conditions like ascariasis and filariasis.
Escherichia coli, commonly referred to as E. coli, is a bacterium that normally lives in the large intestine of healthy humans and warm-blooded animals as a crucial component of the gut microbiota.
Water-soluble radioactive isotopes easily dissolve and disperse in water, making them highly dangerous agents of water pollution that can bioaccumulate in aquatic organisms and enter the human food chain.
124Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS): NavIC?
1. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500km from its boundary
2. The IRNSS System is expected to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 meters in the primary service area.
3. IRNSS-1A spacecraft provides messaging service to users in the Indian region.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because NavIC is designed to provide accurate position information services to users in India as well as the primary service area extending up to 1500 km from the national boundaries.
Statement 2 is correct because the system is designed to provide a position accuracy of better than 20 meters within this primary service area.
Statement 3 is correct because although the rubidium atomic clocks of the IRNSS-1A satellite failed in 2017, making it unusable for precise navigation, the satellite itself remains functional and is actively utilized by ISRO to provide short broadcast messaging services, such as potential fishing zone advisories and disaster warnings.
125Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Mars Orbiter Mission Spacecraft?
1. Mars Orbiter Mission is India's first interplanetary mission to planet Mars with an orbiter craft
2. This Mission consists of total five payloads
3. Methane sensor of Mars, Mars colour camera and Lyman Alpha Photometer are the parts of these five payloads
4. GSLV-MK-III is used as launch vehicle of this mission
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
India's Mars Orbiter Mission, also known as Mangalyaan, is the nation's first interplanetary mission to the planet Mars. The spacecraft was equipped with exactly five scientific payloads designed to explore the Martian atmosphere and surface. These instruments include the Methane Sensor for Mars, Mars Colour Camera, Lyman Alpha Photometer, Thermal Infrared Imaging Spectrometer, and Mars Exospheric Neutral Composition Analyser. The spacecraft was launched into space on November 5, 2013, using the PSLV-C25 rocket, which is a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle, and not the GSLV-Mk III. This validates the correctness of statements 1, 2, and 3, while statement 4 is incorrect.
126Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding CERT-In?
1. CERT-In is the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur
2. CERT-In is operational since January 2014
3. Forecast and alerts of cyber security incidents is one of the functions of CERT-In
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
CERT-In, which stands for Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, is an organisation under the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology. It serves as the national nodal agency for responding to computer security incidents as and when they occur, a status designated under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act. CERT-In has been operational since January 2004, serving as the central authority to secure Indian cyberspace.
The mandated functions of CERT-In include the collection, analysis, and dissemination of information on cyber incidents. It is also responsible for providing forecasts and alerts of cybersecurity incidents, coordinating emergency measures for handling cyber security incidents, and issuing guidelines, advisories, and vulnerability notes related to information security.
127Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Bharati, The research Centre of India?
1. About 3000km East of Maitri, the new Indian research base 'Bharati' is located.
2. This is located approximately at 3500 meters above sea level.
3. The station was commissioned to facilitate year-round scientific research activity by the Indian Arctic Programme.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 only
Explanation
Bharati, India's third polar research station commissioned in 2012, is located in the Larsemann Hills region of East Antarctica, which is situated about 3000 km east of India's second Antarctic research station, Maitri. The station is located at an elevation of approximately 35 meters above sea level and was established to support year-round scientific research under the Indian Antarctic Programme.
128Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding 4G LTE telecom in India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
The 2300 to 2400 MHz frequency range (LTE Band 40) is fully active in India, functioning on Time Division Long-Term Evolution (TD-LTE) technology and used extensively by major telecom operators to provide 4G services.
The 1800 MHz band (LTE Band 3) has been auctioned by the Government of India in various spectrum auctions. This band operates on Frequency Division Duplexing (FDD-LTE) and is also widely used by telecom operators for LTE coverage across circles.
129Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) of India?
1. The setting up of C-DAC was to build Supercomputers in context of denial of import of Supercomputers by USA
2. C-DAC started building Indian Language Computing Solutions with setting up of GIST group (Graphics and Intelligence based Script Technology)
3. This institute was started in the year 1995
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Centre for Development of Advanced Computing (C-DAC) was established in November 1988. The immediate trigger for its setting up was the decision of the United States government to deny India the import of a Cray supercomputer for weather forecasting, which prompted India to pursue the indigenous development of supercomputing technology, eventually leading to the creation of the PARAM series of supercomputers. To make computing accessible in local languages, C-DAC set up the Graphics and Intelligence based Script Technology (GIST) group, which pioneered Indian language computing solutions. Since the institute was founded in 1988 rather than 1995, the first and second statements are correct.
130Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is correct?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) Dissolved oxygen of a water body is expected to be high when its temperature is low
Explanation
The solubility of gases in liquids is inversely proportional to temperature. The dissolution of oxygen in water is an exothermic process, which means that heat is released when oxygen dissolves. According to Le Chatelier's principle, increasing the temperature of water shifts the equilibrium to favor the gaseous state, thereby reducing the solubility of the gas. At lower water temperatures, the kinetic energy of the water molecules is lower, which allows oxygen molecules to remain trapped and dissolved within the water matrix. This physical property ensures that colder water bodies naturally hold higher concentrations of dissolved oxygen than warmer ones.
131Science and Technology
A remote control gadget for TV etc. has in it __________
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) A small transmitter that emits infrared signals
Explanation
A remote control gadget for electronic devices like televisions operates using infrared (IR) technology. Inside the remote control, there is a small transmitter, primarily consisting of an infrared Light Emitting Diode (LED). When a button is pressed, the internal circuitry translates the command into a specific binary pattern of electrical pulses, which the IR transmitter then converts into pulses of invisible infrared light. The receiver on the television detects these infrared signals, decodes them, and executes the corresponding command.
132Science and Technology
The two isotopes of Uranium 235U and 238U have ______.
1. Equal number of protons
2. Equal number of neutrons
3. 92 protons each
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Isotopes are atoms of the same chemical element that possess the same atomic number but different mass numbers. The atomic number of Uranium is 92, meaning that every isotope of uranium contains exactly 92 protons in its nucleus. Consequently, both ²³⁵U and ²³⁸U have an equal number of protons, and each has exactly 92 protons, which makes statement 1 and statement 3 correct. The number of neutrons in an isotope is calculated by subtracting the atomic number from its mass number. This calculation gives 235 - 92 = 143 neutrons for ²³⁵U and 238 - 92 = 146 neutrons for ²³⁸U. Since their neutron counts are different, statement 2 is incorrect.
133Science and TechnologyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Gujarat Council on Science and technology (GUJCOST)?
1. The Gujarat Council on Science and Technology (GUJCOST) was established in September, 2000
2. The State council is headed by the Chief Minister of the State
3. To encourage Research and Development activities in various sectors by monitoring the development is one of the objectives of GUJCOST
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 3 only
Explanation
The Gujarat Council on Science and Technology (GUJCOST) was established to play a catalytic role in promoting the use of science and technology in the development process of the state. One of its primary objectives is to encourage and support research and development activities in various emerging sectors by monitoring technological developments and coordinating the activities of research centres, government agencies, and industries.
While GUJCOST became an autonomous registered society on 1 February 2000, it was originally established in September 1986. Furthermore, the council is chaired by the Minister of Education or Science and Technology rather than the Chief Minister of the state. Thus, only the third statement is correct.
134Polity and Governance
Under the Central Motor Vehicle Rules, 1989, the noise range for horns has been fixed between ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 93-112 dB
Explanation
Under Rule 119 of the Central Motor Vehicles Rules (CMVR), 1989, the permissible noise range for horns fitted to motor vehicles is fixed between 93 dB(A) and 112 dB(A). This noise level is measured at a distance of 7.5 meters from the position of the horn.
135Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) technology?
1. RFID refers to a wireless system comprising two components: tags and readers
2. The reader is a device that has one or more antennas that emit radio waves and receive signals back from the RFID tag
3. Passive RFID tags are powered by the reader and do not have a battery
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) is a wireless communication technology that uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects. The system fundamentally comprises two key components: the RFID tags and the RFID readers. The reader is equipped with one or more antennas that emit radio frequency waves to query the tag and receive the returning signals back from it. RFID tags are classified into active and passive types. Passive RFID tags do not possess an internal power source or battery. Instead, they remain dormant until they are powered wirelessly by the electromagnetic energy transmitted from the reader antenna, which induces a current in the tag antenna to transmit the stored data back to the reader.
136Science and Technology
Consider the following statements regarding Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).
Statement 1 : It is an application- layer protocol for transmitting hypermedia documents
Statement 2 : It was designed for communication between web browsers and web servers
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Both Statements 1 and 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1
Explanation
Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is a fundamental protocol of the World Wide Web. Statement 1 is correct because HTTP operates at the application layer, which is the topmost layer of the TCP/IP and OSI networking models. Its primary function at this layer is to transmit hypermedia documents, such as HTML, plain text, images, and other multimedia files, across the network.
Statement 2 is also correct because HTTP was specifically designed to facilitate communication between web clients, such as web browsers, and web servers. It follows a classic client-server architecture where the browser submits an HTTP request and the server returns an HTTP response.
Although both statements are factually correct, Statement 2 does not explain Statement 1. The classification of HTTP as an application-layer protocol for hypermedia is based on its architectural position in the network stack and the format of the data it encapsulates, rather than the specific software endpoints (browsers and servers) that utilize it.
137Science and Technology
What is difference between Ramjet and Scramjet engines used for propulsion?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) In ramjet engines combustion is at subsonic speeds while in scramjet it is at supersonic speeds
Explanation
The fundamental difference between a ramjet and a scramjet engine lies in the velocity of the air within the combustion chamber. In a ramjet engine, the incoming supersonic airflow is decelerated to subsonic speeds below Mach 1 inside the combustor before fuel injection and ignition take place. In a scramjet, which stands for supersonic combustion ramjet, the incoming air is not slowed down to subsonic levels, allowing combustion to occur in a supersonic airflow. This characteristic enables scramjets to operate efficiently at much higher hypersonic flight speeds, typically above Mach 5.
138Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding VoLTE?
1. VoLTE stands for 'Voice over Long Term Evolution'
2. It is a digital packet voice service delivery over IP via an LTE access network.
3. Provides more efficient use of spectrum than traditional Voice
4. Eliminates the need to have Voice on one network and data on another
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Voice over Long Term Evolution (VoLTE) is an IP-based data transmission technology that delivers voice services as digital packets over 4G LTE networks. By treating voice as packet data, VoLTE utilizes the frequency spectrum far more efficiently than traditional 2G or 3G circuit-switched networks, supporting up to three times more capacity than 3G and up to six times more than 2G. Before VoLTE, LTE networks required a fallback to 2G or 3G networks to complete voice calls, meaning voice and data had to run on separate networks. VoLTE integrates both voice and high-speed data services into a single, unified LTE network, eliminating the need for separate networks and allowing users to make voice calls and use high-speed data simultaneously.
139Polity and Governance
What is e-Taal?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) A web portal for dissemination of e-Transaction statistics of National and State level e-Governance Projects
Explanation
e-Taal (Electronic Transaction Aggregation and Analysis Layer) is a web portal developed by the National Informatics Centre. It serves as an analytics dashboard to measure, aggregate, and disseminate real-time electronic transaction statistics of national and state level e-governance projects, including Mission Mode Projects under the National e-Governance Plan. It provides quick access to the volume of e-transactions being delivered by various government applications to citizens, businesses, and government entities across India.
140Science and Technology
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding PARAM-Shivay?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)
Explanation
PARAM-Shivay is the first supercomputer designed and assembled indigenously under India's National Supercomputing Mission. Built by the Centre for Development of Advanced Computing at the Indian Institute of Technology (Banaras Hindu University), Varanasi, it was inaugurated in February 2019. The supercomputer is equipped with a peak computing capacity of 833 teraflops, utilizing more than 120,000 compute cores to facilitate high-performance computing and research.
141Geography
Which of the following is/are the types of positive interaction in a biotic community?
1. Colonisation
2. Competition
3. Protocooperation
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Protocooperation is a form of positive interaction (+/+) where both interacting species benefit from their association, but unlike obligate mutualism, they do not depend on each other for survival. An example of protocooperation is the association between flowers and pollinating insects.
Colonisation is considered a positive ecological interaction/process through which a species successfully migrates and establishes itself in a new area. It often relies on positive interactions (facilitation) where pioneer species alter the harsh environmental conditions to assist the survival, reproduction, and establishment of succeeding species.
Competition is classified as a negative interaction (-/-) because the competing organisms struggle for the same limited resources like nutrients, space, and light, which harms both parties involved.
142Geography
What will happen if deer are missing in the foodchain of Grass - Deer - Tiger?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) The population of tiger decreases and the grass increases.
Explanation
In the simple food chain consisting of Grass as the producer, Deer as the herbivore or primary consumer, and Tiger as the carnivore or secondary consumer, each organism is directly dependent on the other for energy transfer.
If deer are removed from this food chain, tigers will lose their primary source of food, leading to starvation and a decrease in the tiger population. At the same time, because there are no deer to graze upon the grass, the grass population will grow unchecked and increase.
143Geography
Which one of the following regions of India has a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen forest and deciduous forest?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
Explanation
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands possess a unique geographical location and a tropical equatorial climate characterized by high temperatures and abundant rainfall throughout the year. These conditions support a diverse range of forest ecosystems. The coastal tracts, tidal creeks, and muddy shores are lined with extensive and well-developed mangrove forests. Moving inland, the regions with heavy precipitation are dominated by dense tropical evergreen and semi-evergreen forests. In areas with seasonal moisture variation, such as parts of the Middle and North Andaman, tropical moist deciduous forests thrive. This distinct environmental variation within the archipelago enables the co-existence of mangrove, evergreen, and deciduous forest types.
144Geography
Which of the following pollutants are present in the motor vehicle exhaust emissions?
1. Suspended particulate matter
2. Nitrogen oxides
3. Hydrocarbons
4. Carbon Monoxide
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Motor vehicle exhaust emissions are a major source of air pollution, releasing several harmful substances due to the incomplete combustion of fossil fuels like petrol and diesel. Suspended particulate matter, including PM₂.₅ and PM₁₀, consists of extremely small solid particles and liquid droplets like soot that are emitted directly from the tailpipe. Nitrogen oxides, primarily nitric oxide and nitrogen dioxide, are formed when nitrogen in the air reacts with oxygen at high temperatures and pressures inside the vehicle engine. Unburnt hydrocarbons are released as a result of incomplete fuel combustion or fuel evaporation. Carbon monoxide is a highly toxic, colorless, and odorless gas produced when fuel is burned in a limited supply of oxygen during incomplete combustion. All four pollutants are significant components of vehicular exhaust emissions.
145Economy
Mulching is a technique used to control soil erosion. Which among the following is/are advantages of mulching?
1. Reduces weed growth
2. Remove the soil moisture.
3. Encourages microbial activity in the soil.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Mulching involves covering the soil surface around plants with organic or inorganic materials. This protective layer acts as a physical barrier that blocks sunlight from reaching the soil, which prevents weed seeds from germinating and significantly reduces weed growth. Additionally, organic mulches decompose over time, adding valuable organic matter to the soil. This decomposition process, combined with the moderate temperature and moisture levels maintained under the mulch, creates an ideal environment that promotes and encourages soil microbial activity, enhancing overall soil fertility and structure.
146Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the dolphin-Susu?
1. It is also called the Gangetic dolphin.
2. It is found in the rivers of both Ganga and Brahmaputra.
3. It is also called blind dolphin.
4. The presence of susu is an indication of the healthiness of the river.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
The Gangetic dolphin, scientifically known as Platanista gangetica, is locally referred to as Susu due to the blowing sound it makes when breathing at the water surface. It is native to the freshwater river systems of the Ganga and Brahmaputra, along with their tributaries in India, Nepal, and Bangladesh. It is popularly called the blind dolphin because its eyes lack lenses, making it functionally blind and reliant entirely on echolocation to navigate and hunt. Since it sits at the top of the aquatic food chain, its presence is a vital indicator of a clean, healthy, and well-balanced river ecosystem.
147Geography
Which of the following animals have been included under conservation projects by the Central and State governments in India?
1. Elephant
2. Hangul
3. Vulture
4. Gharials
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
All four animals have been the focus of dedicated conservation projects initiated by the Central and State governments in India. Project Elephant was launched in 1992 by the Central Government to provide financial and technical support to state wildlife management efforts for their free-ranging populations of wild Asian Elephants. Project Hangul was initiated in the 1970s by the Jammu and Kashmir government in collaboration with the IUCN and WWF to protect the critically endangered Kashmir Stag. The Action Plan for Vulture Conservation 2020-2025 was approved by the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change to check the decline in vulture populations through conservation breeding centers and vulture safe zones. Project Crocodile, which heavily focused on the recovery of Gharials, was launched in 1975 with the assistance of the UNDP and FAO to establish breeding and sanctuary programs across states like Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
148Geography
Which of the following are the sources of methane?
1. Biomass burning
2. Wastewater treatment
3. Coal mining
4. Permafrost
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation
Methane (CH₄) is a potent greenhouse gas that is released into the atmosphere through several natural and anthropogenic processes.
Biomass burning, such as forest fires and the burning of agricultural residues, releases methane as a product of incomplete combustion.
Wastewater treatment facilities contribute to methane emissions during the anaerobic treatment of domestic and industrial wastewater, where organic matter is broken down by methanogenic bacteria.
Coal mining activities release methane that was trapped within coal seams, known as coalbed methane, during both underground and surface mining operations.
Permafrost regions store massive reserves of organic carbon; when permafrost thaws, microbial decomposition of this organic material in anaerobic environments, such as wetlands and thermokarst lakes, produces and releases substantial amounts of methane.
149Geography
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
Explanation
Productivity in ecosystems refers to the rate of biomass generation, usually measured as net primary productivity per unit area. Mangroves, which are dynamic coastal wetlands, receive abundant nutrient inputs from both terrestrial runoff and tidal actions, making them highly productive. Grasslands have moderate productivity, supported by rich soil organic matter and seasonal vegetation growth. Lakes, as freshwater lentic ecosystems, exhibit lower productivity because light penetration and nutrient circulation are often limited compared to terrestrial grasslands. Oceans have the lowest productivity per unit area because the vast open ocean acts as an ecological desert due to extreme nutrient limitation and restricted sunlight penetration below the photic zone.
150Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recent elections in Canada?
1. In Canada House of Commons is the lower House which has 338 seats
2. The Liberal Party emerged as a largest party under the leadership of Justin Trudeau
3. New Democratic Party emerged strong opposition
4. People's Party emerged as third largest party in the House under the leadership of Indian origin Jagmeet Singh
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The House of Commons is the lower chamber of Canada's bicameral Parliament, comprising 338 members elected from individual constituencies known as ridings. In the Canadian federal election held in September 2021, the Liberal Party under the leadership of Prime Minister Justin Trudeau won 160 seats, emerging as the largest party in the House of Commons to form a minority government.
151Geography
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding newly announced Global Air Quality Guidelines by World Health Organization?
1. The new Air Quality Guidelines threshold was set for six key air pollutants
2. The six pollutants are Particulate Matter (PM 2.5 and PM10), Ozone, Nitrogen Dioxide, Sulphur Dioxide and Carbon Monoxide.
3. Bangladesh, Pakistan and India have recorded the highest air pollution levels with regard to 2005 WHO guidelines.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In September 2021, the World Health Organization (WHO) released its updated Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs).
The updated guidelines set stringent new air quality thresholds for six key air pollutants. These six pollutants are Particulate Matter (PM₂.₅ and PM₁₀), Ozone (O₃), Nitrogen Dioxide (NO₂), Sulfur Dioxide (SO₂), and Carbon Monoxide (CO).
Among global regions, South Asian nations—specifically Bangladesh, Pakistan, and India—have consistently recorded the highest air pollution levels. Their ambient air concentrations of particulate matter significantly exceed the limits prescribed under the older 2005 WHO guidelines, as well as the newly tightened 2021 standards.
152Polity and Governance
Ministry of Health and Family welfare of India has released 3ʳᵈ State Food Safety Index 2020-2021. In this regard which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. In this ranking Gujarat stood first in the large states category and Bihar stood last
2. Sikkim stood top in the small states category and Goa stood last
3. Jammu and Kashmir stood top in the Union Territory category
4. The ministry calculated the Index on 5 parameters of food safety
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The 3rd State Food Safety Index (2020-2021) was released by the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. In the large states category, Gujarat secured the first position and Bihar stood last in the rankings. Jammu and Kashmir ranked top in the Union Territory category. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) evaluates the performance of states and Union Territories across five key parameters: Human Resources and Institutional Data, Compliance, Food Testing - Infrastructure and Surveillance, Training and Capacity Building, and Consumer Empowerment. This validates the correctness of statements 1, 3, and 4.
153Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding MUDRA toolbox of Government of India?
1. The MUDRA toolbox is developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research for the COVID-19 patients
2. This toolbox was initially developed in 5 Indian languages
3. This toolbox was developed in Hindi, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu and Malayalam
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Multilingual Dementia Research and Assessment (MUDRA) toolbox was developed by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) for the early diagnosis of dementia and mild cognitive impairment in the Indian population, rather than for COVID-19 patients.
To address the linguistic diversity of India, the toolbox was initially developed and validated in 5 Indian languages: Hindi, Bengali, Kannada, Telugu, and Malayalam. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect, while statements 2 and 3 are correct.
154Science and Technology
Which of the following pairs are correctly matched regarding Nobel Prizes 2021 in various fields?
1. Physiology: Discoveries of receptors for temperature and touch
2. Chemistry: method for genome editing
3. Physics: physical modelling of Earth's climate, interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The 2021 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine was awarded jointly to David Julius and Ardem Patapoutian for their ground-breaking discoveries of receptors for temperature and touch. Their research successfully identified the molecular mechanisms and ion channels, such as TRPV1 and PIEZO channels, that allow the human body to sense heat, cold, and mechanical force.
The 2021 Nobel Prize in Physics recognized major contributions to our understanding of complex physical systems. One half of the prize was awarded jointly to Syukuro Manabe and Klaus Hasselmann for their pioneering work on the physical modelling of Earth's climate, which laid the foundation for modern climate science by quantifying variability and reliably predicting global warming. The other half was awarded to Giorgio Parisi for his discovery of the interplay of disorder and fluctuations in physical systems from atomic to planetary scales, solving complex problems in the theory of disordered materials and random processes.
155Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding State of the Education Report (SOER)-2021 for India by UNESCO India?
1. The report is titled as "No Teacher No Class"
2. This year report is the 10ᵗʰ edition of such reports
3. "Improve the terms of employment of teachers in both public and private schools" is one of the recommendations in the report
4. "Recognize teachers as frontline workers" is another recommendation in the report
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The State of the Education Report for India 2021: No Teacher, No Class is the annual flagship publication of UNESCO New Delhi. It is the third edition of the State of the Education Report for India, following the 2019 edition themed on children with disabilities and the 2020 edition themed on vocational education. Therefore, the statement stating it is the tenth edition is incorrect.
The report concludes with ten action-oriented recommendations to address the challenges facing the teaching profession in India and to align with the National Education Policy 2020. Among these ten key recommendations:
The first recommendation is to improve the terms of employment of teachers in both public and private schools.
The third recommendation is to recognize teachers as frontline workers.
This makes statements 1, 3, and 4 correct.
156Economy
Ministry of Textiles has approved the continuation of Comprehensive Handicrafts Cluster Development Scheme (CHCDS). With regard to this which of the following statements are correct?
1. This scheme will continue till March 2026
2. CHCDS aims to create world-class infrastructure that caters to the business needs of the local artisans | SMEs to boost production and export
3. The mega handicraft clusters having more than 10,000 artisans will be selected for overall development under this scheme
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Comprehensive Handicrafts Cluster Development Scheme has been approved for continuation by the Ministry of Textiles up to March 2026. The scheme focuses on establishing world-class infrastructure to support the business needs of local artisans and small and medium-sized enterprises, thereby boosting production and exports. Under this initiative, mega handicraft clusters with more than 10,000 artisans are selected for overall development to integrate scattered artisans, build grassroots enterprises, and link them to larger markets.
157Polity and Governance
Which of the following modifications were proposed by the government of India to the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980?
1. Maintaining "pristine forests". Non-forestry activity will not be allowed within the pristine forests, under any circumstances.
2. Grant exemptions to railways, roads, tree plantations, oil exploration, wildlife tourism and 'strategic' projects in forests.
3. Empower state governments to lease forest land to private individuals and corporations.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The government of India, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, proposed several amendments to the Forest (Conservation) Act 1980 in its 2021 consultation paper to balance ecological conservation with developmental and strategic needs.
Statement 1 is correct because the proposals introduced an enabling provision to identify and preserve pristine forests showcasing high ecological values. Under this provision, no non-forestry activity would be permitted within these designated pristine forests under any circumstances.
Statement 2 is correct because the government proposed significant exemptions from the requirement of prior central clearance to promote national security and infrastructure development. These exemptions applied to strategic and security projects located near international borders, public roads and railway lines on lands acquired prior to 1980, environment-friendly technologies like Extended Reach Drilling for oil and natural gas exploration, and conservation-related tourism activities such as wildlife safaris, zoos, and ecotourism.
Statement 3 is incorrect because the proposed modifications did not seek to empower state governments to lease forest land unilaterally to private individuals or corporations. Instead, the amendments aimed to streamline forest land diversion procedures while retaining central oversight. The legislative changes mandated that any assignment or leasing of forest land to any entity, whether private or public, requires the prior approval of the Central Government, thereby reinforcing central control rather than delegating leasing authority to the states.
158Polity and Governance
Which of the following areas covered under newly Notified "Electricity" (Rights of Consumers) rules by Government of India?
1. Metering arrangement
2. Billing and payment
3. Immediate and urgent connections without meter
4. Multiple connections at a time
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Electricity (Rights of Consumers) Rules, 2020 were notified by the Union Ministry of Power under the provisions of the Electricity Act, 2003. These rules are designed to protect and empower electricity consumers by standardizing services across the country.
Among the primary areas covered under these rules are:
Metering arrangement, which is regulated under Rule 5. The rules mandate that no connection shall be given without a meter and specify that these should ideally be smart pre-payment or pre-payment meters.
Billing and payment, which are regulated under Rules 7 and 8. These provisions ensure transparency in tariffs, specify a choice between online and offline payment methods, and allow for advance payment options.
An immediate or urgent connection without a meter is not allowed under these rules, as they explicitly prohibit giving any connection without a meter. There is also no provision for granting multiple parallel connections at a time under standard consumer rights. Therefore, only statements 1 and 2 represent areas covered under the notified rules.
159Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) report on Digital Economy 2021?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) Neither (A) nor (B)
Explanation
The UNCTAD Digital Economy Report 2021 highlights that the free flow of data is crucial to boost the digital economy and support global trade, rather than hampering it. The report advocates for an international framework to coordinate global data governance to manage inequalities rather than restricting the flow of data.
The second statement is incorrect because the report does not rank the Philippines, Canada, Australia, Mexico, Singapore, and the United States as the top six countries. Instead, these nations are highlighted as examples of countries adopting a light-touch approach toward cross-border data flows, enabling data to flow freely with minimal regulatory interventions.
160Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Gujarat Government's recent programme "Vatan Prem Yojana"?
1. This scheme aimed at funding from non resident Gujarat People for the development projects in their villages
2. The State Government envisaged to develop public welfare projects worth 10000 crores by December 2022.
3. The Donor need to fund at least 50% fund for the particular work, remaining will be paid by the State Government.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 only
Explanation
The Vatan Prem Yojana was launched by the Gujarat Government to promote rural development by encouraging contributions from Non-Resident Gujaratis and Non-Resident Indians for infrastructure and development projects in their native villages. This confirms that statement 1 is correct.
Regarding statement 2, the state government proposed to complete public welfare works worth ₹1,000 crore by December 2022, whereas the statement incorrectly mentions ₹10,000 crore.
Regarding statement 3, the scheme requires the private donor to contribute at least 60% of the total project cost, with the state government funding the remaining 40%. The statement incorrectly cites a 50% donation requirement.
161Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Government of India's People's Plan Campaign-2021 - Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas?
1. It is a strategy for ensuring the preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plan (GPDP) in a campaign mode
2. The GPDP aims to strengthen the role of elected representatives of Panchayats
3. It also encourages the role of Self help groups, Women who are under Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana -National Rural Livelihood Mission
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The People's Plan Campaign, rolled out under the theme Sabki Yojana, Sabka Vikas, is an intensive nationwide initiative launched by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj to ensure the structured preparation of Gram Panchayat Development Plans (GPDPs) in a campaign mode through participatory processes.
A primary objective of this campaign is to strengthen the role of elected representatives of Panchayats, empowering them to lead local governance and development planning effectively.
Furthermore, the campaign emphasizes the active involvement of community-based organizations, specifically encouraging the participation of women belonging to Self-Help Groups (SHGs) under the Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihood Mission (DAY-NRLM) in preparing the Village Poverty Reduction Plan (VPRP) and integrating it into the GPDP.
162Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Motor Vehicles (Registration and Functions of Vehicle Scrapping Facility) (RVSF) Rules, 2021?
1. RVSFs will also get the access of National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) to check of any stolen vehicle was bought for scrapping.
2. Vehicle registered in any state, can be scrapped at any of the registered facility in other states.
3. Registration of RVSF will be valid for 15 years and can be renewed for 15 more years, at a time
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Under the Motor Vehicles (Registration and Functions of Vehicle Scrapping Facility) Rules, 2021:
Registered Vehicle Scrapping Facilities (RVSFs) are provided with access to the National Crime Records Bureau (NCRB) database. This connection allows the facilities to electronically verify whether a vehicle brought in for scrapping has been reported as stolen or is linked to any criminal activity, ensuring that only legally cleared vehicles are scrapped.
The rules establish a nation-wide framework allowing a vehicle registered in any State or Union Territory to be accepted and scrapped at any authorized facility located in any other state. This ensures inter-state portability and convenience for the owners of end-of-life vehicles.
163Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding International Monetary Fund's (IMF) Annual Report 2021?
1. IMF projected India's economic growth to 9.5 percent for the financial year 2021-2022.
2. It also projected the headline consumer price-based inflation at 5.6 percent.
3. According to report Recovery could be faster than expected considering the pace of vaccination and economic reforms
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
In October 2021, the International Monetary Fund concluded its Article IV consultation with India, releasing a comprehensive assessment of the Indian economy.
The report projected India's real GDP growth rate to be 9.5% for the financial year 2021–2022, noting that the economy was gradually recovering from the pandemic-induced contraction. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
The report also projected the headline consumer price index-based inflation at 5.6% for the financial year 2021–2022, driven by elevated price pressures which were expected to soften. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Furthermore, the IMF highlighted that while downside risks from pandemic uncertainties remained, the economic recovery could also be faster than expected. This potential upside was supported by a rapid pace of vaccination, better therapeutics, and the successful implementation of wide-ranging structural economic reforms introduced by the government. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
164Science and Technology
Government of India has carved out the seven Defence companies from Ordnance Factory Board, which of the following is not in the list?
1. Troops Comforts Limited
2. Parachutes India Limited
3. India Optel Limited and Yantra India Limited
4. Howitzer Guns Limited
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The Government of India restructured the Ordnance Factory Board into seven corporate entities in October 2021. Parachutes India Limited and Howitzer Guns Limited are not among these seven defence companies. The seven newly formed public sector undertakings are Munitions India Limited, Armoured Vehicles Nigam Limited, Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited, Troop Comforts Limited, Yantra India Limited, India Optel Limited, and Gliders India Limited. While Gliders India Limited is responsible for manufacturing parachutes, and Advanced Weapons and Equipment India Limited handles the manufacture of weapons including howitzers, no companies were incorporated under the names Parachutes India Limited or Howitzer Guns Limited.
165Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Production Linked Incentive Scheme for telecom sector by Government of India?
1. This scheme would help in reducing dependence of India on other countries for importing telecom and networking products
2. The scheme is effective from April 1, 2022
3. Eligibility is subject to qualifying incremental annual thresholds. Support under the Scheme will be provided for a period of five years
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Production Linked Incentive Scheme for telecom and networking products aims to promote domestic manufacturing, attract investments, and enhance exports in the telecom sector, which directly helps in reducing Indias dependency on imports from other countries.
The scheme became effective from April 1, 2021, and not April 1, 2022.
The eligibility for receiving incentives under this scheme is strictly subject to the companies meeting specified qualifying incremental annual thresholds of cumulative investment and net sales of manufactured goods. The financial support and incentives provided under the scheme are scheduled for a fixed duration of five years, covering the period from financial year 2021-22 to financial year 2025-26.
166Polity and Governance
Government of India has increased the powers of Border Security Force, in this regard which of the following statements are correct?
1. BSF officers will also have the power of seizure up to the extent of 50km in three new states which are sharing boundaries with Pakistan and Bangladesh.
2. They have been given the right to take this action under the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
3. In the mentioned states, the BSF will have the right to search but they cannot arrest.
4. They have the power to search in Assam, West Bengal, Punjab, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur, Tripura, and Ladakh.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
In October 2021, the Ministry of Home Affairs issued a notification extending the operational jurisdiction of the Border Security Force to 50 km inside the international border in Punjab, West Bengal, and Assam, which share boundaries with Pakistan and Bangladesh.
Under this notification, BSF officers are authorized to perform search, seizure, and arrest operations using powers delegated under the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, to prevent trans-border crimes and maintain national security.
167Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Bank's "The Changing Wealth of Nations 2021"?
1. The report has measured wealth creation and distribution among 146 countries. It covers a 20-year period from 1995 to 2018.
2. Human capital was the largest source of worldwide wealth. In the year 2018, it comprised 64 percent of total global wealth
3. In South Asia, human capital accounts for 80 percent of total wealth in the region
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The World Bank's report, "The Changing Wealth of Nations 2021: Managing Assets for the Future", is the fourth edition in its series. It tracks the wealth database of 146 countries over a 24-year period from 1995 to 2018.
According to the report, human capital (measured as the population's expected lifetime earnings) is the largest source of worldwide wealth, comprising 64% of total global wealth in the year 2018.
In South Asia, human capital accounts for over half (not 80%) of the region's total wealth. The 80% figure in the report actually refers to the gender disparity within the region's human capital, where over 80% of the total human capital is attributed to men, leaving less than 20% attributed to women. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
168Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian Coast Guard Ship (ICGS) "Sarthak"?
1. ICGS Sarthak will be based at Porbandar in Gujarat and operate on India's Western Seaboard.
2. The ship is developed and designed with the help of German Shipbuilders
3. ICGS Sarthak is 4ᵗʰ in the series of five OPVs being built by Goa Shipyard Limited for the Indian Coast Guard
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
ICGS Sarthak is the fourth in the series of five Offshore Patrol Vessels (OPVs) designed and built indigenously by Goa Shipyard Limited (GSL) for the Indian Coast Guard. The vessel is a product of the indigenous defense manufacturing initiative under Atmanirbhar Bharat, with no foreign or German shipbuilder involvement in its design and development. The ship is based at Porbandar in Gujarat and operates on India's Western Seaboard under the operational and administrative control of the Commander, Coast Guard Region (Northwest). This makes statements 1 and 3 correct.
169Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Krishi UDAN 2.0?
1. The Krishi UDAN 2.0 will be implemented at 53 airports across the country mainly focusing on Northeast and tribal regions
2. Facilitating the development of a hub and spoke model and a freight grid (identified locations for cargo terminals)
3. The above grids at Ahmedabad, Rajnagar and Bhavnagar will be established by 2022-2023
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
Krishi UDAN 2.0 was launched by the Ministry of Civil Aviation in October 2021 to facilitate and incentivize the movement of agricultural produce by air transportation, especially for perishable food products from hilly areas, North-Eastern states, and tribal regions.
The scheme is implemented at 53 airports across the country, with a primary focus on the Northeast and tribal districts to help farmers improve value realization.
A key objective of Krishi UDAN 2.0 is to strengthen cargo-related infrastructure at both airport and off-airport locations. This is achieved by facilitating the development of a hub and spoke model and a freight grid of identified cargo terminals. Under this, airside transit and trans-shipment infrastructure are developed at selected airports like Bagdogra, Guwahati, Leh, Srinagar, Nagpur, Nashik, Ranchi, and Raipur.
170Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently test-fired Agni-5 Missile?
1. Agni-5 capable of striking targets at ranges up to 5,000 kilometres with very high degree of accuracy
2. This missile uses a Four-stage solid fuelled engine
3. The successful test of Agni-5 is in line with India's stated policy to have 'credible minimum deterrence' that underpins the commitment to 'No First Use'
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
Agni-5 is a nuclear-capable intercontinental ballistic missile developed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation. It is capable of striking targets at ranges up to 5,000 kilometres with a very high degree of accuracy. The missile is powered by a three-stage solid-fuelled engine. Furthermore, the development and testing of this strategic missile align with India's established policy of maintaining a credible minimum deterrence, which is underpinned by the nation's commitment to a No First Use policy.
171Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP) of Government of India?
1. This is Four Year ITEP, a dual-major holistic bachelor's degree offering B.A. B.Ed./ B.Sc. B.Ed. and B.Com. B.Ed
2. ITEP will be offered in pilot mode initially in about 50 selected multidisciplinary institutions across the country.
3. ITEP will not only impart cutting-edge pedagogy, but will also establish a foundation in early childhood care and education (ECCE).
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Integrated Teacher Education Programme (ITEP) was notified by the Ministry of Education in October 2021 as a key initiative under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020.
ITEP is structured as a four-year, dual-major holistic undergraduate degree enabling students to obtain combined degrees in B.A. B.Ed., B.Sc. B.Ed., or B.Com. B.Ed.. This integrated format reduces the overall duration to four years from the traditional five-year path for a separate bachelor's degree followed by a B.Ed.
The programme commenced in a pilot phase initially targeting about 50 selected multidisciplinary institutions and universities nationwide.
The curriculum, designed by the National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), aims to equip future educators with advanced pedagogical skills while solidifying essential foundations in early childhood care and education (ECCE), foundational literacy and numeracy (FLN), and inclusive education.
172Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recent G-20 meeting of 2021?
1. There are 19 countries and European Union are the partners in G-20
2. Spain is a permanent invitee to the G-20 meetings
3. G-20 members account for more than 80% of world GDP, 75% of global trade and 60% of the population of the planet.
4. The secretariat of the G-20 is located in Paris, France
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The G-20 or Group of Twenty is an international forum founded in 1999, consisting of 19 individual countries and the European Union. Spain is unique in the G-20 structure as it is designated as a permanent invitee (or permanent guest) to all G-20 meetings. The forum represents a massive economic block, collectively accounting for more than 80% of global gross domestic product, 75% of global trade, and roughly 60% of the worlds population. Unlike other international organizations, the G-20 does not have a permanent secretariat or headquarters. Instead, the presidency rotates annually among its members, and the country holding the presidency establishes a temporary secretariat to organize meetings and coordinate the forums agenda.
173EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding State Energy Efficiency Index 2020 released by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency?
1. States are placed in four categories i.e Front Runner, Achiever, Contender and Aspirant.
2. Gujarat state is placed under Contender Category
3. Majority of the states are placed under Achiever category
4. Only Karnataka and Rajasthan are the two states placed under Front Runner Category
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 4 only
Explanation
The State Energy Efficiency Index (SEEI) 2020 classifies states and Union Territories into four categories based on their performance scores: Front Runner (above 60 points), Achiever (50 to 60 points), Contender (30 to 49.5 points), and Aspirant (below 30 points). This makes statement 1 correct.
Only Karnataka (70 points) and Rajasthan (61 points) achieved scores above 60 points, placing them as the only two states in the Front Runner category, which makes statement 4 correct.
Gujarat, along with Assam, Madhya Pradesh, and Uttar Pradesh, is classified in the Contender category, making statement 2 correct.
Statement 3 is incorrect because only six states are classified under the Achiever category, while the vast majority of assessed states and Union Territories fall under the Aspirant category.
174Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding NITI Aayog's recent report on Health Insurance?
1. The report titled as Health Insurance for India's Missing the Bottom
2. The 30% of the population are called as 'Missing Middle' in the report.
3. Around 20% of the population are covered through social health insurance, and private voluntary health insurance.
4. AB-PMJAY, and State Government extension schemes, provided comprehensive hospitalization covering the bottom 50% of the population.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2, 3 and 4 only
Explanation
The report released by NITI Aayog in October 2021 is titled Health Insurance for India's Missing Middle. According to this report, the Ayushman Bharat – Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY) and various state government extension schemes provide comprehensive hospitalization cover to the bottom 50% of the population. Around 20% of the population is covered under social health insurance and private voluntary health insurance schemes. The remaining 30% of the population, who are devoid of any health insurance or financial protection for health, is classified as the missing middle.
175Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Blue Flag Multilateral combat Exercise 2021?
1. This exercise was conducted in the Ambala Airbase, India
2. From India, a Mirage squadron participated in this exercise
3. USA, UK, Germany, France, Italy, Greece, India and Israel participated in this exercise
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Blue Flag Multilateral combat Exercise 2021 was hosted by the Israeli Air Force at the Ovda Air Force Base in Israel. The Indian Air Force participated in this exercise with a squadron of five Mirage 2000 fighter aircraft. A total of eight nations participated in the 2021 edition of this biennial exercise, which included the USA, UK, Germany, France, Italy, Greece, India, and Israel.
176Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently test-fired Long Range Bomb by DRDO and Indian Air Force?
1. The range of the bomb is 50 to 150 KMs
2. The Bomb was designed and developed by the Research Centre Imarat, Hyderabad
3. The Long range bomb after release from the aircraft was guided to a land-based target.
4. The Long range bomb was developed with the support of Israel Defence Systems
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) and the Indian Air Force (IAF) successfully flight-tested the indigenously developed Long Range Bomb (LRB) from an aerial platform on October 29, 2021.
The bomb belongs to a class of precision-guided weapons with an operational range of 50 to 150 km. It was designed and developed by the Research Centre Imarat (RCI), a DRDO laboratory located in Hyderabad, in coordination with other DRDO laboratories. During the flight test, after release from the IAF fighter aircraft, the bomb was guided with high precision to a land-based target. Since the system was developed entirely indigenously under the Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative by DRDO labs, it did not involve any support or development from Israel Defence Systems.
177Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Urban Mobility India Conference 2021?
1. This conference is 14ᵗʰ edition of Urban Mobility India Conference
2. The theme of the conference is Mobility For All
3. The 15ᵗʰ Edition of Urban Mobility Conference will be held in Ahmedabad
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The 14th edition of the Urban Mobility India Conference was held on October 29, 2021. Organized by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, Government of India, the primary theme for this edition of the conference was Mobility for All, emphasizing the development of equitable, inclusive, and accessible urban transport systems for all sections of society.
178Geography
Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Meteorological Organization's report titled "State of the Global Climate 2021 report"?
1. According to the report last seven years from 2015 to 2021 are the warmest years
2. This increase in temperature is caused mainly due to the increase in atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations
3. Top 2000 meter layer of the ocean reached a record high temperature on 2020
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
According to the World Meteorological Organization's (WMO) State of the Global Climate 2021 report, the consecutive seven years from 2015 to 2021 are recorded as the warmest years on record.
This continuous warming of the planet is primarily driven by the rising concentration of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, notably carbon dioxide, methane, and nitrous oxide.
Furthermore, the report notes that the top 2000-meter depth of the ocean absorbed a significant amount of this excess heat, reaching a record-high temperature in 2020.
179Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian Navy?
1. Indian navy received its first indigenous Project 15 bravo class destroyer
2. This is a stealth guided missile destroyer developed by Mazagaon Dock Shipyard Limited
3. This destroyer is named as INS Amaravati
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Navy formally received its first Project 15B stealth guided-missile destroyer in October 2021. This class of warships, also known as the Visakhapatnam-class, is built by Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited in Mumbai. These destroyers are versatile platforms equipped with state-of-the-art weapons and sensors, including supersonic BrahMos surface-to-surface missiles and Barak-8 long-range surface-to-air missiles. The first ship of this class is named INS Visakhapatnam, which was commissioned into the Indian Navy in November 2021.
180Polity and GovernanceGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding E-Sarkar of the Government of Gujarat?
1. At present this app was launched on pilot basis, full scale app will be launched on good governance day
2. E-Sarkar will be combined with existing Integrated Workflow and Document Management System (IWDMS)
3. The E-Sarkar app will be applicable to all district collectors, DDOs, all government offices, Secretariat, District and taluk levels
4. The App will not cover the civic services
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Gujarat Government launched its e-Sarkar application on a pilot basis on October 31, 2021, with the full-scale launch scheduled for Good Governance Day on December 25, 2021.
The application integrates advanced technology into the existing Integrated Workflow and Document Management System (IWDMS) introduced in 2005 to transition to fully paperless administrative processes.
It is applicable across all administrative levels in the state, including the Secretariat, various government departments, district and taluka level offices, and District Development Officer (DDO) and Collector offices.
The e-Sarkar application covers civic-oriented services, allowing citizens to submit RTI applications, register public grievances, and schedule appointments with government officials.
181EconomyGujarat-specific
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Indian Oil Corporation (IOC)'s India's first mega Malecic Anhydride Plant?
1. This Mega Malecic Anhydride Plant is going to be set up at Bharuch, Gujarat
2. The proposed project will have the capacity of 120000 tonnes per annum
3. The Malecic Anhydride is used to make speciality chemicals like polyester resins and surface coating plasticizers etc.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The Board of Indian Oil Corporation approved the setting up of India's first mega-scale Maleic Anhydride Plant at its Panipat Refinery and Petroleum Complex in Haryana, rather than in Bharuch, Gujarat.
The proposed plant is designed with a production capacity of 120,000 tonnes per annum of Maleic Anhydride.
Maleic Anhydride is a crucial chemical intermediate used in the synthesis of speciality products like polyester resins, surface coating plasticisers, agrochemicals, and lubricant additives.
182Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding national Sports Awards 2021?
1. Total 12 Khel Ratna Awards were awarded under National Sports Awards 2021
2. 10 Dronacharya awards were awarded under National Sports Awards 2021
3. The selection committee of the National Sports Awards 2021 was headed by the former hockey player Dhanraj Pillay
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The National Sports Awards 2021 recognized outstanding contributions in Indian sports. Under these awards, 12 sportspersons were honored with the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award, which is India's highest sporting honor. Additionally, 10 coaches were awarded the Dronacharya Award for Outstanding Coaches, which was divided equally with 5 in the Life-Time Category and 5 in the Regular Category. The selection committee for the awards was chaired by retired Supreme Court Judge, Justice Mukundakam Sharma.
183Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently test-fired SAAW?
1. This Smart Anti Airfield Weapon (SAAW) was successfully carried out by the DRDO and IAF
2. The test was conducted at the Chandan ranges in Jaisalmer
3. The SAAW is capable of carrying a warhead of 1250KGs with precision target of 1000Kms
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Smart Anti-Airfield Weapon (SAAW) is an indigenously developed precision-guided glide bomb designed by the Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) in collaboration with the Indian Air Force (IAF).
During trials, successful flight tests of the SAAW were jointly conducted by the DRDO and IAF. The weapon was launched from an IAF aircraft at the Chandan firing ranges in Jaisalmer, Rajasthan.
In terms of specifications, the SAAW is a lightweight 125 kg class bomb designed to destroy high-value enemy airfield infrastructure up to a precision stand-off range of 100 km.
184Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding recently launched RBI Retail Direct?
1. RBI retail direct scheme will act as a safe medium of investment for small investors in government securities
2. Investors will be able to open and maintain government securities account online easily | free of cost with the RBI.
3. Small investors can invest in the Central Government Securities only
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The RBI Retail Direct Scheme provides a safe, simple, and direct platform for small or retail investors to invest in government securities. Under the scheme, individual investors can open and maintain a Retail Direct Gilt Account online with the RBI easily and free of cost, with no charges levied for opening or maintaining the account.
While the scheme facilitates investment in government securities, retail investors are not restricted to Central Government Securities alone. They can invest in a wider range of government-backed instruments, which includes Treasury Bills, Central Government Dated Securities, State Development Loans, and Sovereign Gold Bonds. Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct, while statement 3 is incorrect.
185Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Swachh Survekshan Awards 2021?
1. Swachh Survekshan 2021 has become the world's largest cleanliness survey by surveying around 4320 cities.
2. Jharkhand has been awarded as the best-performing state among states with less than 100 urban local bodies
3. Chhattisgarh retained the first position in the Cleanest State Category.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
The Swachh Survekshan 2021 survey covered 4320 cities across India, making it the worlds largest cleanliness survey. In the state-wise cleanliness awards, Chhattisgarh secured the first position as the cleanest state under the category of states with more than 100 urban local bodies, preserving its top rank for the third consecutive year. Under the category of states with less than 100 urban local bodies, Jharkhand was awarded as the cleanest state.
186Economy
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Wings India 2022, A government of India's programme?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) Wings India, 2022 is the largest event on Civil Aviation (Commercial, General and Business Aviation) in Asia
Explanation
Wings India is recognized as Asia's largest event on Civil Aviation, encompassing Commercial, General, and Business Aviation. Jointly organized by the Ministry of Civil Aviation, Government of India, and the Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), this biennial event provides a major collaborative forum for stakeholders, buyers, sellers, and policymakers to discuss regional connectivity, investments, and business acquisitions in the aviation sector.
187Science and Technology
India's first Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory (LIGO) venture is going to be established in ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) Maharashtra
Explanation
LIGO-India, the country's first Laser Interferometer Gravitational-Wave Observatory, is being established in the Hingoli district of Maharashtra. This mega-science project is a collaborative venture between the LIGO Laboratory in the United States and a consortium of Indian research institutions, including the Inter-University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics (IUCAA) in Pune, the Raja Ramanna Centre for Advanced Technology (RRCAT) in Indore, and the Institute for Plasma Research (IPR) in Gandhinagar. The observatory in Maharashtra will host an advanced gravitational-wave detector to precisely locate and study cosmic sources of gravitational waves in synchronization with other detectors worldwide.
188Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Draft Food Safety and Standards (Genetically Modified or Engineered Foods) Regulations, 2021?
1. It is applicable to Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs), Genetically engineered organisms and living modified organisms
2. Any person can manufacture, store, sell, distribute, or import any food or food ingredient derived from Genetically Modified Organisms without prior approval
3. The Section 43 of Food Safety | Standards Act, 2006 can designate any lab as Genetically Modified Foods Testing lab
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
The Draft Food Safety and Standards (Genetically Modified or Engineered Foods) Regulations, 2021 apply to Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs), Genetically Engineered Organisms (GEOs), and Living Modified Organisms (LMOs) that are intended for direct use as food or for food processing. This validates Statement 1.
Under these regulations, no person is permitted to manufacture, store, distribute, sell, or import any food or food ingredient derived from Genetically Modified Organisms except with the prior approval of the Food Authority. This makes Statement 2 incorrect, as prior approval is strictly mandatory.
The draft regulations state that any food laboratory notified in accordance with Section 43 of the Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006, can be designated as a Genetically Modified Foods Testing laboratory, provided it meets the necessary prerequisites such as a well-segregated GM food testing area. This validates Statement 3.
189Economy
Which of the following are the two aims of "Clean Ocean Manifesto" of United Nations?
1. Reducing marine debris by 20-50 per cent
2. Globe circling | high-tech system of monitors
3. Protecting the Arctic and Antarctica from melting and preventing ocean high levels
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Clean Ocean Manifesto was formulated by the Clean Ocean International Expert Group of the United Nations Decade of Ocean Science for Sustainable Development, spanning 2021 to 2030. The manifesto outlines two central, essential aims to help achieve the goal of a clean ocean by the end of the decade. The first aim is significantly reducing marine debris, with target ranges set to drastically cut down pollution. The second aim is establishing a globe-circling, high-tech system of monitors to enable comprehensive, real-time tracking of marine pollution and tracing of spills. Protecting polar ice caps from melting is not part of the two primary aims of this manifesto, making only statements 1 and 2 correct.
190Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding UNESCO Executive board?
1. India got reelected to UNESCO executive board with 164 votes.
2. There are total 10 groups of executive board, India belongs to group VI
3. Japan, Vietnam, Philippines, Cook Islands and China were also elected
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 3 only
Explanation
In November 2021, India secured re-election to the UNESCO Executive Board for the 2021–25 term after obtaining 164 votes. During the same election, Japan, Vietnam, Philippines, Cook Islands, and China were also elected from Group IV (Asian and Pacific States). The UNESCO Executive Board consists of a total of six electoral groups, with India belonging to Group IV (Asian and Pacific States) rather than Group VI.
191Science and Technology
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding Anti-Satellite test by Russia?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) A direct-ascent anti-satellite (DA-ASAT) missile was tested by Russia and stuck the satellite called COSMOS 1408
Explanation
On November 15, 2021, Russia successfully conducted a direct-ascent anti-satellite test by launching a missile that struck and destroyed Cosmos 1408, a defunct Soviet-era electronic intelligence satellite in low Earth orbit. The intercept generated more than 1500 pieces of trackable orbital debris. The PL-19 Nudol missile system utilized in this test was first flight-tested in 2014 rather than 2020, and underwent multiple test launches throughout the 2010s, which makes only the first statement correct.
192Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding E-Shram of Government of India?
1. It is India's first centralised database of unorganised workers
2. Approximately 8 crore registrations have been made till November 2021
3. In the registrations 40.5% belong to OBCs, 27.4% General category, 23.7% SCs and 8.3% to STs.
4. In this registrations more than 50% registrations are in the Industrial sector
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation
The e-Shram portal was launched on 26 August 2021 by the Ministry of Labour and Employment. It serves as India's first centralized database of unorganized workers, verified and seeded with Aadhaar. This national database covers construction workers, migrant workers, gig and platform workers, street vendors, domestic workers, and agricultural labourers.
By late November 2021, the portal registered remarkable growth, crossing approximately 8 crore registrations. Among these registrations, the demographic breakdown by social category was approximately 40.5% belonging to Other Backward Classes (OBCs), 27.4% to the General category, 23.7% to Scheduled Castes (SCs), and 8.3% to Scheduled Tribes (STs).
Regarding the sectoral distribution, the agricultural sector, rather than the industrial sector, dominated the registrations, accounting for over 50% (specifically around 52%) of the enrolled workers. This makes statement 4 incorrect, while statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
193Polity and Governance
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct regarding recent Ordinances regarding ED and CBI chiefs by government of India?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) The ordinances allow the extension of up to a maximum of three years to the CBI and ED chiefs after the completion of their normal tenure of 2 years
Explanation
The Delhi Special Police Establishment (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, and the Central Vigilance Commission (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021, permit the extension of the terms of the Directors of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) and the Enforcement Directorate (ED) beyond their initial mandatory tenure of two years. Under these amendments, the chiefs of these investigative agencies can be granted extensions of up to one year at a time, for a maximum period of three years in total, making their absolute maximum tenure five years from the date of their initial appointment. This allows the government to extend their services by up to a maximum of three additional years once their initial two-year fixed term is completed.
194Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Smart Policing Index 2021?
1. This survey was done by Indian Police Foundation which is a Non governmental organization
2. In this index Andhra Pradesh and Telangana topped 1ˢᵗ and 2ⁿᵈ
3. Kerala Stood in the last position
4. The Smart policing idea was initiated by Narendra Modi in 2015
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
The Indian Police Foundation (IPF) is an independent, non-governmental think tank and registered society that conducted the Citizen Satisfaction Survey on SMART Policing in 2021. According to the Smart Policing Index 2021, Andhra Pradesh scored 8.11 out of 10 to secure the first rank, while Telangana secured the second position with a score of 8.10.
195Science and Technology
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has addressed the Sydney Dialogue 2021, the address was on the theme of ______.
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) India's Technology Evolution and Revolution
Explanation
Prime Minister Narendra Modi delivered the keynote address at the inaugural Sydney Dialogue on 18th November 2021 via video conferencing. The address was on the theme of India's technology evolution and revolution, where he highlighted the major digital transitions shaping the country and discussed the role of emerging, critical, and cyber technologies in democratic nations.
196Science and Technology
Who among the following Indian Badminton players recently received the Lifetime Achievement Award 2021 by the Badminton World Federation?
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (D) None of the above
Explanation
The Badminton World Federation selected the legendary Indian badminton player Prakash Padukone for the prestigious BWF Lifetime Achievement Award for 2021. Prakash Padukone, a former World No. 1 and the first Indian to win the All England Open Badminton Championships in 1980, was recognized for his outstanding contributions to the sport. Since he is not listed among the other choices, the correct option is none of the above.
197Polity and Governance
Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Children's Day 2021?
1. The United Nations observes the World Children's Day on 20ᵗʰ November of every year
2. The theme of the world Children's day 2021 is "-A better future for every child"
3. World children's day is annually observed on 20ᵗʰ November of every year since 1960
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (B) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
World Children's Day is celebrated globally on 20 November each year to promote international togetherness, raise awareness among children worldwide, and improve children's welfare.
The day was first established in 1954 as Universal Children's Day, meaning its annual observance began in 1954 rather than 1960. The date of 20 November holds special significance because it marks the day on which the United Nations General Assembly adopted the Declaration of the Rights of the Child in 1959, as well as the Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1989.
The official theme chosen for World Children's Day in 2021 is "A better future for every child," focusing on global advocacy and action to build a better world for children in the post-pandemic era.
This confirms statements 1 and 2 are correct.
198Science and Technology
Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Indian Government has signed an agreement with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited to produce Jaguar Aircraft simulators
2. The first simulators will be established at Jamnagar and second will be at Gorakhpur
3. These simulators will be developed with the help of Euro fighter Typhoon
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (C) 1 and 2 only
Explanation
In November 2021, the Ministry of Defence signed a contract worth ₹357 crore with Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) for the procurement of two Fixed Base Full Mission Simulators (FBFMS) for the Jaguar aircraft of the Indian Air Force. Under the Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan, these simulators are designed, developed, and manufactured indigenously by HAL without any external assistance from Eurofighter Typhoon. The contract specifies that the first simulator will be commissioned at the Air Force Station in Jamnagar, while the second simulator will be established at the Air Force Station in Gorakhpur.
199Economy
Which of the following statements are correct regarding World Bank's Remittance Prices Worldwide database?
1. According to the report India became the world's largest recipient of remittances by receiving 87 billion dollars in 2021
2. The USA is the biggest source accounting for 20% of these funds
3. India is followed by China, Mexico, Philippines and Egypt
● Correct
● Not quite — the correct answer is highlighted
Show answer & explanationHide answer⌄
Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3
Explanation
According to the World Bank's Migration and Development Brief, India was the world's largest recipient of remittances in 2021, receiving 87 billion USD. This represented a 4.6% increase from the previous year, driven significantly by altruistic flows from the diaspora during the COVID-19 crisis.
The United States was the biggest source country for these flows, accounting for more than 20% of the remittances sent to India.
Globally, the leading recipients of remittances following India were China, Mexico, the Philippines, and Egypt.