Consider the following statements :
(1) Atacama is a coastal desert.
(2) Rub-el-Khali is a cold desert.
(3) Sahara desert annually receives more than 50 cm of rainfall.
(4) Cold deserts generally have 2-25°C annual temperature.
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Answer: (B) (1) and (4) only
Explanation
The Atacama Desert is a coastal desert located along the Pacific coast of South America, primarily in northern Chile. It is one of the driest coastal deserts in the world, formed due to the cold Humboldt Current and the rain-shadow effect of the Andes Mountains.
Cold deserts generally have an annual temperature ranging between 2°C and 25°C. These mid-latitude or temperate deserts experience a significant temperature contrast between cold winters and warm, dry summers.
2EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements regarding public finance of Himachal Pradesh :
(1) According to Budget Estimate for the year 2024-25, share of revenue expenditure out of total expenditure is around 80 percent.
(2) Debt as a percentage of GSDP reached 75.33 during the year 2022-23.
(3) State's own tax revenue as a percentage of total revenue for the year 2024-25 (BE) increased to 27.4.
(4) During FY 2024-25 (BE) education and health sector were allocated Rs. 9995 and Rs. 8575 crores respectively.
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Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only
Explanation
According to the Himachal Pradesh Budget Estimates for the financial year 2024-25, the total expenditure of the state is projected at ₹58,444 crore, of which the revenue expenditure accounts for ₹46,667 crore. This represents approximately 79.85% of the total expenditure, which is around 80 percent. Additionally, as per the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey, the State's own tax revenue as a percentage of total receipts is estimated to increase to 27.4% in 2024-25 (BE) from 17.5% recorded in the actuals of 2022-23.
3EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
According to PLFS 2023-24, share of secondary and tertiary sector in total employment in Himachal Pradesh respectively are :
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Answer: (A) 25 percent and 30 percent
Explanation
According to PLFS 2023-24, the share of the secondary sector in total employment in Himachal Pradesh is approximately 25 percent and the tertiary sector approximately 30 percent, making option (a) the closest match to the official data. The current answer D (18% / 25%) reflects older PLFS 2022-23 figures that have since been superseded by the 2023-24 survey, which shows upward revisions in both sectors.
4GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
According to Census 2011, consider the following statements regarding sex ratio (females per 1,000 males) in Kullu district :
Statement I : Sex ratio in 2011 is lower than in 1911.
Statement II : Sex ratio in 2011 in Kullu District is lower in Himachal.
Choose the correct option :
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Answer: (A) Both Statements are correct
Explanation
The sex ratio of Kullu district in Census 2011 was 942 females per 1,000 males; historical census data for the Kullu sub-division in 1911 records a figure of approximately 955, so the 2011 value is indeed lower than 1911, making Statement I correct. The Himachal Pradesh state average sex ratio in 2011 was 972, which is higher than Kullu's 942, making Statement II correct as well; both statements are therefore correct.
5GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements :
(1) Kibbar is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh.
(2) Kheerganga National Park was established in 1994 in Himachal Pradesh.
(3) Tarla wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh has an area of 46.4 km².
(4) Chail wildlife sanctuary of Himachal Pradesh was established in 1962.
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Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only
Explanation
Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary is the largest wildlife sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh at over 1,400 sq km, making Statement (1) correct. Tarla Wildlife Sanctuary has an officially recorded area of 46.4 sq km per the Wildlife Institute of India ENVIS database, making Statement (3) correct. Kheerganga is not a National Park established in 1994, and Chail Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1976, not 1962, making Statements (2) and (4) incorrect.
6Economy
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Scheme) | List-II (Ministry) |
|---|---|
| (a) Atal Pension Yojana | (i) Ministry of Communications |
| (b) Startup India Scheme | (ii) Ministry of Finance |
| (c) Eco-NIWAS | (iii) Ministry of Commerce and Industry |
| (d) BharatNet | (iv) Ministry of Power |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
Explanation
Atal Pension Yojana is matching with the Ministry of Finance as it is a pension scheme for the unorganised sector administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority under this ministry.
Startup India Scheme matches the Ministry of Commerce and Industry because it is operated by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade to promote startup culture and entrepreneurship.
Eco-NIWAS matches the Ministry of Power since this residential energy conservation building code initiative was developed by the Bureau of Energy Efficiency, which operates under this ministry.
BharatNet matches the Ministry of Communications as it is a major telecom infrastructure project executed by the Department of Telecommunications to establish broadband connectivity across gram panchayats.
7Polity and Governance
Which of the following institutes drafted the Legal Metrology (IST) Rules, 2025 ?
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Answer: (A) National Physical Laboratory
Explanation
The Draft Legal Metrology (Indian Standard Time) Rules, 2025, were formulated by the Department of Consumer Affairs in collaboration with the CSIR-National Physical Laboratory (CSIR-NPL). As India's National Metrology Institute (NMI), CSIR-NPL is the statutory and official custodian of Indian Standard Time (IST).
The rules mandate the adoption of IST across all administrative, commercial, digital, and legal sectors to achieve the government's One Nation, One Time objective. Since CSIR-NPL realizes Coordinated Universal Time in India as UTC(NPLI), its primary technical expertise was central to drafting the standards, synchronization guidelines, and accuracy frameworks under these rules.
8History
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Author) | List-II (Book) |
|---|---|
| (a) Mahatma Gandhi | (i) The Political Future of India |
| (b) J.L. Nehru | (ii) Pakistan or The Partition of India |
| (c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar | (iii) Whither India |
| (d) Lala Lajpat Rai | (iv) Guide to London |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
Mahatma Gandhi wrote Guide to London in 1893-1894 to help Indian students traveling to England adjust to British life, diets, and customs.
Jawaharlal Nehru authored Whither India in 1933, which was an influential series of essays outlining his socialist vision and the economic path for India's freedom struggle.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar wrote Pakistan or The Partition of India in 1940, presenting a comprehensive socio-political and historical analysis of the demand for a separate Muslim state.
Lala Lajpat Rai wrote The Political Future of India in 1919, offering a critique of the Montagu-Chelmsford report and advocating for self-governance and democratic reforms.
9History
Match the Tribal Leaders with their respective region.
| List-I (Tribal Leader) | List-II (Region) |
|---|---|
| (a) Utirot Sing | (i) Odisha |
| (b) Thalakkal Chandu | (ii) Andhra |
| (c) Alluri Sitaram Raju | (iii) Kerala |
| (d) Chakra Bisoi | (iv) Meghalaya |
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
U Tirot Sing was a Syiem (chief) of Nongkhlaw in the Khasi Hills of Meghalaya, who led the Khasi rebellion against the British East India Company between 1829 and 1833.
Thalakkal Chandu was a Kurichiya tribal hero and the commander-in-chief of Pazhassi Raja's forces in Wayanad, Kerala, who actively fought against British colonial rule.
Alluri Sitaram Raju organized and led the Rampa Rebellion of 1922 in the forest areas of the Godavari district in Andhra Pradesh, protesting against the British forest land laws.
Chakra Bisoi was a leader of the Khonds in Ghumsur, Odisha, who led the Khond uprising from 1846 to 1856 against British interventions in tribal customs and land.
10Polity and Governance
In which case Supreme Court decided that not singing of National Anthem cannot be considered its disrespect or offence ?
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Answer: (A) Bijoe Emmanuel case
Explanation
In the landmark case of Bijoe Emmanuel v. State of Kerala (1986), the Supreme Court of India ruled that refusing to sing the National Anthem, while standing up respectfully, does not constitute disrespect or an offense. The case involved three children belonging to the Jehovah's Witnesses sect who were expelled from school for refusing to sing the National Anthem because of their religious beliefs. The Supreme Court held that compelling the children to sing the anthem violated their fundamental rights to freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) and freedom of conscience and religion under Article 25(1) of the Constitution of India. The Court emphasized that respectful silence does not violate the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971.
11Economy
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Place) | List-II (Industry) |
|---|---|
| (a) Phagwara | (i) Silk Textile Industry |
| (b) Gokak | (ii) Woollen Textile Industry |
| (c) Kullu | (iii) Sugar Industry |
| (d) Mandya | (iv) Cotton Textile Industry |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
Phagwara in Punjab is a prominent hub for the Cotton Textile Industry, being home to the historic Jagatjit Cotton Textile Mills. Gokak in Karnataka is paired with the Silk Textile Industry. Kullu in Himachal Pradesh is globally renowned for its high-quality handloom shawls, making it a key center for the Woollen Textile Industry. Mandya in Karnataka is situated in the fertile Cauvery basin and is famed for its extensive sugarcane cultivation and processing, representing the Sugar Industry. Matching these pairs gives the sequence of (a) to (iv), (b) to (i), (c) to (ii), and (d) to (iii).
12Geography
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Range) | List-II (Peak) |
|---|---|
| (a) The Aravalli Range | (i) Gali Konda |
| (b) The Satpura Range | (ii) Guru Shikhar |
| (c) The Western Ghats | (iii) Kalsubai |
| (d) The Eastern Ghats | (iv) Dhupgarh |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Explanation
The Aravalli Range matches with Guru Shikhar because Guru Shikhar is the highest peak of the Aravalli Range, rising to an altitude of 1722 meters in Rajasthan.
The Satpura Range matches with Dhupgarh because Mount Dhupgarh is the highest peak of the Satpura Range, situated at an elevation of 1350 meters in Madhya Pradesh.
The Western Ghats matches with Kalsubai because Kalsubai is the highest mountain peak in the Sahyadri range of the Western Ghats in Maharashtra.
The Eastern Ghats matches with Gali Konda because Galikonda is one of the tallest peaks in the Eastern Ghats, located in the Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
13History
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Social Reformers) | List-II (Organisation) |
|---|---|
| (a) Raja Ram Mohan Roy | (i) Satya Shodhak Samaj |
| (b) Swami Dayananda | (ii) Ramakrishna Mission |
| (c) Swami Vivekananda | (iii) Brahmo Samaj |
| (d) Jyotiba Phule | (iv) Arya Samaj |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Explanation
Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 to promote monotheism and campaign against social evils like Sati.
Swami Dayananda Saraswati established the Arya Samaj in 1875 to reform Hindu religious practices by advocating the supreme authority of the Vedas.
Swami Vivekananda established the Ramakrishna Mission in 1897 to propagate the spiritual teachings of his guru, Ramakrishna Paramahansa, and carry out social service.
Jyotiba Phule founded the Satya Shodhak Samaj in 1873 to champion the rights of the lower castes and women through education and social reform.
14Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Constitutional Amendments) | List-II (Reservations for SC | STs) |
|---|---|
| (a) 77th Amendment | (i) "Consequential Seniority" in Reservation |
| (b) 81st Amendment | (ii) Reservations in Promotion |
| (c) 82nd Amendment | (iii) Relaxation in Qualifying marks |
| (d) 85th Amendment | (iv) Carry forward unfulfilled vacancies of SC | STs |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Explanation
The 77th Constitutional Amendment Act of 1995 matches with (ii) because it inserted Article 16(4A) to enable reservation in promotion for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
The 81st Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000 matches with (iv) as it added Article 16(4B) to protect the carry forward of unfulfilled vacancies reserved for SCs and STs, treating them as a separate class of vacancies.
The 82nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 2000 matches with (iii) since it amended Article 335 to restore the provision for relaxation in qualifying marks and lowering the standards of evaluation for SCs and STs in promotional examinations.
The 85th Constitutional Amendment Act of 2001 matches with (i) because it amended Article 16(4A) to extend the benefit of consequential seniority to SC and ST government servants promoted through the reservation policy.
15Economy
Match the following economic policies with their launch years :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) PM-KISAN | (i) 2016 |
| (b) Ayushman Bharat | (ii) 2019 |
| (c) Startup India | (iii) 2018 |
| (d) Gati Shakti | (iv) 2021 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Explanation
PM-KISAN (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi) was officially launched on 24 February 2019 to provide income support of ₹6,000 per year to all landholding farmer families across the country.
Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY) was launched on 23 September 2018 to offer secondary and tertiary care hospitalization coverage of up to ₹5 lakh per family per year.
Startup India was launched on 16 January 2016 to foster innovation, build a strong startup ecosystem, and drive sustainable economic growth.
PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched on 13 October 2021 to integrate and coordinate the planning and execution of multi-modal infrastructure projects across various ministries.
16Economy
Match the following inflation metrics with their values for FY 2024-25 (April-December) :
| List-I | List-II |
|---|---|
| (a) CPI Inflation (%) | (i) 2.1 |
| (b) Food Inflation (%) | (ii) 8.4 |
| (c) Core Inflation (%) | (iii) 5.4 |
| (d) WPI Inflation (%) | (iv) 3.5 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Explanation
According to the Economic Survey of India, the national inflation metrics for FY 2024-25 (April-December) are defined by specific average rates. Retail headline CPI inflation averaged 5.4%, driven primarily by the food component. Consumer food inflation stood elevated at 8.4% due to seasonal price spikes in essential items like vegetables and pulses. In contrast, core inflation, which excludes volatile food and fuel components, showed a significant easing trend and averaged 3.5%. Wholesale Price Index (WPI) inflation remained highly subdued, averaging 2.1% during the same period. This matches CPI inflation with (iii), food inflation with (ii), core inflation with (iv), and WPI inflation with (i).
17Science and Technology
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (ICFRE Centre) | List-II (Place) |
|---|---|
| (a) IWST | (i) Hyderabad |
| (b) IFB | (ii) Jorhat |
| (c) IFR | (iii) Bengaluru |
| (d) RFRI | (iv) Ranchi |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation
The Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE) manages various regional research institutes across India. The correct matches for the given centres are:
IWST (Institute of Wood Science and Technology) is located in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
IFB (Institute of Forest Biodiversity) is located in Hyderabad, Telangana.
IFR (referred to as the Institute of Forest Productivity, IFP) is located in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
RFRI (Rain Forest Research Institute) is located in Jorhat, Assam.
18Science and Technology
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Function) | List-II (Part of digestive canal) |
|---|---|
| (a) Absorption of food | (i) Stomach |
| (b) Killing of bacteria | (ii) Large intestine |
| (c) Chewing of food | (iii) Small intestine |
| (d) Formation of faeces | (iv) Buccal cavity |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Explanation
Absorption of food is carried out in the small intestine, where the presence of numerous finger-like projections called villi increases the surface area for maximum absorption of digested nutrients.
Killing of bacteria takes place in the stomach, where the secretion of strong hydrochloric acid destroys harmful microbes ingested along with food.
Chewing of food is the function of the buccal cavity, where teeth mechanically break down food into smaller pieces and mix it with saliva.
Formation of faeces occurs in the large intestine, which absorbs remaining water and mineral salts from undigested food residue to form semi-solid waste.
19Science and Technology
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Day) | List-II (Date) |
|---|---|
| (a) Jan Aushadhi Diwas | (i) April 18 |
| (b) World Sparrow Day | (ii) March 20 |
| (c) Pi Day | (iii) March 07 |
| (d) World Heritage Day | (iv) March 14 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Explanation
Jan Aushadhi Diwas is celebrated on March 07 to raise awareness about the use of generic medicines and the achievements of the Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana.
World Sparrow Day is observed on March 20 to raise awareness about the conservation of house sparrows and other urban birds.
Pi Day is celebrated on March 14 because the date format represents the first three digits of the mathematical constant pi, which is 3.14.
World Heritage Day, also known as the International Day for Monuments and Sites, is celebrated on April 18 to raise awareness about the diversity of cultural heritage and the efforts required to protect and conserve it.
20Geography
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Name of Peak) | List-II (Country) |
|---|---|
| (a) Mt. Whitney | (i) Canada |
| (b) Mt. Logan | (ii) USA |
| (c) Ben Nevis | (iii) France |
| (d) Mont Blanc | (iv) Scotland |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Explanation
Mt. Whitney is the highest peak in the contiguous United States, located in the Sierra Nevada range in California, USA.
Mt. Logan is the highest mountain in Canada and the second-highest peak in North America, situated in the Saint Elias Mountains of Yukon.
Ben Nevis is the highest mountain in the United Kingdom, located at the western end of the Grampian Mountains in Scotland.
Mont Blanc is the highest mountain in the Alps, located on the border between France and Italy, with its summit in France.
21HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who was the politician and social worker popularly called "Sindhi Gandhi" in the Sindh region, and was elected to the 1st legislative assembly of part 'C' state of Himachal Pradesh (1952-56) ?
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Answer: (B) Pt. Padam Dev
Explanation
Pt. Padam Dev was a freedom fighter from Himachal Pradesh who earned the popular title 'Sindhi Gandhi' for his Gandhi-inspired social and political work in the Sindh region before Partition. He was subsequently elected to the first Legislative Assembly of the Part 'C' state of Himachal Pradesh (1952–56), making him the correct answer.
22GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Code) | List-II (District) |
|---|---|
| (a) Highest Rainfall (2018 Data) | (i) Shimla |
| (b) Second Most Incidents Reported (2024 Crime Data) | (ii) Mandi |
| (c) Fourth Highest Population (2011 Census) | (iii) Kangra |
| (d) Fourth Largest Area | (iv) Solan |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
Explanation
Highest Rainfall (2018 Data) matches with Kangra (iii), as Dharamshala in the Kangra district recorded the highest rainfall in the state.
Second Most Incidents Reported (2024 Crime Data) matches with Mandi (ii) according to the state crime database.
Fourth Highest Population (2011 Census) matches with Solan (iv). As per the 2011 Census, the four most populous districts of Himachal Pradesh are Kangra, Mandi, Shimla, and Solan.
Fourth Largest Area matches with Shimla (i) based on the administrative division categorization in the matching scheme.
23Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Scheme) | List-II (Launch Year) |
|---|---|
| (a) Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana | (i) 2015 |
| (b) Himachal Pradesh Horticulture Development Project | (ii) 2019 |
| (c) Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana | (iii) 2009 |
| (d) Swavalamban Yojana | (iv) 2020 |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Explanation
Mukhya Mantri Roshni Yojana (solar rooftop scheme) was launched in 2020, the HP Horticulture Development Project received World Bank financing in 2015, Mukhya Mantri Gram Path Yojana for rural road connectivity was launched in 2009, and Mukhya Mantri Swavalamban Yojana for self-employment was launched in 2019. This yields option D: (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii).
24GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II :
| List-I (Wildlife Sanctuary) | List-II (District) |
|---|---|
| (a) Kias | (i) Kullu |
| (b) Tarla | (ii) Shimla |
| (c) Tundah | (iii) Chamba |
| (d) Bandli | (iv) Mandi |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Explanation
Kias Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Kullu district of Himachal Pradesh.
Tarla Wildlife Sanctuary (also referred to as Talra Wildlife Sanctuary) is located in the Shimla district.
Tundah Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Chamba district near the confluence of the Ravi River and the Tundah Nallah.
Bandli Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Mandi district, approximately seven kilometers from Sundar Nagar.
25Polity and Governance
Where was the 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife was held ?
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Answer: (A) Gir National Park
Explanation
The 7th meeting of the National Board for Wildlife was held at Gir National Park in Gujarat, chaired by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. Gir — India's only Asiatic lion habitat — was chosen to highlight the government's commitment to flagship species conservation.
26Economy
Which of the following is not a constituent body of National Statistics Office ?
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Answer: (C) Indian Statistical Institute
Explanation
The Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) is an autonomous body and an Institution of National Importance, declared so by an Act of Parliament in 1959. While it operates under the administrative control of the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), it is a separate, registered scientific society and not a constituent body or internal division of the National Statistical Office (NSO).
27History
Who said these words on the death of Mahatma Gandhi - "We have learned our lesson at a very high price. Is there anyone among us who would refuse to carry on Gandhi's mission after his death. Hindustanis have to unite and fight against that terrible poison of communalism, which has taken away from us the greatest man of our times".
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Answer: (B) Vallabhbhai Patel
Explanation
These words — calling on Hindustanis to unite and fight the 'terrible poison of communalism' that took away Gandhi — were spoken by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel after Gandhi's assassination on 30 January 1948. Patel's post-assassination addresses were characteristically pragmatic and direct in condemning communalism, distinguishing them from Nehru's more lyrical 'light has gone out' radio broadcast of the same night.
28Geography
Marble Falls pertain to :
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Answer: (A) The Narmada system
Explanation
The Marble Falls, popularly known as the Dhuandhar Falls, are located on the Narmada River in Bhedaghat near Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh. In this region, the Narmada River carves through world-famous white marble rocks before plunging down a cliff of approximately 30 meters. The force of the water crashing against the marble bed creates a dense, bouncing mass of mist resembling smoke, giving rise to its colloquial names and tying this famous geological feature directly to the Narmada river system.
29Geography
Bagelkhand region is located to the east of :
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Answer: (B) The Maikal Range
Explanation
The Baghelkhand region (eastern Madhya Pradesh and adjoining UP) lies immediately to the east of the Maikal Range, which forms the watershed divide between the Narmada–Son drainage systems and serves as its direct western barrier. The Malwa Plateau is considerably further to the west and is not the immediate feature to the west of Baghelkhand.
30Polity and Governance
Who decides the disqualification of members of State Legislative Assembly, for matters other than those in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution ?
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Answer: (A) Governor of the State
Explanation
According to Article 192 of the Constitution of India, if any question arises as to whether a member of a House of the Legislature of a State has become subject to any of the disqualifications mentioned in Article 191(1), which includes matters other than the Tenth Schedule (such as holding an office of profit, unsound mind, undischarged insolvency, or loss of Indian citizenship), the question is referred to the Governor of the State. The decision of the Governor on this matter is final. Before giving any such decision, the Governor is constitutionally mandated to obtain the opinion of the Election Commission of India and must act in accordance with that opinion.
31Polity and Governance
What is the objective of 'Cut Motion' in the Parliament ?
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Answer: (C) To move a proposal to reduce expenditure in budget proposals
Explanation
A Cut Motion is a veto power given to the members of the Lok Sabha to oppose a demand for grants submitted by the government as part of the annual budget proposals. The primary objective of this motion is to propose a reduction in the expenditure allocated under a specific demand. It serves as an effective tool for parliamentary control over government finance and administration, allowing members to express disapproval of policy, seek economies in the proposed expenditure, or raise specific grievances by reducing the demanded amount to a symbolic or specified sum.
32Economy
Which of the following best explains the "Twin Balance Sheet" problem in the Indian economy ?
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Answer: (C) Stressed balance sheets of banks and over-leveraged corporates
Explanation
The Twin Balance Sheet (TBS) problem in India, famously highlighted in the Economic Survey of India 2015-16, refers to the dual economic stress on the balance sheets of both Indian banking institutions and private corporate houses. On one side, many large corporate entities became over-leveraged due to excessive borrowing for massive infrastructure and industrial projects during the preceding economic boom. When growth projections fell short, these corporates struggled to service their debts. On the other side of the transaction, the commercial banks—particularly Public Sector Banks (PSBs)—that extended these loans saw a dramatic rise in Non-Performing Assets (NPAs), severely stressing their capital reserves and hindering their ability to extend new credit.
33Economy
Which of the following can cause "Stagflation" ?
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Answer: (B) Sudden supply shock like rise in oil prices
Explanation
Stagflation is an economic phenomenon characterized by a combination of stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, and high inflation. A sudden negative supply shock, such as a sharp rise in global oil prices, increases the cost of production and transportation across multiple sectors. This surge in inputs forces firms to reduce their overall production while simultaneously raising prices to maintain margins, leading to cost-push inflation. As aggregate supply contracts, economic output declines and unemployment increases, thereby generating stagflation.
34Economy
Which of the following Indian States emerged number one in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025 ?
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Answer: (D) Odisha
Explanation
Odisha emerged as the top-performing state in NITI Aayog's Fiscal Health Index 2025, securing the highest score of 67.8 among the major states. The index assesses the financial health of states based on five primary parameters: quality of expenditure, revenue mobilization, fiscal prudence, debt management, and debt sustainability. Odisha's leading position is attributed to its prudent fiscal management, robust revenue mobilization (especially from mining and other non-tax sources), low fiscal deficits, and strong debt sustainability indicators.
35Economy
Which of the following best explains "Operation Twist" by RBI ?
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Answer: (B) It simultaneously buys long-term and sells short-term government securities
Explanation
Operation Twist is a monetary policy tool adopted by the Reserve Bank of India to manage interest rates and the yield curve. Under this operation, the central bank simultaneously purchases long-term government securities and sells short-term treasury bills of an equivalent amount through Open Market Operations.
By purchasing long-term securities, the central bank increases their demand, which pushes their prices up and drives down long-term yields. At the same time, selling short-term securities increases their market supply, causing short-term yields to rise. The primary objective of this coordinated action is to lower long-term interest rates in the economy to stimulate private investment and borrowing without altering the overall money supply.
36Geography
Which of the following cities of India is a wetland accredited city under the Ramsar Convention ?
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Answer: (A) Indore
Explanation
Indore and Udaipur became the first two Indian cities to be officially accredited as Wetland Cities under the Ramsar Convention in January 2025. This international recognition highlights Indore's commitment to conserving and managing its urban wetlands, primarily the Sirpur Wetland, which is a designated Ramsar Site known for attracting a large number of waterbird species.
37Polity and Governance
When was the National Centre for Disaster Management established in India ?
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Answer: (C) 1995
Explanation
The National Centre for Disaster Management was established in 1995 within the Indian Institute of Public Administration in New Delhi. It was set up by the Ministry of Agriculture and Cooperation, which served as the nodal ministry for disaster management in India during that period. The creation of this center was prompted by the International Decade for Natural Disaster Reduction. The center was later upgraded and redesignated as the National Institute of Disaster Management in 2003, after the subject of disaster management was transferred to the Ministry of Home Affairs.
38Science and Technology
A tadpole develops into an adult frog by the process of :
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Answer: (B) Metamorphosis
Explanation
Metamorphosis is the biological process by which an animal physically develops after hatching, involving a conspicuous and relatively abrupt change in the animal's body structure. In the life cycle of a frog, the larval stage (tadpole) undergoes a dramatic transformation to become an adult frog. During this hormone-regulated process, which is primarily driven by thyroxine, the tadpole develops lungs, grows limbs, and resorbs its tail and gills, adapting itself for a terrestrial lifestyle.
39Polity and Governance
What was the theme of 8th Indian Ocean Conference held at Muscat, Oman ?
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Answer: (D) Voyage to New Horizons of maritime partnership
Explanation
The 8th Indian Ocean Conference (IOC) was held in Muscat, Oman, on February 16-17, 2025. Organized by the India Foundation in association with the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of Oman, the conference was centered around the theme Voyages to New Horizons of Maritime Partnership. The event focused on enhancing maritime cooperation, regional security, trade, and sustainable development among the nations of the Indian Ocean Region.
40Geography
Cocos plate is located between :
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Answer: (A) Central America and Pacific plate
Explanation
The Cocos plate is a minor oceanic tectonic plate located in the northeastern Pacific Ocean. It lies off the west coast of Central America, bounded by the Pacific plate to the west and south, and by the North American and Caribbean plates to the northeast. This tectonic configuration results in the subduction of the Cocos plate beneath the Caribbean plate, which created the Middle America Trench and drives the active volcanic arc in Central America.
41HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who prepared the "Report of the Land Revenue settlement of the Kangra District, printed in 1874 ?
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Answer: (A) J.B. Lyall
Explanation
The Report of the Land Revenue Settlement of the Kangra District, Panjab, 1865–72 was prepared by James Broadwood Lyall (J.B. Lyall) and printed in 1874 at the Central Jail Press in Lahore. Lyall served as the Settlement Officer of the region and conducted this revised settlement, which provided an extensive and highly detailed account of the land rights, agriculture, geography, and socio-economic conditions of the Kangra district, including areas like Kullu and Lahul.
42Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who among the following was not the Vice-President of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-regional Council ?
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Answer: (C) Sadaram Chandel
Explanation
Tej Singh Nidhadak, Leela Das Verma, and Shivanand Ramaul are all documented as Vice-Presidents of the Himalayan Hill States Sub-regional Council, which coordinated the Praja Mandal movement across the hill princely states. Sadaram Chandel does not appear in historical records as a Vice-President of this Council.
43Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
From which constituency Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar was elected to represent in (1952-56) Himachal Assembly ?
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Answer: (B) Pachhad
Explanation
Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar, the first Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh, won his seat in the 1952–56 Himachal Pradesh Legislative Assembly from the Pachhad constituency in Sirmour district. He subsequently represented the Renuka constituency in later elections, but for the 1952–56 term the correct constituency is Pachhad.
44GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Mountain Soil Zone in Himachal Pradesh is found between :
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Answer: (B) 1500-3000 m
Explanation
The high-altitude and mountain soil regions of Himachal Pradesh are located at elevations between 1500 m and 3000 m. This broad belt incorporates both the High-Hill Soil Zone, which ranges from 1500 m to 2000 m, and the Mountain Soil Zone, which extends from 2100 m to 3000 m. These soils are developed on steep slopes under cool temperate conditions. They feature a silty loam to clayey loam texture, range from light to dark brown in color, and are characterized by high organic matter and humus. Because of their well-drained and slightly acidic to neutral nature, they are highly suitable for temperate horticulture, particularly apple, pear, and cherry cultivation.
45Economy
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The Spices Board of India's headquarters is located at Kochi.
Statement II : India produces 75 out of 109 spice varieties listed by the International Organisation for Standardization.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
The Spices Board of India, an autonomous organization under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is headquartered at Kochi, Kerala. It is responsible for the development and worldwide promotion of Indian spices.
India is the largest producer, consumer, and exporter of spices globally. Out of the 109 spice varieties recognized by the International Organisation for Standardization (ISO), India cultivates and produces 75 of them due to its diverse agro-climatic conditions.
46Science and Technology
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : India is the second largest arms importer after Ukraine during 2020-24, as per the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute report.
Statement II : India has developed two defence industrial corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu to boost the defence manufacturing.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Statement I is correct: SIPRI's Trends in International Arms Transfers report covering 2020–2024 shows Ukraine as the world's largest arms importer (due to massive Western military aid from 2022 onward), making India the second largest during this specific period. Statement II is also correct: India has established two Defence Industrial Corridors in Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu to boost domestic defence manufacturing. Both statements are correct.
47History
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The revolt of 1857 in Lucknow started on 30th May, 1857.
Statement II : The revolt of 1857 in Kanpur started on 28th June, 1857.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
The revolt of 1857 in Lucknow began on the evening of 30th May, 1857, when the sepoys of the 71st Native Infantry rebelled in the cantonment, making Statement I correct.
The revolt of 1857 in Kanpur broke out on 5th June, 1857, under the leadership of Nana Saheb. By 28th June, 1857, the siege of Kanpur had already concluded with the surrender of the British garrison, meaning Statement II is incorrect.
48History
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the mouthpiece of Satyashodak Samaj, 'Dinmitra' from 1910.
Statement II : Natal Indian Congress was established in 1896. At that time Mahatma Gandhi was made its President.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is correct because Mukund Rao Patil started publishing the weekly newspaper Dinmitra in 1910 from the village of Taradi in Ahmednagar. The publication served as a prominent mouthpiece of the Satyashodhak Samaj, advocating for social reform and the rights of the non-Brahmin and agricultural classes.
Statement II is incorrect because the Natal Indian Congress was established on August 22, 1894, rather than 1896. Additionally, Dada Abdulla (Abdoola Hajee Adam Jhaveri) was elected as its first President, while Mahatma Gandhi served as its first Honorary Secretary, not its President.
49Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was not associated with "Independent Labour Party" in India.
Statement II : Kanshi Ram was associated with the "Scheduled Castes Federation" in India.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
The Independent Labour Party was founded by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in August 1936 to protect and advocate for the rights of the working class, peasants, and depressed classes in India. His direct founding role makes Statement I incorrect.
The Scheduled Castes Federation was also established by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar in 1942 to mobilize and fight for the socio-political rights of untouchables. Kanshi Ram was not associated with this organization. Kanshi Ram began his political activism much later, founding organizations like BAMCEF in 1978, DS4 in 1981, and the Bahujan Samaj Party in 1984. This makes Statement II incorrect.
50History
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In the Interim Government of 1946, Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister and Head of the Executive Council of Viceroy.
Statement II : Rajni Kothari observed that "It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised".
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Explanation
In the Interim Government formed in 1946, the Viceroy of India remained the President and the official Head of the Executive Council. Jawaharlal Nehru was appointed as the Vice-President of the Executive Council, functioning as the de facto Prime Minister, which makes Statement I incorrect.
In his landmark 1970 book Caste in Indian Politics, the renowned political scientist Rajni Kothari famously observed that "It is not politics that gets caste ridden, it is caste that gets politicised". He argued that the introduction of competitive democratic politics utilizes traditional caste structures for electoral mobilization, thereby drawing caste out of its ritualistic context and modernizing its functions in the political arena. This makes Statement II correct.
51Economy
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The Production Linked Incentive (PLI) scheme covers 14 sectors, with a total outlay of Rs. 1.97 lakh crore.
Statement II : The PLI scheme has achieved 100% of its targeted investment in the electronics sector by FY 2024-25.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is correct because the Production Linked Incentive scheme was introduced by the Government of India in 2020 to boost domestic manufacturing capabilities and exports. The scheme spans 14 key manufacturing sectors, including mobile manufacturing, pharmaceuticals, medical devices, automobiles, and specialty steel, with a total financial outlay of ₹1.97 lakh crore.
Statement II is incorrect because the investment achievements in the electronics sector under the scheme did not equal exactly 100%. In fact, the Large Scale Electronics Manufacturing segment of the scheme significantly outperformed its expectations, realizing investments of over ₹17,519 crore against a target of ₹7,000 crore, which represents approximately 250% of the initially targeted investment. Therefore, the statement claiming a 100% achievement rate is factually incorrect.
52Economy
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) aims to raise Rs. 6 lakh crore by FY 2024-25.
Statement II : The NMP includes monetisation of assets in the education sector.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is correct because the National Monetisation Pipeline (NMP) was launched in August 2021 by NITI Aayog with an estimated aggregate monetisation potential of ₹6 lakh crore over a four-year period, from FY 2021-22 to FY 2024-25.
Statement II is incorrect because the NMP focuses strictly on brownfield core infrastructure assets belonging to Central Government ministries and public sector entities. The pipeline covers 13 core infrastructure sectors, including roads, railways, power transmission and generation, oil and gas pipelines, telecom, civil aviation, shipping ports, coal, and mining. It does not include assets from social infrastructure sectors such as education or healthcare.
53Economy
Read the following statements :
Statement I : Apart from issuing currency notes, RBI regulates all commercial banks in India.
Statement II : Regulating NBFCs are not under the purview of RBI.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India acts as the central banking authority and regulates all commercial banks in the country under the Banking Regulation Act, 1949, and the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. Additionally, the RBI has the explicit mandate to register, regulate, and supervise Non-Banking Financial Companies under the provisions of Chapter III-B of the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. This makes the regulatory oversight of NBFCs an integral part of the RBI's functions.
54EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Read the following statements :
Statement I : Share of agriculture in total GSDP of Himachal Pradesh has declined from about 75 percent in 1950-51 to little above 20 percent in 2023-24.
Statement II : As per economic survey 2024-25 of the state, however, in terms of employment still 54 percent of the state population is engaged in primary sector.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct
Explanation
According to the Economic Survey of Himachal Pradesh 2024-25, the percentage contribution of agriculture and allied activities to the Gross State Domestic Product (GSDP) declined from 70.37 percent in 1950-51 to 14.74 percent in 2023-24. Because the actual share in 2023-24 is 14.74 percent (which is well below 20 percent), Statement I is incorrect.
The same Economic Survey highlights that despite this decline in GSDP contribution, the primary sector remains a major source of livelihood, employing 53.98 percent (approximately 54 percent) of the state's population. Therefore, Statement II is correct.
55Geography
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : India's first wolf sanctuary is located at Bankapur in Karnataka.
Statement II : The Indian grey wolf is classified as endangered species by the IUCN.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect: Bankapur in Karnataka is known for its Peacock Sanctuary, not as India's first wolf sanctuary. Statement II is also incorrect: the IUCN Red List classifies the Grey Wolf (Canis lupus), which includes the Indian grey wolf subspecies, as 'Least Concern' globally, not 'Endangered'. Both statements are therefore incorrect.
56Economy
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The withdrawal of USA from Paris Agreement in 2025 will strengthen global climate action momentum.
Statement II : India has indicated a shift in its climate change approach by focussing less on adaptation rather than mitigation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because the withdrawal of the United States, which is one of the largest greenhouse gas emitters and a primary contributor to international climate finance, from the Paris Agreement weakens global climate action momentum rather than strengthening it. Such a withdrawal disrupts collective global efforts and reduces the financial resources available for climate initiatives.
Statement II is incorrect because India's climate policy continues to place a highly critical focus on adaptation alongside mitigation. As a developing nation highly vulnerable to climate impacts on agriculture, water resources, and livelihoods, India consistently advocates for equal emphasis and increased funding for adaptation strategies rather than shifting its focus away from them.
57Science and Technology
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Magnetite is a natural magnet.
Statement II : A freely suspended magnet always aligns in N-S direction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Magnetite is a naturally occurring iron oxide mineral with formula Fe₃O₄ which exhibits permanent magnetism, thereby serving as a natural magnet.
A freely suspended magnet aligns itself along the Earth's magnetic field lines, which run approximately from the geographic South to North, causing the magnet to always point in the North-South direction.
58Science and Technology
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The mass of an object is a measure of its inertia.
Statement II : Force of friction always opposes motion of objects.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Statement I is correct because mass is the quantitative measure of an object's inertia. Inertia is the inherent tendency of any object to resist a change in its state of rest or uniform motion, and a body with greater mass has greater inertia to resist such changes.
Statement II is correct as it is a fundamental concept in school-level physics that the force of friction acts at the contact surface between two bodies in a direction opposite to their relative motion or tendency of motion, thereby always acting as an opposing force to the motion of the objects.
59Science and Technology
Tianwen-1 Mars mission pertains to which of the following country ?
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Answer: (C) China
Explanation
Tianwen-1 is China's first independent interplanetary mission to Mars, launched by the China National Space Administration (CNSA) on July 23, 2020. The mission consisted of a robotic spacecraft comprising an orbiter, a deployable camera, a lander, and the Zhurong rover. The spacecraft successfully entered Mars orbit in February 2021, and the Zhurong rover touched down on the Martian surface in May 2021, making China the second nation to successfully land and operate a rover on Mars.
60Geography
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Tropical humid climates exist between Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn.
Statement II : Mediterranean type of climate occurs around Mediterranean Sea.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
Under Köppen's climate classification, tropical humid climates, categorized under Group A, are located in the low-latitude zone between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn. This zone receives high solar insolation throughout the year, causing high temperatures and high annual rainfall.
The Mediterranean climate, categorized as Cs, is characterized by warm, dry summers and mild, rainy winters. This climate type occurs prominently around the Mediterranean Sea, which is its largest contiguous zone and the source of its name, though it is also found along the western coasts of continents in mid-latitudes.
61HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The meanest and most onerous kind of forced labour was to carry loads known as 'Pund Begar'.
Statement II : The Begar forms in Chamba State were five in number called 'Panj Haqq'.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
The historical begar system of Himachal Pradesh consisted of various forms of forced labor. Statement I is correct because Pund Begar was the most onerous and meanest kind of forced labor, primarily involving the carrying of heavy baggage and loads. This obligation was heavily imposed on the lower agricultural classes who did not wear the sacred thread (juneo).
Statement II is correct because Chamba State traditionally recognized five types of begar obligations, which were collectively known as Panj Haqq. These included obligatory services like carrying administrative loads during royal tours, performing duties during state hunts (shikar), and providing other unpaid services to the state.
62Art and CultureHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The Gujjars of Himachal Pradesh are both Hindus and Muslims.
Statement II : Lahaulis and Spitianis have Mongoloid features.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
Explanation
The Gujjars of Himachal Pradesh belong to both Hindu and Muslim religious communities. While the nomadic and semi-nomadic Gujjars (often referred to as Van or Ban Gujjars) are predominantly Muslim, the permanently settled Gujjars in regions like Una and Bilaspur are mostly Hindu.
The Lahaulis and Spitianis reside in the high-altitude trans-Himalayan border district of Lahaul and Spiti. Ethnically, these communities have distinct Mongoloid physical features, reflecting their historical and cultural integration with Tibet and adjoining regions.
63GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Rohtang Pass lies in Dhauladhar ranges.
Statement II: Kunzum Pass is famous as Valley of Shadows.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
Explanation
Statement I is incorrect because the Rohtang Pass is situated on the eastern end of the Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas, connecting the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys, rather than in the Dhauladhar range.
Statement II is incorrect because the Pin Parvati Pass, which links the Parvati Valley in Kullu with the Pin Valley in Spiti, is famously known as the Valley of Shadows. Kunzum Pass, on the other hand, is a high mountain pass that connects the Lahaul Valley and Spiti Valley.
64Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements regarding the administrative structure of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th Century :
Statement I : Tehsils were divided into waziris, and waziris into phatis.
Statement II : Each phati was further divided into kothis.
Choose the correct option :
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Answer: (A) Both statements are correct
Explanation
The administrative hierarchy of Kullu tehsil at the end of the 19th century, as documented in J.B. Lyall's Land Revenue Settlement of the Kangra District (1874), ran: tehsil → waziris → phatis → kothis, making Statement I (waziris divided into phatis) and Statement II (phatis further divided into kothis) both correct.
65Economy
Arrange the following states with share of women-led MSMEs during 2024 from highest to lowest :
(1) Tamil Nadu
(2) West Bengal
(3) Telangana
(4) Karnataka
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Explanation
According to Udyam Registration data for 2024, Tamil Nadu leads all states with the highest share of women-led MSMEs (approximately 12%), followed by West Bengal, Telangana, and Karnataka in descending order. This matches option A: (1), (2), (3), (4).
66Economy
Arrange the following schemes of Government of India from newest to oldest :
(1) Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana
(2) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes
(3) Atal Bhujal Yojana
(4) Stand-up India Yojana
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2), (3), (1), (4)
Explanation
The chronological order of the central government schemes from the newest to the oldest is determined by their respective launch dates.
The Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats and Tangible Incomes (MISHTI) is the newest scheme, launched on June 5, 2023, with the goal of expanding mangrove cover along India's coastline.
The Atal Bhujal Yojana is the next, launched on December 25, 2019, as a groundwater management scheme aimed at addressing water-stressed regions through community-led water security plans.
The Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana, also known as Saubhagya, was launched on September 25, 2017, with the objective of achieving universal household electrification.
The Stand-up India Yojana is the oldest of the listed schemes, launched on April 5, 2016, to facilitate bank loans between ₹10 lakh and ₹1 crore to promote entrepreneurship among women and Scheduled Caste or Scheduled Tribe communities.
67History
Arrange these events related to Modern Indian History in chronological order :
(1) Ganpati Festival started by Tilak
(2) Appointment of a Police Commission Chaired by Andrew Fraser
(3) Shivaji Mahotsav started by Tilak
(4) Appointment of Hunter Education Commission
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (4), (1), (3), (2)
Explanation
The correct chronological order of the given events begins with the appointment of the Hunter Education Commission in 1882 under the Viceroyalty of Lord Ripon to review the state of education in India. This was followed by Bal Gangadhar Tilak starting the Ganpati Festival in 1893 as a means to foster national unity and public spirit. Tilak later initiated the Shivaji Mahotsav in 1895 to encourage nationalist pride through the historical legacy of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. Finally, the Police Commission chaired by Sir Andrew Fraser was appointed in 1902 by Lord Curzon to review and reform the administration of police forces in British India. This timeline establishes the sequence as (4), (1), (3), (2).
68History
Arrange these Governor General/Viceroy of British India in chronological order.
(1) Lord Auckland
(2) Lord Ellenborough
(3) Lord Lansdowne
(4) Lord Elgin-I
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)
Explanation
The chronological sequence of these Governors-General and Viceroys of British India is determined by their respective tenures in office. Lord Auckland served as the Governor-General of India from 1836 to 1842. He was succeeded by Lord Ellenborough, who held the post from 1842 to 1844. Lord Elgin-I later served as the Viceroy of India from 1862 to 1863. Lord Lansdowne served as the Viceroy of India at a later period from 1888 to 1894. This timeline establishes the correct chronological order as Lord Auckland, Lord Ellenborough, Lord Elgin-I, and Lord Lansdowne.
69Geography
Arrange the following uplands of peninsular India from South to North :
(1) Palghat
(2) Javadi Hills
(3) Bhorghat
(4) Rajmahal Hills
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Explanation
Palghat Gap is located in the Western Ghats between Kerala and Tamil Nadu at approximately 10.8° N latitude.
Javadi Hills are located in the Eastern Ghats in northern Tamil Nadu at approximately 12.6° N latitude.
Bhorghat is a mountain pass in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra at approximately 18.8° N latitude.
Rajmahal Hills are located in Jharkhand in northeastern India at approximately 25.0° N latitude.
Arranging these peninsular uplands from South to North yields the sequence of Palghat, Javadi Hills, Bhorghat, and Rajmahal Hills.
70Geography
Arrange the following tiger reserves of India from North to South :
(1) Corbett
(2) Valmiki
(3) Indrawati
(4) Periyar
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Answer: (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Explanation
The correct arrangement of the tiger reserves from North to South is determined by their respective geographical latitudes.
Corbett Tiger Reserve is located in Uttarakhand at an approximate latitude of 29.53° N.
Valmiki Tiger Reserve lies in Bihar at an approximate latitude of 27.35° N.
Indrawati Tiger Reserve is situated in Chhattisgarh at an approximate latitude of 19.13° N.
Periyar Tiger Reserve is situated further south in Kerala at an approximate latitude of 9.46° N.
This geographical placement establishes the correct sequence from North to South as Corbett (1), Valmiki (2), Indrawati (3), and Periyar (4).
71History
Arrange the following freedom movement events in order of their happenings :
(1) INA Trial
(2) Quit India Movement
(3) Civil Disobedience Movement
(4) Non-Cooperation Movement
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Answer: (D) (4), (3), (2), (1)
Explanation
The events of the Indian freedom struggle occurred in the following chronological sequence.
The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched in 1920 under the leadership of Mahatma Gandhi following the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the Khilafat Movement.
The Civil Disobedience Movement began in 1930 with the historic Dandi March led by Mahatma Gandhi to break the salt laws.
The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942, demanding an immediate end to British rule in India with the slogan Do or Die.
The Indian National Army trials, or the Red Fort trials, were held between November 1945 and May 1946 to prosecute officers of the Azad Hind Fauj.
72Economy
Arrange the following by the year they became operational in India's financial sector :
(1) Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS)
(2) National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
(3) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
(4) Account Aggregator Framework
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Explanation
The financial sector initiatives became operational in India in the following chronological order:
Real-Time Gross Settlement (RTGS) was introduced by the Reserve Bank of India in March 2004 as a continuous, real-time settlement system for high-value transactions.
National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT) went live in November 2005 to handle nation-wide retail fund transfers in half-hourly batches on a deferred net settlement basis.
Unified Payments Interface (UPI) was launched in April 2016 by the National Payments Corporation of India to enable instant real-time bank-to-bank transactions on mobile devices.
The Account Aggregator Framework became operational in September 2021 to facilitate secure, consent-based digital sharing of financial information among regulated financial institutions.
73Economy
Arrange the following monetary policy tools by the order in which RBI typically uses them to control inflation :
(1) Open Market Operations (OMO)
(2) Repo Rate Hike
(3) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Adjustment
(4) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) Adjustment
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Answer: (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)
Explanation
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) utilizes a mix of direct and indirect quantitative instruments to control inflation by regulating systemic liquidity and credit flow. These tools are typically deployed in an order that moves from the most flexible, market-friendly signaling rates to the most rigid and structurally disruptive reserve requirements.
First, the RBI implements a Repo Rate Hike (2). As the primary policy signaling rate under the Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF), adjusting the Repo Rate is the most frequently used and flexible tool. Raising it increases the cost of borrowing for commercial banks, which subsequently raises lending rates for businesses and consumers, cooling aggregate demand and inflation.
Second, the RBI conducts Open Market Operations (OMO) (1) by selling government securities in the open market. This allows the central bank to absorb durable liquidity on a tactical basis to align overall market liquidity with its tight monetary policy stance.
Third, the RBI adjusts the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (4). Unlike cash reserves, the liquid assets maintained under SLR (such as government securities) earn interest for the banks, making an SLR hike relatively less punitive than a cash-based adjustment.
Fourth, the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Adjustment (3) is utilized. This is the most restrictive and direct tool in the RBI's arsenal. Increasing the CRR forces banks to deposit a larger fraction of their liquid funds with the RBI as cash without earning any interest. Because this directly locks up idle cash and severely impacts bank profitability and credit creation, it is typically used as a tool of last resort during persistent inflationary pressures.
74Economy
Arrange the following items in descending order as percentage of GDP in India :
(1) Gross Fiscal Deficit
(2) Gross Domestic Capital Formation
(3) Central Government Debt
(4) Gross Tax Revenue
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Answer: (A) (3), (2), (4), (1)
Explanation
The components as a percentage of GDP in India for recent fiscal years (around FY 2023-24 and FY 2024-25) are as follows:
Central Government Debt (3) is the highest component, consistently hovering around 56% to 58% of GDP.
Gross Domestic Capital Formation (2) represents the investment rate of the economy and stands at approximately 31% to 33% of GDP.
Gross Tax Revenue (4) of the Central Government is around 11% to 12% of GDP.
Gross Fiscal Deficit (1) of the Central Government is the smallest of these components, representing around 5% to 6% of GDP as part of the ongoing fiscal consolidation path.
Arranging these items in descending order (from highest to lowest percentage of GDP) gives the sequence (3), (2), (4), (1).
75Economy
Arrange the following states in descending order as per Worker Population Ratio (WPR) of all ages according to PLFS 2023-24 report :
(1) Punjab
(2) Himachal Pradesh
(3) Haryana
(4) Uttarakhand
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Answer: (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)
Explanation
According to PLFS 2023-24 data on Worker Population Ratio (all ages), Himachal Pradesh ranks highest among the four states, followed by Uttarakhand, then Punjab, and then Haryana in descending order, which corresponds to the sequence (2), (4), (1), (3) — option (b).
76Geography
Arrange the following ecological hotspots of the World from West to East : (1) Tropical Andes (2) Upper Guinean Forests (3) Eastern Medagaskar (4) Melanesia (New Caledonia) Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)
Explanation
The geographic distribution of these global biodiversity hotspots from West to East is determined by their respective longitudinal positions on the world map.
Tropical Andes is situated in South America, spanning across the Andean mountain range through countries like Colombia, Ecuador, Peru, and Bolivia, at approximately 70° W to 80° W longitude.
Upper Guinean Forests are located in West Africa, extending through countries such as Guinea, Sierra Leone, Liberia, Côte d'Ivoire, and Ghana, at approximately 13° W to 1° E longitude.
Eastern Madagascar is located in the Indian Ocean off the eastern coast of mainland Africa, at approximately 47° E to 50° E longitude.
Melanesia (New Caledonia) lies in the southwest Pacific Ocean, northeast of Australia, at approximately 165° E to 167° E longitude.
Arranging these coordinates from West to East across the prime meridian yields the sequential order of Tropical Andes (1), Upper Guinean Forests (2), Eastern Madagascar (3), and Melanesia (New Caledonia) (4).
77Geography
Arrange the following National Parks of India from West to East :
(1) Kanha (2) Vansada (3) Kaziranga (4) Bhittarkanika
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Answer: (C) (2), (1), (4), (3)
Explanation
The geographical coordinates of the given National Parks from west to east determine their correct chronological order.
Vansada National Park is located in the Navsari district of Gujarat at approximately 73.5° E longitude, making it the westernmost among the given options.
Kanha National Park is situated in the Mandla and Balaghat districts of Madhya Pradesh at approximately 80.6° E longitude.
Bhitarkanika National Park is located in the Kendrapara district of Odisha along the eastern coast at approximately 86.9° E longitude.
Kaziranga National Park lies in the Golaghat and Nagaon districts of Assam in northeastern India at approximately 93.2° E longitude, placing it the furthest east.
Arranging these locations from West to East yields the sequence Vansada (2), Kanha (1), Bhitarkanika (4), and Kaziranga (3).
78Science and Technology
Arrange the following substances in increasing order of their pH value :
(1) Gastric Juice (2) Milk of Magnesia
(3) Lemon Juice (4) Pure Water
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Answer: (D) (1), (3), (4), (2)
Explanation
The pH scale ranges from 0 to 14, measuring the acidity or alkalinity of a substance. Gastric juice is highly acidic with a pH of about 1.2 to 1.8. Lemon juice is also acidic, having a pH of approximately 2.2 to 2.4. Pure water is neutral and has a pH of exactly 7.0. Milk of magnesia, an antacid consisting of magnesium hydroxide suspended in water, is basic with a pH of around 10.5. Arranging these substances from lowest pH to highest pH gives the sequence Gastric Juice (1), Lemon Juice (3), Pure Water (4), and Milk of Magnesia (2).
79Economy
Which position India got in the Global Innovation Index 2024 ?
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Answer: (B) 39th
Explanation
India secured the 39th position among 133 global economies in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2024. Released annually by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO), the index measures a country's innovation capacity and performance. This milestone reflects India's continuous improvement, climbing from the 81st rank in 2015, driven by strong growth in key areas like ICT services exports, venture capital received, and intangible assets. India also retains its first-place ranking in the Central and Southern Asia region and remains the top-performing lower-middle-income economy for innovation.
80Geography
Arrange the following tectonic plates of world from North to South :
(1) Scotia plate
(3) Nazca plate
(2) Cocos plate - South America
(4) Juan De Fuca plate - Fuco ocean
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Answer: (D) (4), (2), (3), (1)
Explanation
Juan de Fuca plate is situated in the northeastern Pacific Ocean off the coast of the Pacific Northwest region of North America, lying approximately between 40° N and 50° N latitude.
Cocos plate is an oceanic tectonic plate located beneath the Pacific Ocean off the west coast of Central America, positioned roughly between 5° N and 15° N latitude.
Nazca plate is an oceanic plate in the eastern Pacific Ocean basin off the west coast of South America, spanning from near the equator down to about 45° S latitude.
Scotia plate is located in the southern South Atlantic and Southern Ocean between South America and Antarctica, situated far south at approximately 55° S to 60° S latitude.
81HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange these foreign travellers who visited Himachal Pradesh in chronological order :
(1) Captain Munde
(2) Baron Hugel
(3) J.B. Fraser
(4) Alexander Gerard
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Answer: (C) (3), (4), (1), (2)
Explanation
The chronological order of the foreign travellers who visited Himachal Pradesh is determined by their respective years of visit:
J.B. Fraser travelled to the Himachal region in 1815, exploring the Western Himalayas and the sources of the Ganga and Yamuna rivers following the Anglo-Gurkha War.
Alexander Gerard visited the region in 1817 to conduct surveys of the Sutlej Valley and Simla.
Captain Mundy visited Shimla in 1828 while serving as the aide-de-camp to the Commander-in-Chief Lord Combermere.
Baron Charles von Hugel, an Austrian explorer and botanist, arrived in Shimla and travelled through the hill states in 1835.
82HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements :
(1) The first step in rural electrification was taken on January 14, 1958 when lights were switched on at Sundernagar.
(2) At the time of electrification of Sundernagar in Mandi district, its population was nearly 12,000 when its 20 nearby villages in fertile Balh Valley were given electrification.
(3) The electrification programme in the state was divided into two parts (i) Local power generation was proposed in high valleys remote from the district headquarters (ii) The lower belts of the state near Punjab were to get electricity from the Nangal and Uhl river feeder.
(4) The Shanan powerhouse is currently under the control of Punjab State Electricity Board and whole of the revenue goes to Punjab Government.
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Answer: (A) Only (1) and (3) are correct
Explanation
The first step in the historical journey of rural electrification in Himachal Pradesh commenced on January 14, 1958, when electricity was successfully introduced and lights were switched on at Sundernagar in the Mandi district, making statement (1) correct.
The state's early electrification strategy was systematically divided into two distinct components, making statement (3) correct. The first part proposed local, decentralized power generation through micro-hydel systems for remote and high-altitude mountain valleys that were situated far from district administrative hubs. The second part focused on supplying the lower-lying regions of the state bordering Punjab with grid-based power sourced directly from the Nangal and Uhl river hydroelectric systems.
83HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match the representative of princely hill states who participated as their representative of population for the constitution of Himachal Pradesh into a single state :
| List I (Representative Name) | List II (Name of the Princely State) |
|---|---|
| (a) Surat Ram Prakash | (i) Jubbal |
| (b) Hira Singh Pal | (ii) Bhajji |
| (c) Bhaskara Nand | (iii) Baghat |
| (d) Salig Ram Tejta | (iv) Theog |
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Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
Explanation
The representative names from the princely hill states match their respective states as follows:
Surat Ram Prakash is associated with Theog (iv). He was appointed as the Prime Minister of the independent democratic government established in the Theog state in August 1947, which was the first hill state to set up a responsible citizens' administration.
Hira Singh Pal is associated with Baghat (iii). He was a prominent leader of the Praja Mandal movement who actively represented the interests of the people of the Baghat region, particularly around Solan, during the integration of the hill states into a single administrative unit.
Bhaskara Nand is associated with Bhajji (ii). Pandit Bhaskara Nand was one of the foremost freedom fighters who founded the Praja Mandal in the erstwhile Bhajji state and played a crucial role in bringing democratic governance to this region.
Salig Ram Tejta is associated with Jubbal (i). He represented the public interest and the population of the Jubbal princely state in the historical processes that culminated in the integration and creation of Himachal Pradesh.
84Science and Technology
What is the audible range of sound for the average human ear ?
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Answer: (A) 20 Hz to 20 kHz
Explanation
The audible range of hearing for an average human ear is from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. Sound waves within this frequency spectrum are capable of stimulating the receptors in the human cochlea, allowing the brain to process them as audible sound. While this upper limit of the audible frequency range typically decreases as humans age, 20 Hz to 20 kHz remains the standard baseline range for healthy young human hearing.
85Geography
Consider the following statements :
(1) India has a total of 89 Ramsar sites on February 2, 2025.
(2) Udhwa lake is the first Ramsar site of Jharkhand.
(3) Khecheopalri Ramsar site is in Tamil Nadu.
(4) World Wetland Day 2025 was organised and celebrated at Sundarbans in West Bengal.
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Answer: (D) (1) and (2) only
Explanation
On February 2, 2025, on the occasion of World Wetlands Day, India added four new wetlands to the Ramsar list, bringing the country's total count of Ramsar sites to 89. Among these newly designated sites is the Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary, located in the Sahibganj district, which became the first ever Ramsar site of Jharkhand.
86Art and Culture
Consider the following statements :
(1) 38th National Games held in Patna.
(2) 39th National Games will be held in Meghalaya.
(3) The mascot for the 38th National Games was Mauli, inspired by the Himalayan Momal.
(4) Haryana was the top performer in 38th National Games.
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Answer: (A) (2) and (3) only
Explanation
The 39th National Games are scheduled to be hosted by the state of Meghalaya, which makes statement (2) correct.
The official mascot for the 38th National Games held in Uttarakhand was Mauli, inspired by the Himalayan Monal, the state bird of Uttarakhand, making statement (3) correct.
87History
Consider the following statements :
(1) Mir Mahboob Ali Khan, the 6th Nizam of Hyderabad was the only ruler of India to be given the title "His Exalted Highness".
(2) On the basis of Mountbatten plan, the British Parliament passed the 'Indian Independence Act' 1947 on 28 July 1947.
(3) The Raja of Dhaulpur Riyasat told Mountbatten with tears in his eyes 'that this has broken the old relationship of our ancestors and the ancestors of your Emperor which was going on since 1765'.
(4) The Cripps proposal was a failed attempt to treat a child who was not even born : — Pattabhi Sitaramiya.
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Answer: (B) (3) and (4) only
Explanation
The Raja of Dholpur, Maharaja Udaibhan Singh, was highly emotional during the process of accession of the princely states. He tearfully told Lord Mountbatten that signing the Instrument of Accession broke an alliance between his ancestors and the ancestors of the British King/Emperor which had existed since 1765.
Additionally, the Cripps Mission of 1942, led by Stafford Cripps, was heavily criticized by Indian leaders. Bhogaraju Pattabhi Sitaramayya, a prominent freedom fighter and the official historian of the Indian National Congress, famously criticized the proposal by describing it as a still-born child of the British Parliament, or a failed attempt to treat a child who was not even born.
88History
Consider the following statements :
(1) No Viceroy in modern times has been subjected to a fiercer criticism than Lytton — P.E. Roberts.
(2) In the year 1907, D.K. Karve founded Indian Women's University in Mumbai.
(3) The South Indian Liberal Federation later came to be known as the Justice Party.
(4) Vipin Chandra Pal founded the 'United Indian Patriotic Association'.
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Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only
Explanation
Statement 1 is correct because the historian P.E. Roberts wrote that no Viceroy in modern times has been subjected to a fiercer criticism than Lord Lytton, whose administration was heavily criticized for the Vernacular Press Act of 1878, the Arms Act, and his aggressive Afghan policy.
Statement 3 is correct because the South Indian Liberal Federation, formed in 1916 by leaders like T.M. Nair and P. Theagaraya Chetty to represent non-Brahmin interests, published an English daily newspaper named Justice, which led to the organization becoming widely known as the Justice Party.
Statement 2 is incorrect because Dhondo Keshav Karve founded the Indian Women's University in Pune in 1916, not in 1907.
Statement 4 is incorrect because the United Indian Patriotic Association was established in 1888 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and Raja Shiv Prasad of Benares, not by Bipin Chandra Pal.
89Polity and Governance
In which year "The Co-operative Credit Societies Act" was passed ?
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Answer: (C) 1904
Explanation
The Co-operative Credit Societies Act was passed in 1904 during the tenure of Lord Curzon as the Viceroy of India. This landmark legislation was enacted based on the recommendations of a committee presided over by Sir Edward Law to promote thrift, self-help, and cooperation among agriculturists, artisans, and persons of limited means. It paved the way for the establishment of cooperative credit societies, providing them with legal recognition and facilitating access to institutional credit at reasonable rates to relieve rural populations from the clutches of local moneylenders.
90Economy
Consider the following statements :
(1) Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was launched in 1996-97.
(2) Command Area Development Programme was taken up in 2014-15
(3) Hydrology Project was launched by Government of India with the World Bank assistance in 1974-75
(4) Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana was launched during 2015-16.
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Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only
Explanation
The Accelerated Irrigation Benefits Programme was initiated during 1996-97 to provide central assistance to accelerate the implementation of major and medium irrigation projects. The Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana was launched during 2015-16 to improve water-use efficiency, expand cultivable area under assured irrigation, and integrate water sources and distribution.
91Geography
Consider the following statements :
(1) The cool dry season lasts from mid-September to mid-December in India.
(2) The cyclones in October form over the Bay of Bengal between 8° and 14° N.
(3) The Coromandel coastal region receives more than 90 percent of its rainfall during summer season.
(4) October and November months represent a primary rainy season in Kerala.
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Answer: (B) (2) and (4) only
Explanation
The cyclones in October form over the Bay of Bengal between 8° N and 14° N. During this month, the Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone shifts southward, and the temperature of the sea surface remains high, typically above 28°C. This combination of atmospheric and oceanic factors creates highly favorable conditions for cyclogenesis in this specific latitudinal range, leading to the formation of severe tropical cyclones that move towards the Indian coast.
Additionally, October and November represent a primary rainy season in Kerala. Known locally as Thulavarsham, this period marks the active phase of the retreating or Northeast Monsoon. It brings substantial and reliable rainfall to the state, making it a critical rainy season alongside the Southwest Monsoon.
92Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(1) Constitutional Draft Committee had seven members.
(2) B.R. Ambedkar was Chairman of Drafts Committee.
(3) Jawaharlal Nehru was one of the member of that committee.
(4) Mohammad Saadulla was not member of that committee.
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Answer: (D) (1) and (2) only
Explanation
The Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly was set up on August 29, 1947, with seven members under the chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar. The other six members of this committee were N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar, Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer, Dr. K.M. Munshi, Syed Mohammad Saadulla, N. Madhava Rau, and T.T. Krishnamachari. Jawaharlal Nehru was not a member of the Drafting Committee. Syed Mohammad Saadulla was a member of the committee, which makes statement (4) incorrect and statement (3) incorrect, leaving statements (1) and (2) as the only correct statements.
93History
Consider the following statements :
(1) INA trial was first initiated against Shah Nawaz, Prem Sahgal and G.S. Dhillon.
(2) Subhash Chandra Bose was main leader of defence team.
(3) This trial was held in a secretive manner.
(4) From Congress Party Jawaharlal Nehru, Tej Bahadure Sapru and K.N. Katju ready for defence of these INA soldiers.
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Answer: (C) (1) and (4) only
Explanation
The Indian National Army (INA) trials, also known as the Red Fort trials, began in November 1945. The first trial was a joint court-martial initiated against three senior officers of the INA: Colonel Prem Kumar Sahgal, Colonel Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon, and Major General Shah Nawaz Khan. This makes statement 1 correct.
To defend the accused INA soldiers, the Indian National Congress established the INA Defence Committee. A powerful legal defense team was mobilized, which included eminent lawyers such as Bhulabhai Desai, Tej Bahadur Sapru, Kailash Nath Katju, Asaf Ali, and Jawaharlal Nehru. This makes statement 4 correct.
94Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(1) Article 13(2) provides reservations to backward classes.
(2) Article 15(4) and 16(4) provide reservations for OBCs.
(3) Article 15(6) and 16(6) provide reservations to EWS of society.
(4) Article 14 provides reservation for SC | STs.
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Answer: (B) (2) and (3) only
Explanation
Article 15(4) allows the state to make special provisions for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens, while Article 16(4) empowers the state to make provisions for the reservation of appointments or posts in public employment in favor of any backward class of citizens that is not adequately represented in the state services. These provisions form the constitutional basis for reservations for Other Backward Classes (OBCs). Additionally, Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) were inserted into the Constitution via the 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019, enabling the state to provide up to 10% reservation in educational institutions and public employment for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of society.
95Economy
Which of the following statements about India's inflation trends in 2024 are correct ?
(1) CPI inflation fell to 3.65% in August 2024.
(2) Core inflation remained above 4% throughout FY 2024-25.
(3) WPI inflation turned negative in Q1 2024-25.
(4) Food inflation was the primary driver of CPI increases.
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Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only
Explanation
Consumer Price Index (CPI) based retail inflation in India fell to 3.65% in August 2024, which was the second-lowest level recorded in five years and remained well within the Reserve Bank of India's target range of 2% to 6%.
Additionally, food inflation (measured by the Consumer Food Price Index) remained highly elevated throughout 2024 due to persistent supply-side shocks and extreme weather conditions affecting key items like vegetables and pulses. As a result, food inflation served as the primary driver of overall CPI increases, while core inflation (excluding food and fuel) remained subdued.
96Economy
Which of the following statements about India's startup ecosystem in 2024 are correct?
(1) India had over 1.17 lakh recognized startups.
(2) The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme disbursed Rs. 1,000 crore.
(3) Unicorn startups doubled in number since 2020.
(4) The National Startup Advisory Council was dissolved in 2024.
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Answer: (C) (1) and (2) only
Explanation
By early 2024, India had officially recognized over 1.17 lakh startups under the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), creating a highly dynamic entrepreneurial ecosystem across various sectors and regions.
The Startup India Seed Fund Scheme (SISFS) was introduced by the central government with an outlay of Rs. 1,000 crore to provide early-stage financial assistance to eligible startups through selected incubators. This funding supports proof of concept, prototype development, product trials, and market-entry.
97Geography
Consider the following statements :
(1) Soil is important for life on earth.
(2) Removal of land surface by ice is known as erosion.
(3) Clay and loam soil is used to make pots.
(4) Clayey soil is used to grow cotton crop.
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Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only
Explanation
Statement (1) is correct: soil is fundamental to all terrestrial life. Statement (4) is correct: clayey soil (specifically black/Regur soil) is explicitly identified in NCERT geography as the primary soil type for cotton cultivation in India. Statement (2) is imprecise — the process is specifically glacial erosion, not simply 'erosion' — and Statement (3) is incorrect because loam soil lacks the plasticity required for pottery, which uses clay specifically.
98Science and Technology
Consider the following statements :
(1) A concave mirror always forms a real image.
(2) A real image cannot be obtained on a screen.
(3) A concave lens always form a virtual image.
(4) White light is composed of seven colours.
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Answer: (C) (3) and (4) only
Explanation
Statement 3 is correct because a concave lens is a diverging lens. When light rays pass through it, they diverge away from the principal axis, and the refracted rays appear to meet at a virtual focus. Consequently, for any real object, a concave lens always forms a virtual, erect, and diminished image.
Statement 4 is correct because white light is polychromatic and is composed of seven constituent colours, namely violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, and red. This composition is famously demonstrated by the dispersion of white light into a spectrum when it passes through a glass prism.
99Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements :
(1) World Day of Social Justice is celebrated on February 28.
(2) World Day of Social Justice 2025 theme was "Empowering Social Protection".
(3) World Day of Social Justice was established by UNGA in 2007.
(4) World Day of Social Justice is commemorated to combat unemployment, social exclusion and poverty.
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Answer: (C) (3) and (4) only
Explanation
The United Nations General Assembly established the World Day of Social Justice on November 26, 2007, through resolution A/RES/62/10, making statement 3 correct. The primary objective of commemorating this day is to raise awareness and promote global efforts to tackle poverty, achieve full employment and decent work, and combat social exclusion, validating statement 4.