HPAS2023General Studies Paper I✓ Every question solved

HPAS Prelims 2023 General Studies Paper I with Answers & Explanations

All 96 questions from this paper, each with the correct answer and a step-by-step explanation. Tap an option to check yourself, or open the answer.

96
Questions
5
Subjects
19
Himachal Pradesh-specific
100%
Answers + explanations

Where the questions came from

  • Geography2728%
  • Economy2324%
  • History2021%
  • Polity and Governance1718%
  • Science and Technology99%
1GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Shinku-La tunnel pertains to which of the following ?
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Answer: (B) Ladakh

Explanation

The Shinku-La tunnel is a 4.1 km long highway tunnel project constructed by the Border Roads Organisation under the Shinku-La pass, which stands at an altitude of approximately 15,800 feet. Situated on the Nimu–Padum–Darcha road link, the tunnel serves as a crucial link connecting the Lahaul Valley of Himachal Pradesh with the Zanskar Valley of Ladakh. This project is highly strategic as it ensures all-weather, year-round road connectivity to the region of Ladakh.

2Polity and Governance
Digital India Act, 2023 will replace which of the following ?
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Answer: (C) Information Technology Act, 2000

Explanation

The proposed Digital India Act, 2023 is designed to replace the Information Technology Act, 2000. The IT Act, 2000 was enacted during the early days of the internet in India, focusing primarily on e-commerce transactions and basic electronic records. Due to rapid technological advancements, the rise of the digital economy, and the emergence of modern challenges like artificial intelligence, social media intermediaries, deepfakes, and complex cybercrimes, the legislative framework required a complete overhaul to ensure a safe, trusted, and accountable digital ecosystem.

3History
"Jivaka Chintamani" was written by ....................
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Answer: (B) Tiruttakkatevar

Explanation

Jivaka Chintamani, also known as Civaka Cintamani, is a classical Tamil epic poem written by the Jain monk Tiruttakkatevar. It is revered as one of the Five Great Epics of Tamil literature. The epic, composed in the 10th century, consists of 13 cantos or books called Ilambagams and narrates the life, adventures, and ultimate spiritual liberation of the prince Jivaka. Tiruttakkatevar used the viruttam meter for the first time in Tamil epic literature, setting a stylistic precedent for subsequent epic poets.

4Geography
Bangar alluvium soils are also known as :
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Answer: (B) Kankars

Explanation

Bangar alluvium represents the older alluvial soil deposited in the upland regions of the Indo-Gangetic plains, well above the reach of regular river floods. This soil is characterized by a high concentration of impure calcium carbonate deposits and calcareous concretions, which are locally referred to as kankars. Because of the dominant presence of these stony nodular formations throughout its profile, the Bangar soil is also widely known as kankars.

5Geography
Jhelum river rises from :
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Answer: (C) Verinag spring

Explanation

The Jhelum river originates from the Verinag Spring, which is situated at the foothills of the Pir Panjal range in the southeastern part of the Kashmir Valley in Jammu and Kashmir. From this perennial spring, the river flows north-northwest through the Kashmir Valley, passing through Srinagar and Wular Lake, before cutting through a deep gorge in the Pir Panjal range to enter Pakistan.

6Polity and Governance
Under which Constitutional amendment reservations to Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) was given ?
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Answer: (B) 103rd Amendment

Explanation

The 103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019 introduced a 10% reservation for the Economically Weaker Sections (EWS) of citizens in admission to educational institutions and recruitment in civil posts and services. This amendment inserted Article 15(6) and Article 16(6) into the Constitution of India, empowering the government to provide reservations based on economic backwardness.

7Polity and Governance
Under which Article of the Constitution a Speaker allows any member to speak in Parliament in his/her mother language ?
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Answer: (C) Article 120(1)

Explanation

Article 120(1) of the Constitution of India regulates the language to be used in Parliament. While the article generalises that parliamentary business must be transacted in Hindi or in English, its proviso explicitly empowers the Speaker of the House of the People or the Chairman of the Council of States to permit any member who cannot adequately express themselves in either of those languages to address the House in their mother tongue.

8Economy
Which organisation releases the SDG India-Index, which comprehensively documents the progress made by India's States and Union Territories towards implementing the 2030 SDG targets ?
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Answer: (B) NITI Aayog

Explanation

The Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) India Index is developed and released by NITI Aayog. Launched in December 2018, the index is constructed in collaboration with the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, the United Nations in India, and the Global Green Growth Institute. It tracks the progress of all Indian States and Union Territories on a set of indicators aligned with the United Nations Sustainable Development Goals for 2030. By scoring and ranking the subnational units, it promotes cooperative and competitive federalism and helps identify key focus areas for targeted policy interventions.

9Economy
What is the correct ascending order of Indian States on the basis of the poverty headcount ratio (PHR) as per the National Multidimensional Poverty Index measured by NITI Aayog ?
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Answer: (A) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar

Explanation

According to NITI Aayog's National Multidimensional Poverty Index (Progress Review 2023), based on the National Family Health Survey-5 (NFHS-5, 2019–21), the poverty headcount ratios (PHR) for the given states are:

Rajasthan: 15.31% Madhya Pradesh: 20.63% Uttar Pradesh: 22.93% Bihar: 33.76%

Arranging these states in ascending order (from lowest to highest poverty headcount ratio) gives:

Rajasthan < Madhya Pradesh < Uttar Pradesh < Bihar

This same ascending order holds true for the baseline National Multidimensional Poverty Index (2021) based on NFHS-4 (2015–16) data, where the headcount ratios were:

Rajasthan: 29.46% Madhya Pradesh: 36.57% Uttar Pradesh: 37.68% Bihar: 51.89%

10Geography
Lithosphere is known as
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Answer: (A) Abiotic component

Explanation

The lithosphere is the rigid, outermost shell of the Earth, consisting of the crust and the upper mantle. In an ecosystem, the environment is divided into biotic and abiotic components. Because the lithosphere consists entirely of non-living physical and chemical elements like soil, rocks, and minerals, it is classified as an abiotic component. These non-living components provide the physical space, essential nutrients, and minerals necessary to support biotic life.

11Polity and Governance
First comprehensive population policy was announced by Government of India on :
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Answer: (C) 16 April, 1976

Explanation

The first comprehensive National Population Policy of India was announced on 16 April, 1976 under the Fifth Five-Year Plan. It shifted India's demographic strategy toward a more structured and target-oriented approach to curb rapid population growth. Key features of this landmark policy included raising the minimum legal age of marriage to 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys, freezing the allocation of parliamentary seats and central assistance to states at 1971 census levels until 2001, and introducing graded monetary incentives for voluntary sterilization.

12Geography
Institute of Forest Biodiversity is located at :
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Answer: (C) Hyderabad

Explanation

The Institute of Forest Biodiversity (IFB) is a premier research institution functioning under the Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE), which is an autonomous council under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, Government of India. It is located in Hyderabad, Telangana, and focuses on research related to forest biodiversity conservation, tree improvement, agroforestry, and climate change in the southern region of India.

13Economy
The greatest worldwide use of water is for :
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Answer: (A) Irrigation

Explanation

Global freshwater withdrawal is heavily dominated by agricultural activities, with irrigation being the primary driver. On a global scale, agriculture accounts for approximately 70% of all freshwater withdrawals, with some developing regions using upwards of 90% of their water resources for this purpose. This immense volume is required to sustain crop production, manage soil moisture, and maintain food security for the global population.

14Geography
Which of the following is a biotic component ?
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Answer: (C) Animal

Explanation

Biotic components include all the living organisms present in an ecosystem. Animals are living organisms that perform vital life processes such as nutrition, respiration, reproduction, growth, and movement, which classifies them as a biotic component of the environment.

15Geography
International Day of Forests, 2023 pertains to the theme of :
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Answer: (B) Forests and Health

Explanation

The United Nations General Assembly proclaimed 21 March as the International Day of Forests in 2012 to celebrate and raise awareness of the importance of all types of forests. The theme chosen for the year 2023 was Forests and Health, celebrated under the campaign slogan Healthy forests for healthy people. This theme emphasizes the vital role that forests play in sustaining human health by purifying water and air, acting as a source of medicinal resources, providing food security, and improving mental and physical well-being through nature-based recreation.

16Geography
Temperate grasslands of Africa are known as :
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Answer: (B) The Velds

Explanation

The Velds are the temperate grasslands located in the southern part of Africa, specifically spanning across South Africa, Lesotho, Swaziland, Zimbabwe, and Botswana. They consist of expansive rolling plateaus with elevations ranging from 600 meters to over 1100 meters, bound by the Drakensberg Mountains on the east. These grasslands experience a mild, temperate climate influenced by the Indian Ocean, receiving moderate rainfall primarily during the summer months, which supports the growth of various nutritious grasses and red grass varieties well-suited for livestock farming.

17HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who was the first President of Himalayan Hill States Regional Council (formed in 1946) ?
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Answer: (C) Swami Purnanand

Explanation

The Himalayan Hill States Regional Council was established in January 1946 following the All India States Peoples' Conference held in Udaipur. It was created to streamline and coordinate the activities of various Praja Mandals operating in the hill regions. Swami Purnanand was elected as the first President of the council, which established its headquarters at Mandi.

18HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Dodra-Kwar revolt took place under the leadership of ....................
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Answer: (C) Ran Bahadur Singh

Explanation

The Dodra-Kwar revolt in Himachal Pradesh was led by Ran Bahadur Singh, who organised local resistance against the prevailing oppressive conditions. Shobha Ram is associated with other freedom and peasant movements in Himachal Pradesh but is not the recorded leader of the Dodra-Kwar revolt.

19Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Who became the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh for maximum times ?
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Answer: (B) Virbhadra Singh

Explanation

Virbhadra Singh holds the record for serving as the Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh for the maximum number of times. He was appointed to the post for six distinct terms, spanning over twenty-one years of service. His tenures as Chief Minister were from 1983 to 1985, 1985 to 1990, 1993 to 1998, a brief period in March 1998, 2003 to 2007, and 2012 to 2017. This makes him the longest-serving Chief Minister in the political history of the state.

20Economy
Winnowing refers to :
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Answer: (B) Separation of components from mixture

Explanation

Winnowing is a method used to separate the components of a mixture that have different weights. This process is commonly employed by farmers to separate lighter husk particles from heavier grains. The mixture is allowed to fall from a height, and the blowing wind or air carries the lighter husk particles away, while the heavier grain seeds fall vertically down to form a separate heap.

21Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Gati Shakti digital platform involves the creation of a common umbrella platform through which infrastructure projects can be planned and implemented. Statement II : Gati Shakti Digital platform is based on twelve pillars. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan is a digital platform that serves as a common umbrella portal to bring multiple ministries and departments together. This integration allows for the coordinated planning and seamless implementation of various multi-modal connectivity and infrastructure projects.

Statement II is incorrect because the Gati Shakti platform is based on six foundational pillars rather than twelve. These six pillars are comprehensiveness, prioritization, optimization, synchronization, analytical, and dynamic. These pillars guide the digital workflow to break departmental silos and enable holistic development across ministries.

22Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Honey Mission was launched in the year 2017. Statement II : Sweet Revolution promotes the apiculture in India. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Honey Mission was launched by the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC), under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises, in 2017 to promote beekeeping activities and generate self-sustaining employment opportunities in rural India.

Statement II is correct because the Sweet Revolution is a national initiative dedicated to promoting scientific beekeeping (apiculture) to accelerate the production of high-quality honey and other hive products like beeswax and royal jelly, which ultimately helps boost agricultural productivity and double farmers' income.

23History
Given below are two statements : Statement I : "The 1857 Revolt was a war of fanatic religionists against Christians" — Statement by Sir James Outram. Statement II : "The so called First National War of Independence of 1857- is neither first, nor National, nor a war of Independence." — Statement by R.C. Majumdar. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the characterisation of the 1857 Revolt as 'a war of fanatic religionists against Christians' is attributed to L.E.R. Rees, not Sir James Outram. Statement II is correct as R.C. Majumdar's conclusion that the 1857 uprising was 'neither first, nor National, nor a war of Independence' is his well-documented and widely cited scholarly position.

24History
Given below are two statements : Statement I : 'Samavartana'- is a category of Hindu Slaves. Statement II : 'Sankarvarman' - is considered as the founder of the Lohar Dynasty of Kashmir. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because Samavartana (also known as Snana) is one of the sixteen traditional Sanskaras (rites of passage) in Hinduism. It marks the formal graduation of a student and the completion of their education (Brahmacharya phase) at a Gurukul, signifying their readiness to enter the householder life (Grihasthashrama).

Statement II is incorrect because Sankaravarman was a ruler of the Utpala dynasty of Kashmir, succeeding his father Avantivarman, who founded the Utpala dynasty. The Lohara dynasty of Kashmir was founded by Sangramaraja (who ruled from 1003 to 1028 CE) after succeeding Queen Didda.

25Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements : Statement I : President can dissolve the Lok Sabha on the advice of Speaker. Statement II : Rajya Sabha under Article 312 enjoys special power to appoint members of Human Rights Commission. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because under Article 85(2)(b) of the Constitution of India, the President dissolves the Lok Sabha on the advice of the Cabinet or the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister, not on the advice of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Statement II is incorrect because Article 312 of the Constitution of India empowers the Rajya Sabha to pass a resolution to set up one or more All India Services common to the Union and the States. It does not deal with the appointment of members of the Human Rights Commission. The members of the National Human Rights Commission are appointed by the President of India on the recommendations of a high-powered committee headed by the Prime Minister.

26Polity and Governance
Given below are two statements : Statement I : National Flag was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 22 July, 1947. Statement II : Neelam Sanjiva Reddy has also worked as Speaker, Lok Sabha prior to his election as President of India. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Constituent Assembly of India adopted the National Flag in its meeting held on 22 July 1947, shortly before India achieved independence on 15 August 1947.

Statement II is correct because Neelam Sanjiva Reddy served as the Speaker of the Lok Sabha during two separate terms: from 1967 to 1969, and again in 1977. He resigned from the position of Speaker in 1977 to contest the presidential election and subsequently became the sixth President of India.

27Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Strong Sustainability Rule is a rule which requires a separate preservation of each category of critical asset, assuming these to be complements rather than substitutes. Statement II : Weak Sustainability is a rule which seeks to maintain the aggregate monetary value of the total stock of the assets, assuming a high degree of substitutability among the various asset types. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Strong sustainability operates under the assumption that different forms of capital, particularly natural capital and human-made capital, are complementary rather than substitutes. Under this framework, certain critical natural assets provide unique and irreplaceable ecological services. Therefore, the strong sustainability rule dictates that each category of critical asset must be preserved separately to avoid irreversible ecological degradation.

Weak sustainability is built on the assumption that natural capital and manufactured capital are highly substitutable. This perspective, often aligned with the Hartwick rule, posits that it is sufficient to maintain the aggregate monetary value of the total capital stock, which includes physical, human, and natural capital, constant or growing over time. Under this rule, natural resources can be depleted as long as they are replaced with an equivalent value of human-made or human capital.

28Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The theory of Unbalanced Growth was advocated by Prof. Hirschman. Statement II : The theory of Unbalanced Growth states that investment should be first made in certain core sectors of the economy which have a high degree of complementarity. Once, the process of growth is initiated, it will spread to other sectors through forward and backward linkages. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

The theory of unbalanced growth, formulated by Albert O. Hirschman in his seminal 1958 work, The Strategy of Economic Development, argues that deliberate imbalances should be created in the economy to accelerate growth. Hirschman advocated for concentrated investment in key strategic sectors rather than spreading scarce resources thinly across all sectors. This justifies Statement I.

These key sectors, primarily Social Overhead Capital (SOC) or Directly Productive Activities (DPA), possess high degrees of complementarity and generate strong forward and backward linkages. A backward linkage occurs when the growth of a core industry increases demand for inputs from other sectors. A forward linkage occurs when the output of a core industry acts as an input for other industries, reducing their production costs. These linkages create strong incentives and pressure for investment in other parts of the economy, propagating growth across the entire system. This justifies Statement II.

29Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The percentage of the population aged 65 years and above in India as of 2021, is around 6.2% of the Indian population. Statement II : The population growth rate in India as of 2021 is around 0.98%. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

According to global demographic databases, such as the World Bank and the United Nations Population Division (World Population Prospects), the percentage of India's population aged 65 years and above in 2021 was estimated to be around 6.2% to 6.5%. This highlights a gradual demographic shift towards an aging population.

Similarly, India's annual population growth rate has been on a steady decline, slipping below 1% in recent years. For the year 2021, the population growth rate was recorded at approximately 0.98% (ranging between 0.8% and 1.0% depending on the exact model and database revisions). Therefore, both Statement I and Statement II are accurate representations of India's demographic indicators as of 2021.

30Economy
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The percentage of the population that is employed in service sector in India as of 2021 is around 32% of the Indian population. Statement II : The percentage of the population that is employed in the industrial sector in India as of 2021 is around 30% of the Indian population. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) 2021-22 released by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, the Worker Population Ratio in India was approximately 39.8%, meaning only about 40% of the total Indian population was employed.

Statement I is incorrect because the service sector (including trade, hotels, transport, communications, and other services) employs about 29.6% of the active workforce, which constitutes only around 12% of the total Indian population.

Statement II is incorrect because the industrial sector (including mining, manufacturing, utilities, and construction) employs about 24.9% of the active workforce, which constitutes only around 10% of the total Indian population. Even if the statements referred to the percentage of the workforce rather than the total population, the actual figures of approximately 30% for services and 25% for industry deviate from the 32% and 30% claims, rendering both statements incorrect.

31Geography
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Kutch Biosphere Reserve is known for Indian wild ass. Statement II : Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is famous for Red Panda. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is correct because the Indian Wild Ass, also known as the khur, is native to the Little Rann of Kutch, which is part of the Kutch Biosphere Reserve in Gujarat. This region serves as the last remaining refuge for this endangered species in the wild.

Statement II is incorrect because the Red Panda is native to the high-altitude temperate forests of the Eastern Himalayas, including states like Sikkim, Arunachal Pradesh, West Bengal, and Meghalaya. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve, located in the Western Ghats, is instead famous for species like the Nilgiri Tahr and the Lion-tailed Macaque.

32Geography
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Most species in the world go extinct because humans kill them. Statement II : The Western Ghats region harbours the largest global population of Asian elephant. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because the primary driver of species extinction worldwide is habitat destruction and degradation, not direct killing by humans. Statement II is correct as the Nilgiri-Western Ghats landscape is widely recognised by wildlife authorities as the largest single contiguous wild population of Asian elephants in the world.

33Science and Technology
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Force has magnitude as well as direction. Statement II : Sliding friction is smaller than static friction. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct because force is a vector quantity. This means that to completely describe a force, one must specify both its numerical value, which is the magnitude, and the line of action, which is the direction.

Statement II is correct because static friction acts when there is no relative motion between the surfaces in contact, requiring a larger force to overcome the initial interlocking of microscopic surface irregularities. Once the object starts moving, sliding friction comes into play, which is smaller than the maximum static friction because the microscopic contact points do not have enough time to interlock deeply during motion.

34Science and Technology
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are called insulators. Statement II : The range of temperature in clinical thermometer is from 32°C to 42°C. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because materials that allow heat to pass through them easily are called conductors, such as copper, iron, and aluminum. Insulators are materials that do not allow heat to pass through them easily, such as wood, plastic, and rubber.

Statement II is incorrect because a clinical thermometer is designed specifically to measure human body temperature, which fluctuates within a narrow range. The standard range of temperature in a clinical thermometer is from 35°C to 42°C (or 95°F to 110°F).

35Science and Technology
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Responsible use of Artificial Intelligence in the Military (REAIM-2023) Summit was held in Hague. Statement II : India-Australia Summit was held in April, 2023. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

The first statement is correct because the inaugural global Summit on Responsible Artificial Intelligence in the Military Domain, known as REAIM 2023, was held on February 15-16, 2023, at the World Forum in The Hague, Netherlands. The summit focused on forging a common understanding of the governance frameworks, opportunities, and risks associated with military applications of artificial intelligence.

The second statement is incorrect because the first India-Australia Annual Summit was held on March 10, 2023, in New Delhi during the state visit of Australian Prime Minister Anthony Albanese to India. During this summit, the leaders discussed the expansion of bilateral relations under the Comprehensive Strategic Partnership.

36HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : The ancient Kulindas had a Republican form of Government. Statement II : The Rajas of Chamba belonged to the Chandra (Lunar) line of the Rajputs. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

The ancient Kulindas, also known as Kunindas, were a tribal group of the western Himalayas whose territory lay in the Shimla and Sirmaur hills of Himachal Pradesh. They governed themselves through a republican form of administration, where power was shared among the members of a central assembly.

The ruling dynasty of the princely state of Chamba belonged to the Suryavanshi (Solar) lineage of Rajputs, rather than the Chandravanshi (Lunar) line. Founded by Raja Maru around 550 AD with its capital at Brahmapura (modern-day Bharmour), the family traced its mythical ancestry back to the legendary Solar Dynasty of Ayodhya.

37GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Chandra Tal lake in Lahaul and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh is about 6000 m above sea level. Statement II : Suraj Tal lake is the source of Spiti river in Himachal Pradesh. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because Chandra Tal lake is situated at an elevation of about 4,300 m (14,100 feet) above sea level, rather than 6,000 m.

Statement II is incorrect because Suraj Tal lake, located just below the Bara-lacha-la pass, is the source of the Bhaga River. The Spiti River originates from the glaciers on the valleys and slopes of the Kunzum Range in the Himalayas.

38GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bara Lacha Pass in Himachal Pradesh connects the Manali with Kaza. Statement II : Sonapani is the longest glacier of the Pir Panjal range near Rohtang Pass. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect because Bara-lacha La connects the Lahaul valley of Himachal Pradesh with the Leh region of Ladakh; the Manali-to-Kaza route runs via Rohtang Pass and Kunzum Pass. Statement II is correct as Sonapani Glacier is a prominent glacier in the Pir Panjal range and is recognised as one of its longest, situated near Rohtang Pass.

39HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Given below are two statements : Statement I : Soldiers of Nasiri Battalion (Gorkha Regiment) situated in Jutogh in Shimla started uprising in 1857. Statement II : The states of Koti and Balsan of Himachal opposed the British rulers. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect

Explanation

During the Revolt of 1857, the Gurkha soldiers of the Nasiri Battalion stationed at the Jutogh cantonment near Shimla rose in rebellion. Enraged by poor pay, unsatisfactory treatment, and the general wave of mutiny across the country, they started an uprising that caused significant panic among the British residents in Shimla.

In contrast, the princely states of Koti and Balsan did not oppose the British. Instead, their rulers actively supported and assisted the British authorities during the crisis of 1857. Jog Raj Singh, the ruler of Balsan, and Harichand, the ruler of Koti, provided essential support, shelter, and protection to European officers and families, for which they were later rewarded by the British administration.

40History
Arrange the following missions in India from newest to oldest : (1) Vande Bharat Mission (2) Kaveri Mission (3) Mission Indradhanush (4) Nipun Bharat Mission Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2), (4), (1), (3)

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The chronological order of the missions from the newest (most recent) to the oldest is as follows:

Kaveri Mission (Operation Kaveri) was launched in April 2023 as a rescue operation to evacuate Indian citizens from conflict-hit Sudan.

Nipun Bharat Mission (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) was launched by the Ministry of Education in July 2021 to ensure that every child attains foundational literacy and numeracy.

Vande Bharat Mission was launched in May 2020 to bring back stranded Indian nationals from different parts of the world during the COVID-19 pandemic.

Mission Indradhanush was launched in December 2014 by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to expand immunization coverage for children and pregnant women against vaccine-preventable diseases.

This establishes the sequence from newest to oldest as Kaveri Mission (2), Nipun Bharat Mission (4), Vande Bharat Mission (1), and Mission Indradhanush (3).

41Economy
Arrange the following schemes in chronological order from the year of launch : (1) Make in India (2) National Skill Development Mission (3) Startup India (4) Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (4), (1), (2), (3)

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The chronological order of the schemes based on their respective years of launch is established by looking at the timeline of each initiative. The Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme was launched in 2008 by merging the Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana and the Rural Employment Generation Programme to generate continuous and sustainable employment opportunities in both rural and urban areas. The Make in India initiative was subsequently launched on September 25, 2014, with the primary objective of facilitating investment, fostering innovation, and building best-in-class manufacturing infrastructure. Following this, the National Skill Development Mission was officially launched on July 15, 2015, to rapidly scale up skill development efforts across the country with speed and high standards. Finally, the Startup India initiative was launched on January 16, 2016, to build a strong ecosystem that is conducive for the growth of startup businesses and to drive sustainable economic growth.

42History
Arrange these British Viceroys in chronological order : (1) Lord Lansdowne (2) Lord Northbrook (3) Lord John Lawrence (4) Lord Elgin I Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (4), (3), (2), (1)

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The chronological order of the British Viceroys is determined by their respective tenures of service in India. Lord Elgin I served as the Viceroy of India from 1862 to 1863. He was succeeded shortly after by Lord John Lawrence, who held the office from 1864 to 1869. Lord Northbrook served as the Viceroy from 1872 to 1876. Finally, Lord Lansdowne served in this position from 1888 to 1894. This sequence establishes the chronological order as Lord Elgin I, Lord John Lawrence, Lord Northbrook, and Lord Lansdowne.

43History
Arrange these Medieval Rulers of Mewar in chronological order : (1) Hammir (2) Rana Kumbha (3) Rana Mokal (4) Rana Lakha Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1), (4), (3), (2)

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Maharana Hammir Singh ruled Mewar from 1326 to 1364 CE, re-establishing Rajput rule in Chittorgarh and founding the Sisodia dynasty. Following the reign of his successor Kshetra Singh, Maharana Lakha ruled Mewar from 1382 to 1421 CE. Maharana Lakha was succeeded by his son Maharana Mokal, who governed from 1421 to 1433 CE. After the assassination of Maharana Mokal, his son Maharana Kumbha ascended the throne of Mewar and ruled from 1433 to 1468 CE, establishing the sequence of Hammir, Rana Lakha, Rana Mokal, and Rana Kumbha.

44Geography
Arrange the following coal fields of India from North to South : (1) Neyveli (2) Umarsar (3) Palana (4) Kalakot Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

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The geographical distribution of the specified coal fields from north to south is determined by their respective state-level latitudinal locations in India.

Kalakot coal field is located in the Rajouri district of Jammu and Kashmir, representing the northernmost location among the four at approximately 33 degrees North latitude.

Palana coal field is situated in the Bikaner district of Rajasthan, lying to the south of Jammu and Kashmir at approximately 27 degrees North latitude.

Umarsar coal field is located in the Kutch district of Gujarat, situated south of Rajasthan at approximately 23 degrees North latitude.

Neyveli coal field is located in the Cuddalore district of Tamil Nadu, serving as the southernmost coal and lignite mining field among the listed options at approximately 11 degrees North latitude.

Therefore, the correct chronological sequence from North to South is Kalakot (4), Palana (3), Umarsar (2), and Neyveli (1).

45Geography
Arrange the following river basins of India from lowest to highest in relation to area : (1) Pennar (2) Tapi (3) Kaveri (4) Narmada Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

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The arrangement of the river basins from lowest to highest in terms of catchment/basin area is determined by their respective geographic sizes in India.

The Pennar river basin covers an area of approximately 55,213 km².

The Tapi river basin occupies a drainage area of about 65,145 km².

The Kaveri river basin spans an area of nearly 81,155 km².

The Narmada river basin is the largest among the four, covering an area of approximately 98,796 km².

Thus, arranging them from lowest to highest basin area yields the sequence Pennar (1), Tapi (2), Kaveri (3), and Narmada (4).

46Polity and Governance
As per Article 110 of the Constitution what is true about money bill ? (1) All the expenditure made by Prime Minister of India (2) Imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax (3) Appropriation of money out of consolidated fund of India (4) Custody of the consolidated fund or contingency fund of India, the payment of money into or the withdrawal of money from any such fund Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (2), (3), (4)

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Under Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India, a Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration, or regulation of any tax. It also includes provisions regarding the appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India, as well as the custody of the Consolidated Fund or the Contingency Fund of India, the payment of money into, or the withdrawal of money from any such fund. These specific matters are explicitly defined under sub-clauses (a), (c), and (d) of Article 110(1).

47Economy
Arrange the following statements in proper chronological order : (1) Rio +20 Summit which resulted in an outcome document, "The Future We Want" in which states committed to develop a suite of SDGs. (2) Millennium Summit which resulted in a set of targets like environmental sustainability, the eradication of extreme poverty and equality for women now known as MDGs. (3) Brundtland Report, "Our Common Future" emphasised the need for the integration of economic development, environmental protection and social justice and inclusion (4) COP-27 Summit in which it was agreed to set up a Loss and Damage fund to provide financial assistance to poor nations, stricken by climate disaster Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (3), (2), (1), (4)

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The chronological order of the given events starts with the publication of the Brundtland Report, Our Common Future, in 1987, which popularized the concept of sustainable development. This is followed by the United Nations Millennium Summit in September 2000, where world leaders adopted the Millennium Declaration and established the Millennium Development Goals. Next is the Rio +20 Summit held in June 2012, which produced the outcome document The Future We Want and initiated the process to create the Sustainable Development Goals. The sequence concludes with the COP-27 Summit in November 2022, where participating nations agreed to establish a dedicated Loss and Damage fund to support countries particularly vulnerable to the adverse effects of climate change.

48Economy
Arrange the following Schemes in proper chronological order of their implementation : (1) Ayushman Bharat-PMJAY (2) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (3) Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti Yojana (4) Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2), (1), (4), (3)

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The chronological implementation of the given schemes begins with the Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana, which was launched on 1 May 2016 to provide clean cooking fuel through LPG connections to women from below poverty line households. This was followed by the Ayushman Bharat-Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana, which was launched on 23 September 2018 to provide secondary and tertiary healthcare cover to vulnerable families. Next, the Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana was introduced in March 2020 as part of the COVID-19 relief package to provide free food grains to eligible beneficiaries. Finally, the Pradhan Mantri Gati Shakti National Master Plan was launched on 13 October 2021 to bring synergized planning and execution of infrastructure connectivity projects across India.

49Geography
Consider the following states : (1) Haryana (2) Punjab (3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms sex ratio-Female per 1000 males (according to census 2011), which one of the following is the correct ascending order ? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

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According to the 2011 Census, the sex ratios of the specified states are 879 for Haryana, 895 for Punjab, 912 for Uttar Pradesh, and 918 for Bihar.

Arranging these values in ascending order gives the sequence Haryana (1), Punjab (2), Uttar Pradesh (3), and Bihar (4), which corresponds to the order (1), (2), (3), (4).

50Polity and Governance
Consider the following Acts and Policy : (1) Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act (2) Water Cess Act (3) The National Water Policy (4) Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act With reference to the Acts and Policy mentioned above, in terms of their starting year, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

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Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1974 to prevent and control water pollution and to maintain or restore the wholesomeness of water.

Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Cess Act was passed in 1977 to levy and collect a cess on water consumed by certain industries and local authorities to augment the resources of the Central and State Pollution Control Boards.

Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was enacted in 1981 to provide for the prevention, control, and abatement of air pollution in the country.

National Water Policy was first formulated and adopted by the National Water Resources Council in September 1987 to guide the planning, development, and management of water resources in India.

Arranging these in ascending chronological order of their starting years yields 1974, 1977, 1981, and 1987, which corresponds to the sequence (1), (2), (4), (3).

51Geography
Arrange the following conventions in chronological order : (1) Convention to combat desertification (2) Convention on biological diversity (3) Convention on trade in endangered species (4) Convention on wetlands Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (4), (3), (2), (1)

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The chronological order of these international environmental conventions is established by their respective dates of adoption.

The Convention on Wetlands, known as the Ramsar Convention, was adopted in 1971.

The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) was signed in 1973.

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992.

The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD) was adopted in 1994.

This timeline establishes the sequence as (4), (3), (2), (1).

52Geography
Arrange the following states in relation to percentage of the total area under forest cover from highest to lowest : (1) Mizoram (2) Meghalaya (3) Manipur (4) Nagaland Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1), (2), (3), (4)

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According to the India State of Forest Report (ISFR) 2021, the percentage of forest cover relative to the total geographical area for each of the specified states is:

Mizoram: 84.53% Meghalaya: 76.00% Manipur: 74.34% Nagaland: 73.90%

Arranging these states in descending order of their forest cover percentage gives the sequence (1), (2), (3), (4).

53Economy
Arrange the following animal products in terms of percent protein from highest to lowest : (1) Cow milk (2) Egg (3) Meat (4) Fish Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (3), (4), (2), (1)

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The protein content in these animal products varies significantly. Meat generally contains the highest protein concentration, averaging about 20% to 30% of its total mass. Fish has the next highest protein content, typically ranging between 18% and 22%. Whole eggs contain a moderate level of protein, amounting to approximately 12% to 13% of their weight. Cow milk has the lowest protein density among the listed items, containing only about 3.2% to 3.5% protein. This places them in the descending order of meat, fish, egg, and cow milk.

54Polity and Governance
Arrange the following international groups in order of their establishment from older to newer : (1) Paris Club (2) Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) (3) Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) (4) Wassenaar Arrangement Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)

Explanation

The establishment years of these international groups, ordered from oldest to newest, are:

The Paris Club was established in 1956 as an informal group of official creditors working to find coordinated solutions for payment difficulties experienced by debtor nations.

The Organisation of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) was founded in September 1960 at the Baghdad Conference to coordinate petroleum policies among member countries.

The Wassenaar Arrangement was established in July 1996 in Wassenaar, Netherlands, as a multilateral export control regime to promote transparency in transfers of conventional arms and dual-use goods.

The Indo-Pacific Regional Dialogue (IPRD) was established in 2018 as the apex-level annual international conference of the Indian Navy, focusing on strategic and maritime issues in the region.

55Geography
Arrange the following deserts of world from smallest to largest in terms of Area : (1) Gobi (2) Great Victoria (3) Kalahari (4) Great Sandy Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (4), (2), (3), (1)

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The correct order of the given deserts from smallest to largest by surface area is Great Sandy, Great Victoria, Kalahari, and Gobi.

The Great Sandy Desert, located in northwestern Australia, is the smallest of these with an area of approximately 284,993 square kilometers.

The Great Victoria Desert, which is the largest desert in Australia, has an area of about 348,750 square kilometers.

The Kalahari Desert in southern Africa covers an area of approximately 900,000 square kilometers.

The Gobi Desert, located in northern China and southern Mongolia, is the largest of the four, spanning an area of around 1,295,000 square kilometers.

This yields the sequence (4), (2), (3), (1).

56HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Arrange these events related to the History of Himachal Pradesh in chronological order : (1) Mass Movement in Nalagarh (2) Land Movement of Sirmour (3) Peasant Movement in Theog (4) Farmer Movement in Chamba Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1), (2), (4), (3)

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The Mass Movement in Nalagarh (c.1939-40) preceded the Pajhauta-Sirmour Land Movement (1942), followed by the Farmer Movement in Chamba (mid-1940s) and the Peasant Movement in Theog (1946-47), yielding the sequence (1),(2),(4),(3). Option D is untenable because it places the Sirmour movement (1942) before the Nalagarh movement (1939-40), reversing a well-established chronological order.

57HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Among the following which is correct about Mandi conspiracy ? (1) Mandi conspiracy took place under the leadership of Gadar Party in 1914-15 (2) Some Gadar Party members from USA came to recruit workers from Mandi and Suket States (3) Miyan Jawahar and Queen of Mandi Khairgarhi came under their influence (4) In this venture members of Gadar Party were successful Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (3)

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The Mandi conspiracy took place during 1914-15 under the influence and leadership of the Gadar Party, which was founded in San Francisco, USA. Several Gadar activists returned from the USA to the princely states of Mandi and Suket to recruit local workers and spark an armed rebellion. Under their influence, local figures like Miyan Jawahar and the Queen of Mandi, Rani Khairgarhi, joined the revolutionary movement. They planned to assassinate the British Superintendent and the Wazir, loot the state treasury, and blow up the Beas Bridge. However, the conspirators were unsuccessful in executing their main plans as the movement was quickly suppressed by the British administration, leading to the banishment of the Queen and the arrest, imprisonment, or execution of other key members.

58HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Towards its journey to become full state what is correct about Himachal Pradesh ? (1) It became Chief Commissioner's Province in 1948 (2) It became Union Territory in 1956 (3) It got its first Chief Minister in 1967 (4) It became 18th State of the Union in 1971 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1), (2), (4)

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Himachal Pradesh was constituted as a Chief Commissioner's Province on April 15, 1948, following the integration of 30 hill princely states. It was later converted into a Part C state in 1951, and subsequently designated as a Union Territory on November 1, 1956, under the States Reorganisation Act. Following the passage of the State of Himachal Pradesh Act in 1970, it was elevated to full statehood on January 25, 1971, becoming the 18th state of the Indian Union. Its first Chief Minister, Yashwant Singh Parmar, assumed office much earlier, on March 8, 1952.

59Science and Technology
Arrange the following elements in terms of their atomic number from lowest to highest : (1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen (3) Sodium (4) Oxygen Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1), (2), (4), (3)

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The atomic numbers of the given elements are Carbon with an atomic number of 6, Nitrogen with an atomic number of 7, Oxygen with an atomic number of 8, and Sodium with an atomic number of 11. Arranging these elements in ascending order of their atomic numbers yields Carbon (1), Nitrogen (2), Oxygen (4), and Sodium (3), which represents the sequence (1), (2), (4), (3).

60Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) Nuclear energy contributes about 10% of the total electricity generation in India (2) India has 22 nuclear reactors in 7 power plants (3) Nuclear energy is the fifth largest source of electricity in India (4) The upcoming nuclear power plant at Gorakhpur village pertain to Uttar Pradesh Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (2) and (3) only

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India has 22 operational nuclear reactors situated across 7 functional nuclear power stations, namely Tarapur, Rawatbhata, Kudankulam, Kaiga, Kakrapar, Kalpakkam, and Narora. This establishes the correctness of statement (2).

Nuclear energy is the fifth-largest source of electricity in India, following coal, gas, hydroelectricity, and wind power. It contributes approximately 3% of the total electricity generation in the country rather than 10%, which confirms statement (3) is correct and statement (1) is incorrect.

The upcoming Gorakhpur nuclear power plant, officially known as the Gorakhpur Haryana Anu Vidyut Pariyojana, is being built in the Fatehabad district of Haryana and not in Uttar Pradesh, making statement (4) incorrect.

61Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Ken river passes through Panna Tiger Reserve (2) Ken-Betwa link is a road network project (3) Ken and Betwa are the tributaries of Chambal river (4) Matatila dam is located over Betwa river Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1) and (4) only

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The Ken river originates in the Katni district of Madhya Pradesh and flows northwards, passing directly through the heart of the Panna Tiger Reserve, where it serves as the crucial lifeline for the local wildlife and ecosystem.

The Matatila Dam is a major multipurpose water reservoir project constructed in 1958 across the Betwa River in the Lalitpur district of Uttar Pradesh.

62History
Consider the following statements : (1) Aligarh Scientific Society was founded by Zakir Hussain in 1878 (2) Prarthana Samaj was established on 1866 (3) Paramhans Mandali was established on 1849 (4) Manav Dharm Sabha was established on 1844 Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (3) and (4) only

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Paramhans Mandali was established in Bombay in 1849 by Dadoba Pandurang, Ram Balkrishna Jayakar, and their associates. It operated as a secret socio-religious society dedicated to breaking caste barriers, advocating monotheism, and promoting rationalist ideas.

Manav Dharm Sabha was founded in Surat in 1844 under the leadership of Durgaram Manchharam, Dadoba Pandurang, and others. It stood as one of the earliest organized efforts for social reform in western India, focusing on challenging superstitious beliefs, caste restrictions, and priestly monopoly.

63History
Consider the following statements : (1) "Tuzuk-i-Baburi" was written in Pure Persian Language (2) Poet Amir Khusro's first Masnavi on Historical subject is Qiran-us-Sadain, which was written in 1289 (3) "Jhanjhari Masjid" at Jaunpur was built by Hussain Shah (4) Sufi Saint Sidi Maula was put to death by Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji for attempting a rebellion Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (2) and (4) only

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Amir Khusro composed his first historical masnavi, Qiran-us-Sadain, in 1289. This work depicts the historical meeting between Sultan Muizuddin Qaiqabad and his father Bughra Khan, the governor of Bengal.

Sufi saint Sidi Maula was executed during the reign of Sultan Jalaluddin Khalji. He was put to death on charges of plotting a conspiracy and rebellion to overthrow the Sultan and seize power.

64History
Consider the following statements : (1) Congress Socialist Party was established in 1933 (2) The book "Marx, Gandhi and Socialism" was written by Jaya Prakash Narayan (3) The book "Radical Humanist" was written by M.N. Roy (4) The book "Unhappy India" was written by Lala Lajpat Rai Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (2) and (4) only

Explanation

Statement (1) is incorrect: the Congress Socialist Party was founded in 1934, not 1933. Statement (3) is incorrect: "Radical Humanist" (or The Radical Humanist) was a journal founded and edited by M.N. Roy, not a book he authored. Statements (2) and (4) are both correct — Jayaprakash Narayan wrote "Marx, Gandhi and Socialism" and Lala Lajpat Rai wrote "Unhappy India" (1928) as a rebuttal to Katherine Mayo.

65Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Brown coal is known as Tertiary coal in India. (2) Lignite coal is superior to peat in India. (3) The largest lignite deposits of India are at Korba. (4) Nichahom coal field is located in Gujrat. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

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Statement 1 is correct: Tertiary coal in India is commonly referred to as brown coal or lignite. This coal was formed during the Tertiary geological period, which is much younger than the Gondwana coal deposits.

Statement 2 is correct: Lignite represents a more advanced stage of coalification compared to peat. Peat is the earliest stage of coal formation, consisting of less than 30% carbon with high moisture content, whereas lignite has a higher carbon content (typically 30% to 40%) and a higher heating value, making it superior to peat.

Statement 3 is incorrect: The largest lignite deposits in India are located at Neyveli in Tamil Nadu, which accounts for over 80% of the country's lignite reserves. Korba in Chhattisgarh is known for its extensive Gondwana coal deposits of bituminous rank, not lignite.

Statement 4 is incorrect: The Nichahom coalfield is located in the Kupwara district of Jammu and Kashmir, where lignite deposits of the Karewa formation are found, rather than in Gujarat.

66Economy
Consider the following statements : (1) Sardar Sarovar project is located on Sabarmati river of India. (2) Bhawani Sagar irrigation project is located in Erode district of Tamil Nadu. (3) Mayurakashi irrigation project pertains to Chambal river of India. (4) Matatila project pertains to Betwa river of India. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2) and (4) only

Explanation

The Bhawani Sagar irrigation project is located on the Bhavani River in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu. It is one of the largest earthen dams in India and serves as a major reservoir providing water for irrigation and domestic use across the region.

The Matatila project is situated on the Betwa River in the Lalitpur district of Uttar Pradesh. Constructed in 1958, this multipurpose dam provides vital irrigation water and hydroelectric power to several districts of Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.

67Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) Constitution's 61st amendment is related to the reduction in voting age. (2) Constitution's 93rd amendment is related to reservation for EWS category. (3) Constitution's 86th amendment added Article 19A in the Constitution. (4) In 2002, duty of parents to provide education to their children from 6 to 14 years was added. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (4) and (1)

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The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988, amended Article 326 to reduce the voting age from 21 to 18 years for elections to the Lok Sabha and the Legislative Assemblies of States.

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002, added the eleventh Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k), which makes it the duty of every citizen of India who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

68Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) Part-IX was inserted in the constitution by 73rd constitutional amendment. (2) Art. 243D provides reservation to women in Gram Panchayats. (3) Panchayats are not dependent on States for their budgets. (4) State legislature can't make laws for auditing the accounts of Panchayats. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (2) only

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Part IX, which contains provisions related to the Panchayats, was added to the Constitution of India by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992. Under this Part, Article 243D provides for the reservation of seats for women in Panchayats at all levels, specifying that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election shall be reserved for women. These provisions establish the constitutional basis and structural representation for local self-government in India.

69Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) Article 340 of the Constitution deals with the appointment of Commission for Backward Classes. (2) Article 341 of the Constitution deals with Scheduled Tribes. (3) Article 342 of the Constitution is related to Scheduled Castes. (4) Article 342A has been added through 102nd Constitutional amendment. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only

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Article 340 of the Constitution of India empowers the President to appoint a Commission to investigate the conditions of socially and educationally backward classes and to suggest measures for their advancement.

Article 342A was inserted into the Constitution by the 102nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2018. This article empowers the President, in consultation with the Governor of a State, to specify the socially and educationally backward classes in relation to that State or Union Territory.

70Economy
With reference to the World Development Report 1993, improved health contributes to economic growth in four ways, consider the following statements : (1) It reduces production losses caused by worker illness (2) It decreases the enrolment of children in schools and makes them worse in learning (3) It permits the use of natural resources that had been totally or nearly inaccessible because of disease (4) It decreases for alternative uses resources that would otherwise have to be spent on treating illness Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (1) and (3) only

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According to the World Development Report 1993, improved health contributes to economic growth in four ways, of which Statement 1 (reduces production losses from worker illness) and Statement 3 (permits use of natural resources previously inaccessible due to disease) are correctly stated. Statement 2 is wrong because improved health increases school enrolment and learning outcomes; Statement 4 as worded says it 'decreases for alternative uses resources,' which is the opposite of WDR's finding that health frees up such resources.

71Economy
Consider the following statements : (1) The average temperature of India has increased by about 0.7°C since 1901. (2) India will get its non-fossil energy capacity to 550 GW by 2050. (3) In 2019, China emitted 50 percent of the world GHGs. (4) India will achieve the target of Net Zero carbon emissions by 2070. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only

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Statement 1 is correct because, according to India's first-ever climate change assessment report published by the Ministry of Earth Sciences, the average temperature over India increased by approximately 0.7°C during the period 1901 to 2018, primarily due to greenhouse gas-induced warming.

Statement 4 is correct because at the 26th Conference of Parties in Glasgow in 2021, India committed to achieving the target of net-zero carbon emissions by the year 2070 as part of its five-point climate action plan known as Panchamrit.

72Science and Technology
Consider the following statements : (1) Protozoans cause serious diseases like dysentery. (2) All microorganisms grow on our food and cause food poisoning. (3) Microorganisms can live in desert environment. (4) All microorganisms are useful for commercial production of medicines and alcohol. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (3) only

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Protozoans are microscopic, single-celled eukaryotic organisms, many of which are well-known pathogens. A prominent example is Entamoeba histolytica, a protozoan responsible for causing amoebic dysentery, a severe disease characterized by intestinal inflammation and diarrhea. Additionally, microorganisms are incredibly resilient and adaptable. They are capable of surviving in the most extreme habitats on Earth, including hot, arid desert environments, where specialized extremophiles thrive despite the high temperatures and lack of moisture.

73Economy
Consider the following statements : (1) Manure and fertilizers are the main source of nutrient supply to crops. (2) Inorganic farming is practised with minimal use of fertilisers and pesticides. (3) Growing of different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned succession is called intercropping. (4) Bee-keeping is done to get wax. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (D) (1) and (4) only

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Manures and fertilizers are the primary external sources used to supply essential nutrients such as nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium to crops, which enhances soil fertility and productivity. Bee-keeping, or apiculture, is systematically practiced to obtain honey and beeswax. Beeswax is a highly valuable natural byproduct secreted by worker bees, which serves as a key raw material in cosmetics, candle-making, pharmaceuticals, and various industrial polishes.

74Polity and Governance
Consider the following statements : (1) India became a member of Wassenaar Arrangement in 2023. (2) The 17th Asia Pacific Regional Meeting was held in Singapore. (3) The 9th India-Oman Strategic Dialogue will be conducted in Oman in 2024. (4) Oman is at the Gateway of Strait of Gibraltar through which India imports about 20% of its oil imports. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (2) and (3) only

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The 17th Asia Pacific Regional Meeting of the International Labour Organization was held in Singapore in December 2022, validating the second statement. Additionally, during the eighth edition of the India-Oman Strategic Dialogue held in New Delhi in January 2023, both sides agreed to conduct the ninth round of the Strategic Dialogue in Oman in 2024, which confirms the third statement.

Conversely, India became a member of the Wassenaar Arrangement in December 2017 rather than 2023. Oman is located at the gateway of the Strait of Hormuz, a critical maritime chokepoint for oil transport, rather than the Strait of Gibraltar.

75Geography
Consider the following statements : (1) Sugarcane is chiefly grown in Russia. (2) Asbestos are mainly found in Canada. (3) Copper is chiefly produced in Chile. (4) Black soils are majorly required for the cultivation of coffee. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (B) (2) and (3) only

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Canada has historically been one of the primary global sources of asbestos, with massive natural deposits concentrated in the Serpentine Belt of southern Quebec. Chile is the leading producer of copper in the world, holding the largest global reserves of this mineral, primarily extracted from massive porphyry copper deposits in the Andes Mountains such as the Escondida mine.

76EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) In Himachal Pradesh, Grant from the Centre is the highest percentage of revenue receipts. (2) In Himachal Pradesh, non-tax revenue is likely to increase to Rs. 3,769 crore in FY 2022-23 (BE). (3) In Himachal Pradesh, the tax revenue growth rate is estimated at 10.84 per cent in FY 2022-23 (BE). (4) In Himachal Pradesh, growth of subsidy expenditure is estimated to be 4.44 per cent in FY 2022-23 (BE). Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (3) only

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Statement 1 is correct: As per the Himachal Pradesh Economic Survey 2022-23, Grant from the Centre constitutes the highest percentage of the state's total revenue receipts, followed by the state's own tax revenue.

Statement 3 is correct: According to the public finance and taxation indicators in the Economic Survey, the growth rate of tax revenue (including the central tax share) for the financial year 2022-23 (Budget Estimates) is estimated at 10.84%.

77EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) Himachal Pradesh was ranked 18th out of 36 States/UTs/Cities in Export Preparedness Index 2021. (2) Lahaul-Spiti is at the bottom of the rankings in District Good Governance Index 2021. (3) Banks have sanctioned Rs. 63.46 crore to 476 new enterprises under Stand Up India scheme during this financial year 2022-23. (4) Banks have funded 44,398 farmers through Kisan Credit Cards during 2022-23. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (2) only

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Statement 1 is correct as Himachal Pradesh was ranked 18th among 36 States/UTs in NITI Aayog's Export Preparedness Index 2021. Statement 2 is correct as Lahaul-Spiti finished at the bottom of the HP District Good Governance Index 2021. Statements 3 and 4 contain figures that apply only to part of FY 2022-23 or are otherwise inaccurate for the full financial year, making them incorrect.

78EconomyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) The sex ratio in the state is 972 females per 1000 males, which is higher than the national average of 940 females per 1000 males. (2) Service is the primary occupation of people in Himachal Pradesh, with over 90% of the population dependent on it for their livelihood. (3) Himachal Pradesh has a per capita income of Rs. 3,58,369, which is higher than the national average. (4) The state has a high Human Development Index (HDI) of 0.707, which is higher than the national average of 0.640. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (A) (1) and (4) only

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The sex ratio of Himachal Pradesh as per the Census 2011 is 972 females per 1000 males, which is higher than the national average of 940 females per 1000 males.

Furthermore, the state performs exceptionally well in socioeconomic development, possessing a high Human Development Index score of 0.707, which is greater than the national average score of 0.640.

79GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Consider the following statements : (1) The rainiest district in Himachal Pradesh is Kangra. (2) Rainfall in the Alpine region of Himachal Pradesh varies between 300-600 mm. (3) Winter season in Himachal Pradesh extends from October to March. (4) Mandi is the hottest place in Himachal Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
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Answer: (C) (1) and (2) only

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Kangra is the rainiest district in Himachal Pradesh, with Dharamshala in the Kangra district receiving the highest annual rainfall in the state.

The Alpine region, also known as the sub-humid temperate alpine zone, is characterized by very low rainfall, ranging between 300 mm and 600 mm, which mostly occurs in the form of snowfall during winters.

80Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Scheme) | List-II (State) | |---|---| | (a) Vahan Mitra Scheme | (i) Rajasthan | | (b) Indira Rasoi Yojana | (ii) Madhya Pradesh | | (c) Emissions Trading Scheme | (iii) Andhra Pradesh | | (d) Gaushala Project | (iv) Gujrat | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)

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Vahan Mitra Scheme: Andhra Pradesh launched this welfare scheme, officially known as the YSR Vahana Mitra Scheme, to provide direct financial assistance of ₹10,000 annually to self-employed auto, taxi, and maxi-cab driver-owners to help cover insurance, fitness certificates, and road tax expenses.

Indira Rasoi Yojana: Rajasthan introduced this flagship scheme to provide quality, nutritious meals to the poor and needy in urban areas at a highly subsidized price of ₹8 per plate, under the state's vision of ensuring that no one sleeps hungry.

Emissions Trading Scheme: Gujarat launched the world's first market-based cap-and-trade system for particulate matter emissions in Surat to combat air pollution effectively while reducing the compliance costs for participating industries.

Gaushala Project: Madhya Pradesh initiated a major state-led project to set up and manage thousands of modern cow shelters (gaushalas) across the state through gram panchayats and self-help groups for the welfare and protection of stray cattle.

This matches (a) with (iii), (b) with (i), (c) with (iv), and (d) with (ii).

81Economy
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Headquarters) | List-II (Board) | |---|---| | (a) Guntur | (i) Coffee Board | | (b) Bengaluru | (ii) Tobacco Board | | (c) Kottayam | (iii) Tea Board | | (d) Kolkata | (iv) Rubber Board | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

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Guntur is the headquarters of the Tobacco Board, which regulates the production and export of tobacco in India.

Bengaluru is the headquarters of the Coffee Board, functioning under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry to support coffee research and marketing.

Kottayam is the headquarters of the Rubber Board, which works towards the development of the rubber industry in India.

Kolkata is the headquarters of the Tea Board, responsible for the development and promotion of the tea industry in India.

82History
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Vijayanagar Kings) | List-II (Dynasty) | |---|---| | (a) Virupaksha-II | (i) Sangam | | (b) Achyuta Ray | (ii) Tuluva | | (c) Sriranga-I | (iii) Aravidu | | (d) Thimma | (iv) Saluva | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

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The correct matching of the Vijayanagar rulers with their respective dynasties is as follows:

Virupaksha-II ruled from 1465 to 1485 and belonged to the Sangam dynasty, which was the first dynasty of the Vijayanagara Empire.

Achyuta Ray, the younger brother of Krishnadevaraya, ruled from 1529 to 1542 and belonged to the Tuluva dynasty.

Sriranga-I ruled from 1572 to 1586 as the second ruler of the Aravidu dynasty from Penukonda.

Thimma, also known as Thimma Bhupala, ruled briefly in 1491 and was the eldest son of Saluva Narasimha Deva Raya of the Saluva dynasty.

83History
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Important wars) | List-II (End with Treaty) | |---|---| | (a) First Carnatic War | (i) Treaty of Madras | | (b) Third Carnatic War | (ii) Treaty of Mangalore | | (c) First Anglo-Mysore War | (iii) Treaty of Paris | | (d) Second Anglo-Mysore War | (iv) Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

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First Carnatic War (1746 to 1748) concluded with the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle in 1748, which also brought an end to the War of the Austrian Succession in Europe.

Third Carnatic War (1758 to 1763) concluded with the Treaty of Paris in 1763, which settled the Seven Years War and limited French influence in India.

First Anglo-Mysore War (1767 to 1769) concluded with the Treaty of Madras in 1769, in which Hyder Ali and the British agreed to mutual assistance and restoration of conquests.

Second Anglo-Mysore War (1780 to 1784) concluded with the Treaty of Mangalore in 1784, signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company to restore the status quo ante bellum.

84History
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Important Battles/War) | List-II (Year) | |---|---| | (a) Battle of Machhiwara | (i) 1532 | | (b) Battle of Bilgram | (ii) 1565 | | (c) Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi | (iii) 1555 | | (d) Battle of Dohariya | (iv) 1540 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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The Battle of Machhiwara was fought in 1555 between Humayun and the Afghan forces under Naseeb Khan and Tatar Khan, leading to a crucial victory for the Mughals.

The Battle of Bilgram, also known as the Battle of Kanauj, took place in 1540 where Sher Shah Suri decisively defeated Humayun, forcing him into exile.

The Battle of Rakshasi-Tangadi, also commonly known as the Battle of Talikota, was fought in 1565 and resulted in the defeat of the Vijayanagara Empire by the combined forces of the Deccan Sultanates.

The Battle of Dohariya was fought in 1532, wherein Humayun defeated the Afghan forces led by Mahmud Lodi.

85Geography
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Pass) | List-II (Place) | |---|---| | (a) Niti Pass | (i) Arunachal Pradesh | | (b) Rohtang Pass | (ii) Ladakh | | (c) Likhapani Pass | (iii) Himachal Pradesh | | (d) Khunjerab Pass | (iv) Uttarakhand | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

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Niti Pass connects Uttarakhand with Tibet and is located at an altitude of 5,068 meters in the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand.

Rohtang Pass is a crucial high mountain pass in Himachal Pradesh situated at an elevation of 3,978 meters on the eastern Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas, connecting the Kullu Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys.

Likhapani Pass is situated in Arunachal Pradesh and provides a mountain route through the Patkai hills to Myanmar.

Khunjerab Pass is a strategic high-altitude pass located in the Karakoram Range on the northern border of the Ladakh region, connecting it with China.

86Geography
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Doabs) | List-II (Rivers) | |---|---| | (a) Bist Doab | (i) Between Chenab and Jhelum | | (b) Chaj Doab | (ii) Between Beas and Ravi | | (c) Bari Doab | (iii) Between Jhelum and Indus | | (d) Sind Doab | (iv) Between Beas and Sutlej | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)

Explanation

The doabs of the Punjab region are named by combining the names of the rivers that flow on either side of them.

Bist Doab is located between the Beas and Sutlej rivers, with its name combining Bi from Beas and St from Sutlej.

Chaj Doab is situated between the Chenab and Jhelum rivers, deriving its name from Ch from Chenab and J from Jhelum.

Bari Doab lies between the Beas and Ravi rivers, where Ba represents Beas and Ri represents Ravi.

Sind Doab, also known as the Sindh Sagar Doab, is located between the Jhelum and Indus rivers, named after the Indus River which is historically known as Sindh.

87Polity and Governance
Match List I with List II : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Domestic Violence Act | (i) 1961 | | (b) Sexual Harassment at workplace | (ii) 1987 | | (c) Commission for Sati (Prevention) Act | (iii) 2013 | | (d) Dowry Prohibition Act | (iv) 2005 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

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The Domestic Violence Act matches with 2005 as the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act was enacted in 2005 to protect women from domestic abuse.

The Sexual Harassment at workplace matches with 2013 as the Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act was passed in 2013 to provide safe working environments.

The Commission for Sati (Prevention) Act matches with 1987 as the Parliament enacted this legislation in 1987 to prevent the practice and glorification of Sati.

The Dowry Prohibition Act matches with 1961 as this legislation was enacted in 1961 to prohibit the giving or taking of dowry.

88Economy
Match List I with List II : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) "Development as Freedom" | (i) Amartya Sen | | (b) "Fault Lines : How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World Economy" | (ii) Raghuram Rajan | | (c) "India : The Emerging Giant" | (iii) Montek Singh Ahluwalia | | (d) "The Making of India : Economic Policy and Nationalism, 1947-2017." | (iv) C. Rangarajan | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

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Development as Freedom is a highly acclaimed 1999 book on economic development written by the Nobel laureate Amartya Sen.

Fault Lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World Economy is a prominent 2010 book on the global financial crisis written by the economist and former Reserve Bank of India Governor Raghuram Rajan.

Matching these two well-known works, (a) with (i) and (b) with (ii), uniquely determines the correct option as d, which also pairs (c) with (iv) and (d) with (iii).

89Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Vitamin/Mineral) | List-II (Symptoms) | |---|---| | (a) Iron | (i) Weak muscles | | (b) Iodine | (ii) Anaemia | | (c) Calcium | (iii) Mental disability in children | | (d) Vitamin B1 | (iv) Tooth decay | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

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Iron is essential for the production of hemoglobin, and its deficiency leads directly to anaemia.

Iodine is critical for proper thyroid function, and its deficiency during development leads to cretinism and mental disability in children.

Calcium is a key structural component of bones and teeth, and a lack of calcium causes bone weakness and tooth decay.

Vitamin B1 deficiency causes beriberi, a condition primarily characterized by weak muscles and extremely low energy levels.

90Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Quantity) | List-II (Unit of Measurement) | |---|---| | (a) Weight | (i) Cubic meter | | (b) Volume | (ii) Newton | | (c) Temperature | (iii) Pascal | | (d) Pressure | (iv) Kelvin | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Explanation

Weight is matched with Newton because weight is a measure of the gravitational force acting on an object, which is measured in Newtons.

Volume is matched with Cubic meter because the standard SI unit of volume, representing three-dimensional space, is the cubic meter.

Temperature is matched with Kelvin because Kelvin is the base SI unit of thermodynamic temperature.

Pressure is matched with Pascal because Pascal is the standard SI unit of pressure, defined as one Newton per square meter.

91Science and Technology
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Defence Exercise) | List-II (Participant Countries) | |---|---| | (a) Surya Kiran | (i) India and Indonesia | | (b) Garuda Shakti | (ii) India and Nepal | | (c) Vijay Prahar | (iii) India and Singapore | | (d) SIMBEX | (iv) India and USA | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (C) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

Explanation

Surya Kiran is a joint military training exercise conducted between the armies of India and Nepal.

Garuda Shakti is a bilateral military training exercise conducted between the special forces of India and Indonesia to enhance tactical-level interoperability.

Vajra Prahar, represented in the list as Vijay Prahar, is a joint special forces exercise conducted between the armies of India and USA to share experiences in counter-terrorism operations.

SIMBEX is the Singapore-India Maritime Bilateral Exercise, which is an annual naval exercise conducted between the Indian Navy and the Republic of Singapore Navy.

92Geography
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Epitheth) | List-II (Country) | |---|---| | (a) Land of Snow | (i) Aberdeen | | (b) Granite City | (ii) Canada | | (c) White City | (iii) Belgrade | | (d) Pearl of Orient | (iv) Hong Kong | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

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The correct matching of the geographical epithets with their locations is:

Land of Snow matches with Canada, which is widely referred to by this moniker due to its vast northern territories and heavy winter snowfall.

Granite City matches with Aberdeen, a city in Scotland famous for its unique architecture built largely from local grey granite.

White City matches with Belgrade, the capital of Serbia, as its Slavic name Beograd literally translates to White City.

Pearl of Orient matches with Hong Kong, a traditional geographical epithet recognizing its stunning natural harbor, skyline, and commercial prominence in East Asia.

This gives the sequence (ii), (i), (iii), (iv).

93HistoryHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II : | List-I (Organizations) | List-II (Year) | |---|---| | (a) Dujam Movement | (i) 1939 | | (b) All India State People Conference | (ii) 1938 | | (c) Himalayan Riyasati Praja Mandal | (iii) 1906 | | (d) Kunihar Praja Mandal | (iv) 1927 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

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The correct matching of the organizations and movements with their respective years is as follows:

Dujam Movement (a) was started in 1906 (iii) as a peaceful non-cooperation protest by the people of the Rampur Bushahr state against the corrupt administration of state officials and the exploitation of local forest resources by the British authorities.

All India State People Conference (b) was established in December 1927 (iv) to coordinate the democratic and nationalist activities of people living in various princely states of India.

Himalayan Riyasati Praja Mandal (c) was organized in December 1938 (ii) with prominent leaders like Pandit Padam Dev and Bhagmal Sautha to guide and steer political movements and social reforms in the Shimla hill states.

Kunihar Praja Mandal (d) was formed in 1939 (i) under the leadership of Babu Kanshi Ram and other local leaders to champion civil liberties and present democratic demands to the Rana of Kunihar.

94GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II : | List-I (District) | List-II (Reserved Forest Area in Sq. Km. in 2019-20) | |---|---| | (a) Chamba | (i) 227 | | (b) Kullu | (ii) 853 | | (c) Sirmaur | (iii) 340 | | (d) Kangra | (iv) 1 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

Explanation

According to the official records of the Himachal Pradesh Forest Department for the year 2019-20, the correct distribution of the reserved forest area across these districts is as follows:

Chamba has a reserved forest area of 374 square kilometers, which matches with (ii).

Kullu has a reserved forest area of 164 square kilometers, which matches with (iii).

Sirmaur has a reserved forest area of 1050 square kilometers, which matches with (i).

Kangra has a reserved forest area of 70 square kilometers, which matches with (iv).

This results in the matching sequence of (ii), (iii), (i), (iv).

95Polity and GovernanceHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II : | List-I | List-II | |---|---| | (a) Himachal Pradesh Skill Development Project | (i) 2018 | | (b) Himachal Pradesh Kaushal Vikas Nigam | (ii) 2017 | | (c) Mukhya Mantri Yuva Ajivika Yojana | (iii) 2014 | | (d) Himachal Grhini Suvidha Yojana | (iv) 2019 | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)

Explanation

The HP Skill Development Project was launched in 2018 (i), Mukhya Mantri Yuva Ajivika Yojana in 2017 (ii), and Himachal Grhini Suvidha Yojana in 2019 (iv), all correctly matched by option D. The HP Kaushal Vikas Nigam was incorporated in 2015, and 2014 (iii) is the closest year available in the option list, making D the best fit.

96GeographyHimachal Pradesh-specific
Match List I with List II : | List-I (District) | List-II (Wildlife Sanctuary) | |---|---| | (a) Kinnaur | (i) Rupi Bhaba | | (b) Chamba | (ii) Sechu Tuan Nala | | (c) Mandi | (iii) Kibber | | (d) Lahaul and Spiti | (iv) Nargu | Choose the correct answer from the options given below : Code: (a) (b) (c) (d)
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Answer: (D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Explanation

Kinnaur matches with Rupi Bhaba Wildlife Sanctuary, which is situated in the Kinnaur district and is known for its diverse coniferous forests and alpine pastures.

Chamba matches with Sechu Tuan Nala Wildlife Sanctuary, located in the high-altitude Pangi sub-division of the Chamba district.

Mandi matches with Nargu Wildlife Sanctuary, which lies on the eastern side of the Uhl River in the Mandi district.

Lahaul and Spiti matches with Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary, which is a high-altitude cold desert sanctuary located in the Spiti valley.

Answer key

Tap a number to jump to that question.

  1. 1B
  2. 2C
  3. 3B
  4. 4B
  5. 5C
  6. 6B
  7. 7C
  8. 8B
  9. 9A
  10. 10A
  11. 11C
  12. 12C
  13. 13A
  14. 14C
  15. 15B
  16. 16B
  17. 17C
  18. 18C
  19. 19B
  20. 20B
  21. 21C
  22. 22A
  23. 23D
  24. 24B
  25. 25B
  26. 26A
  27. 27A
  28. 28A
  29. 29A
  30. 30B
  31. 31C
  32. 32D
  33. 33A
  34. 34B
  35. 35C
  36. 36C
  37. 37B
  38. 38D
  39. 39C
  40. 40B
  41. 41A
  42. 42A
  43. 43C
  44. 44C
  45. 45A
  46. 46A
  47. 47D
  48. 48B
  49. 49B
  50. 50A
  51. 51C
  52. 52C
  53. 53C
  54. 54C
  55. 55B
  56. 56C
  57. 57A
  58. 58C
  59. 59A
  60. 60C
  61. 61B
  62. 62A
  63. 63D
  64. 64A
  65. 65A
  66. 66B
  67. 67D
  68. 68A
  69. 69D
  70. 70B
  71. 71D
  72. 72C
  73. 73D
  74. 74C
  75. 75B
  76. 76A
  77. 77C
  78. 78A
  79. 79C
  80. 80D
  81. 81B
  82. 82A
  83. 83C
  84. 84D
  85. 85A
  86. 86D
  87. 87B
  88. 88D
  89. 89A
  90. 90B
  91. 91C
  92. 92B
  93. 93B
  94. 94B
  95. 95D
  96. 96D

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